IIFT 2009 Qs Paper

Question Booklet Serial No.
ADMISSION TEST FOR PROGRAMME 2010-12

Time: 2 Hours Marks: 100

ROLL NUMBER

NAME (in Capital Letters)

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write the Question Booklet Serial Number in the space provided in the Answer Sheet. Question Booklet
Serial Number is given at the top of this page.
2. Write your Roll No. clearly in the space provided in both the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
3. Mark your answers in the Answer Sheet only. The Answer Sheet alone will constitute the basis of evaluation.
4. All rough work must be done in the Question Booklet only.
5. Do not make any stray marks anywhere in the answer sheet.
6. Do not fold or wrinkle the answer sheet.
7. Use only HB Pencil to mark the answers in the answer sheet.
8. All questions have one correct answer. Every answer must be indicated clearly darkening one circle for
each answer. If you wish to change an answer, erase completely the already darkened circle, then make
a fresh mark. If you darken more than one circle your answer will be treated as wrong, as shown in the
example below:

WRONG METHOD RIGHT METHOD

9. Candidates are advised to spend time judiciously on different sections as there are sectional cut-off marks.
10. There is negative marking equivalent to 1/3
rd
of the mark allotted to the specific question for wrong answer.
11. The candidates are advised to read all options thoroughly.
12. No clarification of any sort regarding the question paper is permitted.

THE ENTIRE QUESTION PAPER IS DIVIDED INTO
THE FOLLOWING SECTIONS

SECTIONS PART NO. OF QUESTIONS MARKS PER QUESTION TOTAL MARKS
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) = (c) (d)
Section 1 34 (Questions 1 34) 1.0 34.00
Section 4 Part-1 15 (Questions 83 97) 1.0 15.00
Part-2 25 (Questions 98 122) 0.6 15.00
Total 122 100.00

PREVIOUS IIFT QUESTION PAPER
IIFT 2009
4
2 3
2 3 4
AglaSem Admission
Section I

Instructions for questions 1 6: Answer the questions
based on the following graphs

1. Which of the following year exhibited highest
percentage decrease over the preceding year in the
automobile production?
(1) 2005 (2) 2006
(3) 2007 (4) 2008

2. Assume whatever that is not sold domestically was
exported, then which year has registered highest
growth in exports of automobiles?

(1) 2005 (2) 2006
(3) 2007 (4) 2008

3. If the ratio of the domestic sale price of a commercial
vehicle, a passenger vehicle, and a three wheeler is
5 : 3 : 2 then what percent of earnings (approximately)
is contributed by commercial vehicle segment to the
overall earnings from domestic sales during the period
2004-2008?

(1) 45% (2) 43%
(3) 11% (4) 27%

4. For which year were the domestic sales of automobiles
closest to the average (2004-2008) domestic sales of
automobiles?

(1) 2005 (2) 2006
(3) 2007 (4) 2008

5. Which of the following years exhibited highest
percentage increase over the preceding year in the
automobile sales?

(1) 2005 (2) 2006
(3) 2007 (4) 2008

6. The ratio between absolute increase in domestic sales
over preceding year and absolute increase in
production over the preceding year is highest during
which year?

(1) 2005 (2) 2006
(3) 2007 (4) 2008

Instructions for questions 7 9: Answer the questions
based on the following information.

The table below gives the details of money allocation by
three Mutual funds namely, Alpha, Beta, and Gama. The
return for each fund depends on the money they allocate to
different sectors and the returns generated by the sectors.
The last column of the table gives return for each of the
sectors for a one year period.

300
450
600
750
900
1050
1200
1350
2004 2005 2006 2007 2008
N
u
m
b
e
r

i
n

0
0
0

Automobile Production Trends
Passengers Vehicles Commercial Vehicles
Three Wheelers
150
300
450
600
750
900
1050
1200
2004 2005 2006 2007 2008
N
u
m
b
e
r

i
n

0
0
0

Automobile Domestic Sales Trends
Passengers Vehicles Commercial Vehicles
Three Wheelers
AglaSem Admission
Sl. No Sectors
Money Allocation
Sectoral
Return
Alpha Beta Gama
1 Automobile 1.49 5.98 0.00 5%
2 Chemicals 3.01 2.01 5.00 12%
3 Communication 7.01 5.00 4.00 5%
4 Construction 1.51 0.00 6.01 15%
5 Diversified 7.48 6.99 9.50 11%
6 Energy 9.99 17.50 20.50 21%
7 Engineering 9.01 10.99 15.50 8%
8 Financial 25.98 24.00 17.01 6%
9 FMCG 14.50 2.00 2.00 25%
10 Health Care 5.98 0.00 3.00 18%
11 Metals 0.00 10.99 9.98 8%
12 Services 4.50 7.04 4.00 10%
13 Technology 5.51 7.50 3.50 2%
14 Textiles 4.03 0.00 0.00 17%

100.00 100.00 100.00

7. Which fund has received more return per rupee of
investment for one year period?

(1) Alpha (2) Beta
(3) Gama (4) Both Beta and Gama gives same return

8. If the allocation of money by the fund managers to
different sectors is based on the internal ranking (i.e.
Sector with 1
st
rank gets highest allocation). Sectors
with 0 allocation of money should be considered as
14
th
rank irrespective of the number of sectors in that
category. In the light of these examine the following
statements:

I. Automobile is ranked by both Alpha and Beta as
same
II. Financial is most favoured by all three Mutual Funds
III. Services is ranked by all three Mutual Funds within
top 9 ranks
Select the best option:

(1) Statement I and II are correct
(2) Statement I and III are correct
(3) Statement I alone is correct
(4) Statement III alone is correct

9. Ms. Hema invested Rs. 10.00 lakhs in fund Gama in the
beginning of the period. What will be the value of the
investment at the end of 1 year period?

(1) Approximately Rs. 10.40 lakhs

AglaSem Admission
Instructions for questions 10 14:
Answer the questions based on the following Table

Crops Area under production Quantity of Production

('000 Hectare) ('000 Tonne)

2006 2007 2008 2006 2007 2008
Cereals

Rice 107 108 110 153 170 190
Jowar 598 673 720 173 368 380
Bajra 4992 4890 4800 2172 3421 3350
Maize 1004 1020 1101 1102 1116 1182
Millets 16 16 15 5 4 4
Pulses

Moong 799 751 725 130 270 260
Urd 124 101 102 31 30 35
Moth 1228 1151 1199 149 191 250
Arhar(Tur) 20 19 19 13 9 9
Chaula 126 110 101 26 45 30
Other Pulses 5 5 5 2 3 2
Oil Seeds

Sesamum 422 273 280 63 89 70
Groundnut 317 302 298 491 396 374
Soyabean 744 641 650 856 771 799
Sunflower 472 350 325 880 751 699
Castor Seed 106 79 80 135 104 106
Note: Yield (or Productivity) is defined as quantity produced per hectare

10. What is the ratio between Jowar yield (2007) and Soyabean yield (2008)?

(1) 1.00 : 2.10 (2) 1.21 : 1.89
(3) 0.89 : 2.00 (4) 0.78 : 1. 61

11. Top 3 crops by yield in the year 2006 are:

(1) Castor Seed, Groundnut, Maize (2) Sunflower, Groundnut, Rice
(3) Castor Seed, Sunflower, Rice (4) Bajra, Maize, Castor Seed

12. Bottom 3 crops by yield in the year 2008 are:

(1) Moth, Sesamum, Millets (2) Moong, Moth, Millets
(3) Arhar, Urd, Moong (4) Moong, Sesamum, Chaula

13. Examine the following statements:

I. Total productivity of pulses has gone down over the years
II. Maize is the most stable cereal in terms of productivity over the years
III. Percentage growth in area and quantity of production is highest in the case of Jowar during the entrie period.


(1) Statement I and II are correct (2) Statement I and III are correct
(3) Statement II and III are correct (4) Statement III alone is correct

14. Examine the following statements:

I. Over the period total cereal productivity has gone up
II. Area, Production and yield of the total oil seeds is on decline
III. Though there is a decline in the area under Urd production but the quantity of production and yield has gone up over the
years.

(1) Statement I and III are correct (2) Statement I and II are correct
(3) Statement I alone is correct (4) Statement III alone is correct
AglaSem Admission
Study the following carefully and answer the questions.

Oil Sales by Type of Use and Production Loss (MT)

Oil Used
Oil
Production
Loss
Metro City
Suburban
Year
House
Hold
Transport Industrial
1996 10 700 1794 104 650
1997 16 920 1864 114 732
1998 22 1012 1732 104 834
1999 22 1054 1668 90 1102
2000 20 1092 1700 108 702
2001 22 1320 1752 168 492
2002 14 1854 1618 172 386
2003 6 2046 1270 178 444
2004 16 2118 1480 208 506
2005 4 2252 1132 230 1032
2006 4 2384 1228 210 1142
2007 8 2096 1672 254 1454
2008 0.2 2240 1646 266 1428
Note: Whatever is produced in a year is either used or lost in the production in the same year.

15. During which year the Oil used for House Hold as a percentage of Total Oil Used is highest?

(1) 1998 (2) 1999 (3) 2000 (4) 2001

16. During which year the Oil Production Loss as a proportion of Total Oil Produced is the lowest?

(1) 2002 (2) 2003 (3) 2004 (4) 2006

17. During which year use of oil by Suburban as a proportion of Total Oil Used was the highest?

(1) 2005 (2) 2006 (3) 2007 (4) 2008

18. For how many number of years the growth rate in Production of Oil is more than the growth rate in Total Oil Used?

(1) 3 years (2) 4 years (3) 5 years (4) 8 years

19. Which of the below statements are true, based on the data in the above table?

(1) Oil is used for Transport purpose by Metro City is increasing every since 1996.
(2) Oil is used for Industrial purpose by Metro City is increasing every since 1996.
(3) Oil used by Suburban is increasing every year since 2000.
(4) Total Oil Produced is increasing every year since 2003.

Instructions for questions 20 22: Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions.
Four houses Blue, Green, Red and Yellow are located in a
row in the given order. Each of the houses is occupied by a
person earning a fixed amount of a salary. The four persons
are Paul, Krishna, Laxman, and Som.
Read the following instruction carefully:

I. Paul lives between Som and Krishna
II. Laxman does not stay in Blue house
III. The person living in Red house earns more than that
of person living in Blue
IV. Salary of Som is more than that of Paul but lesser
than that of Krishna
V. One of the person earns Rs. 80, 000
VI. The person earning Rs. 110,000 is not Laxman
AglaSem Admission
VII. The salary difference between Laxman and Son is
Rs. 30,000
VIII. The House in which Krishna lives is located between
houses with persons earning salaries of Rs. 30,000
and Rs. 50,000
IX. Krishna does not live in Yellow house, and the
person living in yellow house is not earning lowest
salary among the four persons.

20. Who lives in Red house?

(1) Paul (2) Krishna
(3) Laxman (4) Som

21. Which house is occupied by person earning highest
salary?

(1) Blue (2) Green
(3) Red (4) Yellow

22. What is the salary earned by person living in Green
house?

(1) Rs. 30,000 (2) Rs. 50,000
(3) Rs. 80,000 (4) Rs.110,000

23. Mr Raghav went in his car to meet his friends John. He
Drove 30 kms towards north and then 40 kms towards
west. He then turned to south and covered 8 kms.
Further he turned to east and moved 26 kms. Finally he
turned right and drove 10 kms and then turned left to
travel 19 kms. How far and in which direction is he
from the starting point?

(1) East of starting point, 5 kms
(2) East of starting point, 13 kms
(3) North East of starting point, 13 kms
(4) North East of starting point, 5 kms

24. Mr. Raju took the members of his family for a picnic.
His fathers mother and mothers father including their
two children were in one car. His fathers son and
sisters husband, brothers wife were in second car. He
along with his wife, wifes sister, wifes brother and
sons wife with a kid was in the third car. How many
members of Mr. Rajus family were there in the picnic
along with Mr. Raju and how many were left behind
(assuming all members of the third generation are
married)?

(1) 13 and 4 (2) 14 and 5
(3) 12 and 5 (4) 13 and 6

25. ABCDE play a game of cards. A tells B that if B gives
him five cards A will have as many cards as E has.
However if A gives five cards to B then B will have as
many cards as D. A and B together has 20 cards more
than what D and E have together. B has four cards
more than what C has and total number of cards are
201. How many cards B have?
(1) 185 (2) 37
(3) 175 (4) 27

26. Ganesh Cultural Centre for promoting arts has
appointed 3 instructors for music, dance, and painting.
Music instructor takes session from 12 noon to
4:00 pm on Monday, Thursday and Sunday. The
sessions of dance instructor are scheduled on Tuesday,
Thursday, Wednesday and Sunday between 10:00 am
to 2:00 pm. The 9:00 am to 12:00 noon slot on
Tuesday, Friday and Thursday and also 2:00 pm to
4:00 pm slot on Wednesday, Saturday and Sunday is
filled up by Painting Instructor. On which day(s) of a
week the dance and painting sessions are
simultaneously held?

(1) Sunday and Wednesday (2) Tuesday and Friday
(3) Tuesday and Thursday (4) Only on Tuesday

AglaSem Admission
Instructions for questions 27 30: Study the information given below and answer the questions.
The following table contains the pre and post revision pay structure of a Government department:

Pre-revised Revised
Components Minimum Maximum Annual Increment Minimum Maximum Grade Pay
Pay Scale Rs. 8,000 Rs. 13,500 Rs. 275 Rs. 15,600 Rs. 39,100 Rs. 5,400

Rs. 12,000 Rs. 16,500 Rs. 375 Rs. 15,600 Rs. 39,100 Rs. 7,600

Rs. 16,400 Rs. 20,000 Rs. 450 Rs. 37,400 Rs. 67,000 Rs. 8,900

Rs. 18,400 Rs. 22,400 Rs. 500 Rs. 37,400 Rs. 67,000 Rs. 10,000
Dearness Allowance (DA) 78% 28%
House Rent Allowance(HRA) 30% of Basic pay 30% of Basic pay
Transport Allowance(TA) Rs. 800 Rs. 3,200+Rs. 3,200*DA

The revision has been done based on the following terms:
In pre-revised pay scale, the basic pay is the sum of the minimum pay in the appropriate pay scale and the admissible
increment. After revision, the basic pay is the sum of minimum pay in the appropriate pay scale and the respective grade pay
and the admissible increments.
Annual increment of 3% of the basic pay (on a compounded basic) is paid under the revised pay rules.
Monthly Dearness Allowance (DA) is calculated as percentage of basic pay.
In pre-revised pay scales, the increment was given after the completion of each year of service, but, after revision annual
increments are given only in the month of July every year and there should be a gap of six months between the increments.
The employees who had joined the department in the month of September, October, November and December are given an
increment at the time of revised pay fixation in September, 2008.
The revised pay is applicable from 1
st
September, 2008.

27. Abhijit joins the department on November 10, 2006 in the pay scale of Rs. 18,400-500-22,400 with the pay of Rs. 18,400 plus 2
increments. What is his basic salary, after revision, on August 1, 2009?

(1) Rs. 53,010 (2) Rs. 53,349 (3) Rs. 54,950 (4) Rs. 54,903

28. Nitin joined the department on November 24, 2004 in the pay scale of Rs. 8,000-275-13,500, at the minimum pay. At the time of
pay revision, due to some error, his pay was fixed at the base (minimum) of the corresponding revised pay scale. The loss in his
total emoluments for September 2008, due to this error, will be:

(1) Rs. 3,915 (2) Rs. 3,982 (3) Rs. 4,164 (4) No loss.

29. Sunitha joined the department at the basic pay of Rs. 13,500 in the pay scale of Rs. 12,000-16,500. On completion of her four years
of service in December, 2008, she was promoted to the next higher pay scale, the percentage increase in her gross salary is:

(1) 53% (2) 43% (3) 50% (4) 60%

30. Dinesh joined on July 1, 2008 in the pay scale of Rs. 16,400-20,000 at the basic pay of Rs. 16,850. On August 10, 2009, the
department revised the rates of DA to 31% with effect from January, 2009 and further to 36% effective from July 2009. How much
arrear will Dinesh get in August, 2009 because of these revisions?

(1) Rs. 12,981 (2) Rs. 10,395 (3) Rs. 17,052 (4) Rs. 13,302

Study the information given below and answer the questions.

A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it using a particular rule. The following is the illustration
and the steps of the arrangement
INPUT: Smile Nile Style Mile Shine Wine Mine Swine Bovine Feline
STEP 1: Smile Nile Style Mile Shine Wine Bovine Feline Mine Swine
STEP 2: Style Mile Smile Nile Shine Wine Bovine Feline Mine Swine
STEP 3: Style Mile Smile Nile Wine Shine Bovine Feline Mine Swine
STEP 4: Mile Style Nile Smile Wine Shine Feline Bovine Swine Mine
STEP 5: Nile Smile Mile Style Wine Shine Swine Mine Feline Bovine
STEP 6: Nile Smile Mile Style Wine Shine Feline Bovine Swine Mine
STEP 7: Mile Style Nile Smile Wine Shine Feline Bovine Swine Mine
AglaSem Admission
31. Which of the following will be step 14 for the given input:

(1) Style Mile Smile Nile Wine Shine Bovine Feline Mine Swine
(2) Smile Nile Style Mile Shine Wine Mine Swine Bovine Feline
(3) Mile Style Nile Smile Shine Wine Feline Bovine Swine Mine
(4) Style Mile Smile Nile Shine Wine Bovine Feline Mine Swine

32. Mark the arrangement that does not fall between step numbers 12 and 14.

(1) Style Mile Smile Nile Wine Shine Bovine Feline Mine Swine
(2) Mile Style Nile Smile Wine Shine Feline Bovine Swine Mine
(3) Style Mile Smile Nile Shine Wine Bovine Feline Mine Swine
(4) Smile Nile Style Mile Shine Wine Bovine Feline Mine Swine

33. If the arrangement is repeated which of the steps given below is same as the INPUT row?

(1) Step 9 (2) Step 11 (3) Step 20 (4)Step 14

Instructions for questions 34:
Study the information given below and answer the questions.

A Prime Minister is contemplating the expansion of his cabinet. There are four ministerial berths and there are eight probable
candidates (C1-C8) to choose from. The selection should be in a manner that each selected person shares a liking with at least one
of the other three selected members. Also, the selected must also hate at least one of the likings of any of the other three persons
selected.

I. C1 likes travelling and sightseeing, but hates river rafting.
II. C2 likes sightseeing and squash, but hates travelling.
III. C3 likes river rafting, but hates sightseeing.
IV. C4 likes trekking, but hates squash.
V. C5 likes squash, but hates sightseeing and trekking.
VI. C6 likes travelling, but hates sightseeing and trekking.
VII. C7 likes river rafting and trekking, but hates travelling.
VIII. C8 likes sightseeing and river rafting, but hates trekking.

34. Who are the four people selected by the Prime Minister?

(1) C1, C2, C5, C6 (2) C3, C4, C5, C6 (3) C1, C2, C4, C7 (4) None of the above

AglaSem Admission
Section II

35. Arcelor, acquired by Mittal steel, was formed by
merger of which of the following three steel
companies?

(1) Arcel, Arecalia and Usinor
(2) Arcel, Acer and Lucinor
(3) Arbed, Aceralia and Usinor
(4) None of the above

36. Select the correct author book match.

Author Book
a. Narayan Murthy i. Imagining India
b. Nandan Nilekani ii. Remaking India
c. Ratan Tata iii. A Better India A Better World
d. A P J Abdul Kalam
iv. A Vision For The New
Millennium

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (2) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

37. The company Fem Care Pharma Limited, the
manufacturer of Fem Bleach, was acquired by?

(1) Hindustan Unilever Limited
(2) Godrej Industries Limited
(3) Dr Reddys Laboratories
(4) Dabur India Limited

38. Which is the correct Stock Index - Country Match?

Stock Index Country
a. HANG SENG i. United States
b. NASDAQ ii. South Korea
c. FTSE iii. Hong Kong
d. KOSPI
iv. United
Kingdom

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii

39. Which is the correct Legal Act and Jurisdiction Match?

Act Jurisdiction
a. Companies Act
1956
i. Facilitating external
trade and payments
b. Competition Act
2002
ii. Formation and
regulation of
companies
c. SEBI Act 1992
iii. Prohibition of anti-
competitive
agreements
d. FEMA Act 1999
iv. Investors
protection

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-I (2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

40. Match the President, Country and Currency.

President Country Currency
a. Nicolas Sarkozy i. Russia 1. Rouble
b. Dmitry Medvedev ii. Uganda 2. Euro
c. Yoweri Museveni iii. Germany 3. Shilling
d. Horst Kohler iv. France 4. Dollar

(1) a-i-1, b-ii-2, c-iii-3, d-iv-4
(2) a-iii-2, b-i-1, c-ii-3, d-iv-4
(3) a-iv-2, b-i-1, c-ii-3, d-iii-2
(4) a-ii-2, b-i-1, c-iii-4, d-iv-4

41. The abbreviations given in the first column are
explained in the second column. Select the option
which has all wrong explanations of the abbreviations.

a. UNCTAD:
i. United Nations Conference on
Trade and Development
b. UNCED:
ii. UN Conference on Education
and Development
c. TAFTA:
iii. Trans-Atlantic Financial
Trade Agreement
d. FEMA:
iv. Foreign Exchange
Management Act
e. PFRDA:
v. Pension Fund Reporting and
Development Authority
f. NASSCOM:
vi. National Association of
Software and Services
Companies
g. MODVAT: vii. Modified Value Added Tax
h: FCNRA:
viii. Foreign Currency Non-
Resident Account
i. ASSOCHAM:
ix. Associated Chamber of
Commerce Trade and Industry

(1) b-ii, c-iii, e-v, i-ix (2) a-i, f-vi, h-viii
(3) b-ii, d-iv, g-vii (4) e-v, i-ix, h-viii

42. Who amongst the following was not nominated by the
Government of India on the board of Satyam
Computers Services?

(1) T N Manoharan
(2) Ketan Parekh
(3) Suryakant Balakrishnan Mainak
(4) Kiran Karnik

43. CDS which has been in news recently stands for?

(1) Collateral Default Swap
(2) Credit Demand Swap
(3) Credit Default Swap
(4) Collateral Demand Swap

AglaSem Admission
44. The table given below matches the company with its
auto brand. Choose the correct match.

Company Brand
a. Mahindra i. Land Rover
b. Tata ii. Jetta
c. Toyota iii. Lexus
d. Volkswagen iv. Xylo

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

45. The slogans in the table given below have been
matched with the company they relate to. Choose the
correct match.

Slogan Company
a. Lets make things better i. HP
b. Technology you can
trust
ii. Phillips
c. Sponsors of tomorrow iii. Microsoft
d. Your potential our
passion
iv. Intel

(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

46. In the financial year 2008-09, the top three investing
countries in terms of FDI inflows were:
(1) USA, UK, Mauritius (2) Mauritius, Singapore,
USA
(3) UK, Japan, Mauritius (4) Mauritius, USA, Japan

47. Negative inflation is also called:

(1) Disinflation (2) Deflation
(3) Both (4) None of the above

48. The co-founders of Google are:

(1) Sergey Brin & Eric Schmidt
(2) Larry Page & Eric Schmidt
(3) Sergey Brin & Larry Page
(4) Shirley M tilghman & Eric Schmidt

49. Which of the following Public Sector Units does not fall
in the category of Navratna PSUs:

(1) Steel authority of India (SAIL)
(2) Indian oil corporation (IOC)
(3) National Thermal Power corporation (NTPC)
(4) National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC)

50. Which one of the following statements does not relate
to the concept of carbon credits?

(1) For one tonne of carbon dioxide emission
reduction a company receives a carbon emission
certificate which can be traded like any other
commodity.
(2) The carbon emission certificates are sold to
companies in developed economies like power
utilities.
(3) Carbon credit certificates are traded under UN-
mandated international convention on climate
change.
(4) Developing economies are allowed to offset some
of their emissions from cars, factories and homes
by funding clean energy projects in developed
ones.

51. India signed the Kyoto Protocol in the year:

(1) 2000 (2) 1998 (3) 2002 (4) 1995

52. Match Column A with Column B.

Column A Column B
a. C K Pralhad i. Capability & equality
b. Paul Krugman
ii. Climate Change & Global
Warming
c. Al Gore
iii. International Trade And
Geography
d. Amartya Sen
iv. Core Competence Of The
Corporation

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d- iv (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

53. Match the women CEOs with the company.

CEO Company
a. Ms Shikha Sharma i. HSBC
b. Ms Naina Lal Kidwai ii. Axis bank
c. Ms Indra Nooyi
iii. Biocon
India
d. Ms Kiran Majumdar Shaw iv. Pepsico

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

54. Match the company and the place where it originates
from

Company Place of origin
a. Toyota i. Finland
b. Nokia ii. Japan
c. Volvo iii. South Korea
d. LG Electronics iv. Sweden

(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
AglaSem Admission
Section III

55. Fortuner, the latest SUV by Toyota Motors, consumes

when driven at the speed of x km per hour. If the cost
of diesel is Rs. 35 per litre and the driver is paid at the
rate of Rs. 125 per hour then find the approximate
optimal speed (in km per hour) of Fortuner that will
minimize the total cost of the round trip of 800 kms.

(1) 49 (2) 55 (3) 50 (4) 53

56. Two motorists Anil and Sunil are practicing with two
different sports cars: Ferrari and Maclarun, on the
circular racing track, for the car racing tournament to
be held next month. Both Anil and Sunil start from the
same point on the circular track. Anil completes one
round of the track in 1 minute and Sunil takes
2 minutes to compete a round. While Anil maintains
same speed for all the rounds, Sunil halves his speed
after the completion of each round. How many times
Anil and Sunil will meet between the 6
th
round and 9
th

round of Sunil (6
th
and 9
th
round is excluded)? Assume
that the speed of Sunil remains steady throughout each
round and changes only after the completion of that
round.

(1) 260 (2) 347
(3) 382 (4) None of the above

57. The sum of the series is:

(1) e
2
1 (2) loge2 1
(3) 2log102 1 (4) None of the above

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 16 (4) 12

59. A right circular cone is enveloping a right circular
cylinder such that the base of the cylinder rests on the
base of the cone. If the radius and the height of the
cone is 4 cm and 10 cm respectively, then the largest
possible curved surface area of the cylinder of radius r
is:

(1) 20r
2
(2) 5r(4 r)
(3) 5r(r 4) (4) 5r(2 r)

60. Radius of a spherical balloon, of radii 30 cm, increases
at the rate of 2 cm per second. Then its curved surface
area increases by:

(1) 120 (2) 480

61. Mohan was playing with a square cardboard of side 2
metres. While playing, he sliced off the corners of the
cardboard in such a manner that a figure having all its
sides equal was generated. The area of this eight sided
figure is:

62. Because of economic slowdown, a multinational
company curtailed some of the allowances of its
employees. Rashid, the marketing manager of the
company whose monthly salary has been reduced to
Rs.42000 is unable to cut down his expenditure. He
finds that there is a deficit of Rs.2000 between his
earnings and expenses in the first month. This deficit,
because of inflationary pressure, will keep on
increasing by Rs.500 every month. Rashid has a saving
of Rs.60000 which will be used to fill this deficit. After
his savings get exhausted, Rashid would start
borrowing from his friends. How soon will he start
borrowing?

(1) 10
th
month (2) 11
th
month
(3) 12
th
month (4) 13
th
month

63. The number of distinct terms in the expansion of
(X + Y + Z + W)
30
are:

(1) 4060 (2) 5456 (3) 27405 (4) 46376

64. A card is drawn at random from a well shuffled pack of
52 cards.
X: The card drawn is black or a king.
Y: The card drawn is a club or a heart or a jack.
Z: The card drawn is an ace or a diamond or a queen.
Then which of the following is correct?

(1) P(X) > P(Y) > P(Z) (2) P(X) P(Y) = P(Z)
(3) P(X) = P(Y) > P(Z) (4) P(X) = P(Y) = P(Z)

65. Let A1 be a square whose side is a metres. Circle C1
circumscribes the square A1 such that all its vertices
are on C1. Another square A2 circumscribes C1. Circle C2
circumscribes A2, and A3 circumscribes C2, and so on. If
DN is the area between the square AN and the circle CN,
where N is a natural number, then the ratio of the sum
of all DN to D1 is:

(3) Infinity (4) None of the above

AglaSem Admission
66. Mr. Raheja, the president of Alpha Ltd., a construction
company, is studying his companys chances of being
awarded a Rs. 1,000 crore bridge building contract in
Delhi. In this process, two events interest him. First,
Alphas major competitor Gamma Ltd, is trying to
import the latest bridge building technology from
Europe, which it hopes to get before the deadline of the
award of contact. Second, there are rumors that Delhi
Government is investigating all recent contractors and
Alpha Ltd is one of those contractors, while Gamma Ltd
is not one of those. If Gamma is able to import the
technology and there is no investigation by the
Government, then Alphas chance of getting contract is
0.67. If there is investigation and Gamma Ltd is unable
to import the technology in time, the Alphas chance is
0.72. If both events occur, then Alphas chance of
getting the contract is 0.58 and if none events occur, its
chances are 0.85. Raheja knows that the chance of
Gamma Ltd being able to complete the import of
technology before the award date is 0.80. How low
must the probability of investigation be, so that the
probability of the contract being awarded to Alpha Ltd
is atleast 0.65? (Assume that occurrence of
investigation and Gammas completion of import in
time is independent to each other.)

(1) 0.44 (2) 0.57 (3) 0.63 (4) 0.55

67. Aditya, Vedus and Yuvraj alone can do a job in
6 weeks, 9 weeks and 12 weeks respectively. They
work together for 2 weeks. Then Aditya leaves the
job. Vedus leaves the job a week earlier to the
completion of the work. The job would be completed
in:

(1) 4 weeks (2) 5 weeks
(3) 7 weeks (4) None of the above

68. In 2006, Raveendra was allotted 650 shares of Sun
Systems Ltd in the initial public offer, at the face value
of Rs. 10 per share. In 2007, Sun Systems declared the
bonus at the rate of 3 : 13. In 2008, the company again
declared the bonus at the rate of 2 : 4. In 2009, the
company declared a dividend of 12.5%. How much
dividend does Raveendra get in 2009 as a percentage
of his initial investment?

(1) 24.5% (2) 23.9% (3) 24.1% (4) 23%

Instructions for questions 69 and 70: Read the
following information carefully and answer the
questions
A warship and a submarine (completely submerged in
water) are moving horizontally in a straight line. The
Captain of the warship observers that the submarine makes
an angle of depression of 30, and the distance between
them from the point of observation is 50 km. After 30
minutes, the angle of depression becomes 60.

69. Find the distance between them after 30 min from the
initial point of reference.

70. If both are moving in same direction and the
submarine is ahead of the warship in both the
situations, then the speed of the warship, if the ratio of
the speed of warship to that of the submarine is 2 : 1,
is:

71. Kartiks mother asked him to get the vegetables, milk
and butter from the market and gave him the money
in the denomination of 1 Rupee, 2 Rupee and 5 Rupee
coins. Kartik first goes to the grocery shop to buy
vegetables. At the grocery shop he gives half of his 5
Rupee coins and in return receives the same number
of 1 Rupee coins. Next he goes to a dairy shop to buy
milk and butter and gives all 2 Rupee coins and in
return gets thirty 5 Rupee coins which increases the
number of 5 Rupee coins to 75% more than the
original number. If the number of 1 Rupee coins now
is 50, the number of 1 Rupee and 5 Rupee coins
originally were:

(1) 10, 60 (2) 10, 70
(3) 10, 80 (4) None of the above

72. Sukriti and Saloni are athletes. Sukriti covers a
distance of 1 km in 5 minutes and 50 seconds, while
Saloni covers the same distance in 6 minutes and 4
seconds. If both of them start together and run at
uniform speed, by what distance will Sukriti win a 5
km mini marathon:

(1) 150 m (2) 200 m (3) 175 m (4) 225 m

AglaSem Admission
73. Find the ratio of shaded area to unshaded area.

74. A cylindrical overhead tank is filled by two pumps
P1 and P2. P1 can fill the tank in 8 hours while P2 can
fill the tank in 12 hours. There is a pipe P3 which can
empty the tank in 8 hours. Both the pumps are
opened simultaneously. The supervisor of the tank,
before going out on a work, sets a timer to open P3
when the tank is half filled so that tank is exactly filled
up by the time he is back. Due to technical fault P3
opens when tank is one third filled. If the supervisor
comes back as per the plan what percent of the tank is
still empty?

(1) 25% tank (2) 12% tank
(3) 10% tank (4) None of the above

75. A ping pong ball is dropped from a 45 metres high
multi-storey building. The ball bounces back three
fifth of the distance each time before coming to rest.
The total distance traversed by the ball is:

(1) 150 m (2) 180 m
(3) 175 m (4) None of the above

76. A petrol tank at a filling station has a capacity of
400 litres. The attendant sells 40 litres of petrol from
the tank to one customer and then replenishes it with
kerosene oil. This process is repeated with six
customers. What quantity of pure petrol will the
seventh customer get when he purchases 40 litres of
petrol?

(1) 20.50 litres (2) 21.25 litres
(3) 24.75 litres (4) 22.40 litres

77. A doctor has decided to prescribe two new drugs
D1and D2 to 200 heart patients such that 50 get drug
D1, 50 get drug D2 and 100 get both. The 200 patients
are chosen so that each had 80% chance of having a
heart attack if given neither of the drugs. Drug D1
reduces the probability of a heart attack by 35 %,
while drug D2 reduces the probability by 20%. The
two drugs when taken together, work independently.
If a patient, selected randomly from the chosen
200 patients, has a heart attack then the probability
that the selected patient was given both the drug is:

(1) 0.42 (2) 0.49 (3) 0.56 (4) 0.40

78. Bennett distribution company, a subsidiary of a major
cosmetics manufacturer Bavlon, is forecasting the
zonal sales for the next year. Zone I with current
yearly sales of Rs. 193.8 lakh is expected to achieve a
sales growth of 7.25%; Zone II with current sales of
Rs. 79.3 lakh is expected to grow by 8.2%; and Zone
III with sales of Rs. 57.5 lakh is expected to increase
sales by 7.15%. What is the Bennetts expected sales
growth for the next year?

(1) 7.46% (2) 7.53% (3) 7.88% (4) 7.41%

79. M/s. Devi Radiograms, a shop which sells electronic
gadgets, marks its merchandise 35% above the
purchase price. Until four months ago, purchase price
of one Philips DVD player was Rs. 3,000. During the
last four months M/s. Devi Radiograms has received
four monthly consignments of Philips DVD player at
the purchase price of Rs. 2,750, Rs. 2,500, Rs. 2,400,
and Rs. 2250. The average rate of decrease in the
purchase price of DVD player during these four
months is:

(1) 7.51% (2) 8.20% (3) 6.94% (4) 7.03%

80. The coefficient of x
7
in the expansion of
(1 x
2
+ x
3
)(1 + x)
10
is:

(1) 75 (2) 78

81. An arc AB of a circle subtends an angle x radian at
centre O of the circle. If the area of the sector AOB is
equal to the square of the length of the arc AB, then x
is:

(1) 0.5 (2) 1.0
(3) 0.75 (4) None of the above

82. If there is threefold increase in all the sides of a cyclic
quadrilateral, then the percentage increase in its area
will be:

(1) 81% (2) 9%
(3) 900% (4) None of the above

AglaSem Admission

SECTION-IV (Part 1)

Instructions for questions 83-87:
Read carefully the four passages that follow and answer the
questions given at the end of each passage:

PASSAGE I
The most important task is revitalizing the institution of
independent directors. The independent directors of a
company should be faithful fiduciaries protecting, the long-
term interests of shareholders while ensuring fairness to
employees, investor, customer, regulators, the government of
the land and society. Unfortunately, very often, directors are
chosen based of friendship and, sadly, pliability. Today,
unfortunately, in the majority of cases, independence is only
true on paper.
The need of the hour is to strengthen the independence of the
board. We have to put in place stringent standards for the
independence of directors. The board should adopt global
standards for director-independence, and should disclose
how each independent director meets these standards. It is
desirable to have a comprehensive report showing the names
of the company employees of fellow board members who are
related to each director on the board. This report should
accompany the annual report of all listed companies.
Another important step is to regularly assess the board
members for performance. The assessment should focus on
issues like competence, preparation, participation and
contribution. Ideally, this evaluation should be performed by
a third party. Underperforming directors should be allowed
to leave at the end of their term in a gentle manner so that
they do not lose face. Rather than being the rubber stamp of a
companys management policies, the board should become a
true active partner of the management. For this, independent
directors should be trained in their in their in roles and
responsibilities. Independent directors should be trained on
the business model and risk model of the company, on the
governance practices, and the responsibilities of various
committees of the board of the company. The board members
should interact frequently with executives to understand
operational issues. As part of the board meeting agenda, the
independent directors should have a meeting among
themselves without the management being present.
The independent board members should periodically review
the performance of the companys CEO, the internal directors
and the senior management. This has to be based on clearly
defined objective criteria, and these criteria should be known
to the CEO and other executive directors well before the start
of the evolution period. Moreover, there should be a clearly
laid down procedure for communicating the boards review
to the CEO and his/her team of executive directors.
Managerial remuneration should be based on such reviews.
Additionally, senior management compensation should be
determined by the board in a manner that is fair to all
stakeholders. We have to look at three important criteria in
deciding managerial remuneration-fairness accountability
and transparency. Fairness of compensation is determined by
how employees and investors react to the compensation of
the CEO. Accountability is enhanced by splitting the total
compensation into a small fixed component and a large
variable component. In other words, the CEO, other executive
directors and the senior management should rise or fall with
the fortunes of the company. The variable component should
be linked to achieving the long-term objectives of the firm.
Senior management compensation should be reviewed by the
compensation committee of the board consisting of only the
independent directors. This should be approved by the
shareholders. It is important that no member of the internal
management has a say in the compensation of the CEO, the
internal board members or the senior management.
The SEBI regulations and the CII code of conduct have been
very helpful in enhancing the level of accountability of
independent directors. The independent directors should
decide voluntarily how they want to contribute to the
company. Their performance should decide voluntarily how
they want to contribute to the company. Their performance
should be appraised through a peer evaluation process.
Ideally, the compensation committee should decide on the
compensation of each independent director based on such a
performance appraisal.
Auditing is another major area that needs reforms for
effective corporate governance. An audit is the Independent
examination of financial transactions of any entity to provide
assurance to shareholder and other stakeholders that the
financial statements are free of material misstatement.
Auditors are qualified professionals appointed by the
shareholders to report on the reliability of financial
statements prepared by the management. Financial markets
look to the auditors report for an independent opinion on the
financial and risk situation of a company. We have to separate
such auditing form other services. For a truly independent
opinion, the auditing firm should not provide services that
are perceived to be materially in conflict with the role of the
auditor. These include investigations, consulting advice, sub
contraction of operational activities normally undertaken by
the management, due diligence on potential acquisitions or
investments, advice on deal structuring,
designing/implementing IT systems, bookkeeping, valuations
and executive recruitment. Any departure from this practice
should be approved by the audit committee in advance.
Further, information on any such exceptions must be
disclosed in the companys quarterly and annual reports.
To ensure the integrity of the audit team, it is desirable to
rotate auditor partners. The lead audit partner and the audit
partner responsible for reviewing a companys audit must be
rotated at least once every three to five years. This eliminates
the possibility of the lead auditor and the company
management getting into the kind of close, cozy relationship
that results in lower objectivity in audit opinions. Further, a
registered auditor should not audit a chief accounting office
was associated with the auditing firm. It is best that members
of the audit teams are prohibited from taking up employment
AglaSem Admission
in the audited corporations for at least a year after they have
stopped being members of the audit team.
A competent audit committee is essential to effectively
oversee the financial accounting and reporting process.
Hence, each member of the audit committee must be
financially literate, further, at least one member of the audit
committee, preferably the chairman, should be a financial
expert-a person who has an understanding of financial
statements and accounting rules, and has experience in
auditing. The audit committee should establish procedures
for the treatment of complaints received through anonymous
submission by employees and whistleblowers. These
complaints may be regarding questionable accounting or
auditing issues, any harassment to an employee or any
unethical practice in the company. The whistleblowers must
be protected.
Any related-party transaction should require prior approval
by the audit committee, the full board and the shareholders if
it is material. Related parties are those that are able to control
or exercise significant influence. These include; parent-
subsidiary relationships; entities under common control;
individuals who, through ownership, have significant
influence over the enterprise and close members of their
families; and dey management personnel.
Accounting standards provide a framework for preparation
and presentation of financial statements and assist auditors
in forming an opinion on the financial statements. However,
today, accounting standards are issued by bodies comprising
primarily of accountants. Therefore, accounting standards do
not always keep pace with changes in the business
environment. Hence, the accounting standards-setting body
should include members drawn from the industry, the
profession and regulatory bodies. This body should be
independently funded.
Currently, an independent oversight of the accounting
profession does not exist. Hence, an independent body should
be constituted to oversee the functioning of auditors for
Independence, the quality of audit and professional
competence. This body should comprise a "majority of non-
practicing accountants to ensure independent oversight. To
avoid any bias, the chairman of this body should not have
practiced as an accountant during the preceding five years.
Auditors of all public companies must register with this body.
It should enforce compliance with the laws by auditors and
should mandate that auditors must maintain audit working
papers for at least seven years.
To ensure the materiality of information, the CEO and CFO of
the company should certify annual and quarterly reports.
They should certify that the information in the reports fairly
presents the financial condition and results of operations of
the company, and that all material facts have been disclosed.
Further, CEOs and CFOs should certify that they have
established internal controls to ensure that all information
relating to the operations of the company is freely available to
the auditors and the audit committee. They should also
certify that they have evaluated the effectiveness of these
controls within ninety days prior to the report. False
certifications by the CEO and CFO should be subject to
significant criminal penalties (fines and imprisonment, if
willful and knowing). If a company is required to restate its
reports due to material non-compliance with the laws, the
CEO and CFO must face severe punishment including loss of
job and forfeiting bonuses or equity-based compensation
received during the twelve months following the filing.

83. The problem with the independent directors has been
that:
I. Their selection has been based upon their
compatibility with the company management
II. There has been lack of proper training and
development to improve their skill set
III. Their independent views have often come in conflict
with the views of company management. This has
hindered the companys decision-making process
IV. Stringent standards for independent directors have
been lacking

(1) I and II only (2) I, II, and III only
(3) II, II, and IV only (4) I, II and IV only

84. Which of the following, according to author, does not
have an impact on effective corporate governance?

i. Increased role and importance of independent
directors
ii. Increased compensation to independent directors
iii. Not hiring audit firms for other services
iv. Stringent monitoring and control of related party
transactions

85. To improve the quality and reliability of the information
reported in the financial statements:
I. Accounting standards should keep pace with the
dynamic business environment
II. There should be a body of internal auditors to
oversee the functioning of external auditors
III. Reports should be certified by key company officials
IV. Accounting standards should be set by a body
comprising of practicing accountants only and this
body should be funded from a corpus built up from
the contributions made by the companies

(1) I, and II (2) II, and III
(3) I, and III (4) I, III, and IV

86. Which of the following may not help in improving in the
accountability of management to the shareholders?

i. A third party assessment of the performance of
independent directors
ii. Rotation of audit partner
iii. Increasing the fixed component in the salary
structure of the management
iv. Laying down a proper procedure for handling
complaints regarding unethical practices
87. The author of the passage does not advocate:

i. Increased activism of independent directors
ii. Measures to improve the independence of auditors
iii. Framing the accounting standards in the light of
changing business conditions
AglaSem Admission
iv. Active intervention by the regulators in the day-to-
day functioning of the company

PASSAGE II
I suggest that the essential character of the Trade Cycle and,
especially, the regularity of time-sequence and of duration
which justifies us in calling it a cycle, is mainly due to the way
in which the marginal efficiency of capital fluctuates. The
Trade Cycle is best regarded, I think, as being occasioned by a
cyclical change in the marginal efficiency of capital, though
complicated and often aggravated by associated changes in
the other significant short period variables of the economic
system.
By a cyclical movement we mean that as the system
progresses in, e.g. the upward direction, the forces propelling
it upwards at first gather force and have a cumulative effect
on one another but gradually lose their strength until at a
certain point they tend to be replaced by forces operating in
the opposite direction; which in turn gather force for a time
and accentuate one another, until they too, having reached
their maximum development, wane and give place to their
opposite. We do not, however, merely mean by a cyclical
movement that upward and downward tendencies, once
started, do not persist for ever in the same direction but are
ultimately reversed. We mean also that there is some
recognizable degree of regularity in the time-sequence and
duration of the upward and downward movements. There is,
however, another characteristic of what we call the Trade
Cycle which our explanation must cover if it is to be adequate;
namely, the phenomenon of the crisis the fact that the
substitution of a downward for an upward tendency often
takes place suddenly and violently, whereas there is, as a rule,
no such sharp turning-point when an upward is substituted
for a downward tendency. Any fluctuation in investment not
offset by a corresponding change in the propensity to
consume will, of course, result in a fluctuation in
employment. Since, therefore, the volume of investment is
subject to highly complex influences, it is highly improbable
that all fluctuations either in investment itself or in the
marginal efficiency of capital will be of a cyclical character.
We have seen above that the marginal efficiency of capital
depends, not only on the existing abundance or scarcity of
capital-goods and the current cost of production of capital-
goods, but also on current expectations as to the future yield
of capital-goods. In the case of durable assets it is, therefore,
natural and reasonable that expectations of the future should
play a dominant part in determining the scale on which new
investment is deemed advisable. But, as we have seen, the
basis for such expectations is very precarious. Being based on
shifting and unreliable evidence, they are subject to sudden
and violent changes. Now, we have been accustomed in
explaining the crisis to lay stress on the rising tendency of
the rate of interest under the influence of the increased
demand for money both for trade and speculative purposes.
At times this factor may certainly play an aggravating and,
occasionally perhaps, an initiating part. But I suggest that a
more typical, and often the predominant, explanation of the
crisis is, not primarily a rise in the rate of interest, but a
sudden collapse in the marginal efficiency of capital. The later
stages of the boom are characterized by optimistic
expectations as to the future yield of capital goods sufficiently
strong to offset their growing abundance and their rising
costs of production and, probably, a rise in the rate of interest
also. It is of the nature of organized investment markets,
under the influence of purchasers largely ignorant of what
they are buying and of speculators who are more concerned
with forecasting the next shift of market sentiment than with
a reasonable estimate of the future yield of capital-assets,
that, when disillusion falls upon an over-optimistic and over-
bought market, it should fall with sudden and even
catastrophic force. Moreover, the dismay and uncertainty as
to the future which accompanies a collapse in the marginal
efficiency of capital naturally precipitates a sharp increase in
liquidity-preference and hence a rise in the rate of interest.
Thus the fact that a collapse in the marginal efficiency of
capital tends to be associated with a rise in the rate of interest
may seriously aggravate the decline in investment. But the
essence of the situation is to be found, nevertheless, in the
collapse in the marginal efficiency of capital, particularly in
the case of those types of capital which have been
contributing most to the previous phase of heavy new
investment. Liquidity preference, except those manifestations
of it which are associated with increasing trade and
speculation, does not increase until after the collapse in the
marginal efficiency of capital. It is this, indeed, which renders
the slump so intractable.

88. Which of the following does not describe the features of
cyclical movement?

i. There is a cyclical change in the marginal efficiency
of capital
ii. The movement once starts in upward or downward
direction does not get reversed
iii. The time pattern and the duration of economic
movements are recognizable
iv. It is caused by the economic force working in
opposite direction

89. Marginal efficiency of the capital does not depend on
which of following factors?

i. Demand and supply of capital goods
ii. Cost of production of capital goods
iii. Expectations regarding future return from capital
goods
iv. Availability of capital

90. Which of the following explains the phenomenon of
crisis?
I. A sudden collapse in the marginal efficiency of
capital
II. Increase in the rate of interest causing the decline in
investments
III. A sudden and violent substitution of upward
movement by a downward tendency
IV. Decline in the liquidity preference of the investors

(1) I & II (2) I, II, and III
(3) I, II, and IV (4) II, III, and IV
AglaSem Admission
PASSAGE III
The broad scientific understanding today is that our planet is
experiencing a warming trend over and above natural and
normal variations that is almost certainly due to human
activities associated with large-scale manufacturing. The
process began in the late 1700s with the Industrial
Revolution, when manual labor, horsepower, and water
power began to be replaced by or enhanced by machines.
This revolution, over time, shifted Britain, Europe, and
eventually North America from largely agricultural and
trading societies to manufacturing ones, relying on machinery
and engines rather than tools and animals.
The Industrial Revolution was at heart a revolution in the use
of energy and power. Its beginning is usually dated to the
advent of the steam engine, which was based on the
conversion of chemical energy in wood or coal to thermal
energy and then to mechanical work primarily the powering
of industrial machinery and steam locomotives. Coal
eventually supplanted wood because, pound for pound, coal
contains twice as much energy as wood (measured in BTUs,
or British thermal units, per pound) and because its use
helped to save what was left of the world's temperate forests.
Coal was used to produce heat that went directly into
industrial processes, including metallurgy, and to warm
buildings, as well as to power steam engines. When crude oil
came along in the mid- 1800s, still a couple of decades before
electricity, it was burned, in the form of kerosene, in lamps to
make light replacing whale oil. It was also used to provide
heat for buildings and in manufacturing processes, and as a
fuel for engines used in industry and propulsion.
In short, one can say that the main forms in which humans
need and use energy are for light, heat, mechanical work and
motive power, and electricity which can be used to provide
any of the other three, as well as to do things that none of
those three can do, such as electronic communications and
information processing. Since the Industrial Revolution, all
these energy functions have been powered primarily, but not
exclusively, by fossil fuels that emit carbon dioxide (CO2),
To put it another way, the Industrial Revolution gave a whole
new prominence to what Rochelle Lefkowitz, president of
Pro-Media Communications and an energy buff, calls "fuels
from hell" - coal, oil, and natural gas. All these fuels from hell
come from underground, are exhaustible, and emit CO2 and
other pollutants when they are burned for transportation,
heating, and industrial use. These fuels are in contrast to
what Lefkowitz calls "fuels from heaven" -wind,
hydroelectric, tidal, biomass, and solar power. These all come
from above ground, are endlessly renewable, and produce no
harmful emissions.
Meanwhile, industrialization promoted urbanization, and
urbanization eventually gave birth to suburbanization. This
trend, which was repeated across America, nurtured the
development of the American car culture, the building of a
national highway system, and a mushrooming of suburbs
around American cities, which rewove the fabric of American
life. Many other developed and developing countries followed
the American model, with all its upsides and downsides. The
result is that today we have suburbs and ribbons of highways
that run in, out, and around not only America s major cities,
but China's, India's, and South America's as well. And as these
urban areas attract more people, the sprawl extends in every
direction.
All the coal, oil, and natural gas inputs for this new economic
model seemed relatively cheap, relatively inexhaustible, and
relatively harmless-or at least relatively easy to clean up
afterward. So there wasn't much to stop the juggernaut of
more people and more development and more concrete and
more buildings and more cars and more coal, oil, and gas
needed to build and power them. Summing it all up, Andy
Karsner, the Department of Energy's assistant secretary for
energy efficiency and renewable energy, once said to me: "We
built a really inefficient environment with the greatest
efficiency ever known to man."
Beginning in the second half of the twentieth century, a
scientific understanding began to emerge that an excessive
accumulation of largely invisible pollutants-called
greenhouse gases - was affecting the climate. The buildup of
these greenhouse gases had been under way since the start of
the Industrial Revolution in a place we could not see and in a
form we could not touch or smell. These greenhouse gases,
primarily carbon dioxide emitted from human industrial,
residential, and transportation sources, were not piling up
along roadsides or in rivers, in cans or empty bottles, but,
rather, above our heads, in the earth's atmosphere. If the
earth's atmosphere was like a blanket that helped to regulate
the planet's temperature, the CO2 buildup was having the
effect of thickening that blanket and making the globe
warmer.
Those bags of CO2 from our cars float up and stay in the
atmosphere, along with bags of CO2 from power plants
burning coal, oil, and gas, and bags of CO2 released from the
burning and clearing of forests, which releases all the carbon
stored in trees, plants, and soil. In fact, many people don't
realize that deforestation in places like Indonesia and Brazil
is responsible for more CO2 than all the world's cars, trucks,
planes, ships, and trains combined - that is, about 20 percent
of all global emissions. And when we're not tossing bags of
carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, we're throwing up other
greenhouse gases, like methane (CH4) released from rice
farming, petroleum drilling, coal mining, animal defecation,
solid waste landfill sites, and yes, even from cattle belching.
Cattle belching? That's right-the striking thing about
greenhouse gases is the diversity of sources that emit them. A
herd of cattle belching can be worse than a highway full of
Hummers. Livestock gas is very high in methane, which, like
CO2, is colorless and odorless. And like CO2, methane is one of
those greenhouse gases that, once released into the
atmosphere, also absorb heat radiating from the earth's
surface. "Molecule for molecule, methane's heat-trapping
power in the atmosphere is twenty-one times stronger than
carbon dioxide, the most abundant greenhouse gas.."
reported Science World (January 21, 2002). With 1.3 billion
cows belching almost constantly around the world (100
million in the United States alone), it's no surprise that
methane released by livestock is one of the chief global
sources of the gas, according to the U.S. Environmental
Protection Agency ... 'It's part of their normal digestion
process,' says Tom Wirth of the EPA. 'When they chew their
AglaSem Admission
cud, they regurgitate [spit up] some food to rechew it, and all
this gas comes out.' The average cow expels 600 liters of
methane a day, climate researchers report."
What is the precise scientific relationship between these
expanded greenhouse gas emissions and global warming?
Experts at the Pew Center on Climate Change offer a handy
summary in their report "Climate Change 101. " Global
average temperatures, notes the Pew study, "have
experienced natural shifts throughout human history. For
example; the climate of the Northern Hemisphere varied from
a relatively warm period between the eleventh and fifteenth
centuries to a period of cooler temperatures between the
seventeenth century and the middle of the nineteenth
century. However, scientists studying the rapid rise in global
temperatures during the late twentieth century say that
natural variability cannot account for what is happening
now." The new factor is the human factor-our vastly
increased emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse
gases from the burning of fossil fuels such as coal and oil as
well as from deforestation, large-scale cattle-grazing,
agriculture, and industrialization.
Scientists refer to what has been happening in the earths
atmosphere over the past century as the enhanced
greenhouse effect, notes the Pew study. By pumping man-
made greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, humans are
altering the process by which naturally occurring greenhouse
gases, because of their unique molecular structure, trap the
suns heat near the earths surface before that heat radiates
back into space.
"The greenhouse effect keeps the earth warm and habitable;
without it, the earth's surface would be about 60 degrees
Fahrenheit colder on average. Since the average temperature
of the earth is about 45 degrees Fahrenheit, the natural
greenhouse effect is clearly a good thing. But the enhanced
greenhouse effect means even more of the sun's heat is
trapped, causing global temperatures to rise. Among the
many scientific studies providing clear evidence that an
enhanced greenhouse effect is under way was a 2005 report
from NASA's Goddard Institute for Space Studies. Using
satellites, data from buoys, and computer models to study the
earth's oceans, scientists concluded that more energy is being
absorbed from the sun than is emitted back to space,
throwing the earth's energy out of balance and warming the
globe."

91. Which of the following statements is correct?
(I) Greenhouse gases are responsible for global
warming. They should be eliminated to save the
planet
(II) CO2 is the most dangerous of the greenhouse gases.
Reduction in the release of CO2 would surely bring
down the temperature
(III) The greenhouse effect could be traced back to the
industrial revolution. But the current development
and the patterns of life have enhanced their
emissions
(IV) Deforestation has been one of the biggest factors
contributing to the emission of greenhouse gases
Choose the correct option:

(1) I and III (2) II and III
(3) II, III, and IV (4) III and IV

92. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

i. Natural and controlled greenhouse effect is good for
earth
ii. As a measure to check global warming, prevention
of destruction of forests needs to be given priority
over reduction in fuel emission
iii. Greenhouse gases trap the suns heat from radiating
back into the space making the earth surface
warmer
iv. It is for the first time in human evolution that the
global temperatures have started to witness a shift

93. Increasing warming of earth has been due to:
(I) Increased manual intervention in the manufacturing
process
(II) The fallout of mechanization of production
(III) Industrial revolution
(IV) Over reliance on non- replenishible energy sources
Choose the correct option:

(1)I, II, and IV (2) I, III and IV
(3) I, II, III, and IV (4) II, III, and IV

94. Which of the following according to the passage are the
features of fuels from heaven?
(I) Replenishability
(II) Storability
(III) Cost-effectiveness
(IV) Harmlessness

(1) I and II (2) II and III
(3) III, and IV (4)I and IV

PASSAGE IV
"All raw sugar comes to us this way. You see, it is about the
color of maple or brown sugar, but it is not nearly so pure, for
it has a great deal of dirt mixed with it when we first get it."
"Where does it come from?" inquired Bob.
"Largely from the plantations of Cuba and Porto Rico. Toward
the end of the year we also get raw sugar from Java, and by
the time this is refined and ready for the market the new crop
from the West Indies comes along. In addition to this we get
consignments from the Philippine Islands, the Hawaiian
Islands, South America, Formosa, and Egypt. I suppose it is
quite unnecessary to tell you young men anything of how the
cane is grown; of course you know all that."
"I don't believe we do, except in a general way," Bob admitted
honestly. "I am ashamed to be so green about a thing at which
Dad has been working for years. I don't know why I never
asked about it before. I guess I never was interested. I simply
took it for granted."
"That's the way with most of us," was the superintendent's
kindly answer. "We accept many things in the world without
actually knowing much about them, and it is not until
something brings our ignorance before us that we take the
pains to focus our attention and learn about them. So do not
be ashamed that you do not know about sugar raising; I didn't
AglaSem Admission
when I was your age. Suppose, then, I give you a little idea of
what happens before this raw sugar can come to us."
"I wish you would," exclaimed both boys in a breath.
"Probably in your school geographies you have seen pictures
of sugar-cane and know that it is a tall perennial not unlike
our Indian corn in appearance; it has broad, flat leaves that
sometimes measure as many as three feet in length, and often
the stalk itself is twenty feet high. This stalk is jointed like a
bamboo pole, the joints being about three inches apart near
the roots and increasing in distance the higher one gets from
the ground."
"How do they plant it?" Bob asked.
"It can be planted from seed, but this method takes much
time and patience; the usual way is to plant it from cuttings,
or slips. The first growth from these cuttings is called plant
cane; after these are taken off the roots send out ratoons or
shoots from which the crop of one or two years, and
sometimes longer, is taken. If the soil is not rich and moist
replanting is more frequently necessary and in places like
Louisiana, where there is annual frost, planting must be done
each year. When the cane is ripe it is cut and brought from the
field to a central sugar mill, where heavy iron rollers crush
from it all the juice. This liquid drips through into troughs
from which it is carried to evaporators where the water
portion of the sap is eliminated and the juice left; you would
be surprised if you were to see this liquid. It looks like
nothing so much as the soapy, bluish-gray dish-water that is
left in the pan after the dishes have been washed."
"A tempting picture!" Van exclaimed.
"I know it. Sugar isn't very attractive during its process of
preparation," agreed Mr. Hennessey. "The sweet liquid left
after the water has been extracted is then poured into
vacuum pans to be boiled until the crystals form in it, after
which it is put into whirling machines, called centrifugal
machines that separate the dry sugar from the syrup with
which it is mixed. This syrup is later boiled into molasses. The
sugar is then dried and packed in these burlap sacks such as
you see here, or in hogsheads, and shipped to refineries to be
cleansed and whitened."
"Isn't any of the sugar refined in the places where it grows?"
queried Bob.
"Practically none. Large refining plants are too expensive to
be erected everywhere; it therefore seems better that they
should be built in our large cities, where the shipping
facilities are good not only for receiving sugar in its raw state
but for distributing it after it has been refined and is ready for
sale. Here, too, machinery can more easily be bought and the
business handled with less difficulty."

95. Which one of the following is not a essential condition
for setting up sugar refining plants?

(1) Facilities for transportation of machinery
(2) Facilities for import of raw material
(3) Facilities for transportation of finished products
(4) Proximity to the raw material sources

96. Which of the following is the correct sequence of sugar
preparation process?

i. Cutting Crushing Evaporation Boiling
Whirling.
ii. Boiling Crushing Evaporation Whirling
Cutting.
iii. Cutting Boiling Evaporation Crushing
Whirling.
iv. Whirling Crushing Boiling Evaporation
Cutting.

97. Which of the following statements, as per the paragraph,
is incorrect?

i. Sugar in its raw from is brownish in colour due to
the presence of dirt
ii. After evaporation, cane juice looks bluish gray in
colour
iii. Molasses is obtained as a bye-product from the
process of sugar production
iv. Cane plantation and sugar production process is
widely and equally spread across the countries.

AglaSem Admission
SECTION IV (Part 2)

Instructions for questions 98 - 102: Each of the questions
presents a sentence, part of which is underlined. Beneath
the sentence you will find four ways of phrasing the
underlined part. Follow the requirements of standard
written English to choose your answer, paying attention to
grammar, word choice, and sentence construction. Select
the answer that produces the most effective sentence; your
answer should make the sentence clear, exact, and free of
grammatical error. It should also minimize awkwardness,
ambiguity, and redundancy.

98. When I first became brand manager, we were spending
most of our advertising budget to promote our
products in the winter. It had worked in North America
and Europe, where people caught colds mainly in that
season. Our monthly volume data suggested however
stubbornly we were shipping a lot of VapoRub between
July and September, the hot monsoon season.

i. Our monthly volume data suggested however that
stubbornly
ii. However, our monthly volume data stubbornly
suggested that
iii. However, our volume data suggested stubbornly
that monthly
iv. Stubbornly speaks our volume data on a monthly
basis, however that

99. The growth rate of companies in several sectors like
food, personal care, automobiles, banking and retail in
the developed world are flattening. These companies
for maintaining their growth rates and margins are
looking upon the emerging market in Asia and Latin
America.

i. These companies for maintaining their growth
rates and margins are looking upon the emerging
markets in Asia and Latin America.
ii. To maintain their growth rates and margins these
companies look at the emerging markets in Asia
and Latin America.
iii. The emerging markets of Asia and Latin America
are looked at by these companies to maintain their
growth rates and margins
iv. These companies are looking at the emerging
markets in Asia and Latin America for maintaining
their growth rates and margins.

100. People who do good work to the corporation wherever
they are whatever they do will be assets to the valued
corporation.

i. good work to the corporation wherever they are
whatever they do will be assets to the valued
corporation
ii. good work wherever they are, whatever they do
will be valued assets to the corporation
iii. whatever good they do the corporation, wherever
they are will be valued assets
iv. good to the corporation whatever work they do
wherever they are will be valued assets

101. From what landscapes or flowerbeds would future
painters draw their inspiration? Would move poets to
craft their symphonies, composers to contemplate the
meaning of God, and philosophers write their sonnets.

i. painters draw their inspiration? Would move
poets to craft their symphonies, composers to
contemplate the meaning of God, and
philosophers write their sonnets.
ii. painters draw their inspiration? Would move
poets to write their sonnets, composers to craft
their symphonies and philosophers to
contemplate the meaning of God
iii. philosophers draw their inspiration? Would move
poets to write their sonnets, composers to craft
their symphonies, and painters to contemplate the
meaning of God
iv. philosophers to contemplate the meaning of God?
Would move painters to draw their inspiration,
composers to write their sonnets, and poets to
craft their symphonies?

102. Car sales in the country rose at an annualized rate
of 7.8% in June, helped by a spate of new models and
falling borrowing costs bringing new buyers back.

i. spate of new models and falling borrowing costs
bringing new buyers back
ii. luring of new models and falling borrowing costs
bringing new buyers back
iii. bringing of new models back, spate in borrowing
costs, and falling new buyers
iv. bringing back the borrowing costs, falling in new
models, and spate in new models.

Instructions for question 103 107: Select the most
suitable synonym for the underlined word in the sentence.

103. The book did not get much acclaim because of its
pedantic style of writing.

(1) radical (2) dogmatic
(3) esoteric (4) applicative

104. The policy announcement was made to the much
chagrin of the farmers.

(1) euphoria (2) placation
(3) glee (4) mortification

105. The leader summoned the group and told that the time
has come to act and not genuflect.

(1) grovel (2) procrastinate
(3) renounce (4) incriminate

AglaSem Admission
106. The stentorian honks of the marching fleet could be
heard for miles.

(1) rhythmic
(2) euphonious
(3) blaring
(4) subdues

107. Noticing the behavior of the audience in the
amphitheater the performer was more bemused than
bitter.

(1) amused (2) bewildered
(3) enlightened (4) enthused

Instructions for questions 108- 112: Select the most
suitable antonym for the underlined word in the sentences.

108. The arguments put forth by the speaker were rather
specious, but somehow he got away with them.

(1) fallacious (2) unfeigned
(3) obscure (4) pernicious

109. The trends suggest that most of the new members got
themselves deregistered within 7 10 days of their
joining due to the exacting instructor.

(1) insouciant (2) discourteous
(3) grievous (4) fastidious

110. The congregation was awestruck at the sight of the
levitating saint.

(1) gravitating (2) enchanting
(3) captivating (4) vacillating

111. By the time she could realize the gravity of the
situation she found herself ensnared in the labyrinth of
accusations.

(1) seized (2) enmeshed
(3) intrigued (4) released

112. The sub-prime crisis has pushed millions of people in
the quagmire of financial indebtedness.

(1) predicament (2) swamp
(3) tranquility (4) impasse

Instructions for questions 113 116: Select the most
appropriate set of words from the given choices to fill in the
blanks.

113. The organization takes its cue from the person on the
top. I always told our business leaders their
personal____ determined their organizations ___.

(1) serendipity; faux pas
(2) predilection; despair
(3) intensity; success
(4) oddity; conformity

114. The Himalayas ran from east to west and cut off the
cold winds from the north. This allowed agriculture to
proper and _____ wealth, but it also _____ barbarian
invaders from the north.

(1) attracted; dissipated (2) created; attracted
(3) created; restricted (4) attracted; evicted

115. Our ______diversity may also be of some value. Because
we have always learned to live with pluralism, it is
possible that we may be better prepared to ______ the
diversity of global economy.

(1) stupefying; negotiate (2) plural; alleviate
(3) variegated; annihilate (4) dreary; exasperate

116. My inward petition was instantly______. First, a
delightful cold wave descended over my back and
under my feet, _________ all discomfort.

(1) acknowledged; banishing
(2) repudiated; infuriating
(3) acceded; exacerbating
(4) decimated; assuaging

Instructions for questions 117 122: A number of
sentences are given below which, when properly
sequenced, form a COHERENT PARAGRAPH. Choose the
most LOGICAL ORDER of sentence from the choices given to
construct a COHERENT PARAGRAPH.

117.
I. As a retention strategy, the company has issued
many schemes including ESOPs.
II. Given the track record and success of our
employees, other companies often look to us as
hunting ground for talent.
III. The growth of the Indian economy has led to an
increased requirement for talented managerial
personnel and we believe that the talented
manpower is our key strength.
IV. Further, in order to mitigate the risk we place
considerable emphasis on development of
leadership skills and on building employee
motivation.

(1) I, II, III, IV (2) II, I, IV, III
(3) II. I, IV (4) IV, I, III

118.
I. It reverberates throughout the entire Universe.
And you are transmitting that frequency with your
thoughts!
II. The frequency you transmit reaches beyond cities,
beyond cities, beyond countries beyond the world.
III. You are a human transmission tower, and you are
more powerful than any television tower created
on earth.
IV. Your transmission creates your life and it creates
the world.

AglaSem Admission
(1) IV, I, III, II (2) II, IV, III, I
(3)III, IV, II, I (4)I, II, III, IV

119.
I. Asian economies will need alternative sources of
growth to compensate for the rapid fall in demand
from the western markets.
II. But the crisis has exposed the limits of regions
dominant economic- growth model.
III. The export- led model that propelled many Asian
economies so effectively for the past 30 years
must be adapted to a different global economic
context.
IV. Asia is less exposed to the financial turmoil than
the west is, because Asian countries responded to
the previous decades regional crisis by improving
their current-account positions, accumulating
reserves, and ensuring that their banking systems
operated prudently.

(1) IV, II, I, III (2) I, II, III, IV
(3) III, I, II, IV (4) II, III, IV

120.
I. The dangers of conflicting irrational
majoritarianism with enlightened consensus are,
indeed, great in developing democracy.
II. Real democracy is about mediating the popular
will through a network of institutional structure
and the law of the land.
III. While law making and governance are meant to
articulate the latter, the judiciary is supposed to
protect the former from any kind of excess that
might occur, unwittingly or otherwise, in the
conduct of legislative and governmental functions.
IV. The principle of separation of powers is meant to
embody a desirable tension between individual
rights and social consensus.

(1) I, II, III, IV (2) II, I, III, IV
(3) IV, III, I, II (4) II, III, IV

121.
I. First may be necessary for immediate relief.
II. However, to cure the problem from the root the
treatment at the elemental level is a must.
III. Therefore synergy of modern medical science and
ancient Indian wisdom is in the interest of
humanity.
IV. Allopathic treatment is symptomatic while
Ayurveda treats at an elemental level.

(1) IV, II, I, III (2) IV, I, II, III
(3) IV, III, II (4) II, IV, III

122.
I. He somehow knew he would find what he was
looking for. So, with missionary zeal, he started to
climb.
II. So instead, for perhaps the first in his life he shed
the shackles of reason and placed his trust in his
intuition.
III. At first he thought about hiring a Sherpa guide to
aid him in his climb through the mountains, but,
for some strange reason, his instincts told him this
was one journey he would have to make alone.
IV. The next morning, as the first rays of the Indian
sun danced along the colorful horizon, Julian set
out his trek to the lost land of Savana.

(1) I, II, III, IV (2) I, III, II, IV
(3) III, IV, I, II (4) IV, III, II, I
AglaSem Admission
Answer Key

SECTION I

SECTION II

Q. Ans. Q. Ans.

Q. Ans. Q. Ans.

1 4 18 4

35 3 52 2

2 2 19 4

36 1 53 3

3 1 20 2

37 4 54 1

4 4 21 3

38 2

5 2 22 1

39 1

6 2 23 3

40 3

7 1 24 1

41 1

8 4 25

42 2

9 2 26 3

43 3

10 3 27 3

44 3

11 2 28
3

45 3

12 1 29
1, 3

46 2

13 3 30 1

47 2

14 1 31 3

48 3

15 2 32 4

49 4

16 1 33 3

50 4

17 4 34 3

51 3

SECTION III

SECTION IV
PART I
SECTION IV PART II

Q. Ans. Q. Ans.

Q. Ans.

Q. Ans. Q. Ans.
55 1 70 4

83 4

98 2 113 3
56 3 71 4

84 2

99 4 114 2
57 4 72 2

85 3

100 2 115 1
58 2 73 4

86 3

101 2 116 1
59 2 74 3

87 4

102 1 117 3
60 2 75 2

88 2

103 3 118 3
61 4 76 2

89 4

104 4 119 1
62 4 77 1

90 2

105 1 120 3
63 2 78 1

91 4

106 3 121 2
64 3 79 3

92 4

107 2 122 4
65 3 80
2

93 4

108 2
66 2 81
1

94 4

109 1
67 1 82 2

95 4

110 1
68 4

96 1

111 4
69 1

97 4

112 3

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Question Booklet Serial No.

ADMISSION TEST FOR PROGRAMME 2010-12

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