Agricultural 2600 Mcqs

Agricultural 2606 +MCQS
Table of Contents
Total
S.
Course Title Page No Number
No.
of MCQS
1. Agricultural (Agronomy) MCQs 1-60 296
Agricultural (Animal husbandry)

2. 61-87 154
MCQs
3. Agricultural (Economics) MCQs 88-130 218
4. Agricultural (Entomology) MCQs 131-169 243
Agricultural (Food Technology)

5. 170-201 190
MCQs
6. Agricultural (Horticulture) MCQs 202-251 314
Agricultural (Plant Breeding and

7. 252-324 388
Genetics) MCQs
Agricultural (Plant Pathology)

8. 325-336 69
MCQs
9. Agricultural (Soil Science) MCQs 337-417 447
Agricultural (Water Management)

10. 418-468 287
MCQs
Total MCQs 2606

Agricultural (Agronomy) MCQs
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1. When crop plants adopt to a new environment are
called___________________?
A. Accaumatization
B. Domestication
C. Selection
D. Introduction
2. The organisms which do not prepare their own food and
depend on the dead organisms are
called_____________________?
A. Saprophytes
B. Parasites
C. Obligatory parasites
D. Bacteria
3. Plants that can tolerate drought are_________________?
A. Xerophytes
B. Trunk plants
C. Hydrophytes
D. None of the above
4. The branch of Science which deals cultivation of land is
called________________?
A. Geology
B. Agriculture
C. Horticulture
D. Petrology
5. Botanical name of American cotton is_________________?
A. G. hirsutum
B. G. arborium
C. G. barb dense
D. Non of these
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6. Gassypium arborium is__________________?
A. Tetraploid
B. Diploid
C. Triploid
D. Haploid
7. Gassypium herbaceum was originated in______________?
A. Ethipia and South Africa
B. Kenya and South Africa
C. Indonesia and Central America
D. South Mexico and Central America
8. Gassypium hirsutum was developed from a cross
between________________?
A. G.arbarieum and G. rainmundii
B. G.arbarieum and G.thurberii
C. G.arbarieum and G.barbadense
D. G.arbarieum and G.herbaceum
9. In China, cotton was cultivated as a crop in._______________?
A. 7th century AD
B. 4th century AD
C. 10th century AD
D. 5th century AD
10. Cotton ginning machine was invented by_______________?
A. William Black
B. Withey
C. Thomas Hough ten
D. Thomas Wilson
11. Among the cotton exporting countries the number of
Pakistan is_______________?

A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
12. On the basis of yield of cotton per hectare which of the
following country occupies first position ?
A. Pakistan
B. America
C. Australia
D. India
13. On the basis of cotton cultivated area which on of the
following countries occupies first position ?
A. Pakistan
B. India
C. America
D. China
14. In 1991-92 the record production of cotton in Pakistan
was_______________?
A. 12800,000 bales
B. 1200,000 bales
C. 1000,000 bales
D. 1100,000 bales
15. CLCV stands for__________________?
A. Cotton leaf cover virus
B. cotton leaf curl virus
C. cotton leaf cotton virus
D. cotton leaf complete virus
16. Cotton plant belong to one of the following
categories______________?

A. C4 plant
B. CAM plant
C. C3 plant
D.non of these
17. Cotton plant has a mode of germination______________?
A. Hypogeal germination
B. Epigeal germination
C. Both of the above
D. non of these
18. Cotton is a crop of_______________?
A. Tropical region
B. Sub-tropical region
C. Both A and B
19. Bacillus thuringensis season cotton is a________________?
A. Virus
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. non of these
20. Optimum pH for cotton plant lies between______________?
A. 5.2 to 9.0
B. 5.2 to 7.0
C. 3.5 to 5.5
D. non of these
21. The unproductive branches of cotton are
called_________________?
A. Sympodial branches
B. Monopodial branches
C. Vegetative branches
22. Seed rat of American cotton per acre is__________________?

A. 10-12 kg
B. 6-8 kg
C. 15-18 kg
D. non of these
23. Recommended method for cotton sowing
is________________?
A. Broad cast method
B. Drill method
C. Ridge sowing method
D. non of these
24. Best time of sowing for cotton is______________?
A. Mid March to mid April
B. Mid May to mid July
C. Mid June to mid July
D. non of these
25. Number of irrigation required for cotton crop
are______________?
A. 5 irrigations
B. 6 irrigations
C. 8 irrigations
26. An example of monocot fiber yielding plant
is_________________?
A. Cocos
B. Clemates
C. Corchorus
D. Crotalaria
27. Major source of sugar in world is_________________?
A. Dates
B. Beet root

C. Water melon
D. Sugarcane
28. The depth of water required by crops during the base
period is called_____________________?
A. Frequency of water
B. Acre inch
C. Duty of water
D. Delta of water
29. The heating of atmosphere by gases that are
transparent to sun light but opaque to radiated heat is
called________________?
A. Green house effect
B. Pollution
C. Warming
D. Solar radiation
30. The total dry matter produced by a plant as a result of
photosynthesis is called_________________?
A. Biological yield
B. Harvest index
C. Dry matter
D. Crop growth
31. The application of fertilizer nutrients in proportions
best suited to the needs of the crop is
called_________________?
A. fertilizer placement
B. fertilizer use efficiency
C. Nitrogen use efficiency
D. Balanced fertilization

32. Soil water in excess of hygroscopic and capillary water
which moves downward through the soil by the force of
gravity is called______________?
A. Capillary water
B. sub-surface water
C. Gravitational water
D. Run off water
33. Weedicides that kill the foliage of weeds by direct
contact are as________________?
A. Trifluration
B. Paraquet
C. Bromoxy nil
D. Loxynil
34. The living together of two or more species in a
prolonged and intimate ecological relationship is
called________________?
A. Symbiosis
B. Biosystem
C. Auto environment
D. Climate
35. Pulling of off- type plants from a cropped field is
called___________________?
A. Rouging
B. Weeding
C. Pruning
36. The ratio of actual cultivated area to a total farm area
over a year is called__________________?

A. Cropping pattern
B. Cropping intensity
C. Cost-benefit ratio
37. The wearing away of the land surface by wind, water, ice
or other geological agent is called__________________?
A. Seepage
B. Soil conservation
C. Erosion
D. fertility depletion
38. The harmful influence of one living plant on another
living plant by the secretion of a toxic substance is
called________________?
A. Allergy
B. Allelopathy
C. Parasitism
D. Antagorusm
39. Which one of the following constitute the best
defamation of fruit________________?
A. A fruit is a product of flower
B. A fruit is a product of ovary
C. A fruit is a mature ovary that contain seed
D. A fruit is post-fertilization product of the pistil
40. Barani Agriculture institute is located at _________________?
A. Peshawar
B. Islamabad
C. Rawalpindi
D. Chakwal
41. Certification is not required for________________?

A. Nucleus seed
B. Breeder seed
C. Foundation seed
D. Certified seed
42. Seeds which dried at low moisture contents and stored
at low temperature without loosing their viability
are________________?
A. Recalcitrant seeds
B. Active seeds
C. Orthodox seeds
D. Certified seeds
43. Prescribed germination percentage of foundation seed
of ground nut is_________________?
A. 70
B. 20
C. 85
D. 90
44. Indus river is one of the longest river of Asia measuring
about_____________________?
A. 3000 Km
B. 2500 Km
C. 2900 Km
D. 3200 Km
45. Main reason behind the shedding of flower in cotton
is__________________?
A. Low temperature
B. High temperature
C. Humidity
D. Cloudy day

46. Root rot of cotton is a_________________?
A. Bacterial disease
B. Viral disease
C. Fungal disease
47. Raising of only one crop in a year, when there is
seasonal supply of water is called______________?
A. Monocropping
B. Monoculture
C. Specialized farming
D. Intensive cropping
48. Effects of allelopathic compound in the life cycle of
plants cause inhibition of________________?
A. Seed deterioration
B. seed germination
C. Seed swelling
D. non of these
49. Annual rye grass releases a chemical through its root
that prevents________________?
A. Crop seeds
B. weed seed
C. Both a and b
D. non of these
50. Allelopathy is an important component in the
development of future integrated strategies
for____________?
A. Soil management
B. Weed management
C. Water management
D. non of these

51. Allclopatluc interactions in general and the
allelochemicals in particular are viewed as an
important tool for_______________?
A. Pest and insect management
B. Disease and pest management
C. Weed and pest management
D. non of these
52. Plants which grow on dry region are____________________?
A. Xerophytes
B. Thermophytes
C. Hydrophytes
D. Haplophytes
53. Crop rotation means growing_________________?
A. Same craps
B. Growing green manures
C. Growing different crops
D. Growing fodder crops
54. Critical factors for crop production is________________?
A. Land
B. Water
C. Pure seed
D. fertilizer
55. One hectare is equal to___________________?
A. 3.47 acre
B. 2.471 acre
C. 1.71 acre
D. 1.9 acre
56. The climates of sindh province comes
under__________________?

A. tropical
B. Temperature
C. Sub tropical
D. all
57. The soil has got______________?
A. Six horizons
B. Five horizons
C. Seven horizons
D. Two horizons
58. The management of kind by planting a series of crops,
pastures or following to maximize production with
sustaining land quality is called_______________?
A. Crop rotation
B. Crop sequence
C. Cropping system
D. Crop management
59. Crop ideotype refers to________________?
A. Model plant type
B. Good plant type
C. Ideal plant type
D. All the above
60. The experimental design which control fertility level in
two directions is known as________________?
A. RBD
B. SPD
C. AD
D. LSD
61. Drought is measuring in terms of________________?

A. Yield performance
B. Photosynthesis
C. Root length of seeding
D. All the above
62. Soil reaction of preference of sugarcane is________________?
A. 6.00 pH
B. 7.03 pH
C. 8.00 pH
D. 6.5 pH
63. There has been emphasis on the conservation of wild
relatives of cultivated plants because wild
plants________________?
A. Grow better then cultivated plants
B. Serve, as valuable fodder plants
C. Needed to understand the origin of cu;cultivated plants
D. Carrying many useful genes which are lost in
cultivated plants
64. The process of converting food nutrients to
carbohydrates in plants is called________________?
A. Metabolism
B. Photosynthesis
C. Absorption
D. Assimilation
65. Plants which change from the vegetative to the
reproductive stage by producing flowers and fruits
when the day become longer is called________________?
A. Long day plants
B. Short day plants
C. Photoperiod
D. Phototropism

66. The cotton plant sheds more fruits mainly due
to_________________?
A. More number of irrigations
B. Higher temperature
C. Higher dose of fertilizer
D. Insects and pest
67. Dwarf varieties of wheat are more resistance
to_______________?
A. Disease
B. Insect pest
C. Lodging
D. Viruses
68. Yield losses of rice crop due to weed infestation
are___________________?
A. 10-20%
B. 5-15%
C. 20-50%
D. 20-60%
69. Wheat is predominantly________________?
A. Self pollinated crop
B. Often cross pollinated crop
C. Cross pollinated crop
D. Apomictie crop
70. Growing more then one crop in a season in the same
land is called________________?
A. Monocropping
B. Double cropping
C. Intensive cropping
D. Intercropping

71. A condition of green plants in which they become
unhealthy and pale fellow in colour is known
as_________________?
A. Chromoplast
B. Leucoplast
C. Chlorosis
D. Chromoplast
72. The crop which are cultivated for grain purposes are
called_________________?
A. Fodder crops
B. Cereal crops
C. Fiber crops
D. Leguminous crops
73. The best soil for cotton cultivation is_________________?
A. Sandy soil
B. Loamy soil
C. Silty soil
D. Clay loam soil
74. The herb plants have___________________?
A. Woody stem
B. Non-woody stem
C. Trunk
D. All the above
75. Water courses are lined to avoid_________________?
A. Transpiration
B. Evaporation
C. Seepage
D. Erosion
76. Progeny of nucleus seed is called_________________?

A. Basic seed
B. Breeder seed
C. Foundation seed
D. All the above
77. Use of tetrazolium staining for assessment of seed
quality was suggested by________________?
A. Woodstock (1973)
B. Moore (1973)
C. Maguire (1962)
D. Germ (1950)
78. A method of control of pests in which natural predators
and parasites are used without causing serious adverse
environmental side effects is called_________________?
A. IPM
B. Allelopathy
C. Insect control
D. Chemical control
79. The transport of a substance across a biological
membrane against a concentration gradient is
called___________________?
A. Passive transport
B. Active transport
C. Absorption
D. Dissolution
80. Number of crops grown on the same piece of land in a
year and expressed in percentage is known
as_______________?
A. Cropping pattern
B. Cropping index

C. Crop rotation
D. Cropping intensity
81. In Pakistan, the total length of canal system
exceeds________________?
A. 59000 Km
B. 52000 Km
C. 58000 Km
D. 60000 Km
82. In Pakistan the area effected due to water erosion is
about_________________?
A. 12 million to
B. 13.05 million lia
C. 22 million ha
D. 15 million lva
83. The K is predominantly in______________?
A. Leaves
B. Straw
C. Grain
D. All the above
84. Low soil pH is the indication of_______________?
A. High Mg and Ca
B. High N and S
C. Low N and Ca
D. Moderate Mg and Ca
85. N mineralization is effected by soil pH_______________?
A. Below 6
B. Above 6
C. Above 10

86. In wheat total crop P uptake per ton of gram is
about;__________________?
A. 5-20 Kg
B. 2-3Kg
C. 5-7 Kg
D. 20-25 Kg
87. 2,4-d is synthetic herbicide derived from_______________?
A. Amino acid
B. Valine
C. Auxins
D. Cytokmins
88. Penetrometer are used for measuring__________________?
A. Soil tilth depth
B. Soil moisture
C. Soil compaction
D. Soil seepage
89. Excess of nitrogen to plants causes_________________?
A. Delay in ripening
B. Delay in growth
C. Delay in germination
D. All the above
90. Root nodules in plants help in___________________?
A. Photosynthesis
B. aeration
C. Nitrogen fixation
D. Respiration
91. Green revolution came into being due to evolution
of_________________?

A. Wheat varieties
B. Sugarcane varieties
C. Cotton varieties
D. All the above
92. The major source of foreign exchange earning
is________________?
A. Wheat
B. Sugarcane
C. Cotton
D. Jute
93. The enzyme responsible for biological nitrogen fixation
is________________?
A. Lipase
B. Nitrogenase
C. Isomerase
D. Kinease
94. The equipment used for separating, cleaning and
grading small seeds from given sample is______________?
A. Seed blower
B. Seed sorter
C. Seed divider
D. a and b
95. Geographical area of Pakistan in million hectare
is_______________?
A. 60
B. 80
C. 95
D. none of the above

96. Removal of cellular water followed by shrinkage of
protoplasm is due to
A. Oxidation
B. Deplasmolysis
C. Osmosis
D. Plasmolysis
97. Accumulation of transported material A to B horizon is
known as____________________?
A. Eluviation
B. llluviation
C. Alluviation
D. Deposition
98. The ratio of actual cultivated’ area to a total farm area
over the year is called __________________?
A. Cropping pattern
B. Cropping intensity
C. Cost benefit ratio
D. Cropping system
99. Plants grown in dry region are_________________?
A. Xerophytes
B. Thermophyts
C. Mesophytes
D. Halophytes
100. Solar energy emitted by sun reaches the earth surface
absorbed and returned back in the form
of___________________?
A. Infra blue radiation
B. Infra red radiation

C. X rays
101. Green vegetables are the source of___________________?
A. Biotin
B. Carbohydrates
C. Folate
D. Vitamin
102. A gas produced by anaerobic decomposition of organic
compounds is called as_________________?
A. Ethane
B. Methane
C. Ammonia
D. CO2
103. Fumigating and warming soil by covering it with black
plastic is called__________________?
A. Mulching
B. Fumigation
C. Soil solarization
104. Simple plains that lack photosynthesis pigments are
called as_________________?
A. Fungi
B. Bacteria
C. Virus
105. Organisms which feeds on dead and decaying organisms
are called as_________________?
A. Saprophytes
B. Halophytes

C. Xerophytes
D. All the above
106. The Indus basin irrigation system has__________________?
A. 11 Barrages
B. 19 Barrages
C. 25 Barrages
D. 41 Barrages
107. Field capacity and permanent wilting point are different
indifferent_______________?
A. Crops
B. Soils
C. Seasons
D. Regions
108. Losses of soil moisture vapour form is called
as_________________?
A. Evaporation
B. Transpiration
C. Translocation
D. Both A and B
109. The actual amount H2O present in the air is
called_____________?
A. Relative humidity
B. Absolute humidity
C. Both A and B
D. non of these
110. The crops which are grown to reduce the soil erosion
and natural losses by leaching is known as______________?
A. Companion crops
B. Cover crops

C. Mixed crops
D. Ratooning crops
111. Sugar beet belongs to family ?
A. Poaceae
B. Cucurbitaceae
C. Chenopodiaceae
D. non of these
112. PASSCO stands for_______________?
A. Pakistan Agriculture Sugar Supplies Corporation
B. Pakistan Agriculture Seed Supplies Corporation
C. Pakistan Agriculture Service Supplies Corporation
D. non of these
113. When the course of water is blocked at some places if is
called___________________?
A. Lake
B. Dam
C. River
D. Head works
114. Which province the only source of income is livestock
grazing in range lands_______________?
A. Punjab
B. NWFP
C. Balochistan
D. Sindhi
115. Hot with a cool winter is___________________?
A. Temperature
B. Arid
C. Subtropical

116. A long severe winter and short summer is
called_________________?
A. Arctic
B. Sub-temperature
C. Semiarid
D. Semi arctic
117. AZR1 is___________________?
A. Arid zone research institute
B. Agriculture zonal research institute
C. Attock Zonal research institute
118. In Raygistan area which districts of Sindh are
included______________?
A. Karachi
B. Hyderabad and N.Shah
C. Sukkar and. Khairpur
119. What is catchment____________________?
A. An area which drains in to pond
B. An area of woody plantation
C. Ail area of waterlogged condition
120. The environment where an organism lives
is__________________?
A. Habitat
B. Logging
C. Girding

121. The plants which grown on stream bank
are__________________?
A. Pheritophytes
B. Bryophytes
C. Xerophytes
122. A region with an annual rain fall of less than 10 inches
comes under_________________?
A. Arid climate
B. Semi arid climate
C. Wet climate
D. Temperature
123. The role of boron and zinc has been recognized in
crop_________________?
A. Mustard
B. Sugarcane
C. Rice
D. None of these
124. In fanning system cultivation of two or more crops is
known as_______________?
A. Sequential cropping
B. Strip cropping
C. Multiple cropping
D. All the above
125. In pulses, for the production of nucleus seed we require
minimum of_________________?
A. 300 plant progenies
B. 400 plant progenies

C. 500 plant progenies
D. 200 plant progenies
126. Breeders seed production is taken up from the nucleus
seed B and A lines are pollinated in an isolation of 1 Km
in a ratio of_________________?
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 1:4
D. 1:5
127. Who described. the use of letrazolium for assessing,
seed quality and the basis of topographical
patterns___________________?
A. Moore (1973)
B. Burries etc (1969)
C. Maguare (1962)
D. Kotowski (1926)
128. Who showed a positive correlation between tetrazolium
staining with seed quality in soybean seeds ?
A. Maguire (1963)
B. Barries ei al. (1969)
C. Moore (1973)
D. Woodstock (1976)
129. Who gave the formula for mean germination time?
A. Nicolls &Heydecker (1968)
B. Kotowski (1962)
C. Baskin (1972)
D. Maguire (1962)
130. Who gave the formula for coefficient of velocity of
germination ?

A. Kotowski (1926)
B. Germ (1949)
C. Deloucle & Baskin (1972)
D. Moore (1973)
131. genetic purity of seed is determined by________________?
A. Ageing test
B. Grow out test
C. Tz test
D. All the above
132. The seed dormancy of rice seed can be broken by
putting into the oven at____________________?
A. 50°c for 5 hrs
B. 53°c for 6 hrs
C. 45°c for 6 hrs
133. High density grains are found mostly at___________________?
A. Top of panicle
B. Middle of panicle
C. Bottom of panicle
D. All the above
134. Better crop establishment especially for direct seeded
rice can be obtained by using________________?
A. High density grain
B. Low density grain
C. Both a & b
135. The higher leachate conductivity is associated
with__________________?

A. Mature seeds
B. Immature seed?
C. Abnormal seeds
D. All the above
136. Vigor index of seedings in rice can be determined
on___________________?
A. Quantitative basis
B. Qualitative basis
C. Both a & b
137. Electrolytes leakage is defendant on_________________?
A. Condition of cell membrane
B. Cracking of seed test
C. Both a & b
138. Azolla which fixes nitrogen in rice field
is__________________?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Ferm
139. The CO, content of air is___________________?
A. 1%
B. 10.3%
C. 0.03%
D. 0.002%
140. Sowing seed without any tillage in the soil is
called__________________?

A. Minimum tillage
B. Zero tillage
C. Secondary tillage
141. Fertilizer application before seed sowing is
called__________________?
A. Top dressing
B. Broadcasting
C. Basal application
D. Drilling
142. Zinc deficiency is generally observed in_________________?
A. Wheat
B. Vegetables
C. Race
D. Cotton
143. Mutual association between fungi and roots of plants is
known as_________________?
A. Rhizospher
B. Mycorrhizae
C. Root fungi
144. Plants adopted to arid regions are___________________?
A. Mesophytes
B. Hydrophytes
C. Xerophytes
D. Aridic plants
145. The plants which, grow neither in dry nor in wet
condition are_______________________?

A. Xerophytes
B. Amphibiophytes
C. Mesophytes
D. Hydrophytes
146. The soil are contains__________________?
A. Less oxygen as compared 10 atmosphere
B. More carbon dioxide as compared to atmosphere
C. Both a & b
147. The vegetation found on high altitude mountain
is__________________?
A. Alpine vegetation
B. Tundra vegetation
C. Conferous vegetation
148. A nutrient element is said to be essential
if___________________?
A. Plants can not complete their life cycle in absence of
that element
B. Nutrients has some physiological function in metabolism
of plant
C. Deficiency symptoms can be removed by application of
that putrid
D. All the above
149. Organic farming, is a copping system in
which__________________?
A. Fertilizers and pesticides are widely used
B. Fertilizers and pesticides are net used
C. Farm yard manure r not used
D. Green manuring

150. Which one of the following is a major fiber crop of
Pakistan ?
A. Sugarcane
B. Cotton
C. Sesame
D. Jute
151. The Cotton plant belong to family ?
A. Gramineae
B. Fabaceae
C. Malvaceae
D. Leguminaceae
152. Gassypium hirsutum is________________?
A. Tetraploid
B. Diploid
C. Triploid
D. Hexaploid
153. Genus of cotton is___________________?
A. Hirsutum
B. Triticum
C. Gassypium
D. Hordeunt
154. Gassypium barbadense was originated
in__________________?
A. Central and North America
B. Central and South America
C. Central and South Asia
D. North Mexico and North America
155. Gassypium barbadense was developed from a cross
between__________________?

A. G. herbaceum and G. raimondii
B. G. arborieum and G. raimondii
C. G. hirsutum and G. raimondii
156. England cotton was imported from the time
in__________________?
A. 1430 AD
B. 1435 AD
C. 1530 AD
D. 1500 AD
157. First ginning machine was invented in_______________?
A. 1893 AD
B. 1880 AD
C. 1793 AD
D. 1650 AD
America is___________?
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
China is________________?
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
160. On the basis of yield of cotton per hectare which of the
following country occupies second position______________?

A. Pakistan
B. Turkey
C. China
D. non of these
161. Delta pine variety of cotton was imported in Pakistan in
the year______________?
A. 1970
B. 1968
C. 1971
D. 1978
162. In 1992-93 the greatest decrease in the production of
cotton was due to attack of_____________?
A. American boll worm
B. CLCV
C. Spotted boll worm
D. Aphids
163. APTMA stands for_____________________?
A. All Pakistan textile mills association
B. All Pakistan trade monitoring association
C. All Pakistan trade monitoring agency
D. All Pakistan textile mill management authority
164. Cotton plant has mode of germination_________________?
A. Determinate type of growth
B. Indeterminate type of growth
C. Semi-determinate
D. Buslry growth habit
165. The root of cotton plant goes up to depth
of_________________?

A. 2-3 ft
B. 4-6 ft
C. 8-10 ft
D. non of these
166. In B.T cotton B.T. stands for__________________?
A. Bacillus thuringensis
B. Bemisia tabaci
C. Bemisia trachyplerus
167. On the basis of season cotton is a__________________?
A. Kharif crop
B. Rabi crop
C. Zaid Kharif crop
168. The productive branches of cotton are
called________________?
A. Monopodial branches
B. Sympodial branches
C. Fruiting branches
D. non of these
169. CCRI stands for_______________?
A. Cotton crop research institute
B. Center for crop research institute
C. Central cotton research institute
D. non of these
170. Seed rate of cotton per acre is________________?
A. 10-22 kg
B. 5-6 kg
C. 14-21 kg
171. In cotton the recommended R x R distance
is_________________?

A. 75 cm
B. 90 cm
C. 45 cm
172. Delta of water for cotton crop is________________?
A. 30 acre inches
B. 25 acre inches
C. 18 acre inches
D. non of these
173. Which is the most important cereal crop of temperature
region________________?
A. Paddy
B. Maize
C. Wheat
D. Barley
174. One of the plant introduced from new world to the old
world is_________________?
A. Rice
B. Wheat
C. Sugarcane
D. Potato
175. The leguminous plants are important in agriculture
because_________________?
A. They need very little water to grow
B. Six crops are harvested in a year
C. They are disease resistant
D. Help in nitrogen economy of nature
176. Percentage of area irrigated by a cusec of water during
the season is called_______________?

A. Intensity
B. Base period
C. Cusec
D. Irrigation frequency
177. Ratio of crop yield to the amount of water utilized is
called______________?
A. Soil water use
B. Crop water use efficiency
C. Soil plant water relationship
D. Water intensity
178. Plants having no defined limits of vegetative and
reproductive element is called______________?
A. Absolute growth
B. Assimilation
C. Indeterminate growth
D. Determinate growth
179. The control and preservation of natural resources for
present and future use is called_________________?
A. Sustainability
B. Conservation
C. Crop residue management
D. None of above
180. Ratio of economic yield to biological yield expressed in
percentage is called_______________?
A. Harvest index
B. Seed index
C. Total yield
D. Dry matter

181. The practice of producing two successive crops of same
species from same piece of land in one year is
called_________________?
A. Intercropping
B. Doubling cropping
C. Monocropping
D. Cropping pattern
182. The amount of water required to rise a crop to matunty
with in a given period of time is called________________?
A. Water frequency
B. Water depletion
C. Water balance
D. Crop Water requirement
183. A region with an annual rainfall less than 10 inches
comes under_________________?
A. And climate
B. Semi-and climate
C. Wet climate
184. The negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion
concentration, a measure of the acidity of a solution is
called_______________?
A. pH
B. EC
C. Cl
D. Saliruiy
185. International institute for Tropical Agriculture is
located at________________?

A. Mexico
B. Nigeria
C. Syria
D. Columbia
186. In Bindi, production of foundation seed needs an
isolation distance of__________________?
A. 100 meters
B. 50 meters
C. 200 meters
D. 3 meters
187. In Sunflower, production of foundation seed requires as
isolation distance of__________________?
A. 400 meters
B. 800 meters
C. 200 meters
D. 100 meters
188. Breeder seed is the progeny of_____________________?
A. Certified seed
B. Nucleus seed
C. Foundation seed
D. Registered seed
189. In wheat, production of certified seed needs an isolation
distance of____________________?
A. 5 Meters
B. 4 Meters
C. 3 Meters
D. 2 Meters
190. Total cropped area of Sindh is___________________?

A. 2.8 million hac
B. 3.75 million hac
C. 4.00 million hac
D. 4.5 million hac
191. One of the following insect act as a vector for
CLCV________________?
A. White fly
B. Aplud
C. Jassid
D. Heliothus
192. Causal organism of root rot of cotton
is_____________________?
A. Rhizoeionia solani
B. Rhizoctonia bataticola
C. Both of them
193. IPM stands for_________________?
A. International pest management
B. Interior pest management
C. Integrated pest management
D. non of there
194. Allelopathy interaction between plants playa crucial
role in___________________?
A. Ecosystems
B. Community
C. Both a and b
D. non of there
195. Allelochemicals are used as growth regulators and
natural pesticides to promote__________________?

A. Sustainable agriculture
B. Improve agriculture
C. Both a and b
196. Sunflower is allelopathic crop to many____________________?
A. Microorganisms
B. Weeds
C. None of the above
197. Allelocliemicals may enter in the soil through the
process of_________________?
A. Diffusion
B. Mass flow
C. Root exudation
198. The allelochemicals are broadly classified
as_______________?
A. Cytokinin and ethylene
B. Phenolics and. terpenoids
C. Trytophan
D. non of there
199. The pH of urea fertilizer is _________________?
A. 4.00
B. 3.5
C. 8.0
D. non of these
200. A good source of vegetable protein is________________?
A. Com
B. Egg
C. Pulses
D. non of there
201. What do you mean by WTO__________________?

A. World trade organization
B. Western training organization
C. World trade order
D. non of there
202. Conducting experiments in glasses is
called________________?
A. Invitro
B. Invivo
C. In-ova
D. In-sin
203. Auxins and cytokinins are__________________?
A. Growth regulators
B. Herbicides
C. Insecticides
D. Fungicides
204. The series of transformation which a nutrient
undergoes in the biosphere before returning to its
original formed is called_______________?
A. Carbon cycle
B. Nutrient cycle
C. Nitrogen cycle
205. In pulses, limiting amino acids are__________________?
A. Lysine
B. Theronine
C. Tryptophan
D. Methionine
206. The ratio of treatment variance to error variance is
known as_________________?

A. Correlation
B. F-value
C. Critical difference
D. I-value
207. The significance of difference among several means is
tested with the level of_________________?
A. F-test
B. t-test
C. Z-test
D. X-test
208. Melilotus alba is objectional weed
of__________________________?
A. Okra
B. Methi
C. Cucurbits
D. Wee
209. Which one of the following is C4 plain_________________?
A. Sugarcane
B. Sorghum
C. Make
D. All the above
210. The lowest pest population that will cause economic
damage is called__________________?
A. Economic pest
B. Economic threshold
C. Economic damage
211. Gaseous loss of a substance from the soil or from
fertilizer or manure is called_________________?

A. Volatilization
B. Evaporation
C. Transpiration
D. Evapotranspiration
212. Resistance of plants to living organism is
called______________________?
A. Abiotic resistance
B. Biotic resistance
C. Vertical resistance
D. Horizantal resistance
213. A foreign variety that is directly recommended for
commercial cultivation is called_________________?
A. Blended variety
B. Pure line variety
C. Exotic variety
D. Hybrid variety
214. Integrated pest management involves________________?
A. Chemical and cultural method
B. Only chemical control method
C. Chemical, cultural, and biological method
D. Only biological method
215. A crop grown on residual moisture after harvesting rice
is called__________________?
A. Barani crop
B. Dubari crop
C. Ratoon crop
D. Sure crop
216. Agro ecological regions of sindh are_____________________?

A. 5
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
B. Fertilizer requirements of wheat under medium
loamy soil is________________?75-90 NP kg/ha
B. 100-70 NP kg/ha
C. 110-60 NP kg/ha
D. 136-85 NP kg/ha ✔
217. There is________________?
A. 43560 Sq ft in an acre
B. 40560 Sq ft in an acre
C. 46560 Sq ft in an acre
D. 47560 Sq ft in an acre
218. Root nodules in plant help in__________________?
A. Photosynthesis
B. Aeration
C. Nitrogen fixation
D. Respiration
219. Part of embryonic axis which develops into root is
called___________________?
A. Plumule
B. Radicle
C. Coleoptile
D. Coleorluza
220. Tillage is field operation which help in cutting,
loosening and inverting the soil for_________________?
A. Fertilization
B. Irrigation

C. Seed bed preparation
D. Transplantation
221. Foliar application of nitrogen means applying nitrogen
in solution form to___________________?
A. Whole plant
B. Leaves
C. Stem only
D. Flowers only
222. The available form of nitrogen for plants
is_________________?
A. NO3
B. NH4
C. Both a and b
D. non of these
223. Natural water as pH equal to________________?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 9
D. 1
224. A method of estimating seed vigour on the basis of color
intensity o the stained seeds was described
by______________?
A. Germ and Keitreiber (1954)
B. Kittock and Law (1963)
C. Maguire (1963)
D. Moore (1973)
225. genetic purity is assessed through________________?
A. Inspection
B. Seed testing

C. Germination
D. All the a b c
226. Hybrid seeds are developed because they_________________?
A. Produce better crop
B. Provide greater vigour
C. Are more uniform
D. All the above
227. The systematic arrangement of soil in to groups or
categories is called_________________?
A. Classification
B. Annuals
C. Perennials
D. Ranking
228. One rooting hormone occurring naturally in plant is
___________________?
A. Indolebutyric
B. Indolacetic acid
C. Naphthalene acetic acid
229. The contribution of agriculture in the GDP of the
country is____________________?
A. 25%
B. 35%
C. 30%
D. 40%
230. Pakistan has a total forest area of about_________________?
A. 22 million ha
B. 32 million ha

C. 12 million ha
D. 20 million ha
231. The sever salinity problem has taken lands out of
production as___________________?
A. 50%
B. 10%
C. 45%
D. 30%
232. In wheat total crop N uptake per ton of grain is
about__________________?
A. 50-60 Kg
B. 20-30 Kg
C. 15-20 Kg
D. 70-80 Kg
233. Two much Mg may create deficiency
for_____________________?
A. P
B. Ca
C. N
D. K
234. The contact herbicides are less effective
to_________________?
A. Broad leaved weeds
B. Perenial plants
C. Seasonal plants
D. All the above
235. Tensiometer is used for measuring____________________?
A. Soil moisture
B. Water pressure

C. Wind pressure
236. Mg in plants act as___________________?
A. Protein activator
B. Enzyme activator
C. Starch activator
237. The given off water vapours from the surface of leaves is
called________________?
A. Transpiration
B. Respiration
C. Exudation
D. Evaporation
238. A crop grown on residual moisture after harvesting rice
is called__________________?
A. Barani crop
B. Dubari crop
C. Ratoon crop
D. Sure crop
239. The value of regression and correlation is the same
when the correlation between two variables
is_________________?
A. Imperfect
B. Perfect
C. Positive
D. Negative
240. Hitting the seed with force against a hard surface to
break seed dormancy is called_______________?

A. Impaction
B. Abrasion
C. Stratification
D. Scarification
241. Seed bag labeled with white colour
indicates_________________?
A. Certified seed
B. Basic seed
C. Pre-basic seed
D. Pure seed
242. The substance that an enzyme acts upon is known
as___________________?
A. Product
B. Substrate
C. Mycotoxin
243. Organisms which are genetically modified are
called_________________?
A. Hybrid
B. Mutagens
C. Transgenic organisms
D. Strange organisms
244. The control and preservation of natural resources For
present and future use is_________________?
A. Substainability
B. Conservation
C. Biodiversity
D. Environment

245. A process in which most of the organisms are killed is
known as_________________?
A. Heating
B. Sterilization
C. Pasteurization
D. Neutralization
246. Diversity of animals and crop species in different
ecosystems is called as_______________?
A. Mirgation
B. Biodiversity
C. Ecology
D. Ecosystem
247. Primary air polluted is________________?
A. SO2
B. SO3
C. SO4
D. None
248. Among the important green house gases two are found
in higher concentration________________?
A. Methane and carbon mono oxide
B. Methane and nitrogen
C. Carbon and nitrogen oxide
249. Precise assessment of pest pressure to evaluate
Economic risk from pest infestations is
called_________________?
A. Economic threshold
B. Crop scouting

C. Economic mjury level
250. Pasturing system that allows short periods of heavy use
followed by recover, period is called as_______________?
A. Differed grazing
B. Hay grazing
C. Forage grazing
D. Rotational grazing
251. income farm where the operator is producing primarly
his family’s needs rather than for sale is
called_______________?
A.Family farming
B. Subsistence farming
C. Intensive farming
D. Progressive farming
252. A treeless arctic plan is called as__________________?
A. Glaciers
B. Barren land
C. Tundra
253. In country’s GDP, the cotton accounts for_________________?
A. 5%
B. 2%
C. 2%
D. 10.15%
254. Drip method of irrigation is not suitable to close spaced
crops because_________________?
A. High water requirements
B. High pump pressure

C. High cost on pipes
D. Unavailable of technology
255. The movement of water in soil profile is.known
as__________________?
A. Diffusion
B. Percolation
C. Absorption
D. All the above
256. The critical stages in cotton is______________?
A. Budding
B. Flowering
C. Boll .formation
D. All the above
257. EC of saline soil is equal to or greater than________________?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D non of these
258. The depth of irrigation water required for the full crop
period is called_______________?
A. Consuptive use of water
B. Delta of water
C. Optimum use of water
D. non of these
259. When one set of vegetation follows the oilier set of
vegetation with passage of time is known
as________________?
A. Succession
B. Retrogression

C. Biodiversity
D. Linear planting
260. Controlled run off, water supplies, irrigation, soil
fertility is called as_________________?
A. Catchmento protection
B. Agriculture conservation
C. Soil protection
D. Saw logs
261. Very hot and winterless condition is__________________?
A. Tropical
B. Temperature
C. And
262. A warm summer and pronounced winter is
called________________?
A. Arid
B. Tropical
C. Temperature
263. What is SAZDA_______________?
A. Sindhi Agricultural Zonal Development Authority
B. Sindhi Arid Zone Development Authority
D. non of these
264. Hyderabad district area is in_________________?
A. Thai range area
B. Raygistan range area
C. Cholistan range area

265. The technical name of janter is_________________?
A. Sesbania sesban
B. S. aphylla
C. S. oleaides
D. S. mavretiana
266. Mesophytes are grown in__________________?
A. Dry condition
B. Moist places
C. Desert area
267. Removal of branches for forage is________________?
A. Litter
B. Lopping
C. Foraging
268. Hot desert has mean annual temperature
of___________________?
A. 50°C
B. 40°C
C. 30°C
269. The deficient level of N(%) in plants suggested by
various workers is_________________?
A. <2%
B. <1%
C. <5%
D. 10%
270. Initial vegetation that invades and occupies the area is
called_________________?

A. Pioneer
B. Range
C. Resin
271. The total dry matter produced by a plant as a resulting
photosynthesis is called_______________?
A. Biological yield
B. Mass
C. Physical productivity
272. In rice, high silicon content, in shoot confers resistance
to_________________?
A. Leaf borer
B. Stem borer
C. Root borer
D. All the above
273. Oka (1975) has suggested that me population size
suitable for maintenance and seed production of a
commercial crop of a self pollinated species should
be________________?
A. 100 plants
B. 200 plants
C. 300 plants
D. 400 plants
274. Who described the method of estimating seed vigor on
the basis of colour intensity of stained
seed________________?
A. Woodstock (1976)
B. Kittock and Law (1969)

C. Maguire (1962)
D. Nicolls & Heu Decker (1968)
275. Seeds of wheat, paddy and maize showed positive
correlation germination (%) and viability (%) as
determined by________________?
A. Grow put test
B. Tz test
C. Test of genetic purity of seeds
D. Ageing test
276. Who the a method of estimating seed vigour on the basis
of color intensity of the stained seeds ?
A. Nicolls & Hey Decker (1968)
B. Kittock &. Law (1953)
C. Moore (1973)
D. Germ (1949)
277. Who gave the formula for speed of
germination_______________?
A. Maguire (1962)
B. Baskin (1972)
C. Moore (1973)
D. Germ (1949)
278. Progeny of nucleus seed is called__________________?
A. Foundation seed
B. Breeder seed
C. Certified seed
D. Registered seed
279. Seed dormancy of nee seeds can be successfully broken
by heat treatment at________________?

A. 50°c for 3-7 days
B. 45°c for 3-8 days
C. 54°c for 2-6 days
280. Abnormal seeding growth in rice may be due
to_________________?
A. Intrinsic Mechanism
B. Lack of integrity in seed cells
C. Endogenous inhibitors
D. Al the above
281. Abnormal seeding growth in rice is more closely
related, with______________?
A. IID grains
B. LD grains
C. Both a & b
282. The potential means of enhancing productivity
is_________________?
A. Quality of seeds
B. Quantity of seeds
C. Seed density
D. All the above
283. Electrolytes leakage is found greater in______________?
A. HD grains
B. LD grains
C. All the above
D. non of these
284. Use of linear measurements of plumule growth as a
vigour test was first suggested by_______________?

A. Woodstock (1976)
B. Germ (1949)
C. Baskin (1972)
D. Maguire (1962)
285. Seed leachate conductivity is significantly higher in
seeds having_________________?
A. Higher shoot weight
B. Lower shoot weight
C. Higher root weight
286. Air contains___________________?
A. 70% nitrogen
B. 50% nitrogen
C. 78% nitrogen
287. The oxygen concentration in the air is________________?
A. 30%
B. 21%
C. 16%
D. 45%
288. Cultivation of same crop year after year is
called________________?
A. Single cropping
B. Monocropping
C. Double, cropping
D. All the above
289. Highly decomposed stage of organic matter is
called_______________?

A. Cellulose
B. Organic acid
C. Humus
D. All the above
290. Narcotic crops mainly grown in Pakistan
is_________________?
A. Pyrethrum
B. Cocon
C. Tobacco
D. Co see
291. Partially decomposed organic matter is termed
as___________________?
A. Humus
B. Farm yard manure
C. Composet
D. All the above
292. the layer of atmosphere which blocks ultraviolet
radiation from sun is___________________?
A. Stratosphere
B. Ozone
C. Ozosphere
D. All the above
293. Due to phosphorus deficiency in plants____________________?
A. Roots do not develop properly
B. Plants mature late
C. Poor flowering and fruil selling occurs
D. All the above
294. The condition of drying of plant parts due to lack of
water is called__________________?

A. Water stress
B. Drought
C. Wilting
295. Generally field crops are cultivated at
altitude__________________?
A. 20004000 ft
B. 0008000 ft
C. 1200014000 ft
D. 02000 ft
296. Plants uptake their nutrients from____________________?
A. Air
B. Water
C. So
D. All the above

Agricultural (Animal husbandry) MCQs
1. Colostrums to the young born calf should be given by
___________________________ ?
A. 1/10th of body wt.
B. 1/20th of body wt.
C. 1/5th of body wt.
D. 1/25th of body wt.
2. gestation period of cow is ________________________?
A. 230 ± 10 days
B. 272 ± 10 days
C. 282 ± 10 days
D. 290 ± 10 days
3. Separating a young calf from its mother from
milking/sucking is called _____________________?
A. Weaning
B. Service period
C. Separation
D. Isolation period
4. Mastitis is an infection in cows and its affects the
_____________________________?
A. Udder
B. Uterus
C. Legs
D. Eyes
5. Respiration rate in sheep is __________________________?
A. 25 – 40 /min
B. 15 -30 /min
C. 35 – 45 /min
D. 45 – 60 /min
6. The highest milk producing cattle in the world is
______________________?
A. Sahiwal
B. Holstein Friesian

C. Australian Friesian
D. Red Sindhi
7. Livestock Sector is contributing in G.D.P. up
to______________________?
A. 8.5 %
B. 10 %
C. 9.0 %
D. 12 %
8. Those animals which we keep at hove farm level for our
benefit are____________________?
A. Domesticated animals
B. Tamed animals
C. Wild animals
9. Domestication of animal begin at about
________________________?
A. 3000-2000 B.C
B. 8000-6000 B.C
C. 1,000-2000 B.C
D. 1000-2000 B.C
10. BOS-Taurus is _________________________?
A. BOS-Taurus
B. BOS-Indices
C. BOS-bubal is
11. Floor Space requirement for cows in covered area is
________________________?
A. 3.5 m2
B. 4 m2
C. 4.5 m2
D. 5 m2
12. Average normal temperature of Buffalo in winter is
________________________?
A. 35.8°C
B. 36.8°C
C. 37.8°C
D. 38.8°C
13. A male horse which has been castrated is called
_______________________?
A. Stallion
B. Gelding
C. Mature horse
14. Cross of stallion with female ass is called
________________________?
A. Mule
B. Hinny
C. Jack
D. Jennet
15. Temporary teeth in horse are _______________________?
A. 30
B. 24
C. 32
D. 22
16. A goat of 1 – 2 year of age is called _______________________?
A. Kid
B. Yearling
C. Young adult
D. Adult
17. A general term applied to domestic animal is called
_______________________?
A. Livestock
B. Tamede animals
C. Domestic animal
D. none of above

18. In ruminants how many compartments of stomach are
there ________________________?
A. Two
B. four
C. six
D. three
19. The largest compartment in ruminant stomach is
__________________?
A. Rumen
B. Reticulum
C. Abomasum
D. Omasum
Read More Details about this Mcq
20. The part of the udder which manufacture milk is
______________________?
A. Alveolus
B. Alveal
C. Allontois
D. None of above
21. Ayrshire is a breed of cattle _____________________?
A. Dairy
B. Beef
C. Draught
D. Dual
22. Bovine is a term pertaining to _________________________?
A. Cattle
B. Buffalo
C. Sheep
D. Goat
23. Castrated male of cattle is called __________________________?
A. Bulling
B. Bullock

C. Bull
D. Burdizo
24. The period between births of two successive calves from
one cow is called_________________?
A. Calving
B. Calving pen
C. Calving interval
D. Calving period
25. Cuckoo lams are _______________________?
A. Early born lamb
B. Diseased lamb
C. Late born lamb
D. None of above
26. A male horse under 3 years of age is called
________________________?
A. Filly
B. Colt
C. Foal
D. Stallion
27. The loose flesh hanging is the throat area of cattle is
_______________________?
A. Dewlap
B. Pastern
C. Skin
D. Neck
28. An adult female sheep is also called ________________________?
A. Hog
B. Lamb
C. Ewe
D. Doe
29. A growing female calf from 12 months till its first
calving is called________________?

A. Mature cow
B. Cow
C. Adult cow
D. Heifer
30. Mastitis is an infection cause by _________________________?
A. K-Pyogenes
B. Pyogenes
C. Fungi
D. Algae
31. White Scour is disease in_____________________?
A. Heifer
B. Calves
C. Cow
D. Buffalo
32. Berri Berri is the most common disease caused by the
deficiency of_____________________?
A. Vit. A
B. Vit. B
C. Vit. C
D. Vit. D
33. Holstein cattle breed belongs to _______________________?
A. Nether land
B. England
C. Australia
D. U.S.A
34. At present time people involved in raising livestock are
_________________________?
A. 7.9 million
B. 17.6 million
C. 18 million
D. 17.2 million
35. Training of animals to given them desirable qualities is
called _____________________?
A. Tamed animals
B. Domesticated animals
C. Wild animals
D. Trained animals
36. Cattle was domesticated in __________________________?
A. Old world
B. New world
C. India
D. Asia
37. The branch of science which deals with hereditary
variation is called___________________?
A. Genetics
B. Embryology
C. Biology
D. Histology
38. In Latin American male donkey is also called
_________________________?
A. Jackar
B. Burro
C. Bray
D. Jennet
39. A female horse less than one year of age is called
_______________________?
A. Filly
B. Foal
C. Mare
40. central part of animal body is called _______________________?
A. Barrel
B. Mid point
C. Central point
D. None of above
41. Male ass is called ________________________?
A. Jackass
B. Burro
C. Bray
D. Jennet
42. Anthrax is a _______________________?
A. Bacterial disease
B. Viral disease
C. Fungal disease
D. None of above
43. The body of a sheep is covered with specialized fibers
called_________________?
A. Hairs
B. Fleece
C. Wool
D. None of above
44. Pellegra is a disease which is due to deficiency of Vit.
__________________________?
A. Riboflavin
B. Niacin
C. Pyrodoxin
D. None of above
45. Floor Space requirement for buffalo in covered area is
______________________?
A. 3.5 m2
B. 4 m2
C. 4.5 m2
D. 5 m2
46. True stomach in ruminants is ________________________?
A. Rumen
B. Reticuon
C. Abomasum
D. Omasum

47. Expulsion of the foetus from the uterus earlier than the
usual duration of pregnancy is called
________________________?
A. Abortion
B. Expulsion
C. Removal
D. None of above
48. BMRT stands for ___________________________?
A. Bulk milk Ring Test
B. Blue milk Ring Test
C. Bone meal Ring Test
D. None of above
49. Buck is male of _______________________?
A. Sheep
B. Cow
C. Goat
D. Loin
50. Calf diphtheria is a disease caused by
_______________________?
A. Bacterial
B. Viral
C. Fungal
D. None of above
51. A term used to describe animals with on derided hoof
such as cattle and sheep is called _______________________?
A. Clover
B. Hoofed
C. Cloven hoofed
D. Cloven
52. Colon is part of _______________________?
A. Rectum
B. Small intestine

C. Large intestine
D. Liver
53. Dehorning is the removal of _________________________?
A. Horns
B. Car
C. Teats
D. None of above
54. A female goat is also called ________________________?
A. Buck
B. Doe
C. Ram
D. None of above
55. Pellegra is disease which is due to deficiency of
Vit.______________________?
A. Riboflavin
B. Niacin
C. Pyrodoxin
D. None of above
56. Graving means ________________________?
A. Dry
B. Pregnant
C. Abort
D. None of above
57. The presence of blood in urine is ________________________?
A. Hematocrit
B. Hematoma
C. Hematopoiesis
D. Haemoglobinuria
58. Inflammation of the uterus is called ________________________?
A. Dermititis
B. Metritis
C. Entritis
D. Vaginitis
59. The act of giving birth to young one is called
_____________________?
A. Ovulation
B. Fertilization
C. Conception
D. Parturition
60. Rigor worthies is the stiffening of ________________________?
A. Ribs
B. Bones
C. Muscles
D. Tissues
61. Infertile male animal is called __________________________?
A. Teaser
B. Censor
C. Sensor
D. Sterile
62. Dajal is a bread of cattle from _______________________?
A. Sahiwal
B. Jacobabad
C. D.G Khan
D. Lahore
63. There are two main buffalo breeds one is Nili Ravi, other
is _______________________?
A. Exotic bread
B. Kundi
C. Tharparker
D. Kankres
64. The secretion from the mammary gland of cow just
before and after the calf is born is called
________________________?
A. Milk
B. Fresh milk

C. Colostrums
D. Whole milk
65. In colostrums Vitamin D are how many times more than
normal milk_______________?
A. 2 times
B. 4 times
C. 3 times
D. 5 times
66. In Livestock is considered as _________________________?
A. 50 % of herd
B. 30 % of herd
C. 60 % of herd
D. 40 % of herd
67. Chevon meat is a _______________________?
A. Sheep meat
B. Goat meat
C. Buffalo meat
D. Cow meat
68. Sheep is classified as________________?
A. Ovis aries
B. Capra hiricus
C. Ruminantia
D. None of above
69. The amount of feed which the animals consumes during
24 hr with out any compulsion is called
_____________________?
A. Voluntary feed intake
B. Feed intake
C. Total food intake
D. Dry matter intake
70. creep ration is given before ______________________?
A. Calving
B. Weaning
C. Conception
D. Both a & c
71. Stemming Ration is given during last week of
_____________________?
A. Conception
B. Pregnancy
C. Parturition
D. None of above
72. Nanny is also called ___________________?
A. Female sheep
B. Female Cow
C. Female goat
D. Female horse
73. Those rams whose breeding worth is known, is known
as _______________________?
A. Experienced ram
B. Adult ram
C. Mature ram
D. None of above
74. Fertilization of egg & sperm takes place in the
____________________?
A. Uterus
B. Fallopian tube
C. Vagina
D. Oviduct
75. Period from kidding/lambing to next oestrus is called
______________________?
A. Calving interval
B. Service interval
C. Both a & b
D. None of above
76. When a goat shows all signs of pregnancy but not
produce young one is called ____________________?
A. False pregnancy
B. Psevdo pregnancy
C. Not pregnant
D. None of above
77. Which technique is also called Insacco or Nylen bag
technique ________________________?
A. In Vivo
B. In Situ
C. In Vitro
D. None of above
78. There is cattle breed which is ___________ Dual purpose?
A. Meat purpose
B. Milk purpose
C. Hide purpose
D. non of these
79. Red Sindhi cow is also called ______________________?
A. Sindhi Cow
B. Malir Cow
C. Lasbela Cow
D. Kohistani Cow
80. In Pakistan Poultry busyness was Started in
_______________________?
A. 1960
B. 1963
C. 1969
D. 1965
81. Brother is bird which is mainly kept for
________________________?
A. Egg purpose
B. Dual purpose
C. Meat purpose
D. feather purpose

82. A broiler eat 3Kg feed in 6 weeks weigh up
to____________________?
A. 1.8 kg
B. 1.7 kg
C. 1.5 kg
D. 2.0 kg
83. All Vitamins are present in eggs except
______________________?
A. Vit. A
B. Vit. B
C. Vit. C
D. Vit. D
84. Rani khet is also called _______________________?
A. new castle disease
B. Infectious Bronchitis
C. Aveon Influenza
D. Infectious disease
85. The average weight of commercial bird is about
________________________?
A. 50 gm
B. 40 gm
C. 60 gm
D. 70 gm
86. The ancestor of poultry bird is _______________________?
A. Crow
B. Archaeopteryx
C. Sparrow
D. Duck
87. One day old female chick is called ________________________?
A. Chick
B. Pullet
C. Cockerel
D. Hen
88. One-day old male chick is called ______________________?
A. Chick
B. Pullet
C. Cockerel
D. Hen
89. L.S.B (Layallpor Silver Black) was developed at
________________________?
A. U.A.F
B. Multan
C. Sargodha
D. Sahiwal
90. IN layer growing period is form ____________________?
A. 10 – 20 wks
B. 8 – 20 wks
C. 10 – 15 wks
D. 15 – 20 wks
91. The largest part of female reproductive tract in chicken
is_________________?
A. Magnum
B. Infundibulm
C. isthmus
D. Uterus
92. Incubation Period of chick is ________________________?
A. 22 days
B. 23 days
C. 21 days
D. 20 days
93. Quails have incubation period of
_______________________________?
A. 12 days
B. 14 days
C. 16 days
D. 17 days
94. The practice of incubation was started in about 1000 B.C
by__________________?
A. Chinese
B. Egyptian
C. American
D. European
95. The fertile eggs are never be stored at a temperature
less than _______________________?
A. 10°C
B. 11°C
C. 12°C
D. 13°C
96. Shape of an egg is a ________________________?
A. Heritable character
B. Depend on breed
C. Depend on food given
D. Depend on went average
97. Isthmus is a part evident which help in
_________________________?
A. Formation of cuticles
B. Egg shall formation membrane
C. Albumen secretion
D. Fertilization
98. Pooping is process during which the embryo
____________________?
A. Breaks the egg shell
B. Eat egg shell
C. Both a & b
D. None of above
99. Malpesition is a condition during which the chick hatch
_________________________?
A. Poorly
B. Abnormal
C. Donot hatch
D. Diseased one
100. Lethal body temperature in chicken is
__________________________?
A. 75°C
B. 42°C
C. 40°C
D. 45°C
101. Change in body temperature with in 24 hrs is called
________________________?
A. Acclimation
B. Circadian
C. Acclimatization
D. Heat lost
102. Cortex produces ______________________________?
A. Corticosterole
B. Catecholamine
C. Adrenalin
D. None of above
103. Intensity of light in poultry is measure by
_______________________?
A. Light period
B. Dark period
C. Foot candle
D. None of above
104. Where environment temperature is high the poultry
house should face toward______________________?
A. North-South
B. East-West
C. East-North
D. None of above
105. Floor space for broiler up to 6 weeks
_________________________?
A. 0.5 ft2
B. 1 ft2
C. 1.25 ft2
D. 1.5 ft2
106. Breeder parent should be given ration
_______________________?
A. Ration No. 1
B. Ration No. 3
C. Ration No. 4
D. Ration No. 6
107. Which scientist is considered to be the father of animal
Nutrition _________________?
A. Lehman
B. Morrison
C. Lavasior
D. Wolff
108. A compound or a chemical substance which is essential
for maintenance of body and has a specific role in
nourishment if called ____________________?
A. Ingredient
B. Component
C. Constituent
D. Nutrient
109. Nucleoprotein & glycoprotein is a kind of which protein
group ______________________?
A. Derived
B. Conjugated
C. Simple
D. None of above
110. Transference of nutrient from gut to blood is called
__________________________?
A. Diffusion
B. Effusion
C. Active transport
D. Absorption
111. vSib is a ________________________?
A. Full brother
B. Full sister
C. Both a & b
D. None of above
112. Average gestation period of goat is ___________________
days?
A. 130- 140 days
B. 148- 156 days
C. 160- 170 days
D. None
113. The highest milk producing cattle in Pakistan is
____________________?
A. Red Sindhi
B. Sahiwal
C. Bagnari
D. Dajal
114. Cattle was domesticated primarily for _______________?
A. Milk purpose
B. Skin/hide purpose
C. Meat purpose
D. Religious purpose
115. The globulin in the colostrums is considered to have
_____________________?
A. Antigen
B. Antibody
C. Both a & b
D. None of above
116. A cow weighing about 425 Kg and eat 9 Kg of air dry
forage per day is called ____________________?

A. Animal unit
B. Herd
C. Animal unit/month
D. Herd average
117. Which animal has beard _________________________?
A. Goat
B. Rabbit
C. Sheep
D. Cow0
118. Chromosome in cattle are ______________________?
A. 65
B. 60
C. 66
D. 62
119. Pashmine is the very fine under coat of the
_______________________?
A. Mohair
B. Kashmir goat
C. Angora
D. none of above
120. Faces accumulated at the time of birth of calf is
_______________?
A. Me-conium
B. Loose dropping
C. Bloody faces
D. None of above
121. vWhich Canadian company brought poultry birds to
Pakistan _________________________?
A. ICI
B. Shaver
C. Lever Brother
D. None of above
122. In Pakistan first mill was started in ____________________?
A. Multan
B. Sahiwal
C. Lahore
D. Rahim Yar Khan
123. Chicken egg contain how much protein
______________________?
A. 16%
B. 12%
C. 15%
D. 14%
124. If eggs are kept in same position throughout the
incubator period. They hatch ___________________?
A. Excellent
B. Poorly
C. Immediately
D. Late
125. Moulting of bird is done after ______________________?
A. 70 weeks
B. 72 weeks
C. 60 weeks
D. 65 weeks
126. The average weight of commercial bird is about
__________________?
A. 90 gm
B. 50 gm
C. 60 gm
D. 70 gm
127. Vitamin obtain from sunshine ________________________?
A. Vit. A
B. Vit. B
C. Vit. C
D. Vit. D

128. Poor development of bones and teeth are due to
deficiency of _____________________?
A. Vit. B
B. Vit. C
C. Vit. A
D. Vit. D
129. Scurvy is a disease which is due to the deficiency of
_____________________?
A. Vitamins
B. Minerals
C. Protein
D. None of above
130. Animal of same species having same size, shape, color
are called_______________?
A. Breed
B. Variety
C. Strayn
D. Group
131. Howe many sub-classes of chicken are there
_____________________?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 5
132. Broiler is obtained by the cross of ______________________?
A. White Cornish x White Plymothrock
B. White Cornish x Rhode Island Red
C. Rhode Island Red x White leg horn
D. White Plymothrock x Newhampshire
133. Specified period in which a tiny microscopic germ is
changed into individual is called ________________________?
A. Brooding
B. Incubation
C. Hatching
D. Fumigation
134. Broiler Starter ration is _______________________?
A. Ration No. 1
B. Ration No. 3
C. Ration No. 4
D. Ration No. 5
135. In chicken true stomach is ___________________?
A. Gizzard
B. Proventiculus
C. Crop
D. Duodenum
136. Vit. B2 is also called _____________________?
A. Riboflavin
B. Niacin
C. Pyradxin
D. None of above
137. Pioneer of incubation were ___________________?
A. Italian & Chinese
B. Egyptian & Chinese
C. Grease & Chinese
D. European
138. If we place dirty eggs for hatching it hatched
_______________________?
A. Poorly
B. Excellent
C. Donot hatch
D. None of above
139. Chalaza is a protein membrarie which is attached with a
Yolk, its function is,_____________________?
A. Keep Yolk centrally
B. Malce yolk of dork color

C. Help egg to hatch easily
D. Helpful of embryo to get food
140. If we place broader and downward and pointed end egg
upward, then _______________________?
A. Normal hatching
B. Early hatching
C. Embryo beath occur
D. Immature embryo
141. The Chorion isa membrane around the yolk of egg, it
develops from _____________________?
A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Allantois
142. A Ration of Antithetic acid results in ____________________?
A. Poor hatchability
B. Zero hatchability
C. Excellent hatchability
D. Normal hatchability
143. Smaller breeds have a temperature little bit than larger
breeds ___________________?
A. Lesser
B. Higher
C. Same
D. None of above
144. Panting is a condition in bird during which
______________________?
A. Respiration rate increases
B. Moisture increases
C. Both a & b
D. None of above
145. External or internal deviation in the birds cause by an
unusual process called _____________________?
A. Excitation
B. Stress
C. Sensitivity
D. Prostration
146. Optimum humidity in hatching room must be
____________________?
A. 65%
B. 75%
C. 80%
D. 90%
147. Natural antioxidant Vitamin is _____________________?
A. Vit. B
B. Vit. C
C. Vit. D
D. Vit. E
148. Floor space for broiler up to 4 weeks
_______________________?
A. 0.5 ft2
B. 1 ft2
C. 1.5 ft2
D. 2.5 ft2
149. Floor space requirement in layer for layer is
_________________________?
A. 0.75 ft2 /bird
B. 1.5 ft2 /bird
C. 1.25 ft2 /bird
D. 1 ft2 /bird
150. When we given stress to the bird a hormone is released
from thyroid _____________________?
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. Tryodothyromine
D. Androgen
151. The branch of science which deals with procurement,
ingestion, digestion, & absorption of food for various
body functions like maintenance ,production, etc .is
called ____________________?
A. Supplement
B. Nutrition
C. Production Science
D. Biological Science
152. Those Amino acids which the body cannot synthesized
are called __________________________?
A. Essential Amino acid
B. Dietary essential amino acid
C. Pietary non essential
D. None of above
153. Ruminant can digest fiber because it
contain____________________?
A. Enzyme amylase
B. Enzyme cellulose
C. Enzyme protease
D. None of above
154. Urea Toxicity is also called ______________________?
A. NH3 Toxicity
B. Urine Toxicity
C. Blood Toxicity
D. None of above

Agricultural (Economics) MCQs
1. Failure to use all available economic resources to

produce goods and services is called__________________?
A. Unemployment
B. Underemployment
C. Inflation
D. Deflation
2. The price paid for the use of services of labour per unit
of time is called__________________?
A. Salary
B. Income
C. Wage
D. All
3. A market in which products households sell and firms
buy resources or the services of resources
is__________________?
A. Resource market
B. Product market
C. Consumer market
D. Producer market
4. A measure of average output or real output per unit of
input is called____________________?
A. Efficiency
B. Production
C. Productivity
D. None
5. The households and the business firms of the economy
are called__________________?
A. Public sector
B. Ptivate sector
C. Govt sector
D. None

6. The process of deriving principles is

called___________________?
A. theoretical economics
B. Economics analysis
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of these
7. An analytic approach in which we move from general to
particular from theory to facts is_________________?
A. Induction
B. Deduction
C. Specification
D. None
8. “Wealth of nations” was written by_________________?
A. Lewis
B. Rostow
C. Keynes
D. Adam Smith
9. All goods and services produced in a country in one
year are called its__________________?
A. GNP
B. GDP
C. NDP
D. None of these
10. Using part of income/saving for more income is
called_________________?
A. Investment
B. Busyness
C. Consumption
D. Entrepreneurship
11. Total consumption deducted from total income is
called__________________?

A. Net income
B. Gross income
C. Saving
D. None of these
12. An economic system in which property resources are
publicly owned and govt uses central economic
planning to direct & coordinate economic activities ?
A. Command economy
B. Closed economy
C. Open economy
D. None
13. The total revenue of a film less all its economic costs is
called_____________________?
A. Economy Profit
B. Pure Profit
C. Above normal Profit
D. All these
14. The percentage of labour force unemployment at any
time__________________?
A. Unemployment rate
B. Inflation rate
C. Deflation rate
D. None
15. “Economics is the study of causes of material welfare”
was defined by___________________?
A. Adam Smith
B. Marshall
C. Robins
D. Marks
16. Total money income received by the individual or
recipients of income is called____________________?

A. Gross income
B. Net income
C. Personal income
D. None of above
17. All the goods and services produced in a country in a
year plus other sources of income for example foreign
exchange earnings, foreign aid, foreign remittance,
loans etc are called ?
A. GDP
B. NNp
C. NDP
D. GNP
18. Power of a good/ service to satisfy human desire/want
is called____________________?
A. Utility
B. Worth
C. The point of satiety
D. All of these
19. The sale of products below sale of production in a
foreign country or below the prices charged at home is
called ?
A. Dumping
B. Subsidy
C. Inflation
D. Monopoly
20. An increase either in real output (GDP) or in real
output per capita is called___________________?
A. Economic development
B. Economic growth
C. Growth rate
D. Economic efficiency

21. Reproduction in the average total cost of producing a

products as the firm expands the size of plants (its
output) in the long run________________?
A. Economics of scale
B. Economics of mass production
C. Both of these
D. None of these
22. A condition when there is excessive produce in the
market which lowers down the price is
called__________________?
A. Market glut
B. Perfect market
C. Imperfect market
D. All of these
23. Changes in govt. spending and tax collection designed
to achieve a full employment and non-inflationary
domestic out put is called___________________?
A. Fiscal policy
B. Economic planning
C. Economizing problem
D. None
24. The transfer of savings from developing countries to
industrially advanced countries to avoid govt.
expropriation, taxation and high rates of inflation
is_________________?
A. capital flight
B. capital account
C. capital deficit
D. All of these
25. A legally determined price above the equilibrium price
is__________________?

A. Floor price
B. Ceiling price
C. Equilibrium price
D. None
26. The branch of economics which analyze govt. revenues
and expenditures is__________________?
A. Public revenue
B. Public finance
C. Public good
D. None
27. Nominal income adjusted for inflation__________________?
A. Real income
B. Net income
C. Total income
D. None
28. A tax imposed by a nation on an imported good is
called_________________?
A. Tariff
B. Foreign exchange
C. Net profit
D. GNP
29. The body of knowledge and techniques which can be
used to produce goods and service from economic
resources is________________?
A. Technology
B. Advanced knowledge
C. Both
D. None
30. The amount by which a nation’s import of goods (or
goods and services) exceeds its export of goods or
goods and services is________________?

A. Trade surplus
B. Trade deficit
C. Trade bloc
D. None
31. An economic system in which traditions and customs
determine how the economy would use its scare
resources ?
A. Traditional economy
B. Mixed economy
C. capitalistic economy
D. Command economy
32. The value of a product sold by a firm less the value of
the products purchased and used by the firm to
produce the product____________________?
A. Value added
B. Value of money
C. Vertical range
D. None
33. An institution or mechanism which brings together
buyers and sellers is called____________________?
A. Market
B. Resource Market
C. Product Market
D. None
34. A market in which products are sold by firms and
bought by households is_________________?
A. Resource market
B. Product market
C. Consumer market
D. None
35. A minimum price which govt. allows seller to receive
for a good or service____________________?

A. Ceiling Price
B. Floor Price
C. Supprot Price
D. All
36. A compensation device through which workers receive
part of their pay in the form of share of their employer’s
profit___________________?
A. Labour laws
B. Labour saving scheme
C. Profit sharing plan
D. Profit maximizing plan
37. An analytic approach in which we move from facts to
theory, from a particular to general is
called____________________?
A. Induction
B. Deduction
C. Generalization
D. Randomization
38. Meaningful statement about the economic behavior or
the economy is called_______________________?
A. Economic principle
B. Economic theories
C. Both
D. None
39. A film on economics in which economists study and
observe the details of an economic unit or a very small
judgment of economy is__________________?
A. Macroeconomic
B. Micro economic
C. Positive economic
D. Normative economic

40. In ___________________ we avoid value judgments and focus

on facts?
A. Positive economics
B. Normative economics
C. Theoretical economics
D. factual economics
41. Production possibility curve is always concave because
?
A. The curve gets steeper as we move downward
B. The marginal benefit decreases as more of a good is
consumed
C. In reflects the law of increasing opportunity cost
D. Resources are scarce
42. Amount of other products which must be foregone or
sacrificed to obtain 1 unit of a specific good is called
its______________?
A. Opportunity cost
B. Real cost
C. Economic cost
D. None
43. In________________ economics we look at desirability of
certain aspects of the economy ?
A. Theoretical
B. Positive
C. Normative
D. None
44. All points on the production possibility curve
explain__________________?
A. Allocative efficiency
B. Productive efficiency
C. Less than full use of resources
D. Unattainable levels of output

45. The activity of buying or selling with the motive of later

reselling or re buying for profit is called ?
A. Spillover
B. Speculation
C. Specializing
D. All
46. The amount by which a nation’s export of goods (or
goods and services) exceeds its import of goods or
goods and services is_______________?
A. Trade surplus
B. Trade deficit
C. Trade off
D. None
47. Opportunity cost is illustrated by the___________________?
A. Steep slope
B. Downward slope
C. Positive slope
D. None
48. Directing domestic resources to output which a nation
is highly efficient at producing is
called____________________?
A. International Trade
B. Speculation
C. International specialization
D. None
49. Any point inside the production possibility curve
represents ?
A. Unemployment
B. Failure to achieve productive efficiency
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of these

50. A particular set of institutional arrangement and a

coordinating mechanism is___________________?
A. Economic system
B. Fascism
C. Mixed system
D. None
51. The private ownership of resources and use of a system
of market and prices to coordinate and direct economic
activity________________?
A. Pure capitalism
B. Iaissez faire capital
C. Both
D. None
52. Hitler introduced ?
A. Command economy
B. Traditional economy
C. Mixed economy
D. Authoritarian economy
53. __________________provides an overview of the operation of
the capitalist system ?
A. Indifference curve
B. Income budget line
C. Circular flow model
D. Says law
54. determinants of demand are some times referred
as__________________________?
A. Demand effectors
B. Demand determinants
C. Demand shifters
D. none
55. A good used together with another good
is___________________?
A. Superior good
B. Normal good
C. Complementary good
D. None
56. Productive efficiency means___________________?
A. Producing all output combinations in the least
costly way
B. Producing the specific output mix most desired by society
C. Producing the desired ones only
D. None
57. An individuals demand curve is down sloping
because_____________________?
A. Price and quantity demanded are inversely
related
B. P & D are directly related
C. There is no relation bet P & D
D. None
58. Commodities whose demand varies directly with
money income are called______________________?
A. Superior or normal goods
B. Complementary goods
C. Substitutes
D. None
59. Allocative efficiency is__________________?
A. Producing all output combinations in least costly
way
B. Producing the specific output mix most desired by society
C. Producing the desired things
D. None
60. Upward shift of the demand curve is due
to_________________?

A. Changing in quantity demanded

B. Increase in demand
C. Decrease in quantity demanded
D. None
61. When price for one and demand for other move in same
direction we say them___________________?
A. Complementary
B. Substitutes
C. Supplementary
D. None
62. Change in quantity demanded is______________________?
A. Upward movement or shift of entire cure.
B. Shift of the demand curve to left side
C. Movement from one point to the other on the same
demand curve
D. None
63. A supply curve shifts because of change
in_____________________?
A. The price of the related products
B. Technology
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
64. The ability of Market forces to synchronize selling and
buying decision to eliminate potential surpluses and
shortages is known as_________________?
A. Generalization
B. Specification
C. Rationing function of the price
D. None
65. The total amount by the federal govt. of the owner of
the govt. securities is called___________________?

A. Public debt
B. Public finance
C. Public good
D. None
66. The part of economy which contains all govt. entities is
called__________________?
A. Public sector
B. Private sector
C. Public utility
D. None
67. A tax levied on the cost of a board group of
products______________________?
A. Income tax
B. Sales tax
C. Consumer charge
D. None
68. A benefit or cost from production or consumption
accruing without compensation to non buyers and
non/sellers of the product is called_________________?
A. Speculation
B. Specialization
C. Spill over
D. anti dumping
69. A commercial bank authorized by state govt. to engage
in business of banking ?
A. National Bank
B. State Bank
C. Business authorized bank
D. None
70. An asset set aside for future use is termed
as_______________________?

A. Future planning
B. Store of value
C. Speculation
D. None
71. A type of unemployment caused by insufficient total
spending___________________?
A. Under employment
B. Underdevelopment
C. Cyclical unemployment
D. None
72. A section in a nation’s international balance of
payments which records its export and import of goods
and services, its net investment income, and its net
transfers ?
A. Current account
B. Fixed account
C. Saving account
D. Capital account
73. A legal entry chartered by a state or the federal govt.
which is district and separate from the individuals who
own it ?
A. Co-operative
B. Partnership
C. Corporation
D. None
74. A bank which lends to developing nations to help them
increase their capital stock and this achieve economic
growth ?
A. IMF
B. Islamic Bank
C. Commercial bank
D. None

75. A curve showing the distribution of income in an

economy___________________?
A. Lorenz curve
B. Indifference curve
C. Income budget line
D. Investment damage curve
76. A rise in the general level of prices in an
economy___________________?
A. Inflation
B. Dearnen
C. Both
D. None
77. The absence of artificial barriers to trade among
individuals and firms in different nations ?
A. Free trade
B. Free economy
C. Trade union
D. None
78. Employment available resources so that the maximum
amount of goods and services is produced?
A. Large scale production
B. Full production
C. Fringe benefits
D. None
79. Private or public debt owed to foreign citizens firms
and institutions ?
A. External debt
B. Internal debt
C. Loan
D. None
80. Tax levied on production of specific product on
quantity of product purchased ?
A. Sales tax
B. Excise tax
C. Income tax
D. All
81. A line which shows different combinations of two
products a consumer can purchase with a specific
money income, given the products price?
A. Indifference curve
B. Lorenz curve
C. Budget line
D. Say’s law
82. Selling public assets to individuals or private business
interests ?
A. Publication
B. Downsizing
C. Privatization
D. All
83. The investment of private foreign funds in the economy
of a developing nation?
A. Private foreign investment
B. Public investment
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
84. A large govt. role and some degree of coordinated
economic decision making directed towards
transforming the economy are usually viewed as
essential components of__________________?
A. Tradititional economics
B. Development economics
C. Political economics
D. None

85. ______________assumes economic rationality and purely

materialistic, individualistic, self interested orientation
towards economic decision making?
A. Traditional economy
B. Political economy
C. Capitalistic economy
D. Open economy
86. Yearly number of live births per 1000 population is
termed as_________________?
A. Live birth rate
B. Crude birth rate
C. Infant birth rate
D. All
87. In less developed nations economic dependency
burden is__________________?
A. 65 % of the population
B. 55 % of the population
C. 35 % of the population
D. 45 % of the population
88. In richer nations children are______________% of the
dependents?
A. 60 %
B. 70 %
C. 66 %
D. 45%
89. Rural based population in less developed countries
(LDC’s) ?
A. 65 %
B. 45 %
C. 75 %
D. None

90. Labour force engage in Agriculture in economically

developed nations ?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 2%
91. Agriculture contribution in GNP of developing nations ?
A. 15 %
B. 13 %
C. 3 %
D. 21 %
92. Urban population in LDC’s_________________?
A. 464 %
B. 50 %
C. 36 %
D. 20 %
93. In developed countries children are….% of the total
population ?
A. 62 %
B. 35 %
C. 21 %
D. 16 %
94. People both rural and urban who are working less than
they could___________________?
A. Under employment
B. Open employment
C. Partial employment
D. None
95. Urban migration is causing the labour force to grow at
annual rates of _____________in LDC?
A. 10-20%
B. 5-7%
C. 30-35%
D. 35-40%
96. The extreme case of physical resource endowment is
________________?
A. Gulf oil states
B. United states America
C. USSR
D. South Africa
97. The number of children who die before their first
birthday out of every 1,000 live births?
A. Infant mortality rate
B. Children mortality rate
C. Crude mortality rate
D. All
98. Stage of growth model development was porposed
by____________________?
A. Rostow
B. Harrod Dommer
C. Keynes
D. Theodore
99. “structural transformation of primary subsistence
economy for economic development” war proposed by
?
A. Arthur Lewis
B. Keyne’s
C. Carl Marx
D. Rostow
100. The total number of people living below a specified
minimum level of real income, an international poverty
line, is called ?
A. Relative poor
B. Real poverty

C. Absolute poor
D. None
101. A measure of the real purchasing power of the
community ?
A. Aggregate demand
B. Total effective demand
C. Total expenditure
D. All
102. The portion of economy consisting of Agriculture,
Forestry, Hunting and Fishing ?
A. Agricultural sector
B. Rural sector
C. Farm economy
D. All
103. A closed economy that attempts to be completely self-
reliant ?
A. Amortization
B. Command economy
C. Autarchy
D. None
104. The attainment of literacy, arithmetic competence and
elementary vocational skills ?
A. Basic qualifications
B. Basic education
C. Primary education
D. All
105. “All LDC’s require to take off into a period of self-
sustaining economic growth is a massive investment
program designed to promote rapid industrialization
and the building up of economic infrastructure.” ?
A. Economic development theory
B. Big Push theory of development

C. Rostow’s development plan

D. Harod Domes model
106. Stocks of commodities held by the countries or
international organizations to moderate the
commodities price fluctuations ?
A. Black market
B. Buffer stocks
C. Capital stocks
D. Speculation
107. An organization of producers agreeing to limit the
output of their product in an effort to raise prices and
profit ?
A. Cartel
B. Capital account
C. Buffer stock
D. Capital account
108. The determination by the state, of what shall be
produced and how factors of production shall be
allocated among different uses ?
A. Circular flow model
B. Cognitive planning
C. Centralized planning
D. None
109. A process of production that uses a higher proportion
of capital as compared to other factors of production ?
A. Capital intensive technique
B. Labour intensive technique
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
110. A technological innovation that increase the production
while using the same capital input?

A. Capital saving technological process

B. Production intensive technique
C. Capital intensive technique
D. None
111. Problems that occur to the individuals or society as a
whole as a result of the unpopular consumption habits.
Of another individual e.g drug addiction ?
A. Ammunity
B. Commune
C. Consumption diseconomies
D. None of these
112. From of central bank that issues domestic currency for
foreign exchange at fixed rates ?
A. Stock exchange
B. Currency board
C. State Bank
D. Commercial Bank
113. Technologies that by design produce less waste and use
resources more efficiently ?
A. Clean technologies
B. Efficient technology
C. Productive technology
D. Innovative technology
114. A cooperative farm or other collectively organized unit
?
A. Corporation
B. Commune
C. Society
D. All
115. The process of improving the quality of all human lives
including sustenance, self esteem and
freedom________________?

A. Growth
B. Economic growth
C. Development
D. All
116. The principle that if one factor of production is fixed
and constant addition of other factors are combined
with it, the marginal productivity of variable factors
will eventually decline ?
A. Marginal returns
B. Diminishing returns
C. Both
D. None
117. The use of foreign currency as a medium of exchange in
place of or long with the local currency e.g. (Mdexican
Pesos)___________________?
A. Partial substitution
B. Currency substitution
C. Currency devaluation
D. None
118. Changing the term of existing loan________________?
A. Debt repudiation
B. Debt renegotiation
C. Debt transformation
D. All
119. The gradual decline over time in the value or price of
one currency in terms of another as a result of market
forces of supply and demand ?
A. Depreciation
B. Downsizing
C. Rightsizing
D. All

120. he yearly number of children born alive per 1,000

women within a chil bearing age bracket?
121. TA. Crude birth rate
B. Birth rate
C. Fertility rate
D. Expectancy rate
122. International resources shared by all countries e.g
ocean, air etc?
A. Global environment facility
B. Global commons
C. Global reserves
D. None
123. Situation in which govt. intervention in an economy
worsens outcomes__________________?
A. Govt. failure
B. Market perfection
C. Govt. inefficiency
D. None
124. Proportion of school aged children who don’t complete
a particular school cycle ?
A. IIIiteracy rate
B. Dropout rate
C. Children un education rate
D. All
125. A barrier to the attainment of a set target in a particular
period of time?
A. Economic inefficient
B. Economic integration
C. Economic constraint
D. None

126. All international changes in ownership of merchandise

passing across the customs borders of trading
countries?
A. Merchandise trade balance
B. International trade laws
C. Trade barriers
D. Merchandise imports and exports
127. Sum total of currency in circulation plus commercial
bank demand deposits and sometimes savings bank
time deposits?
A. Money supply
B. Money lender
C. National income
D. None
128. Loans not passed through formal banking system e.g.
family loans?
A. Formal finance
B. Informal finance
C. Med term loans
D. Long term loans
129. The payment for the use of borrowed funds _____________?
A. Interest
B. Loan
C. Both
D. None
130. Discount rate that causes a project to have a net present
value of zero used to rank projects in comparison with
market rates of interest?
A. Rate or returns
B. External rate or returns
C. Internal rate or returns
D. None

131. A deliberate effort to replace major consumer imports

by promoting the emergence and expansion of
domestic industries such as textile, shoes etc ?
A. Import substitution
B. Export substitution
C. Autarchy
D. Industrialization
132. A household’s or firm’s income in the form of goods or
services ?
A. Extra income
B. Income in kind
C. Fixed income
D. None
133. Productive investments embodied in human persons?
A. Fixed capital
B. Human capital
C. Both A and B
D. non of these
134. Index measuring deprivation in basic human
development in a country ?
A. Human deprivation index
B. Human poverty index
C. Human development index
D. None
135. Monopoly and oligopoly are the examples
of___________________?
A. Perfect competition
B. Imperfect competition
C. Pure competition
D. None
136. A demand curve shifts because of change
is_____________________?
A. Consumer tastes
B. Number of buyers in market
C. Incomes
D. All of these
137. Other thing remain the same as price rises, the
corresponding quantity supplied rises, as price falls the
quantity supplied falls is___________________?
A. Say’s law
B. Keynes theory of supply
C. Law of supply
D. None
138. Determinant of supply is__________________?
A. Resource price
B. Techniques of production
C. Taxes a subsidies
D. All
139. The intersection of the supply curve and demand curve
indicates ?
A. Market equilibrium
B. Market demand
C. Market condition
D. None
140. The coordinating mechanism of capitalism is a system
of___________________?
A. Capital and laborers
B. Competition
C. Market and prices
D. All
141. A good and service is indivisible and to which the
exclusion principle does apply is called_________________?
A. Public service
B. Public good

C. Public finance
D. Public debt
142. An essentially risk free, long term interest rate which is
free of the influence of market imperfections?
A. Pure rate of interest
B. Economic rate of interest
C. Nominal rate of interest
D. None
143. An interest bearing deposit which normally can be
withdrawn by the depositor at any time ?
A. Saving deposit
B. Fixed deposit
C. Capital deposit
D. None
144. The use of the resources of an individual or firm, a
region, or a nation to produce one or a few goods and
services ?
A. Specialization
B. speculation
C. Fly over
D. Capital flight
145. An ownership share in a corporation___________________?
A. Stock
B. Corporation
C. Both
D. None
146. A payment of funds by a govt. firm or house hold for
which it receives no goods or services in return?
A. Subsidy
B. Tax
C. lump-sum-tax
D. None

147. Total number of monetary units received by a firm from

the sale of a product is called___________________?
A. Total revenue
B. Nominal profit
C. Both
D. None
148. To obtain the greates utility consumer should allocate
money income so that last dollar spent on each good or
service yields the same marginal utility ?
A. Law of diminishing return
B. Say’ law
C. Law of diminishing marginal utility
D. Say’ law
149. Increase in the price level at a rate greater than
expected ?
A. Dearness
B. Deflation
C. Stagflation
D. Unanticipated
150. Building of new factories in particular nation by
corporations of other nations ?
A. Discrimination
B. Direct foreign investment
C. Profit maximization rule
D. Economies of scale
151. An industry in which economics profits are negative
and which will, therefore, decrease its output as firms
leave it ?
A. Increasing cost industry
B. Decreasing cost industry
C. Declining industry
D. None of these

152. A course of action indented to correct or avoid a

problem_________________?
A. Economic principle
B. Economic policy
C. Economic phenomena
D. Economic rationale
153. Obtaining the socially optimal amounts of goods and
services using minimum necessary resources ?
A. Economic efficiency
B. Productive efficiency
C. Allocative efficiency
D. All
154. An accounting item which decreases the value of an
asset___________________?
A. Debit
B. Credit
C. Depreciation
D. None
155. A labour union which limits its membership to workers
with a particular skill ?
A. Labour union
B. Craft union
C. Credit union
D. None
156. A federal budget deficit caused by a recession and a
consequent decline in tax revenues ?
A. Annual deficit
B. Cyclical deficit
C. Anticipated deficit
D. None

157. A schedule showing the amounts households plan to

spend for consumer goods at different levels of
disposable income is called________________?
A. Income schedule
B. Saving schedule
C. Consumption schedule
D. None
158. A firm which engages in in the busyness of
banking_________________?
A. State bank
B. Commercial bank
C. World bank
D. None
159. A tax which is a constant amount at all levels of GDP is
termwd as ?
A. Fixed tax
B. Surcharge
C. Lump sum tax
D. None
160. A debit which monitory value, an amount awed by a
firm or an individual___________________?
A. Lockout
B. Logrolling
C. Liability
D. None
161. A group of firms which produces identical or similar
products__________________?
A. Plant
B. Industry
C. Company
D. Organization

162. A type of unemployment used by workers voluntarily

changing jobs and by temporary layoffs; unemployment
workers between jobs?
A. Underemployment
B. Frictional employment
C. Temporary unemployment
D. None of these
163. Any resource whose quantity can not be changed by a
firm in the short run_______________?
A. Fixed resource
B. Variable resource
C. Available resource
D. Economic resource
164. The monitory income a firm sacrifices when it uses a
resource it rosins rather than supplying the resource in
the market ?
A. Implicit cost
B. Explicit cost
C. Economic cost
D. Nominal cost
165. The rate of exchange of one nation’s currency for
another nation’s currency?
A. Exchange rate appreciation
B. Exchange rate depreciation
C. Exchange rate determinant
D. None of these
166. Recurring increase and decrease in the level of
economic activity over periods of years?
A. Business cycle
B. Cyclic flow
C. Both
D. None

167. Excess of total revenue over total costs_______________?

A. Producer surplus
B. Scarcity rent
C. Both
D. None
168. The role of power in economic decision making is
studied in________________?
A. Development economics
B. Traditional economics
C. Political economics
D. None of these
169. Noble prize of Economics in 1979 was awarded
to________________?
A. W. Arthur Lewis
B. Theodore Schultz
C. Both a and b
D. None
170. The core value of development is________________?
A. Sustenance
B. Self esteem
C. Freedom
D. All
171. Nonproductive members of society are referred to
as___________________?
A. Society wastes
B. Society burden
C. Economic dependency burden
D. None of these
172. In least developed nations dependent children
are__________________?
A. 60 %
B. 90 %
C. 50 %
D. 70 %
173. In LDC children under age of 15 years are ___________% of
the total population?
A. 40 %
B. 50 %
C. 80 %
D. None
174. Rural based population in developed
countries___________________?
A. 42 %
B. 27 %
C. 50 %
D. 35 %
175. Agriculture contribution in GNP of developing nations?
A. 20 %
B. 35 %
C. 50 %
D. 14 %
176. Urban population is developed nations?
A. 74 %
B. 80 %
C. 67 %
D. none
177. In developed countries manufactured goods are about
________________% of total export?
A. 60 %
B. 90 %
C. 57 %
D. 82 %
178. People who are eager and able to work but for whom no
suitable jobs are available?
A. Unemployment
B. Open unemployment
C. Under employment
D. Disguised employment
179. Rates of open unemployment in developing world
average ?
A. 20-40%
B. 8-15%
C. 35-45%
D. 40-60%
180. A country’s potential for economic growth is greatly
influenced by its endowments of__________________?
A. Physical resources
B. Human resources
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
181. Number of peoples and their level of skills is called
as________________?
A. Human resources
B. Physical resources
C. Capital resources
D. None
182. Year number of deaths per 1,000 population is called?
A. Crude mortality rate
B. Death rates
C. Both
D. None
183. “The tricks of economic growth and development are
simply a matter of increasing national savings and
investment.” Is a simplest form of?
A. Rostow growth stages
B. Keynesian development theory

C. Harod-Domar growth model

D. None
184. Aggregate inequality measures that can vary anywhere
from O (perfect equality) to 1 (perfect inequality) are
given by________________?
A. Gini co-efficient
B. Rostow’s model
C. Lewis theory
D. None
185. Total amount of income necessary to raise everyone
who is below the poverty line up to that line ?
A. Subsistence income
B. Poverty gap
C. Absolutely poverty
D. None
186. Economic model describing growth of the economy on
one or at most a few sectors and variables?
A. Formal growth model
B. Functional growth model
C. Aggregate growth model
D. None
187. Gradual pay off a loan principle ?
A. Autarchy
B. Hierarchically
C. Amortization
D. AID
188. A summary statement of a nations financial
transactions with the outside world ?
A. Balance of payments
B. Trade off
C. Both a and b
D. None

189. A term used by ILO to describe the basic goods and

services necessary for a minimum standard of living ?
A. Basic needs
B. Poverty line
C. Gini co-efficient
D. None
190. The emigration of highly skilled and educated
professionals and technical man power from
developing to developed countries?
A. Capital flight
B. Immigration
C. Brain Drain
D. All
191. Increasing a country’s stock of real capital (net
investment in fixed essels)__________________?
A. Capital accumulation
B. Capital dumping
C. Capital stock
D. None
192. Major financial institution responsible for issuing
currency, managing foreign reserves implementing
monetary policy and providing banking service to the
govt. and commercial banks ?
A. Central Bank
B. State Bank
C. Both
D. None
193. Transfer of funds to a foreign country by a local citizen
by business ?
A. Dumping
B. Anti dumping

C. Capital flight
D. Brain
194. A ratio that shows the unit of capital required to
produce a unit of output over a given period of time?
A. Capital input ratio
B. Capital output ratio
C. Capital intensive ratio
D. None
195. Excess utility over price derived by the consumers
because of negative sloping demand curve ?
A. Producer surplus
B. Consumer surplus
C. Marginal utility
D. Demand surplus
196. Advantage that occurs to individual or society as a
whole as a result of increase in the consumption of
certain types of goods or services by other individuals ?
A. Consumption economics
B. Consumption function
C. Consumption surplus
D. Consumer demand
197. Cetris peribus stands for__________________?
198. Let it be
C. All else being equal
D. Same as given before
E. None
199. An agreement among sellers of a commodity to set a
common price or share their commodity market?
A. Oligopoly
B. Monopoly
C. collusion
D. All
200. An economic plan that sets targets to cover all the

major sectors of the national economy?
A. Centralized plan
B. Comprehensive plan
C. Commune
D. None
201. The study of how economies are transformed from
stagnation to growth and from low income to higher
income status?
A. Econometrics
B. Development economics
C. Development plan
D. All
202. All seem fully employed but in reality much of their
time is spent in unproductive activities?
A. Disguised underemployment
B. Underemployment
C. Closed underemployment
D. None
203. Group of LDC debtors who join together to bargain as a
group with creditors?
A. Debtor’s cartel
B. Economic union
C. Debtor’s commune
D. None
204. The sum of interest payments and repayment of
principal on external public and public ally guarantee
debt?
A. Debt repudiation
B. Debt renegotiation
C. Debt service
D. Debt rescheduling

205. Any financial institution that serves to channel loan

able funds savers to borrowers?
A. Financial intermediary
B. IMF
C. Both
D. None
206. The increasing integration of national economies into
expanding international market ?
A. Randomization
B. Globalization
C. Economic integration
D. None
207. Income that is available to house holds for spending
and saving after personal, income taxes have been
deducted ?
A. Saving
B. Disposable income
C. Net income
D. All
208. The study process by which a productive capacity of the
economy is increased over time to bring about raising
levels of national output and income?
A. Development
B. Economic growth
C. Economic integration
D. All
209. Activities of central bank designed to influence
financial variables such as money supply and interest
rates?
A. Fiscal policy
B. Economic policy

C. Monitory policy
D. None
210. A market situation in which a product that does not
have close substitutes is being produced and sold by a
single seller?
A. Oligopoly
B. Monopoly
C. Perfect competition
D. None
211. Any system that features one price for sellers and
another for buyers ?
A. Dual price system
B. Floor pricing
C. Ceiling pricing
D. None
212. The part of the urban economy of LDC’s characterized
by small competitive individual or family firms, labour
intensive methods, free entry and market determined
factor and product prices?
A. Formal sector
B. Informal sector
C. Formal finance
D. Informal finance
213. The annual amount that a borrower must pay a lender
over an above the total borrowed ?
A. Interest
B. Loan
C. Interest rated
D. None
214. The implicit change in real income resulting from the
effects of a change in a commodity’s price on quantity
demand?

A. Income effect
B. Substitution effect
C. Labour effect
D. All
215. The responsiveness of the quantity demand of a
commodity to change in the consumer’s income,
measured by the proportionate change in quantity
divided by the proportionate change in income ?
A. Elasticity of demand
B. Import substitution
C. Income elasticity of demand
D. None
216. The currency of a major industrial country, such as the
U.S dollar___________________?
A. Main currency
B. Hard currency
C. Stable currency
D. None
217. An index measuring national socioeconomic
development based on measures of life expectancy at
birth, educational attainment and adjusted per capital
income ?
A. Human development index
B. Human poverty index
C. Headcount index
D. None
218. What percentage of Agriculture in GDP?
A. 20.9
B. 21.5
C. 19.8
D. 18.5

Agricultural (Entomology) MCQs
1. The study of insect is called ?
A. Entomology
B. Applied Entomology
C. Zoology
D. Non of the above
2. An abnormal proliferation of plant cells resulting from
outside stimulus (Insect, a fungal growth, a mite) is called ?
A. Gall
B. Boring
C. Malformation
D. Malnutrition
3. Insects in which the young ones pass through complex or
indirect metamorphosis are said to be _____________?
A. Hypermetamophosis
B. Holometabola
C. Ametabola
D. Hemimetabola
4. The young one of holemetabola is_______________?
A. Nymph
B. Naiad
C. Larvae
D. Pupa
5. The young ones of hemimetabolous insects or exopteryota
which are terrestrial in habbit is__________________?
A. Pupa
B. Nymph
C. Larva
D. Naiad
6. Legless larvae of coleopteran having a tiny head and a few
sense organs is________________?
A. Maggot
B. Imago
C. Grub
D. None of these
7. The form off insect after complete metamorphosis
is__________________?

A. Imago
B. Pupa
C. Puparium
D. Grub
8. The type of diapause which occur in winter is________________?
A. Hibernation
B. Aestivation
C. Stravation
D. Dormancy
9. Insects belong to class__________________?
A. Symphyla
B. Pauropoda
C. Crustacea
D. Hexapoda
10. Any organism which harms or causes damage to man directly
or indirectly is called ?
A. Inset pest
B. Pest
C. Agricultural Insect
11. _______________is a practice of dinning on one’s own species?
A. Cannibalism
B. Hibernation
C. Diapause
D. Non of the above
12. Insects which develop their wings externally?
A. Exopterygota
B. Endopterygota
C. Apterabola
13. Resting stage in endopteryota is called?
A. Larva
B. Adult
C. Pupae
D. Nympth

14. The young ones of exopteryotes butt aquatic in habit is?
A. Naiad
B. Nymph
C. Larva
D. Adult
15. Young ones of fly is_________________?
A. Imago
B. Maggot
C. Grub
D. Puparium
16. The physiological state or arrested metabolism in which
development of insects is delayed irrespective of
environmental factors is____________________?
A. Tor por
B. Quiescence
C. Diapause
D. Hibernation
17. Type of diapause occur in summer or under drought
condition is called_______________________?
A. Dormancy
B. Torpor
C. Aestivation
D. Starvation
18. Insects feed on one type of food are called __________________?
A. Monophagous
B. Polyphagous
C. Omnivorous insects
D. Carnivorous insects
19. Examples of poly phagous insect is__________________?
A. Helicoverpa armigera
B. Ants
C. Green lacewing
D. Pink bollworm
20. Aphid is example of____________________?
A. Oviparous
B. Viviparous

C. Paedogenesis
D. All type of production
21. Insects which are during day light hours are
called_________________?
A. Diurnal insects
B. Nocturnal insects
C. Crepuscular insects
D. Non of the above
22. It is an organism which lives on or within another living
organism is called_________________?
23. B. Parasite
C. Predator
D. Parasitoid
E. Scavengers
24. A few species of ants and termites which depend on cultivated
plants are___________________?
A. Agricultural insects
B. Insect pest
C. Pest
25. The study of form and structure of insects are
called__________________?
A. insect morphology
B. insect physiology
C. insect Ecology
D. No of above
26. Male mosquitoes have antennae while female mosquitoes
have antennae__________________?
A. Aristate, plumose
B. Plumose, pilose
C. Pectinate, Pilose
D. Pectinate, plumose
27. House has antennae_____________________?
A. Aristate
B. Stylate

C. Ensiform
D. Capitate
28. The lateral selertized region of insect body is
called_________________?
A. Pleuron
B. Tergum
C. Sternum
29. The main body regions of insects are called____________________?
A. Tagmata
B. Antecosta
C. Acrotergata
30. Butter flies have antennae________________?
A. Capitate
B. Clavate
C. Geniculate
D. Flabellate
31. Housefly have mouth parts_________________?
A. Sponging type
B. Siphoning type
C. Rasping type
D. Piecing sucking type
32. Jassid, Aphid and bugs have________________?
A. Rasping
B. Siphoning type
C. Sponging type
D. Piecing sucking type
33. Costal margin of wing of insect is______________?
A. Frontal margin
B. Outer margin
C. Hinder margin
D. Inner margin
34. Suffering cause in insects due to lack of food is
called________________?

A. Aestivation
B. Starvation
C. Dormancy
D. Non of the above
35. Examples of monophagous insect is_________________?
A. Helicoverpa armigera
B. Ants
C. Green lacewing
D. Pectinophora gossypiella (Pink bollworm)
36. Viviparous insects which produced__________________?
A. Eggs
B. Young ones
C. Nymph
37. Insects which are active at night are called________________?
A. Diurnal insects
C. Crepuscular insects
38. Insects which are mainly during evening or morning twilight
are called_______________?
A. Crepuscular insects
C. Diurnal insects
39. A free living animal that attack and feed on other organism is
called_______________?
A. Predator
B. Parasite
C. Scavenger
D. Parasite
40. Insect which are found every where are
called___________________?
A. Cosmopolitan insects
B. Household insects

C. Store grain
41. Three main part of antennae are _____________________?
A. Scape pedicel, flagellum
B. Ring, funicle, club
C. Scape, club, flagellum
D. Pedicle, scape, club
42. The study of functions of different parts of insects is
called__________________?
A. Insect ecology
B. Insect morphology
D. Insect Physiology
43. The dorsal sclerotized region of insect body is
called__________________?
A. Tergum
B. Pleuron
C. Sternum
44. The ventral selerotized region of insect body is
called___________________?
A. Pleuron
B. Tergum
C. Sternum
45. White files have eggs______________________?
A. Elongate
B. Conical
C. Stalked
D. Oval
46. Asymmetrical mouths parts present in__________________?
A. Aphid
B. Thrips
C. Housefly
D. None
47. Grass hopper, cricket have mouth parts__________________?

A. Biting chewing type
B. Piercing sucking type
C. Chewing lapping type
D. Biting and sponging type
48. Costal margin of wing of insect is________________?
A. Frontal margin
B. Outer margin
C. Hinder margin
D. Inner margin
49. The long axis of head is horizontal and in line with insect
body, mouth parts directed forward is type of
head_______________?
A. Prognathous
B. Hypognathous
C. Opisthognathous
D. Opis thosynchous
50. Apical margin of wing of insect is____________________?
A. Hinder margin
B. Frontal margin
C. Outer margin
D. Inner margin
51. Campo deiform is type of_________________?
A. Larvae
B. Pupae
C. Eggs
D. Naiad
52. larvae with cylindrical, elongated, narrow body anterionly
and with out legs is__________________?
A. campo deiform
B. Eruci form
C. Vermiform
D. Scarabaeiform
53. Type of pupae with appendages are free and no glued to the
body is_________________?
A. Obtect
B. Coarctate

C. Exarate
D. Platyform
54. Grasshopper and cockroaches have type of wings
is____________________?
A. Tegmina
B. Hemelytra
C. Stripy
D. hemelgtra
55. When the fore wings are modified into halteres. they are
called_________________?
A. Filohalteres
B. pseudohalteres
C. Halteres
D. Hemelytra
56. Wings are modified into rod like structure in Thrips are type
of wings________________?
A. Membrarieous
B. halteres
C. Stripy
D. Elytra
57. Honey bees with a row of minutes hooks on the anterior
wings that catch in to the up-rolled hind border of the fore
wing is_______________?
A. Frenulum
B. Jugum
C. Retainaculum
D. hamuli
58. Ants butterflies, wasp, moths have type of legs
______________________?
A. Basket like
B. Cursorial
C. Netatorial
D. Fossorial
59. Jumping legs present in grasshopper known
as___________________?

A. Saltatorial
B. Raptiorial
C. Cursorial
D. Netatiorial
60. The body wall of insect which includes cuticle, epidermis and
basement membrane is__________________?
A. Integument
B. Exoskeleton
C. Internal skeleton
61. Function of Exo cuticle insect is_________________?
A. Rigidity of body parts
B. impermeability of water
C. Prevent evaporation
D. Toughness and flexibility
62. It is a nitrogenous polysaccharides which are more than 50%
of substance of cuticle is called___________________?
A. Sclerotion
B. Resilin
C. Chitin
D. Cuticulin
63. Insect body divided into external grooves called
Sutures__________________?
A. Sutures
B. Somites
C. Sclerite
D. Acron
64. The process of periodic shedding of hard secretion cuticle
which occurs during developmental stages of insects is
called_______________?
A. Moulting
B. Ecdysis
C. Exuvium
D. Moulting and Ecdysis
65. Juvenile hormone ensures_______________?

A. Causes moulting
B. Larval organism is to be made after moulting
C. Maintains immature forms during larval moults
D. 2nd and 3rd both
66. What is the function of carbohydrates enzymes in
insects____________________?
A. Sugar breakers
B. Fat and oil breakers
C. Protein breakers
D. Oxygen breakers
67. Which enzyme responsible for the break down of fat and
oil__________________?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipases
C. Proteases
D. non of theses
68. Type of reproduction in which young ones Produced form
unfertilized eggs is________________?
A. Parthenogenesis
B. Pacdogenesis
C. Vtviparity
D. Polyenibryony
69. Type of reproduction in which two or more individuals are
produced from a single egg____________________?
A. Viviparity
B. Polyembryony
C. Paedogenesis
D. Parthenogenesis
70. Iocomotary movement of an organ towards a stimulus, but
stimulus does not control direction of the movement
is_________________?
A. Kinesis
B. Orthokinesis
C. Uniokineses
D. Hydrokinesis
71. Locomotion in response to touch is_________________?

A. Chemokinesis
B. Stereokinesis
C. Hydrokinesis
D. Klinokinesis
72. Fast acting pheromones and called__________________?
A. Releasers
B. Primers
C. Semiochemicals
D. Allelochemicals
73. Chemicals, which transmit the chemical message, to
individual of various species_________________?
A. Semio chemicals
B. Allelo chemicals
C. Primers
D. Releasers
74. It is the tendency of a plant to escape infestation is known
as________________?
A. Plant resistance
B. Resistance
C. Pest avoidance
D. Tolerance
75. Total complete resistance against any adverse condition is
called_________________?
A. Immunity
B. Tolerance
C. Resistance
D. Plant resistance
76. A type of resistance in which a series of different cultivars of
the same crop are infested with a series of different insect
biotype of same species show no differentia intersction, such
type of resistance is___________________?
A. Specific resistance
B. Horizontal resistance
C. General resistance
D. Cross resistance

77. When some cultivars are resistance and some cultivars are
susceptible, when they are infested with same insect biotype
such type of resistance is called___________________?
A. General resistance
B. Specific resistance
C. Cross resistance
D. Horizontal resistance
78. A population or group of insects composed of a single
genotype is called_____________________?
A. Pilosity
B. Biotype
C. Genotype
D. Phenotype
79. These insects which lie in organized colonies or possess cast
system is called___________________?
A. Social insect
B. Stored grain insect
C. House hold insect
80. The insects which spend their lives individually and do not
lives in colonies are known as_____________________?
A. Social insects
B. Solitary insects
C. Gregarious
D. Stored grain insects
81. The colony of termites is called___________________?
A. Termitorium
B. Cage
C. Hive
D. Comb
82. The bees which are reared artificially as commercial business
are called________________?
A. Domestic bees
B. Wild bees
C. None of above
D. Jelly

83. The artificial food of Queen is known as_______________________?
A. Jelly
B. Royal Jelly
C. Bee bread
D. Nectar
84. Difference between workers and drones _____________________?
A. Drones are female while workers are sterile
B. Drones are male while workers are sterile
C. Drones are sterile while workers are sterile
85. Types of pheromones which alert the insect from any danger
known as__________________?
A. Alarm pheromone
B. Aggregation pheromone
C. Sex pheromone
D. Trial marking pheromone
86. Types of pheromone which motivate the insects to follow each
other is known as____________________?
A. Alarm pheromone
C. Sex pheromone
87. Lac is produced by insect_________________?
A. Bombyx mori
B. Laceifera lacca
C. Apis dorsata
D. Apis cerana
88. Commercial production of lac through lac insects is
called___________________?
A. Sericulture
B. Apiculture
C. Floriculture
D. Lac culture
89. Queen and drones have_______________number of chromosome ?
A. Diploid
B. Haploid

C. Triploid
D. None of above
90. What are productive insects_________________?
A. Silk worms Lac insects Honey bees
B. Parasites, Predators, Pollination
C. Silk worm, Pollinators, Predators
D. Lac insect, Honey bees, pollinator
91. What types of insects are injurious__________________?
A. Agricultural pest, house hold, Store grain, Pollinators
B. Agricultural pest, Parasite, Predator
C. Store grain, Parasite, Predator
D. Agricultural pest, house hold pest, Store grain, insects of
domestic animals
92. The workers of ant, of ant, bee and wasps are_________________?
A. May be a non reproductive male or non reproductive female
B. A non reproductive male
C. A non reproductive female
93. Photogenic organ are present in____________________?
A. Flies
B. Fire flies
C. Wasps
D. Honey bee
94. What is the family of mosquito________________?
A. Culicidae
B. Pyralidae
C. Tineidae
D. Bombicidae
95. Which families are most of them are scavenger ?
A. Tineidae
B. Pyralidae
C. Tineidae and Pyralidae
D. Culicidae
96. Most of the insect require__________________?
A. Vitamin B
B. Vitamin C

C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin D
97. The largest insect of the world___________________?
A. Elephant beetle
B. Hairy winged beetle
C. Grasshopper
D. Locust
98. Which insect cut the root of plants____________________?
A. Mole cricket
B. Ground beetles
C. Pyrilla
D. Gryllobllated
99. Any organism which harm or causes damage man directly or
indirectly called as________________?
A. Insect
B. Insect pest
C. Pest
100. The rapid reappearance of the pest population in injurious
number is called_________________?
A. IPM
B. IPC
C. Pest resurgence
D. Pest outbreak
101. The amount of pest induced injury to the crop which will
justify the cost of artificial control measures is
called________________?
A. Economic damage
B. Economic threshold
C. Economic injury level
D. None of the Above
102. The pest population at which control measure should be
taken to prevent the pest population to build up to reach
economic injury level is called_________________?
A. Economic threshold level
B. Economic injury level

C. Economic damage
103. Main kind of insect pests are___________________?
A. Major pest and minor pest
B. Key pest
C. Migrant pest and potential pest
D. All the above
104. Desert locust is__________________?
A. Migrant pest
B. Occasional pest
C. Key pest
D. Potential pest
105. Cotton bollworms, sugarcane borers are_________________?
A. Major pest
B. Key pest
C. Minor pest
D. Secondary pest
106. Potential pest also called__________________?
A. Secondary pest
B. Major pest
C. Minor pest
D. Key pest
107. All the practices used to control the pest population with in
certain limit are called_________________?
A. Artificial control
B. Natural control
C. Cultural control
D. Chemical control
108. The use of all possible control strategies to manage pest
population below economic injury level is
called________________?
A. IPM
B. IPC
C. Pest outbreak
D. Pest resurgence

109. Propagation and release of sterile incompatible individuals is
done in pest population is called__________________?
A. Genetic control
B. Chemical control
C. Regularity control
D. Physical control
110. Population prediction of a particular species with in the field
is called____________________?
A. Fore casting
B. Haemospora
C. Surveillance
D. Pest scouting
111. The spreading habit of the crop caused by insect which makes
cultivation, weeding and harvesting more difficult is process
of________________?
A. Haemospora
B. Fore casting
C. Surveillance
D. Pest scouting
112. The free living insects that catch and devour smaller or more
helpless creatures, usually killing them in getting a single
meal is called ?
A. Predator
B. Parasites
C. Prey
D. Parasitism
113. The living organisms that are usually larger, stronger or more
intelligent then the parasite is called____________________?
A. Host
B. Pray
C. Predator
D. Parasite
114. An egg parasitoid of lepidopterous insects
is______________________?
A. Trichogramma sp
B. Apanteles sp

C. water joint beetle
D. Ichneumon
115. Some insects which are used as bio control agents for used
control is called________________?
A. Entomophagous parasites
B. Zoophagous parasites
C. Phytophagous parasites
116. The parasite which requires only one host for its complete life
cycle is called________________?
A. Monoxenous parasites
D. Entomophagous parasites
117. The parasites whose hosis are also parasites collectively
termed as___________________?
A. Hyperparasites
B. Phytophagous parasites
C. Heteroxenous parasites
118. Best example of parasites are ___________________?
A. Ichneumon, Fleas
B. Trichograma sp, Horse flie
C. Cotesia sp
D. All of above
119. The insect which Parasitizes one species of host is
called__________________?
A. Obligated Parasite
B. Permanent Parasite
C. Transitory Parasite
D. Intermitted Parasite
120. Cotesia flavipers is endo larval parasite of_________________?
A. Sugarcane stem borer
B. Sugarcane top borer
C. Sugarcane root borer
D. Sugarcane black borer

121. The parasites which capable of parasitizing a considerable
number of host species is called____________________?
A. Polyhagous parasites
B. oligophagous parasites
C. Facultative parasites
D. Transitory parasites
122. What is antidote__________________?
A. Treatment given to counteract the effects of a poison
B. Increase the effects of a poison
C. No action against pesticide
123. Diazepam is an antidote of_________________?
A. Organophosphate
B. Carbamte
C. Organ chlorine
D. Pyrethorid
124. A chemical which attracts pest to a trap is
called__________________?
A. Bait
B. Defoliant
C. Acute poisoning
D. Chronic poisoning
125. Death of an insect from a single dose is called__________________?
A. Defoliant
B. Bait
C. Chronic poisoning
D. Acute poisoning
126. Chemical added to pesticide to increase its activity is
called________________?
A. Activator
B. Agitation
C. Adjuvant
D. Synergism
127. A substance used in a pesticide, it helps the spray material to
adhere to the sprayed surface is called_________________?

A. Adhesive
B. Adjuvant
C. Activator
D. Agitation
128. A poison produced by a plant, animal or organisms is
called____________________?
A. Toxin
B. Toxicant
C. Neurotoxin
129. A substance that destructive to nerve tissue is
called____________________?
A. Toxicant
B. Neurotoxin
C. Drift
D. Swath
130. Toxic refers to a________________?
A. Poison
B. Poisonous material
C. None of the Above
D. Both of them
131. A dose of a toxicant that kills 50% of the exposed organism is
called_________________?
A. LC50
B. LD50
D. LD75
132. Against sucking and chewing insect pest we
apply___________________?
A. Monocrotophos, Diazinon, Profenophos
B. Endosulfan, Deltamethrin, Dimethoate
C. Cypermethrin, Permethrin,Malathion
D. All the above
133. Against Lepidopterous larvae we apply_________________?
A. Lefenuron, Chlorfluazuron, Flufenoxum
B. Formothion

C. Methamidohpos
D. All the above
134. What is DDT__________________?
A. Dichloro-diphenyl,trichloro,ethane
B. Dimethory diphenyl,trichloro,ethane
C. Dichloro diphenyl teracholoride
135. What is T.S.O ?
A. Technical sales officer
B. Technical scientific officer
C. Tehsil sale officer
136. The mixing of pesticide through agitator to prevent it form
separating in the sprayer tarik is called_________________?
A. Activator
B. Synergism
C. Adjuvant
D. Agitation
137. Larvae with both thoracic and abdominal legs
is_________________?
A. Cruciform
B. carabifrom
C. Vermiform
D. Platy form
138. Syrphid flies have type of larvae________________?
A. Platy form
B. Carabiform
C. vermiform
D. Eruiform
139. Moths and butterflies have types of pupae________________?
A. Obtect
B. Coarctate
C. Exarate
D. Platyform
140. Hind winds of true flies are modified in to tiny knobbed
structure is known as________________?

A. Filohalteres
B. Pseudohalteres
C. Halteres
D. Membranous
141. Beetles, weevils, earwigs. have fore wing very thick and hard
structure is__________________?
A. Hemelytra
B. Elytra
C. Stripy
D. Halteres
142. Butterflies having wing coupling apparatus is__________________?
A. Overlapping
B. Jugum
C. Frenulum
D. Overlapping and Jugum
143. Dragonfly and damselfly have type of legs_________________?
A. Fossorial
B. Metatorial
C. Raptorial
D. Basket like
144. Metalegs of worker honey bee is _____________________?
A. Antenna cleaner
B. Silk secreting
C. Cursorial
D. Pollen collecting
145. Tentorium is____________________?
A. Exoskeleton of head
B. Internal skeleton of head
C. Internal skeleton
146. Function of epiculticle in insect is__________________?
A. Rigidly of body parts
B. Impermeability of water
C. Prevent evaporation
D. Impermeability of water and prevent evaporation
147. Function of endo cuticle is________________________?

A. Prevent evaporation
B. Rigidity of body parts
C. Extensiblity of integument and flexibility
D. Impermeability of water
148. The insect skeleton is composed of series of plates
called__________________?
A. Sclerites
B. Conjunctivae
C. Sutures
D. Somites
149. The last segment of insect which bears a structure which help
during mating is_________________?
A. Paraproct
B. Subgenital plate
C. Acron
D. Somites
150. Which hormone cause moulting in insect_________________?
A. Ecdysone
B. Juvenile
C. Activation hormone
151. Proventriculus also called as___________________?
A. Gizzard
B. Crop
C. Esophagus
D. Pharynx
152. Which enzyme breaks protein__________________?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipases
C. Proteases
D. Amylase
153. Which insect have bacteria and in their digestive
system_______________?
A. Termites
B. Ants

C. Silver fish
D. None
154. Type of reproduction in which young ones are produced by
larval or pupal stages is____________________?
A. Paedogenesis
B. Polyembryony
C. Viviparity
D. Polyembrony
155. The haring organs in grasshopper_________________?
A. Johnston’s organ
B. Tympanal organ
C. Chorodotonal organ
156. Locomotion in response to odour is_________________?
A. Chemokinesis
B. Hydrokinesis
C. Stereokinesis
D. Klinokinesis
157. A chemical or secretions which are thrown outside the body
for transmitting message to the individual of same species
is_________________?
A. Hormone
B. Pheromone
C. Juvinile Hormone
D. Ecdysone
158. The slow acting pheromones are_________________?
A. Primers
B. Releasers
C. Semio chemicals
D. Allelo chemicals
159. Social behavior present in__________________?
A. Termites
B. Ants bees
C. Butterflies
D. Termites, Ants< bees

160. The ability of a plant by means of which it is less damaged by
insects is________________?
A. Tolerance
B. Pest avoidance
C. Plant resistance
D. Resistance
161. A type of resistance in which a series of different cultivars of
the same crop are infested with a series of different insect
biotypes of same species show a differentia interaction is
known as_________________?
A. Horizontal resistance
B. Vertical resistance
C. Specific resistance
D. Cross resistance
162. A level of resistance show by a cultivar is similar against all
insect biotype such type of resistance is___________________?
A. Cross resistance
D. Vertical resistance
163. A level of resistance show by a cultivar is similar against all
insect biotype such type of resistance is__________________?
A. Cross resistance
D. Vertical resistance
164. The phenomenon off insect resistance to one type of
insecticide providing resistance to other insecticides with
similar mode of action__________________?
A. Cross resistance
D. Horizantal resistance
165. What is function of deterrent__________________?
A. Chemical which prevent feeding
B. Prevent ovipositon of an insect

C. Prevent feeding and oviposition of an insect
166. What is the most social insects__________________?
A. Black ants
B. Termites
C. Honeybees
167. Those insects which lives in groups, clones or tribes form are
called__________________?
A. Gregarious insects
B. Social insects
C. Solitary insects
D. Household insects
168. The bees are not reared for commercial purpose are
called_________________?
A. Domestic bees
B. Wild bees
D. Wild bees
169. Royal Jelly made up of__________________?
A. Pollen and water
B. Pollen, water, nectar
C. Pollen and nectar
D. Pollen, Water, Nectar
170. What is bee bread____________________?
A. Honey and wax
B. Pollen and nectar
C. Honey and pollen
D. non of these
171. In honey bees a flight for mating purpose is
called_________________?
A. Nuptial flight
B. Straight flight
C. Tactile flight
D. None of above

172. Type of pheromone which get together the insects for food
and mating is known as________________?
A. Alarm pheromone
C. Sex pheromone
173. Silk is produced by_____________insect ?
A. Laceifer lacae
B. Bombyx mori
C. Apis cerana
D. Apis dorsata
174. Commercial production of silk is called_________________?
A. Sericulture
B. Apiculture
C. Floriculture
D. Lac culture
175. Commercial rearing of honey is called________________?
A. Sericulture
B. Apiculture
C. Floriculture
D. Lac culture
176. Fire flies are________________?
A. Flies
B. Beetles
C. Fleas
D. Wasps
177. Termite workers are_________________?
A. May be a non reproductive male or non reproductive
female
B. A non reproductive male
C. A non reproductive female
D. None of above
178. What are helpful insects___________________?
A. Predators, Pollinators, Parasites, Honey bees
B. Silkworm, Pollinators, Predators, Scavenges

C. Weed killers, scavengers, predator, pollinator, parasites
D. Predators, Pollinators, Lac insects
179. Workers of honey bees have number of
chromosome_______________?
A. Diploid
B. Haploid
C. Triploid
D. None of above
180. Which insect cause ear splitting plain to some
people__________________?
A. Cicadas
B. Fireflies
C. Locust
D. Silver fish
181. The fleas do _____________________?
A. Fly
B. Never flown
C. May or may not fly
D. non of these
182. Insect are_________________?
A. Cold blooded animals
B. Warm blooded animals
C. Grasshopper
D . None of the above
183. Where the most insects are abundant____________________?
A. Tropical region
B. Sub tropical
C. temperature region
184. Which is the strongest animal of the world_________________?
A. Whales
B. Elephants
C. Ants
D. Beetles

185. The use of two or more pest control method except chemical
control in a planned way to control pests is
called__________________?
A. Integrated pest management
B. Integrated pest control
C. Integrated insect pest management
D. Pest resource
186. An explosive increase in population of particular species that
occurs over a short period of time is called________________?
A. IPM
B. IPC
C. Pest resurgence
D. Pest outbreak
187. The pest which damages the crop and causes a loss in quality
or quantity which can be calculated such pest is
called_______________?
A. Insect pest
B. Pest
C. Economic pest
D. Sub economic pest
188. The lowest pest population that will cause economic damage
is called ___________________?
A. Economic injury level
B. Economic threshold level
C. Economic damage
189. The pest which causes no significant damage but due to
unjudious use of chemical they cause significant loss is called
?
A. Secondary pest
B. Key pest
C. Occasional pest
D. Migrant pest
190. An insect pest normally present at some time during the
growing season that causes the economic damage to a crop is
called ?

A. Key pest
B. Secondary pest
C. Occasional pest
D. Migrant pest
191. When damage cause by insect pest is slight such pest is
referred as___________________?
A. Major pest
B. Minor pest
C. Key pest
D. Migrant pest
192. The collective action of environmental factors that maintain
numbers of pest population with in certain limit over a time is
called_______________?
A. Artificial control
B. Natural control
C. Cultural control
D. Physical control
193. Reduction in pest population by the utilization of agricultural
practices to make the environment unfavorable for pest is
called__________________?
A. Natural control
B. Mechanical control
C. Physical control
D. Cultural control
194. Use of living organism to bring down the pest population to
sub economic level is called____________________?
A. Biological control
B. Cultural control
C. Physical control
D. Natural control
195. The control of pest by human controlling activities and law is
called____________________?
A. Regularity method
B. Chemical method
C. genetic method
D. Physical method

196. Zinc phosphide is____________________?
A. Rodenticide
B. Pesticide
C. Insecticide
D. Weedicide
197. The living organism that live in or on the bodies of other
living organisms from which they get their food, during at
least one stage of their existence is called________________?
A. Predator
B. Parasites
C. Prey
D. Parasitism
198. The living organisms that are smaller, weaker or less
intelligent than be predor is called____________________?
A. Host
B. Prey
C. Predator
D. Parasite
199. Various methods of pest scouting are_________________?
A. Maryo’s method
B. Diagonal method
C. Zig zag method
D. All the above
200. The insect that parasitize the larger animals are
called____________________?
A. Phytophagous parasites
C. Entomophagous parasites
201. Insect that parasitic other insects are called_________________?
A. Entomophagous parasites
D. non of theses
202. The parasites which requires several or different hosts for its
complete development is called ?

A. Monoxenous parasite
B. Heteroxenous parasites
D. Entomophagous parasites
203. Best example of predators are____________________?
A. Dragon flies, Aphid lions,
B. Trichograma species
C. Lady beetle, flower beetle
D. Dragonflies, Aphid lions, Lady bird beetle, flower beetle
204. Mosquitoes, bed bugs are____________________?
A. Permanent Parasite
B. Intermitttent Parasite
C. transitary Parasite
D. Obligate Parasite
205. The parasite which can live on more than one host is
called__________________?
A. Obligated Parasite
B. Facultative Parasite
C. Intermitted Parasite
D. Transitory Parasite
206. The parasite which are capable of developing upon a few
closely related host species is called_______________?
A. Oligophagous parasites
B. Polyhagous parasites
C. Facultative parasites
D. Transitory parasites
207. Aphis lions are predator of___________________?
A. Aphid
B. Jassid
C. Sugarcane borer
D. Pyrilla
208. Ingredient added in pesticide to enhance and maintain
efficacy of active ingredient is____________________?
A. Dose
B. Active ingredient

C. Insert ingredient
D. Pesticide
209. The chemical used for killing birds is called________________?
A. Ovicide
B. Avicide
C. Pesticide
D. None of these
210. The chemical used for controlling of mites is
called__________________?
A. Acaricide
B. Nematicide
C. Nematicide
D. Mollusicide
211. Example of inorganic pesticides are__________________?
A. calcium cyanide, boric acid
B. Chlorine, nitrogen
C. Oxygen, sulfur
D. Phosphorus, chlorine
212. Carbamates contains_________________?
A. Carbon, hydrogen
B. Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen
C. Carbon, nitrogen and sulphur
D. Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen
213. Volatile chemical which exist in the gaseous state in sufficient
concentration to be lethal for a given pest is called ?
A. Fumigant
B. Arsenicals pesticide
C. Pyrethorid
D. carbamate
214. A mixture included pesticides which decrease the efficiency of
each other is called__________________?
A. Additive mixture
B. Antagonistic mixture
C. Potentiating mixture
215. For safe application of pesticide which things are required ?

A. Goggles, respirator
B. Overall,gloves
C. Head cores
D. All of above
216. Antecedents prevent pest to cause damage
called___________________?
A. Sterilant
B. Protectant
C. Systemic
D. Contact
217. Pesticide group which goes into the system of host and kills
pest without harming host is called_________________?
A. Systemic
B. Contact
C. Selective
D. Protect ant
218. A mixture of active and inert ingredients is
called_________________?
A. Formulation
B. Dose
C. Active ingredient
D. Inert ingredient
219. What colour show moderately hazarous_________________?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Yellow
D. Brown
220. What is antidote of organophosphate and carbamate
poisoning________________?
A. Atropine
B. Diazepam
C. Earbiturates
221. What is antidote of anticoagulant
rodenticide_____________________?

A. Vitamin K
B. Atropine
C. Diazepam
D. Earbiturate
222. A chemical which causes plant does it called __________________?
A. Bait
B. Defoliant
C. Chronic poisoning
D. Acute poisoning
223. A chemical which inhibits clotting mechanisms of the blood is
called __________________?
A. Chronic poisoning
B. Bait
C. Defoliant
D. Acute poisoning
224. It is a substance added to a pesticide to impure the qualities of
pesticide formulation is called_________________?
A. Adjuvant
B. Synergism
C. Activator
D. Agitation
225. A material which is used to dilute active material is
called__________________?
A. Adjuvant
B. Adhesive
C. Carrier
D. Agitation
226. Toxicant refers to a________________?
A. Poison
B. Poisonous material
D. Both of them
227. The concentration of a toxicant that kills 50% of the exposed
organism is called_________________?
A. LC50
B. LD50

D. LD75
228. The quality a of a pesticide to remain as an effective residue
because of its low volatility and chemical stability is termed
as__________________?
A. Persistence
B. Aerosol
C. Defoliant
D. Desiccant
229. The width of the area treated in one pass by a sprayer or
other applicator is called___________________?
A. Drift
B. Swath
C. Aerosol
D. Toxin
230. Pheromone used against fruity fly is___________________?
A. Dichlorvos
B. Malathion
C. Carbofuron
D. Mancoze
231. What KD50____________________?
A. Medium knock down
B. Highly knock down
C. Low knock down
D. None of above
232. The body of an insect is covered by a protective
__________________ formed from chitin and protein. Depending
upon its precise composition and thickness, the cuticle may
be soft and flexible or hard and rigid; according to
requirements, it may or may not be permeable or
waterproof:
A. three-layered skin (cuticle)
B. Two-layered skin (cuticle)
C. Six- layered skin (cuticle)

233. The insect head is essentially a capsule which encloses the
brain and bears the usually external (ectognathous)
mouthparts, the eyes and a pair of sensory antennae. The
mouth part comprise basic sections as:
A. An ‘upper lip’ (labrum), lower (ventral) surface of which
forms the epipharynx
B. a tongue-like hypopharynx; the jaws (mandibles)
C. The paired maxillae and a ‘lower lip’ (labium).
D. All of these
234. Main kind of insect pests are___________________?
A. Major pest & Minor pest
B. Migrant pest & potential pest
C. both A & B
235. Desert locust is__________________?
A. Key pest
B. Potential pest
C. Occasional pest
236. Cotton bollworms, sugarcane borers are_____________?
A. Key pest
B. Secondary pest
C. Major pest
D. I do not agree with above statement
237. All the practices used to control the pest population with in
certain limit are called_________________?
A. Chemical control
B. Natural control
C. Artificial control
D. Impossible to control
238. The use of all possible control strategies to manage the pest
population below economic injury level is called:_______?
A. Pest outbreak
B. Pest resugrgence
C. IPC
D. IPM

239. Propagation and release of sterile incompatible individuals is
done in pest population is called:____________?
A. Chemical control
B. Genetic control
C. both A & B
D. None of these
240. Mouthparts of Sugarcane pyrilla are:___________?
A. Chewing
B. Siphoning
C. Biting
D. Sucking
241. Gurdaspur borer is a pest of_________?
A. Rice
B. Sugarcane
C. Wheat
D. Cotton
242. Which one of the following produces silk?
A. Dysdercus koenigi
B. Bombyx mori
C. Both a & b
243. Lac is produced by:___________?
A. Males insect only
B. Females insect only
C. More by females than males
D. More by males than females

Agricultural (Food Technology) MCQs
1. The science which deals with the path of the

food___________________?
A. Food Science
B. Nutrition
C. Food processing
D. Food technology
2. Food supply can be increased by reducing post harvest
losses___________________?
A. 20-30%
B. 30-40%
C. 10-20%
D. None
3. The application of science and engineering process to
increase shelf life of food and prevent deterioration is known
as___________________?
A. Food processing
B. Food science
C. Food technology
D. Food preservation
4. Sugarcane is an example of____________________?
A. Complex food
B. Simple food
C. Nutritious food
D. Simple food
5. The science which deals with food supply, for human
consumption is called_____________________?
A. Food science
B. Food technology
C. Nutritive food
D. Food process
6. Apperts work discovered the principle of____________________?
A. Pasteurization
B. Sterilization
C. Tining
D. Browning

7. In dairy industry, a process for producing evaporated milk

was presented in______________________?
A. 1896
B. 1835
C. 1840
D. 1842
8. Night blindness and keralinization is associated with
deficiency of____________________?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin E
9. Due to the action of ultraviolet rays of sun, human body
produces___________________?
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin A
10. Which one of the following is associated with normal clotting
of blood__________________?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin K
D. Tocopherol
11. Which one of the following is a yellow, crystalline and water
soluble compound_______________________?
A. Riboflavin
B. Niacin
C. Cholecaliferol
D. Folic acid
12. Biotin is the name given to vitamin___________________?
A. Vitamin H
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E

13. Ascorbic acid deficiency causes________________?

A. Scurvy
B. Night blindness
C. Rickets
D. Beriberi
14. Which one of the following classify foods into 3 broad
categories stable, semi perishable and
perishable______________________?
A. Chemist
B. Nutritionist
C. Food processor
D. All the above
15. The moisture content of natural semi-perishable food ranges
between_____________________?
A. 50-60%
B. 70-80%
C. 60-90%
D. 50-70%
16. Apple, guava, mango,pineapple and tomato
are____________________?
A. Acid foods
B. Low acid foods
C. Medium acid foods
D. High acid foods
17. Okra, green peas, green beans and leafy vegetables
are____________________?
A. Low acid foods
B. Medium acid foods
C. Acid foods
D. High acid foods
18. Foods that fall within the pH range of 5.0 to 4.5 are
called_____________________?
A. High acid foods
B. Acid foods
D. Low acid foods
19. The fruit and vegetables contain an insoluble stiffening

material called______________________?
A. Pectin
B. Lig in
C. Protopectin
D. Gums
20. Oxidative rancidity can be accelerated by the presence of
certain divalent and polyvalent __________________________?
A. Metals
B. Light
C. High temperature
D. All the above
21. Colour changes leading to brown, grey and other in fresh and
cured meat can be arise from_____________________?
A. Biochemical changes
B. Physical changes
C. Microbial activity
D. enzyme activity
22. Dairy product regularly suffers from rancid, goaty and
unclean taints due to excessive concentration
of_____________________?
A. C11C20fatty acids
B. C20C22fatty acids
C. C12C20fatty acids
D. C4——–C16fatty acids
23. Chemically or bio chemically enzymes are
primarily__________________?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids
C. Vitamins
D. Proteins
24. Transminase is an example of______________________?
A. Hydrolases enzyme
B. Oxireductases enzyme
C. Ligase enzyme
D. Transferases enzyme
25. fumerase is an example of_____________________?

A. Ligase enzyme
B. Isomerases enzyme
C. Lysose enzyme
D. Hydrolase enzyme
26. Pynivate carboxylase is an example of ______________________?
A. Ligases enzyme
B. Isomerase enzyme
C. Lysos enzyme
D. Hydrolases enzyme
27. Which type of bacteria grow best within the temperature
range 55°C_____________________?
A. Mesophilic
B. Thermophilic
C. Psychrophilic
D. All the above
28. Which type of bacteria grow best at refrigeration temperature
10°C_______________________?
A. Thermophilic
B. Psychrophilic
C. Mesophilic
D. All the above
29. Fresh foods have water activity (Aw) of____________________?
A. 0.99
B. 1.0
C. 1.6
30. Which one of the following is commonly applied to plan order
to destroy some enzyme systems prior to canning freezing or
dehydration________________?
A. Blanching
B. Pasteurization
C. Sterilization
31. The method of food preservation in which food containing
permanently sealed container is subjected to an elevated for a

definite period of time and than cooled is
known_____________________?
A. Canning
B. Sterilization
C. Pasteurization
32. Food substances enter in food stuffs accidentally during
production, processing, storage and handing often referred
10 as___________________?
A. Food contaminations
B. Food adulterants
C. Food additives
D. All the above
33. BHA and BHT are examples of_____________________?
A. Anti sprouting
B. Anti ripening agent
C. Antioxidants
D. Antimicrobial agents
34. Which one of the following is thickening
agent___________________?
A. Agar
B. Amylase
C. Guar gum
D. All the above
35. The most commonly of carbonated beverages in addition to
CO2 which one of the following additive is used as
preservative____________________?
A. Sodium propionate
B. Sorbic acid
C. Benzoate
D. Nitrates
36. The final product of alcoholic fermentation
are______________________?
A. Acetic acid + H2O
B. Ethyl alcohol + CO2
C. Ethyl alcohol + H2O
D. All the above
37. Beer is produced from______________________?

A. Wheat
B. Barley
C. Com
D. Rice
38. Cereals are fermented to produce_____________________?
A. Coffee
B. Season ting
C. Bread
D. Chapati
39. The fermented dairy products are_____________________?
A. Cheese and yoghurt
B. Butter and cream
C. Cream and ice cream
D. All the above
40. Vinegar is a product of_____________________?
A. Lactic fermentation
B. Acetic fermentation
C. Alcoholic fermentation
D. Non of the above
41. The term used to denote both sensation and the substance
is________________________?
A. Taste
B. Aroma
C. Flavor
D. All the above
42. Ester is similar to______________________?
A. Alcohols
B. Fatty acids
C. Aldehyde
D. Ketenes
43. Delta lactones are important in_____________________?
A. Jams
B. Jellies

C. Milk & milk products
D. Pickles
44. Which is the flavour enhancer in meat products
______________________?
A. Monosodium glutamate
B. Sorbitol
C. Lecithin
45. Which one of the following possesses banana like
aroma______________________?
A. Diacetyl
B. Iso-amylacetate
C. Nerol
D. Ethyle buryrate
46. The anerobic or partially anaerobic dxidation of
carbohydrates with the help of enzymes is called
as____________________?
A. Preservation
B. Fermentation
C. Dehydration
D. Pasteurization
47. Yoghurt,cheese, pickles are included in_________________?
A. Fermented food
B. Dehydrated food
C. Simple food
D. Preserved food
48. Which one of the following is applied in the production of
leaved bread and alcoholic beverages__________________?
D. All the above
49. Wine is produced from_________________?
A. Lemon
B. Avocado

C. Grapes
D. Grape fruit
50. Streptococcus thermopiles and lactobacillus are lactic
fermentors in__________________?
A. Meat industry
B. Dairy industry
C. Fruit and vegetable industry
D. Beverage industry
51. Several yeast can be used in fermentation but most commonly
known species of genus are_________________?
A. Streptococcus
B. Lactobacillus
C. Leuconostoc
D. Saccharomyces
52. Saccharomyces cerevisae and Saccharomyces carlbergensic
are common species of yeast which are used
in___________________?
A. Acetic fermentation
B. Alcoholic fermentation
C. Lactic fermentation
D. All the above
53. Naturally vinegar contain acetic acid____________________?
A. 8%
B. 4%
C. 2%
D. 5%
54. Deamination, oxidation, polymerization and decarboxylatio
observed during irradiation in___________________?
A. Water
B. Carbohydrates
C. Protein
D. non of these
55. Sensory stimula for food occurs from____________________?
A. Taste
B. Smell

C. Texture
D. All
56. Estimate percentage loss of the world
production__________________?
A. 25
B. 40
C. 30
D. none
57. All the treatments given to a food stuff form the washing to
the point off consumption is called__________________?
A. Food preservation
B. Food processing
C. Food science
D. Food technology
58. Cane sugar is called___________________?
A. Fructose
B. Sucrose
C. Galactose
D. Mattose
59. Meat, fruit, vegetables are ___________________?
A. Simple food
B. Complex food
C. Functional food
D. Nutritive food
60. Who was the father of canning ______________________?
A. Gay-Lussac
B. Nicolas Appert
C. Tomas
D. Newton
61. The oldest food preservation techniques are ___________________?
A. Drying and dehydration
B. Sun drying
C. Browning
D. Smoking

62. In all common wealth countries including Pakistan the basis

for food laws being used are________________?
A. American food laws
B. Russian food laws
C. Arabic food laws
D. British food laws
63. Cholesterol is the natural form of___________________?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin K
64. Which one of the following acts as antioxidant
___________________?
A. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin A
65. Which one of the following causes deficiency beriberi
___________________?
A. Vitamin B-1
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
66. Folic acid deficiency causes___________________?
A. Night blindness
B. Rickets
C. Beriberi
D. Anaemia
67. Vitamin C is called___________________?
A. Malic acid
B. Citric acid
C. Ascorbic acid
D. Trataric acid
68. Cystein, Cystine and methionine amino acids are
____________________?

A. Sulpher containing
B. Hydrogen containing
C. Copper containing
D. Mg containing
69. The food in which the moisture content is less than 15% is
called_____________________?
A. Stable foods
B. Semi perishable foods
C. Perishable foods
D. Acid food
70. The food in which the moisture content ranges between 80-
90% is called________________?
A. Perishable foods
B. Low perishable foods
C. Stable foods
D. High acid foods
71. Most food poisoning organisms prefer to grow in the pH range
of___________________?
A. 4-5
B. 4-5
C. 5
D. Above 5
72. Foods having pH value of below 3.7 are
called____________________?
A. High acid foods
B. Acid foods
D. Low acid foods
73. Lime, lemon juice and pickles are_____________________?
A. Low acid foods
B. Acid foods
D. High acid foods
74. The deteriorative changes originating from with in the food
system is known as________________?

A. Proteolysis
B. Hydrolysis
C. Purification
D. Autolysis
75. When fresh meat in a butcher’s shop is cut, the newly exposed
surface, on coming in contact with oxygen
becomes______________________?
A. Pinkish
B. Brownish
C. Bright red
D. Red
76. When sugars heated under controlled conditions in the
absence of water, they form an hydro sugar, that readily
polymerized to give typical taint and brown pigment this
process is called _________________?
A. Mail lard reaction
B. Caramalization
C. Browning
D. Purification
77. Bacteria producing toxins that cause food poisoning are
known as___________________?
A. Clostridium
B. Staphylococcus
C. Mycodesmavin
D. Both a & b
78. Cytochrome Oxidase and alcohol de hydrogenise are the
examples of____________________?
A. Oxidoreductases enzymes
B. Transferases
C. Hydrolases
D. Lysases
79. Esterases, proteinases, alkali acid phosphates belongs
to_____________________?
A. Hydrolases enzyme
B. Transferases enzyme

C. Oxireductases enzyme
D. Ligases enzyme
80. Recemases belongs to___________________?
A. Isomerases enzyme
B. Ligases enzyme
C. Lyases enzyme
D. Oxireductase enzyme
81. The deficiency of an enzyme is greatly influenced by
the______________________?
A. pH
B. Environmental temperature
C. Concentration of enzyme
D. All the above
82. Which type of bacteria grow best at room temperature of
20____________________?
A. Mesophilic
B. Thermophilic
C. Psychrophilic
D. All the above
83. Pure water has an water activity (Aw) of___________________?
A. 0.99
B. 1.00
C. 1.5
D. non of these
84. Dried foods have water activity (Aw) of___________________?
A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 0.6
D. non of these
85. Tyndallization is more reliable than_____________________?
A. Sterilization
B. Pasteurization
C. Blanching
D. non of these

86. Some substance are added intentionally to foods for the

purpose of marketing them more profit able are known
as_____________________?
A. Food contamination
B. Food adulterants
C. Food additives
D. All the above
87. Many chemicals are added internationally during production,
processing or storage 10 improve the qualities of food stiff
are termed as___________________?
A. Food adulterants
B. Food additives
C. Food contaminations
D. All the above
88. Which one of the following is anti ripening
agent___________________?
A. 2,4,5 trichlorophenoxy acetic acid
B. Meleic hydrazide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Sodium benzoate
89. The most commonly used leaving agents in barley
are__________________?
A. Yeast
B. Sodium bi carbonate
C. Sugar
D. Both a & b
90. In bread preparation in added to sorbic acid which one of the
following is used as preservative____________________?
A. Sulphur dioxide
B. Nitrates
C. Propionic acid
D. Benzoic acid
91. Saccharomyces creavisiae is the example of____________________?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi

C. Yeast
D. Molds
92. Soy sauce is the fermented product of_____________________?
A. Barley
B. Wheat
C. Oat
D. Soybeans
93. Tea is the example of fermentation of_____________________?
A. Alcoholic
B. Non-alcoholic
C. Acetic
94. The acetic acid producing bacteria are___________________?
A. Acetomonas
B. Saccharomyces
C. Streptococeus
95. In dairy industry, the most often used bacteria to convert milk
sugar to lactic acid are___________________?
A. Streptococcus
B. Lactobacillus
C. Acetobacter
D. Both a & b
96. Which one of the following acid is present in rancid
butter__________________?
A. Propionic acid
B. Pentanoic acid
C. N-butyric acid
D. Caprotic acid
97. The aroma of Ethylbutyrateis just like____________________?
A. Banana
B. Grape
C. Pineapple
D. Guava
98. Diacetyl is present in____________________?

A. Cultured butter
B. Sour cream
C. Butter milk
D. All the above
99. Eugenol is important ingredients of oil of__________________?
A. Olive
B. Clove
C. Nutmeg
D. Cumin
100. the enzyme that destroys vitamin B-1 is__________________?
A. Oxalate
B. Phenolase
C. Thiaminase
101. Fermentation industries include______________________?
A. Baking
B. Brewing
C. Wine making
D. all the above
102. C6H12O6 Yest 2C2H2OH+2CO2__________________?
D. All the above
103. The fermentation in which sugars are converted into ethyl
alcohol and carbon dioxide is__________________?
D. All the above
104. C6H12O6 bacteria CH2CHCOOH + H2O is_____________________?
D. All the above

105. Lactic fermentation product from coagulated milk in dairy

products___________________?
A. Cheese
B. Ice cream
C. Skimmed
D. Milk
106. The break down of fatty material is referred to
as____________________?
A. Autolysis
B. Lipolysis
C. Proteolysis
D. None of above
107. The break down of pertinacious material is referred to
as____________________?
A. Autolysis
B. Lipolysis
C. Proteolysis
D. non of these
108. Oxidation as well as condensation reaction similar to non-
browning due to irradiation have been observed
in__________________?
A. Protein
B. Carbohydrates
C. Lipids
D. non of these
109. Many reactions similar to oxidative rancidity during
irradiation been observed in _____________________?
A. Water
B. Carbohydrates
C. Lipids
D. non of these
110. The mechanism of food intake regulation is known as
____________________?
A. Glucostatic regulation
B. Lipostatic regulation

C. Aminostatic regulation
D. All the above
111. Per day consumption of food in developed countries ranges
between___________________?
A. 1500-2000 Kcal
B. 200-3000
C. 3000-3500 Kcal
112. The interaction of polysaccharides form ____________________?
A. Hydrogen bonds
B. Carbon bonds
C. Nitrogen bonds
113. Agar is an extract from____________________?
A. Fungi
B. Algae
C. Bacteria
114. The plant trigly cerides are rich in_________________?
A. Saturated fatty acids
B. Unsaturated fatty acids
C. Steroids
115. Undesirable flavor in the food during storage is due
to___________________?
A. Prooxidants
B. Antioxidants
C. Rancidity
116. The flavor of butter, milk and cheese due to__________________?
A. Long chain fatty acids
B. Short chain fatty acids
C. Saturated fatty acids
D. Unsaturated fatty acids

117. Protein denaturation is the result of the modification

of____________________?
A. Primary structure
B. Secondary structure
C. Tertiary structure
D. Both b & c
118. The recommended daily intake of protein per kilogram by
WHO for an individual is _____________________?
A. 0.25 g
B. 0.49 g
C. 0.59 g
119. Which one of the following is water soluble vitamin
___________________?
A. Vitamin B
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin K
120. The deficiency of vitamin D in human causes __________________?
A. Rickets
B. Osteomalecia
C. Decalcification
D. All the above
121. The deficiency of vitamin B-1 is adults
causes_____________________?
A. Fatigue
B. Depressions
C. Irritability
D. All the above
122. The deficiency of Niacin in adults causes___________________?
A. Dementia
B. Diarrhea
C. Ulcerated mouth & tongue
D. All the above
123. The function of acids in food is to_____________________?

A. Intensity & modified the taste
B. Act as ciectton pair accpot
C. Act as microbial inhibitor
D. All the above
124. The average per capita world consumption of milk per head
per day is_________________?
A. 160 g
B. 250 g
C. 320 g
D. Non of the above
125. Maximum amount of whey proteins are found in
______________________?
A. Buffalo milk
B. Cow milk
C. Goat milk
D. Sheep milk
126. Milk proteins are rich in____________________?
A. Cysteine
B. Methionine
C. Lysine
D. All the above
127. Egg quality is determined by_____________________?
A. Albumin
B. Yolk
C. Germ spot
D. All the above
128. The food colour measurement can be obtained by
___________________?
A. Spectrophotometer
B. Tint meters
C. Disc colourimetry
D. All the above
129. Texture of pastries, cookies and crackers is evaluated
by_________________?
A. Warner-Bratzler sheer
B. Short meter
C. Compress meter
D. All the above
130. Which one of the following is synthetic flavour
__________________?
A. Esters
B. Aldehydes
C. Ketones
D. All the above
131. Which one of the following is the best known, most widely
used food flavour enhancer_________________?
A. Ether
B. Alcohol
C. Monosodium glutamic acid All the above
D. All the above
132. Humectants are moisture retention agents, help improve the
rehydration of hydrated food and solubilization of flavour
compounds________________?
A. Benzoyl peroxide
B. Nitrosyle chloride
C. Sorbitol
D. Mannitol
133. To make light cakes, biscuits and muffins which leavening
agent is used___________________?
A. Silicoaluminate
B. Magnesium carbonate
C. Phosphate salts
D. All the above
134. The world’s food is lost by microbial spoilage upto the extent
of___________________?
A. One-half
B. One-fourth
C. One-fifth
D. One-third
135. To prevent the growth of molds in bread ind other backed
food which preservative is used___________________?

A. Sodium acetate
B. Potassium acetate
C. Calcium acetate
D. All the above
136. The improve and stabilize the texture of foods which types of
stabilizers and thickeners are used _____________________?
A. Guar gum
B. Agaragar
C. Starch
D. All the above
137. The consumption of several flavours and micromtrients per
person per year is__________________?
A. mg
B. .< 0.01 mg
C. .> 0.01 mg
138. Milk is pasteurized at___________________?
A. 50ºC for 30 minutes
B. 60ºC for 30 minutes
C. 62.8ºC for minutes
139. Which one of the following is the non-ethylene producing
fruit______________________?
A. Mango
B. Banana
C. Orange
D. Pear
140. Ergosterol is usually found in __________________?
A. Animal fat
B. Vegetable fat
C. Both a & b
141. The storage life of Apricot at 32ºF with R.H of 90% is
_____________________?
A. 2-4 weeks
B. 1-2 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 1-5 weeks
142. The storage life of Cabbage at 32ºF with R.H of 95%
is____________________?
A. 2-5 months
B. 3-4 months
C. 5-6 months
D. 3-5 months
143. The storage life of Orange at 34ºF with R.H of 90%
is_______________________?
A. 2-6 weeks
B. 4-8 weeks
C. 8-12 weeks
D. 12-14 weeks
144. Approximate calories in one large banana is____________________?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 150
D. 176
145. Approximate calories in 1/2 breast fried chicken
is_____________________?
A. 155
B. 175
C. 210
D. 232
146. Extension of storage life by inhibition of sprouting of
potatoes, onions and garlic can be achieved by radiation dose
of_________________?
A. 0.05-0.1 kGy
B. 0.05-0.12 kGy
C. 0.05-0.15 kGy
D. non of these
147. Approximate calories in one cup of white cooked rice is
__________________?
A. 150
B. 175
C. 201
D. 225
148. Approximately quantity of milk required to prepare 1 kg of
cheese is_____________________?
A. 5 Kg
B. 8 Kg
C. 10 Kg
D. 12 Kg
149. The storage life of dried fruit at 32ºF with R.H of 60%
is___________________?
A. 4-6 months
B. 6-8 months
C. 9-12 months
D. 8-10 months
150. The storage life of grape fruit at 50ºF with R.H of 90% is
_____________________?
A. 2-3 weeks
B. 4-6 weeks
C. 4-8 weeks
D. 10 weeks
151. Which one of the following plays the role of a natural
oxidants____________________?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin E
152. Amino acid with no polar R group are____________________?
A. Hydrophilic
B. Hydrophobic
C. Aromatic
153. Protein denaturation is brought about by_________________?
A. Heat
B. pH of the medium
C. Ionic strength
D. All the above
154. Which one of the following is the soluble

vitamins______________________?
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin A
D. Both a & c
155. Vitamin A deficiency result in___________________?
A. Xeroderma
B. Xerophthalmia
C. Conical ulceration
D. All the above
156. The deficiency of vitamin K in human causes
_________________________?
A. Uncontrolled bleeding
B. Internal hemorrhage
C. Prolonged blood clotting
D. all the above
157. The deficiency of vitamin B-2 is adults causes___________________?
A. Cheilosis
B. Glostitis
C. Eye itching
D. All the above
158. WHO recommended daily intake of calcium for adults is
_____________________?
A. 200-300 mg
B. 300-400 mg
C. 400-500 mg
D. All the above
159. For preservation of fruit dehydration is carried out
by_____________________?
A. Vacuum drier
B. Tunnel drier
C. Puff drying
D. all the above
160. Maximum amount of casein is present in _______________________?

A. Buffalo milk
B. Cow milk
C. Goat milk
D. Sheep milk
161. Milk proteins of cow milk contains maximum amount
of____________________?
A. β-lacto globulin
B. α-lactolbumin
C. Serum albumin
D. All the above
162. Severe diarrhea and dehydration in human is due to lack
of__________________?
A. Rennin
B. Lysine
C. Lactase
D. All the above
163. Egg storage stability can be achieved by storing eggs under
_____________________ ?
A. CO2
B. Mineral oil
C. Then no stabilization
D. All the above
164. Consistency and stability of dough’s is measured by
____________________?
A. Farinograph
B. Micrograph
C. Compress metter
D. All the above
165. Which one of the following is used as
antioxidant____________________?
A. DNA
B. EDTA
C. DT
166. In banana synthetic flavour additive used is____________________?

A. Amylaccetate
B. Methyl anthranilate
C. Ethyle butyrate
167. Which one of the following is best flour improver
______________________?
A. Cl2
B. ClO2
C. Benzoyl peroxide
D. All the above
168. Ant caking agents used in food industry are
________________________?
A. Propylene glycol
B. Glycerol
C. Calcium silicate
D. All the above
169. In soft drinks and dietetic forms of food which sweetening
agent is widely used _____________________?
A. Calcium salt
B. Cyclamates
C. Glycyrrhizin acid
D. All the above
170. To prevent deterioration of food from microorganisms which
one of the following preservatives are used _____________________?
A. NaCl
B. Sulpher dioxide
C. Nitrate
D. All the above
171. In preparation of fruit juices, pickles and carbonated
beverages the preservative used is _____________________?
A. Proconic acid
B. Benzonic acid
C. Parabens
D. All the above
172. In dairy products such as cheese and condensed milk the
preservative used is______________________?
A. Epexider
B. Parabens
C. Nisim
D. All the above
173. The used of additives per person per year amounts to
about_____________________?
A. 5 g
B. 10 g
C. 15 g
174. Which of the following is the method of food preservation
________________________?
A. Smoking
B. Drying
C. Salting
D. All the above
175. Which one of the following is the climacteric ethylene
producing fruit______________________?
A. Lemon
B. Grape
C. Apple
D. Lychee
176. The concentration of ethylene required for the ripening of
Banana is______________________?
A. 5 ppm with 24 hr
B. 10 ppm with 24 hr
C. 12 ppm with 24 hr
D. 15 ppm with 24 hr
177. Enzyme proteases is used for _____________________ ?
A. Clarification of fruit juice
B. Tenderizing meat
C. Removal of molecular oxygen dissolved at the surface of
products
178. The storage life of Banana at 55ºF with R.H of 95% is
________________________?
A. 4 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 3 weeks
D. 2 weeks
179. The storage life of cucumber at 50ºF with of 95% is
_____________________?
A. 6-10 days
B. 10-12 days
C. 10-14 days
D. 12-16 days
180. Approximate calories in one large raw apple is
________________________?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 117
D. 125
181. Approximate calories in 3.2 ounces of cooked
is______________________?
A. 155
B. 175
C. 200
D. 214
182. Approximate calories in 1 slice of fried liver
is____________________?
A. 40
B. 50
C. 71
D. 86
183. Storage life of peaches & pears 31ºF with R.H of 90% is
_____________________?
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 2-4 weeks
D. 2-6 weeks
184. Approximate quantity of milk requires to get 1 Kg of butter is
__________________?
A. 10.8 Kg
B. 15 Kg
C. 20 Kg
D. 23 Kg
185. The storage life of Butter at -20ºF With R.H of 85%
is_____________________?
A. 4 months
B. 6 months
C. 8 months
D. 12 months
186. The storage life of frozen fish at -10ºF with R.H of 95%
is____________________?
A. 4-6 months
B. 6-8 months
C. 8-10 months
D. 12 months
187. The storage life of grapes at 32ºF with R.H of 90%
is_____________________?
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 2-4 weeks
C. 3-8 weeks
D. 5-6 weeks
188. The storage life of mangoes at 50ºF with R.H of 90%
is__________________?
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 2-4 weeks
D. 4-6 weeks
189. The storage life of mushroom at 35ºF with R.H of 90%
is___________________?
A. 1-2 days
B. 2-4 days
C. 3-5 days
D. 6 days
190. Approximately caloric value in Kcal/100 g of almond
is__________________?
A. 400
B. 500
C. 600
D. 640

Agricultural (Horticulture) MCQs
1. Gulkand is made from the most common beautiful flower
of_______________?
A. Jasmine
B. Chrysanthemum
C. Rose
D. Petunia
2. A branch of horticulture dealing with the production and
marketing of vegetable is called__________________?
A. Viticulture
B. Pomology
C. Olericulture
D. Sericulture
3. Commercial production of fruits is known as_____________________?
A. Pomology
B. Orchading
C. Horticulture
D. Olericulture
4. The Potato is___________________?
A. Rhizome
B. Tuber
C. Fruit
D. Sucker
5. Lettuce is____________?
A. Tuber
B. Fruit
C. Leaf
D. Fruit
6. The production of vegetables for distant market is
called___________________?
A. Train farming
B. Truck farming
C. Distant farming
D. Intensive farming
7. Self supporting succulent plants are called____________________?
A. Shurbs
B. Off shoots

C. Herbs
D. Succulents
8. Plants with persistent leaves are___________________?
A. Deciduous
B. Evergreen
C. Binuiatis
D. Perininals
9. Temperate fruits requires certain amount of chilling to flower,
which one is the important temperate fruit from the following
list__________________?
A. Mango
B. Litchi
C. Apple
D. All the above
10. Fleshy fruits developed from the ovary wall with out stony
layer are known as____________________?
A. Pome
B. Berry
C. Drupe
11. A flower having many pistils on same receptacle
develop____________________?
A. Multiple fruit
B. Aggregate fruit
C. Stone fruit
D. All the above
12. The most highly advanced division in plants kingdom
is____________________?
A. Pteridophtes
B. Tracheophyta
C. Taxonomy
13. Which of the leafy vegetables has high cellulose and add bulk
to food___________________?
A. Celery
B. Cabbage

C. Lettuce
D. All the above
14. Skin diseases, night blindness and kidney stone are caused by
the deficiency of__________________?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin D
D. Protein
15. Loss of sensation and heart enlargement are caused due to
deficiency of__________________?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin E
16. Apple apricot, plum, date, olive and peaches are rich
in________________________?
A. Protein
B. Minerals
C. Carbohydrates
D. All the above
17. Which one of the following horticultural plants is well known
for its cooling effect _______________________?
A. Falsa
B. Sweet lime
C. Jaman
D. All the above
18. In Holy Quran which one of the following fruits have been
especially mentioned____________________?
A. Dates
B. Grapes
C. Figs
D. All the above
19. Which types of fruits are known at higher altitude in KP,
Balochistan and Murree hills_________________?
A. Barries
B. Aggregate fruit

C. Pomes
20. A woody plant with a climbing growth habit is
called_____________________?
A. Stem
B. Shoot
C. Liana
D. Vine
21. Study of plant species in relation of its environmental history
___________________?
A. Phylogemy
B. Ontogeny
C. Histology
22. When the corolla has four clawed petals inserted at right angle
other is said to be_____________________?
A. Tubular
B. Rosaceous
C. Cruciform
D. Papilliaci
23. A phenomenon of fusion of male and female gametes is
known_______________?
A. Gamete formation
B. Fertilization
C. Interaction
D. All the above
24. Strawberry belongs to what type of fruit ?
A. Pome
B. Etario of achenes
C. Aril
D. Berry
25. A series of electron transport coupling factors which transfer
along an electro chemical ingredients, yielding ATP, in light is
called_________________?
A. Photoperiodism
B. Photosynthesis

C. Photophosphorrylation
26. The ratio of CO2 and O2 uptaken during respiration is known
as_____________________?
A. Respiration
B. Respiratory quotient
C. Both a & b
27. What are the factors which influence the efficiency of
respiration_____________________?
A. Substrate
B. Oxygen
C. Temperature
D. All the above
28. Carrot, Radish, Turnip, Cabbage and beet are
the____________________?
A. Annuals
B. Biennials
C. Perenials
D. Woody perianials
29. Which type of development takes place in the female part of
the ovule______________________?
A. Microsporogenesis
B. Megasporogenesis
C. Gametogenesis
D. Tapetium
30. The transfer of pollen grains from anthers to the stigma by any
pollinating agent is called______________?
A. Allogamy
B. Pollination
C. Crossing
D. Breeding
31. Direct effect of pollen grains on the female tissues of the ovary
is called__________________?
A. Pollination
B. Xenia

C. Metaxenia
32. Degeneration and death of aerial plant parts is
called___________________?
A. Senescence
B. Partial Senescence
C. Maturity
D. Both a & b
33. Cosmos, chrysanthemum, poinsettia are the examples of
_________________?
A. Long day plants
B. Short day plants
C. Short night plants
D. Long night plants
34. Cucumber, Kidney bean, pea and tomato are the example of
_______________________?
A. Long day plants
B. Long night plants
C. Long day and Long night plants
D. Day natural plants
35. Plant growth regulator found in terminal and lateral buds
is___________________?
A. Abscisic acid
B. Gibberellins
C. Auxins
D. All the above
36. What is 2,4-D____________________?
A. 2-4 napthalene acetic acid
B. IAA
C. 2-4 diclorophenoxy acetic acid
D. All the above
37. Commercial growth inhibitors include__________________?
A. Daminozide
B. Chlormequat
C. Cycocel
D. All the above

38. Rooting of shoots, stems or branches while they are still
attached to the parents is called__________________?
A. Budding
B. Layering
C. Ground Layering
D. Division
39. A propagation technique in which instead of wrapping the
notched portion is burried in the ground is
called________________?
A. Ghooti
B. Layering
C. Ground layering
D. Air layering
40. A technique which involves separating vegetative parts like
rhizome offset, corns and sucker from the parent plant is
called_________________?
A. Root cutting
B. Stool layering
C. Mound layering
D. Division
41. The basal part which provided the root system for anchorage
and absorption of moisture and nutrients is
called___________________?
A. Scion
B. Root stock
C. Grafting
D. Budding
42. Citrus belongs to the___________________?
A. Announaceae
B. Rutaceae
C. Citrea
D. All the above
43. Crossed between mandarin and grape fruit
make________________________?
A. Citrange
B. Tangelos

C. Limequate
44. Main factors affecting production and quantity of citrus
is___________________?
A. Temperature
B. Humidity
C. Rainfall
D. All the above
45. Citrus root stock seeding are ready for budding
after_____________________?
A. 6 months
B. 9 months
C. 01 months
D. 02 months
46. Nitrogen requirement for citrus plant per year
is___________________?
A. 1 Kg
B. 1-1.5Kg
C. 2Kg
D. 4Kg
47. Splice grafting is most successful in___________________?
A. Mango
B. Apple
C. Both a & b
48. Development of distorted swollen leaves which become
inverted translucent and eventually necrotic is known
as_________________?
A. Bacterial contamination
B. Mosaicism
C. Vitrification
D. Death of plant
49. What type of pollination is observed in
cucumber_____________________?
A. Partially self fertilization
B. Partially cross pollination

C. Self pollination
D. Cross pollination
50. In spinach cross pollination takes place by___________________?
A. Water
B. Birds
C. Hybridization
D. Wind
51. Small new plants which grow out from the parent and can be
separated as independent plant is called_____________________?
A. Suckers
B. Offset
C. Division
D. Seeding
52. The metric unit of light is___________________?
A. Km
B. Lux
C. Noticlemiles
D. Lumen
53. The number of calories of heat required to change the
temperature of one Kg of a substance is
called____________________?
A. Heat action
B. Molar heat
C. Specified heat
54. Surface temperature of sun is___________________?
A. 6000°C
B. 100,000°C
C. 500°C
D. 2000°C
55. A branch of Horticulture dealing with the production of fruits
and their distribution is called_______________?
A. Olericulture
B. Pomology
C. Sericulture
D. Citricultire

56. Ornamental Horticulture is the combination
of____________________?
A. Pomology and floriculture
B. Floriculture and landscape
C. Viticulture and landscape
D. None of these
57. Cultivation of grapes is called___________________?
A. Orcharding
B. Ciltriculture
C. Viticulture
D. Pomology
58. Sweet potato is___________________?
A. Tuber
B. Fruit
C. Root
D. Rhizome
59. Growing of vegetables for the consumption of local market and
large center is_________________?
A. Truck gardening
B. Market gardening
C. Home gardening
D. Olericulture
60. Plants which shed their leaves during winter are
___________________?
A. Grading
B. Packing
C. Processing
D. Vegetable forcing
61. Plants which shed their leaves during winter
are___________________?
A. Monoecious
B. Evergreen
C. deciduous
D. annuals
62. Fruit in which edible portion is thalamus are known
as___________________?

A. Aggregate fruit
B. Soft fruits
C. Pome
D. Berries
63. A science which deals with classification of plants is
called___________________?
A. Ecology
B. Morphology
C. Taxonomy
D. Histology
64. A group of plants providing food, fiber and shelter
is____________________?
A. Gymnosperm
B. Angiosperm
C. Dieetyledens
D. Monocotyledons
65. How much grams of vegetables and fruits are recommended
for a balanced diet per day by WHO__________________?
A. 40 grams
B. 150 grams
C. 300 grams
D. 450 grams
66. Guava, tomato, ber and melons are rich in__________________?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
67. Cataracts, a form of impaired vision in which the lens of eye
become opaque in old age is caused due to the deficiency
of________________?
A. Ascorbic acid
B. Tannins
C. Folic acid
68. Which one of the following plants prevent soil erosion and
reclaim water logged soils____________________?

A. Ber
B. Guava
C. Pome granate
D. All the above
69. Citrus has its origin in____________________?
A. Indo- Chinese region
B. Africa
C. South America
D. Middle east
70. How much area in Pakistan is under horticultural crops
___________________?
A. 3%
B. 10%
C. 6%
D. 25%
71. Calyx and corolla together are called__________________?
A. Petals
B. Sepals
C. Perianth
D. Epidermus
72. Transfer of pollen grains of a flower to the stigma of the same
the flowers of the same plant is called__________________?
A. Polygamy
B. Autogamy
C. Homogamy
73. Banana belongs to type of fruit where the edible portion is
___________________?
A. Mesocarp
B. Sycoms
C. Berry
D. Drup
74. A process off converting light energy into useful chemical
energy_________________?
A. Photoperiodism
B. Photosynthesis

C. Transpiration
D. Conversion
75. A controlled oxidation process by which all organisms
ultimately obtain the energy stored in organic compound is
known as_______________?
A. Oxidation
B. Transportation
C. Respiration
D. Both a & b
76. The conservation of glucose or fructose in pyruive acid during
respiration is called________________?
A. Glucopage
B. Glycogen
C. Glycolysis
77. The portion of the axis below the cotyledons is known
as___________________?
A. Micropyle
B. Hypocotyle
C. Epictyl
78. A reproductive part of the plant which is responsible for the
production of fruits and seeds is called ________________?
A. Corolla
B. Calyx
C. Flower
D. All the above
79. Formation of male and female gametes in the flower is
called__________________?
A. Zygote formation
B. Gametogenesis
C. Fertilization
D. REproduction
80. The union of the second male gametes with polar nuclei is
called_______________?

A. Fertilization
B. Double fertilization
C. Both a & b
D. non of these
81. A physiological aging activity in which plant tissues degenerate
and ultimately die is called___________________?
A. Fruit ripening
B. Maturity
C. Senescence
D. Both a & b
82. Aging process in which all plant parts except seeds die is
called_________________?
A. Senescence
B. Complete Senescence
C. Partial Senescence
D. All the above
83. Spinach, althea, winter wheat and oat are the example
of____________________?
A. Long day plants
B. short day plants
C. Long day and short night plants
D. Short day and long night plants
84. Synthetic products which when applied to plants produce
reactions almost identical to those caused by natural
harmonics are called______________?
A. Plant harmonics
B. Plant growth regulators
C. Photoperiodism activants
D. Plant growth promoters
85. Plant hormones present in the apices of shoots and leaf
primordials are __________________?
A. Gibberellins
B. Auxins
C. Cytokinins
D. Ethylene
86. Some use of cytokinins in horticulture are________________?

A. To stimulate shoot development
B. Delaying senescence
C. Accelerating bud growth
D. All the above
87. Ethylene has horticulture uses such as___________________?
A. Inducing fruit maturity
B. Initiating flowers
C. Changing the green color of fruits
D. All the above
88. Air layering is also known as_________________?
A. Cross match
B. Marcpottage
C. Ghooti
D. All the above
89. Species which give out long and flexible branches, the shoot to
be layered is covered with soil at several places to encourage
rooting at more than one point is called ___________________?
A. Ground layering
B. Stool layering
C. Serpentine layering
D. Air layering
90. A process by which a piece of scion is attached to a root stock
in a way that eabium of both scion and root stock came in firm
contact, resulting is a new tissue is called_________________?
A. Ghooti
B. Budding
C. Grafting
D. Rooting
91. A plant part which provides top and fruit bearing surface is
called__________________?
A. Root stock
B. Scion
C. Both a & b
92. Citrus tree can tolerate soil pH_________________?
A. 5-6
B. 5.5-8.5

C. 5.5-7.5
93. Citrus root stock species are propagated
through_________________?
A. Seeds
B. Cutting
C. Buds
94. Citrus orchards are usually planted in___________________?
A. Square system
B. Quineunx system
C. Rectangular system
95. Cleft grafting is most successful in_________________?
A. Almond
B. Apple
C. Both a & b
96. Several scions with their base ends trimmed as wedges are
inserted between the bark and the wood is
called_________________?
A. Tongue grafting
B. Bark grafting
C. Splice grafting
D. Bridge grafting
97. What type of pollination is observed in
cauliflower__________________?
A. Self pollination
B. Cross pollination
C. Self fertilization
D. Partial self fertilization
98. What type of pollination is observed in okra_________________?
A. Cross pollination
B. Partually self pollination
C. Partially cross pollination
D. Both A & B

99. How many crop of potato are sown annually_________________?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
100. Shrubs and flowering trees are propagated
through_________________?
A. Soft wood cutting
B. Hard wood cutting
C. Semi soft wood cutting
D. Semi hard wood cutting
101. Bunchy top disease of banana is___________________?
A. Fungal disease
B. Viral disease
C. Bacterial disease
D. Nematode disease
102. Heat requirement to change 1 Kg of a substance at its boiling
point from the liquid to vapour is called__________________?
A. Heat of fusion
B. Heat energy
C. Heat of vaporization
D. Mechanical heat
103. Optimum temperature, minimum temperature and maximum
temperature are collectively called_________________?
A. Absolute temperature
B. Cardinal temperature
C. Various temperature
D. All the above
104. Tender crop cannot tolerate a minimum temperature of
___________________?
A. 0°C
B. -1°C
C. 1°C
D. 2°C
105. The optimum temperature for warm season crop is
___________________?

A. 25-35°C
B. 18-24°C
C. 20-25°C
D. 10-20°C
106. How much of the earth surface is covered with water
___________________?
A. 65%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 40%
107. Planting distance of Falsa is___________________?
A. 3.0m
B. 3.5m
C. 2.5m
D. 2.0m
108. The most popular and common method of laying out orchard
on flat ground is_________________?
A. Triangular system
B. Rectangular system
C. Square system
D. Quincunx system
109. Which layout is the most suitable for the uneven lands and sub
mountain areas _____________________?
A. Hexagonal system
B. Contour system
C. Triangular system
D. Rectangular system
110. Which method of irrigation is possible under the economical
conditions of Pakistan __________________?
A. Canal system
B. Modified basin system
C. Drip irrigation
D. All the above
111. A pruning management done to develop a tree framework
strong cough to bear large number of fruits without breaking
of branches is known as _________________?

A. Training
B. Thinning
C. Punning
D. All the above
112. Removing of certain shoots, cones, spurs from the base of plant
is called_________________?
A. Pruning
B. Training
C. Thinning out
D. Heading back
113. According to national commission of Pakistan, post harvest
losses in fruits are____________________?
A. 20-40%
B. 60-70%
C. 30-50%
D. 20-25%
114. Anaerobic respiration is known as___________________?
A. Transportation
B. Sterilization
C. Fermentation
D. Ripening
115. A form of controlled atmosphere storage in which the produce
is stored in a partial vacuum is called_________________?
A. Gas storage
B. Hypo baric storage
C. Modified storage
D. Ca storage
116. Poncirus sweet orange is the hybrid cross of __________________?
A. Tangelos
B. Citranges
C. Limequats
D. All the above
117. The management of plant structure and fruiting wood is
called____________________?
A. Training
B. Thinning

C. Pruning
118. How many training system are__________________?
A. Four
B. Three
C. Two
D. Five
119. Removal any terminal part of the plant is
called___________________?
A. Thinning out
B. Heading back
C. Pruning
D. Training
120. In mango and carrot how much vitamin C (mg/100 gm)is
present__________________?
A. 80
B. 40
C. 30
121. A branch of science which deals with ornamental and
vegetables is called___________________?
A. Floriculture
B. Agriculture
C. Horticulture
D. Sericulture
122. Photosynthesis takes place in_____________________?
A. All green parts of plants
B. Only leaves
C. Only flowers and fruits
D. none
123. Parthenocarpic refers to____________________?
A. Single seeded fruit
B. Multi seed fruit
C. Seed less fruit
D. All the above

124. From which part of coconut tree coir is
obtained___________________?
A. Endosperm
B. Mesocarp
C. Pericarp of fruit
D. Inflorescence
125. Objective of pruning include___________________?
A. Controlling the direction of growth
B. Developing the strong framework
C. Improving the productiveness
D. all the above
126. chemicals which induce leaf fall are called____________________?
A. Defoliant
B. Growth regulators
C. Herbicides
D. Fungicides
127. Which of the following constitute the best definition of
fruit____________________?
A. A fruit is a product of flower
B. A fruit is a product of ovary
C. A fruit is a mature ovary that contain seed
D. A fruit is post fertilization
128. A paranchy matous outgrowth in the inner wall of the ovary to
which the ovules are attached is called___________________?
A. Cambium
B. Placenta
C. Ovule
D. Ovary
129. Anthesis starts in onion. at__________________?
A. 7.00 am
B. 10.00 am
C. 8.00 am
D. 5.00 am
130. Which one of the following is fruit__________________?
A. Cauliflower
B. Potato

C. Brinjal
D. Ginger
131. In green vegetables, the limiting amino acid
is____________________?
A. Methionine
B. Agrginine
C. Lysine
D. Frytophaer
132. The enzymes and pigments associated with photosynthesis are
located in____________________?
A. Leucoplast
B. Chloroplast
C. Chromoplast
D. Protoplast
133. major source of sugar in world is________________?
A. Dates
B. Sugar cane
C. Watermelons
D. Beet roots
134. From which part of turmeric plant the turmeric powder is
obtained__________________?
A. Seeds
B. dried roots
C. Dried rhizome
D. Dried fruit
135. Chillies belongs to family___________________?
A. Piperaceae
B. Lauraceae
C. Solanaceae
D. Libitatae
136. Sweet potato belong to family_____________________?
A. Solanaceae
B. Araceae
C. Conolvulaccae
D. Cruciferae

137. In bhindi production of foundation seed needs an isolation
distance of___________________?
A. 100 meters
B. 50 meters
C. 200 meters
D. 3 meters
138. Tomatoes would not have turned red if__________________?
A. They were kept at the bottom layer of the box
B. They were mixed with the ripe apples
C. There were no ripe apples in the box
D. Less ” hey” had been put in the box
139. The edible part in pomegranate is___________________?
A. Juicy tasta
B. Jmey cpicarp
C. Juicy hairs
D. Mesocarp
140. Parthenogenesis is most commonly seen in_______________________?
A. Apple
B. Orange
C. Grape
D. Mango
141. In seed formation the outer integument of the ovule shrinks
and forms the seed coat, is called as_________________?
A. Tag men
B. Tesla
C. Axil
D. Seed coat
142. Common varieties of rose are developed by___________________?
A. Grafting
B. Layering
C. Budding
D. Cutting
143. System of planting banana suckers followed in Sindh
is____________________?
A. Rectangular
B. Triangular

C. Hexagonal
D. Square
144. A major metabolic process taking place in harvest yield
is__________________?
A. transpiration
B. Growth
C. Respiration
D. Absorption
145. In orange aroma is developed by__________________?
A. Ethylene
B. Citral
C. Degreening
D. Valencene
146. Shelf life of fruit is prolonged by use of____________________?
A. Maleic hydrazine
B. Ethylene
C. 2,4-D
D. Auxins
147. Witting and shriveling of fruits is prevented by the use
of_________________?
A. Waxing
B. 2,4-D
C. Ethylene
148. Excess of nitrogen_____________________?
A. Delays ripening
B. Delays tillering
C. Delays germination
D. Delays flowering
149. A pruning management done to develop a tree framework
strong cough to bear large number of fruits without breaking
of branches is known as_________________?
A. Training
B. Thinning
C. Punning
D. All the above

150. Removing of certain shoots, cones, spurs from the base of plant
is called___________________?
A. Pruning
B. Training
C. Thinning out
D. Heading back
151. According to national commission of Pakistan, post harvest
losses in fruits are_________________?
A. 20-40%
B. 60-70%
C. 30-50%
D. 20-25%
152. Anaerobic respiration is known as____________________?
A. Transportation
B. Sterilization
C. Fermentation
D. Ripening
153. A form of controlled atmosphere storage in which the produce
is stored in a partial vacuum is called___________________?
A. Gas storage
B. Hypo baric storage
C. Modified storage
D. Ca storage
154. Poncirus sweet orange is the hybrid cross of_________________?
A. Tangelos
B. Citranges
C. Limequats
D. All the above
155. In California the age of citrus tree is____________________?
A. 70 years
B. 80-90 years
C. 75-100 years
D. 40 years
156. Anacardiaceous is the family of_________________?
A. Ber
B. Mango

C. Citrus
D. Cauli flower
157. Propagation of guava is done by___________________?
A. Cutting
B. Suckers
C. Layering
D. Scoin
158. In date palm male spathes enclose how many
flowers_______________?
A. 30000
B. 9000
C. 20000
D. 10000
159. Recommended seed rate of potato is_________________?
A. 1200 Kg
B. 800-1200 Kg
C. 500 Kg
D. 5000 Kg
160. Tomato, chilly brinjal are collectively called__________________?
A. Leafy vegetables
B. Cole crop
C. Bulb crop
D. Solanaceous crop
161. Coconut is propagated by____________________?
A. Seed
B. Sucker
C. Stolen
D. Rhizome
162. Imperfect flower is___________________?
A. Without sepals
B. Unisexual
C. Without petals
163. Enzymes are__________________?
A. Activator
B. Catalyst

C. Inhibitor
D. none
164. In day time plants release_________________?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Nitrogen
D. Hydrogen
165. Vernalization is a process that________________?
A. Promote seed maturation
B. Enhance maturity in plants
C. Initiate fertilization
D. Promote flowering
166. Which one of the following is dioceous plant___________________?
A. Papaya
B. Datepalm
C. Maize
D. All the above
167. Auxins and cytokinins are________________?
A. Growth regulators
B. Herbicides
C. Insecticides
D. Fungicides
168. A condition of green plant in which they become unhealthy and
pale yellow in colour in known as_________________?
A. Chloroplast
B. Chromoplast
C. Leucoplast
D. Chlorsis
169. Which among the following does not possess
cotyledons__________________?
A. Coconut
B. Castor
C. Carrot
D. Cuscuta
170. The artificial vegetative production is done
by____________________?

A. Grafting
B. Budding
C. Layering
D. All the above
171. Increased flower size has made tetraploidy important
for___________________?
A. Plant breeder
B. Agronomist
C. Horticulturist
D. Pathologist
172. Plants having monoecious flower are_____________________?
A. Maize
B. Castor
C. Colocasia
D. All the above
173. Absence of chlorophyll in the plant is known
as_____________________?
A. Acrodsome
B. Albinism
C. Agoun
174. Liquid food drinking is_____________________?
A. Pinoeytosis
B. Phagocytosis
C. Imbibitions
175. Cotton fiber are made up of___________________?
A. Cellulose
B. Starch
C. Fates
D. Protein
176. In Pakistan hockey sticks are generally made
from__________________?
A. Salix
B. Morus alba

C. morus nigra
D. Melia
177. Jack fruit belong to family__________________?
A. Solanaceae
B. Moraceae
C. Carcaceae
D. Palmae
178. Almond belongs to family_________________?
A. Musaceae
B. Rosaceae
C. Annonaccae
D. Moraceae
179. The smell in onion bulb is due to__________________?
A. bad odour of the soil
B. Much sugar
C. Sulphur components
D. Fleshy leaves
180. The food in onion is stored in___________________?
A. Roots
B. stems
C. Flowers
D. Scaly leaves
181. The edible part of orange is_______________________?
A. Unicelled endocarpie hair
B. Unicelled placental hair
C. Multicelled endocarpic hair
D. Multicelled placental hair
182. Seed is___________________?
A. developed ovary after fertilization
B. Developed egg after fertilization
C. Transformed ovule after fertilization
183. First intergeneric hybrid between radish and cabbage was
made by_______________________?
A. Jones (1917)
B. Muller (1927)

C. Fray (1966)
D. Karpehenko (1927)
184. A pigment sensitive to light is known as___________________?
A. Photo phase
B. Photo pigment
C. Photo receptor
185. Type of mango fruit is_________________?
A. Pome
B. Drupe
C. Peop
D. Berry
186. Tropical and subtropical fruits have the highest level
of___________________?
A. Maltose and starch
B. Glucose and fructose
C. Cellulose and lactose
187. Scaled polyethylene bags increase the susceptibility of orange
fruit from_________________?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Mould
D. Virus
188. Degreening of citrus fruit is achieved by the use
of_____________________?
A. Ethrel
B. Ethepone
C. Ethylene
D. Cytokinine
189. In ripened banana the aroma is due to presence
of____________________?
A. Ethyl
B. Eugenol
C. Isopentanol
D. Valencene

190. Sericulture deals with__________________?
A. Fisheries
B. Honey bees
C. Silk worm
D. Forest trees
191. Planting distance of about 10-15 meter is recommended
for___________________?
A. Apple
B. Mango
C. Datepalm
D. Banana
192. Plants which change from the vegetative to the reproductive
stage by producing flowers and fruits when the day become
longer is called___________________?
A. Long day plants
B. Short day plants
C. Photoperiod
D. Phototropism
193. The practice of raising trees is called__________________?
A. Forestry
B. Agro forestry
C. range forestry
D. Sericulture
194. Establishment of new crop naturally or artificially is
_________________?
A. Siliviculture
B. Sericulture
C. Nursery
D. Regeneration
195. Loss off leaves due to seasonal change is_________________?
A. Leeward
B. Defoliation
C. Malformation
196. What is stump ______________?

A. Shoot cutting
B. Tree cutting
C. Seeding
197. Green vegetables are source of _______________ ?
A. Biotin
B. Carbohydrates
C. folate
D. vitamin
198. The recommended plant to plant space for chiku is
__________________?
A. 20 x 20 ft
B. 35 x 35 ft
C. 50 x 50 ft
D. 100 x 100 ft
199. System for planting banana suckers followed in Sindh is
__________________?
A. Rectangular
B. Hexagonal
C. Square
D. Diagonal
200. The year in which mango tree does not produce or produce
very small number of fruit is called ________________ ?
A. Lazy year
B. Hunger year
C. Off year
201. Purpling of leaves is common deficinary symptoms of
__________________?
A. Phosphorus
B. Iron
C. Potassium
D. Nitrogen
202. In apple wool aphid is genetically controlled
by___________________?

A. 2 D
B. ID
C. 2d
D. Id
203. Resigns is toxic substance found in_______________?
A. Guava
B. Mango
C. Apple
D. Cassava
204. Who used first artificial hybridization in fruit crops
____________________?
A. Knight (1800)
B. Karpocho (1810)
C. Jones (1917)
D. none
205. Plant parts useful for extraction of opium from papaver
saminiferaim are__________________?
A. Young seedings
B. Old leaves
C. Unripe fruit
D. Ripened fruit
206. Roma is variety of ___________________?
A. Onion
B. Guar
C. Tomato
D. Raddish
207. Guava grown in soils with pH _____________________?
A. 4.5-8.5
B. 5.5-7.5
C. 7.5-9.0
D. 6.5-7.5
208. Mango stock for grafting is raised from ____________________ ?
A. Cutting
B. Budding
C. Stones
D. All the above

209. Inflorescence of mango ____________________?
A. Cymose
B. Recemose
C. bunch
D. Terminal panicle
210. Trees are characterized by ____________________?
A. Larger branch
B. Single central stem
C. Root
D. Many branches
211. Transfer of pollen grains to the stigma of the flowers of
another plant is known as _______________________?
A. Allogamy
B. Autogamy
C. Polygamy
D. Cleistogamy
212. A paranchy matous outer growth in the minor wall of the ovary
to which the ovules are attached is called ___________________?
A. Cambium
B. Placenta
C. Ovule
D. Ovary
213. Edible part of apple is __________________ ?
A. fleshy aril
B. fleshy thalamus
C. Seed
D. Epicarp
214. The average temperature for maximum plant growth is
_________________?
A. 20-30ºC
B. 25-35ºC
C. 28-30ºC
D. 25-30ºC
215. When a single bud is used as scion and inserted into root stock
is called ____________________ ?

A. Shield budding
B. Stocking
C. Budding
D. All the above
216. Decidous fruits can be planted in __________________?
A. Spring
B. Rainy season
C. Both a & b
217. The national flower of Pakistan is ___________________?
A. Rose
B. Tube rose
C. Jasmine
D. All the above
218. Citrus canker is a disease caused by ___________________?
A. Virus
B. Nematode
C. Fungi
D. Bacteria
219. The fruit tree which are naturally cross pollinated are
___________________ ?
A. Mango and lemon
B. Chiku and banana
C. Apple and grape
D. Datepalm and papaya
220. Production of silk is termed as ____________________?
A. sericulture
B. silvi culture
C. Apiculture
221. The ovary develops and forms ____________________?
A. seed
B. Fruit
C. Ovule
222. Club-root is the disease of____________________?

A. Turnip
B. Okra
C. Watermelon
D. Cabbage
223. The influence of light on flowering in plant is____________________?
A. Phototropism
B. Photolysis
C. Photoperiodism
D. Photosynthesis
224. The nutrient stimulating vegetative growth
is_____________________?
A. Phosphorus
B. Potassium
C. Nitrogen
D. Zinc
225. Which one of the following____________________?
A. Aphids
B. Cut worm
C. Army worms
D. Weevils
226. In plants the food is stored in the form of ____________________?
A. Glycogen
B. Cellulose
C. Fat
D. Strach
227. Mango is grown in soils with pH__________________?
A. 5.5-7.5
B. 5-8
C. 5.5-8.7
D. 6-8
228. Respiratory enzymes in the cell are present
in_________________________?
A. Ribosome’s
B. Lysosomes
C. Mitochondria
D. Plastids

229. Which one of the following disease is caused due to lack of
fiber in diets_________________?
A. Appendicitis
B. Diabetes
C. Hernia
D. All the above
230. Which one of the following is non-climacteric
fruit__________________?
A. Mango
B. Apple
C. Papaya
D. Grape
231. Which one of the following quantative change is associated
with ripening of fruits_____________________?
A. Breakdown of poly carbohydrates
B. Conversion of starch to sugar
C. Pectic substance and hemicellulose
D. All the above
232. The dormancy of bulbs, roots and tubers can be prolonged
by_____________________?
A. Medium temperature
B. Low temperature
C. Appropriate storage conditions
D. All the above
233. Reduction in climatic temperature causes reduction in fruit
parameters such as__________________?
A. Respiration
B. Change in texture
C. Loss of vitamin C
D. All the above
234. Potato when fried, excessive browning develops due to
_______________________?
A. Caramelization
B. Reaction between amino acid and sugar
C. All the above

235. The storage life of fresh oranges at 5 to 9ºc is ____________________?
A. 4-6 weeks
B. 6-8 weeks
C. 6-12 weeks
D. 6-10 weeks
236. The storage life of fresh lemon at 10ºC is___________________?
A. 6-10 weeks
B. 10-15 weeks
C. 12-20 weeks
D. 12-16 weeks
237. The cooling methods for fresh produce is dependent
on___________________?
A. Temperature of produce at harvest
B. Physiology of the produce
C. Post harvest life of the produce
D. All the above
238. which one of the following fruit is
perishable________________________?
A. Mango
B. Banana
C. Cherry
D. Grapes
239. Shelf life of banana at 20ºC in modified atmosphere with
potassium permanganate is_____________________?
A. Upto 7 days
B. Upto 14 days
C. Upto 21 days
D. Upto 30 days
240. Which one of the following instrument is used for measuring
fruit flesh finess__________________?
A. Penetometer
B. Effegi instrument
C. Magners- Taylor pressure tester
D. All the above
241. Where does respiratory electron transport
occurs____________________?

A. Cytoplasm
B. Inner membrane of mitochondria
C. matrix of mitochondria
D. Chloroplast
242. Carbohydrates are separated by___________________?
A. Gas liquid chromatography
B. Infra-red spectrophotometer
C. Flame photometry
D. Paper chromatography
243. The photo nthesis reaction is determined by_________________?
A. Hill reaction
B. Goldman equation
C. Nernst equation
D. Oxidation-reduction reaction
244. Rafinose is_______________________?
A. Trisaccharide
B. Monosaccharide
C. Disaccharide
D. Polysaccharide
245. In plants when glucose is more than its requirement the
surplus is converted into____________________?
A. Glycogen
B. Starch
C. Sucrose
246. Photophosphorylation is process of
generating_____________________?
A. ATP
B. UTP
C. CTP
D. KTP
247. If humidity is more transpiration will
be_____________________________?
A. More
B. Less

C. No
D. Too much
248. Variation in the performance of the same mango variety in the
same orchard may be due to the variation in the root stock
raised from seeds which may be due to_______________?
A. Polyembroyonic
B. Variable root stock size
C. Mono-embryonic
D. All the above
249. Commercial grape cultivation is called__________________?
A. Cirticulture
B. Olericulture
C. Viticulture
D. Sericulture
250. which is multipurpose tree___________________?
A. Kikar
B. Mango
C. Cedar
D. Pine
251. Science and art of establishment a tree crop is
called____________________?
A. Sericulture
B. Tissue culture
C. Silva culture
252. What is topping _________________?
A. Removal of branches
B. Removal of leaves
C. Removal of roots
253. A plant hormone which promote cell division known
as_____________________?
A. Cytokinins
B. Auxins
C. Gibberellins
D. IAA

254. The protein content of fresh fruit is about___________________?
A. 4%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 1%
255. The pigment present in tomato is___________________?
A. B-carotene
B. Xanthophyll
C. Lycopene
D. Chlorophyll
256. Lemon plant is commercially propagated by____________________?
A. seed
B. Layering
C. Grafting
D. Budding
257. Papaya fruit is___________________?
A. Pome type
B. Berry type
C. Pepo type
D. All the above
258. Lenticular transpiration generally occurs in____________________?
A. Cercal crops
B. Vegetables
C. Woody plants
D. Flower
259. The high level of starch accumulation is present
in__________________?
A. Cassava
B. Potato
C. Cucumber
D. Carrot
260. R1 to R6 genes against late blight of potato was reported
by_____________________________?
A. Biffen (1905)
B. Flor (1956)

C. Van der plank (1963)
D. Painter (1951)
261. The toxic substance CN glycocides is found in____________________?
A. Yam
B. Cassava
C. Cucurbits
D. Brinjal
262. Which one of the following is not fruit__________________?
A. Tomato
B. Potato
C. Muskmelon
D. Bitter guard
263. Which of the following is good source of vitamin
A__________________?
A. Banana
B. Mango
C. Gram
D. Wheat
264. Green vegetables are the source of _________________?
A. Biotin
B. Carbohydrates
C. Foliate
D. Vitamin
265. Anti-oxidants is used to prevent food from___________________?
A. Juice flow
B. Discoloration
C. Over npening
D. non of these
266. Ginger and turmeric are propagated by________________________?
A. Rhizome
B. Tuber
C. Corns
D. All the above
267. Out door production of vegetables, out of their normal season
is known as______________________?

A. Out season production
B. vegetable forcing
C. vegetable improvement
268. Edible seed like almonds, pea cons are known
as____________________?
A. Sub-tropical fruits
B. Nuts
C. Berries
269. which one of the following instrument is used to measure the
relative humidity in atmosphere___________________?
A. Colorimeter
B. Hygrometer
C. Paramagnetic analyzer
270. The fruit whose pericarp does not split open at maturity are
called___________________?
A. Indehiscent fruit
B. Dehiscent fruit
C. Sehizo fruit
271. Adaptability, germination ability and variation the advantages
of___________________?
A. Pollination
B. Cross Pollination
C. Self Pollination
D. All the above
272. Activities of plant tissues ceases at minimum temperature of
____________________?
A. 10ºC
B. -1ºC
C. 4ºC
D. 2ºC
273. Citrus is divided into three genera, citrus, poncirus and
fortunate by______________________?

A. Hodgson
B. Swingle
C. Lincous
274. Alternate bearing is the serious problem of_____________________?
A. Guava
B. Citrus
C. Mango
D. Persimon
275. The national tree of Pakistan is___________________?
A. Neem
B. Acasia Arabia
C. Sesam
D. All the above
276. The fruit plants resisting acidic condition is______________________?
A. Mango
B. Chiku
C. Banana
D. Datepalm
277. The science of rearing honey bee for honey is known
as__________________?
A. Sericulture
B. Honey culture
C. Apiculture
D. Silvi culture
278. Coding moth is major pest of___________________?
A. Apple
B. Peach
C. Pear
D. Grapes
279. Gumosis is disease of___________________?
A. Mango
B. Guava
C. Citrus
D. Datepalm
280. Cabbage, cauliflower, broccoli, knol-knol are_____________________?

A. Leafy vegetables
B. Solanaceous vegetables
C. Floral vegetable
D. Cole crop
281. Disease incidences in plants is favored by___________________?
A. Cloudy weather
B. High humidity
C. Low temperature
D. All the above
282. Which disease is caused by nematodes in
banana_____________________?
A. Banana bunchy top
B. Finger tip rot
C. Panama diseases
D. Root knot
283. Collar rot in chilies is caused by ___________________?
A. Rhizocotina solani
B. Phytopatinara infeston
C. Phytophuthora spesies
D. Phytophatara cupsa
284. Fruits are an excellent source of_____________________?
A. Vitamins
B. Minerals
C. Carbohydrates
D. All the above
285. Tomato is a _________________________?
A. Short day plant
B. Long day plant
C. Day-neutral plant
286. Banana is a rich source of__________________?
A. Vitamins
B. Proteins
C. Lipids
D. Carbohydrates
287. The message of jasmine is_______________?

A. Love
B. Peace
C. Friendship
D. All the above
288. Ripening fruits soften due to___________________?
A. Jelly formation at acidic pH
B. Soubulization of pectate of middle lamelle
C. Conversion of starch in sugar
D. Incorporation of pectate in middle lamella
289. The chromoplast develops mainly from__________________?
A. Leucoplast
B. Chloroplast
C. Phagoplast
D. Amyloplast
290. which one of the following is climacteric
fruit_____________________?
A. Grape
B. Banana
C. Lemon
D. Pineapple
291. Degradation of green colour of fruits is due to___________________?
A. pH changes
B. Oxidative system
C. Chloroplry lases
D. All the above
292. Eating quality of the fruits is determined by_____________________?
A. Flavor
B. Texture
C. Physiological age
D. All the above
293. The activity of enzymes in fruits usually decline at
temperature___________________?
A. Above 10ºC
B. Above 20ºC
C. Above 30ºC

294. Low temperature in climacteric fruits causes delay
in________________________?
A. Ripening
B. Harvesting
C. Conversion of sugar to starch
295. The storage life of fresh mango at -1 to 4ºc
is_________________________?
A. 0-4 weeks
B. 1-4 weeks
C. 1-2 weeks
D. 2-4 weeks
296. The storage life of fresh apples at -1 to -4ºc
is______________________?
A. 4-10 weeks
B. 10-20 weeks
C. 8-30 weeks
D. 20-25 weeks
297. The storage life of fresh onion at -1 to -4ºC is____________________?
A. 10-15 weeks
B. 10-25 weeks
C. 12-28 weeks
D. 12-25 weeks
298. Mango fruit can best be cooled by means of___________________?
A. Cold air cooling
B. Hydro cooling
C. Vacuum cooling
299. Fruits ripen better at a relative humidity of at
least________________________?
A. 70%
B. 80%
C. 85%
D. 90%
300. Chilling injury in fruits occurs due to__________________?

A. Accumulation of ethanol
B. Accumulation of acetaldehyde
C. Accumulation of toxic compounds
D. All the above
301. The main function of auxin is_____________________?
A. Cell division
B. Cell elongation
C. Cell differentiation
D. Cell production
302. The process that convert glucose to pyruvic acid
is____________________?
A. Citric cycle
B. Glycolysis
C. Fermentation
D. Calvin-Benson cycle
303. The size of stomata is measured by___________________?
A. Potometer
B. Porometer
C. Spectrophotometer
D. Atomic absorption Spectrophotometer
304. What are the products of fermentation of grapes by
yeast________________?
A. CO & alcohol
B. ATP & CO2
C. ATP & Ethanol
D. All the above
305. Plant gums and mucilages are__________________?
A. Disaccharides
B. Monosaccharides
C. Monosaccharides
306. Proteins fails to work______________________?
A. With acidic pH
B. With out acidic pH
C. With basic pH
D. With out basic pH

307. The term vernalization was first used in 1928
by____________________?
A. Chailakhian
B. Gassner
C. Lysenko
D. Wrinkker
308. The one reason of unfruitfulness in fruits may be:__________?
A. Heterostyly
B. Compatibility
C. Monoecy
D. None of above
309. Crysanthemum is propagated by___________?
A. Suckers
B. corms
C. corals
D. None
310. Acidlime is commercially propagated by________?
A. Grafting
B. Seed
C. Cutting
D. All of the above
311. Training’ includes which one of the following operations?
A. Only supporting
B. Only propping
C. Only tying
D. All of the above
312. Among the root crops, the application of potassic fertilizers is
essential in____________?
A. Carrot
B. Turnip
C. Radish
D. All of the above
313. Which of the following not iodine rich vegetable crops?
A. Okra
B. French bean & capsicum

C. Brinjal
D. both B & C
314. ____________ may be defined as the art and science of cutting away
of portion of plant to improve its shape, to influence its growth,
flowering and fruitfulness and to improve the quality of the
product:
A. Littering
B. Pruning
C. Layering
D. Cutting

Agricultural (Plant Breeding and Genetics) MCQs
1. Protein content in barely is higher
than____________________?
A. maize
B. rice
C. wheat
2. Shull and East (1908) proposed over dominance
hypothesis of hetrosis in_________________?
A. Barley
B. wheat
C. Maize
3. ICARDA is located at___________________?
A. Columbia
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Syria
4. The concept of disruptive was given by____________________?
A. Morgan
B. Shull and East
C. Mather
5. Germplasm gene banks for different crop plants in
world are about_____________________?
A. 980
B. 1080
C. 1200
D. 1100
6. Global gene pool rice is maintained at_________________?
A. China
B. IRRI Philippines

C. Mexico
7. In the long term storage, germplasm can be stored
upto____________________?
A. 200 years
B. 150 years
C. 100 years
D. 1250 years
8. Global gene bank of Potato is located
at_____________________?
A. Columbia
B. Florida
C. CIP Peru
9. Conservation of germplasm under natural condion is
called_________________?
A. In-situ conservation
B. Gene bank
C. Ex-situ conservation
D. Obsolute cultivars
10. Gene pool consist of____________________?
A. Modern cultivars
B. Advanced breeding materials
C. Land race
D. All the above
11. Germplasm collected within the country is known
as____________________?
A. Active collection
B. Working collection
C. Indigenous collection
D. Exotic collection

12. A place or area where maximum variability of crop
plants is observed__________________?
A. Genetic diversity
B. Micro centers
C. Gene sanctuaries
D. Centers of diversity
13. System of mating were given by_________________?
A. Sewell Wright (1921)
B. Mather (1953)
C. Bruce and Keebel (1908)
D. Shall and East (1920)
14. Allogamy leads to___________________?
A. Homozy gosity
B. Heterozy gosity
C. Segregation
15. The term mitosis was coined by________________?
A. Flemming (1882)
B. De Vries and correns (1908)
C. Bruce and Keeble (1908)
D. Non of these
16. Artificial vegetative reproduction is done
by_________________?
A. Grafting
B. Budding
C. Layering
D. All the above
17. When pollination and fertilization occur in unopened
flower bud it is known as__________________?
A. Hamogamy
B. Cleistogamy

C. Chasmogamy
D. All the above
18. Allogamy is promoted by____________________?
A. Male sterility
B. Dichiny
C. Herkogamy
D. All the above
19. Mating between distantly related individuals is known
as________________?
A. Inbreeding
B. Out breeding
C. Amphimixis
D. All the above
20. The term self incompatibility was coined
by________________?
A. Koelreuter (1763)
B. Gerstel (1950)
C. East (1940)
21. Self incompatibility in which the genes express in the
style is known as__________________?
A. Styler SL
B. Ovarian SL
C. Polyallelic SL
D. Diallelic SL
22. Self incompatibility which is controlled by two genes is
found in___________________?
A. Gramineae
B. Solanaceae
C. Cruciferae

23. Plants having monoecious flowers are found
in____________________?
A. Maize
B. Caster
C. Colocasia
D. All the above
24. Anthesis starts in Allium cepa at___________________?
A. 7.00 am
B. 10.00 am
C. 3.00 pm
D. 5.00 pm
25. Amphimixis refers to_______________________?
A. Asexual reproduction
B. Sexual reproduction
C. Apomixes
26. Cytoplasmic sterility is govemed by________________________?
A. Nuclear genes
B. Plasma genes
C. Monoalleleic genes
27. Herkogamy is found in___________________?
A. Barley
B. Berseen
C. Lucrene
D. Alfalfa
28. Somatic hybrid “Pomato” was produced by fusion
between potato and tomato by__________________?
A. Glebe and Hoffmann (1979)
B. Melchers et al (1978)
C. Sam Norum (1976)
D. Guha and Maheshwari (1974)

29. RELP’s, RAPD are helpful in________________?
A. Gene sequencing
B. Gene mapping
C. Identify new genes
D. All the above
30. The process of producing several indentical copies of a
gene sequence referred to as__________________?
A. Gene sequencing
B. Gene cloning
C. Gene splicing
D. Micro cloning
31. The concept of multi line varieties was developed
by_________________?
A. Falconer (1960)
B. Goulden (1939)
C. Jensen (1952)
D. Johannsen (1903)
32. A heterogeneous population include_______________?
A. Composites
B. Multi lines
C. Synthetic
D. All the above
33. Mass pedigree method was developed
by__________________?
A. Harrington (1973)
B. Falconer (1960)
C. Vilomorin (1980)
D. Allard (91400
34. The most effective method for the transfer of oligogenic
characters________________?
A. Bulk
B. Backcross

C. Disruptive
D. Pedigree
35. Genetic selection was proposed by_________________?
A. Richy (1927)
B. Stadler (1944)
C. Hull (1945)
D. East (1920)
36. The term recurrent selection was coined
by_________________?
A. Hull (1945)
B. Hull (1950)
C. Hays (1919)
D. Garber (1955)
37. Plasmids are discovered by___________________?
A. Watson & Crick
B. Iscki & Sakai
C. Beadle & Tatum
38. Concept of generation means analysis was developed
by_______________________?
A. Hayman (1958)
B. Griffing (1965)
C. Jink (1950)
D. Kempthome (1957)
39. Difference between mean phenotypic value of the
progeny of selected plants and the parental population
is known as__________________?
A. Genetic gain
B. Genetic advance
C. Heritability
D. Coheritability

40. Concept of path coefficient analysis was given
by_________________?
A. Mather (1949)
B. Wright (1921)
C. Fisher (1918)
D. Smith (1936)
41. The term poly genes was coined by___________________?
A. Yates (1947)
B. Hazel (1943)
C. Mather (1943)
D. Griffing (1956)
42. The term homeostasis was coined by_____________________?
A. Lemer (1954)
B. Jinks (1968)
C. Warner (1952)
D. Freeman (1971)
43. Analysis of covanance permits estimation
of_____________________?
A. Environmental covanance
B. Phenotypic covanance
C. Genotypic convanance
D. All the above
44. Specific combining ability is primarily a function
of___________________?
A. Dominance variance
B. Additive x dominance epistasis
C. Dominance x dominance epistasis
D. All the above
45. Ratio of additive variance to phenotypic variance is
called___________________?
A. Heritability (broad sense)
B. Heritability (narrow sense)

C. Co-heritability
D. Genetic gain
46. In line x tester cross each male is crossed
with____________________?
A. Different sets of females
B. Few females in a set
C. Same sets of females
D. All the above
47. Biometrics for the study of quantitative genetics was
provided by ___________________?
A. Fisher
B. Falconer
C. Mather
D. Hayman
48. Various crosses made using a common tester
are__________________?
A. Top crosses
B. Biparental cross
C. Double cross
D. Test cross
49. Low magnitude of genotype x environmental interaction
indicates__________________?
A. High buffering capacity
B. Stability
C. Low buffering capacity
D. Adaptability
50. Split gene was first reported in___________________?
A. Drosoplulla
B. Pea
C. Cluckens
D. All the above
51. In lucern, toxic substance is found in_____________________?

A. Saponin
B. Coumarin
C. Neurotoxin
D. All the above
52. The first ever inter generic crossed has been
successfully performed between bamboo and sugarcane
by_______________________?
A. T.S. Venkatraman
B. R.S. Paroda
C. R.B. Singh
D. T.S. Verma
53. The first artificial hybridization in fruit crops was done
by____________________?
A. Knight
B. Morgan
C. Fischer
D. Muller
54. Law of parallele variation was given by___________________?
A. Wilkins
B. Jacob
C. Vavilov
55. International institute for Tropical Agriculture is
located at______________________?
A. Mexico
B. Nigeria
C. Syria
D. Columbia
56. Tea, coffee and mango seeds can not be converted in
seed banks because they drastic loss in viability with
decrease in moisture content below.___________________?

A. 12%
B. 20%
C. 15%
D. 18%
57. germplasm which is meant for short term storage (3 to
5 years) is known as___________________?
A. Exotic collection
B. Working collection
C. Indigenous collection
58. Global gene bank of sorghum is located
at_______________________?
A. ICRISAT
B. ICARDA
C. CIP Peru
59. Global gene bank of barley is located at__________________?
A. ICARDA
B. Florida
C. CIP
D. ICRISAT
60. Seeds which dried at low moisture content and stored at
low temperature without losing their viability
are__________________?
A. Recalcitrant seeds
B. Active seeds
C. Orthodox seeds
D. Certified seeds
61. The variety of genes and genotypes found in a particular
crop special are_____________________?
A. Genetic diversity
B. Genetic erosion

C. Gene sanctuaries
D. Field gene banks
62. Primitive cultivars which are selected and cultivated by
farmers for many years are___________________?
A. teriary gene pool
B. Obsolete cultivars
C. Land races
D. Modern cultivars
63. Gradual reduction on genetic variability due to
elimination of various () is called_______________________?
A. Centers of diversity
B. Land races
C. Genetic erosion
D. Genetic diversity
64. Allogamy is the common form of________________________?
A. Inbreeding
B. Out breeding
C. Syn breeding
D. All the above
65. Which generate variability_________________?
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Peleiotropy
66. The term mitosis was coined by__________________?
A. Rimpu (1890)
B. Nilson (1900)
C. De Vilmorin (1856)
D. Flemming (1882)
67. Development of embryo from egg cell without
fertilization is known as___________________?

A. Apogamy
B. Parthenogenesis
C. Apospory
D. Autogamy
68. Self pollination is associated with__________________?
A. Herkogamy
B. Dichogamy
C. Chasmogamy
D. Homogamy
69. Mating system in which each female gamete () with
every male gamete is known as____________________?
A. Genetic assortative mating
B. Genetic disassortative mating
C. Random mating
70. Male sterility in flowering plants was first reported
is__________________?
A. Bateman (1952)
B. Stout (1917)
C. Koelreuter (1763)
D. Braw baker (1958)
71. Pollen sterility which is controlled by both cytoplasmic
and nuclear genes is known as___________________?
A. GMS
B. CMS
C. CGMS
D. all the above
72. Self incompatibility which is controlled by single gene
found in some species of__________________?
A. Cruciferae
B. Solanaceae

C. Leguminosae
D. All the above
73. Diocious plant is____________________?
A. Papaya
B. Datepalm
C. Hemp
D. All the above
74. Rice flowers have___________________?
A. Six stamens
B. Eight stamens
C. Four stamens
75. Anthesis starts in wheat at__________________?
A. 10.00 am
B. 5.20 pm
C. 1.15 pm
D. 7.00 am
76. Genetic male sterility is controlled by_________________?
A. Allelic genes
B. Non alleleic genes
C. nuclear genes
D. All the above
77. Cytoplasmic genetic male sterility was first discovered
by___________________?
A. Jones and Davies (1944)
B. Devaries and Correns (1900)
C. Bruce and Keeble (1908)
D. Nilson (1900)
78. Protoandry is found in____________________?
A. Wheat
B. Sorghum

C. Maize
D. Barley
79. RELP’s, RAPD are helpful in___________________?
A. Gene sequencing
B. Gene mapping
C. Identify new gene
D. All the above
80. Prepotency increase with increase in_______________?
A. Hetrozygosity
B. Homozygosity
C. Homogeneity
D. All the above
81. Concept of disruptive selection was first developed
by__________________?
A. Grafius (1965)
B. Mather (9153)
C. Thoday (1960)
D. Falconer (1960)
82. Homozygous population include_________________?
A. Inbreed lines
B. Multi lines
C. Pure lines
D. All the above
83. Single seed descent method was first suggested
by_________________?
A. Goulden (1939)
B. Simmonds (1979)
C. Giber (1953)
D. Brim (1966)
84. The concept of diallel selective mating was developed
by____________________?

A. brim (1966)
B. Jensen (1952)
C. Jensen (1970)
D. Russel (1978)
85. Convergent improvement was proposed
by________________?
A. Jones (1920)
B. Richy (1920)
C. Hays (1919)
D. East (1920)
86. Reciprocal recurrent selection was proposed
by___________________?
A. Hays and limner (1950)
B. Constock et al (1949)
C. Allard (1955)
D. Hull (1935)
87. In wheat, Hessian fly pest is genetically controlled
by__________________?
A. Cytoplasm
B. 5D + 5d
C. 2D
D. 1D
88. Genetic correlation between two variables may be due
to___________________?
A. Gene interaction
B. Peliotropy
C. Dominance
D. Selection differential
89. Concept of biparental mating was developed
by__________________?
A. Perkins (1968)
B. Jinks and Jones (1958)

C. Hayman (1958)
D. Comstock and Robinson (1948)
90. Concept of triple test cross of analysis was developed
by____________________?
A. Kearsey and Jinks (1960)
B. Mather (1949)
C. Anderson (1957)
D. Fisher (1960)
91. The term micro and macro environment was given
by___________________?
A. Robinson (1948)
B. Lemer (1954)
C. Perkins (1971)
D. Comstock and Moll (1963)
92. Discriminant function of plant selection was suggested
by____________________?
A. Smith (1936)
B. Yates (1947)
C. Griffing (1956)
D. Kempt Horne (1957)
93. Pure line theory was developed by_______________?
A. Thoday (1960)
B. Mather (1951)
C. Allard (1957)
D. Johannsen (1903)
94. High values of genetic advance are indicative
of____________________?
A. Dominance gene action
B. Additive gene action
C. non-additive gene action
D. Partial dominance gene action

95. Who coined the term genetic flexibility and phenotypic
flexibility___________________?
A. Hardy (1908)
B. Thoday (1953)
C. Salisbury (1940)
D. Muller (1950)
96. Concept of combining ability as measure of gene action
was first proposed by___________________?
A. Sprague and Tatum (1942)
B. Cavalli (1952)
C. Mather (1956)
D. Wright (1951)
97. In half diallel, total crosses among parents are equal
to___________________?
A. P (P-1)/2
B. P (P-1)
C. P (P+1)/2
D. P2
98. Estimation of correlation form error variances and
covariance’s is________________?
A. Genotypic correlation
B. Phenotypic correlation
C. Simple correlation
D. Environmental correlation
99. Ratio of genotypic covariance to the phenotypic
covariance is____________________?
A. Heritability (b.s)
B. Genetic gain
C. Co-heritability
D. Genetic advance
100. Jumping gene was first discovered in______________________?

A. Maize
B. Barley
C. Oenothera
D. Sorghum
101. Erucic acid is found is_____________________?
A. Safflower
B. Til
C. Soybean
D. Mustard
102. Neurotoxin is found in___________________?
A. Pearl millet
B. Berseem
C. Lucem
D. Sorghum
103. Nutritional quality breeding deals with genetic
improvement in__________________?
A. Oil
B. Protein
C. Vitamin
D. All the above
104. In pulses, limiting amino acids include__________________?
A. Lysine
B. Threamine
C. Tryptophan
D. Methionine
105. In green vegetables, the limiting amino acids
is__________________?
A. Methionine
B. Arginine
C. Lysine
D. Trytophan
106. Soybean contains___________________?

A. Typsin inhibitor
B. Goiterogens
C. Both A & B
D. Neither
107. Dominance hypothesis of heterosis was first proposed
by__________________?
A. Davenport (1908)
B. Shull (1914)
C. Bruce (1910)
D. Davis (1927)
108. The term heterosis was coined by____________________?
A. Hull (1945)
B. Bruce (1910)
C. East (1908)
D. Shull (1914)
109. In allogamous species, a true breeding line obtained by
continuous inbreeding is__________________?
A. Hybrid
B. Top cross
C. Poly cross
D. Inbred
110. Heterobeltiosis is estimated over the___________________?
A. Better parent
B. Mid parent
C. Standard parent
D. Popular variety
111. Haploid plants have been produced by another culture
in tomato by_________________?
A. Greshof and Doy (1972)
B. Tyagi and Prasad (1965)
C. Mehta and Upadhya (1960)
D. Singh (1960)

112. Increased flower size has made tetraploidy important
for___________________?
A. Plant breeder
B. Agronomist
C. Horticulturist
D. Pathologist
113. An individual lacking only one chromosome from the
diploid set is referred as_________________?
A. Nullisomic
B. Monosomic
C. Trisomic
D. Tetrasomic
114. Blackeselee reported the first case of monoploid
in__________________?
A. Datura
B. Rye
C. Brassica
D. Oat
115. A gene which exhibits higher mutation rate than others
is referred as___________________?
A. Mutator gene
B. Antimutalor gene
C. Mutable gene
D. Hot spot
116. Mutation was first discovered by________________?
A. deVries (1900)
B. Morgan (1910)
C. Stadler (1928)
D. Wright (1791)
117. Maximum mutants varieties are evolved
in_________________?

A. Rice
B. Wheat
C. Barley
D. Maize
118. Vertical resistance is also known as_________________?
A. Race specific
B. Oligogenic
C. Qualitative
D. All the above
119. In rice, brown plant hopper has no preference
for___________________?
A. Purple stigma
B. Low aspergine
C. Red pericarp
D. All the above
120. Disease and insect resistance is governed
by________________?
A. Plasma genes
B. Polygenes
C. Oligogenes
D. All the above
121. In barley, resistance to cereal leaf beetle is associated
with_________________?
A. High aspartic acid
B. Waxiness of leaves
C. High silica content
D. High benzol alcohol
122. Drought resistance is associated with___________________?
A. Biochemical factors
B. Physiological factors
C. Morphological factors
D. all the above

123. Drought tolerance is associated with ____________________?
A. Deep root system
B. Small waxy and thick leaves
C. Sunken, small and less stomata
D. All of the above
124. Concept of ideotype___________________?
A. Model plant type
B. Good plant model
C. Ideal plant type
D. All the above
125. Concept of ideotype was coined by__________________?
A. Oat
B. Sorghum
C. Wheat
D. Rice
126. In forage, crops, ideal plant type consists of
______________________?
A. Tall, leafy, high leaf/stem ratio
B. Dwarf stature
C. Late resistance to disease
D. Dwarf, late green
127. Heat, cold and frost resistance ideotype have been
developed in_____________________?
A. Cereals
B. Pulses
C. Millet
128. The experimental design which controls fertility
variation in two directions in known as_________________?
A. RBD
B. SPD

C. AD
D. LSD
129. Gamatophytic system of self incompatibility was first
discovered by____________________?
A. Frankel (1977)
B. Bresbaker (1958)
C. Hughes and Babceek
D. East and Mangelsdref (1925)
130. The value of regression and correlation is the same
when the correlation between two variables
is________________?
A. Imperfect
B. Perfect
C. Positive
D. Negative
131. Plant breeder right are operating in____________________?
A. Geneva
B. 50 meters
C. 200 meters
D. 3 meters
132. Citification is not required for_____________________?
A. Nucleus seed
B. Breeder seed
C. Foundation seed
D. Certified seed
133. In sunflower, production of foundation seed requires as
isolation___________________?
A. 400 meters
B. 800 meters
C. 200 meters
D. 100 meters
134. Cuscuta is an object ional weed of_____________________?

A. Cowpeas
B. Berseem
C. Sorghum
D. Luceru
135. Parthenocarpy is the production of____________________?
A. Fruit without pollination
B. Seed without fertilization
C. fruit without fertilization
D. Only seed and no fruit
136. The smell in onion bulb is due to________________?
A. Bad odour of soil
B. Much sugar
C. Sulphur compounds
D. Freshy leaves
137. Fertilization in a flower occurs within
the____________________?
A. Pollen tube
B. Anther
C. Style
D. Ovule
138. Dispersal of seeds by parachute mechanism is present
in__________________?
A. Onion
B. Tomato
C. Cotton
D. Sorghum
139. Which one is C3 crop plant__________________?
A. Gram
B. Tomato
C. Onion
D. all the above
140. The food in onion is stored in_________________?

A. Root
B. Stem
C. leaves
D. Scale leaves
141. Edible part of orange is__________________?
A. Unexcelled endocarp hair
B. Unicelled placenta hairs
C. Multicelled endocarpic hair
D. Multicelled placental hairs
142. Rum is distilled from____________________?
A. Unmalted potatoes
B. Fermented fruit juice
C. Unmalted cereals
D. Unrefined products of sugarcane
143. A healthy plant not selling seed may be due
to____________________?
A. Self incompatibility
B. Male sterility
C. Female sterility
D. All the above
144. Red flower pea plant is crossed with the white flowered
pea plant, F1 is red; with flower color is
______________________?
A. Dominant
B. Recessive
C. Non-genetic
D. Unexpressive
145. Where would you look for active cell division in a plant
_____________________?
A. Pith cells
B. Cortex cells

C. Internodes regions
D. Tips of stem & roots
146. The parry of Cauliflower which is eaten
is__________________?
A. Flower
B. Fruit
C. Bud
D. Inflorescence
147. Ribosome’s are the centers of_____________________?
A. Fat synthesis
B. Starch synthesis
C. Protein synthesis
D. Anaerobic respiration
148. Meiosis is significant because___________________?
A. Produces identical cells
B. Restores original number of chromosomes
C. Occurs only in somatic
D. Doubling of DNA content in the cell
149. How many times mitotic divisions must occur in a cell of
the root tip to form 256 cels___________________?
A. 8
B. 32
C. 64
D. 120
150. When a cell with 40 chromosomes undergoes meiosis
each of the four resulting cells has_____________________?
A. 10 chromosomes
B. 20 chromosomes
C. 40 chromosomes
151. If diploid chromo me number in flowering plant is 8
then 4 chromosomes will be present in_________________?

A. Endosperm cell
B. Leaf cells
C. Cotyledonary cell
D. Synergids
152. Triticuin aestivuin is_________________?
A. Triploid
B. Teuaplioid
C. Hexaploid
D. Oetaploid
153. All organism or cell having a chromosome number that
is not an exact multiple of the monoploid or basic
number is known as___________________?
A. Allopolyploid
B. Autopolyploid
C. Aneuploid
D. Euploid
154. The geometrical device that helps in visnalizing all the
possible combinations of male and female gametes
known as____________________?
A. Punneu square
B. Morgan square
C. Mendel square
D. Bateson square
155. Year 1900 was significant for geneticists due
to__________________?
A. Discovery of gene
B. Principles of linkage
C. heredity theory
D. Rediscovery of Mendel’s
156. Liposome’s originated from____________________?
A. Plastids
B. Ribosomes

C. Mitochondria
D. Leucoplasts
157. The cell theory was propounded by____________________?
A. Watson and Crick
B. Scheiiden and Schwann
C. Sarwin and Wallace
D. Morgan
158. Common and easily available source of energy does not
contain RNA__________________?
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. ATP
D. DNA/RNA
159. Which one of the following does not contain both DNA
and RNA__________________?
A. Bacterium
B. Virus
C. Fungus
D. Algae
160. A mutation is a change in_________________?
A. Chromosome number
B. RNA
C. DNA
D. Chromosome structure
161. RNA contains__________________?
A. Thymine
B. Argenine
C. Cystine
D. Uracil
162. Strands of DNA are bounded by___________________?
A. Icygen
B. Carbon

C. Hybrogen
D. Nitrogen
163. The name “Suicide bag” is given to___________________?
A. Ribosomes
B. Centrosomes
C. Microsomes
D. Lysosmes
164. The ATP formed in__________________?
A. Chloroplast
B. Mitochondna
C. Golgi bodies
D. RNA
165. Amount of DNA is the diploid cells____________________?
A. Varies with the age
B. Coustant for all organismes
C. Constant for particular organism
166. Which are the necessary conditions for the hardy
Weinberg principle for applying to genetic
population________________?
A. Low mutation population
B. High mutation ratio and small population
C. Selective mating and small population
D. No migration and large population
167. Gene responsible for the synthesis of repressor is
called__________________?
A. Operator gene
B. Structural gene
C. Regulator gene
D. Promotor gene
168. The small unit of DNA capable of undergoing crossing
over and recommbination is________________?

A. Recon
B. Muton
C. Cistron
D. Complan
169. In a population gene frequencies remain constant when
there is_________________?
A. Iubreeding
B. Out breeding
C. Random mating
D. Selective mating
170. DNA is genetic material was first discovered
by____________________?
A. Attmann (1889)
B. Crick (1953)
C. Sressler (1968)
D. Avery et al (1944)
171. Ieucaena lencocephala is a popular tree
for______________________?
A. Beautification
B. Seasonal fruit
C. Medicinal plant
D. Nutritive forage
172. Maximum vegetable crops belong to the
family____________________?
A. Solanaceae
B. Cruciferae
C. Cucurbitaceae
D. Legumunaceae
173. The term vertical resistance and horizontal resistance
were first used by________________________?
A. Van der plank (1963)
B. Karpechenko (1927)

C. Hull (1945)
D. Correns (1900)
174. A gene which enhances the natural mutations rate of
another gene in the same genome is kanown
as___________________?
A. Mutable gene
B. Mutator gene
C. Recepror gene
D. Articulator gene
175. Gametophytic self incompatibility was first reported
in___________________?
A. Lena sativa
B. Nicotine sandarac
C. Set aria sphacelata
D. Scale cereals
176. Seed germination in typhoin walermelon can
successfully be obtained by____________________?
A. Scarification
B. Seed risking
C. Seed cot removal
D. All the above
177. Prescribed germination percentage of foundation seed
of groundnut____________________?
A. 70
B. 20
C. 90
D. 95
178. In oat an site-specific cross between Ivena sativa and A
busantus_____________________?
A. Incompatible
B. Partially fertile

C. Sterile
D. Fully fertile
179. Reciprocal recurrent selection is effective
with___________________?
A. Incomplete
B. Complete dominance
C. Over dominance
D. All the above
180. In case of incomplete dominance in the f2
generation_______________________?
A. Ratio of phenotypes is 3:1
B. Ratio of genotypes is 3:1
C. Phenotypic ratio corresponds to the genotypic ratio
181. Who arrang the following associated with genetic
engineering___________________?
A. Watson
B. Crick
C. Koruna
D. Morgan
182. Who gave the principle that man tends to multiply faster
than food supply________________?
A. Mathis
B. Mendel
C. Darwin
D. Haldane
183. Epitasis implies_____________________?
A. One gene pair enhances phenotype expression of
another gene pair
B. Many gene together control a parucular phenotype
C. One pair of gene can completely mask the expression

of another gene pair
D. One gene pair independently controls a phenotype
184. After self pollination of red flowered plants out of 40
plants of progeny were white flowered. this indicates
that the plants are__________________?
A. Heterogeneous
B. Heterozygous
C. Homogenous
D. Homozygous
185. haploids are better for mutation studies because in
them all the mutations whether recessive or dominant
are expressed as_______________?
A. There are many alleles of each gene in each call
B. There are two alleles of each gene in each cell
C. There is only one alleles of each gene present in each
cell
D. Non3e4 of the above
186. Red (RR) is crossed with white (ww). All the (Rw)
offsprings are pink this is an indication that the R gene
is_________________?
A. Recessive
B. Incomplete dominant
C. Mutant
D. Dominant
187. Hereditary variations in plants have been produced by
the use of________________?
A. DDT
B. X-rays
C. Gibberrellic acid
D. Auxins

188. Which of the following had great influence on Drawing
during during formulation of his theory of natural
selection_________________?
A. Lamark’s idea on inheritance of acquired character’s
B. Mathis’s essay on population
C. Mendes’s experiment on pea
D. De Vries theory of mutation
189. The organic evolution look place about__________________?
A. 100,000,000 years
B. 200,000,000 ears
C. 300,000,000 years
D. Still occurring
190. In a monohybrid cross, 2 heterozygous individuals were
crossed, phenotypic ratio came to be (2:1), it is due
to__________________?
A. Dominant lethal genes in heterozygous individuals
B. Dominant lethal genes in homozygous individuals
C. Dominant epistasis
191. If the haploid number of chromosomes in a plant is 12,
then the number of chromosomes in monosmic
is_________________?
A. 12
B. 24
C. 22
D. 23
192. Presence of slight differences in identical twins support
the hypothesis that___________________?
A. Single gene may produce multiple effects
B. Dominance may be incomplete
C. The environment effects the expression of genetic

character
D. Genetic trails are influence by many genes
193. Superiority of heterozygote in respect to one or more
traits in comparison to corresponding homozygote is
known as____________________?
A. Heterocyst
B. Hetropyenosis
C. Hypostasis
D. Epistastasis
194. Mutant allele that has little or no effect on the
expression of a tart is known as_____________________?
A. Atavism
B. Auxotroph
C. Axoneme
D. Armor
195. A useful process for determining whether an individual
is homozygous or heterozygous is_____________________?
A. Cross breeding
B. Back crossing
C. Self fertilization
D. Inbreeding
196. Episodes may be factor in____________________?
A. Dominance
B. Cytoplasm inheritance
C. Incomplete dominance
D. Chromosomal inheritance
197. Evolution may be described as___________________?
A. History of development of larger biological units
B. Cntinuous genetic variation
C. Inheritance of acquired characters
D. Discontinuous genetic variation

198. Organism arise from existing forms by genetic
variations is called_________________?
A. Mutation
B. Genetics
C. Genetics
D. Hybridization
199. Mendel was lucky to use pea plants for genetical
experiments because__________________?
A. They showed one type of flowers
B. they belong to the family leguminous
C. The seven characters he studied were on different
chromosomes
D. They have round seeds with lot of proteins
200. The most recent evolved plant group is
____________________?
A. Confers
B. Mosses
C. grasses
D. Gymnosperm
201. If a pure tall plant is crossed with a pure dwarf one, the
ratio of tall pure dwarf in the F 2 generation after selling
F1 plant will be___________________?
A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 2:1
D. 3:1
202. Polyploidy is most likely to result from
____________________?
A. Occurrence of crossing over
B. The crossing over between non homologous
chromosomes
C. Occurrence of karyokinesis

D. The failure of homologous chromosomes to separate
during meiosis
203. Apheliotropic gene is one which___________________?
A. Affects more than five characters
B. Affects more than ten characters
C. Affects only one character
D. Affects more than one character
204. A genetic element which can exist in more than one of
the two alternative forms is known as__________________?
A. Episome
B. Disome
C. Mecrosome
D. Peroxisome
205. The smallest unit of recombination in the chromosome
is called___________________?
A. Gene
B. Chromosome
C. Citron
D. Recon
206. The functional unit of mutation is___________________?
A. Gaston
B. Recon
C. Gene
D. Mouton
207. The genetic constitution of an orgarusm is denoted
by____________________?
A. Phenotype
B. Genotype
C. Allele
D. Genome
208. A cross of hybrid with one of its parents is termed
as____________________?

A. Hybridization
B. Backcross
C. Test cross
D. Biohybrid
209. Reproduction from an unfertilized egg or reproduction
without fertilization may be defined as___________________?
A. Calistoga
B. Chimera
C. Clone
D. Inbreeding
210. In the F2 generation, genotypic and phenotypic ratios
are identical in cases of___________________?
A. Mendel lan monohybrids
B. Mendelian dihybrids
211. As a result of linkage and crossingover
_____________________?
A. Chromatids become chromosomes
B. Nuclear division come to close
C. Chromosomes become half in number
D. Exchange of chromosomal material
212. A dihybrid ratio is____________________?
A. 9:3:3:1
B. 1:1:1:1
C. 3:1
D. 27:9:9:3:3:3:1
213. The chromosome number of human race
is__________________?
A. 48
B. 41

C. 44
D. 46
214. Mendel studied contrasting characters for his breeding
cxperiments with peas which of the following character
he did not study_______________?
A. Pod color
B. Pod shape
C. Plant height
D. Leaf shape
215. The new crop critical has been evolved by intervener
hybridization between________________________?
A. Wheat & rice
B. Rye & Wheat
C. Wheat & Anglos
D. Rice & maize
216. The crossing of a yomozygous tall plant and a
homozygous dwarf plant would yield plants in the ratio
of_________________?
A. 2 tall: 2 dwarf
B. All homozygous dwarf
C. All the heterozygous tall
D. One homozygous tall, one homozygous dwarf, two
heterozygous tall
217. In crop improvement programmed haploids are of great
importance because they__________________?
A. Are useful in studies on meiosis
B. Give homozygous lines following diplodization
C. Grow better under adverse conditions
D. Require only about half the amount of chemical fertilizers
compared to diploids
218. Among the following the test cross is_________________?

A. TTxTT
B. TTxTt
C. TtxTt
D. Ttxtt
219. Linkage of hereditary units was discounted
by__________________?
A. W. Batson and B.C Pun net
B. T.B. Morgan and G. Mendel
C. W.S. Sutton and K. R. Porter
D. C.B. Bridges and G.H. Shull
220. Gynandromorphy in Drosophila because
of_________________?
A. Loss of X-chromosome
B. Kappa particles
C. inheritance
D. Gain of Y-chromosome
221. Absence of chlorophyll in a plant is known
as__________________?
A. Acrodsome
B. Albinism
C. A gouri
222. The spread of genes from one breeding population to
another by migration which may result in changes in
gene frequency is called__________________?
A. Gene flow
B. Genetic drift
C. Gene frequency
223. Occurrence of cells in diploid organisms containing
multiples of the 2n genomes is known
as____________________?

A. Allopolyploid
B. Amphidiploids
C. End polyploidy
D. Aneupoidy
224. Pedigree selection is used in____________________?
A. Self pollinated plants
B. Cross pollinated plants
C. Plant difficult to hybridized
D. For crosses at intervener level
225. An organism or cell having a chromosome number that
is higher than the exact nultiple of the basic number is
known as__________________?
A. Hypoploid
B. Hyperploid
C. Allopolyploid
D. Autopolyploid
226. Bacteria, single celled animals and plants are grouped
to gather as_______________________?
A. Protozoa
B. Prototypal
C. Protista
D. Prokaryotes
227. The protein synthesizing system is associated
with_____________________?
A. Microtubules
B. Ribosome’s
C. Episodes
D. Mitochondria
228. From a single ear of corn a farmer planted 300 kernels
which produced 225 tall and 75 short plants. the
genotype of these offsprings are most likely to
be_____________________?

A. TT and Tt only
B. TT and tt only
C. Tt and Tt only
D. TT Tt and tt
229. If the frequency of a dominant phenotype in a stable
population in 75% the frequency of the dominant allele
in that population is____________________?
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 25%
D. 40$
230. As a general rule interbreeding is possible
between______________________?
A. Any two members of a Genus
B. Any two members of a Species
C. Any two members of a Family
D. Any two members of an order
231. The term cell was introduced in 1665 by__________________?
A. Maligned
B. Hook
C. Schneider
D. Schumann
232. The digestive vacuole in the animal cell
are____________________?
A. Ribosomes
B. Lysosomes
C. Lysozymes
D. Dictysomes
233. The nucleic acids comprise of_________________?
A. DNA
B. RNA

C. DNA & RNA
D. DNQA and protein
234. Duplication of chromosomes occurs
during_________________?
A. Mitosis only
B. Meiosis
C. Mitosis and meiosis
235. Who discovered nucleic acid________________?
A. Van Mohl
B. Miescher
C. Benda
D. Schultz
236. Who gave the model of DNA_________________?
A. Watson and Crick
B. Tatum
C. Koran
D. Dtanele
237. Cytoplasm fills of the cavity of a cell when if is young.
But in nature cells, the cytoplasm________________?
A. Becomes vacuolated
B. Disappears completely
C. Contracts
D. Disintegrates partially
238. Who discovered ribosomes__________________?
A. Palade
B. Altmann
C. Cowdry
D. Garner
239. What is the function of Gorge bodies__________________?
A. Photosynthesis
B. Protein synthesis

C. Segregation of the products of sunthesis
D. RNA synthesis
240. The smallest cell organelle so far is_____________________?
A. Peroxisome
B. Spherosome
C. Ribosome
D. Lysosome
241. The maximum magnification possible within electron
microscope is____________________?
A. 2000 times
B. 4000 times
C. 400,000 times
D. 200,000 times
242. The outer most part of plant cell is____________________?
A. Plasma membrane
B. Epidermis
C. Nuclear membrane
D. Cellulose cell wall
243. The membrane which surrounds the___________________?
A. Nucleus
B. Chloroplast
C. Vacuole
D. Cutoplasm
244. In cereals limiting amino acids are________________?
A. Threonine
B. Lysine
C. Methionine
D. a and b
245. In maize source of high lysine is___________________?
A. Opaque 2
B. Proline

C. Gang as
D. African tall
246. The term useful heterosis was first used
by__________________?
A. Meredith and Bridge (1972)
B. Richey (1914)
C. Jenkins (1935)
D. Hull (1950)
247. Top cross was first suggested by__________________?
A. Simmonds (1979)
B. East (1908)
C. Davenport (1908)
D. Davis (1927)
248. Heterosis can be fully exploited in the form
of_____________________?
A. Composites
B. Hybrids
C. Multi lines
D. Synthetics
249. Heterosis can be fixed by___________________?
A. Apomixis
B. Polyploidy
C. Asexual reproduction
D. All the above
250. Out breeding leads to reproduction in____________________?
A. Heterozygosity
B. Homozygosity
C. Population mean
251. Colchicum () is extracted from__________________?
A. Seed
B. Bulb

C. Fruit
D. Flower
252. A nullisomic individual is represented by________________?
A. 2n-1
B. 2n+1
C. 2n-2
D. 2n+2
253. The change in chromosome number which involves the
entire set of genome is known as______________?
A. Anenploidy
B. Euploidy
C. Trisomy
D. all the above
254. In primary trisomic the extra chromosome
is__________________?
A. Isochromosome
B. Traits located chromosome
C. Normal chromosome
255. Stadler, first used X-rays for induction of mutation
in_________________?
A. Oat
B. Maize
C. Wheat
D. Barley
256. A mutation which kills 50% of the individual that carry
the mutation is known as_________________?
A. Lethal mutation
B. Sub lethal mutation
C. Vital mutation
D. Sub-vital mutation

257. In Incern, resistance to spotted aphid is associated
with__________________?
A. low sinigen in leaves
B. High saponin in leaves
C. High DIMBOA in leaves
D. High silicant content
258. Concept of gene for gene hypothesis was developed
in____________________?
A. Linseed
B. Oat
C. Gram
D. Tomato
259. In cotton, jassids have non preference
for______________________?
A. Fregobract
B. Okra leaves
C. Smoothness leaves
D. Hairiness of leaves
260. In wheat, example of durable insect resistance includes
resistance to___________________?
A. Green bugs
B. Stem saw fly
C. Hessian fly
D. All the above
261. Drought is measured in terms of________________?
A. Yield performance
B. Photosynthesis
C. Root length of seedings
D. All the above
262. Under drought conditions, there is an increase
in__________________?

A. Pro line level
B. Ethylene level
C. Abscisic acid
D. All the above
263. Srought is indicated by__________________?
A. Increase in proline level
B. Increase in ethylene level
C. leaf rolling
D. all the above
264. The term ideotype was coined by_____________________?
A. Jennings (1958)
B. Finlay (1968)
C. Rasmesson (1987)
D. Donald (1968)
265. Norine 10 is the source of dwarfing gene
in________________?
A. Wheat
B. Rice
C. Barley
D. Oat
266. Dee-Geo-Woogen is the source of dwarfing gene
in___________________?
A. Wheat
B. Sorghum
C. Maize
D. Rice
267. The significance of difference among several means is
tested with the help of____________________?
A. F-test
B. t-test
C. Z-test
D. x-test

268. The experimental design which control fertility
variation in one direction is known as____________________?
A. RBD
B. SPD
C. AD
D. LSD
269. The ratio of treatment variance to error variance is
known as______________________?
A. Correction factor
B. F-value
C. Critical difference
D. t-value
270. Headquarter of union for the protection of new plant
varieties is in__________________?
A. Thailand
B. USA
C. Den nark
D. Switzerland
271. In bhindi, production of foundation seed needs and
isolation distance_________________?
A. 100 meters
B. 50 meters
C. 200 meters
D. 3 meters
272. Argemone mexicana is an objectional wed
of__________________?
A. Oat
B. Rapseed/mustard
C. Tomato
D. Barley

273. The recommended ratio of male the recommended of
male rows to female rows in hybrid bajra production
is_________________?
A. 2 to 4
B. 1 to 2
C. 4 to 8
D. 3 to 6
274. Which one of the following is fruit____________________?
A. Cauliflower
B. Potato
C. Brinjal
D. Ginger
275. Maturation of stamens and pistils at different times in
the same flower is called___________________?
A. Heterostyle
B. Dichotamy
C. Heterospory
D. Dichogamy
276. Tomato would not have turned red if__________________?
A. They were kept at the bottom layer of box
B. They were mixed with ripe apples
C. There were no ripe apples in the box
D. Less “hey”had been put in the box
277. In potato food is stored in__________________?
A. Root
B. Shoot
C. Leaves
D. Flowers
278. Which of the following is not a fruit____________________?
A. Tomato
B. Potato

C. Muskmelon
D. Bitter gourd
279. Who coin the term genetic load _____________?
A. Hardy (1908)
B. Muller (1950)
C. Ford (1940)
D. Satisbury (1940)
280. Which one is C4 crop plant_____________________?
A. Sugarcane
B. Sorghum
C. Maize
D. all the above
281. Synopsis occur in___________________?
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Amitosis
D. all the above
282. Edible part of pomegranate is____________________?
A. juicy test
B. juicy epicure
C. juicy hairs
D. Monocarp
283. Parthenogenesis is most commonly seen
in___________________?
A. Apple
B. Orange
C. Mango
D. Grape
284. Whisky is distilled from__________________?
A. Fermented mash of malted or unmalted cereals
and potatoes
B. Fermented juices of fruits

C. Raw grains
D. Legume fruits
285. Mutation breeding is mostly used in____________________?
A. Self pollinated crops
B. Cross pollinated crops
C. Vegetative propagated crops
D. Often cross pollinated crops
286. The policy level of commercially cultivated seedless
watermelon is__________________?
A. Monoploid
B. Diploid
C. Triploid
D. Tetraploid
287. If the leaf cells have eight chromosomes it is mostly
likely that__________________?
A. Gametes will have 8 chromosomes
B. Gametes will have 4 chromosomes
C. Zygote will have 4 chromosomes
D. Zygote will have 16 chromosomes
288. How many mitouc divisions will take place to produce
512 cells from a single parent cell_________________?
A. 9
B. 256
C. 158
D. 511
289. Three important law of heredity proposed by Mendel
relate to___________________?
A. Gene linkage, character se gregation and independent
assortment
B. Gene linkage, dominance and segregation
C. Segregation, independent assortment and gene linkage

D. Segregation, independent assortment and dominance
recessive ness
290. If a heterozygous tall plant is crossed with a
homozygous dwarf plant the proportion of dwarf
progerry will be__________________?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
291. If a plant heterozygous for tallness is selfed, f2
feneration has both tall and dwarf plants. this proves
the principle of__________________?
A. Dominance
B. Segregation
C. Independent assortment
D. Incomplete dominance
292. If a haploid chromosome number of a gymnosperm is 12
the chromosome in its endosperm will
be__________________?
A. 6
B. 12
C. 24
D. 36
293. When red tall plant is crossed with dwarf white plant all
the plants of F, are found to be tall red. which of the
following ratio will be available when a test cross is
made_________________?
A. 3:1
B. 1:2:3
C. 1:1:1:1
D. 1:2:1

294. If the offspring of F, (blue) is crossed with white male
parent the result will be______________________?
A. All blue
B. All white
C. All black
D. Half blue and half white
295. Seed is___________________?
A. Seveloped ovary after fertilization
B. Developed egg after fertilization
C. Transformcd ovary after fertilization
296. The slow process by which new types of organisms arise
from existing forms by genetics variation is
called_______________________?
A. Genetics
B. Mutation
C. Evolution
D. Polyploidy
297. An exce4ption of Mendel’s law is______________________?
A. Dominance
B. Liukage
C. Independent assortment
D. Purity of gametes
298. Continuous variation are attrions are attributed
to____________________?
A. Crossingover
B. Polyploidy
C. Mutations
D. Linkage
299. In populations genotypic and phenotypic ratios are
identical in cases of___________________?

A. Mendel lan monohybrid
B. Mendelian dihybrid
300. Self incompatibility is used for hybrid seed production
in______________________?
A. Rice
B. Maize
C. Cabbage
D. Tomato
301. Which one of the following does not contain
RNA_______________?
A. Chromosome
B. Ribosomes
C. Nuclcolus
D. Plasmalemma
302. RNA contains_____________________?
A. 3 carbon sugars
B. 4 carbon sugars
C. 5 carbon sugars
D. 6 carbon sugars
303. Which one of the following is not found in
DNA__________________?
A. Cystine
B. Uracil
C. Thymine
D. Guanine
304. Kinds of nitrogen containing bases fond in RNA
are__________________?
A. Two
B. Four

C. Six
D. Eight
305. In meiosis homologous chromosomes separate from
each other in ______________________?
A. metaphase I
B. Auaphase I
C. Metaphase II
D. Anaphase II
306. The chief function of the centro mere
concerns___________________?
A. Spindle formation
B. Nucleolus formation
C. Chromosome replication
D. Chromosome movement
307. The protoplasm is________________?
A. Solution
B. Semi-solid
C. Crysto colloidal solution
D. Colloidal solution
308. How many type of DNA are_________________?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
309. Sugar present in DNA is_______________?
A. Pentose
B. Hexose
C. Heptose
D. Triose
310. Polytene chromosomes were first observed
by___________________?

A. Mendel (1810)
B. Balbiani (1881)
C. Allard (1910)
D. Baranetzky (1910)
311. In random mating population gene frequencies remain
constant generation after generation in the absence
of__________________?
A. Mutation
B. Selection
C. Migration
D. Random drift
312. A child is born with an extra chromosome in each of it
cells, the reason is___________________?
A. Non-disjunction
B. Segregation
C. Hybridization
D. Crossing over
313. Nobel prize for the discovery of operon model was
awarded to__________________?
A. Jacob and monod (1965)
B. Crick (1966)
C. Watson and Crick (1953)
D. Briuen and Davidson (1959)
314. Winter beats are grown in___________________?
A. Canada
B. Iran
C. Mexico
D. India
315. Which is the suitable perennial grass for lean
periods__________________?
A. Napier
B. Anjan

C. Para
D. Marvel
316. From which part of the coconut tem coir is
obtained_____________________/
A. Endosperm
B. Per carp of fruit
C. Leaf
D. Inflorescence
317. First intergeneric hybrid between radish and cabbage
was made by__________________?
A. Jones (1917)
B. Muller (1927)
C. Fray (1966)
D. Karechenko (1927)
318. Cells intercommunicates with neighbouring cells
by_________________?
A. Plasmedesmata
B. Plasmalema
C. Trachieds
D. Nessels
319. Male sterility in flowering plant was first reported
by___________________?
A. Stout (1917)
B. Koelreuter (1763)
C. Brewbaker (1810)
D. Gerstel (1900)
320. Breeder seed is the progeny of__________________?
A. Cenified seed
B. Nucleus seed
C. Foundation
D. Registered seed

321. Gene for gene hypothesis was proposed
by__________________?
A. Nelson (1973)
B. Flor (1956)
C. Robinson (1971)
D. Vander plank (1963)
322. Heterosis results due to____________________?
A. Dominance
B. Overdominance
C. Epistasis
D. All the above
323. capsicum is a rich source of___________________?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
324. Two allelie genes are located on_______________________?
A. Two homologous chromosomes
B. Two non homologous chromosomes
C. Any two chromosomes with one each
D. Same chromosomes
325. If a plant is heterozygousand is designated (BbMm)and
produces two kinds of gametes either (BM)or (bm), then
the possibility of (bm) gametes fertilizing either (BM) or
(bm) is_________________?
A. Half
B. 0/1
C. 1/1
D. 1/4
326. Diagrammatic representation of the chromosomes of an
organism arranged according to their size is
called_____________________?

A. Ideogram
B. Gene map
C. Karyotype
D. Phenotype
327. The process of transfer and deletion of several gene
is_____________________?
A. Gene mutation
B. Chromosomal mutation
C. Monoploldy
D. Synapsis
328. Maize has 10 pairs of chromosomes. how many linkage
groups will be present if all the genes are
mapped__________________?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 40
D. 15
329. An individual with two identical members of a part of
geneue factors is called__________________?
A. Hybrid
B. Homozygous
C. Heterozygous
D. Dominant
330. Plants can be made disease resistant by___________________?
A. Colchicines treatment
B. Heat treatment
C. Breeding with the wild variety
D. Hormone spray
331. The first organisms to appear on the earth were more
like plants than animals because__________________?
A. Plants can manufacture their own food material
B. There are more plants than animals

C. Plants are similar in structure
332. Evolution proceed on account of____________________?
A. Conversion pf organism to change of environment
B. Fossils
C. Adaptations through genervation
D. Struggle for existence
333. Organic evolution through large discontinuous
variations was propound by__________________?
A. Mendel
B. Darwin
C. Huge and Vnes
D. Lamak
334. One of the persons whose evolutionary ideas were close
to that of Laraarcd was____________________?
A. Lysendo
B. Vavilow
C. Weismann
D. H be vnes
335. When an albino plant of maize (female) is crossed with
normal green plant (male) all plants in the progeny are
albino because___________________?
A. Albinism is dominant over green characters
B. Green plastids of male parent become nitrated
C. Plastids are inherited through maternal parents
D. Crossing over results in structural changes in green
plastids
336. Number of lindage groups of
chromosomes____________________?
A. Diploid number of chromosomes
B. Tetraploid number of chromosomes

C. Haploid number of chromosomes
337. One of the following is not an advantage of genetic
engineering___________________?
A. Microbes act as biological factories
B. Improvement of crop can take place
C. The gene pool is maintained
D. Genetic error can be rectified
338. One of the following is not a technique in
hybridization_________________?
A. Bagging
B. Inter over crossing
C. Intraspecific crossing
D. Inosculation
339. A species or type of a plant derived from doubling the
chromosome of the F1 hybrid of two known species is
known as__________________?
A. Autodiploid
B. Hexaploid
C. Autopolyploid
D. Amphidiploid
340. Suppose that out of 1000 offspring’s in the generation of
a dithered cross, 748 are tall and hairy, 6 are tall and
smooth, 4 are short and hairy and 242 are short and
smooth. what is the explanation for this kind of ratio ?
A. Linkage and crossing over
B. Presence of multiple alleles
C. Presence of lethal genes
D. Sex-linkage
341. Many groups of insects have developed resistance to
DDT and other insecticides as a result
of____________________?

A. Crossing over
B. Polyploidy
C. Segregation
D. Gene mutation
342. Linked gene may be separated by the process
of_________________?
A. Evolution may be described as
B. History of development of larger biological units
C. Inheritance of acquired characters
D. Discontinuous genetic variation
343. The offspring of a cross between twp individuals
differing in at least one set of characters is
called__________________?
A. Polyploidy
B. Mutant
C. Variant
D. Hybrid
344. The mechanism ensuring genetic continuity in mitosis
is____________________?
A. Formation of two daughter cells with identical DNA
B. Crossing over of the genes
C. Halving of chromosome nuriber between two daughter
cells
D. Segregation of maternal and paternal characters
345. mitosis is the normal process in a living cell but sudden
and abnormal mitosis in an organ will some time result
in__________________?
A. Cancer
B. Zygote
C. Gastrula
D. New organ

346. If two opposite alleles come together, and one of the two
finds expression and mask the other in he body this
facts is explained as_________________?
A. Law of dominance
B. Law of segregation
C. Law of limiting factors
D. Law of inheritance
347. If the cell of an organism (heterozygous) for two pairs of
genes represented by Aa, Bb, undergoes meiosis then
the possible genotype of gametes are________________?
A. AB, ab
B. Ab, ab
C. AB, Ab, aB, ab
D. Data insufficient
348. An auxotroph is_________________?
A. A mutant organism which has lost its ability to
synthesize one or more essential nutrients
B. A plan that is able to synthesize its own carbohydrates
C. An organism that depends on other organism for meting
its nutrient requirements
D. non of these
349. A polyploidy species with genomes derived from the
same original species is an_________________?
A. Allopolyploidy
B. Amphidiploids
C. Annapolis
D. Autopolyploid
350. All the individuals derived by vegetative propagation
from a single individual is known as___________________?
A. Affects more than five characters
B. Affects more than ten characters

C. Affects only one character
D. Affects more than one character
351. which of the following probably occur when a diploid
cell undergoes normal meiotic division________________?
A. All dominant genes will segregate together into
daughter cells
B. All homologous chromosome pairs will separate
C. All daughter cells will have different homologous
chromosome pairs
D. All linkage group will be disrupted
352. Abnormal cell with random number of chromosomes
is__________________?
A. Annapolis
B. Polyploidy
C. Heterckaryotic
D. Haploid
353. A cross of unlike organisms is termed
as____________________?
A. Hybrid
B. Heterosis
C. Backcross
354. The physical appearance of an organism is denoted
by____________________?
A. Photocopy
B. Prototype
C. Phenotype
D. Apheliotropic
355. A cross of hybrid with one of its recessive parent is
termed____________________?
A. Test cross
B. Backcross

C. Hybridization
D. Trihybrid
356. A normal plant suddenly started reproducing
parthengentically. the number of chromosomes of the
second generation compared to the parent plant will
be____________________?
A. Double
B. One half
C. One fourth
D. Same
357. Theory of mutation was given by___________________?
A. Mendel
B. De Vries
C. Tschermak
D. Watson
358. The term gene was coined by__________________?
A. Batson
B. Johnnsen
C. Punned
D. Darlington
359. Eugenics refers to__________________?
A. Science concerned with improvement of heredity of
animals
B. Science concerned with improvement of heredity of
human race
C. Experimental alterations in the structure of the genes
D. Genetics of eukaryotes
360. When two genes are situated very close together in a
chromosome_____________________?
A. The percentage of crossing over between them is very
B. Hardly any cross over are detected

C. No crossing ever can ever takes place between them
D. Only double cross over can take place between them
361. The first attempt to show linkage in plants were done
in____________________?
A. Lathers odorous
B. Another Lamarckian
C. Possum sativa
D. Zeal Mays
362. A transonic individual has chromosome
number____________________?
A. 2 n+1
B. 2 n+2
C. 2 n+3
D. 2 n-1
363. Selenium unigram is used as__________________?
A. Cardio vascular stimulant
B. In lowering blood pressure
C. In breaking down of cholesterol
D. All the above
364. Which feature is not found in all living
beings____________________?
A. Energy storage in high high energy phosphate
bonds
B. Protein synthesis in ribosome’s
C. Some triplet code for amino acids
D. Types of protein occurring in the body
365. The reason why mutations which are harmful do not
eliminated from gene pool is that___________________?
A. They are recessive and carried by heterozygous
individuals
B. Genetic drift occurs because of a small population in to
offsprings

C. Making possible reproduction in all types of environments
D. They have future survival value
366. A mutant organism (bacterium) that will not grow on a
minimal medium does so on the addition of some grown
factor is known as __________________?
A. Autotrophy
B. Auxotroph
C. Axenema
D. Heterotroph
367. The spread of genes from one breeding population to
another by migration which may result in changes in
gene frequency is called________________?
A. Gene flow
B. Genetic drift
C. Gene frequency
368. The role of nucleus in regulating the morphology of the
plant was discovered in___________________?
A. pea
B. Acetabularia
C. Macrospore
D. Maize
369. The giant chromosomes of Drosophila are found
in_____________________?
A. Testes
B. Salivary glands
C. Ovaries
D. Muscles
370. Organisms that can synthesize all their substances from
simple inorganic molecules are termed
as____________________?

A. Audacious
B. Autotrophic
C. Heterotrophic
D. Phototrophic
371. A rearrangement of a group of genes in a chromosome
in such a way that their order in the chromosomes is
reversed is known as _____________________?
A. Inversion
B. Conversion
C. Recessive gene
D. Realignment
372. Single celled plants are called__________________?
A. B. Protest
B. Protophyta
C. Protozoa
D. Prokaryotes
373. The enzymes and pigments associated with
photosynthesis are located in ___________________?
A. Leucoplast
B. Plastid
C. Chloroplast
D. Protoplast
374. When a wheat variety with red kernels (homozygous for
two non allelic and independent dominant genes) is
crossed with white kenneled wheat (homozygous for
two recessive non allelic independent genes), the
phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation would
be________________?
A. 9:3:3:1
B. 9:7
C. 9:9:9:3:3:3:1
D. 1:4:6:4:1

375. The suppression of the action of a gene or genes by a
gene or genes not allelomorphic to these suppressed is
known as __________________?
A. Episode
B. Co dominance
C. Epistasis
D. Dominance
376. The carrier of genetic information is __________________?
A. Protein
B. Ribosome
C. Nucleic acid
D. Carbohydrates
377. Name chromosome was coined by ___________________?
A. Van Beneden
B. T. Boveri
C. Walleye
D. Aluman
378. Chemically DNA differs from RNA by __________________?
A. Thymine present in DNA and Uralic in RNA
B. Deoxyribose and thymine is present in DNA and
ribose and Ural in RNA
C. Ribose and thymine in DNA and deoxyribose and uracil in
RNA
D. Deoxyribose in DNA and ribose in RNA
379. Electron microscope was invented by _________________?
A. Knoll and Risks
B. Schwaan
C. Sigmund
D. Robert Hook
380. Ribosomes are important because they help in
__________________?

A. Movement
B. Respiration
C. Protein synthesis
D. Growl
381. Who discovered mitochondria__________________?
A. Palade
B. Altmann
C. Cowdry
D. Garner
382. Plastids bring about___________________?
A. Secretion
B. Respiration
C. Excretion
D. Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
383. Which part of cell is important for and synthesis
protoplasm ______________________?
A. Mitochondria
B. Nucleus
C. Chloroplast
D. Chromosomes
384. Carbohydrates synthesis is carried out by
___________________?
A. Ribosomes
B. Golgi bodies
C. Mitochondria
D. Plastid
385. Which of the cell organelle is considered to be rich in
catabolic enzymes_____________________?
A. Golgi bodies
B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosome
D. Endoplasmic reticulum

386. The diameter of mitochondria is __________________?
A. 2-4 micron
B. 1-4 micron
C. 0.5-2 micron
D. 40-70 micron
387. The cellular structure which always disappears during
mitosis is___________________?
A. Plastids
B. Protoplasm
C. Membrane
D. Nuclear and membrane
388. Which statement is true___________________?
A. Etiolation is not a reversible process
B. Etiolation is genetically while albinism is physiological
C. Etiolation is physiological while albinism is genitival
D. Etiolation and albinism are synonyms

Agricultural (Plant Pathology) MCQs
1. The sucking type insects of cotton are ________________?

A. Jassids and thrips
B. Wlutefly and jassids
C. Thrips and whitefly
D. All the above
2. The sucking type insects pesis are controlled
by________________?
A. Chlorinated hydrocarbons
B. Pyrethroids
C. Organo-phosphatcs
D. Botanical pesticides
3. The granular formulation are commonly applied to
control_______________?
B. Leaf minors
C. Fruit and stem borers
D. Whitefly
4. Cockroach cutworms grass hoopers, stem borer and fruit
borers are______________?
A. Sucking type insects
B. Chewing type insects
C. Jumping type insects
5. Thread like structure surrounding the pupal stage of the
insect (Silk worm) is_________________?
A. Silk
B. Typhoon
C. Cocoon
6. The heart like pumping organ in insect is_________________?
A. Vena Cava
B. Dorsal Vessel

C. Spiracles
7. Insects have_________________?
A. 11 segments
B. 12 segments
C. 20 segments
D. None
8. Three regions of insect body are________________?
A. Head, abdomen and tail
B. Head, thorax and tail
C. Head, thorax and abdomen
9. The larval stage of flies (Diptera) is known
as_________________?
A. Grub
B. Cocoon
C. Maggot
D. Worm
10. Which of the following are cold blooded
animals___________________?
A. Human beings
B. Rodents
C. Insects
D. Protozon
11. The substance used to treat pesticide poisoning is called
as_________________?
A. Detoxicant
B. Anti-poison
C. Antitode
D. Anti-pseudo
12. The viral disease can be controlled by_________________?

A. Organo-chlorine pesticides
B. Pyrethroids
C. Growing resistant varieties
13. Whip smut is disease of________________?
A. Wheat
B. Maize
C. Sugarcane
D. Rice
14. The fungus belonging to order Erysiphales
cause_________________?
A. Blights
B. Smuts
C. Powdery mildew
15. Lathyrism is nervous disease caused by____________________?
A. Consumption of high carbohydrate foods
B. Low protein foods
C. Consumption of matter over longer periods
D. All the above
16. Bemesia tabbaci is the name of_________________?
A. Cutworms
B. Jassids
C. White fly
D. Thrips
17. Heliothus armigera is the name of_____________________?
A. American boll warm
B. Gram pod borer
C. Com cob borer
18. The beneficial relationship between two organisms
living together is called__________________?

A. Osmosis
B. Common salism
C. Symbiosis
19. the most devastating migratory pest is____________________?
A. Cutworm
B. Army worm
C. Locust
20. The symptoms of powdery mildew appears
on________________?
A. Roots
B. Floral parts
C. Foliage of plants
D. leaves
21. The factors which induces disease outbreak
is________________?
A. High temperature
B. High humidity
C. Susceptible varieties
D. All the above
22. Viral disease can be controlled by __________________?
A. Fungicides
B. Cultural practices
C. Cultural practices and growing resistant varieties
D. Can not be controlled
23. Stalk root of onion is caused by________________?
A. Fungi
B. Bacteria
C. Nematodes
D. Gassicls

24. Malathrion and Parathion insecticides belongs

to_________________?
A. Organo-chlorine group
B. Pyrethroid group
C. Carbamate group
D. Organo-phosphate
25. The insecticides with least mammalian toxicity
are____________________?
A. Organo-phosphate
B. Organo-chlorine
C. Pyrethroids
D. Carbamates
26. The insects which transfer disease from one plant to
another is known as__________________?
A. Disease transmitter
B. Vector
C. Pest
D. Parasite
27. IPM is a pest control strategy in which__________________?
A. Pest are controlled culturally
B. Predators and parasites are used
C. Cultural and biological control techniques are used
D. Pesticides are used
28. Malpighian tubules are organs of_________________?
A. Excretion
B. Digestion
C. Secretion
29. The wings and legs of insects are present
in___________________?
A. Head
B. Thorax

C. Abdomen
D. Neck
30. Club root is disease of____________________?
A. Tumip
B. Okra
C. Water melon
D. Cabbage
31. Which of the following is disease of rice____________________?
A. Foot rot
B. Brown spot Ratti disease
C. Rice blast
D. All the above
32. Antenae of insect is__________________?
A. Locomotion organ
B. Sensory organ
C. Sex organ
33. Collar rot in chilies is caused by___________________?
A. Rhizowhtnia solani
B. phytophilorea infesta
C. phytophithoua spri
D. phytophytora cupri
34. Gurdaspur borer is pest of__________________?
A. Rice
B. Wheat
C. Sugarcane
D. Okra
35. Disease are transmitted through_________________?
A. Seeds
B. Agricultural machinery and implements
C. Winds, insects
D. All the above

36. The sucking type insects of cotton are________________?

B. Wlutefly and jassids
C. Thrips and whitefly
D. All the above
37. The insects have__________________?
A. 2 pair of wings and 2 pair of legs
B. 3 pair of wings and 2 pair of legs
C. 2 pair of wings and 3 pair of legs
38. The popular insecticides of organo-chlorine group
are________________?
A. Malathion and thrips
B. Leaf minors
C. DDT & BHC
D. Naled
39. The main pest of fruit in Pakistan is_________________?
A. Fruit fly
B. Leaf minor
C. Scale insects
D. Hoppers
40. Honey bee, bumble bee, butter flies and moths
are___________________?
A. Productive insects
B. Parasites
C. Pests
D. Pollinators
41. Trachea in insects are the organ of___________________?
A. Digestion
B. Respiration
C. Excretion
D. Secretion

42. Schistocerca gregaria is the name of________________?

A. Cutworms
B. Army worms
C. Locust
D. Aphid
43. Insect body is divided in to_____________________?
A. 3 regions
B. 5 regions
C. 10 regions
D. 2 regions
44. Oceli is___________________?
A. Antennae in insect
B. Mouth parts of insect
C. Eye of insect
D. Sense organs of insect
45. Dormancy of insects in summer is called________________?
A. Hibernation
B. Thanolasis
C. Aestivation
D. Ecdysiast
46. The my co toxins are poisonous substance produced
by__________________?
A. Bacteria
B. Plants
C. Fungi
47. The pesticide poisoning with organo-phosphates or
carbamater treated with________________?
A. Milk and hot water
B. Vomiting with brackishy
C. Atropine

48. The fungi are plants which can not prepare their food
because__________________?
A. They are very small
B. They are parasites
C. They have no chlorophyll
D. All the above
49. White rust of crucifers is caused by__________________?
A. Pemospora Parasitica
B. Alternarian solani
C. Albugo candida
D. Aspergillus niger
50. The major disease of matter (field pea)
is____________________?
A. Blight
B. Downy mildew
C. Powdery mildew
D. None
51. The study of fungi is called__________________?
A. Pathology
B. Fungicology
C. Mycology
D. Genetics
52. The technical name of jassid is_________________?
A. Microtermas sp
B. Aphis gossypi
C. Earias insulana
D. Amrosca devestons
53. Bombyx morri is the name of___________________?
A. Lady bird beetle
B. Silk worm
C. Honey bee

54. The major viral disease of cotton is____________________?

A. Cotton boll rot virus
B. Cotton stem crinkle virus
C. Cotton leaf curl virus
55. Which one of the following is polyphagus
insect__________________?
A. American boll worm
B. Whitefly
C. Aphids
D. A
56. Leaf spot or tikka is the disease of____________________?
A. Soybean
B. Sunflower
C. Ground nuts
D. none of these
57. Gummosis is the disease of_________________?
A. Mango
B. Guava
C. Citrus (Lemon)
D. none
58. Blast disease is an international disease of________________?
A. Wheat
B. Sugarcane
C. Cotton
D. rice
59. Organo-chlorine insecticides includes___________________?
A. DDT
B. Aldrin and Diehydrin
C. Aindone and Heptachlor
D. All the above

60. The insecticides with longest residual effect belongs

to___________________?
A. Pyrethroid
B. Carbamates
C. Organo-chlorine
D. Organio-phosphate
61. Formulation or insecticides is__________________?
A. Dust
B. EC
C. Granular
D. Fungiments
62. The economic injury level for white fly is________________?
A. 1-2 nymphs/leaf
B. 2-3 nymphs/leaf
C. 3-4 nymphs/leaf
D. 1 nymphs/leaf
63. The entrance point for air in insects are known as
_________________?
A. Trachea
B. Spines
C. Secretion
D. Nervous system
64. Pathogen is_________________?
A. Fungi which cause disease
B. Any bacteria which causes disease
C. Any virus which causes disease
D. Any organism which causes disease
65. Root knot disease is caused by___________________?
A. Fungi
B. Nematodes
C. Virus
D. Bacteria

66. Fungi damage our crops by_________________?

A. Producing toxic substances in plants
B. Destroying green pigment of plant
C. feeding on flowers and fruits
D. Absorption of nutrients from plant tissues
67. Which one of the following is disease of
wheat_________________?
A. Leaf rust
B. Strip rust
C. Loose rust
D. All the above
68. The whole body of fungus is known as________________?
A. Thallus
B. Hyphae
C. Mycellium
D. Septale
69. The Tree sends down roots from its branches to the soil
is known as:___________?
A. Oak
B. Pine
C. Banyan
D. Palm

Agricultural (Soil Science) MCQs
1. The forest soils have lower bulk density than
agricultural soils because of their ______ content.
A. High organic matter
B. Low organic matter
C. Both a & b
D. None of these
2. Soil additive which stabilizes the soil, improves
resistance to erosion, increases to permeability to air &
water, improves texture, eases cultivation or otherwise
improves soil quality:
A. Soil amendment
B. Soil conditioner
C. Both a & b
3. Any material such as straw, sawdust, leaves, plastic
films, & loose soil that is spread upon the surface of the
soil to protect the soil & plant roots from the effects of
raindrops, soil crusting, freezing or evaporation:
A. Mull
B. Mulch
C. Mycorrhizae
D. Muck
4. Nutritive elements needed in large quantities to ensure
normal plant development:
A. N, P, K
B. S, Mg, Ca, Fe
C. Both a & b
D. None of a & b
5. Essentiality criteria of an element :
A. In the absence of an element, its not possible for plant
to complete its vegetative cycle.
B. The role played by an element is specific & can not be
replaced by another element.

C. The element is directly involved in the nutrition of the
plant.
D. All of these
6. In land capability classification, class I-Iv are suitable
for:_________?
A. Suitable for grazing
B. Suitable for forestry
C. Unsuitable for any agricultural use
D. Suitable for cultivated farming
7. Metamorphic rocks are classified into:___________?
A. Foliated metamorphic rocks
B. Non-foliated metamorphic rocks
C. Both a & b
D. None of a & b
8. Transportation & cementation of primary rocks:
A. Sedimentary rocks
B. Secondary rocks
C. Aqueous rocks
D. All of the above
9. Igneous rocks are called:__________?
A. Primary rocks
B. Secondary rocks
C. Aqueous rocks
10. The soil air contains a number of gases ______________ &
water vapours:
A. Nitrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. All of the above
11. Soil is a variable mixture of Major components:
A. Solids
B. Liquids

C. Gases
D. All of the above
12. Soil-forming minerals occurring in rocks do not contain
any water, they undergo ______________ when exposed to
humid conditions & break down as in chemical
weathering process:
A. Carbonation
B. Acidification
C. Hydration
D. Dissolution
13. Volcanic soils:
A. Aridisols
B. Gelisols
C. Endsols
14. Inceptisols:___________?
A. Young soils with few horizons
B. Volcanic soils
C. Organic soils
D. Dry soils
15. New soils, no or little profile development:
A. Entisols
B. Inceptisols
C. Andisols
D. Aridisols
16. The soil quality is always deteriorated by:_________?
A. Erosion & pollution
B. Waterlogging & salinization
C. Nutrient mining
D. All of these

17. Organic matter decomposes rapidly in Pakistani soils
because of ____________ conditions, that is why our soils
generally have < 1% organic matter:
A. High temperature
B. Alkaline
C. Both a & b
D. None of a & b
18. The capacity of a soil to function on sustained basis
promoting plant & animal health:
A. Soil neutrality
B. Soil quality
C. Both a & b
D. None of these
19. The available soil is being polluted quickly by
_____________ wastes.
A. Industrial
B. Agricultural
C. Household
D. All of the above
20. ___________ , considered a perfect soil, is a mixture of silt,
clay and sand:
A. Clay
B. Sandy loam
C. Loamy sand
D. Loam
21. The unit of a scale used to measure the level of acidity
or alkalinity of chemicals is called:
A. Ec
B. pH
C. Pascal
22. The following types of check dams have been tried in
Pakistan:

A. Brushwood check dams
B. Loose stone or wire-bound check dams
C. Cement & stone check dams
D. All of the above
23. Any tillage and planting system that maintains at least
30% of the soil surface covered by residue after
planting for the purpose of reducing soil erosion by
water:
A. Deep Tillage
B. Conservation Tillage
C. Both a & b
D. None of these
24. Surface removal of ice or snow from a glacier or
snowfield by melting, sublimation, and/ or calving:
A. Abrasion
B. Ablation
C. Backplain
D. Bank-Caving
25. Inorganic constituents vary in size from fine clay
particles _________ mm to large _________ mm gravel and
rock:
A. < 0.002 mm- >2 mm
B. 0.5 mm – 1.0 mm
C. 0.02 mm- 0.2 mm
26. Organic Soils are classified as ____________ and are also
known as ____________ soils:
A. Alfisols. fine & coarse textured
B. Histosols, peat & muck
C. Ultisols, Fe & Al rich
27. The suitable species for reclamation of saline & sodic
soil is:__________?

A. Casuarina equisetifolia
B. Albizia lebbeck
C. Both A & B
28. Erosion permitting and erosion resisting crops grow
alternatively at right angle to the slope of the land is
called as:_________?
A. Linear planting
B. Strip planting
C. Cover planting
D. All of the above
29. The most suitable species for reclamation of sandy soils
is:_________?
A. Casuarina equiselifolia
B. Acacia spp
C. Azadirachta indica
D. All of the above
30. The lands which are rich in soluble salts and
exchangeable sodium:
A. Saline soil
B. Saline-Alkaline
C. Alkaline
31. The practice of managing rows of closely planted woody
plants with annual crops planted in alleys in between
hedges is called as:________?
A. Soil conservation hedges
B. Woody Hedgerows
C. Hedgerows intercropping
D. All of these
32. In low-rainfall areas, huge shifting sand dunes are
commonly found, particularly near human habitations.

Techniques of afforesting the shifting dunes needed to
be implemented. These techniques consist of___________?
A. Treatment of shifting sand-dunes by fixing barriers in
parallel stripes or in a chess-board design, using the local
shrub material starting from the crest of the dunes to
protect the seedlings from burial or exposure by the blowing
of sand.
B. Protection against biotic interference
C. Both a & b
D. None of these
33. Pakistan being predominantly an arid and semiarid
country, In addition to agricultural productivity losses
and increasing poverty, desertification results in
significant reductions in _________?
A. Contributing to global warming
B. Carbon storage in soils
C. loss of biodiversity
D. All of these
34. World biodiversity day is celebrated on:_________?
A. Mar-21
B. March-2
C. Apr-22
D. May-22
35. Water-erosion can be reduced / controlled
by:___________?
A. Provision of surface-cover that intercepts the rain
before hitting the soil.
B. Reducing the amount of runoff by promoting infiltration.
C. Both a & b
36. Soil erosion Occurs mainly in:_________?
A. Inceptisols, Mollisols
B. Alfisols, Entisols

C. Both a & b
37. Sustainable technologies to improve soil fertility and
physical condition:
A. Balance use of NPK fertilizers according to the need of
crops.
B. Following proper crop rotation (shallow rooted and deep
root crops) in the cropping session.
C. Regular use of FYM, Composts, acidic mulches, Green
manures and Organic fertilizers to increase OM content of
Soil.
D. All of the above
38. In Pakistan, approximately __________ mha of irrigated
land is affected by salinization:
A. 12.6 mha
B. 5.7 mha
C. 8.2 mha
39. Sustainable Technologies to Control Water-Logging:
A. Installation of tube-wells for irrigation and vertical
drainage.
B. Planning and designing of future canals on proper lines.
C. Planting of eucalyptus in water-logged areas.
D. All of these
40. According to the Soil survey of Pakistan, the total
waterlogged summer-rain area in the country
is:_________?
A. 4.11 mha
B. 5.16 mha
C. 22.5 mha
D. The above statement is wrong
41. International day of forest is celebrated on___________?

A. Mar-3
B. Mar-15
C. March-21
42. Tunnel erosion is the form of:__________?
A. Rainsplash erosion
B. Sheet erosion
C. Rill erosion
D. Gully Erosion
43. International Union of Forest Research Organization
(IUFRO) is located:
A. Pakistan
B. Germany
C. Austria
D. Both a & b
44. Which of the following techniques is/are used for the
soil fertility evaluation?
A. Soil testing
B. Plant tissue testing
C. Aspergillus niger test
D. All of these
45. _________refers to the increase in density of a soil as a
result of applied load or pressure?
A. Traffic soles
B. Plough soles
C. Compaction
D. Pudding
46. The evolution of new species is known as_____________?
A. Specialization
B. Speciation
C. Smog
D. None of these

47. Which chemical used to prevent evaporation from
surface of water in water bodies?
A. Cetyle alcohol
B. Methyle alcohol
C. both A and B
D. None of these
48. Causes of Soil are:__________?
A. Indiscriminate felling of trees
B. Over grazing
C. Mismanagement of irrigation syste
D. All of these
49. Principles of soil conservation does not include:
A. Minimize run-off & store surplus water
B. Use non-arable lands effectively
C. Leave barren lands uncultivable to support
desrtification degradation
D. Construction of mini dams & ponds to store water for live
stock & other porposes
50. Following are types if erosion:
A. Rain splash & sheet erosion
B. Rill & Gully erosion
C. Normal (geological) erosion & Accelerated erosion
D. All of these
51. Small rivulets or finger like channels formed on the
surface of earth by action of water, these channels are of
small depth & can be leveled by tillage operations is:
A. Gully erosion
B. Sheet erosio.
C. Stream bank erosion
D. None of these
52. In Balochistan, deserts also exists in _________, which
supoorts wind erosion excluding rocky mountains:

A. Desert of Kharan
B. Noshki
C. Both A & B
D. Qilla SaifUllah
53. Ca, Mg, S are called__________?
A. Primary nutrients
B. Minor nutrients
C. Excellent nutrients
D. None of these
54. Fe, Zn, Mn, Mo, Co, Ni, Cu, are also called __________:
A. Micro elements
B. Trace elements
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
55. Soil erosion is __________ of soil from one place ti another
place by natural agencies (wind & water):
A. Detachement of soil
B. Transportation
C. both A & B
D. None of these
56. Fossils are found in__________type of rocks:
B. Metamorphic rocks
C. Aqueous rocks
D. both A & C
57. “Soil” word derive from which language?
A. English
B. Greek
C. Latin
58. Which one of the following clay mineral has the highest
CEC?

A. Kaolinite
B. Montmorillonite
C. Vermiculite
D. Illite
59. Nitrogen fixation is accomplished by:_________?
A. Fungi
B. Bacteria from atmosphere
C. Plants
D. None of these
60. Silica tetrahedron is__________?
A. Six sided arrangement
B. Eight sided arrangement
C. Four sided arrangement
D. both A & B
61. The dominance of acidity creates toxicity?
A. Mo
B. Al
C. Zn
D. Mg
62. Father of soil conservation and Father of Pedology
respectively?
A. Winogradsky & R. Morphy
B. Winogradsky & Dokuchaev
C. Bennett & Dokuchaev
D. both A & B
63. Which of the following crops is most tolerant to salty
soils?
A. Corn
B. Rice
C. Carrot
D. Cotton
64. Soil pores created by the animal such as earthworm and
plant root are called_________?

A. Biopores
B. Diameter
C. Mesopores
D. Microspores
65. Aridisols cover the largest in Pakistan_______?
A. 259,710 km2
B. 269,810 km2
C. 278,910 km2
D. None of these
66. The soils in which the weathered material is taken away
to other place by several agents are called__________?
A. Alluvial soil
B. Aeolian soil
C. Transported soil
D. None of these
67. International Union of Soil
Sciences (IUSS), founded in___________?
A. 1624
B. 1724
C. 1824
D. 1924
68. Nitrosomonas and nitrobacter are together as
called_____________?
A. Ammonification
B. Nitrification
C. Nitosomonas
D. Nitrobacteria
69. Which of the following soil has the highest water
holding capacity_________?
A. Sand soil
B. Silt soil
C. Forest soil
D. None of these

70. Element responsible pollen grain of plant__________?
A. N
B. P
C. K
D. B
71. Specific heat of organic matter is______?
A. 0.22
B. 0.33
C. 0.44
D. None of these
72. What is a soil horizon?
A. Soil texture
B. Soil structure
C. Layers of soil
D. All of these
73. Accumulation of soluble salts in soil________?
A. Alkalization
B. Desalinization
C. Salinization
D. All off these
74. The largest soil order in Pakistan?
A. Aridisols
B. Entisols
C. Vertisols
D. Inceptisols
75. The marble is a__________?
A. Dynamo metamorphic
B. Thermo metamorphic
C. Hydro metamorphic
D. Not sure
76. Which type of soil is found near the canal banks:
A. Acidic
B. Acidic & Alkaline

C. Alkaline
D. Calcareous
77. A and B horizon is called as_________?
A. Regolith
B. Solam
C. Inner core
78. Who consider the various properties of soil in relation
to plant production?
A. Pedologist
B. Soil chemist
C. Edaphologists
D. agronomist
79. The process by which nutrients chemicals or
contaminants are dissolved and carried away by water,
or are moved into a lower layer of soil:
A. Infiltration
B. Percolation
C. Leaching
D. Seeping
80. Available water is held between?
A. Field capacity to super available water
B. Only field capacity
C. Field capacity to wilting point
D. All of the above
81. Which of the following is not a metamorphic rock?
A. Marble
B. Granite
C. Sand stone
D. both A & B
82. Which nutrients are immobile in plants?
A. Ca
B. P

C. B
D. Both A & C
83. Which element is found highest in earth crust?
A. Aluminum
B. Silicon
C. Sodium
84. Specific heat is higher in:
A. Clay
B. Humus
C. both A & B
D. Only Clay
85. BGA was discovered as a nitrogen fixer in paddy field by
?
A. Beijerinck
B. Fred
C. P.K dey
86. Decomposition of the organic matter in submerged soil
is carried out by?
A. Actinomycetes
B. Fungi
C. Algae
87. Which element is known as chemical police man of
plant?
A. Magnesium
B. Phosphorus
C. Potassium
D. All of the above
88. Which of the following nutrient elements are regarded
as energy exchangers:

A. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
89. A mineral horizon that is either too thin, too light in
colour, too low in organic matter:
A. Umbric epipedon
B. Melanic epipedon
C. Mollic epipedon
D. Ochric epipedon
90. Soil Organic Matter (SOM) which consists of about _______
% organic carbon plays a vital role by providing macro
& micro nutrients:
A. 72 %
B. 58%
C. 62 %
D. Al of the above
91. Each layer of phyllosilicates is composed of two types of
sheets:
A. Tetrahedral sheet
B. Triple octahedral sheet
C. Octahedral sheet
D. Both A & C
92. The internal & external surfaces of soil colloids are
positively and or negatively charged. Mostly ____________ is
dominant:
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. All of the above
93. Which of the following is not the soil order prevail in
Pakistan?

A. Aridisols
B. Alfisols
C. Mollisols
94. Which of the following is wrong?
A. Sandy soils have higher sand percentage with
more water holding capacity
B. The relative percentage of sand, silt, clay is soil texture.
C. Soil texture influences behavior of soil.
D. The arrangement of soil aggregates is called soil
structure.
95. The availability of essential nutrients from soil to the
plants is controlled by the ________ properties of soil:
A. Physical
B. chemical
C. Biological
D. both A & B
96. Conservation agriculture improves the water use
efficiency of dryland systems. It has components:
A. Reduced soil disturbance through no-till or minimum
till
B. Residue return to keep at least 30% of soil covered
C. Crop rotations for better utilization of available water &
nutrients
D. all of the above
97. The planned development, distribution and use water
resources:
A. Water distribution
B. Water management
C. both A & B
98. Water is the major constituent of all living creatures.
Biomass of plants is composed of ________% water:

A. 65 – 75%
B. 72 – 62%
C. 85 – 95%
D. 75% – 80%
99. Based on their diameters, soil pores are divided
into:_________?
A. Macro pores
B. Meso pores & Micro pores
C. Both A & B
100. Depending on the percentage of sand, silt, clay, soils are
divided into _______ textural classes:
A. 12
B. 13
C. 14
D. 09
101. __________ particles range in diameter between 0.02 to
0.002 mm:
A. Sand
B. Silt
C. Clay
102. Systematic examination of soil in the field and
laboratories, their description and grouping according
to classification system:
A. Reconnaissance survey
B. Detailed soil survey
C. Soel survay
D. The answer of statement is not in options
103. swelling clay soils, develop cracks due to greater
proportion of swelling type clays:
A. Alfisols
B. Ultisols

C. Vertisols
104. There are twelve soil orders found in the world of which
six soil orders have been recognized at various locations
are________?
A. Andisols, Gelisols, Histosols, Spodosols, Oxisols,
Ultisols
B. Entisols, Inceptisols, Aridisols, Alfisols, Mollisols,
Vertisols
C. Andisols, Aridisols, Histosols, Vertisols, Regosols, Libosols
105. _________is probably the most important growth limiting
factor in acid soils especially those having pH below 5.0-
5.5?
A. Nitrogen
B. Potassium
C. Aluminium
D. Calcium
106. The removal of excess water from the ground surface is
called:________?
A. Sub-surface drainage
B. Surface operations
C. Drainage
D. All of the above
107. What is the effect of application of P2O5 fertilizer to a
green manure leguminous crop in the availability of
phosphorus to the succeeding crop?
A. Green manure increases the availability in organic
from to the next crop
B. It does not affect the availability of phosphorous to
succeeding crop
C. Greater amount of phosphorus is taken up and converted
into organic form, which is released on decomposition of

green matter
D. It fixes the P2O5 through humus and reduces the
availability..
108. Ground water refers to the________?
A. Water quality determination
B. Aquifer location
C. Water regulation
D. Installation of wells
109. The percentage of calcium content in single
superphosphate?
A. 24%
B. 25%
C. 19.5%
D. 30%
110. The tension of the water at the upper plastic limit is
equivalent to pF value:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 2.5 – 3.5
D. 0.5
111. Clay and humus particles are referred to as colloids and
are less than 0.002mm. Due to their small size, colloids
have ________________ surface area which provides surface
for adsorption, catalysis, precipitation and microbial
colonization:
A. Extremely low
B. Extremely high
C. Very little
D. None of these
112. Soil samples are collected:
A. From the field with immediate application of fertilizer
or amendments
B. Field with upper white layer of salts

C. Boundaries of the field
D. None of these
113. _________ erosion is the removal of a thin layer of soil by
water acting over the whole surface. This type of
erosion damaged very fertile lands located on slopes,
some of which have been eroded to a depth of about 15
cm.
A. Rain splash rill erosion
B. Stream bank erosion
C. Sheet erosion
D. Gully erosion
114. In Pakistan there is general deficiency of rainfall. It
varies from 125 mm annually in upper Sindh to about
900 mm in the sub-mountainous of northern Pakistan.
In Balochistan the mean annual rainfall is about 200
mm, diminishing to ________ mm in the desert of Kharan:
A. 100 mm
B. >70 mm
C. <50 mm
D. None of these
115. Losses of soil water not includes_________?
A. Direct evaporation from the soil & transpiration from
vegetation
B. down-ward drainage
C. Hydroponics loss
D. Surface run-off from the field
116. The relative abundance of three types of rocks (
igneous-metamorphic- sedimentary) in the earth’s crust
is_________?
A. 12.5 % -12.5 % – 75%
B. 64.7 % – 27.4 % – 7.9 %
C. none of A & B
D. 7.9% – 27.7 % – 64.4

117. Oxygen and Silicon together comprise approximately
______ %of the earth crust?
A. 64 %
B. 79 %
C. 75 %
D. 73 %
118. Potassium (K) occurs as a constituent of the earth’s
crust in the proportion of_________?
A. 23 %
B. 2.3 %
C. 17 %
D. 1.7 %
119. In Pakistan, Nitrophos is manufactured in_________?
A. Multan
B. Sawat
C. Lasbella
D. Shikarpoor
120. All the SSP and some nitrophos are are manufactured
locally by the National Fertilizer Corporation (NFC): SSP
at_________?
A. Faisalabad
B. Jaranwala
C. Haripur
D. All of these
121. In Pakistan, the major phosphatic fertilizers are:
A. DAP
B. SSP
C. Nitrophos
D. All of Above
122. Soil Organic Matter (SOM) serves not only as a reservoir
of all the required plant nutrients, but it:
A. Provides energy for the microbial
B. Maintains the productivity of soil

C. Gives structure to the soil
D. All of these
123. Humus generally refers to the decomposed organic
residues which have undergone a series of degradation
and synthesis cycles. The humic substances consist of a
series of highly acidic, yellow to black coloured, high
molecular weight compounds __________________, which can
be separated using different extraction procedures:
A. Hymatomelanic acid & Humin
B. Humic acid & Fulvic acid
C. both A & B
D. None of these
124. Which of the following is a component of nucleic acid
and protein:
A. Ca
B. Mg
C. N
125. Rhizoplane is________?
A. An area of soil from root surface to 5 cm
B. Root surface
C. Area within the roots
D. All of them
126. Which chemical used to prevent evaporation from
surface of water in water bodies?
A. Cetyle alcohol
B. Methyle alcohol
C. both A and B
D. None of these
127. Composition of igneous rock is determined by___________?
A. Depth of molten magma
B. Composition of molten magma

C. Both A and B
D. Composition can not be determined.
128. Who will decompose organic matter first:
A. Actinomycetes
B. Bacteria
C. Basidiomycetes
D. Fungi imperfecti
129. Process of mixing of soils is known as_________?
A. Gleization
B. Lessivage
C. Laterization
D. The correct option is not present above
130. Walkley and Blacks method of organic matter
determination allows recovery of _____% organic carbon
content:
A. 74 %
B. 54 %
C. 62.5 %
D. 34%
131. The soil samples are dried at _______________, for
gravimetric soil analysis?
A. 110 0C
B. 120 0C
C. both A and B
D. 105 0C
132. The appropriate method to apply phosphatic fertilizers
is__________?
A. Top dressing
B. Broad casting
C. both A and B
D. Basal placement

133. Integrated Nutrient Management (INM) is a well-
accepted approach for the sustainable management
of________?
A. Soil Productivity
B. Increased crop production
C. both a and B
D. None of these
134. Organic (O) horizon is absent in_________?
A. Mollisols
B. Histosols
C. Arable soils
D. Non-arable soils
135. Association of two microorganisms in which one is
benefited while other remains unaffected is known
as:________?
A. Competetion
B. Ammensalism
C. Commensalism
D. This statement is wrong
136. What is Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhiza (VAM)?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. both A & B
137. The very high temperatures required for ICP-AES are
attained by__________?
A. Quartz
B. Plasma
C. Carbon
D. None of these
138. Exposure of the manures to rains causes highest loss
of___________?

A. N
B. Cu
C. Cl
D. P
139. In cotton, zn deficiency is known as_________?
A. Fern leaf
B. Mottle leaf
C. Little leaf
D. None of these
140. 1 mg of H+ will be equal to_________?
A. 20 mg of ca2+
B. 12 mg of Mg2+
C. 9 mg of Al3+
D. All of the above
141. The unique soil environment under the influence of
plants roots is called rhizosphere and this term was
given by__________?
A. Hiltner
B. Aristotle et al.
C. A.Q khan
D. Helium. S. Denial
142. The credit for identifying the essentality of K, Ca, Mg and
P to planta goes to________?
A. C. Sprengel
B. Theodore Saussure
C. Dr. Muhammad Sharif et al.
D. Shafiq Khalil et al.
143. Rate of entry of water in soil is__________?
A. Infiltration
B. Percolation
C. Leaching
D. Seepage

144. Which leaf of rice is sampled for tissue nutrient
analysis?
A. Mature leaf
B. Lower leaf
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
145. During decomposition of organic matter, inititial
decomposition is dominated by:__________?
A. Actinomycetes
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Both B & C
146. The instrument used for measuring the
photosynthetically active radiations (PAR) is:________?
A. Pyrheliometer
B. Pyrgeometer
C. Quantom sensor
D. Both A & C
147. The credit for identifying the essentality of nitrogen to
plants goes to________?
A. Dr.Muhammad Sharif
B. Theodore-saussure
C. Shafiq Baloch at.el
D. Sach and knoop
148. What kind of nitrogenous (N) fertilizers should not be
used for flooded soil:
A. Ammonical
B. Nitrate
C. Ammonical-nitrate
D. Both B & C
149. 1 meq of HCl is equal to_________?
A. 1.4 mg of N
B. 14 mg of N

C. 0.14 mg of N
D. 140 mg of N
150. Organisms satisfying their carbon requirement as Co2
from atmosphere and energy requirement from
oxidation of simple inorganic compound are called
as_________?
A. Chemoautotroph
B. Photoautotroph
C. Saprophyte
D. None of these
151. Loss of nitrogen in the form of NH3 in alkaline medium
is known as_________?
A. Denitrification
B. Leaching
C. Volatilization
D. None of these
152. Browning disease of rice is a_________?
A. Bacterial & fungal disease
B. Physiological disease
C. Viral disease
153. If a manure pile is exposed to the rain, what nutrient
will be lost the most ?
A. Ca
B. Mg
C. S
D. N
154. What is the optimum temperature and pH for nitrifying
bacteria ?
A. 30-35 c, pH 5.5
B. >35 c, pH less than 5
C. 25-40 c, pH 8-8.5
D. All of thses

155. The first mechanism to start in the wind erosion
is_________?
A. Creep
B. Saltation
C. Siltation
D. None of these
156. The indicator used for estimation of the soil available
boron is_______?
A. Mixed indicator
B. Phenolpthalein
C. Diphenyle
D. Azomethine-H
157. Source of negative charges on silicate clays is/
are________?
A. Exposed crystal edges
B. Isomorphous substitution
C. Anion exchange
D. All of these
158. Soil order characterized by excess of weathering with
dominant iron and aluminium oxide clays, common in
tropics is_________?
A. Alfisols
B. Mollisols
C. Entisols
D. Oxisols
159. 1 bar is equal to_________?
A. 0.9869 atm
B. Wt. Of a 1020 cm water column
C. 75.01 cm high mercury column
D. All of these
160. Select the water soluble phosphatic fertilizer from the
following__________?

A. DSP
B. TSP
C. SSP
D. All of these
161. Journal ‘Plant and Soil’ is published from__________?
A. USA
B. Japan
C. The Neterlands
D. Pakistan
162. Most out standing green manure crop is__________?
A. Sun hemp
B. Dhaincha
C. Both of the above
163. Walkley and blacks method of organic matter
determination allows recovery of ______ ℅ organic
carbon content:
A. 44 ℅
B. 45 ℅
C. 33℅
164. One ha cm of water is equal to__________?
A. 100 tonnes of water
B. 100000 litres of water
C. Both A & B
D. 10 tonnes of water
165. In cation exchange, 18 mg of Ammonium ion can be
exchanged for__________?
A. 40 mg of Ca
B. 46 mg of Na
C. 6 mg of Al
D. 12 mg of mg

166. The maximum amount of water which a soil can hold
after free drainage has ceased is called as_______?
A. Water potencial
B. Water use efficiency
C. Water harvesting
D. Water holding capacity
167. In Pakistan, The following igneous rocks are found over
considerable areas:
A. Marl, gypsum
B. Slate, Shist
C. Dolomite shale, gneiss
168. ______________ consist of particles that are produced by
disintegration of pre-existing rocks through the process
of weathering:
A. Clastics
B. Non-clastics
C. both A & B
169. Basalt is a __________ rock:
A. fine-grained
B. Dark coloured
C. both A & B
170. ‘A’ horizon of the soil is also designated:
A. Eluvistal horizon
B. Illuviated horizon
C. Alluvial horizon
D. None of the above.
171. Weathering process-physical, chemical, and biological
_______________, the rocks and minerals into simpler
products which either accumulate in place or are

transported to other places where they become soil
parent materials?
A. Disintegrate
B. Disentigrate
C. Decompose
D. Both a & c
172. Rocks and weathered materials transported by
___________ ,act as initial materials for soil formation?
A. Water
B. Wind
C. Glaciers
D. All of the above
173. From the point of view of crop production, Soil testing
refers to______________?
A. Laboratory analysis assessing plant available nutrient
status
B. Collection of plant leaves samples only
C. Salinity & elemental toxicity of a soil
D. Both A & C
174. The diagnostic techniques used in evaluating soil
nutrient status and determining fertilizer requirements
of the crop include:
A. Nutrient deficiency symptoms & field experimentation
B. Greenhouse pot experimentation & soil testing
C. Plant analysis
D. All of the above
175. The major soil fertility problems in Pakistani soils
deficiencies of N, P and Zn. Deficiencies K, Fe, and B also
occur in specific crop genotypes or soil types, while
deficiencies of S, Cu, and Mn are negligible. however, the
common nutrient deficiencies are_________________: and
some micronutrients including Mo?

A. N, P, K
B. Ca, Mg, S
C. both A & B
176. According to a latest research, Pakistan is
predominantly a dryland country; 80% of its land area
is arid and semi arid, 12% sub-humid and 8% under
humid climate. Thus , soils of arid & semi-arid regions
are vulnerable to a wide range of degradation process.
As the case in arid and semi-arid climates elsewhere in
south-central/southern Asia and Sub-Saharan Africa;
_________________ are among the major causes of soil
degradation and desertification?
A. Drought stress
B. Accelerated erosion & salinization
C. Depletion of soil fertility and SOM
D. All of the above
177. The kind, rate and intensity and pedogenic processes
are controlled by ________ ,soil-forming factors?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 4
178. Pedogenic processes bring about changes in the parent
materials in the form of _____________________, within the soil
body (soil profile)?
A. Additions, losses
B. Transfers and transformations
C. both A and B
179. Although some acid soils do exist in the northern
mountainous regions of Pakistan (Mansehra, Sawat,
Dir). Almost all cultivated soils of the country are

________________, with high base saturation and low organic
matter content (generally less than 1%)?
A. Alkaline
B. Very much acidic
C. Calcareous
D. both A & C
180. The horizons O, A, E and B (other than r and C) are
collectively called_____________?
A. Regolith
B. Solum
C. Outer core
D. inner core
181. Some times, AB/EB/BA/BE horizons in soil profile are
present which are called__________?
A. Master horizons
B. Transition horizons
C. Little horizons
D. All of the above
182. Accumulation of Al and Fe oxides and clays coming from
the upper profile layers:
A. Zone of eluviation
B. Zone of Illuviation
C. Zone of evaluation
183. A group of soils with same parent material but located
at different positions of slope?
A. Cateena
B. Chronosequence
C. Catena
D. Biosequence
184. Peat soils are not present in Pakistan because these are
formed in___________?

A. Cool climate
B. Acidic conditions
C. both A & B
185. In Pakistan, Indus plains are formed from ___________
parent material which was transported by Indus river
and its tributaries from Himalayas?
A. Till
B. Moraine
C. Colluvial
186. Wind transported materials if it is silt dominated
is__________?
A. Alluvial
B. Colluvial
C. Eolian
D. Loess
187. Weathering is the natural process of__________?
A. Disintegration
B. Sedimentation
C. Decomposition
D. both A & C
188. Combination of soil genesis and classification is
collectively called_________?
A. Edaphology
B. Pedology
C. Poly pedology
189. Soils that have more than 20% organic matter are
termed as:__________?
A. Organic soils
B. Peat soils

C. Muck soils
D. All of these
190. Organic matter influences:_________?
A. Water holding capacity
B. Cation exchange capacity
C. Aggregate stability
D. All of the above
191. The mineral component of soil consists of_________?
A. Air
B. Water
C. both A and B
192. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding,
Soil ____________?
A. Regulates water supply & recycles waste materials
B. Medium for plant growth & Habitat for organisms
C. Engineering medium & modifies the atmosphere
D. Dirt which is threat to all living life & crop
production
193. Soil is a mixture of__________?
A. Minerals And organic matter
B. Water
C. Air
D. All of the above
194. _______________ of alluvium (stratified sediment) by earth-
worms is the most important soil-forming process in the
alluvial plain of Pakistan:
A. Homogenization
B. Pedoturbation
C. Lessivage
D. Melanization

195. The immobilization and accumulation of the eluviated
constituents at some depth beneath the soil
surface:________?
A. Iluviation
B. Eluviation
C. Illuviation
D. Melanization
196. The basic form of present day Universal soil loss
equation (USLE), initially involved the use of factors
such as ________?
A. R, K and S
B. R and K
C. R, K, S and L
D. R, K, S, L, C and P
197. Phosphorus (P) is the second major nutrient essential
for plant growth. With the exception of Nitrogen (N) and
Potassium (K), Phosphorus is required by plants
in_________?
A. Lesser quantities
B. Greater quantities
C. Not required
198. The movement of water through a column of soil is
called:___________?
A. Infiltration
B. Percolation
C. Leaching
D. hydraulic conductivity
199. The deficient macronutrient in the sodic soils is:_______?
A. Mg
B. Ca
C. Mo
D. Cu

200. According to one estimate, wind and water erosion over
______ % of the Pakistan’s total area?
A. 46%
B. 36%
C. 76%
201. About 40% of the total area of Pakistan is affected by
wind erosion. this includes:_________?
A. Thal, Cholistan
B. Parts of Mianwali and D.G
C. Tharparkar & vast areas of Balochistan
D. All of the above
202. Examples of prismatic structures are found in the
_______________ mapped in KPK and the northern part of
Punjab.
A. Peshawar series
B. Gujranwala series
C. wazirabad & pindorian series
D. All of the above
203. Soil particles as individuals such as sand and do not
form aggregates. These are usually found in parent
material or C horizon is:_________?
A. Massive
B. Single-grained
C. Aggregated
D. All of the above
204. AAS stands for:___________?
A. Atomic absorption spectrophotometer
B. Atom analyser solution
C. Asia agriculture society
D. None of these
205. Most common rocks, after exposed to weathering which
cover about ______% 0f the earth:

A. metamorphic rocks
B. Sedimentary rocks
C. Igneous rocks
D. Shales
206. Granite and Basalt are examples of:___________?
A. Sedimentary Rocks
B. Stratified rocks
C. Aqueous rocks
207. following are types of weathering:
A. Geo chemical weathering
B. Judo weathering
C. Pedo chemical weathering
D. both a and c
208. Soils that have more than 20% organic matter are
termed as organic soils. These are also called:________?
A. Peat soil
B. solonchalk soil
C. Muck soil
D. Both a and c
209. Organic matter in Pakistani soils is generally:_________?
A. less than 1 %
B. less than 10 %
C. 3 %
D. 5%
210. What is the formula of urea?
A. CO (NH2)2
B. NH2-CO-NH-CO-NH2
C. (NH4)2CO3
D. None of these
211. Potassium (K) fixation capacity is maximum
in:____________?

A. Vermiculite
B. Illite
C. Montmorillonitic
D. Amorphous clay
212. What is the pH of calcareous soils?
A. 8.0-8.5
B. 7.0-7.5
C. 8.5-9.0
D. 6.5-7.5
213. Which is/are dominating salt/s in alkali soil:
A. NaHCO3
B. Na2CO3
C. MgSO4
Both a & b
214. What are diatoms?
A. Soil Fungi
B. Soil Algae
C. Soil Bacteria
D. None of these
215. Which of the following crop takes N in ammonical form:
A. Wheat
B. Cotton
C. Rice
D. Mustard
216. The virus infecting bacteria is called:_________?
A. Bacteroid
B. Bacteriophage
C. Bacterin
D. All of these
217. Fe is trivalent in which of the chemical compound:
A. Fe (NO3)3
B. Fe2 (NO3)3

C. Fe3 (NO2)
D. None of these
218. If the chlorophyll content in plant increases, the solar
radiation transmitted:
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Constant
D. None of these
219. Water occupied the larger soil pores and moves down
readily under the force of gravity. Water in excess of the
field capacity is termed:
A. Capillary water
B. Hygroscopic water
C. Gravitational water
220. The resistance of a soil at various moisture contents to
mechanical stresses or manipulations:
A. Soil crusting
B. Soil consistence
C. Bulk Density
D. Both a & c
221. The process of deposition of soil materials in the lower
layer is termed as:_________?
A. Illuviation
B. Eluviation
C. Podzolization
D. Laterization
222. The process of transformation of raw organic matter
into humus:
A. Calcification
B. Horizonation
C. Illuviation
D. Humification

223. Biological Weathering involves:
A. Man and Animals
B. Higher Plants and Roots
C. Micro- organisms
D. All of these
224. What is the concentration of pure water?
A. 55.5 mol/L
B. 45.5 mol/L
C. Both a and b
D. none of these
225. Roots usually occupy :__________?
A. 1% or less of soil volume
B. 10% or less of soil volume
C. 20% or less of soil volume
D. 30% or less of soil volume
226. Which of the following fertilizers show maximum
residual acidity with the continuous soil application:
A. Urea
B. Ammonium nitrate
C. Ammonium sulphate
D. Calcium ammonium nitrate
227. Availability of Zn is higher to crops in:_________?
A. Acid soils
B. Sodic soils
C. Saline-sodic soils
D. Saline soils
228. The nutrient element silicon (Si) is:_________?
A. Beneficial
B. Harmful
C. Both a and b
229. The term rhizosphere was coined by:___________?

A. Liebig
B. Baussingault
C. Hiltner
D. Winogrdsky
230. Most abundant organic compound in nature?
A. Cellulose
B. Hemicellulose
C. Lignin
D. All of these
231. Which one of the following techniques is used for
assessing available P in soil and does not include
growing plants:
A. E-Value
B. L-Value
C. a-Value
D. A-Value
232. According to FCO, the maximum permissible total N
content in the form of urea in DAP should be:_________?
A. 2.50 %
B. 3.50 %
C. 4,50 %
D. 5.5 %
233. The seventieth element included in the list of essential
nutrient element is:__________?
A. Vanadium
B. Cobalt
C. Sodium
D. Nickle
234. The albedo of the earth is:__________?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 35%

235. The configuration of a surface and the relations among
its man-made and natural features is called:________?
A. Tofography
B. topograpy
C. Topography
D. All of the above
236. Being a soil scientist, do you know which is the popular
book of soil science of Nyle.C.brady, 14th edition
available in markets:
A. Fundamentals of soil
B. Essenttials of soil sciences
C. The nature and properties of soil
D. The mechanics of soil
237. The indicator used for the the estimation of the organic
matter or organic carbon is;_________?
A. Mixed indicator
B. Diphenylamine indicator
C. Both a and b
238. Previously Essential nutrients required for the growth
of plants were sixteen. In recent time the essential
nutrients required for the growth of plants are:_________?
A. 16
B. 17
C. 18
239. Which of the following are secondary minerals:
A. Clay minerals
B. Amorphous silicates
C. Iron and aluminiumoxides
D. All of the above
240. C:N ratio of microorganism:

A. 4:1-8:1
B. 10:1-15:1
C. 15:1-20:1
D. N0ne of the above
241. An intrazonal group of dark calcareous soils high in clay
and having mainly montmorillonitic type clay are called
as:________?
A. Regur
B. Ragour
C. Montmorillosol
D. Regosol
242. Sulphur is an essential component of:__________?
A. Cystine
B. Cystein
C. Methionine
D. All of these
243. The water diffusivity has the units of:__________?
A. cm/s
B. s/cm
C. cm2
D. cm2/s
244. Micas have isomorphous substitution:____________?
A. Predominantly in tetrahedral layer
B. Predominantly in octahedral layer
C. Both a & b
D. The statement is wrong
245. The soils most prone to structural crusts are those
which are higher in_________?
A. Clay content
B. Sodium content
C. Silt content
D. Both A & B

246. AVisitset
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of soils with same parent material, topography,
climate and biota but different age is called_________?
A. Topo sequence
B. Catena
C. Chrono sequence
D. Topography
247. The Tree sends down roots from its branches to the soil
is known as:___________?
A. Oak
B. Pine
C. Banyan
D. Palm
248. Rhizosphere is:
A. Area with in the roots
B. Root surface
C. An area of soil in from root surface to 10 cm
D. An area of soil in immediate vicinity around root
249. The tree sends down roots from its branches to the soil
is know as:_______?
A. Oak
B. Pine
C. Banyan
D. Palm
250. Which mulch reduce soil temperature?
A. Polythene
B. White polythene
C. Black polythene
D. Both B&C
251. Humic acid is soluble in____________________?
A. Acid
B. Alkali
C. Both a & b

252. In flood rice, snail feed on bacteria
called__________________?
A. Helix
B. Limnea
C. Azolla
253. Which bacteria convert nitrite to
nitrate___________________?
A. Frankia
B. Nitrobacter
C. Pseudomonas
254. Examples of macrobiota are______________________?
A. Enchytrids
B. Fungus
C. Bacteria
D. Plants
255. Part of soil which is in contact with root surface is
called___________________?
A. Rhizoshpere
B. Lithoshpere
C. Atmoshpere
256. Point of zero change means____________________?
A. All the covalent bonds
B. Zero charge at surface
C. All are ionic bond
257. The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust and toxic
to plants in low concentration is____________________?
A. Mo
B. Al

C. Fe
D. All the above
258. The salinity can be reduced by the application
of___________________?
A. Lime
B. Sulphuric acid
C. Urea
D. All the above
259. Soil moisture and ET losses are_________________?
A. Inversely related
B. Directly related
C. Not related
D. Occasionally related
260. Particular matter consists of____________________?
A. Solid and gases
B. CO2 & N
C. Solid and liquid
261. Nitrogen gases are involved in_____________________?
A. Sleepy feelings
B. Hair disease
C. Mental disease
D. Acid rains
262. A treeless artic plain is called as___________________?
A. Glaciers
B. Barren land
C. Tundra
263. Biochemical reduction of nitrate to nitrite or gaseous
nitrogen is called ________________________?
A. Reduction
B. Oxidation

C. Denitrification
264. While diluting acid always add_____________________?
A. Acid to water
B. Water to acid
C. Both a & b
D. none
265. Organic P content in soil, by ignition method is
estimated by igniting the soil at ____________________?
A. 250ºC
B. 1000ºC
C. 550ºC
D. 1250ºC
266. Boron concentration is irrigation water is considered
safe only upto_________________?
A. 0.7 ppm
B. 1.5 ppm
C. 2 ppm
D. 3 ppm
267. The chemical formula for Ammonium acctatc
is_____________________?
A. NH3OAC
B. NH4OAC
C. NH4AOC
D. Both b & c
268. The exact formula for sodium hexametaphosphate
is___________________?
A. [(NaPO6)13]
B. [(NaPO3)13]
C. [(NaPO2)6]
269. Which silica mineral is present in soil in abundant
quantity____________________?

A. Quartz
B. Smectite
C. Gypsum
D. All the above
270. TSP contains____________________?
A. 14%
B. 46%P
C. 40%P
D. 50%P
271. Humic acid is soluble in______________________?
A. Acid
B. Alkali
C. Both a & b
D. Distilled water
272. Antioxidant is used to reduce the process
of_____________________?
A. Reduction
B. Oxidation
C. Both a & b
D. Dehydration
273. Percentage of N in Ammonium ritract fertilizer
is___________________?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 33
D. 39
274. Sewage water consists of water and solids in the
following percentage___________________?
A. 99 & 1
B. 90 & 10
C. 80 & 20

275. Clear water with organic matter or sediment and
minimum biological activity is known as__________________?
A. Oligotrophic
B. Mestrophic
C. Eutrophic
D. Hydrotrophic
276. Deficiency of B can be corrected through application of
chemical fertilizer of_________________?
A. Solubor
B. Boric acid
C. Borax
D. All the above
277. Rocks formed from molten magma are
called__________________?
B. Igneous rocks
C. Alluvial rocks
D. All the above
278. Material deposited by the wind is
called____________________?
A. Regolith
B. Colluvial
C. Alluvium
D. Eolian
279. The wearing away of the land surface by wind, water, ice
or other geological agents is called____________________?
A. Seepage
B. Soil erosion
C. Soil contamination
D. All the above
280. The science of growing terrestrial plants in an aerated
solution is known as___________________?

A. Nutrient film technique
B. Hydrology
C. Hydrants
D. Hydroponics
281. Electrical conductivity of saturated paste is written
as____________________?
A. ECP
B. ECe
C. ECs
D. Ecw
282. Na2CO3 salts is___________________?
A. Neutral
B. Alkaline
C. Acidic
283. Accumulation of soluble salts root zone is known
as____________________?
A. Desodication
B. Sodication
C. Degradation
D. Salininzation
284. The atmospheric layer lies closest to the earth surface is
known as___________________?
A. Mesosphere
B. Thermosphere
C. Troposphere
D. Stratosphere
285. Algal photosynthesis increases pH of water and
releases___________________?
A. O2
B. CO2
C. SO3
D. All the above

286. Primary air pollution is____________________?
A. SO
B. SO3
C. SO2
287. Perfect hardness of any mineral is determined
by___________________?
A. Mho’s scale
B. pH scale
C. Foot scale
288. The water loss through transpiration from vegetative
and evaporation from soil surface is known
as__________________?
A. Evaptranspiration
B. Transpiration
C. Evaporation
D. Guttation
289. Soil structure without aggregation is known
as____________________?
A. Platy
B. Granular
C. Massive
D. Both b & c
290. The device used for the measurement of positive
pressure potential of soil water is known
as_________________?
A. Lysimeter
B. Tensiometer
C. Piezometer
D. Barometer
291. The safe limit of No2 in drinking water
is_____________________?

A. 10 mg L-1
B. 15 mg L-1
C. 20 mg L-1
292. The particlesw density of a mineral soil is
about____________________?
A. 2750 Kg m-3
B. 2550 Kg m-3
C. 2650 Kg m-3
293. Deep percolation from a soil profile is generally
measured by a device known as_____________________?
A. Hydrometer
B. Lysimeter
C. Thermometer
D. Tensiometer
294. Auxins promote___________________?
A. Cell elongation
B. Cell division
C. Both a & b
295. The chemical formula of Dolomite is________________?
A. CaMg (CO3)2
B. MgCO3
C. CaCO3
296. The toxicity level of Zn (mg/kg) in plants suggested by
some workers is___________________?
A. > 50 mg kg-1
B. > 10 mg-1
C. > 400 mg kg-1
D. None of these

297. The exact formula for calculating the base saturation
percentage is_____________________?
A. Bas saturation percentage = CA+Mg+Na / CEC x 100
B. Bas saturation percentage = /CEC / CA+Mg+Na x 100
C. Bas saturation percentage = /CEC / CA+Mg x 100
298. The EC: SAR and RSC values suggested by WAPDA for
3rd class irrigation water(C,S,R,) are____________________?
A. ECi:<1.5, SAR < 10 & RSC< 2.5
B. ECi:>1.5, SAR > 10 & RSC> 2.5
C. ECi:>1.5, SAR 2.5
D. Both a & b
299. According to WAPDA, the ECe of the salt free soil should
remain__________________?
A. < 4 dsm-1
B. Equal to 4 dsm-1
C. 4-8 dsm-1
300. The exact chemical formula of DAP fertilizer
is___________________?
A. (NH2) HPO4
B. NH4H2PO4
C. NH4H2PO4
D. Both a & c
301. Nitrification is the microbial conversion
of____________________?
A. NH nitrogen the NO3 nitrogen in soil
B. NO2 to NO3 nitrogen in soil
C. NO3 nitrogen to NH4 + in soil
302. Radiation can be detected by the blankening of
photographic film or by using___________________?

A. Ratio autoanalyser
B. GM counter
C. Neutron probe
D. Dosimeter
303. The complex fertilizer Nitrophos available in the market
contains_____________________?
A. 25%N & 23% P2O3
B. 46%N & 23% P2O3
C. 23%N & 23% P2O3
304. Extraction of humic substance can be done
by______________________?
A. NaOH
B. NH4Cl
C. NH4OH
305. Who gave the defination of humic acid ?
A. Gapon
B. Felbeek
C. Neir
D. Liekig
306. Which compound decay slowly______________________?
A. Amino acid
B. Lignin
C. fats
D. Cellulose
307. Widely spread saprophytic fungi is________________________?
A. Basidiomycetes
B. Ascomycetes
C. Endospore
308. Which bacteria causes fermentation__________________?

A. Azotobacter
B. Bacillus
C. Pseudomonas
D. Corey
309. Examples of micro biota are____________________?
A. Protozoa
B. Virus
C. Both a & b
310. Common soils found in Pakistan are___________________?
A. Arid soils
B. Inceptisols
C. Entisols
D. All the above
311. The time for which water and ion remains in vicinity is
called_____________________?
A. Primary hydration
B. ppm
C. Normality
D. Residence time
312. Acid soils of the world’s arable comprise up
to_____________________?
A. 40%
B. 30%
C. 58%
D. 20%
313. Urea in manufactured form gases________________________?
A. NH3
B. NH48CO2
C. NH3 & CH4
D. All the above
314. Permanente wilting point of clayey soils is not less
than____________________?

A. 20%
B. 10%
C. 5%
D. 15%
315. Secondary air pollution is _____________________?
A. HNO3
B. CO3
C. CO2
D. All the above
316. Chitin and steroids are_____________________?
A. Lipids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Proteins
D. Waxes
317. The conductivity of a saturation extract is greater 4
dsm-1 an exchangeable sodium percentage (ESP) of less
than 15 and the pH is usually less than 8.5 is called
as__________________?
A. Saline soils
B. Saline-sodic soils
C. Sodic soils
D. Neutral soils
318. An expression of the intensity of the basic or a acidic
condition of a liquid or of soil is called_____________________?
A. ESR
B. SAR
C. EC
D. pH
319. While handing concentrated acids. bases or other
hazardous chemicals use_________________?
A. Table
B. Fume hoods

C. Both a & b
320. The formula used for calculating RSC is
_____________________?
A. RSC=(CO32 + HCO2) (Na + K + Ca2 + Mg2)
B. RSC=(CO32 + HCO2) ( Ca2 + Mg2)
D. non of these
321. C12H12N-NaO8S2 is the chemical formula of
____________________?
A. Activated charcoal
B. Azomethine H
C. Carbonated sodium sulphate
322. [(NH4)2SO4FeSO66H2O] is the formula of
_______________________?
A. Ammonium sulphate Iron sulphate
B. Sodium ammonium sulphate
C. Ferrous Ammonium sulphate
323. The lower limit of available water is called
____________________?
A. Field capacity
B. Wilting point
C. Available water
D. Hygroscopic water
324. Sugar cane is_____________________?
A. C3 plant
B. C4 plant
C. C2 plant
325. Gravimetric water is present in__________________?

A. Microspores
B. Macrospores
C. Mesopores
D. Nanopores
326. The plant in which CO2 fixation is solely via the Calvin
cycle is_____________________?
A. C
B. CAB
C. C
D. CAM
327. The available form of sulphur for plant
is___________________?
A. S2
B. SO-2
C. SO3
D. SO2
328. Percentage of N in Ammonium sulphate fertilizer
is___________________?
A. 23
B. 35
C. 45
D. 21
329. Chromium (Cr) is a____________________?
A. Macro element
B. Secondary element
C. Heavy metal
D. Free element
330. The process of accumulation of excess quantity of
nutrients in water causing O2 deficiency is known
as_____________________?
A. Eutrophication
B. Nitrification

C. Denitrification
D. Sedimentation
331. Addition of sodium hexametaphosphate in soil for
determination of soil texture causes__________________?
A. Agregation of soil particles
B. Cementing of soil particles
C. Dispersion of soil particles
D. All the above
332. The problem of soil crosion Thal and Cholistan is
predominantly due to___________________?
A. Wind
B. Air
C. Water
D. All the above
333. Na and k can be determined by the use
of____________________?
A. Hydrometer
B. Flame photometer
C. Spectrophotometer
D. All the above
334. Gold is___________________?
A. Native element
B. Secondary element
C. Primary element
D. Heavy metal
335. Salt-tolerant plants are called ____________________?
A. Glycophytes
B. Halophytes
C. Xerophytes
D. All the above
336. Total salt affected soils of Pakistan are____________________?
A. 6.3 m ha
B. 5.0 m ha

C. 12.3 m ha
D. 10.5 m ha
337. Cyclic salts are mostly of ______________________?
A. SO4
B. HCO3
C. Cl–
338. Corrositivity of water is an indication
of___________________?
A. Salinity
B. Property of polluted material
C. Both a & b
339. The earth core is made of the following metals
______________________?
A. Fe & Ni
B. Mg & Ni
C. Cu & Ni
D. None of these
340. Equation of Ozone is________________________?
A. O2 + O =O3
B. O3 + O
C. O2 O
341. Mean annual precipitation for tundra region is
____________________?
A. 70-80 cm
B. 150-70 cm
C. 0-50 cm
342. Formula used for the calculation of sodium absorption
ratio is______________________?

A. SAR=Na / [(Ca+Mg)1/2] Na x 2
B. SAR=Na / CEC x 100
C. SAR=Na / CEC x 100
D. None of these
343. The moisture content below which a cohesive soil does
stick to metal tools is known as______________________?
A. Liquid limit
B. Plastic limit
C. Sticky limit
D. Alter berg limit
344. The symbol of Na stands for___________________?
A. Nickle
B. Natrium
C. Neon
D. None of these
345. pF unit is used for the measurement
of_____________________?
A. Hydraulic potential
B. Hydraulic conductivity
C. Negative soil water potential
D. All the above
346. A soil with an ESP greater than 15 is usually classified
as___________________?
A. Sodic soil
B. Saline soil
C. Acidic soil
347. Solution containing molecular weight of a substance in
gram per liter of a solution is known
as______________________?
A. Normal
B. Molal

C. Molar
348. The net reaction of photosynthesis is_____________________?
A. CO2 + H2O light O2 + (CH3O)
B. CaCO3 + 2HCl CaCl2 H2O+CO3
C. ((CH2O) + O2 CO2 + H2O)
349. The little clay mineral is_____________________?
A. Non-expending
B. Expending
C. None or little expending
350. The chemical formula of Hematite is_____________________?
A. AL (OH)2
B. Fe2O3
C. Fe OOH
351. The deficient level of N (%) in plants suggested by
various workers is____________________?
A. 0%
B. 3%
C. 5%
D. 10%
352. Most of the productive soils in Pakistan have
pH______________________?
A. Between 7.5 to 8.5
B. 8.5
353. The reaction of Na2 CO3 salt is____________________?
A. Alkaline
B. Neutral
C. Acidic

354. The unit of electrical conductivity is____________________?
A. dsm-1
B. mmhos/m
C. ms/cm
D. Al the above
355. A compound toxic to crop formed by the thermal
decomposition of urea is_________________?
A. Uric acid
B. Biurct (NH2CONH CONH2 H2O)
C. Diuret
D. Both b & c
356. The kaolininte is a layer silicate clay mineral, it is 1:1
type of mineral with___________________?
A. 3-15 meq/100g CEC
B. 40 meq/100g CEC
C. 50 meq/100g CEC
357. The term applied to a material which tends to absorb
moisture from the atmosphere is called__________________?
A. Capillary
B. Hydroscopic
C. Available
D. Gravitational
358. Buffer solution is a solution which resist change in
__________________ ?
A. pH
B. SAP
C. EC
D. RSC
359. DAP fertilizer available in Pakistan
contains__________________________?
A. 18% N & 46% P2O5
B. 46%N & 18%P2O3

C. 100%P2O3
D. 50%P2O3
360. Acid soil contain pH____________________?
A. <7
B. >7
C. >7.0
D. 8.5
361. The factor used for conversion of P to P2O3
is____________________?
A. o.453
B. 0.643
C. 0.436
362. The zorawar is brand name of ___________________?
A. TSP
B. DAP
C. MAP
363. Microorganisms have C/N ratio of____________________?
A. 2:1
B. 4:1
C. 12:1
D. 20:1
364. How much percentage of soils of Pakistan are deficient
in P______________________?
A. 60
C. 50-70
D. 80-90
365. A soil is categorized as saline when EC of saturation
extract is______________________?
A. >4dsm-1
B. 0.4dsm-1
D. 0.4 4.0 dsm-1

366. pH in coniferous forest is__________________?
A. Less than 7
B. Neutral
C. Greater than 7
D. Basis
367. Ligands that occur in Pakistan soils are__________________?
A. OH1 HCO2
B. SO4-2 OH
C. CO3-2 SO4-2
D. All the above
368. An ion or molecule in the coordination sphere central
ion is called__________________?
A. Complexion
B. Ligand
C. Chelate
D. Potential
369. Which one of the following are macro
nutrients__________________?
A. N,P,K
B. C,H,O
C. Ca,Mg,S
D. All the above
370. Soil water can be determined by_____________________?
A. Mass water content
B. Macro pores
C. Both a & b
371. Size of clay particle is___________________?
A. 0.02mm
B. 0.2mm
C. 0.002mm
D. 2mm
372. Shrinking and swelling is property of__________________?

A. Clay
B. Silk
C. Water
D. Smecitie
373. Kaolinite can be identified by______________________?
A. Spectrophotometer
B. Boiling
C. X-ray diffraction
D. Breaking
374. Mollic refers to____________________?
A. B-horizon
B. C-horizon
C. U-horizon
D. Surface horizon
375. Which is passive factor of weathering ?
A. Climate
B. Parent material
C. Organisms
D. Temperature
376. Product of microorganism that appears to chelate
calcium is called_____________________?
A. Pyruive acid
B. 2-ketoghconic acid
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Phospheric acid
377. Pneumatic potential is due to____________________?
A. Water
B. Petrol
C. Soil
D. Gas
378. Physical condition of soil for plant growth is
called___________________?

A. Granulation
B. Tillage
C. Tilth
D. All the above
379. Which instrument is used for determining soil
texture___________________?
A. Lysimeter
B. Hydrometer
C. Thermometer
D. All the above
380. Soil particles having diameter greater than 2 mm are
called___________________?
A. Clay
B. Silt
C. Sand
D. Gravel
381. Most widely spread mineral in the world
is________________?
A. Iron
B. Kaolinite
C. Salt
382. Process of mixing soil by fauna and flora is
called__________________?
A. Lessivage
B. Pedoturbation
C. Leaching
D. Enrichment
383. Attraction between similar particles is
called____________________?
A. Adhesion
B. Cohesion

C. Vander wall
D. All the above
384. Tuff is__________________?
A. Soil
B. Water
C. Volcanic ash
D. Consolidated ash
385. Rocks having coarse bubble holes are
called_______________________?
A. Purr ice
B. Mafic
C. Scoria
D. Felsic
386. Thickness of Dikes ranges from___________________?
A. 2-10 m
B. Few m 10 m
C. Few cm 10 cm
D. 10-12 cm
387. Structure and size of aphantic rock is________________?
A. Course-grained like
B. Fine grained
C. Large-Glassy
D. Phenocryst
388. Felsic rocks consists of___________________?
A. fe
B. Quartz
C. Buiotitic
D. Quartz & Feldspars
389. Plutonic rocks are also called____________________?
A. Intrusive igneous
B. Metamorphic
C. Sedimentary
D. Extrusive igneous rock

390. How many different minerals deposits are found in
Pakistan ?
A. 100
B. 60
C. 30
391. Which mineral contain phosphorus__________________?
A. Igneous
B. Metamorphic
C. Apatite
392. Schist is example of____________________?
A. Stone
B. Name of mountain
C. Metamorphic rock
393. Metamorphic rocks are formed from____________________?
A. Igneous rocks
B. Sedimentary rocks
C. Both a & b
D. Cleavage
394. Silt stones consists of grains whose size range
from____________________?
A. 0.625 mm
B. 0.004 mm
C. 0.0625 mm
D. Both b & c
395. Rocks which are formed by disintegration of pre-
existing rocks by weathering are____________________?
A. Sand stone
B. Classics
C. Igneous
D. Greis

396. Rhyolite in nature is______________________?
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Both a & b
397. The soil of Sindh (Pakistan) have pH______________________?
A. 5.0 to 6.5
B. 6.5 to 7.5
C. 7.5 to 8.5
D. 8.5 to 9.5
398. Lithosphere refers to____________________?
A. Zone of atmosphere
B. Zone of earth crust
C. Zone of ozone
D. Zone of water
399. Age of Earth is_____________________?
A. 4.5 billion years
B. 4 billion years
C. 1 billion years
D. 6 billion years
400. Problem of erosion in Thal and Cholistan is due
to____________________?
A. Wind
B. Fire
C. Water
D. Atmosphere
401. Elements essentially required for growth of all plants
species are___________________?
A. 32
B. 15
C. 16
D. 3
402. Histols are found in______________________?

A. Pakistan
B. Canada
C. Alaska
D. Both b & c
403. Mineral soil contain organic carbon___________________?
A. >4%
B. 5%
C. <20%
D. >10%
404. The chemical formula of urea fertilizer
is_______________________?
A. NH2CONH2
B. [CO(NH2)]
C. Both a & b
405. International atomic weight of potassium
is_________________?
A. 39.0
B. 40.0
C. 41.0
D. 38.0
406. The available form of calcium to plant is________________?
A. Ca(free cation
B. CaO
C. Ca
407. The molar mass of NaCl is_____________________?
A. 56.58
B. 43.28
C. 50.58
D. 58.58
408. The available from of nitrogen for plant is________________?

A. NO3
B. NH4
C. Both a & b
409. A soil is classified as sodic soil when______________________?
A. EC is 8.5
C. SAR is >13
D. All the above
410. Identify the fertilizer (s) containing
potassium____________________?
A. SOP
B. MOP
C. Chilean salt peter
D. All the above
411. pH of Pakistani soils is____________________?
A. 7.5
B. 12
C. 7
D. 14
412. When two or more functional groups of single ligand are
coordinated to metal cation the complex is termed
as___________________?
A. Chelate
B. Solution complex
C. Complex ion
D. All the above
413. Vertical movement of water was studied
by_________________?
A. Ziebig
B. Darcy
C. Kohler
D. Niel
414. Gravimetric water is present in______________________?

A. Micro pores
B. Macro pores
C. Meso pores
415. Permanent change in soil is due to__________________?
A. Ionic bonding
B. pH change
C. Covalent bonding
D. Isomorphic substitution
416. Which element can be fixed by
smecitite___________________?
A. Mgº
B. Kº
C. NH2
D. Both b & c
417. Slipperiness is due to__________________?
A. Covalent bond
B. Vander walls forces
C. Wire bond
418. Who characterized soil formation as set of “4”
process______________________?
A. Jinney
B. Ziking
C. Newton
D. Simonson
419. The nutrient particularly influencing root growth
is___________________?
A. Zinc
B. Nitrogen
C. Organic
D. Phosphorus
420. Who gave the equation for study of soil property ?

A. Ziebig
B. Newton
C. Neil
D. Jenny
421. Weathering is_______________________?
A. Destructive process
B. Constructive process
C. Both a & b
422. Color of fertile soil is_____________________?
A. White
B. Green
C. Brown
D. Black
423. The aggregation of individual particles is
called___________________?
A. Granulation
B. Texture
C. Flocculation
D. Structure
424. Which soil is suitable for nce________________?
A. Fine textured
B. Coarse textured
C. Sandy
425. Which soil bolds more water ?
A. Sandy
B. Stony
C. Clayey
D. Sitry
426. Which one of the following is physical property of
soil______________________?

A. Hydration
B. Oxidation
C. Reduction
427. Weathering of gabbros gives_____________________?
A. Sand and clay
B. Clay and iron oxide
C. Clay and Mg oxides
D. Sand and iron oxide
428. Large pieces of erupted magma are
called_____________________?
A. Volcanic ash
B. Volcanic block
C. Dike
D. Sill
429. Places where volcanoes occur are_________________?
A. Pacific ocean
B. Mid-Atlantic ridge
C. Mediterranean sea
D. All the above
430. Thick concordant bodies which force the overlying
sediments to form dome-shaped hills are
called_____________________?
A. Laccoliths
B. Pegmatic
C. Dike
D. Batholiths
431. Igneous rock whose crystal is 1 cm
called____________________?
A. Plutonic
B. Felsic
C. Pegmatitic
D. Mafic

432. Color off basic matic rock is_____________________?
A. Light green
B. Dark colored
C. Yellow
D. Blue
433. Geochemical weathering processes
occurs______________________?
A. On surface
B. Below soil solum
C. At the level
D. On the mountain
434. Which compound is mostly used in Pakistan for the
reclamation of saline-sodic & sodic soils_________________?
A. Apatite
B. Calcite
C. Dolomite
D. Gypsum
435. Most abundant mineral in the earth crust
is______________________?
A. N-Feldspar
B. Feldspar
C. S-Feldspar
D. Amplubole
436. Which rock is harder_________________?
A. Metamorphic
B. Sedimentary
C. Igneous
D. Sand stone
437. Rocks formed from compacted clay or mud are
called____________________?
A. Shale
B. Clay stone

C. Sand stone
438. The site of grains present in sands structuring
range__________________?
A. 1.00 0.0625 mm dia
B. 0.0625 mm dia
C. 0-1.0 mm dia
439. Which rock contain potash feldspar ?
A. Syeruite
B. Gabbro
C. Norile
D. All the above
440. Fine-graned rocks formed on earth crust are
called____________________?
A. Intensive igneous rock
B. Extrusive rock
C. Sedimentary rock
D. Plutonic
441. The inner shell of earth consists of_____________________?
A. Fe
B. Silicate
C. Mg
D. Silicate of Fe & Mg
442. hydrosphere refers to______________________?
A. Zone of water
B. Zone of air
C. Zone of atmosphere
D. Zone of earth crust
443. Planets in our system are____________________?
A. 8
B. 12

C. 10
D. 9
444. Mechanisms of material uptake by plants is
by____________________?
A. Diffusion
B. Osmosis
C. Root interception
D. Mass flow
445. Main product of photosynthesis is_____________________?
A. C6H12O6
B. C12H24O12
C. C3H6O6
D. C5H12O6
446. Organic soil are called____________________?
A. Peat
B. Arid soil
C. Muck
D. Both a & b
447. Father of agricultural chemistry is___________________?
A. Vonliebig
B. Neil Brady
C. Neuron
D. J. jones

Agricultural (Water Management) MCQs
1. Specific weight of a liquid is defined as the weight per
unit volume at standard Temperature & pressure
therefore specific weight of water of water is equal to
____________ kg/m3 in MKS system ?
A. 990
B. 995
C. 999
D. 1000
2. Compressibility of a liquid is defined as vertical or
contraction in volume with variation of pressure.
Therefore water is considered as ___________________?
A. Expandable
B. In-Compressible
C. Compressible
D. All are correct
3. The law which states that the intensity of pressure at
any point in a liquid at rest is same in all
directions_________________?
A. Darcy’s law
B. Archimed’s law
C. Pascal’s law
D. None
4. A channel artificially constructed for water conveyance
of appreciable quantities with no problem of silting
and scouring is called ____________________?
A. A regime canal
B. Stable canal
C. Alluvial canal
D. A and B are correct
5. An area is officially declared as drought effected if the
mean Annual rain fall is less than of the annual
Potential evaporation,______________?
A. 70%
B. 75%
C. 80%
D. 85%
6. The resultant pressure of water acting at
________________________?
A. H/3
B. H/2
C. 2H/3
D. None of these
7. A dam which the up lift pressure of the sub-soil water
by its own weight is called _________________?
A. Buttress dam
B. Arch dam
C. Gravity dam
D. Concrete dam
8. To dispose of the surplus water from dam, a water way
is constructed called________________?
A. Water escape
B. Spillway
C. Channel
D. All are correct
9. In case of silt deposition in the dam reservoir to
dispose of the effectively ________________ be used?
A. Vortex pipes
B. Silt excluders
C. Silt ejectors
D. All are correct
10. The dam built for the purpose of diverting water from
main stream to various courses of flow is called
____________________?
A. Coffer dam
B. Detention dam
C. Diversion dam
D. Gravity dam
11. Specific gravity of a liquid is defined as the ratio of its
specific weight to that of pure water and standard
temperature and pressure. Therefore, specific gravity
is equal to ___________________?
A. 1.0
B. 1.2
C. 1.5
D. 2.0

12. Surface tension is the property of a liquid which
enables it to resist tensile stress. the surface tension of
water is equal to ______________ Kg/m?
A. 0.0056
B. 0.006
C. 0.0065
D. 0.0075
13. An escape constructed with masonry or pitched with
stones to dispose off surplus of tank or reservoir is
called________________?
A. Bye-wash
B. paved-escape
C. Water escape
D. Disposal channel
14. The permissible limit of hardness of water fore low
pressure boiler is _____________________?
A. 30 mg/litre
B. 40 mg/litre
C. 50 mg/litre
D. 60 mg/litre
15. Sterilization is the process of killing ___________ of water
borne diseases, so as to make it safe for hospital use?
A. Algai bacteria
B. Fungi bacteria i
C. Pathogenic bacteria
D. Insects
16. Always flow inside the ground is ____________________?
A. Laminar
B. Turbulent
C. Rotational
D. Compressible
17. The resultant pressure of water on the face of dam is
equal to ____________________ ?
A. 1/2 WH2
B. 1/2 WH
C. WH
D. All are correct

18. The steep conduits made in the body of dam for
running turbines to generate hydro-electric power are
called__________________?
A. Tunnels
B. Chuttes
C. Penstocks
D. Weep holes
19. When reservoir is full on upstream side, the maximum
stress comes upon__________________?
A. Top of dam
B. Bottom of dam
C. Face of dam
D. All are correct
20. Tanda dam is constructed on river ___________________?
A. Haro
B. Hub
C. Kabul
D. Kohat
21. Water storage efficiency in the root zone depends
upon__________________?
A. Porosity
B. Fine particles of soil
C. Coarse particles of soil
D. Climatic conditions
22. Water available in root zone of plants, is about 50% of
soil moisture content. which is always available to the
plants is called________________?
A. Effective water
B. Soil-moisture content
C. Capillary water
D. All are correct
23. Readily available moisture is the % of moisture that is
always easily available to plant and this moisture is
called _________________?
A. 70%
B. 75%
C. 80%
D. 85%
24. __________% of total global water is saline and available
in oceans ?
A. 95%
B. 96%
C. 97%
D. 97.5%
25. An aquifer in which water contained under high
pressure as the’ aquifer is sand witched between two
impervious layer is called___________________?
A. Un-confined aquifer
B. Confined aquifer
C. No-Artesian aquifer
D. All are correct
26. Volume of water that unit volume of aquifer will give
up by gravity pull is called ____________________?
A. Specific volume
B. Specific yield
C. Specific retention
D. All are correct
27. The piezometric level of water in the well at zero
discharges is called___________________?
A. Full supply level
B. Static water level
C. Water table
D. All are correct
28. In study of a granular material sliding on plane ground,
the angle between the perpendicular and the surface in
static condition is called ___________________?
A. Angle of friction
B. Angle of internal friction
C. Angle of repose
D. All are correct
29. The fixing of points in such away or the ground to have
a correct lines for setting a canal or water course is
called _________________?
A. Lining of canal
B. Alignment of canal

C. Designing of canal
D. All are correct
30. That part of the flow in a stream comes from sub-soil or
valley, may be beneath the top surface of channel bed
is called__________________?
A. Sub-surface flow
B. Base flow
C. Ground flow
D. All are correct
31. The ratio of specific weight of any liquid to the specific
weight of water is called as _________________?
A. Density of liquid
B. Density of water
C. Specific gravity of water
D. Specific gravity of liquid
32. The weight per unit of liquid at standard Temperature
and pressure is called___________________?
A. Specific weight
B. Mass weight
C. Mass density
D. Capillary rise is significant
33. The falling drop of rainwater become spherical due to
_________________?
A. Surface Tension
B. Compressibility
C. Capillary
D. None of these
34. Piezometer tube is open to both ends mostly used to
measure ____________________?
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. gauge pressure
C. Vacuum pressure
D. absolute pressure
35. A flow in which velocity of water particles is same at all
sections is called ____________________?
A. Steady flow
B. Uniform flow

C. Compressible flow
D. Laminar flow
36. Flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path is
called _____________________?
A. Steady flow
B. uniform flow
C. Laminar flow
D. Transitional flow
37. For a perfect incompressible liquid flowing in a
continuous stream, the total energy of a particle
remain the same, while the liquid particle move from
one point to another this statement is called
___________________?
A. Continuity Equation
B. Pascal s law
C. Bernoulli equation
D. Archimede’s principle
38. The discharge over a rectangular notch is determined
by _____________________?
A. 2/3 cd. b (2 gh) 1/2
B. 2/3 cd. B (2g) 1/2 H
C. 2/3 cd. B (2g) 1/2 H3/2
D. 2/3 cd. b (2g) 1/2 H 5/2
39. The total energy line lies over the hydraulic gradient
line by an amount equal to________________?
A. v2/2g
B. v2/g
C. v/2g
D. v/g
40. A channel is said lo be of most economical cross
section, for a given cross-sectional area and bed slope
when it __________________?
A. Gives max. Discharge
B. Has minimum wetted perimeter
C. Involves lesser excavation
D. All of these
41. in most economical Trapezoidal section, half of the Top
width is equal to _________________?
A. Bottom width of channel
B. Depth of channel
C. Sloping side of channel
D. None of these
42. if the depth of water in an open channel is greater than
the critical depth, the flow is called________________?
A. Critical depth
B. Non-critical flow
C. Sub-critical flow
D. Shooting flow
43. Art of growing crops, management of live stocks,
husbandry and farming is called________________?
A. Agriculture
B. crop farming
C. Water management
D. all are correct
44. Art of making saline un-cultivable lands capable of re-
cultivation is called.___________________?
A. Reclamation
B. Fertilization
C. Growing crops
D. Water application
45. Which of the following is a cash crop ___________________?
A. Maize
B. Paddy
C. Cotton
D. Wheat
46. Out/ of a well water is more than canal water
because____________________?
A. Conveyance losses in well irrigation are less
B. Well water is clear than canal water
C. Lifting of water increase cost of well water
D. Well water is used economically
47. A watershed canal __________________?
A. Irrigates only on one side
B. Avoids the cross drainage works
C. Is generally aligned parallel to the contour of the area
D. Is most suitable in hilly areas
48. The process of consolidation of stabilized earth work
in canal or river embankments. In this process the soil
is deposited in layers of specified thickness and at a
particular moisture content is called __________________?
A. Soil stabilization
B. Densification
C. Compaction
D. All are correct
49. When the reservoir is full, the maximum compressive
force in a gravity dam is produced ___________________?
A. At the toe
B. At the heel
C. Within the middle third of base
D. At centre of base
50. The ideal crop for wastewater or sewage irrigation is
_______________________?
A. Mango
B. Banana
C. Dates
D. Orange
51. The season that starts from 1st October and ends on
31st March, runs for 182 days is called __________________?
A. Rabi season
B. Kharif season
C. Monsoon season
D. Wheat season
52. Weep holes are provided in canal lining to
_____________________?
A. improve strength of lining
B. Give additional anchorage against sliding
C. Provide water into branch canals
D. Have drainage facility
53. Development of___________in river is due to meandering
?
A. Delta
B. Critical velocity
C. Cutoff
D. Turbulence
54. Rabi crops pertains to ___________________?
A. Throughout the year
B. Summer season
C. Monsoon season
D. Winter season
55. The delta the total depth of water consumed by a crop
from 1st watering when matures, the delta for rice
is___________________?
A. 100cm
B. 120cm
C. 80cm
D. 75cm
56. The delta the total water requirement of crop from the
time of sowing to harvesting the delta of sugarcane is
__________________?
A. 120cm
B. 100cm
C. 80cm
D. 70cm
57. Sliding failure occurs in a solid gravity dam
when____________________?
A. Resultant of all forces cuts the base of the dam out
side the toe
B. Resultant of all forces cuts the base at the inner middle
third point
C. Ratio of over turning moments exceeds than unity
D. Shear friction factor Is less than 1.5
58. Sediment particles smaller than 0.002 mm which do
not settle in water are called____________________?
A. Fine silt particles
B. Fine clay particles
C. Colloids
D. All are correct
59. An engineer who is approached by a client for the
purpose of design of hydraulic structures like dam.
Barrage or Regulator is called ____________________?
A. Chartered Engineer
B. Consulting Engineer
C. Irrigation Engineer
D. All are correct
60. A line shown on a contour map, set out on ground
between certain constant points of slope is
called___________________?
A. Gradient
B. Contour gradient
C. Contour line
D. Counter interval
61. Cultivation made on small plane steps because of more
steepness of the area is called __________________?
A. Cascade farming
B. Terrace farming
C. Step farming
D. All are correct
62. The law that states that the discharge of sub-soil water
is directly proportional to the loss of head and the area
of soil sample and inversely proportional to to the
length of soil sample ___________________?
A. Archimed’s principle
B. Darcy’s law
C. Permeability law
D. Thiem’s law
63. The contour of equal water heads and pressure in the
soil mass beneath retaining structure are
called___________________?
A. Stream lines
B. Equipotential lines
C. Equilibrium lines
D. Streak lines
64. The minimum moisture content at which a water drop
if placed on a smooth surface of soil will not be
absorbed immediately by the soil is called
__________________?
A. Soil moisture content
B. Moisture content
C. Soil saturation
D. All are correct
65. The height from the top of the embankment to the
normal water level in canal .Dam – Reservoir etc, which
allows for small waves to splash without over flow is
called___________________?
A. Free board
B. Free space
C. Free faced
D. Free end –
66. A dam which is prevented from overturning by the
action of lateral or vertical up thrust of water by its
weight is called __________________?
A. Gravity dam
B. Arch dam
C. Buttress dam
D. Coffer dam
67. The formula used to calculate maximum flood
discharge for a hilly () is_______________?
A. Dicken’s formula
B. Ryve’s formula
C. Nawab Jung Bahadur All formula
D. Inglis formula
68. A fluid is a substance that ____________________?
A. Always expands until it fills any container
B. Is partially incompressible
C. Can not remain at rest under the action of any shear
force
D. Can not be subjected to shear force
69. Cavitation is caused by _____________________?
A. High velocity
B. Low discharge
C. Low pressure
D. High pressure
70. The velocity in a large canal or channel measured at a
depth of ___________________ gives the mean velocity using
the current meter?
A. 0.6m
B. 0.5m

C. 0.6 depth
D. 0.5 depth
71. The last length of the river before it falls into the sea is
known as __________________?
A. Mountainous stage
B. trough stage
C. Delta stage
D. Sub-mountainous stage
72. The forces coming over the gravity dam is mainly
resisted by ___________________?
A. Water pressure
B. Uplift pressure
C. Self weight of the dam
D. All the above
73. The precipitation that occurs because of frontal
disturbances during the movement of barometric low
pressure is called ____________________?
A. Hurricane
B. Cyclonic
C. Orographic
D. Convective
74. An instrument used for measuring pressure head,
generally made up of a small pipe tapped into the side
of conduit is called ___________________?
A. Pilot tube
B. Piezometer
C. Manometer
D. All are correct
75. hail is precipitation in the form of balls or lumps of ice
of size greater than _______________ formed by alternate
freezing & melting?
A. 5 mm diameter
B. 10 mm diameter
C. 15 mm diameter
D. 20 mm diameter
76. The depth of root zone for rice crop is
about___________________?

A. 70 cm
B. 80 cm
C. 90 cm
D. 100 cm
77. A flow of water for a certain discharge when total
energy of flow i.e. sum of potential, kinetic and
pressure energies is minimum is
called_______________________?
A. Shooting flow
B. Critical flow
C. Sub-critical flow
D. Normal flow
78. The angle between a head regulator and entrance of
water, for smooth entry of water in a canal is kept as
_________________?
A. 90°
B. 100°
C. 110°
D. 120°
79. A closed conduct or barrel used used for supplying
water under high pressure to a turbine to generate
electricity is called __________________?
A. A tunnel
B. Penstock
C. Chute
D. Syphon
80. An earth embankment built on one or both sides of a
river, some distance away from its banks to control
flood is called _______________?
A. Dyke
B. Embankment
C. Marginal embankment
D. Flood protective bund
81. A pipe flowing full, the liquid particles in the pipe has
maximum velocity at __________________?
A. Top of pipe
B. Centre of pipe

C. Bottom of pipe
D. All are correct
82. The hydraulic gradient line (H.G.L)represents the sum
of_________________?
A. Pressure head + datum head
B. Pressure head + velocity head
C. Velocity head
D. Water surface
83. velocity of gases is measured with a _____________________?
A. Hot wire manometer
B. Hot wire anemometer
C. Barometer
D. All are correct
84. From a water fall, if water is falling down at the rate of
100 N/sec: on the blades of a turbine when the height
of fall is 100 m the power delivered to turbine will
be______________?
A. 1000 kw
B. 10,000 kw
C. 100 kw
D. 5000 kw
85. Mercury does not wet the glass because of its property
of ______________________?
A. Capillary
B. Surface tension
C. Compressibility
D. Viscosity
86. A type of flow in which water particles, while moving in
the direction of flow, rotate about their mass centre is
called _________________?
A. Turbulent flow
B. Laminar flow
C. Rotational flow
D. Circular flow
87. Permissible velocity of water flowing through concrete
lined tunnel is usually __________________?
A. 3 – 4m/sec
B. 4 – 5m/sec
C. 5 – 6m/sec
D. 6 – 7m/sec
88. The depth of flow at which the energy is maximum is
called ____________________?
A. Super critical depth
B. Sub-critical depth
C. Critical depth
D. All are correct
89. Water application efficiency increases if the plot to be
irrigated is__________________?
A. Circular
B. Square
C. Rectangle
D. All are correct
90. Water available above the top of root zone of plants is
about 15% of soil moisture contents, is mostly not
available to plants celled_________________?
A. Capillary water
B. Irrigation water
C. Effective water
D. Hygroscopic water
91. Wilting point is that limit after that the crop starts
feeding up and no water is available for plant, this
point occurs after _________________?
A. 30% water available
B. 25% water available
C. 20% water available
D. All are correct
92. Estimated quantity of global water is __________which
covers about 70% of earth?
A. 1.30x109km3
B. 1.32x109km3
C. 1.33x109km3
D. 1.35x109km3
93. _________% of total global water is fresh and its major
portion is obtained from Rains ?
A. 2%
B. 2.5%
C. 3%
D. 3.2%
94. The property of soil which indicates the volume of
water stored in the formation is called
___________________?
A. Specific yield
B. Porosity
C. Field capacity
D. Specific retention
95. The property of saturated soil mass which transmits
appreciable quantities . water is called___________________?
A. Porosity
B. Transmissibility
C. Permeability
D. Discharge
96. The discharge of a well per unit draw down usually
expressed as gallons or liters per minute is called
____________________?
A. Discharge
B. Specific volume
C. Specific capacity
D. All are correct
97. Ground water moving down wards in the un-saturated
ground above the water table is called___________________?
A. Hygroscopic water
B. Capillary water
C. Gravity water
D. All are correct
98. To protect the face of embankment against the attack
of wave wash with stone boulders is called
_________________?
A. Pitching
B. Armouring
C. Revetment
D. All are correct
99. The mass per unit volume of a liquid at standard
temperature and pressure is called ____________________?

A. Specific weight
B. Specific gravity
C. Mass density
D. None of these
100. The experiment of capillary rise is performed in a glass
tube of smaller diameter, because___________________?
A. It is easily visible
B. Glass tube is cheaper than metal
C. Glass tube is lighter than metallic tube
D. Capillary rise is significant
101. The mercury in a glass tube assumes convex shape at
the top because of_________________________?
A. Cohesion
B. Adhesion
C. Surface Tension
D. Viscosity
102. The property of liquid which controls its rate of flow is
called __________________?
A. Capillarity
B. Compressibility
C. Viscosity
D. Specific gravity
103. The water force per meter length on a vertical wall is
equal to_________________?
A. w H
B. W.H/2
C. WH2 2
D. wh2
104. When ever a body is immersed wholly or partially in
water, it is lifted up by a force equal to the weight of
water displaced by the body ?
A. Archimed’s Principle
B. Law of gravity
C. Newton’s law of otion
D. None of these
105. A flow in which the quantity of liquid flowing per
second is constant is called___________________?

A. Uniform flow
B. Steady flow
C. Turbulent flow
D. None of these
106. A flow in which the stream lines may be represented by
a straight line is called____________________?
A. Non-uniform flow
B. un-steady flow
C. steady flow
D. one-dimension flow
107. Theoretical velocity of the jet at Vena Contracta is
determined by ________________?
A. (2 gh)1/2
B. 2(gh)1/2
C. 2g (h)1/2
D. 2gh
108. The loss of head due to friction according to Darcy’s
formula is _____________________?
A. 4fLv2/gd
B. 4fLv2/2gd
C. 4fLv/gd
D. 4fLv/2gd
109. The hydraulic mean depth for a circular pipe of
diameter d is ____________________?
A. d/2
B. d/3
C. d/4
D. d/6
110. According to Chezy’s formula, the discharge through an
open channel is equal to _________________?
A. C (mi) 1/2
B. A (cmi)1/2
C. Ac√R.S
D. A (c.A/pi) 1/2
111. The discharge through a rectangular channel will be
maximum. if its depth is_______________?
A. Twice the width
B. Equal to its width
C. Half of its width
D. one-third of its with
112. The depth of water in a channel, corresponding to
minimum specific energy is called ________________?
A. Normal depth
B. Critical depth
C. Full supply depth
D. None of these
113. A hydraulic jump to dissipate energy when flow is
__________________?
A. Critical flow
B. Shooting flow
C. Streaming flow
D. Turbulent flow
114. Art of mixing saline water with fresh water in
accordance with some ratio for irrigation purpose is
called _________________?
A. Amalgamation
B. Mixing of water
C. Desalinization
D. All are correct
115. Art of making saline water fit for irrigation and
drinking through the processes of membrane
technique and reverse osmosis is called
___________________?
A. Desalinization
B. Water application
C. Water mixing
D. All are correct
116. Presently percentage of area irrigation to that of total
cultivated area in our country is __________________?
A. 80%
B. 60%
C. 40%
D. 27%
117. The hydraulic structures like dams, barrages
constructed on permeable foundations are likely to fail
due to ___________________?
A. Piping
B. Crushing
C. Sliding
D. All the above
118. The meandering pattern of a river is developed by
____________________?
A. Average discharge
B. Dominant discharge
C. Maximum discharge
D. Critical discharge
119. For a flood control reservoirs, the effective storage is
equal to ___________________?
A. Useful storage – valley storage
B. Useful storage + surcharge storage
C. Useful storage + surcharge storage
D. Useful storage + surcharge storage -valley storage
120. When the fluid properties do not change with time, it is
a ___________ flow?
A. Steady
B. Uniform
C. Unsteady
D. Non-Uniform
121. The precipitation that falls during the growing season
of the crop is called__________________?
A. Useful rain fall
B. Direct rain fall
C. Monsoon rain fall
D. all are correct
122. The season that starts from 1st April and end on 30th
September and run for 183 days is called
_____________________?
A. Kharif season
B. Rabi season
C. Rice season
D. Cotton season
123. The flow in the river due to the floods may be classified
as _____________________?

A. Laminar flow
B. Stream line flow
C. Irrotational flow
D. Turbulent flow
124. An impermeable Formation which neither contains
water nor transmits water may be
called_____________________?
A. Aquifuge
B. Aquifer
C. Aquiclude
D. Confined-aquifer
125. The delta the total depth of water consumed by crop up
to its maturity, the delta of cotton is ____________________?
A. 100 cm
B. 80 cm
C. 50 cm
D. 40 cm
126. The delta the total water depth required by a crop up
to its maturity the delta of wheat is _____________________?
A. 60cm
B. 50cm
C. 40 cm
D. 30cm
127. The disposal of sewage by allowing it to flow and Soak
into specially leveled farm land for cultivation purpose
is called _____________________?
A. Trickle irrigation
B. Border irrigation
C. Broad irrigation
D. Check irrigation
128. The quantity of water lost by transpiration from the
plants or crops and evaporation from fields adjacent to
these plants is called ___________________?
A. Evapo-transpiration
B. Consumptive use
C. Un-confined water
D. a & b are correct

129. A line shown on a map, drawn between the points of
equal levels or heads is called ____________________?
A. Check line
B. Contour line
C. Ordinate line
D. All are correct
130. A reference point on the ground of accurately known
position which is a () point of leveling is called
________________?
A. Check point
B. Reference point
C. Control point
D. Fixed point
131. The piles driven in low bearing capacity soil which
does not rest on hard rock but bears the coming load
due to side resistance is called ________________?
A. Load Bearing
B. Frictional pile
C. Cost-in situ piles
D. All are correct
132. The percentage of the volume of water filled in voids to
the total volume of solids of soil grains is
called__________________?
A. Void ratio
B. Degree of compaction
C. Degree of saturation
D. Volume of saturation
133. The free distance on the paddy surface which a wind
can travel to any point to rise waves is
called_________________?
A. Wave wash
B. Tide
C. Fetch
D. Wave amplitude
134. The line in a flow net which shows the direction of flow
of water through a soil mass beneath dam are called
_________________?

A. Equipotential lines
B. flow lines
C. Section lines
D. Streak lines
135. A mine or tunnel for collecting seepage water in rock
or dam is called ____________________?
A. Water tunnel
B. Seepage gallery
C. Seepage tunnel
D. Seepage Drain
136. Mean velocity of flow in a river can be directly
measured by means of ______________________?
A. Dickne’s formula
B. Current meter
C. Surface floats
D. Rod floats
137. Direct runoff is the sum of __________________?
A. Surface run-off and mass flow
B. Bass flow and ground water run off
C. Sub-surface run off and deep percolation
D. Surface run off and flow
138. Which of the following has highest-coefficient of
discharge_____________________?
A. Sharp edged orifice
B. Venturi meter
C. Broad crested weir
D. Cippoletti weir
139. Aeration holes are provided to reduce the inside
saturation pressure ____________________?
A. In a weir with end contractions
B. In a suppressed weir
C. In a cippoletti weir
D. In all weir
140. generally useful life of a reservoir is considered
terminated when its -gross storage is reduced by
_______________ of the design capacity of the reservoir?
A. 100%
B. 80%
C. 50% l
D. 20%
141. The centre of pressure of a plane submerged area
which holds it in equilibrium is ____________________?
A. Always below the centre of gravity of the area
B. Coincident with centroid of area if its plane is vertical
C. Always above the centroid of the area
D. Independent of the inclination of area
142. the phenomenon of evaporation from water surfaces,
from soil surfaces around the plants and from plants
and transpiration from plants is called
___________________?
A. Evapotranspiration
B. Transpiration
C. Evaporation
D. All are correct
143. A plot of graphical representation showing river flow
against time is called _____________________?
A. Monograph
B. Hyetograph
C. Hydrograph
D. All are correct
144. If the duration of a unit hydrograph approaches zero,
the resulting unit hydrograph is called __________________?
A. Instantaneous unit hydrograph
B. Intensity unit hydrograph
C. Unit hydrograph
D. Unit hyetgoraph
145. Land containing high percentage of alkalies may be
reclaimed by addition of_____________________?
A. Caso4
B. Gypsum
C. Chemicals
D. Caco3
146. The method of irrigation in which each tree is
surrounded by a border to form a pool when water is
supplied is called ________________?

A. Furrow irrigation
B. Basin irrigation
C. Border irrigation
D. Check irrigation
147. Net irrigation + field irrigation losses are the
requirement of _____________________?
A. Full irrigation
B. Field irrigation
C. Furrow irrigation
D. Basin irrigation
148. A structure made near weirs and barrages to facilitate
the migration of fish up stream or down stream is
called __________________?
A. Fish ladder
B. Fish escape
C. Fish pool
D. Fish pond
149. The most economical central angle of an arch dam is
made at ___________________?
A. 123º
B. 133!
C. 143º
D. 153º
150. The ratio of change of discharge of an outlet to the rate
of change in level of water surface in distributary at its
normal depth is called ____________________?
A. Sensitivity
B. Flexibility
C. Durability
D. Flow ability
151. The unit of kinetic viscosity is equivalent to
______________________?
A. cm2/sec
B. cm/sec2
C. cm/sec
D. All are correct
152. Total energy line (T.E.L) represents the sum of
________________________?
A. Pressure head + kinetic head and datum head
B. Velocity head + kinetic head + datum head
C. Velocity head + potential head + datum head
D. The energy head + potential head + datum head
153. Friction head loss in open channels is determined
by_________________?
A. Chezy’s formula
B. Darcy weisbach equation
C. Kutter’s formula
D. Pilot tube
154. Torsional force does not act on ____________________?
A. Steel
B. Liquids
C. Soil
D. Wood
155. The specific weight of water at normal pressure of 760
mm, 4ºC temperature and at mean sea level is
______________________?
A. 960kg/m3
B. 1000ka/m3
C. 1100kg/m3
D. 1020kg/m3
156. Bouyant force is equal to the ___________ of liquid
displaced by the body in water mass?
A. Weight
B. Volume
C. Specific weight
D. Specific gravity
157. The discharge through rectangular channel is
maximum when Hydraulic mean depth m is equal to
______________?
A. depth/ 3
B. depth/ 2
C. depth/ 4
D. 2 / 3 depth
158. A structure constructed in channel width having
narrow throat and raised floor in bottom, used for
measuring discharge is called _____________________?
A. Cippoletti weir
B. Venturimeter
C. Venturiflume
D. regulator
159. That rain fall which is effectively consumed by the
plants to meet its consumptive needs is
called__________________?
A. Effective rain fall
B. Total rainfall
C. Monsoon rainfall
D. All are correct
160. The soil which are formed due to the weathering
effects particularly by movement of water and are high
permeable are called _________________?
A. Alluvial soils
B. Non-alluvial soils
C. Impervious soils
D. Semi-impervious soils
161. The unit of volume of water used in irrigation practice
in FPS system is Acre-Foot. there fore one Acre- Foot is
equal to ___________________?
A. 40560ft3
B. 41560ft3
C. 43560 cubic feet
D. 42560ft3
162. A well penetrated in ground water confined between
impervious layer at its top and bottom is called
__________________?
A. Non-artesian
B. Artesian well
C. Perched
D. Un-confined
163. A fixed reference point from which the discharge of
flowing water is measured is________________?
A. Reduce level
B. Bench mark
C. Contour point
D. Reference point
164. According to Khosla’s theory of seepage, the Exit
gradient depends upon ____________________?
A. width /depth ratio
B. depth /width ratio
C. Length /depth ratio
D. depth /Length ratio
165. the ratio between the rate of change of discharge of the
out let to the rate of change of discharge of the
distributary is called ______________________?
A. Proportionally
B. flexibility
C. Sensitivity
D. Flow abili
166. The lower limit of factor of safety against over turning
in a gravity is _______________________?
A. 1.3
B. 1.4
C. 1.5
D. 1.6
167. The stability analysis of earth dam founded on
cohesion less silt material be made
against_____________________?
A. Shear
B. Turning
C. Sinking
D. Buckling
168. The discharge carrying capacity of an irrigation
channel depends upon ____________________?
A. Silt grade, charge and slope
B. Channel dimensions
C. Sediment size
D. Silt amount and bed slope
169. Canals normally excavated directly from river without
head regulator is called___________________?
A. Perennial canals
B. Inundation canals
C. Non-perennial canals
D. Water shed canals
170. According to Kennedy’s silt theory , the critical velocity
is directly proportional to depth of flow
_____________________?
A. D0.64
B. D0.65
C. D0.66
D. D0.67
171. Water logging is the state of the soil where the water
table brought ______________capacity or root zone of
plants?
A. Far from
B. Within
C. Below
D. Near
172. The water particles held in soil pores of root zone by
_____________ against gravity and is known as capillary
water?
A. Cohesive force
B. Capillary force
C. Tension force
D. Gravity force
173. If E1 is the energy before the hydraulic jump and E2 is
the energy after the hydraulic jump the efficiency of
jump is then given by _____________________?
A. E2 – E1
B. E2 / E1
C. E1 – E2
D. E1 / E2
174. A water flow available in the drains without irrigation
season i.e.flow of sanitary sewage is
called____________________?
A. Municipal flow
B. Dry weather flow
C. Waste water flow
D. Surface flow
175. The Indus plain is the main agricultural producing
region in the country which receives
about________________m m of rain fall annually?
A. 100 mm
B. 150 mm
C. 175 mm
D. 200 mm
176. A graph which shows the volume of a reservoir or tank
at any given water level is called ____________________?
A. Mass curve
B. Volume curve
C. Capacity curve
D. All are correct
177. That point in a body at which it will balance if loaded
or supported is called ____________________?
A. Centre of pressure
B. Centre of mass
C. Centre of gravity
D. Mass centre
178. A curve consisting two or more arcs of different radii
curving in the same direction with common tangent is
called ___________________?
A. Composite curve
B. Compound curve
C. Double curve
D. All are correct
179. Hydrology is the science which deals with the depletion
and recharge of water resources yearly therefore. its
knowledge is a must to _________________ properly the
water resources?
A. Develop
B. Manage
C. Remodel
D. Rehabilitate
180. After rainfall the quantity of water that flows directly
over the ground surface and join immediately to the
river is called_________________?
A. Surface runoff
B. Sub-surface runoff
C. Base flow
D. True surface runoff
181. The field capacity is the water retained by a saturated
soil after free drainage of surplus water to the ground
water table but the water retained by a saturated soil
after being centrifuged by a centrifugal force of 1000
times that of gravity is called________________?
A. Soil moisture
B. Equivalent moisture
C. Field moisture
D. Available moisture
182. Infiltration capacity curve is the graphical
representation, as to how the infiltration capacity
varies with time after rainfall this curve was
represented by ____________________?
A. Darcy
B. Horton
C. Lacy
D. Kennedy
183. When seepage water after passing the ground water
aquifer joins the surface stream, such stream will be
called_____________________?
A. Influent stream
B. Effluent stream
C. Rain stream
D. Storm stream
184. A curve showing the maximum flow in the river and
mean time reduces flow. we be called___________________?
A. Infiltration capacity
B. Infiltration capacity curve
C. Ground water depletion curve
D. All are correct
185. The water vapours are generally present in a
atmosphere, some times isolated and sometimes mixed
with other gases. in such a situation the pressure
exerted by each component of mixture, will be called
______________________?
A. Partial pressure
B. Saturation pressure

C. Vapour pressure
D. All are correct
186. The difference between saturation vapour pressure
and actual vapour pressure at a constant temperature
is called ___________________?
A. Saturation vapour pressure
B. Actual vapour pressure
C. Saturation deficit
D. Partial pressure
187. The ratio between the actual pressure and saturation
vapour present at same temperature is
called___________________?
A. Absolute Humidity
B. Relative Humidity
C. Low humidity
D. High Humidity
188. Pilot tube is a device, which convert velocity head of
flowing water into pressure by ____________________?
A. H = v2/2g
B. H = v/g
C. H = v2 / g2
D. H = v2 / g
189. A unit hydrograph is a hydrograph of runoff produced
by a rainstorm of a specified duration called
____________________?
A. Unit duration
B. Peak runoff
C. Storm runoff
D. Base flow
190. The floods which exceeds the designed magnitude of a
reservoir is called _______________________?
A. High floods
B. Standard protects flood
C. Intensive flood
D. Storm flood
191. The area irrigated in the year and it grows crops on
which water rates are leveled is
called____________________?
A. Area Assessed
B. Area leased
C. Area irrigated
D. Area cultivated
192. A river which does not change its alignment – slope and
its regime significantly is called________________?
A. Aggrading river
B. Degrading river
C. Stable river
D. Deltaic River
193. If in a river the flood rises and falls suddenly due to
storm rain, then such river is called __________________?
A. Virgin
B. Tidal
C. Flashy
D. Deltaic
194. In alluvial river due to the action of centrifugal force,
bends are developed by scouring on concave and
silting on convex _____________________?
A. Silting & scouring
B. Meandering
C. Aggrading
D. Degrading
195. The groyne pointing downwards in the direction of
flow in fiver is called________________?
A. Permeable
B. Impermeable
C. repelling
D. Attracting
196. When the weight of weir balances the up lift pressure
caused by the head of the water seeping below the weir
bed is called ___________________?
A. Cippollite weir
B. Broad crested weir
C. Gravity weir
D. Non-gravity weir
197. The down stream sloping glacis of the Hydraulic
structure is made in such a way to form automatically
the _____________ and dissipate the surplus energy of
flowing water?
A. Afflux
B. Hydraulic jump
C. Pond level
D. HFL
198. The water level required on the upstream side of a
canal head regulator, so as to feed the off-taking canal
with its full supply is called_________________?
A. HFL
B. FSL
C. Pond level
D. Canal level
199. The under sluices in a weir are provided, at the level of
upstream floor dispose off the sediment deposited on
downstream is called______________________?
A. Under sluices
B. Head sluices
C. Scouring sluices
D. Sluice gates
200. The various works constructed on river side to control
the flow and pass it safely from hydraulic structures
are called ___________________?
A. River controlling works
B. River Training works
C. Marginal Embankment
D. Guide Banks
201. A regulator is water controlling structure, it is
provided at the head of canal to supply water from
parent canal to the branch channel is
called_______________________?
A. Head Regulator
B. Cross-Regulator
C. Escape
D. All are correct
202. When high flood passing down weir creating high up
lift pressures and there is no flow in the canals, if such

condition is taken for design and is
called__________________?
A. High flood level
B. Dangerous condition
C. Hydraulic design condition
D. Worst condition
203. A water rise takes place on down stream of sloping
glacis, when a stream of water moving with high
velocity and low depth strikes another stream of flow
moving with low velocity and high depth, such
breakage in water surface is called______________?
A. Water wave
B. Water tide
C. Hydraulic jump
D. Afflux
204. The hydraulic jump is formed on down stream of toe of
glacis for the purpose to dissipate surplus energy of the
flowing water, the nature and strength of jump
depends upon a Number called______________________?
A. Reynolds
B. Froude No
C. Webber
D. Darcy,s law
205. According to Blight, the percolating water seeps along
the lower contour of the hydraulic structure, the length
traversed by this water is called ______________________?
A. Creep length
B. Seeping length
C. Piping
D. Undermining
206. The loss of head H/ L is proportional to the length of
creep. There fore the loss of head per unit creep length
is called ______________________?
A. Hydraulic gradient
B. Head loss
C. Creep length
D. Exit gradient

207. To keep the Hydraulic structure safe against
undermining the ________________ should be safe?
A. Exit gradient
B. Hydraulic gradient
C. Creep length
D. Critical exit gradient
208. According to Mr. Khosla, the seeping water creates
undermining and the undermining starts
from__________________?
A. Down stream to up stream
B. Up stream to down stream
C. Top to bottom
D. Bottom to top
209. Khosla provided a seepage theory for design of
Hydraulic structures called________________?
A. Theory of seepage
B. Method of independent variables
C. Method of cutoffs
D. Creep theory
210. The invented filter is provided just after the end of
concrete floor to reduce () possibility of _________________?
A. Piping
B. Under mining
C. Up thrust
D. a and b are correct
211. The inverted filter consists layer of materials of
increasing ______________ from bottom to top?
A. Piping
B. Under mining
C. Permeability
D. Up thrust pressure
212. The total length of impervious floor on down stream of
the hydraulic structure is determined by Bligh’s
Theory__________________?
A. Lane
B. Darcy
C. Khosla
D. All are correct
213. A module or outlet in which discharge is fixed and
limited, irrespective fluctuations in water levels in
distributary is called _________________?
A. Modular
B. Non-modular
C. Semi-modular
D. Semi – Rigid
214. When the rate of change of discharge of outlet equals
the rate of change of discharge of the channel, the out
let is called __________________?
A. Sensitive
B. Flexible
C. Proportional
D. Non-flexible
215. When the high flood level of the drain is sufficiently
below the bed of the Canal that the drainage water
flows freely under gravity, such structure is
called___________________?
A. Aqueduct
B. Syphon-aqueduct
C. Cross-Drainage
D. Non-gravity structure
216. When FSL of the canal is sufficiently above the bed
level of drainage so that canal flows under syphonis
action, the structure is called _____________________?
A. Super passage
B. Syphon – Aqueduct
C. Canal-syphon
D. Aqueduct
217. An open cut given in a canal bank, suitably protected
by stone pitching to the upland drainage water into the
canal is called ___________________?
A. Inlet
B. Out let
C. entrance
D. Mixing
218. Mostly the salt of calcium and Magnesium can not
cause ________________?
A. Salinity
B. Alkalinity
C. Poisoning
D. Turbidity
219. The water in swimming pools can be ____________ by
using any one from the following, chlorine-ultraviolet
rays and bromine t ?
A. Disinfected
B. Infected
C. Cleaned
D. Iodized
220. A digging out of earth to make trench for any
engineering purpose is called ______________________?
A. Excavation
B. Cavitations
C. borrow pitting
D. Earth filling
221. Velocity of flow in a sewer must be form ______________ to
?
A. 1 m / sec to 3m/ sec
B. 3m / sec to 4m/ sec
C. 4m / sec to 4.5 ml sec
D. 4.5 ml sec to 5 m/ sec
222. The aeration of water is done to remove
_________________?
A. Odour
B. Smell
C. Colour
D. Taste
223. Darcy formula for loss of head in pipes is given by,
hf=4fl v2 / __________________?
A. 2gd
B. gd
C. g2d
D. gd2
224. On relative basis, when one soil is eroded as compared
to other soil under same conditions, this property is
called __________________?
A. Compact ability
B. Erodibility
C. Viscosity
D. All are correct
225. The total dissolved solids in drinking water should not
exceed_________________?
A. 1000 mg/litre
B. 1200 mg/litre
C. 1300 mg/litre
D. 1500 mg/litre
226. An open cut in the canal bank. with bed and sides to
escape canal water through a lead channel to mix
water in a nearby drain is called _____________________?
A. Inlet
B. Out let
C. Module
D. Exit
227. A structure provided when a large canal a big drainage
channel approach other practically at the same level is
called__________________?
A. Super passage
B. Level crossing
C. Canal crossing
D. Drainage crossing
228. When FSL of the canal is sufficiently below the bottom
of the drain, so that water flows freely under gravity,
such structures is called_____________________?
A. Syphon
B. Syphon – Aqueduct
C. Super-passage
D. Canal-syphon
229. The ratio of the rate of change of discharge through out
let to the rate of c./v of water level of the distributary is
called_________________?
A. Flexibility
B. Proportionally
C. Setting
D. Sensitivity
230. An outlet through which the discharge depends upon
the water level in the distributary is called
___________________?
A. Rigid module
B. Flexible module
C. Non-flexible
D. Non-modular
231. A module or outlet in which discharge depends upon
the difference of head between distributary and the
water course is called ___________________?
A. Non-modular
B. Modular
C. Semi-modular
D. Rigid module
232. A water pool is designed on the down stream of the
hydraulic structure to dissipate the energy of falling
water by providing a water cushion called
______________________?
A. Water pool
B. Cistern
C. Down stream pond
D. Water cushion
233. The water way from a weir is determined by using
Lacey’s wetted perimeter i.e. P=_______(Q)1/2 ?
A. 3.50
B. 3.75
C. 4.75
D. 5.75
234. When a weir is constructed, the downstream .bed of
the river goes on eroding and consequently causes
progressive lowering of the bed on downstream of weir
called__________________?
A. Retrogression
B. Lowering down of bed
C. Ponding on down stream
D. All are correct

235. For strong Hydraulic jump containing maximum
energy, the down stream glacis should be sloped at a
slope of ______________ to dissipate max: energy?
A. 2:1 to 2.5:1
B. 2.5:1 to 3:1
C. 3:1 to 5:1
D. 5:1 to 6
236. To avoid scouring from end of structure, it is necessary
to provide a ________________ at the exit point?
A. Vertical cutoff
B. Stone apron
C. Stone boom
D. Stone blocks
237. Now- a -days the hydraulic structures are designed.
Keeping in view the flow net, this was given by
__________________?
A. Blight
B. Khosla
C. Lane
D. Darcy
238. At the end of hydraulic structure, the upward force of
sub-soil water just becomes equal to the submerged
weight of soil grains Then exit gradient will be
called______________?
A. Submerged exit gradient
B. Critical exit gradient
C. Balanced exit gradient
D. All are correct
239. Mostly the hydraulic structures founded on ____________
soils fails because of undermining and uplift pressure?
A. Stable
B. Rocky
C. Impermeable
D. Permeable
240. The depth before the jump is always less then the
depth after the jump. The depth before the jump is
called initial depth and depth after the jump is
called_______________?
A. Afflux
B. Final depth
C. Sequent depth
D. Down stream water depth
241. The structures, which are constructed on the river bed
upstream of head regulator. With this clear water
enters in canal such structures are
called______________________?
A. Silt excluders
B. Silt ejectors
C. Vortex pipes
D. Silt control structures
242. In high floods, to avoid spilling of flood water over the
gates, a wall is provided from pond level to high Flood
level. This wall spans for the entire length of regulator,
rest on piers, sustain water pressure by its weight
called_____________________?
A. Retaining wall
B. Divide wall
C. Breast wall
D. Cantilever wall
243. A fish ladder is device by which flow energy can be
dissipated in such a manner as to provide easy access
to the downstream fish to come on upstream side, the
velocity of flow varies from___________________?
A. 2.0 – 2.5 – m/sec
B. 2.5 – 3 m/sec
C. 3.0 – 3.5 m/sec
D. 3.5 – 4.0 m/sec
244. The wall of masonry or concrete, constructed at 90° to
the axis of weir to separate normal weir from under
sluices is called____________________?
A. Divide wall
B. Retaining wall
C. Toe wall
D. All are correct
245. Silt free water should be supplied to the canals
through______________________?
A. Under sluices
B. Head sluices
C. Scouring sluices
D. Sluice gates
246. The rise in river water level at up stream due to
construction of weir is called__________________?
A. Pond level
B. HFL
C. Afflux
D. FSL
247. If the weir flood is designed continuous with divide
piers as reinforced structure,such that the weight of
divide piers, keep the structure safe against uplift, is
called__________________?
A. Non-gravity weir
B. Gravity weir
C. Sharp crested weir
D. Rectangular weir
248. The groyne pointing upwards direction of flow is called
______________________?
A. Attracting
B. Repelling
C. Impermeable
D. Permeable
249. when ever a sloping face of river bank is protected by
stone pitching against scour, the pitching is extended
beyond the toe to the river side that is
called__________________?
A. Toe wall
B. Launching apron
C. Protective wall
D. Guide bank
250. In a river the flood water dries up before it joins the
sea or any other river, such river is called
________________?
A. Flashy
B. Virgin

C. Tidal
D. Deltaic
251. A river before its joins the sea, gets divided into small
channels, thus forming a Triangular shape called
__________________?
A. Unstable river
B. Deltaic river
C. Stable river
D. Degrading river
252. If a river or stream is collecting sediment and is
building up dunes in its bed is called
______________________?
A. Stable river
B. Sub-stable river
C. Aggrading river
D. Sediment river
253. A particular flood which can occur in the basin in the
worst meteorological and hydrological conditions is
called ___________________?
A. Standard flood
B. Very high flood
C. Maximum probable flood
D. Storm water flood
254. Hydraulic structures are designed for a safe flow of
flood. The floods which are equal in designed
magnitude life of the project is called
_____________________?
A. High floods
B. Ordinary floods
C. Low floods
D. Probable flood
255. The percentage of culturable commended area,
irrigated during the year to the total culturable
commanded area on a outlet or channel is
called___________________?
A. Annual Intensity
B. Gross commended area

C. Culturable Commended area
D. Total irrigable Area
256. A cloud is formed due to condensation. it consists of a
small particle of ice an. small droplets of water, having
diameter about ___________microns?
A. 30
B. 35
C. 40
D. 45
257. The amount of moisture content present in the air,
when it is expressed as weight per unit volume is called
________________?
A. Humidity
B. Absolute Humidity
C. relative humidity
D. All are correct
258. When the air in a atmosphere is fully saturated with
the vapours present in it, then the pressure exerted by
such wet air mass will be called ____________________?
A. Vapour pressure
B. Saturation pressure
C. Partial pressure
D. Atmospheric pressure
259. The water evaporates from paddy surfaces to the
atmosphere in the form of water vapours, these water
vapours get collected in the atmosphere and behave &
like_________________?
A. Water
B. Snow
C. Ice particles
D. Gas
260. During the peak stage of river, there exist an out flow
from river into the ground water reservoir, in such
case river will be called _________________?
A. Influent stream
B. Effluent stream
C. Storm water stream
D. Seepage stream
261. To be more close to the actual field conditions, some
times artificial rain tests conducted, the instrument
used is called ___________________?
A. Infiltrometer
B. I.C. curve
C. Rain simulator
D. v Hydrometer
262. In the initial stage of rainfall, when soil moisture
available in the root zone is very low, the rate of
infiltration ?
A. Increases
B. Reduces
C. remain stagnant
D. Normal
263. The field capacity is the amount of water retained by a
saturated soil mass after being acted by gravity. The
amount of water required to bring the soil moisture
content of that soil up to field capacity is
called__________________?
A. Soil-moisture deficiency
B. Field-moisture deficiency
C. Equivalent-moisture deficiency
D. a and b are correct
264. The maximum rate at which the soil in given condition
can absorb water is called ___________________?
A. Field Capacity
B. Capillarity
C. Infiltration capacity
D. All are correct
265. The science of water which deals with the depletion
and replenishment of water resources is
called_________________?
A. Hydrology
B. Biology
C. Hydrography
D. Histology

266. The ratio between the force causing a body to slide
along a plane and the force normal to the plane is
called __________________?
A. Coefficient of friction
B. Coefficient of internal friction
C. Coefficient of resistance
D. All are correct
267. A series of vertical steps in a stream made to avoid soil
scouring is called ___________________?
A. Levees
B. Embankment
C. Cascades
D. Banks
268. Water logging and soil salinization is a twin menace
which has effected the agriculture sector severely,
about _______________ hectares of land are wasted yearly?
A. 30,000
B. 35,000
C. 40,000
D. 45,000
269. The process to dilute the available salts from root Zone
by providing simply canal water is known as
__________________?
A. Reclamation
B. Leaching
C. Recultivation
D. de-salting
270. The run-off from catchment areas, Roads, buildings
and other fallow lands is called ____________________?
A. Rain water
B. Surface run-off
C. Storm water
D. Dry weather flow
271. Water logging caused by ____________ water, which during
excessive irrigation percolates down and join under
ground water table?
A. Capillary
B. Hygroscopic
C. Gravity
D. Free
272. For an economical design of gravity dam, the shear
friction factor causec compression strength should lie
between____________________?
A. 1.5 to 4.0
B. 2.0 to 4.0
C. 2.5 to 4.5
D. 3 to 5
273. It is important to keep the saturation gradient line
within the body of a embankment of canal, the
saturation gradient line in loomy soils lie
at___________________?
A. 1:2 to 1:4
B. 1:3 to 1:5
C. 1:4 to 1:6
D. 1:5 to 1:7
274. The counter berm for a canal is provided so as to
contain the saturation gradient line _____________ the
bank?
A. Out of
B. Within
C. Above
D. Below
275. A spoil bank is formed when the volume of excavated
soil is _________________ of embankment filling?
A. Less than
B. Excess
C. Equal to
D. Not required
276. The sheet or small layer of water flowing over an ogee
spillway is called _________________?
A. Thin layer
B. Nappe
C. Water sheet
D. Water spillway
277. In ogee spillway the discharge is directly proportional
to _______________________?
A. H1/2
B. H1/3
C. H3/2
D. H1/4
278. The _________ analysis of earth dam foundation against
shear must be carried out when the foundation is kept
on fine loose cohesion less material?
A. Stability
B. Suitability
C. Overturning
D. Failure
279. Onion is a ___________ rooted crop?
A. Shallow
B. Deep
C. Non-rooted
D. Spread
280. To pack with clay material generally for the purpose of
checking leakage of water is called __________________?
A. Pug
B. Cohesive
C. Seal
D. Repair
281. The significant damage to crop generally occurs when
capillary meniscus reaches permanent wilting point
known as _______________?
A. Unavailable moisture
B. Hygroscopic moisture
C. Equivalent moisture
D. A and B
282. The level above the or below the sea level which is also
called zero level or datum is called ___________________?
A. Reduce level
B. Positive level
C. Soil level
D. Negative level
283. The force with which the particles of same body are
held together is called_______________?

A. Cohesion
B. Adhesion
C. Surface tension
D. All are correct
284. The force with which the distinct bodies held together
when their surfaces are brought in contact to each
other is called _________________?
A. Adhesion
B. Cohesion
C. Surface tension
D. All are correct
285. The losses of irrigation water due to the seepage but
That. does not join the under ground reservoir is called
__________________?
A. Seepage losses
B. Absorption losses
C. Evaporation losses
D. Percolation losses
286. Those crops which increase the nitrogen content of the
soil and hence the fertility also are called
___________________?
A. Leguminous crops
B. Cash crops
C. Fodder
D. Food crops
287. The value of coefficient of discharge in comparison to
cofficient of velocity is found to be ____________________?
A. Lesser
B. More
C. Equal
D. Zero

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Agricultural 2606 +MCQS

1. Agricultural (Agronomy) MCQs 1-60 296

Agricultural (Animal husbandry)

3. Agricultural (Economics) MCQs 88-130 218

4. Agricultural (Entomology) MCQs 131-169 243

Agricultural (Food Technology)

6. Agricultural (Horticulture) MCQs 202-251 314

Agricultural (Plant Breeding and

Agricultural (Plant Pathology)

9. Agricultural (Soil Science) MCQs 337-417 447

Agricultural (Water Management)

Total MCQs 2606

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