Administrative Assistance

1. As an administrative professional, what is one of the most crucial roles you play?
A) Handling finances
B) Maintaining confidentiality
C) Managing emails
D) Organizing meetings
Correct Answer: B) Maintaining confidentiality

2. How can administrative professionals enhance their professionalism?

A) By gossiping with colleagues
B) By dressing casually in meetings
C) By being aware of their behavior and communication
D) By avoiding interaction with executives
Correct Answer: C) By being aware of their behavior and communication

3. What is an essential quality for administrative professionals when representing their

executives in meetings?
A) Being quiet and passive
B) Expressing personal opinions
C) Showing professionalism and confidence
D) Focusing on personal interests
Correct Answer: C) Showing professionalism and confidence

4. What should administrative professionals do when handling confidential information?

A) Share it with trusted colleagues
B) Keep it private and secure
C) Discuss it openly in meetings
D) Post it on social media platforms
Correct Answer: B) Keep it private and secure
5. How should administrative professionals handle inquiries from colleagues about
confidential matters?
A) Share the information freely
B) Politely decline to discuss it
C) Gossip about it discreetly
D) Redirect them to another department
Correct Answer: B) Politely decline to discuss it

6. What is one key aspect of working effectively in a team as an administrative professional?

A) Participating in office gossip
B) Focusing solely on individual tasks
C) Maintaining open communication
D) Ignoring colleagues' weaknesses
Correct Answer: C) Maintaining open communication

7. How can administrative professionals best utilize their team members' strengths?
A) By assigning tasks randomly
B) By ignoring individual strengths
C) By playing to each member's strengths
D) By focusing solely on their weaknesses
Correct Answer: C) By playing to each member's strengths

8. What should administrative professionals do if they assign a critical project to a team

member?
A) Provide minimal support
B) Set them up for failure
C) Ensure they have the necessary skills
D) Ignore their progress
Correct Answer: C) Ensure they have the necessary skills

9. How can administrative professionals contribute to their team members' success?

 A) By ignoring their progress
B) By acting as a mentor
C) By creating a competitive environment
D) By withholding information
Correct Answer: B) By acting as a mentor

10. What is an important consideration when managing emails as an administrative

professional?
A) Reading only urgent emails
B) Ignoring flagged emails
C) Deleting all emails without reading them
D) Having a systematic approach
Correct Answer: D) Having a systematic approach

11. Why is confidentiality crucial for administrative professionals?

A) To spread rumors within the organization
B) To maintain trust and integrity
C) To gain popularity among colleagues
D) To increase social media presence
Correct Answer: B) To maintain trust and integrity

12. What is the significance of professionalism for administrative professionals?

A) It helps in spreading office gossip effectively
B) It ensures exclusion from important meetings
C) It reflects positively on the executive
D) It encourages casual attire in the workplace
Correct Answer: C) It reflects positively on the executive

13. How can administrative professionals best support their executives in meetings?
A) By avoiding participation
B) By showing a lack of interest
 C) By maintaining professionalism and confidence
D) By being overly critical
Correct Answer: C) By maintaining professionalism and confidence

14. What is the role of administrative professionals when it comes to handling financial data?
A) Sharing it with everyone in the company
B) Keeping it confidential and secure
C) Posting it on social media platforms
D) Discussing it openly in meetings
Correct Answer: B) Keeping it confidential and secure

15. How should administrative professionals respond to inquiries from colleagues about
confidential matters?
A) By sharing the information freely
B) By redirecting them to their direct supervisor
C) By discussing it openly in meetings
D) By ignoring their queries
Correct Answer: B) By redirecting them to their direct supervisor

16. What is one key aspect of effective teamwork for administrative professionals?
A) Gossiping about colleagues' weaknesses
B) Avoiding communication with team members
C) Playing to each team member's strengths
D) Focusing solely on individual tasks
Correct Answer: C) Playing to each team member's strengths

17. How can administrative professionals contribute to their team members' growth?
A) By withholding information
B) By creating a competitive environment
C) By acting as a mentor
D) By ignoring their colleagues' progress
 Correct Answer: C) By acting as a mentor

18. What should administrative professionals do when assigning critical projects to team
members?
A) Provide minimal support
B) Set them up for failure
C) Ensure they have the necessary skills
D) Ignore their progress
Correct Answer: C) Ensure they have the necessary skills

19. Why is maintaining open communication crucial for administrative professionals working
in a team?
A) To create a competitive environment
B) To spread office gossip effectively
C) To ensure all projects are completed on time
D) To increase social media presence
Correct Answer: C) To ensure all projects are completed on time

20. What is one benefit of having a systematic approach to email management for
administrative professionals?
A) It increases the clutter in the executive's inbox
B) It encourages ignoring urgent emails
C) It helps in maintaining a clear and organized workflow
D) It promotes sharing confidential information with colleagues
Correct Answer: C) It helps in maintaining a clear and organized workflow

Business Analysis
1. What is business analysis (BA)?
A. Identifying and understanding business needs and providing solutions to enable change.
B. Analyzing historical business data.
C. Implementing project management techniques.
D. Developing marketing strategies.
 Answer: A. Identifying and understanding business needs and providing solutions to enable
change.

2. How does the International Institute of Business Analysis (IIBA) define business analysis?
A. The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to determine problems and
identify business needs.
B. The practice of enabling change in the context of an enterprise by defining needs and
recommending solutions that deliver value to stakeholders.
C. The process of analyzing financial statements to evaluate company performance.
D. The management of project teams to achieve project objectives.

Answer: B. The practice of enabling change in the context of an enterprise by defining needs
and recommending solutions that deliver value to stakeholders.

3. what are business analysts constantly doing?

A. Developing marketing campaigns.
B. Observing and questioning.
C. Managing financial resources.
D. Implementing technological solutions.

Answer: B. Observing and questioning.

4. What is emphasized in the Project Management Institute's (PMI) definition of business

analysis?
A. Supporting strategic direction.
B. Facilitating team communication.
C. Managing human resources.
D. Implementing quality control measures.

Answer: A. Supporting strategic direction.

5. What is the role of a business analyst primarily focused on?
A. Implementing organizational policies.
B. Crafting strategic objectives.
C. Understanding current needs and helping achieve organizational goals.
D. Managing financial assets.

Answer: C. Understanding current needs and helping achieve organizational goals.

6. What are the three categories of business needs?

A. Solutions, improvements, and opportunities.
B. Problems, opportunities, and compliance requirements.
C. Marketing, sales, and operations.
D. Financial, human resources, and technology.

Answer: B. Problems, opportunities, and compliance requirements.

7. How should a business analyst avoid falling into a state of analysis paralysis?
A. By conducting extensive research without generating a recommendation.
B. By involving stakeholders in decisionmaking processes.
C. By understanding the vision of the future state and determining gaps.
D. By continuously asking why until reaching the root cause of a problem.

Answer: C. By understanding the vision of the future state and determining gaps.

8. What is the purpose of a situation statement?

A. To outline the steps of a process.
B. To define the impact of a problem or opportunity on the organization.
C. To identify stakeholders involved in a project.
D. To document the financial resources required for a solution.

Answer: B. To define the impact of a problem or opportunity on the organization.

9. How are requirements analyzed from the perspective of nouns and verbs?
A. By conducting market research.
B. By identifying key stakeholders.
C. By using process modeling for verbs and data modeling for nouns.
D. By implementing technological solutions.

Answer: C. By using process modeling for verbs and data modeling for nouns.

10. What is the purpose of a Transition Plan?

A. To determine the financial feasibility of a project.
B. To prioritize project tasks.
C. To facilitate the successful implementation of the product, service, or end result.
D. To develop marketing strategies.

Answer: C. To facilitate the successful implementation of the product, service, or end result.

11. What is a risky approach to project transition planning mentioned in the transcript?
A. Incremental deployment.
B. Pilot programming.
C. Full deployment in a test market.
D. The Big Bang approach.

Answer: D. The Big Bang approach.

12. What is the role of a business analyst during solution implementation planning?
A. Conducting market research.
B. Providing ongoing support and tracking the results of changes made.
C. Managing project timelines.
D. Developing product prototypes.
 Answer: B. Providing ongoing support and tracking the results of changes made.

13. Who are stakeholders?

A. Individuals involved in project management.
B. External consultants hired for project implementation.
C. Any individual, group, or organization affected by or impacting a decision, activity, or
outcome of a project.
D. Regulatory authorities overseeing project compliance.

Answer: C. Any individual, group, or organization affected by or impacting a decision,

activity, or outcome of a project.

14. What is the primary responsibility of a business analyst regarding stakeholders?

A. Managing stakeholder conflicts.
B. Identifying and anticipating the impact stakeholders may have on the project.
C. Ensuring stakeholder compliance with project objectives.
D. Conducting stakeholder satisfaction surveys.

Answer: B. Identifying and anticipating the impact stakeholders may have on the project.

15. What techniques are used to model business requirements from the perspective of nouns
and verbs?
A. Process modeling and data modeling.
B. Financial modeling and forecasting.
C. Risk assessment and mitigation.
D. Marketing research and analysis.

Answer: A. Process modeling and data modeling.

16. What is the purpose of a Solution Statement?

A. To identify the roles and responsibilities of project team members.
B. To provide a highlevel definition of the areas to be included in the project scope.
 C. To document the financial resources required for project implementation.
D. To recommend the most viable option to meet the identified need.

Answer: D. To recommend the most viable option to meet the identified need.

17. What is the primary focus of the course "Business Analysis"?

A) Learning about marketing strategies
B) Understanding customer needs
C) Exploring financial analysis techniques
D) Analyzing project management methodologies
Correct Answer: B) Understanding customer needs

18. what is the significance of developing analysis skills?

A) It increases office productivity
B) It brings clarity to decision-making
C) It enhances social media presence
D) It promotes organizational hierarchy
Correct Answer: B) It brings clarity to decision-making

19. What was the profession known as before it became recognized as "business analysis"?
A) Requirement engineering
B) Technical consulting
C) Financial analysis
D) Marketing research
Correct Answer: A) Requirement engineering

20. In which decade did business analysis start to formalize as a profession?

A) 1960s
B) 1970s
C) 1980s
D) 2000s
 Correct Answer: D) 2000s

21. What are the core competencies that enable better performance in business analysis
tasks?
A) Programming and coding skills
B) Writing and editing proficiency
C) Facilitation, problem solving, negotiation, industry, and organizational knowledge
D) Graphic design and multimedia expertise
Correct Answer: C) Facilitation, problemsolving, negotiation, industry, and organizational
knowledge

22. What should be prioritized before jumping into finding a solution for company A's new
service?
A) Quick implementation of a solution
B) Proper research and analysis
C) Collaborative brainstorming sessions
D) Direct communication with stakeholders
Correct Answer: B) Proper research and analysis

23. How does professionals from various industries can enter the field of business analysis?
A) By completing a degree in business administration
B) By acquiring certifications in information technology
C) By transitioning from existing positions within the business
D) By starting their careers directly in business analysis
Correct Answer: C) By transitioning from existing positions within the business

24. What advantage do professionals transitioning from information technology roles bring to
the business analysis position?
A) Strong communication skills
B) Extensive product knowledge
C) Proficiency in graphic design
D) Expertise in financial analysis
 Correct Answer: B) Extensive product knowledge

25. What career path for young professionals interested in business analysis?
A) Pursuing a degree in computer science
B) Starting as entrylevel analysts and assisting senior analysts
C) Becoming certified project managers
D) Transitioning from marketing roles
Correct Answer: B) Starting as entrylevel analysts and assisting senior analysts

26. Why should professionals from various fields learn about business analysis?
A) To increase their social media following
B) To advance their careers in business administration
C) To make betterinformed business decisions
D) To expand their knowledge of graphic design
Correct Answer: C) To make betterinformed business decisions

Career Essentials in Cybersecurity

Question 1:

What does cybersecurity encompass according to Digital Guardian?

a) Protection of physical assets

b) Protection of tangible goods

c) Protection of networks, devices, programs, and data from attack, damage, or unauthorized access

d) Protection of financial assets

Answer:

c) Protection of networks, devices, programs, and data from attack, damage, or unauthorized access

Question 2:
Which term refers to a person or group operating within a business environment and typically
associated with a username, login name, or screen name?

a) Cybercriminal

b) User

c) Security champion

d) White hat hacker

Answer:

b) User

Question 3:

What is the role of a CISO in a security organization?

a) Leading the development of software applications

b) Managing physical security measures

c) Overseeing logical and technological security positions and areas of focus

d) Conducting social engineering simulations

Answer:

c) Overseeing logical and technological security positions and areas of focus

Question 4:

What is the primary goal of a security awareness program within an organization?

a) To identify vulnerabilities in the company's network

b) To create a riskaverse culture among employees

c) To develop advanced cybersecurity technologies

d) To conduct penetration tests

Answer:

b) To create a riskaverse culture among employees

Question 5:

What is the main responsibility of a security champion within a company?

a) Conducting security audits

b) Attacking the company's network

c) Creating a more secure environment and developing a twoway pipeline between security and
other groups

d) Defending the company's network

Answer:

c) Creating a more secure environment and developing a twoway pipeline between security and
other groups

Question 6:

What is the purpose of a red team in cybersecurity?

a) To defend the company's network

b) To conduct security audits

c) To attack and find vulnerabilities in areas susceptible to attack

d) To develop security policies

Answer:

c) To attack and find vulnerabilities in areas susceptible to attack

Question 7:

What is the primary responsibility of the blue team in cybersecurity?

a) Attacking the company's network

b) Defending the company's network

c) Conducting security awareness training

d) Developing security policies

Answer:
b) Defending the company's network

Question 8:

What is the purpose of a purple team in cybersecurity?

a) Conducting social engineering simulations

b) Attacking the company's network

c) Defending the company's network

d) Combining the efforts of red and blue teams to share findings and strengthen security tactics

Answer:

d) Combining the efforts of red and blue teams to share findings and strengthen security tactics

Question 9:
Which term describes an individual conducting malicious behavior via computers, networks, and the
internet?

a) Cybercriminal

b) White hat hacker

c) Security champion

d) Security ambassador

Answer:

a) Cybercriminal

Question 10:

What is the primary intent of a white hat hacker?

a) To exploit vulnerabilities for personal gain

b) To conduct attacks on company networks

c) To find vulnerabilities and report them to be fixed

d) To disrupt network services

Answer:

c) To find vulnerabilities and report them to be fixed

Question 11:

What is the term used for freedom from or protection of information in cybersecurity?

a) Data encryption

b) Malware protection

c) Privacy

d) Authorization

Answer:

c) Privacy

Question 12:

What is personally identifiable information (PII) primarily used for?

a) Identifying companies

b) Identifying individuals

c) Identifying security vulnerabilities

d) Identifying network assets

Answer:

b) Identifying individuals

Question 13:

Which model within cybersecurity focuses on confidentiality, integrity, and availability?

a) CIA model

b) FBI model

c) CSI model

d) NSA model
Answer:

a) CIA model

Question 14:

What is the main purpose of conducting a security audit?

a) To attack the company's network

b) To test the implementation of security documentation

c) To develop security policies

d) To identify security champions

Answer:

b) To test the implementation of security documentation

Question 15:

What is the term used for a group of computers or internet connected devices controlled to perform
malicious acts?

a) Botnet

b) Ransomware

c) Malware

d) Phishing

Answer:

a) Botnet

Question 16:

What is the concept introduced by the Lockheed Martin Cyber Emergency Response Team in their
seminal paper?

a) Cybersecurity Framework

b) Cyber Kill Chain

c) NIST Cybersecurity Framework

d) Cyber Norms
Answer:

b) Cyber Kill Chain

Question 17:

How many stages are there in the Cyber Kill Chain?

a) Five

b) Six

c) Seven

d) Eight

Answer:

c) Seven

Question 19:

Which phase of the Cyber Kill Chain involves customizing a known vulnerability for a specific target?

a) Reconnaissance

b) Weaponization

c) Delivery

d) Exploitation

Answer:

b) Weaponization

Question 20:

What is the primary purpose of the NIST Cybersecurity Framework?

a) To introduce a set of new controls for cybersecurity

b) To provide a standardized framework for cybersecurity

c) To develop custom malware for targeted attacks

d) To simulate cyber attacks

Answer:

b) To provide a standardized framework for cybersecurity

Question 21:

Which organization issued the framework for improving critical infrastructure cybersecurity?

a) CIA

b) NSA

c) NIST

d) FBI

Answer:

c) NIST

Question 22:

What is the primary focus of the ISF Standard of Good Practice?

a) Financial transactions

b) Supply chain management

c) Managing cybersecurity risks

d) Quality assurance

Answer:

c) Managing cybersecurity risks

Question 23:

Which organization manages the United Nations Cyber Norms?

a) UNODA

b) WHO

c) NATO

d) INTERPOL

Answer:

a) UNODA

Question 24:

What is the fifth cyber norm proposed by the United Nations?

a) Cooperation between states

b) A duty of care over incidents

c) Respecting human rights online

d) Protecting critical infrastructure

Answer:

c) Respecting human rights online

Question 25:

What is the tenth cyber norm proposed by the United Nations?

a) Sharing vulnerability information

b) Protecting the supply chain

c) Not supporting malicious cyber activities

d) Respecting the systems of other nations' CERTs

Answer:

a) Sharing vulnerability information

Career Essentials in generative AI

1. What is one of the key similarities between the advent of generative AI and the invention
of photography and celluloid film?
A. They both revolutionized the creative process.
B. They both eliminated the need for human creativity.
C. They both relied on human interpretation.
D. They both focused on realistic representations.
Answer: A. They both revolutionized the creative process.

2. According to the transcript, what is the main emphasis of using generative AI in various
professions?
A. To replace human creativity.
B. To automate all tasks.
C. To enhance human creativity and focus on more strategic activities.
D. To eliminate human involvement.
Answer: C. To enhance human creativity and focus on more strategic activities.

. How does Variational Autoencoders (VAE) contribute to anomaly detection?

A. By training the model to identify normal data instances.
B. By generating synthetic fraudulent transactions.
C. By detecting network intrusions in realtime.
D. By predicting which patients are at risk of sepsis.
Answer: A. By training the model to identify normal data instances.

4. What is the main function of the Discriminator in a Generative Adversarial Network (GAN)?
A. To generate realistic data.
B. To evaluate the quality of generated data.
C. To identify anomalies in the data.
D. To train the generator on normal data.
Answer: B. To evaluate the quality of generated data.

5. How does the transcript describe the role of a business leader using generative AI models?
A. They directly write the generative AI code.
B. They purchase premade generative AI models.
C. They have no involvement in the generative AI process.
D. They solely focus on technical aspects of AI development.
Answer: B. They purchase premade generative AI models.

6. What are the three main functions of a traditional search engine?

A) Browsing, categorizing, and responding
B) Crawling, indexing, and ranking
C) Analyzing, organizing, and presenting
D) Inputting, processing, and outputting
Answer: B) Crawling, indexing, and ranking

7. How does a reasoning engine differ from a traditional search engine?

A) A reasoning engine only provides webpages for reading.
B) A reasoning engine does not understand human queries.
C) A reasoning engine engages in conversations and provides direct relevant responses.
D) A reasoning engine ranks search results linearly.
Answer: C) A reasoning engine engages in conversations and provides direct relevant
responses.

8. What is a potential disadvantage of reasoning engines mentioned in the transcript?

A) They are unable to provide accurate results.
B) They rely too heavily on human input.
C) They tend to prioritize popular sources over authoritative ones.
D) They may produce content that sounds convincing but is incorrect.
 Answer: D) They may produce content that sounds convincing but is incorrect.

9. What does the future of online search engines suggest?

A) Traditional search engines will become obsolete.
B) Reasoning engines will replace traditional search engines entirely.
C) Future search engines will combine the functionalities of traditional and reasoning
engines.
D) Reasoning engines will continue to evolve independently from traditional search engines.
Answer: C) Future search engines will combine the functionalities of traditional and
reasoning engines.

10. What is emphasized as an important skill when working with reasoning engines?
A) Typing speed
B) Prompt engineering
C) Programming
D) Web development
Answer: B) Prompt engineering
11. What is the main purpose of crawling in the functioning of a search engine?
A) To analyse webpage content
B) To organize webpage information
C) To discover and update webpages
D) To rank search results
Answer: C) To discover and update webpages

12. How does a traditional search engine rank search results?

A) Based on alphabetical order
B) Based on the number of keywords matched
C) Based on the relevance, popularity, and authority of webpages
D) Based on the length of the webpage content
Answer: C) Based on the relevance, popularity, and authority of webpages
13. What analogy is used to describe the skill of prompt engineering?
A) Cooking
B) Painting
C) Gardening
D) Writing
Answer: B) Painting

14. What tip is provided for improving the quality of reasoning engine responses?
A) Using vague language
B) Providing clear examples and context in prompts
C) Avoiding experimentation
D) Keeping prompts short and simple
Answer: B) Providing clear examples and context in prompts

15. What suggestion is made for users when using reasoning engines?
A) Rely solely on the engine's output without verification
B) Continuously train and monitor the output of the model over time
C) Hide the fact that reasoning engines were used
D) Stick to one type of prompt to avoid confusion
Answer: B) Continuously train and monitor the output of the model over time

16. How does the transcript describe the relationship between traditional search engines and
reasoning engines in the future?
A) They will remain separate and distinct tools.
B) They will compete against each other for dominance in the market.
C) They will be integrated to provide more comprehensive search results.
D) They will become obsolete with the advent of newer technology.
Answer: C) They will be integrated to provide more comprehensive search results.

17. What term is used to describe the ongoing process of refining prompts to get better results
from reasoning engines?
 A) Prompt synthesis
B) Prompt analysis
C) Prompt iteration
D) Prompt optimization
Answer: C) Prompt iteration

18. What is highlighted as an important factor in developing good prompt engineering skills?
A) Consistency in prompt length
B) Practice and experimentation
C) Avoiding detailed instructions
D) Relying solely on predefined templates
Answer: B) Practice and experimentation

19. What analogy is made regarding the development of appropriate prompts?

A) Sculpting
B) Writing poetry
C) Playing music
D) Crafting a recipe
Answer: A) Sculpting

20. What is emphasized as a critical aspect of using reasoning engines responsibly?

A) Concealing the use of reasoning engines
B) Continuously training and refining the model
C) Experimenting with different prompt styles
D) Applying appropriate guardrails and transparency
Answer: D) Applying appropriate guardrails and transparency

21.What did John Searle propose as two types of artificial intelligence?

a) Strong AI and weak AI

b) Expert systems and symbolic systems
c) Machine learning and neural networks
d) Searching for patterns and natural language processing

Answer:
a) Strong AI and weak AI

Question 22:
What approach did computer scientists adopt when they realized that programming
intelligence directly was too complex?

a) Expert systems
b) Symbolic systems
c) Machine learning
d) Weak AI

Answer:
c) Machine learning

Question 23:
How did Arthur Samuel's checkers program learn to play better?

a) By observing humans play

b) By reading books on strategy
c) By playing against itself
d) By analyzing expert moves

Answer:
c) By playing against itself

Question 24:
What is the primary advantage of artificial neural networks in machine learning?

a) They require less computational power

b) They rely on expert knowledge for decisionmaking
c) They can train themselves to recognize patterns
d) They are not affected by the amount of available data

Answer:
c) They can train themselves to recognize patterns

Question 25:
What does natural language processing enable machines to do?

a) Communicate with each other

b) Translate languages accurately
c) Understand and respond to human language
d) Analyze patterns in written text
Answer:
c) Understand and respond to human language

Question 26:
Which algorithm is commonly used for multiclass classification by comparing new data to
existing data?
a) Euclidean distance
b) Symbolic systems
c) Knearest neighbor
d) Kmeans clustering

Answer:
c) Knearest neighbor

Question 27:
What distinguishes strong AI from weak AI according to John Searle?
a) Strong AI displays humanlike emotions and creativity, while weak AI is confined to narrow
tasks.
b) Strong AI relies on expert knowledge, while weak AI learns from experience.
c) Strong AI is capable of selfimprovement, while weak AI requires constant human
intervention.
d) Strong AI exhibits behavior indistinguishable from that of a human, while weak AI performs
specific tasks without humanlike characteristics.

Answer:
d) Strong AI exhibits behavior indistinguishable from that of a human, while weak AI performs
specific tasks without humanlike characteristics.
Question 28:
How did early AI systems, such as expert systems, attempt to solve complex problems?
a) By mimicking human decisionmaking processes
b) By learning from vast amounts of data
c) By employing symbolic logic and rules created by experts
d) By using neural networks to identify patterns

Answer:
c) By employing symbolic logic and rules created by experts

Question 29:
What was the major downside of early machine learning systems in the 1950s?
a) Lack of computational power
b) Insufficient availability of digital data
c) Inability to adapt to new information
d) Limited capacity to identify complex patterns

Answer:
b) Insufficient availability of digital data

Question 30:
What was the turning point for machine learning in the 1990s?
a) Introduction of artificial neural networks
b) Discovery of advanced algorithms for data analysis
c) Explosion of digital data with the growth of the internet
d) Development of quantum computing technology

Answer:
c) Explosion of digital data with the growth of the internet

Question 31:
What is one of the main challenges associated with artificial neural networks?
a) They require human intervention for training.
b) They lack the ability to recognize patterns.
c) They operate as black boxes, making it difficult to understand their decisionmaking process.
d) They are limited in their capacity to process large datasets.

Answer:
c) They operate as black boxes, making it difficult to understand their decisionmaking process.

Question 32:
How does natural language processing contribute to better communication with machines?
a) By translating languages accurately
b) By allowing machines to communicate with each other
c) By enabling interaction with machines using human language
d) By improving the speed of data transmission

Answer:
c) By enabling interaction with machines using human language

Question 33:
What is the primary goal of Kmeans clustering in machine learning?
a) Classifying data based on similarity to known categories
b) Recognizing patterns in unstructured data
c) Predicting future outcomes based on historical data
d) Training machines to process natural language

Answer:
a) Classifying data based on similarity to known categories

Question 34:
In what way does artificial intelligence differ from human intelligence according to the
transcript?
a) AI systems lack creativity and emotional understanding.
b) Humans and AI systems undergo the same learning process.
c) AI systems rely solely on logical reasoning, while humans employ emotions and intuition.
d) AI systems process data differently from humans, even if they reach similar conclusions.

Answer:
d) AI systems process data differently from humans, even if they reach similar conclusions.

Question 35:
How does the transcript characterize the value of data in machine learning?
a) Data is essential for training AI systems but does not significantly impact their performance.
b) The value of data has decreased with the rise of AI technologies.
c) Data allows AI systems to learn and improve their performance over time.
d) AI systems can operate effectively without access to large volumes of data.

Answer:
b) Data allows AI systems to learn and improve their performance over time.

Data Analysis
1. What does it mean to be data literate?
A. Being able to read data but not understand it
B. Having the ability to read, converse, and understand data
C. Being fluent in multiple languages
D. Understanding complex mathematical models

Answer: B. Having the ability to read, converse, and understand data

2. What is the difference between data literacy and data fluency?

A. Data literacy is about basic understanding, while data fluency involves creating insights and
skills beyond basic understanding
B. Data literacy focuses on creating insights, while data fluency is about basic understanding
C. There is no difference between data literacy and data fluency
D. Data literacy involves creating insights, while data fluency focuses on basic understanding

Answer: A. Data literacy is about basic understanding, while data fluency involves creating
insights and skills beyond basic understanding

3. What does data fluency allow you to do with your banking data?
A. Analyse the security protocols of your bank
B. Turn banking data into insights for budgeting and finance tracking
C. Speak multiple languages fluently
D. Calculate interest rates accurately

Answer: B. Turn banking data into insights for budgeting and finance tracking

4. What is data governance?

A. A framework for creating solid quality data, enabling accountability, and providing
transparency to data in an organization
B. A method for encrypting sensitive data
C. A tool for analysing large datasets
D. A software for managing databases

Answer: A. A framework for creating solid quality data, enabling accountability, and providing
transparency to data in an organization

5. What is one of the components of data governance that directly impacts data analysts?
A. Master data management
B. Data visualization
C. Statistical analysis
D. Machine learning

Answer: A. Master data management

6. What are the four major hallmarks of quality data?

A. Clarity, brevity, relevance, accuracy
B. Complete, consistent, valid, and accurate
C. Accessible, secure, scalable, reliable
D. Complex, diverse, comprehensive, detailed

Answer: B. Complete, consistent, valid, and accurate

7. What does BI stand for?

A. Business Integration
B. Business Investment
C. Business Intelligence
D. Business Interpretation

Answer: C. Business Intelligence

8. How does business intelligence help in making informed decisions?

A. By providing random data points
B. By analysing trends and providing insights
C. By guessing potential outcomes
D. By restricting access to data

Answer: B. By analysing trends and providing insights

9. How are business analytics and BI different?

A. They are the same thing
B. Business analytics focuses on current performance, while BI predicts future outcomes
C. BI focuses on current performance, while business analytics predicts future outcomes
D. Both focus on predicting future outcomes

Answer: C. BI focuses on current performance, while business analytics predicts future

outcomes

10. What is a common problem associated with overthinking data related problems?
A. Analysis clarity
B. Analysis paralysis
C. Data visualization
D. Technical difficulties

Answer: B. Analysis paralysis

11. What are some common questions to ask for every data related project?
A. How many employees are there in the organization?
B. Have the products ever been profitable? What has changed?
C. What colour is the company logo?
D. How many emails were sent last month?

Answer: B. Have the products ever been profitable? What has changed?
12. What is the purpose of data warehouses?
A. To store unstructured data
B. To provide Realtime data analysis
C. To store refined tables from production systems for reporting purposes
D. To encrypt sensitive data

Answer: C. To store refined tables from production systems for reporting purposes

13. Why is it important for data analysts to understand the rules around the data they are
working with?
A. To make the data more complex
B. To confuse other team members
C. To ensure data accuracy and compliance
D. To slow down the analysis process

Answer: C. To ensure data accuracy and compliance

14. What is the purpose of transforming data in Excel with Power Query?
Options:
A) To create functions in Excel
B) To perform calculations with functions
C) To perform transformations without creating functions
D) To build complex formulas
Answer: C) To perform transformations without creating functions

15. How can you transform a column to uppercase in Power Query?

Options:
A) By using custom functions
B) By using the UPPER () function
C) By using the Transform feature
D) By using conditional formatting
 Answer: C) By using the Transform feature

16. How can you calculate the transaction year from a date column in Power Query?
Options:
A) By using the YEAR () function
B) By creating a custom column
C) By using the Split Column feature
D) By using conditional formatting
Answer: B) By creating a custom column

17. What does an inner join do in SQL?

Options:
A) Returns all rows from both tables
B) Returns only matching rows from both tables
C) Returns all rows from the left table and matching rows from the right table
D) Returns all rows from the right table and matching rows from the left table
Answer: B) Returns only matching rows from both tables

18. How can you remove leading or trailing spaces from a text field?
Options:
A) By using the TRIM () function
B) By using the CLEAN () function
C) By using the CONCATENATE () function
D) By using the REPLACE () function
Answer: A) By using the TRIM () function

19. What is the purpose of wireframing in visualization design?

Options:
A) To add final graphics to the dashboard
B) To communicate navigation of information
C) To determine the right visual for the data
 D) To produce mock-ups of the dashboard
Answer: B) To communicate navigation of information

20. When should paginated reports be used instead of dashboards?

Options:
A) When data is best consumed using a dashboard
B) When data is consumed via PDF or printed format
C) When data is best consumed using a paginated report
D) When data is dynamic and interactive
Answer: B) When data is consumed via PDF or printed format

21. What distinguishes a data analyst from a data worker?

Options:
A) Understanding of data governance plan
B) Ability to write SQL statements
C) Access to database tables and views
D) Ability to perform basic statistical analysis
Answer: A) Understanding of data governance plan

22. What is the main task of a data engineer?

Options:
A) Performing data analysis tasks
B) Designing databases
C) Refining and building data sets
D) Writing SQL queries
Answer: C) Refining and building data sets

23. How can data be transformed from a production system to a data warehouse?
Options:
A) Using ETL (Extract, Transform, Load)
B) Using SQL queries
 C) Using Power Query
D) Using ELT (Extract, Load, Transform)
Answer: A) Using ETL (Extract, Transform, Load)

Foundations of Communication

1. What are the four building blocks of successful communication?

a. Words, tone, context, and body language

b. People, message, context, and effective listening

c. Email, phone call, face-to-face conversation, and memo

d. Sender, receiver, channel, and feedback

2. Why is it important to consider the four building blocks before communicating?

a. It's a common practice

b. They are mentioned in the transcript

c. Research shows they are crucial for success

d. It's a requirement for the course

3. In the People building block, what does emphasized when communicating with others?

a. Sender's perspective

b. Receiver's perspective

c. Personal assumptions

d. Organizational patterns

4. How to manage perceptions when communicating with others?

a. By ignoring mental filters

b. By adjusting original wording based on feedback

c. By avoiding communication choices

d. By being assertive and direct

5. What does the Message building block include, besides the words spoken or written?

a. Nonverbal signals, tone of voice, and channel used

b. Channel used and organizational patterns

c. Sender's perspective and mental filters

d. Listening skills and feedback

6. According to the Radicati Group's findings, what is the preferred mode of communication in the
workplace worldwide?

a. Face-to-face conversation

b. Phone call

c. Email

d. Memo

7. How much of our working time is dedicated to listening, according to the U.S. Department of Labor?

a. 25%

b. 35%

c. 45%

d. 55%

8. What separates good communicators from amazing ones?

a. Tone of voice

b. Mental filters

c. Listening skills

d. Channel used

9. What does empathetic listening involve?

a. Summarizing information

b. Using reaffirming nonverbals

c. Putting yourself in the other person's shoes

d. Listening with your eyes

10. When does listening with your heart occur?

a. In every conversation

b. In specific situations

c. Only in face-to-face settings

d. During formal presentations

11. What is the main focus of the course "Foundations of Communication"?

- a) Effective note-taking

- b) Building trust in conversations

- c) Self-awareness and communication

- d) Body language interpretation

Answer: c) Self-awareness and communication

12. Who is the author of the book "Listen Like You Mean It: Reclaiming the Lost Art of True
Conversation"?

- a) Ryan

- b) Ximena Vengoechea

- c) Susan Orlean

- d) Chris

Answer: b) Ximena Vengoechea

13. According to the transcript, what are the three essential elements of presence in a conversation?

- a) Awareness, trust, and empathy

- b) Trust, patience, and self-regulation

- c) Self-awareness, trust, and patience

- d) Empathy, trust, and body language

Answer: c) Self-awareness, trust, and patience

14. In the context of trust, what does the speaker recommend regarding note-taking during a
conversation?

- a) Always take extensive notes to avoid missing important details

- b) Trust in oneself to remember the most important points

- c) Rely on note-taking as a primary method of staying engaged

- d) Take notes to create a distance between oneself and the other person

Answer: b) Trust in oneself to remember the most important points

15. What is the purpose of the recommended "body scan" exercise mentioned in the transcript?

- a) To evaluate the effectiveness of note-taking

- b) To measure the level of self-regulation

- c) To release tension and prepare for a neutral conversation

- d) To analyze the physical presentation of the speaker

Answer: c) To release tension and prepare for a neutral conversation

16.What is the core assumption about being a good team player?

- A) It is easy to be a good team player.

- B) Being a team player is unnecessary.

- C) Good teamwork is tricky and interesting.

- D) Teamwork is not important.

- A: C) Good teamwork is tricky and interesting.

17.During which phase do team members carry out the plan and focus on maintaining quality and
attention to detail?

- A) Direction-setting phase

- B) Planning phase

- C) Briefing others phase

- D) Action phase

- A: D) Action phase

18.What is suggested for individuals who are less naturally good at certain stages of a team project?
- A) Avoid those stages

- B) Find a role for themselves during that phase

- C) Quit the team

- D) Ignore those stages

- A: B) Find a role for themselves during that phase

19.what is the biggest problem in any organization and most teams?

- A) Lack of resources

- B) Poor leadership

- C) Communication

- D) Inefficient processes

- A: C) Communication

20.In which situations should team members speak up?

- A) When they have useful information, spotted a flaw, are unclear, and need help.

- B) Only when they are asked to speak.

- C) Never, as it might lead to conflicts.

- D) Only when it directly benefits them.

- A: A) When they have useful information, spotted a flaw, are unclear, and need help.

21.When should you put yourself out for the good of the team, according to the speaker?

- A) Only when it benefits you substantially

- B) Only when it's a small cost to you and benefits the team a lot

- C) Never, as it might be unfair

- D) Only when others ask you to do so

- A: B) Only when it's a small cost to you and benefits the team a lot

22.What might be a potential reward for going beyond your share for the team?

- A) Immediate financial compensation

- B) Recognition and appreciation

- C) No reward, it's purely a personal sacrifice

- D) A promotion

- A: B) Recognition and appreciation

23.Why is the need for flexibility of role in a team player?

- A) To make the team more complex

- B) To avoid getting bored

- C) Because everyone has only one best skill

- D) Due to the variety of tasks within a team

- A: D) Due to the variety of tasks within a team

24.What is the responsibility of team members regarding their attitude?

- A) Show pessimism to avoid disappointment

- B) Always be realistic, even if it's negative

- C) Not to be negative about the work and avoid dragging down others

- D) Express negativity openly for honesty

- A: C) Not to be negative about the work and avoid dragging down others

25.What does the speaker suggest as a game to avoid negativity in a team?

- A) Swearing game

- B) Compliment game

- C) Negativity box game

- D) Positivity challenge

- A: C) Negativity box game

26.What does the blind spot represent in the context of self-knowledge?

- A) The things you intentionally hide from others

- B) The things others hide from you

- C) The things you are unaware of, but others can see

- D) The things you know about yourself but don't want others to know

- A: C) The things you are unaware of, but others can see
27.Why does the speaker encourage seeking feedback and reducing the blind spot?

- A) To avoid self-knowledge

- B) To enlarge the arena of effective working within a team

- C) To maintain a facade

- D) To criticize others

- A: B) To enlarge the arena of effective working within a team

28.What does the speaker suggest regarding the ideal proportion of talking and listening in a team?

- A) Speak more than listen

- B) Listen more than speak

- C) Talk as much as possible

- D) Balance talking and listening, with a focus on good questioning

- A: D) Balance talking and listening, with a focus on good questioning

29.What is the speaker's challenge for naturally talkative individuals?

- A) Speak as much as possible

- B) Avoid talking in meetings

- C) Only ask closed questions

- D) Talk for only 10% of the time, focusing on good questioning

- A: D) Talk for only 10% of the time, focusing on good questioning

30.What is the first common element of thinking?

- A) Questions

- B) Purpose

- C) Assumptions

- D) Concepts

Answer: B) Purpose

31.How can thinking problems often arise?

- A) Lack of information

- B) Unclear or contradictory purpose or goals

- C) Excessive questioning

- D) Overreliance on assumptions

Answer: B) Unclear or contradictory purpose or goals

32.What suggests about the importance of perspectives in thinking?

- A) Perspectives have no impact on thinking

- B) Only the leader's perspective matters

- C) Ignoring perspectives can lead to thinking problems

- D) Perspectives should be narrow and guided by personal biases

Answer: C) Ignoring perspectives can lead to thinking problems

33.what can worsen thinking problems concerning information?

- A) Lack of information

- B) Overreliance on assumptions

- C) Excessive questioning

- D) Overwhelming access to information

Answer: D) Overwhelming access to information

34.What is interpretation of information in thinking?

- A) Conclusions are irrelevant

- B) Only one way to interpret information

- C) Challenge conclusions to uncover opportunities for improvement

- D) System 1 thinking is sufficient for interpretation

Answer: C) Challenge conclusions to uncover opportunities for improvement

35.According to the Nobel Prize-winning studies, what did Kahneman and Tversky reveal about how
humans think?
- A) Thinking is always rational

- B) Humans rely only on System 2 thinking

- C) System 1 thinking is flawless

- D) Thinking isn't as rational as thought, involving System 1 and System 2

Answer: D) Thinking isn't as rational as thought, involving System 1 and System 2

36.What is the important point mentioned about different types of thinking in various situations?

- A) System 1 thinking is always better

- B) System 2 thinking is always better

- C) Both types of thinking are important, matching the type to the situation reduces judgment errors

- D) System 1 thinking should always be used for critical decisions

Answer: C) Both types of thinking are important, matching the type to the situation reduces judgment
errors

37.Wis curiosity essential for intellectual curiosity to flourish?

- A) Answers are more important than questions

- B) Curiosity requires valuing questions

- C) Intellectual curiosity is irrelevant

- D) Intellectual curiosity thrives without questions

Answer: B) Curiosity requires valuing questions

38.What are the two types of questions to fuel intellectual curiosity?

- A) Closed and open questions

- B) Bucket and interrogation questions

- C) Simple and complex questions

- D) Short and long questions

Answer: B) Bucket and interrogation questions

39.What is the purpose of interrogation questions mentioned in the transcript?

- A) To avoid asking questions

- B) To evaluate and improve question quality

- C) To challenge the relevance of questions

- D) To eliminate all questions

.Answer: B) To evaluate and improve question quality

40.What mental model does the transcript recommend for creating an honest assessment of what one
knows?

- A) Deductive reasoning

- B) Circles of competence

- C) Inductive reasoning

- D) Critical thinking

Answer: B) Circles of competence

41.What does the transcript suggest about the importance of understanding both inductive and
deductive reasoning?

- A) Only inductive reasoning is important

- B) Only deductive reasoning is important

- C) Both are irrelevant in critical thinking

- D) Understanding both types improves reasoning

Answer: D) Understanding both types improves reasoning

42.What is the purpose of setting aside time and training for critical thinking?

- A) To avoid critical thinking

- B) To emphasize System 1 thinking

- C) To become an expert in everything

- D) To provide the time and training to think about how one thinks
Answer: D) To provide the time and training to think about how one thinks

Green Skills Passport

1. What is sustainability?

a) An end to financial inequality

b) Improved health and wellbeing around the world
c) Using natural resources responsibly, to support present and future generations
d) Ensuring social equality and equal rights for all
e) Switching to plastic-free products that are biodegradable.

Answer: c) Using natural resources responsibly, to support present and future generations

2. How many nations signed the Paris Agreement?

a) 87

b) 94
c) 139
d) 193
e) 52

Answer: d) 193

3. Which of the options is the correct definition of a vision statement?

a) A statement outlining your personal development goals
b) A statement of what you are aiming to achieve

c) A statement outlining what you have achieved

Answer: b) A statement of what you are aiming to achieve

4. Which of the following options are two key qualities of entrepreneurial leaders?

a) They are innovative thinkers

b) They have a risk-averse style
c) They focus on their own ideas
d) They encourage their team to come up with ideas

Answer: a) They are innovative thinkers and d) They encourage their team to come up with
ideas

5. What is the purpose of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)?

a) To promote environmental sustainability
b) To reduce child mortality
c) To eliminate extreme poverty and hunger

d) To achieve global primary education

Answer: c) To eliminate extreme poverty and hunger

6. How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were established in 2015?

a) 8
b) 12
c) 17
d) 22

Answer: c) 17

7. What is the primary aim of the Paris Climate Agreement?

a) To strengthen the ability of countries to deal with the impacts of climate change
b) To achieve global economic equality
c) To promote gender equality
d) To reduce emissions and limit global temperature increase

Answer: d) To reduce emissions and limit global temperature increase

8. When did the implementation of the Millennium Development Goals begin?

a) 2000
b) 2001

c) 2010
d) 2015

Answer: b) 2001

9. What is the ultimate deadline for achieving the Sustainable Development Goals?
a) 2025
b) 2030
c) 2040
d) 2050

Answer: b) 2030

10. What type of problem-solving technique is commonly used by entrepreneurs?

a) Linear thinking

b) Convergent thinking
c) Divergent thinking
d) Logical thinking

Answer: c) Divergent thinking

11. Which of the following is NOT an example of sustainable business practice?

a) Reviewing supply chains and identifying sustainable suppliers

b) Encouraging staff to print documentation whenever possible
c) Providing disposable cups and cutlery for staff use
d) Partnering with local social enterprises to achieve social impact

Answer: b) Encouraging staff to print documentation whenever possible

12. What are the characteristics of entrepreneurial leaders?

a) They avoid taking risks
b) They are primarily focused on their own ideas

c) They develop employees and help them grow

d) They resist change and innovation

Answer: c) They develop employees and help them grow

13. What are the Millennium Development Goals transformed into after 2015?
a) Sustainable Development Goals
b) Paris Climate Agreement
c) Universal partnership for development
d) Environmental sustainability framework

Answer: a) Sustainable Development Goals

14. Which framework aims to limit the global temperature increase to 2°C?
a) Millennium Development Goals
b) Paris Climate Agreement
c) Sustainable Development Goals
d) Universal partnership for development

Answer: b) Paris Climate Agreement

16. What is the primary focus of sustainable business practices?

a) Maximizing profits
b) Reducing environmental impact

c) Exploiting natural resources

d) Ignoring social responsibility

Answer: b) Reducing environmental impact

17. What organization proposed the Millennium Development Goals?

a) World Bank
b) United Nations
c) World Health Organization
d) International Monetary Fund

Answer: b) United Nations

18. How often were summits held to assess progress towards achieving the Millennium
Development Goals?
a) Every 2 years
b) Every 3 years

c) Every 5 years
d) Every 10 years

Answer: c) Every 5 years

19. What is the primary aim of the Sustainable Development Goals?
a) Promoting gender inequality
b) Achieving global primary education

c) Ending poverty and other glaring issues

d) Ignoring climate change

Answer: c) Ending poverty and other glaring issues

20. Which of the following is NOT a quality of entrepreneurial leaders?

a) Action-oriented
b) Outcome-driven
c) Risk-averse
d) Collaborative

Answer: c) Risk-averse

21. What is the primary reason most people seek employment?

a) To learn new skills and knowledge

b) To meet new people

c) To contribute to the community
d) To earn money

Answer: d) To earn money

22. What is employability?

a) The measure of how desirable an individual is to potential employers
b) The process of seeking employment
c) The skills required to succeed in school
d) The ability to adapt to different work environments
Answer: a) The measure of how desirable an individual is to potential employers

23. Which of the following is an example of a hard skill?

a) Empathy
b) Communication

c) Calculus
d) Adaptability

Answer: c) Calculus

24. What is the focus of the course in terms of skills development?

a) Hard skills
b) Technical skills
c) Soft skills
d) Academic skills

Answer: c) Soft skills

25. How can you improve your power skills?

a) By avoiding feedback

b) By avoiding extracurricular activities

c) By challenging yourself
d) By avoiding online courses

Answer: c) By challenging yourself

26. Which section of a resume typically lists all the skills an individual considers their
strengths?
a) Background/contact information
b) Personal overview
c) Employment history

d) Skills

Answer: d) Skills

27. What is the purpose of self-reflection before job searching?

a) To create a perfect job description

b) To understand one's interests and goals
c) To assess the competition in the job market
d) To determine salary expectations

Answer: b) To understand one's interests and goals

28. How can one improve resilience during the job search process?
a) Lowering expectations
b) Narrowing the job search

c) Spending time improving oneself

d) Avoiding self-care

Answer: c) Spending time improving oneself

29. What is the difference between a job and a career?

a) Jobs require formal education, while careers do not.
b) Careers involve constant learning and specialization.
c) Jobs offer more benefits than careers.
d) Careers are short-term, while jobs are long-term.
Answer: b) Careers involve constant learning and specialization.

30. Which tool is essential for collating skills in a clear and summarized way for potential
employers?

a) LinkedIn profile
b) Interview preparation
c) Cover letter
d) Resume

Answer: d) Resume

Project Management

1. What is project management?

A) Organizing tasks in a project
B) Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to achieve project objectives
C) Leading a team to complete a project
D) Setting project deadlines

Answer: B) Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to achieve project objectives

2. What are the crucial questions that project management can be summed up as?
A) Where, when, why, and how
B) Who, what, where, and when
C) What problem are you solving? How are you going to solve it? What's your plan for
getting the project done? How can you tell when you're done? How well did the project go?
D) What's the budget? Who's the team? When is the deadline? How is the progress?
Answer: C) What problem are you solving? How are you going to solve it? What's your plan
for getting the project done? How can you tell when you're done? How well did the project
go?

3. What helps eliminate uncertainty about when a project is complete?

A) Detailed project plan
B) Regular project updates
C) Clearly defined success criteria
D) Effective project management software

Answer: C) Clearly defined success criteria

4. Why is it important to review the project after completion?

A) To celebrate success
B) To identify areas for improvement
C) To assign blame for failures
D) To justify project expenses

Answer: B) To identify areas for improvement

5. What are the three main types of organizational structures discussed?

A) Horizontal, vertical, and matrix
B) Functional, matrix, and projectized
C) Hierarchical, flat, and matrix
D) Functional, departmental, and network

Answer: B) Functional, matrix, and projectized

6. In a functional hierarchy, who typically has almost no authority in projects?

A) Project managers
B) Functional managers
C) Team members
D) Stakeholders

Answer: A) Project managers

7. What type of organization makes it easier for project managers to produce results?
A) Functional hierarchy
B) Matrix organization
C) Projectized organization
D) Hybrid organization

Answer: C) Projectized organization

8. In a strong matrix organization, who works full time on projects?

A) Functional managers
B) Project managers
C) Both functional and project managers
D) Project admin staff

Answer: B) Project managers

9. How does organizational structure influence project success?

A) It has no influence
B) It affects how projects are performed and how much authority a project manager has
C) It only affects project timelines
D) It determines the project budget

Answer: B) It affects how projects are performed and how much authority a project manager
has
10. What are some examples of scheduling software?
A) Microsoft Word, Excel, PowerPoint
B) Oracle Primavera, Basecamp, SharePoint
C) Jira, Smartsheet, Wrike
D) Adobe Photoshop, Illustrator, InDesign

Answer: C) Jira, Smartsheet, Wrike

11. What should you consider when researching project management software?
A) Your organization's culture and work environment
B) Your favourite colour
C) The weather forecast
D) Your favourite movie

Answer: A) Your organization's culture and work environment

12. What type of software helps you track resources and manage document libraries?
A) Scheduling software
B) Word processing software
C) Collaboration tools
D) Enterprise project management software

Answer: D) Enterprise project management software

13. Who are considered project stakeholders?

A) Only the project manager
B) Only the project team
C) The customer, project sponsor, departments involved, people working on project tasks
D) Only external parties

Answer: C) The customer, project sponsor, departments involved, people working on project
tasks
14. What are some characteristics of the project customer?
A) Provides funding, approves deliverables, has a lot to say about what the project will do
B) Provides resources, sets project deadlines, oversees project budget
C) Attends project meetings, assigns tasks to team members, reviews project documentation
D) Manages project risks, resolves conflicts, ensures project quality

Answer: A) Provides funding, approves deliverables, has a lot to say about what the project
will do

15. Who typically has enough formal authority to help make a project succeed?
A) Project manager
B) Project team members
C) Project sponsor
D) Functional manager

Answer: C) Project sponsor

17. What information should you include in stakeholder analysis?

A) Project budget and timeline
B) Stakeholder names and phone numbers
C) Stakeholder influence, interest, contributions, department, and position
D) Project risks and issues

Answer: C) Stakeholder influence, interest, contributions, department, and position

18. How can stakeholder analysis help in managing project stakeholders?

A) By ignoring stakeholders' opinions
B) By prioritizing stakeholders and understanding their expectations
C) By avoiding communication with stakeholders
D) By excluding stakeholders from project meetings
Answer: B) By prioritizing stakeholders and understanding their expectations

19. What drives everything that happens in a project?

A) The project budgets
B) The project timeline
C) The project goals
D) The project teams

Answer: C) The project goal

20. How can you develop a problem statement for a project?

A) By asking "why" to backtrack from proposed solutions to the original problem or
opportunity
B) By setting project deadlines
C) By assigning tasks to team members
D) By estimating project costs

Answer: A) By asking "why" to backtrack from proposed solutions to the original problem or
opportunity

21. What is a feature in Agile project management?

a) A small function or deliverable that addresses a business need
b) A large-scale project requirement
c) A technical specification
d) A budget allocation

Answer: a) A small function or deliverable that addresses a business need

22. How is the backlog typically built in Agile project management?

a) By writing each feature on a sticky note or index card
b) By creating a detailed project report
c) By discussing features in team meetings
d) By using a project management software exclusively

Answer: a) By writing each feature on a sticky note or index card

23. Who prioritizes features in Agile project management?

a) Business team prioritizes from a functionality perspective, while technical team prioritizes
based on build order
b) Technical team prioritizes from a functionality perspective, while business team prioritizes
based on build order
c) Business team exclusively prioritizes features
d) Technical team exclusively prioritizes features

Answer: a) Business team prioritizes from a functionality perspective, while technical team
prioritizes based on build order

24. How long does the speculate stage typically take in Agile project management for three-
week iterations?
a) A couple of days
b) A week
c) The entire iteration
d) It varies based on project size

Answer: a) A couple of days

25. What is the purpose of the adapt stage in Agile project management?
a) To review and reflect on the iteration's progress
b) To plan the next iteration
c) To finalize the project budget
d) To document lessons learned
Answer: a) To review and reflect on the iteration's progress

26. What occurs during the close phase in Agile project management?
a) Reconciliation of project financials and communication of project results
b) Planning for the next iteration
c) Starting a new project
d) Identifying new features for inclusion

Answer: a) Reconciliation of project financials and communication of project results

27. What is the purpose of a kick-off meeting in project management?

a) To introduce the project mission and plan to team members
b) To celebrate project success
c) To close out the project
d) To assign tasks to team members

Answer: a) To introduce the project mission and plan to team members

28. When does monitoring and controlling begin in project execution?

a) At the end of the project
b) Simultaneously with executing
c) After project completion
d) Before project planning

Answer: b) Simultaneously with executing

29. What is the purpose of creating an agenda for a meeting?

a) To keep discussions on topic and ensure all items are covered
b) To limit the attendees
c) To document meeting minutes
d) To facilitate discussions

Answer: a) To keep discussions on topic and ensure all items are covered

30. How should meetings be managed to ensure productivity?

a) Start and finish meetings on time
b) Extend meetings if necessary to cover all topics
c) Allow attendees to join late without consequence
d) Have a large number of attendees

Answer: a) Start and finish meetings on time

System Administrator

1. What are the primary areas a system administrator can focus on?
A) Networking
B) Security
C) Servers
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above

2. Which type of update addresses critical, no security related bugs to ensure system stability?
A) Feature pack update
B) Security update
C) Definition update
D) Critical update
Answer: D) Critical update
3. What type of update typically includes new product functionality first distributed outside
of a product release?
A) Feature pack update
B) Driver update
C) Tool update
D) Service pack update
Answer: A) Feature pack update

4. Which authentication factor does multifactor authentication require users to provide?

A) Something they know
B) Something they are
C) Something they have
D) Something they see
Answer: C) Something they have

5. How can multifactor authentication be set up in Microsoft 365?

A) Through Azure Active Directory
B) Using only a username and password
C) Via email verification
D) By calling a support hotline
Answer: A) Through Azure Active Directory

6. What is an essential task for a system administrator regarding shared folders?

A) Understanding how to access shared folders
B) Understanding how to set up shared folders
C) Understanding how to delete shared folders
D) Understanding how shared folders work and configuring permissions
Answer: D) Understanding how shared folders work and configuring permissions

7. What is VLAN an acronym for?

A) Virtual Local Access Network
B) Virtual Layered Area Network
C) Virtual Local Area Network
D) Virtual Layered Access Network
Answer: C) Virtual Local Area Network

8. How does subnet masking separate networks from hosts?

A) By adding or subtracting numbers randomly
B) By adding or subtracting numbers from right to left
C) By adding or subtracting numbers from left to right
D) By using prime numbers
Answer: C) By adding or subtracting numbers from left to right

9. What is the purpose of dynamic routing?

A) To manually configure routes between subnets
B) To automatically find the best path between subnets and devices
C) To encrypt data transmission between devices
D) To restrict access to specific networks
Answer: B) To automatically find the best path between subnets and devices

10. Which type of routing allows manual designation of preferred routes?

A) Dynamic routing
B) Static routing
C) Automatic routing
D) Adaptive routing
Answer: B) Static routing

11. What is virtualization?

A) Creating a new operating system
B) Installing multiple software applications
C) Creating an abstraction layer over computer hardware
D) Upgrading computer hardware components
Answer: C) Creating an abstraction layer over computer hardware

12. What are the two types of virtualization hypervisors?

A) Type A and Type B
B) Type 1 and Type 2
C) Type Alpha and Type Beta
D) Type Main and Type Side
Answer: B) Type 1 and Type 2

13. Which hypervisor type provides direct access to hardware elements?

A) Type A
B) Type B
C) Type 1
D) Type 2
Answer: C) Type 1

14. Which is hypervisor co?

A) Microsoft
B) VMware
C) Oracle
D) Amazon
Answer: B) VMware

15. How can virtualization change the hardware landscape for CIS admins?
A) By increasing the number of physical servers required
B) By reducing the need for powerful servers
C) By eliminating the need for licenses
D) By increasing the complexity of hardware management
Answer: B) By reducing the need for powerful servers

16. What feature should be enabled in UEFI or BIOS to use Hyper-V or VMware?
A) Virtualization
B) Encryption
C) Dynamic memory allocation
D) Remote desktop access
Answer: A) Virtualization

17. Which Azure service allows the creation of sandbox servers for testing purposes?
A) Azure Backup
B) Azure Virtual Machines
C) Azure DevTest Labs
D) Azure Blob Storage
Answer: C) Azure DevTest Labs

18. What is the recommended tool for backing up Linux systems mentioned in the transcript?
A) Backup Exec
B) Veeam
C) Commvault
D) Rsync
Answer: D) Rsync

19. What backup utility is commonly used for Mac systems?

A) Backup Exec
B) Veeam
C) Commvault
D) Time Machine
Answer: D) Time Machine

20. What is Azure's backup option for on-premises devices called?

A) Azure Recovery Services Agent
B) Azure Virtual Machines
C) Azure Managed Disks
D) Azure Blob Storage
Answer: A) Azure Recovery Services Agent