NSAA 2017 S1 QuestionPaper

NATURAL SCIENCES D568/11
ADMISSIONS ASSESSMENT
Thursday 2 November 2017 80 minutes
SECTION 1

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Please read these instructions carefully, but do not open this question paper until you are told
that you may do so. This paper is Section 1 of 2.
A separate answer sheet is provided for this paper. Please check you have one. You also require a
soft pencil and an eraser.
Please complete the answer sheet with your candidate number, centre number, date of birth, and
name.
At the end of 80 minutes, your supervisor will collect this question paper and answer sheet before
giving out Section 2.
This paper contains five parts: A, B, C, D, and E.
All candidates should complete Part A Mathematics.
All candidates should then complete two further parts chosen from:
Part B Physics
Part C Chemistry
Part D Biology
Part E Advanced Mathematics and Advanced Physics
Each part has 18 multiple-choice questions. There are no penalties for incorrect responses, only
marks for correct answers, so you should attempt all of the questions in your three parts. Each
question is worth one mark.
Questions ask you to show your choice between options. Choose the one option you consider correct
and record your choice on the separate answer sheet. If you make a mistake, erase thoroughly and
try again. You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.
You can use the question paper for rough working, but no extra paper is allowed. Only your
responses on the answer sheet will be marked.
Dictionaries and calculators may NOT be used.

Please wait to be told you may begin before turning this page.
This question paper consists of 77 printed pages and 7 blank pages.

PV5
© UCLES 2017
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BLANK PAGE
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Paper content
PART A Mathematics ............................................................................................................................. 5
PART B Physics ................................................................................................................................... 19
PART C Chemistry ............................................................................................................................... 35
PART D Biology ................................................................................................................................... 53
PART E Advanced Mathematics and Advanced Physics..................................................................... 71
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PART A Mathematics
PART A Mathematics

6
PART A Mathematics
1 Evaluate
( 12 + 3 ) 2
( 12 − 3)
2
A 1
B 3
5
C
3
7
D
3
E 3 3
F 9
2 Solve fully the inequality
2
2 x ≥ 15 − x
A x ≤ −3
B x ≥ 2.5
C x ≤ −1.5 , x ≥ 5
D − 1 .5 ≤ x ≤ 5
E x ≤ − 3 , x ≥ 2.5
F − 3 ≤ x ≤ 2 .5
© UCLES 2017
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PART A Mathematics
3 The equation gives y in terms of x :
2
y = 3 §¨ − 1·¸ − 5
x
©2 ¹
Which one of the following is a rearrangement for x in terms of y ?
y−5
A x =2±2
3
y+5
B x =2±2
3
y+5
C x =2±3
3
y+5
D x = −2 ± 2
3
y+5
E x = −2 ± 3
2
y + 5 ·2
F x = 2 + 2 §¨ ¸
© 3 ¹
2
x = −2 + 2 §¨
y +5·
G ¸
© 3 ¹

8
PART A Mathematics
4 A fruit stall sells apples costing £ x each, and pears costing £ y each.
Sam bought 2 apples and 5 pears, and the total cost of these was £ P.
Lesley bought 3 apples and 2 pears, and the total cost of these was £ Q.
Which of the following is an expression for the cost, in pounds (£), of a pear?
2Q − 3P
A
3
2Q − 3P
B
11
Q −P
C
3
Q −P
D
11
P −Q
E
3
3P − 2Q
F
3
3P − 2Q
G
11
© UCLES 2017
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PART A Mathematics
5 P is directly proportional to Q squared.
When P is 2, Q is 4.
Q is inversely proportional to R.
When Q is 2, R is 5.
What is P in terms of R ?
5
A P=
R
5
B P=
4R
1
C P= 2
800R
5
D P= 2
4R
25
E P= 2
2R
800
F P= 2
R
2
R
G P=
50
2
25 R
H P=
2

10
PART A Mathematics
6 Two sequences are defined by the following rules:
In sequence S the nth term is 7 n + 1
2
In sequence T the nth term is 99 − n
What is the smallest value of n for which the nth term of sequence S is greater than the nth term
of sequence T ?
A 6
B 7
C 8
D 13
E 14
F 15
7 Which one of the following is a simplification of
2−
(
x2 9x2 − 4 )
x 3 (2 − 3 x )
2
A − 1−
x
2
B − 1+
x
2
C 5−
x
2
D 5+
x
3
E 5−
x
3
F 5+
x
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PART A Mathematics
8 The parallelogram OPQR, labelled clockwise, is in the first quadrant ( x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 ) with O at the
origin.
The point R has coordinates §¨

3a ·
, 0 ¸ and the point Q has coordinates (2 a, a + 1) .
© 2 ¹
The area of OPQR is 9 square units.
What are the coordinates of point P ?
§ 3 ·
A ¨¨ , 1 + 3 ¸¸
© 2 ¹
B (1, 3)
C (1.5, 4)
D (2, 3)
E (3, 4)
F (2 3, 1+ 3 )
9 What is the value of x that makes the following expression correct?
3+2 x x −x
2 4 8 = 4 2
A − 2.25
B − 1.75
C − 1.5
D − 0.5
E − 0.25

12
PART A Mathematics
10 There are 100 students in Year 10.
Each student studies exactly one of French, German, and Spanish.
X girls study French and there are 3X girls in total.
2Y boys study German.
There are 35 students studying Spanish of which Y are boys.
Which of the following is an expression for the total number of students studying German?
A X + 2Y
B X + Y + 35
C X + 3Y − 35
D 2X + 2Y
E 2X + Y − 35
F 2X + 3Y − 35
G 2X + Y + 35
11 An exterior angle of a regular polygon with n sides is 4° larger than an exterior angle of a
regular polygon with ( n + 3) sides.
What is the value of n ?
A 10
B 12
C 15
D 18
E 21
F 24
G 27
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PART A Mathematics
12 The bearing of a ship R from a lighthouse L is 220°
A canoe C is due North of R.
C is the same distance from the ship and the lighthouse.
What is the bearing of L from C ?
A 070°
B 080°
C 090°
D 100°
E 140°
13 The hands of a 12-hour analogue clock move continuously. When the time on the clock is 4:00,
the angle between the minute hand and the hour hand is 120°.
What is the angle between the two hands at 4:40 ?
A 80°
B 100°
C 110°
D 120°
E 140°

14
PART A Mathematics
14 The cost of manufacturing a cake is directly proportional to the volume of the cake.
The baker makes a 70% profit when he sells a large rectangular cake.
The baker sells a large rectangular cake for £6.80
The baker decides to sell smaller rectangular cakes. The length, width, and height of the
smaller cakes are all half of those of the large rectangular cake.
He sells a pack of 6 of the smaller cakes for £6.50
How much profit does he make on the pack of smaller cakes?
A £0.50
B £2.93
C £3.00
D £3.50
E £4.97
15 A pet shop has 4 female rabbits and x male rabbits for sale.
A customer buys 2 of the rabbits, chosen at random, and each rabbit is equally likely to be
chosen.
1
The probability that both the chosen rabbits are male is .
3
What is the value of x ?
A 2
B 4
C 6
D 8
E 9
F 11
G 12
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PART A Mathematics
16
The diagram shows a square with side of length x cm. A circle is drawn with centre O which lies
at the mid-point of one of the sides of the square. This side forms part of a diameter of the
circle. The circle passes through two corners of the square as shown.
What is the area, in cm2, of the shaded part of the semi-circle?
A (π − 1) x 2
§ π−2· 2
B ¨ ¸x
© 2 ¹
§ 3π − 2 · 2
C ¨ ¸x
© 2 ¹
§ 3π − 4 · 2
D ¨ ¸x
© 4 ¹
§ 5π − 4 · 2
E ¨ ¸x
© 4 ¹
§ 5π − 8 · 2
F ¨ ¸x
© 8 ¹

16
PART A Mathematics
17 A cylindrical hollow metal pipe is 16 cm long.
It has an external diameter of 10 cm and an internal diameter of 8 cm.
The density of the metal from which the pipe is made is 8 grams per cm3.
[diagram not to scale]
8 cm
16 cm
10 cm
What is the mass of the pipe in grams?
A 8π
B 16 π
C 18 π
D 72 π
E 128 π
F 512 π
G 1152 π
H 4608 π
© UCLES 2017
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PART A Mathematics
18 The shortest distance between two opposite sides of a regular hexagon is 12 cm.
Find the area, in cm2, of the regular hexagon.
A 36 3
B 72
C 54 3
D 108
E 72 3
F 144
G 144 3
H 288 3

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PART B Physics
PART B Physics

20
PART B Physics
19 A car is travelling along a horizontal road in a straight line.
The graph is a velocity–time graph for part of the car’s journey.
35
velocity / m s–1
30
25
20
15
10
0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 120 130 140 150
time / s
During this part of the journey, what is the total distance that the car travels while it is
decelerating?
A 400 m
B 500 m
C 550 m
D 600 m
E 750 m
F 1400 m
G 1800 m
H 1900 m
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PART B Physics
20 When a saucepan of water is heated from below, convection currents form and transfer heat
through the liquid.
Here are three statements about the water as it is heated:
1 The mass of a fixed volume of the water increases.
2 The density of a fixed mass of the water decreases.
3 The volume of a fixed mass of the water increases.
Which of these statements help(s) to explain how convection currents are formed?
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3

22
PART B Physics
21 Table 1 gives the approximate frequency ranges of sections of the electromagnetic spectrum.
Table 1
radio infrared visible ultraviolet gamma

type of wave microwaves X-rays
waves waves light waves rays
approximate 3.0 × 109 3.0 × 1012 4.3 × 1014 7.5 × 1014 3.0 × 1017
frequency < 3.0 × 109 to to to to to > 3.0 × 1019
range / Hz 3.0 × 1012 4.3 × 1014 7.5 × 1014 3.0 × 1017 3.0 × 1019
Table 2 gives information about two different types of wave in air.
Waves 1 to 3 are longitudinal waves formed by an object vibrating.
Waves 4 to 6 are electromagnetic waves.
The speed of sound in air is 300 m s–1. The speed of light in air is 3.0 × 108 m s–1.
Table 2
wave type of wave wavelength / m

1 longitudinal 1.0 × 10– 4
2 longitudinal 1.0 × 10–2
3 longitudinal 1.0 × 10–1
4 electromagnetic 5.0 × 10–7
5 electromagnetic 5.0 × 10–1
6 electromagnetic 1.0 × 103
A person detects only two of these waves unaided, using just their eyes and ears.
Which two waves does the person detect?
A wave 1 and wave 4
B wave 1 and wave 5
C wave 2 and wave 5
D wave 2 and wave 6
E wave 3 and wave 4
F wave 3 and wave 6
© UCLES 2017
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PART B Physics
22 A charge of 60 C passes through an electrical component when a steady voltage of 10 V is

applied across it for 30 seconds. The resistance of the component remains constant
throughout.
What is the resistance of the component?
A 0.050 Ω
B 0.20 Ω
C 0.50 Ω
D 2.0 Ω
E 5 .0 Ω
F 20 Ω

24
PART B Physics
23 An electric motor is used to pull a broken-down car slowly from the road up a ramp on to the
back of a breakdown truck.
The car has a mass of 1200 kg and is lifted through a vertical height of 1.0 m.
The total input energy to the motor is 28 kJ and it is 75% efficient.
In the process of lifting the car, energy is lost to the surroundings from the motor and from other
causes.
What is the total energy lost to the surroundings?
motor
1.0 m
(gravitational field strength = 10 N kg–1)
A 7.0 kJ
B 9.0 kJ
C 12 kJ
D 16 kJ
E 21 kJ
F 33 kJ
© UCLES 2017
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PART B Physics
24 In one type of medical scanner a source is placed inside a patient’s body. This source causes
pairs of gamma-rays to be emitted simultaneously in opposite directions.
Detectors on each side of the patient are used to detect the gamma-rays. The distance
between the two detectors is 3.0 m. When the source is at Q, half-way between the detectors,
the two gamma-rays arrive at the same time.
In a particular scan the gamma-rays arrive at the two detectors with a time difference of
4.0 × 10−10 s.
Assume that, inside the patient, the gamma-rays travel at a speed of 3.0 × 108 m s–1.
How far from Q, half-way between the detectors, is the gamma-ray source?
A 6.0 mm
B 12 mm
C 24 mm
D 6.0 cm
E 12 cm
F 24 cm
25 When a plutonium-239 nucleus absorbs a neutron it undergoes nuclear fission. One particular
fission reaction results in the creation of xenon and zirconium as daughter nuclei. The nuclear
equation for this reaction is shown but with some non-zero integers replaced by the letters w, x,
y and z.
Q
1 239 w y
0 + 94 Pu → 54 Xe + x Zr + z 01n
Which equation is correct?
A w + y = 240
B z = 240 − (w + y)
C x = 40 − z
D 94 = 54 + x + 1
E 240 = 54 + x
F 94 = w + y + 1

26
PART B Physics
26 An electric motor is connected to a constant 12 V d.c. supply. The motor is used to lift a mass
of 20 kg by means of a rope and pulley. The mass is lifted vertically through a height of 6.0 m in
a time of 5.0 s. The complete lifting system (motor, rope and pulley) is 80% efficient.
pulley
rope
6.0 m
motor mass 20 kg
What is the current in the electric motor?
A 1.6 A
B 2.0 A
C 2.5 A
D 16 A
E 20 A
F 25 A
© UCLES 2017
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PART B Physics
P
27 The nuclide QX decays to the stable nuclide Y. During this process four particles are emitted:
an α-particle and three β– particles.
Which of the following is not a nuclide that could be formed at any stage during this process?
nuclide atomic mass atomic number

A P Q−1
B P Q+1
C P Q+2
D P Q+3
E P−4 Q−2
F P−4 Q−1
G P−4 Q
H P−4 Q+1
28 The radius of an iron-56 atom is 3.0 × 104 times greater than the radius of an iron-56 nucleus.
density of an iron atom

What is the value of ?
density of an iron nucleus
A (3.0 × 104)–3
B (3.0 × 104)–2
C (3.0 × 104)–1
D (3.0 × 104)1
E (3.0 × 104)2
F (3.0 × 104)3

28
PART B Physics
29 Graph 1 shows how the displacement of one of the particles of a medium varies with time in
seconds as a wave travels through the medium.
displacement Graph 1
0 t1 t2 time
Graph 2 shows how the displacement varies with distance in metres at one time for the same
wave.
displacement Graph 2
0 x2
x1 distance
Which expression gives the speed in m s–1 of the wave?
A 4( x2 − x1)
3(t2 − t1)
B 3( x2 − x1)
2(t2 − t1)
C 2( x2 − x1)
t2 − t1
D 8( x2 − x1)
3(t2 − t1)
E 3( x2 − x1)
t2 − t1
F 6( x2 − x1)
t2 − t1
© UCLES 2017
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PART B Physics
30 A kettle is designed to work from a car’s power socket. The kettle has a power rating of 150 W
when a constant voltage of 12.0 V d.c. is applied across its element.
How much charge passes through the element of this kettle when the voltage of 12.0 V is
applied across it for 20 minutes?
A 96 C
B 250 C
C 15 000 C
D 36 000 C
E 900 000 C
F 2 160 000 C
31 A freight train travelling on a straight horizontal track at 2.0 m s–1 collides with a passenger train
travelling at 5.0 m s–1 in the opposite direction. Both trains immediately come to a complete stop
on the track.
The freight train has three locomotives of 130 tonnes each and seven container wagons of
30 tonnes each. The passenger train has two locomotives of 70 tonnes each and a number of
passenger carriages of 10 tonnes each.
How many passenger carriages does the passenger train have?
A 7
B 9
C 10
D 24
E 46

30
PART B Physics
32 Consider the following four calculations:
1 (200 kg m s–1) ÷ (5 m s–1)
2 (200 J) ÷ (5 m)
3 (200 kg m–3) ÷ (5 m3)
4 (200 N) ÷ (5 m s–2)
Which two calculations result in the answer 40 kg?
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 3
C 1 and 4
D 2 and 3
E 2 and 4
F 3 and 4
© UCLES 2017
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PART B Physics
33 Consider the following three statements about a parachutist of mass 72 kg falling vertically at a
constant velocity of 5.0 m s–1 after the parachute has opened:
1 The parachutist has a constant kinetic energy of 1800 J.
2 The parachutist is losing gravitational potential energy at a rate of 3600 J s–1.
3 Air resistance and the force of gravity acting on the parachutist are a Newton’s third
law pair of forces.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3

32
PART B Physics
34 Two radioactive sources X and Y have half-lives of 3.0 hours and 2.0 hours respectively. The
product of the decay of both of the sources is a stable isotope of the element Z.
Six hours ago a mixture contained the same number of atoms of both X and Y, and no other
atoms.
What fraction of the mixture is now made up of atoms of Z?
10
A
16
11
B
16
12
C
16
13
D
16
14
E
16
15
F
16
35 Car X passes car Y on a motorway.
Car X is travelling at 1.5 times the speed of car Y.
4
The mass of car X is of the mass of car Y.
5
How do the kinetic energies of the two cars compare?
A kinetic energy of car X = 0.90 × kinetic energy of car Y
B kinetic energy of car X = 0.96 × kinetic energy of car Y
C kinetic energy of car X = 1.20 × kinetic energy of car Y
D kinetic energy of car X = 1.44 × kinetic energy of car Y
E kinetic energy of car X = 1.80 × kinetic energy of car Y
© UCLES 2017
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PART B Physics
36 In the following circuit the ammeter shows a reading of 4.0 A.
4.0 Ω
12 Ω
The power dissipated in the 12 Ω resistor is 12 W.
What is the power dissipated in the 4.0 Ω resistor?
A 3.0 W
B 4.0 W
C 12 W
D 16 W
E 36 W

34
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© UCLES 2017
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PART C Chemistry
PART C Chemistry

36
PART C Chemistry
37 Consider the atoms/ions below:
24 2+ 16 2– 18 32 2 –
12Mg 8O 8O 16 S
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

16 2– 24 2+
1 Both 8O and 12Mg have the same electronic configuration.
32 2 – 18
2 16 S has double the number of neutrons that are in 8 O.
16 2– 18
3 The sum of the numbers of electrons in 8O and 8O is equal to the number of
32 2–
electrons in 16 S .
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
© UCLES 2017
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PART C Chemistry
38 Which two of the following reactions involve oxidation?
1 Ca → Ca2+ + 2e–
2 Cl2 + 2e– → 2Cl–
3 Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2
4 MgCO3 + 2HCl → MgCl 2 + CO2 + H2O
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 1 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only
E 2 and 4 only
F 3 and 4 only

38
PART C Chemistry
39 Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a strong acid. Properties of a solution of 1.00 mol dm–3 hydrochloric
acid include:
1 It turns blue litmus indicator red.
2 On reaction with sodium carbonate gaseous carbon dioxide is evolved.
3 25.0 cm3 of this acid solution neutralises 25.0 cm3 of 1.00 mol dm–3 sodium hydroxide
solution.
Ethanoic acid (CH3COOH) is a weak acid.
Which of the three properties is/are also correct for a 1.00 mol dm–3 solution of ethanoic acid?
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
© UCLES 2017
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PART C Chemistry
40 Consider the following reactions:
Reaction Q: CH2=CH2(g) + H2O(g) ֖ CH3CH2OH(g) ΔH is − ve
Reaction R: PCl 5(g) ֖ PCl 3(g) + Cl 2(g) ΔH is + ve
The following actions could be applied independently to each reaction (Q and R) above:
1 increase the pressure
2 increase the temperature
3 use a suitable catalyst
Assuming that all other conditions remain constant, which of these actions will increase the
initial rate of reaction and increase the yield of products for both reactions Q and R?
A none of them
B 1 only
C 1 or 2 only
D 1 or 3 only
E 2 only
F 2 or 3 only
G 3 only
H 1, 2 or 3

40
PART C Chemistry
41 Study the chromatogram below showing the spots obtained, labelled (i) to (v), from two sweets
and pure samples of the food additives, labelled Q, R and S.
solvent front
(v)
(ii) (iv)
(iii)
(i)
X X X X X baseline
sweet 1 sweet 2 Q R S
Which of the following statements about the chromatogram is/are correct?
1 Both sweet 1 and 2 contain additives R and S.
2 The Rf value for spot (iv) is half that for spot (iii).
3 The Rf value for spot (v) is 0.7.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
© UCLES 2017
41
PART C Chemistry
42 Element X has atomic number 20. Consider only the simple oxide of X.
Which of the following options identifies the formula, the type of bonding and the acid-base
character of the oxide of element X?
type of bonding in acid-base character

formula of oxide
oxide of oxide
A X2O ionic basic
B X2O covalent basic
C XO ionic basic
D XO covalent acidic
E XO2 ionic acidic
F XO2 covalent acidic
G X2O3 ionic basic
H X2O3 covalent acidic
43 Solid copper(II) chloride contains Cu2+ ions and Cl– ions only.
Solid lithium phosphate(V) contains Li+ ions and PO43 – ions only.
Aqueous solutions of copper(II) chloride and lithium phosphate(V) are mixed to produce a
precipitate of copper(II) phosphate(V) and an aqueous solution of lithium chloride.
Which of the following represents the balanced ionic equation for this process?
A Cu2+(aq) + 2e– → Cu(s)
B 2Cu2+(aq) + 3PO43 –(aq) → Cu2(PO4)3(s)
C 2Cu2+(aq) + 5PO43 –(aq) → Cu2(PO4)5(s)
D 3Cu2+(aq) + 2PO43 –(aq) → Cu3(PO4)2(s)
E 3Cu2+(aq) + 6Cl–(aq) + 6Li+(aq) + 2PO43 –(aq) → Cu3(PO4)2(s) + 6LiCl (aq)
F 3CuCl 2(aq) + 2Li 3PO4(aq) → Cu3(PO4)2(s) + 6LiCl (aq)

42
PART C Chemistry
44 Which of the following statements about the reaction of lithium with water are correct?
1 The reaction is a redox reaction.
2 7 g of lithium will react with excess water to produce 2 g of hydrogen gas.
3 The reaction produces a solution with a pH greater than that of water.
4 14 g of lithium will exactly react with 36 g of water.
(Ar values: H = 1; Li = 7; O = 16)
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 4 only
C 1, 2 and 3 only
D 1, 3 and 4 only
E 2 and 3 only
F 3 and 4 only
© UCLES 2017
43
PART C Chemistry
45 Consider this electrochemical cell containing an aqueous copper(II) chloride electrolyte:
9 V d.c.
pure copper cathode graphite anode

(negative electrode) (positive electrode)
2 mol dm–3 CuCl 2(aq) electrolyte
Which row in the following table identifies the reactions occurring at the electrodes?
cathode (negative electrode) anode (positive electrode)

A Cu2+(aq) + 2e– → Cu(s) Cu(s) → Cu2+(aq) + 2e–
B Cu(s) → Cu2+(aq) + 2e– Cu2+(aq) + 2e– → Cu(s)
C 2Cl–(aq) → Cl 2(g) + 2e– Cu2+(aq) + 2e– → Cu(s)
D Cu2+(aq) + 2e– → Cu(s) 2Cl–(aq) → Cl 2(g) + 2e–
E Cu(s) → Cu2+(aq) + 2e– 2OH–(aq) → H2(g) + O2(g) + 2e–
46 A fluorocarbon has a relative molecular mass which is twice that of its empirical formula mass.
81 g of the compound contains 57 g of fluorine.
What is the molecular formula of the compound?
(Ar values: C = 12; F = 19)
A C2F3
B C2F5
C C3F6
D C3F8
E C4F6
F C4F10

44
PART C Chemistry
47 In which of the following reactions is there a change in volume of 24 dm3, when measured at
room temperature and pressure?
1 56 g of carbon monoxide completely reacts with an excess of oxygen

2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g)
2 36 g of steam is fully decomposed

2H2O(g) → 2H2(g) + O2(g)
3 30 g of nitrogen monoxide completely reacts with an excess of oxygen

2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g)
(Ar values: C = 12; O = 16; H = 1.0; N = 14. Assume that one mole of gas occupies a volume of
24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure.)
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
© UCLES 2017
45
PART C Chemistry
48 Magnesium reacts with sulfuric acid according to the following chemical equation:
Mg(s) + H2SO4(aq) → MgSO4(aq) + H2(g)
Line P on each graph shows how the volume of hydrogen formed changes with time when 1.2 g
of magnesium reacts with 40 cm3 of 1.0 mol dm–3 sulfuric acid at 20 °C.
(Ar value: Mg = 24)
Two further experiments were carried out and the volumes of hydrogen formed were plotted.
Experiment Q: 1.2 g of magnesium + 40 cm3 of 2.0 mol dm–3 sulfuric acid at 20 °C
Experiment R: 1.2 g of magnesium + 40 cm3 of 0.5 mol dm–3 sulfuric acid at 20 °C
experiment Q experiment R
volume of hydrogen / cm3
volume of hydrogen / cm3

3
1
P
P 4
0 0
0 time / s 0 time / s
Which lines show how the volume of hydrogen formed will change with time in each
experiment?
experiment Q experiment R
A 1 4
B 1 5
C 2 4
D 2 5
E 3 4
F 3 5

46
PART C Chemistry
49 Nitrogen and hydrogen react together to form ammonia as shown below:
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
The energy released by this reaction is 93 kJ mol–1.
What is the bond energy in the nitrogen molecule?
(Bond energies: H – H = 436 kJ mol –1; N – H = 391 kJ mol –1)
A 315 kJ mol –1
B 513 kJ mol –1
C 644 kJ mol –1
D 864 kJ mol –1
E 945 kJ mol –1
F 1131 kJ mol –1
© UCLES 2017
47
PART C Chemistry
50 Consider the following two electrolytic processes:
electrolysis of molten lead(II) chloride
electrolysis of brine (sodium chloride solution)
1 In both processes, reduction takes place at the negative electrode.
2 If 20.0 g of product is formed at the negative electrode in each process, then both
processes produce the same volume of chlorine gas, measured at room temperature
and pressure.
3 In both processes, a metal is produced at the negative electrode.
(Ar values: Cl = 35.5; H = 1.00; Na = 23.0; Pb = 207. Assume that one mole of gas occupies
24.0 dm3 at room temperature and pressure.)
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3

48
PART C Chemistry
51 Silver nitrate solution reacts with zinc powder in an exothermic reaction:
2AgNO3(aq) + Zn(s) → 2Ag(s) + Zn(NO3)2(aq)
The graph shows the maximum temperature rise as different masses of zinc react with
separate 50.0 cm3 samples of 0.100 mol dm–3 silver nitrate solution.
temperature rise
Y
mass of zinc
What is the mass of zinc at the position labelled Y?
(Ar value: Zn = 65)
A 0.163 g
B 0.325 g
C 0.650 g
D 1.63 g
E 3.25 g
F 6.50 g
© UCLES 2017
49
PART C Chemistry
52 Natural samples of copper contain two isotopes: 63Cu which has a relative isotopic mass of
62.93, and 65Cu which has a relative isotopic mass of 64.93.
The relative atomic mass of a sample of elemental copper is 63.55.
What is the percentage abundance of each of the two isotopes to the nearest whole number?
A 27% 63Cu and 73% 65Cu
B 73% 63Cu and 27% 65Cu
C 31% 63Cu and 69% 65Cu
D 69% 63Cu and 31% 65Cu
E 36% 63Cu and 64% 65Cu
F 64% 63Cu and 36% 65Cu

50
PART C Chemistry
53 The reaction between calcium carbonate and hydrochloric acid was used to measure the effect
of changing conditions on the mass of CO2 produced and the rate of CO2 production.
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl (aq) → CaCl 2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
The experiment was carried out five times with different conditions at a constant temperature.
The following conditions were varied:
CaCO3 as chips or powder
mass of CaCO3
volume of HCl
concentration of HCl
Which experiment (A-E) in the following table will produce 8.8 g of carbon dioxide in the
shortest time?
(Mr values: CaCO3 = 100; CO2 = 44)
CaCO3 HCl
type mass / g volume / cm3 concentration / mol dm–3
A chips 10 400 2.0
B powder 20 100 2.0
C chips 20 200 2.0
D powder 10 200 2.0
E chips 20 400 1.0
© UCLES 2017
51
PART C Chemistry
54 An atom of 11H has a radius of 0.05 nanometres.
The radius of the nucleus of this atom is approximately 50 000 times smaller.
What is the approximate radius of the nucleus in femtometres?
(1 femtometre = 10–15 m)
A 1000
B 100
C 10
D 1
E 0.1
F 0.01

52
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© UCLES 2017
53
PART D Biology
PART D Biology

54
PART D Biology
55 The graph shows the concentration of lactic acid in the blood of two students at rest, then
carrying out the same level of exercise for 15 minutes, and then at rest again.
lactic acid concentration / arbitrary units
rest exercise rest
100
student P
50
student Q
0
0 time / minutes
Which of the following statements correctly describe(s) the two students?
1 Student P’s oxygen debt is repaid much quicker than student Q’s.
2 Student P has a lower oxygen debt than student Q.
3 Student P has a higher level of fitness than student Q.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
© UCLES 2017
55
PART D Biology
56 Spontaneous mutations occur in the genetic material of all living organisms.
Which pie chart best represents the proportion of mutations that are beneficial, mutations that
are harmful, and mutations that have no effect?
Key
beneficial
harmful
no effect
A B C
D E F

56
PART D Biology
57 Ten randomly placed quadrats were used to estimate the frequency of occurrence of
three plant species in a field.
number of individuals of
quadrat number species X species Y species Z
1 4 1 5
2 11 0 12
3 3 5 13
4 0 0 9
5 2 9 4
6 1 8 2
7 7 2 6
8 14 24 0
9 6 0 2
10 7 3 0
What was the correct lowest frequency of occurrence calculated from X or Y or Z?
A 0
B 0.2
C 0.7
D 1.0
E 1.4
F 5.2
G 52.0
© UCLES 2017
57
PART D Biology
58 Which of the following statements about stem cells in a healthy human female is/are correct?
1 An adult stem cell contains the same genes as an epithelial cell from that organism.
2 Stem cells from this human will all contain two X chromosomes.
3 When a stem cell divides it produces a new stem cell plus two specialised body cells.
(Assume that no mutations have occurred.)
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
59 Which of the following will always lead to an increase in the size of a population?
1 removal of intraspecific competitors
2 supplying more of the nutrient that is at the lowest concentration
3 change in the organism’s rate of reproduction
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3

58
PART D Biology
60 The diagram shows three features which are used to group organisms.
cell has an within the cell is a

external wall membrane-bound structure
forming a layer that that contains DNA
gives it a defined shape P
Q R
cell uses enzymes

to release energy
for cell processes
Fungi, bacteria and animals can each be placed in one of the regions labelled P, Q, R or S on
the diagram.
Which row in the following table is correct?
fungi bacteria animals

A P S R
B P R S
C Q R P
D S Q R
E S S S
F R P Q
G R Q P
© UCLES 2017
59
PART D Biology
61 A desert food chain is shown below.
cactus rat rattlesnake hawk
Assume that 10% of the energy from each stage in the food chain is passed on.
If 150 000 units of energy are contained in the producer, how much energy will be lost in the
transfer between the primary and secondary consumers?
A 1500
B 13 500
C 15 000
D 135 000
E 148 500
62 Which of the following statements about bacterial cell division is/are correct?
1 Daughter cells show a large degree of genetic difference to the parent cell.
2 After each division, two daughter cells are produced by mitosis.
3 Chromosome replication occurs in the cytoplasm of the bacteria.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3

60
PART D Biology
63 Young plant roots show a similar positive response to the direction of gravity as their shoots do
to the direction of light.
A clinostat, shown in the diagram, can be used to counter the effects of gravity on a plant.
It has a motor which slowly rotates the plant. The cover is opaque to prevent light affecting
the direction of root growth.

direction germinating
of rotation seed
root
moist
cotton wool
electric
opaque plastic cork motor
cover base
Two clinostats were set up using identical seedlings for two days:
Clinostat 1, with the motor running

Clinostat 2, with the motor stationary
In which direction would the root grow in each clinostat?
Key
⇓ downwards
⇑ upwards
⇐ horizontally
results for clinostat 1 results for clinostat 2

A
B ⇐
D ⇐
E
F ⇐
G ⇐
H ⇐ ⇐
© UCLES 2017
61
PART D Biology
64 An inherited condition is caused by a recessive allele.
The family tree shows the inheritance of this condition in one family.
Key
female with condition
male with condition
female without condition
male without condition
One of the daughters in this family tree has children with a man who does not have the
condition.
For the two situations described in the table, which row shows the probability that their first
child will be a girl who has the condition?
(Assume no new mutations.)
father is father is
homozygous dominant heterozygous
A 0 0
B 0 0.125
C 0 0.25
D 0.5 0
E 0.5 0.125
F 0.5 0.25

62
PART D Biology
65 The diagram shows the apparatus used to investigate the movement of molecules across a
partially permeable membrane. Sucrose is unable to cross the partially permeable membrane.
capillary tube
level P
concentrated
sucrose solution glass tube
partially permeable
water membrane
Which graph correctly shows how the height of solution in the capillary tube changes over
15 minutes?
A B C
height of level P
height of level P
height of level P
0 0 0
0 time 0 time 0 time
D E
height of level P
height of level P
0 0
0 time 0 time
© UCLES 2017
63
PART D Biology
66 The diagram shows the life cycle of a simple type of plant.
adult plant stage P

(n)
4 1
spores female gamete male gamete

(n) (n) (n)
2
3
adult plant stage Q
(2n)
Key
n = haploid number of chromosomes
2n = diploid number of chromosomes
At which two of the numbered stages does only mitosis occur?
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 1 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only
E 2 and 4 only
F 3 and 4 only

64
PART D Biology
67 Three different coloured leaves were collected: a dark green leaf, a light green leaf and a
yellow leaf. Each leaf had 16 discs of 1 cm diameter cut from it.
The discs were treated with sodium hydrogen carbonate solution to replace all the air from the
spaces within the leaf. Sodium hydrogen carbonate solution is a source of carbon dioxide.
To start the experiment, each group of discs was then placed in a beaker of sodium hydrogen
carbonate. At the beginning of the experiment all of the discs sank.
Each beaker was illuminated for 30 minutes by being placed 10 cm in front of a lamp that
provided the same wavelengths of light as sunlight. It was observed that some of the leaf discs
floated. The number of floating leaf discs was counted every minute for 15 minutes.
The results are shown in the graph.
(All other variables were kept constant.)

18
number of floating discs
16 Key
14 dark green leaf discs
12 light green leaf discs
10 yellow leaf discs
8
4
2
0
0 5 10 15
time / minutes
1 The average rate of photosynthesis was highest in the darkest leaves.
2 At 5 minutes 25% of the light green discs remained at the bottom of the beaker.
3 The reciprocal of the time taken for a quarter of the discs of a particular colour to
float can be a measure of the relative rate of photosynthesis.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
© UCLES 2017
65
PART D Biology
68 A student carried out an experiment to investigate the effect of enzyme concentration on the
rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction.
The student used a starch agar plate with five identically sized small wells cut into the agar.
The wells were filled with identical volumes of different concentrations of amylase solution, as
shown in the diagram.
starch agar plate
contains 1% amylase
Key
well in the agar
contains 0.0001%
contains 0.1% amylase
amylase
contains 0.001% contains 0.01% amylase

amylase
The starch agar plate was incubated overnight and the plate was then flooded with iodine
solution. Most of the agar stained blue, but there was a clear area around each well where
starch had been digested by the amylase. The student measured and recorded the diameter of
the clear area that formed. The results are shown in the table below.
diameter of clear area that forms around the

percentage concentration of amylase
well containing amylase / mm
1.0 27
0.1 24
0.01 15
0.001 12
0.0001 9
Which of the following factors could have affected the diameter of the clear area around the
wells containing amylase?
1 pH of the starch agar
2 concentration of the amylase solution
3 temperature at which the plates were incubated
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3

66
PART D Biology
69 The diagram shows the start of an experiment on the effect of light direction on young shoots.
All of the shoots were growing vertically. All of the shoots were the same distance from the light
source. All of the shoots were continually exposed to the light from one side for 24 hours.
(All other variables were kept constant.)
direction of light
view from above
P Q R
view from side
control tip of shoot shoot covered with

removed opaque sheath
(tip exposed)
Every six hours, the distance between the light source and the top of each shoot was
measured. The distance from the light source relative to the position at the start of the
experiment was plotted on the following graphs.
graph 1 graph 2 graph 3

of the shoot from light source

relative distance of the top

+ + +
0 0 0
6 12 18 24 6 12 18 24 6 12 18 24
time / hrs time / hrs time / hrs
Which row represents the responses of the shoots to the light over 24 hours?
P Q R
A 1 2 1
B 1 3 1
C 1 3 2
D 2 1 3
E 2 2 1
F 3 1 3
G 3 2 2
© UCLES 2017
67
PART D Biology
70 The table shows some of the genetic codes for amino acids:
amino acid coded for

genetic code
(three-letter abbreviations)
AGA Arg
AGG Arg
ATG Met
CCC Pro
CCG Pro
CGA Arg
CTG Leu
GAC Asp
GGA Gly
GTC Val
GTG Val
TAG Stop (ends protein synthesis)
TGG Trp
TTA Leu
TTG Leu
The base sequence below shows the middle part of a gene coding for a protein:
ATG CGA GAC ATG TTA AGG TGG GAC CCC CGA GTC
Mutations took place in both the 4th and 20th base in this sequence.
Using only the information provided and reading the sequence from left to right, which of the
following statements could be correct for the resulting amino acid sequence after the two
mutations took place?
1 This sequence could be only six amino acids long.
2 The second amino acid in this sequence could be unaffected by the mutation.
3 This amino acid sequence could contain seven different amino acids.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3

68
PART D Biology
71 A power station released warm water into a river. This is an example of water pollution because
the temperature of the river water was increased.
A student was interested in the effects of the temperature increase on a pollution indicator
species.
The student studied two graphs. Graph 1 showed the oxygen required by the pollution indicator
species for survival and graph 2 showed the effect of temperature on the oxygen dissolved in
the water.
graph 1 graph 2
oxygen required for survival
/ arbitrary units
50
45
dissolved oxygen
/ arbitrary units
40 16
35 14
30 12
25 10
20 8
15 6
10 4
5 2
0 0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 0 5 10 15 20 25 30
temperature of water / °C temperature of water / °C
The student wrote the following statements:
1 As the oxygen required by the pollution indicator species for survival increases, the
water temperature rises.
2 There is less dissolved oxygen available to the pollution indicator species as the
water temperature rises.
3 The pollution indicator species will survive better in water at 30 °C than at 5 °C
because it has a greater oxygen uptake at 30 °C.
Which of the student’s conclusions could be correct using only the information provided?
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
© UCLES 2017
69
PART D Biology
72 In a monohybrid cross, two heterozygotes were allowed to mate and the resulting offspring
showed a 2 : 1 phenotypic ratio.
Which of the following statements could explain this ratio?
1 The number of offspring produced was small.
2 The recessive condition was lethal prior to birth.
3 Being homozygous dominant was lethal prior to birth.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3

70
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© UCLES 2017
71
PART E Advanced Mathematics and Advanced Physics
NOTE: questions in this part that are not covered by the ESAT
content specification are indicated by a cross through the
question number.

72
73 Which one of the following is a simplification of
2
§ 3+ 3 ·
1 − ¨¨ ¸
¸
©6−2 3 ¹
3
A −
4
3
B
4
3 3
C − −
4 7
3 3
D −
4 7
3
E − − 3
4
3
F − 3
4
3
G −
2
3
H
2
© UCLES 2017
73
74 The diagram shows a crane being used on a building site. The crane is perfectly balanced
about P.

10 m 10 m
P
counterweight = 2000 kg
load = 400 kg
weight of the
horizontal section of
the crane
The load is now moved to the left by 5.0 m.
To keep the crane perfectly balanced about P, how far does the counterweight have to move,
and in which direction?
A 1.0 m to the left
B 1.0 m to the right
C 3.0 m to the left
D 3.0 m to the right
E 4.0 m to the left
F 4.0 m to the right

74
75 k is the smallest positive value of x which is a solution to both the equations 2 sin x + 1 = 0 and
2 cos 2 x = 1
How many values of x in the range 0 ≤ x ≤ k are solutions to at least one of these equations?
A 0
B 2
C 3
D 4
E 8
76 An aircraft is climbing at constant speed in a straight line at an angle of 10° to the horizontal.
Which statement about the resultant force on the aircraft is correct?
A It is parallel to its motion.
B It is perpendicular to its motion.
C It is zero.
D It is equal to its weight.
E It is equal to the drag acting on the aircraft.
( 2 x +1) x
77 Which of the following is a solution to the equation 3 − 6 (3 ) = 0 ?
A log 2 3
B log 3 2
C 2
D log10 2
2
E
3
© UCLES 2017
75
78 A ball starts at a speed of 40.0 m s–1. The ball is subject to a constant deceleration of 14.4 m s–2
as it travels a distance of 20.0 m in a straight line.
What is the final speed of the ball?
A 16.0 m s–1
B 20.0 m s–1
C 25.6 m s–1
D 32.0 m s–1
E 36.2 m s–1
F 39.3 m s–1
3 2
79 The graph of the function y = x + px + qx + 6 , where p and q are real constants, has a local
maximum when x = 2 and a local minimum when x = 4 .
What are the values of p and q ?
A p = − 3 and q = − 8
B p = − 3 and q = 8
C p = 3 and q = − 8
D p = − 9 and q = 24
E p = 9 and q = 24
F p = 9 and q = − 24

76
80 A block of mass 1.0 kg is at rest on a rough horizontal surface. The block is attached by a light
inextensible string to a force meter. The other end of the force meter is attached by another
light inextensible string via a frictionless pulley to a load of mass 1.0 kg. The block remains
stationary.
force meter
pulley
rough surface
1.0 kg
string
1.0 kg
What is the reading on the force meter?
A 0.0 N
B 0.5 N
C 1.0 N
D 2.0 N
E 5.0 N
F 10 N
G 20 N
6 3 dy
81 Given that y = ( 2 + 3 x ) , what is the coefficient of x in ?
dx
A 240
B 4320
C 4860
D 12 960
E 19 440
© UCLES 2017
77
82 An apple of mass 100 g, growing on a tree, falls vertically from a height of 4.0 m above the
ground. It hits the ground with a speed of 8.0 m s–1.
How much work does the apple do against resistive forces during its descent, before it hits the
ground?
A 0.80 J
B 3.6 J
C 4.0 J
D 7.2 J
E 8.0 J
1
83 A geometric progression has first term equal to 1 and common ratio sin 2 x
2
4
The sum to infinity of the series is
3
Find the possible values of x in the range π ≤ x ≤ 2π
13 17
A π, π
12 12
7 4
B π, π
6 3
7 11
C π, π
6 6
5 7
D π, π
4 4
E there are no values of x in this range

78
84 A stone is fired vertically upwards at a speed of 13 m s–1 on a still day from the top of a 6.0 m
high cliff. It then falls down and lands at the bottom of the cliff.

stone
13 m s–1
6.0 m
From when the stone passes the top of the cliff on the way down, how long does it take to
reach the ground at the bottom of the cliff?
(air resistance can be ignored; gravitational field strength = 10 N kg–1)
A 0.40 s
6 .0
B s
6 .5
C 0.60 s
D 1.2 s
E 1.3 s
F 2.0 s
G 2.5 s
H 3.0 s
© UCLES 2017
79
85 The sequence of numbers u1, u 2 , u3 , ... ,u n , ... is given by
u1 = 2
u n +1 = pu n + 3
where p is an integer.
The fourth term, u 4 , is equal to − 7
What is the value of u1 + u 2 + u 3 + u 4 ?
A – 10
B –2
C –1
D 8
E 26

80
86 An archer fires an arrow of mass 0.024 kg vertically upwards from a bow.
The graph shows how the force of the bowstring on the arrow varies with distance as the arrow
moves upwards.
force / N
192
0
0 0.40
distance / m
The work done by the force of the bowstring is given by the area under the force-distance
graph.
When the arrow leaves the bow, what is the kinetic energy of the arrow, and what is the
maximum height that it gains from this point?
(Air resistance can be ignored. The effect of gravity as the arrow is fired is negligible compared
to the force of the bowstring. The gravitational field strength = 10 N kg–1.)
kinetic energy / J height / m

A 38.4 16
B 38.4 160
C 38.4 1600
D 38.4 16 000
E 76.8 32
F 76.8 320
G 76.8 3200
H 76.8 32 000
© UCLES 2017
81
87 Find the complete set of values of x for which
3 2
x − 6x + 9x − 4
>0
x
A x < 0, x > 4
B 0< x<4
C 0 < x < 1, x > 4
D x < 0 , 1< x < 4
E x < 1, x > 4
F 1< x < 4
88 A book of mass m rests on a rough horizontal surface. The surface is now tilted as shown:
book
surface
When the angle of tilt θ is 20°, the book slides down the slope at a constant speed.
What is the acceleration of the book down the slope when the angle of tilt is 25°?
(gravitational field strength = g )
A g (cos 20° − sin 20° tan 5°)
B g (cos 20° − sin 20° tan 25°)
C g (cos 25° − sin 5° tan 20°)
D g (cos 25° − sin 25° tan 20°)
E g (sin 20° − cos 20° tan 5°)
F g (sin 20° − cos 20° tan 25°)
G g (sin 25° − cos 5° tan 20°)
H g (sin 25° − cos 25° tan 20°)

82
2
89 The equations of two straight lines are y = 3 + ( 2 p − p ) x and y = 7 + ( p − 2) x , where p is a
real constant.
For certain values of p, the two lines are perpendicular.
Which of the following numbers is closest to the greatest such value of p ?
A 2.00
B 1.75
C 1.50
D 1.00
E − 0.25
F − 0.50
90 The graph shows how the horizontal force on a tennis ball of mass m varies during a shot in a
tennis match. The ball is initially travelling horizontally toward the racket with speed u and
leaves the racket horizontally travelling in the opposite direction with speed v.
force / N
F
0
0 t1 t2 time / s
Which expression gives the magnitude of the momentum of the ball as it leaves the racket?
A F (t2 − t1)
B F (t2 − t1) − mu
C F (t2 − t1) + mu
D mv − mu
E F t2 − mu
© UCLES 2017
83
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84
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NATURAL SCIENCES D568/11

Thursday 2 November 2017 80 minutes

This paper contains five parts: A, B, C, D, and E.

All candidates should complete Part A Mathematics.

Dictionaries and calculators may NOT be used.

This question paper consists of 77 printed pages and 7 blank pages.

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

2 Solve fully the inequality

3 The equation gives y in terms of x :

Which one of the following is a rearrangement for x in terms of y ?

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

5 P is directly proportional to Q squared.

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

6 Two sequences are defined by the following rules:

In sequence S the nth term is 7 n + 1

7 Which one of the following is a simplification of

The point R has coordinates §¨

The area of OPQR is 9 square units.

What are the coordinates of point P ?

9 What is the value of x that makes the following expression correct?

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

10 There are 100 students in Year 10.

Each student studies exactly one of French, German, and Spanish.

X girls study French and there are 3X girls in total.

2Y boys study German.

There are 35 students studying Spanish of which Y are boys.

What is the value of n ?

12 The bearing of a ship R from a lighthouse L is 220°

A canoe C is due North of R.

C is the same distance from the ship and the lighthouse.

What is the bearing of L from C ?

What is the angle between the two hands at 4:40 ?

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

The baker sells a large rectangular cake for £6.80

He sells a pack of 6 of the smaller cakes for £6.50

How much profit does he make on the pack of smaller cakes?

What is the value of x ?

What is the area, in cm2, of the shaded part of the semi-circle?

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

17 A cylindrical hollow metal pipe is 16 cm long.

It has an external diameter of 10 cm and an internal diameter of 8 cm.

[diagram not to scale]

What is the mass of the pipe in grams?

Find the area, in cm2, of the regular hexagon.

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© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

19 A car is travelling along a horizontal road in a straight line.

The graph is a velocity–time graph for part of the car’s journey.

Here are three statements about the water as it is heated:

1 The mass of a fixed volume of the water increases.

2 The density of a fixed mass of the water decreases.

3 The volume of a fixed mass of the water increases.

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radio infrared visible ultraviolet gamma

Table 2 gives information about two different types of wave in air.

Waves 1 to 3 are longitudinal waves formed by an object vibrating.

Waves 4 to 6 are electromagnetic waves.

wave type of wave wavelength / m

Which two waves does the person detect?