تجميعات أ روز

‫اسئلة وتجميعات اختبار الهيئة‬
‫مختبرات طبية‬
SLLE 2022
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Blood Bank
Patient with anti-E need blood = Same Rh phenotype (blood with no E

antigen
Heterozygous of lutherna (Lu)? = Lu (a+b+(
Homozygous for lutheran Lu (a)? = Lu (a+b-)
Patient with null kidd he has what Ab = Anti-Jk3
Acquired B found in = A group
Blood group system destroyed by routine Blood bank enzymes =Duffy

(Fya, Fyb)
Ficin and papain enzymes inhibited which antibody = Duffy, M. N, S
Prevent malaria = Fy (a-, b-)
cause PCH = auto anti P
antigen receptor for malaria p. vivax = fy (a+, b+)
What is the Fisher-Race genotype for a person with anti-c? DCE/dCe
reduced numbers of ag D = weak .
yellow fever deferral from blood donation how many weeks?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
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Sugar for H antigens = L-fucose
What antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual? = Anti-A, B, and H
Mother O blood group, father A blood group, the child expression =

dominant
Genotype of A blood group = A0 or AA
Chromosome of ABO genes location = Chromosome 9.
If both parents are A blood group, what is the possible offspring blood
group =
Blood group A or O.
Father O ,mather AB , baby = 50% A,50%B
which blood group has the least amount of H antigen

a. A1B
b. A2
c. B
d. A1
N-acetyl-D-galactosamine is the immunodominant carbohydrate that

reacts with
a. arachis hypogaea
b. salvia sclarea
c. dolichos biflorus
d. ulex europeaus
Father genotype of AB and mother genotype B give genotype in

Possible = A,B,AB
Which blood group is universal acceptor = AB positive

Nigerian nurse live in Saudi Arabia for 2 years his healthy ? Can donate
after one year
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what the GVHD Graft versus host disease ? If the patient is

,immunocompromised
then the donor's lymphocytes(T cell) will attack the recipient's healthy
cells leading GVHD result
enhaczed by enzyme ? JK
indirect antigloubolin ? In vitro sensitization
direct detection sensitize RBCs in vivo
patient with hemophilia A which blood component need ?

Cryptopreceptate
recipient blood then after 30 minutes the temperature increase 3 C

without hemolysis
what’s the next test ? Culture !! or maybe DAT ,
mother with hepatitis after delivered her born what’s the marker of
infecting new bornHbsAg +ve
patient with allergy in place of insulin injected ? Generalized insulin

allergy, Remove the needle from the site
define adsorption ?is the process of removal of antibody from the serum
An elution? is the process of removal of antibody from red blood cells.

.The product of the elution method is an eluate
Intrauterine transfusion what’s the tests use with it ? KB – Rossete test
autologous donation period ? 1 week

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patient come to emergency, what type of blood group transfusion in this

case ? O -ve
Heterozygous JK ? Jka+Jkb+
Homozygous Jka? Jk(a+b-)

Homozygous Jkb? Jk(a-b+)
Jk null? Jk(a-b-)
we will transplant Bone marrow what we do ? Irradiation RBCs
patient need PLT , after we transfusion PLT the PLT breakdown in every
time , what we do?
a-Transfusion Random PLT

b- Transfusion pooled PLT
c-Transfusion aphresis
after transfusion platelet drops in count what is cause?

a-transfused plts
B-pool plasma
C-platletapherisis
D-wbc pool plasma
PLT store temperature? 22-24 C
what we need from blood components in liver disease ? FFP
function of AHG?
detect IgG and/or C3b
man from jazan have ring stage of ( P.vivax ) with no symptoms, what’s
the reason to his not has symptoms ?Duffy blood group Fy (a- b-)
blood group type transfusion to aquaired B phenomenon? Group A
gene in Rh ? RHD & RHCE

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technique use to AB screening?

IAT
what Type of I Ag found in new born

i Ag
lewis antigen immunoglobulin type and relationship between it and HDN

? Lewis Ab are IgM in nature , not cause HDN
null Ag Lu ? Lu (a- b-)
substance use to store blood for 35 days ? CPD-A
Ag immunogenicity in arrangement after ABO and RH , which Ag ? Kell
which of the following is anti Lu ( a ) ? Lu (a- / b+)
a women came to donate she was in London between 1993 to 1994 , and
Italian between 1999 -2000 , and Australia from 2009 to 2015 , why we
should deferral ? Because it was in London between 1993 to 1994
someone come to donate PLT , and rejected , in diagnosis we find the

following: AbsHB -ve ,AbcHB +ve, AGsHB +ve Why rejected ? Active
HBV
older man with ABO grouping without any reaction all is ( -ve ) , what /
should do in
this case ? Check age , incubation time30 mints ,lower the temperature 4c
.for 15 mintes
how much RBCs storing with SAGMA?

42days
PLT separate done by?

a. Light spin , next heavy spin☑️
b. Heavy spin , next light spine
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.Frozen RBC = 10 years -65'C
Temperature / length of days or times Platelet = 5 days 20-24 'C
Sugar for H antigens = L-fucose
H antigens by phenotype (highest to lowest concentration ‫؟‬

O>A2>B>A2B>A1>A1B
Which genotype is heterozygous for C? DCe/dce
What antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual? = Anti-A, B, and H
A complete Rh typing for antigens C, c, D, E, and e revealed negative

results for C, Dand E.
How is the individual designated
A. Rh positive
B. Rh negative
C. Positive for c and e
D. Impossible to determine
Rh positive refers to the presence of D antigen; Rh negative refers to the

absence of the D antigen
Deferral period of donor visiting = 1 year
Which blood product is the most appropriate for preventing GVHD

Irradiated blood (RBCs)
Minimum HCT for autologous donation = 33%

.
group=
Blood group A or O
Double dose (homozygous) expression of JK (a+) antigen =

( JK (a+b-
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Most immunogenic blood group antigen after ABO antigens = D antigen
Chromosome of ABO genes location = Chromosome 9
.Chromosome of Rh genes location = Chromosome 1
.Define the directed donation = Donation for a specific recipient
Antibodies cause HDFN = Anti-D, anti-C, anti-E, anti-c, anti-e and

anti-K
One of applications of indirect antiglobulin test (IAT), indirect comb test

= Antibody screening, crossmatching
Type of antibodies causes transfusion reactions, significant or

insignificant = Clinically significant antibodies
Which antibodies are IgG = Anti-e, anti-P, anti-S, anti-s, anti-U, anti-K,
anti-JK(a,b
Suitable blood product for treat the von Willebrand disease =

Cryoprecipitate
Prolonged PT and APTT, and fibrinogen is 40 mg/dL, what is

the suitable blood product = FFP
Type of lewis Abs = Cold antibodies
HDN caused by = Anti-D, anti-K
Autosomal recessive = Two Copies of defected gene from both parents

should inherited
Patient with car accident need 4 units of blood but his blood group is
unknown?
Use O negative blood group (emergency)
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Heterozygous Jk reaction?JK(a+b+)
Phenotypes = The morphology, properties of an organism
Genotype = Genetic makeup of organism (DNA) and hereditary

information
Patient have vWF deficiency, the suitable blood component is =

Cryoprecipitate
Missing epitopes of D antigen? = Partial D antigen
Polyspecific antihuman globulin (AHG) detect = IgG and C3 coated

RBCs
Monospecific AHG detect = Either IgG or C3
Patient blood group A2 with an anti-A1, the suitable unit (group) for him
= A2 or O
Patient with anti-E need blood = Same Rh phenotype (blood with no E

antigen
Heterozygous of lutherna (Lu)? = Lu (a+b+)
Homozygous for lutheran Lu (a)? = Lu (a+b-)
Duffy group antigens = Fy (a), Fy (b)
Ag of low incidence = Negative antibody screen, incompatible

.antiglobulin crossmatch
.years old with ABO discrepancy? = 88Weak antibody reaction
Patient have coagulation factors deficiency, suitable blood component =

FFP
Kell Antigen = K, k antigens

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.Ag show dosage = C, c, E, e, Fya, Fyb, M, N, S, s, JKa, Jkb
.Patient cell + donor plasma = Minor cross matching
.Patient plasma + donor cells = Major cross matching
AB negative need FFP = AB negative
Null duffy = Fy(a-,b-)
Genotype of A blood group = A0 or AA
Patient with null kidd he has what Ab = Anti-Jk3
Blood group system destroyed by routine Blood bank enzymes

= Duffy (Fya, Fyb)
In the room temperature there is 2+ reaction but in 37C and AHG

phases there is no reaction what anti-body is suspected to present? = Cold
Ab
Acquired B found in = A
Ficin and papain enzymes inhibited which antibody = Duffy, M. N, S
Natural occurring Ab = anti-A, anti-B, anti-Cw, anti-M, and antibodies in

the Lewis and P system
group A genotype = A/A , A/o
Prevent malaria = Fy (a-, b-)
HDF may causes by = Anti K and anti D
null Kidd = Jk(a-b-)

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Jka = shows dosage
cause PCH = auto anti P
Liver disease, what do we give him = FFP
Fibrinogen deficiency, what do we give him = Cryoprecipitate
Mother and father have AB blood type and what is the baby’s blood type
= 25%A , 25%B , 50%AB
Father O, Mather AB, baby = 50% A,50%B
man from Jizan have ring stage of (P. vivax) with no symptoms, what’s
the reason to his not has symptoms
Duffy blood group (a- / b-)
yellow fever deferral from blood donation how many weeks = 2
anti Lu(a) = Lu (a-b+)
antigen receptor for malaria p. vivax = fy (a+, b+)
lack the Duffy Fya and Fyb antigens(fya-,fyb-) = are resistant to

invasion. p. vivax
What is the lowest percentage of values of hemoglobin for men who want
to donate=
13 g/dl
Antigen destroy by enzyme = Duffy fya,fyb
Intrauterine transfusion (IUT) = O negative RBCs
Used to determine the amount of a fetomaternal hemorrhage= Kleihauer-

Betke (KB)
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R2r = DcE/dce
Delivered AB+ baby needs exchange which blood is suitable = O-
AB- patient needed 4 units of blood and the technologist found only 3
AB- what other blood unit can be given to him? =A-, O- or B-
Which HLA antibody is the marker for Behçet's disease? =

HLA-B51
A donor came with pulse: 140bpm, blood pressure: 100/70mmhg, 37 C,

51 kg Whywas he deferred? = 140 bpm
which is a Kell ag = K,k, Kpa, Kpb
antibodies formed by bombay individuals = Anti-A, B and H
Which typing results are most likely to occur when a patient has an
acquired B antigen?
Anti-A 4+, anti-B 1+, A1 cells neg, B cells 4
What is the Fisher-Race genotype for a person with anti-c? DCE/dCe
Father O ,mather AB , baby = 50% A,50%B

November 17
Jk Null phenotype = anti Jk3 antibody.
AB- patient need platelet but there is no AB- negative donor, he should
Take = AB+ platelet
which of the following is anti Lu (a) = Lu a- / b+.
baby with HDNF, which blood transfusion to him = irradiated blood.

SLLE 2022
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R1r ? DCe / dce
Child with unknown ABO type needs FFB transfusion which of these
type of the choice = AB+.
R1r = DCe/dce
Kleihauer Betke =HNF Quantitative
heterozygous of lua = (Lua+lub+).
Kleihauer Betke test = pink cell baby, mother colorless
Null duffy: Fy(a-,b-)
Null kidd: Jk(a-,b-).
Differentiate between vWD and hemophilia A = Bleeding time (BT)
The color of anti A which is =blue.
The color of anti B which is = Yellow.
A positive direct Coomb's test may be caused by which of the following

= An autoantibody on red cells surface.
Commonly termed 'Universal Donor' and 'Universal Receiver' = O- : AB+
Before blood transfusion, should be done = Cross matching test.

SLLE 2022
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A group B Rh-ve person can receive blood for the second time from =
Group O Rh-ve.
The most immunogenic blood group antigen after ABO antigens = D

Antigen.
Which of the following antibodies is responsible for HDFN = Anti-c
Which of the following is an application to the Indirect antiglobulin

(Coombs) Test Antibody Screening.
A 50-year-old woman admitted to hospital with severe haemorrhage

due to von Willebrand disease. The doctor requested a blood product to
be transfused to manage bleeding. Which of the following blood
products is the most appropriate for the treatment of this patient?
Cryoprecipitate
Which of the following is the correct sequence to be followed when

preparing a donors arm for blood collection = Select vein, apply
tourniquet, clean with PVP-iodine. Venipuncture
father wit BB blood group genotype , and mother with OO blood group
genotype , what is the must blood group for, son of them ? B
which of the following cause HDN ?

a-Duffy
b- Lewis
c-P
d- I
which of the following cause HDN ?

a-Duffy
b- Lewis
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c-P
d- I
which test associated with HDN ?
a.DAT
b. IAT
cause of HDN ? Mother Rh -ve , baby Rh +veedited 14:55
we want to use blood bag , we take it from refrigerator, how much time
need to leave it in room temperature?
a-30 minutes
b- 40 minutes
c-1hour
patient with history has multiple Ab , which kind of blood bag use in this
case ? Blood bag with few Ab
which type of discrepancy affecting in forward ?

Type 2
aquaired B phenomenon associated with what ? Colon canceredited
The trait in Rh blood grouping is ? Codominant
lewis antibody is ? IgM , clinical not significant
why graft reject ? HLA incompatible
cross matching divided in how much type ? 2 ( major & minor )
the Hct when donation must be equal ?

At least 38%
SLLE 2022
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HDV + HBV infection called ? Superinfection
treat HDN by ?
.Rh-negative RBCs should be selected for the intrauterine transfusion.
.Less than 7 days old, To reduce the risk of hyperkalemia
.Irradiated to prevent GVHD.
.Leukoreduced unit.
.Negative for CMV (seronegative)
.Negative for Hb-S.
Someone expose to accident and came to emergency , crossmatch was

+ve , why ?Incompatibility
with weak – D , what we should use ? IAT
patient with DM , when he can donate? Permanent
how much you can donate in years ( PLT donate ) ? 24 times

autologous donate need Hct equal at least ? 33%
PLT storing temperature ? 20-24 C
TRALI attack what ? The donor's anti-leukocyte antibodies attack the
recipient's white blood cells
patient suffer from low immunity and we need to transfusion blood to

him , what we should do in this case and why Irradiation blood
because T – lymphocytes
null duffy
- Fy a- / fy b
anti body lead to HDNF ? Anti D
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kleihauer betke use to ? HFN Quantitative (Fetus pink – mother

colorless)
rossette appear ? Maternal RBCs is incubated with anti-D. Anti-D binds

to Rh-positive fetal RBCs, if present in the maternal circulation. D -
positive indicator cells are added that bind to the anti -D, forming a
rosette around the sensitized Rh-positive fetal RBCs.
DAT + Elution ? Neutralization
all forward and reverse was positive what we can do in this case ?Wash
with normal saline
the kind of PLT problem in bernard solier is ? Adhesion problem
R1R2 = ? DCe/ DcE
what’s the most important test for blood donor ? HIV – syphilis –
hepatitis- HTL
when transfusion blood to patient that take how much time
1 hour – 4 hours
donate start donation and after 5 minutes nurse know donate have
hemolytic anemia what should do in this case ? Stop donation
lowest H gene ? A1B
What most be reason to HDN ? Baby Rh + , mother Rh –
patient with superaspects when change bag of urine , and put 3rd bag ,
the patient have short breath and headache why ? Overload
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sample did it give as cold agglutination what’s the next ? Warm 37C ˑ
pregnancy women with Ab , how we can measure Ab that’s made it

against first baby To not attack second baby in this pregnan cy? Ab
titration
the most suitable way to give patient insulin ? Subcutaneous
baby with HDNF , which blood transfusion to him ? O
patient came to hospital need 4 units blood the blood group AB- , we
has 3 unit ABremain one unit , which blood group can complete the
remain ? A- , B –,O-
incompatibility definition? Incompatible blood grouping between the

patient and donor
Sudan donation with no problems , it was in saudi arabia last 2 years ,

what should to do ? Diagnosis and accept if not he hasn’t problem
R2R2 ? DcE / DcE

graft between different species? Xenograft
liver disease need to ? FFP
problem in fibrinogen , what’s need ? Cryptoprecepitate
definition of auto control ? patient rbc +patient serum (it should be

negative any positive result indicate the presence of an autoantibody )
minor cross match is ? Cells patient with donor serum

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baby O- , mother A- what’s the reason to baby suffer from HDN K

HDNF may cause because ? Anti K
ABO gruping detect by ? ABO grouping & study genotype
patient in emergency department with bleeding , he lost large amount

of blood and need to blood what we should give him ?
a-O- whole blood
b- O- packed RBCs
insulin donation ? Permanent deferral
time for separate PLT ? 6 hours
patient with multiple Ab need blood which will give him ? With few Ab
patient need FFP the group of patient not available, which will give him
? AB FFP
the temperature for cryptoprecipitate after thawing ? 1-6 C
blood bag remain out of refrigerator 30 minutes, what we should do in

this case ? Reject
period to deferral HBV vaccine ? 2 weeks
period to deferral donor take aspirin ? 2 days
period to deferral donor take para influenza vaccine? 2 weeks
thawed FFP ? 6 hours , 22-24 C
auto control positive in children patient, what you should do in this

case ? Repeat test
allo antibody what’s next step ? Ab identification
check cells ( O- ) use it as ? Control

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causes intravascular hemolysis?
a-AB donor to O recipient
b-O donor to A recipient
c -B donor to AB recipient.
what is phenotype?
A)observable expression of gene
B)immunoglobulin 5 classification
Patient with sever neutropenia , what is the suitable blood product ?
A)whole blood.
B) platelets.
C) granulocyte.
minunum hb donation? females must have a minimum hemoglobin

level of 12.5g/dL and males must have a minimum level of 13.0g/dL
check cells was -ve , what you should do in this case ? Repeat
autoantibody screen
Deferral period of donor visiting malaria area? 1 year
group? 75%group A 25% group 0
Most immunogenic blood group antigen after ABO antigens? D antigen
Antibodies cause HDFN?
Anti-D, anti-C, anti-E, anti-c, anti-e and anti-K, check the table in blood
bank lecture
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One of applications of indirect antiglobulin test (AT), indirect comb

testp? Antibody screening, crossmatching
Type of antibodies causes transfusion reactions, significant or

Insignificant? Clinically significant antibodies
Which antibodies are IgG? Anti-e, anti-P, anti-5, anti-s, anti-U, anti-K,
anti-JK(a,b).
HIV, BBV, sickle cell anemia and sickle cell trait, for donation ? Sickle
trait
Cause false positive DAT? Clotted sample
Coomb control ? Coomb cells (RBCs coated wit IgG)
Kleihauer-betke test? Pink RBCs of fetus, colorless RBCs of mother
Exchange transfusion?
Patient with ABO antibodies, HDFN, remove bilirubin and maternal

Abs, (O negative blood group or AB plasma, negative for CMV, HbS
negative, leukocyte reduced, irradiated, less than 7-10 days)
Intrauterine transfusion (UT(‫؟‬
HDFN Rh-incompatibility (fetal anemia), using the umbilical vein by

high resolution sonography, to maintain Hb above 10 g/dl, performed
after 36 week, O Rh-negative.....same as exchange transfusion criteria
Type of Lewis Abs? Cold antibodies
CPD storage blood for? 14-21 days
CPDA for?35days
Patient with car accident need 4 units of blood but his unknown? Use a
negative blood group (emergency).
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Heterozygous Jk reaction? JK(a+b+.
Genotype? Genetic makeup of organism (DNA) and hereditary

information.
Missing epitopes of D antigen? Partial D antigen.
Patient blood group A2 with an anti-A1, the suitable unit (group) for
him?A2 or 0.
Heterozygous of lutherna (Lu)? Lu (a+b+).
Homozygous for lutheran Lu (a)? Lu (a+b-).
Duffy group antigens? Fy (a), Fy (b).
Mother O blood group, father A blood group, the child expression?

Codominant
Ag of low incidence? Negative antibody screen, incompatible

antiglobulin crossmatch.
88 years old with ABO discrepancy? Weak antibody reaction.
Kell Antigens? K, k antigens.
Ag show dosage? C, C, E, e, Fya, Fyb, M, N, S, s, JKa, jkb.
Sample show cold agglutination? Warm at 37 C and rerun.
How to solve rouleaux formation problem? Saline replacement

technique.
Ficin and papain enzymes inhibited which antibody? Duffy, M. N, S.
Neutrophil (granulocyte) stored at? RT (20-24) without agitation.
Mother O-ve, baby A-ve? Anti-A from mother, HDN due to ABO
incompatibility.
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Father is A, mother is O and baby blood group is O, the father is?

Heterozygous.
Nigerian nurse live in Saudi Arabia for 2 years, can she donate blood?
Can donate after 1 year. Note: deferral for 3 years after departure from
malaria-endemic countries.
How often can Autologous transfused blood be drawn? One week

apart.
Bone marrow transplantation? Irradiated RBCS
Which of the following considered as indirect antigen? A
Positive crossmatch mean? Incompatibility.
One came for donation, and he want a money for that? Reject.
Weak D antigen needs? IAT.
One came for donation all examination was normal except high blood
pressure? Reject.
Hematology
hemophilia C is deficiency in which factor ? Factor XI
spleen function is ?
fights invading germs in the blood (the spleen contains infection -
fighting white blood cells) it controls the level of blood cells (white
blood cells, red blood cells and platelets) it filters the blood and
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removes any old or damaged red blood cells

Philadelphia chromosome + ve , patient had which disease ? CML
patient with high HbA2 ? B thalassemia Minor
patient with high HbF ? B thalassemia Major
multiple myeloma indicator ? Bence jones protein

what’s the WBCs react in allergy case ? Eosinophils
Reticlucyte stain ? by supra-vital staining (such as new methylene blue,
Brilliant Cresyl Blue)
in IDA what we see ?

Low IRON , high RDW % , low MCV , low HB , low ferritin , highTIBC
target cells seen in ?
Thalassemia
hypersigmentied seen in ? Megaloblastic anemia or vit B12 deficiency
marocytic example ? In vit B12 deficiency
CD marker stem cells ? CD34
how we can differentiate between hemophilia A and B ? factor assay
blast cells percentage in AML ? Blasts > 30% in FAB , >20 % in WHO
pencil cells seen in ? IDA

JAK 2 mutation , during in ? Polycythaemia vera
why we should do mixing after take blood ?

To avoid clot
type of Hb in new born ? HbF
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arrangements of tube in laboratory ? Culture tube - Blue – red – green –

Lavender -gray
CD marker for CLL ? CD : 5 – 19 – 23
protien defictive in hereditary eliptotocytosis is ? Spectrin
decrease PLT – RBC – WBCs description as ? Pancytopenia

increase MCHC found in ? Rouleax and spherocytosis
heinze body consist of ? Hb denatured
patient with normal MCV , MCH , and decrease in MCHC Normocytic
hypochromic
APTT prolonged and with mixing study FX corrected by FX plasma but
FVIII not corrected , what’s the factor is deficiency here ? Factor 8 VIII
Vit K antagonist? Warfarin

called extrinsic pathway ? PT
rod like crystals shape in blood picture? HB C
how we can differentiate between Hb SS and Hb AS ? By
electrophoresis
HB S patient , normal indices with no in hereditary HB diseases in
family , what to do next ? Blood film , soulbility test , HB
electrophoresis
definition od MCV ? Mean corpuscular volume measure the size and

volume of RBCs
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APTT and PT prolonged which factor responds about that ? Factor 1

(common pathway
what’s the predominant WBC ? Neutrophile
MCV not affected by what ? Hb
heniz body seen in ? G6PD
pappeinheimer body seen in ? Pappenheimer bodies are seen in
certain types of anemia that are characterized by an increase in the
storage of iron, such as sideroblastic anemia and thalassemia. These
inclusions are also seen in the peripheral blood following a
splenectomy.
immunopheotyping flow cytometry detection for what ? presence or

absence of white blood cell (WBC) markers called antigens.
what’s the reason to wrong result decrease in ESR test?
a-Delayed sample
b- Wrong tube position (like Tube tilted (not vertical position)
c-Hemolysis sample
clotted sample lead to what in test ?

a-False increase
b- False decrease
in sickle cell anemia patient what’s the type of hemoglobin will see ?
HB S
which factor activated by thrombin ? Factor I
APTT , TT , PT ,prolonged , which factor response about that ?

a-8
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b- 7
c-2
d- 12
patient with prolonged PT , APTT . TT , LOW PLT , LOW HB , what we

will see in this case ? DIC
CML associated with what ? Hypersegmented neutrophils
normal MCV , MCH , HB ? Normocytic normochromic
bite cells found in ? G6PD
baby with sickle cell anemia, the sign and symptoms not appear early ,
why? Because HB S not appear in baby less than 6 month age (HB F is
most appendant)
which of the following is intravascular hemolysis? Acute hemolytic

transfusion
basophils stippling is ? RNA
patient with leukemia , lab finding tdt +ve , Philadelphia chromosome ?

CML
Cd marker of plasma is ? CD+45,CD +38
LAP test high in ? Lukomid reaction
owel eye seen in ? H odgkin lymphoma

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how differentiate between leukemia types ? Flow cytometry
low PLT called ? Thrombocytopenia

when we see increase in retyclocytes ? Acute blood loss
autosomal dominant inherited disorders ? X – XI – XII –XIII
factor with shorter shift life ? VII
which factor initiate coagulation pathway ? TF ( tissue factor )
alplastic anemia morphology ? Normocytic normochromic
sideroblastic anemia morphology ? Microcytic hypochromic
convert prothrombin to thrombin by Factor ? X
stain for iron in RBCs ? Prussian blue stain

leukemia come from ? Bone marrow
which thalassemia in Hb A2 high ? Minor
thrombocytopenia?
a-Heparin assay
b-PLT assay
low Hb low PLT and picture with ruptured cells ? HUS
hairy cells is marker to ? Leukemia
Holly Joly body is ? DNA
which of the following is contact factor ?

a-X
b- VII
c-VIII
d- XII
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normal HB and normal MCV in CBC ? Normocytic normochromic
how we can monitoring heparin ? BY APTT
ectopy for stomach lead to ? Decrease vit B12

INI use with ? PT ( extrinsic pathway )
deficiency in XIII factor affects in ? Wound healing
psudothromboctopenia because what ? Use EDTA tube
vWF function is ? it acts as a bridging molecule at sites of vascular
injury for normal platelet adhesion, and under high shear conditions, it
promotes platelet aggregation
vit K dependent factors ? 1972 ( I , IX , VII , II )
test to detect cell mediate immunity? Flowcytometry
T cell marker ? CD 2 , CD 3 , CD4 , CD 7 , CD 8
B cell marker? CD 19,21,22
which of the following is stain use for amyloid ? Congo red
thrombosis is ? Increase PLt
which method or device can use it to differentiate between factor 8
and 9 , another Factor assay ? Flow cytometry
howly jolly body form in ? Splenomegaly
bleeding with normal PT and APTT , because what ? XIII Factor
factor affected by thrombin ? X – V – Ca – Pa
stem cells CD marker is ? CD 34
stain use for blood smear ? Romanwsky stain
source of B lymphocyte is ? Bone marrow

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howly jolly body form in Hemolytic anemia, splenectomy,

megaloblastic anemia.
platelet Satelitism occur when ? Collect blood on EDTA tube > pseudo
thrombocytopenia
haptoglobin normal and increase rate of reticulocytosis?
a-Aplastic anemia.
b- pernicious anemia.
c- extravascularhemolysis
d- sickle cell anemia
tear drop cells seen in?
a-multiple myeloma
b-primary myelofibrosis
all of the following are HCL marker except ?
A)11
B) 25
C) 5
D) 103
Pseudo Thrombocytopenia leard to?
A)low platelets count and increase WBCs count
B) low platelets count and increase HB
C) low platelets count and high RBCs count

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Case: patient who is a vegetarian had fatigue. Blood smear showed

ovalocytes and target cells. What should be seen in blood smear?
hypersegmented neutrophil
Anisocytosis variation ?in size
patient with low folic acid and high MCV , what you guess will see ?
HyperSegmented neutrophils
which factor that’s convert fibrinogen to fibrin ? Thrombin ( 2 )
A patient came after a week of her appendicitis surgery and the wound
hasn’t healed and it’s still bleeding. What is the causative factor ? XIII
Baby hemoglobin type on 7th month? Hb A
PLT aggregat ? use sodium citrate tube
-PT and PTT prolonged why ? Deficiency of common pathway factors

fibrinogen, prothrombin, factors V or X, or multiple factor deficiencies
Increase ESR? Leukemia
in normal bone marrow blast ?1-5%
Auer rods found in which type of leukemia? Acute

myeloid leukemia (AML).
Test used for differentiation between factor deficiency

and factor inhibitor? Mixing studies.
Test used to differentiate von Willebrand disease from
hemophilia? Bleeding time
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Peripheral smear shows rouleaux formation, caused by?

Multiple myeloma (MM).
Type of G6PD anemia? Hemolytic anemia.
The part in reticulocyte that stained with new
methylene blue is? - RNA.
Mutation in CML? t(9:22).
Lab finding of TTP? Low PLTS count.
Neurological findings may be commonly associated with
which of the following disorders?TTP.
Hb-electrophoresis shows normal HbA and high HbA2?

Thalassemia minor.
Stain for reticulocytes count? Supravital stain (new

methylene blue).
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Best test for IDA? Ferritin.

Cause low ESR?Low fibrinogen.
Result in factor X deficiency?Prolonged PT & APTT.
Factor not measured by PT & APTT? Factor XIII.
Prolonged PT, given IV vitamin K, the PT corrects to
normal after 24 hrs?Obstructive jaundice.
A prolonged APTT is corrected with factor VIII deficient
plasma but not with factor IX deficient plasma, the
deficiency factor is?Factor IX.
PT: prolonged, APTT: prolonged, low PLTS count? DIC.
Factor XII deficiency associated with? Increased risk of
thrombosis.
Protein of primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system
(plasmin)? Alpha 2-antiplasmin.
Plasminogen deficiency associated with? Thrombosis.
After birth baby develops petechiae and pupura and

hemorrhagic, PLTS count was 18 x 109/L
diagnosis?Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia.
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Normal PT and prolonged APTT, increased bleeding time

and normal platelet count, with abnormal platelet
aggregation to ristocetin?Von Willebrand disease.
Which ration of anticoagulant to blood is correct for
coagulation procedures?1:9.
Function of vitamin K in coagulation?
Required for carboxylation of glutamate residues of
some coagulation factors.
The APTT is sensitive to deficiency of: VII, X, PF3 or
calcium? Factor X.
Test for heparin monitoring? APTT.
Anticoagulant in PT?Warfarin.
INR for? PT.
Define MCV?Measure of average volume of RBC.
Heinz bodies seen in? G6PD anemia, and it is a
denatured Hb.
Hemophilia A caused by? Deficiency of factor VIII.

Life span of RBCs? 120 days.
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Reed Sternberg cell found in?Hodgkin lymphoma.

Bence jonse protein found in? Multiple myeloma.
Concentration of Na citrate for coagulation studies?
3.2%.
Device used to obtain sediments?Centrifuge.
Nucleated RBCs found in?
Hemolytic anemia ad megaloblastic anemia.
Anemia with thrombocytopenia?
Megaloblastic anemia and aplastic anemia.
Maturation of B lymphocyte? In bone marrow.
Maturation of T lymphocyte? in thymus gland.
How to differentiate HbSS from HbAS? By Hb-
electrophoresis.
Autosomal recessive? Two Copies of defected gene from
both parents should inherited.
Normal Hb and normal MCV? Normocytic

normochromic RBCs
Protein S is cofactor for?Protein C.
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Differentiate fibrinogenolysis from DIC?D-dimer

positive.
Method for leukemia diagnosis?
Flow cytometry, bone marrow aspiration and biopsy,
cytogenetics (FISH, PCR), immunohistochemistry, CBC,
blood films, MRI.
Unfractionated heparin controlled by? APTT.
Iron deficiency anemia features?
Microcytosis (microcytic hypochromic anemia).
.X-linked diseases?
Hemophilia A (factor VIll deficiency). Hemophilia B
(factor IX deficiency
Note!! Hemophilia C is autosomal recessive (factor XI
deficiency).
Predominant WBCs? Neutrophil
VB12 deficiency anemia? Megaloblastic anemia.

Hypersegmented neutrophil seen in? Megaloblastic
anemia.
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Test for differentiate between alpha and beta

thalassemia? Hb-electrophoresis
Coagulation studies tube? Sodium citrate (Na citrate).
Value of MCV in macrocytic anemia?High.
Beta thalassemia major which elevated Hb? HbF.
Abnormal hemoglobin in alpha thalassemia? Hb Bart, Hb
H.
Sickle solubility test depend on?HbS.
Reticulocytosis seen in?
Hemolytic anemia, hemorrhage, blood loss, leukemia,
sickle cell anemia, autimmunehemolytic anemia,
treatment of vit. B12, IDA, folate deficiency.
Anisocytosis?High RDW.
tdt marker?Marker of immaturity (B & T cells).
Type of leukemia associated with basophilia? CML
Contact coagulation factor? XII, PK, HMWK
Glanzmann disease?Defect in platelets aggregation.
CLL marker? CD5, CD19, CD23.
Bernard souller syndrome? Presence of giant platelets.
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Parameter use for measuring the erythropoiesis?

Reticulocyte
Lupus anticoagulant associated with?Prolonged APTT.
3 alpha gene are missing?Hb-H disease.
Sickle cell anemia substitution?A to T.
Correct about PT? Stable for 24 h if capped.
Which of the following initiates in vivo coagulation by
activation of factor VII? Tissue factor.
Which of the following clotting factors plays a role in
clot formation in vitro, but not in vivo(in vitro clot
formation and not in vivo coagulation)? XIla.
What reagents are used in the PT test?Thromboplastin
and calcium.
A modification of which procedure can be used to
measure fibrinogen?Thrombin time.
Which of the following clotting factors are measured by
the APTT test?XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I
Which coagulation test(s) would be abnormal in a
vitamin K-deficient patient?
A. PT only
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b. PT and APTT
c. fibrinogen level
d. thrombin time
Which of the following is correct regarding the
international normalized ratio (INR)?it standardizes PT
results
Which of the following is referred to as an endogenous
activator of plasminogen?Tissue plasminogen activator.
A protein that plays a role in both coagulation and
platelet aggregation is?Factor 1.
Which of the following clotting factors are activated by
thrombin that is generated by tissue pathway (TF-
Vila)?V. VIII.
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is
characterized by?
a. prolonged PT
b. increased plt aggregation
c. thrombocytosis
d. prolonged APTT
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Normal platelet adhesion depends upon? Glycoprotein

lb.
Which of the following test results is normal in a patient
with classic von Willebrand's disease?
a. bleeding time
b. activated partial thromboplastin time
c. platelet count
d. factor VIII:C and von Willebrand's factor (VWF) levels
Bernard-Soulier syndrome is associated with?
Thrombocytopenia and giant platelets.
Which set of platelet responses would be most likely
associated with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia?
Normal platelet aggregation to ristocetin; decreased
aggregation to collagen, ADP, and epinephrine.
TTP differs from DIC in that?
APTT is normal in TTP but prolonged in DIC.
Refer to the following results: PT = prolonged APTT =
prolonged, Platelet count = decreased. Which disorder
may be indicated?
DIC
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The following results were obtained on a patient:

normal platelet count and function, normal PT, and
prolonged APTT. Which of the following disorders is
most consistent with these results? Hemophilia A.
The following laboratory results were obtained from a
40-year-old woman: PT = 20 sec; APTT = 50 sec;
thrombin time = 18 sec. What is the most probable
diagnosis?Hypofibrinogenemia.
The most suitable product for treatment of factor VIII
deficiency is?Factor VIII concentrate.
Which of the following is associated with an abnormal
platelet aggregation test? Afibrinogenemia.
Refer to the following results: PT = normal APTT =

prolonged, Bleeding time= increased, Platelet count =
normal Platelet aggregation to ristocetin abnormal
Which of the following disorders may be indicated? von
Willebrand's disease.
Which results are associated with hemophilia A?
Prolonged APTT, normal PT.
Patient History A 3-year-old male was admitted to a
hospital with scattered petechiae and epistaxis. The
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patient had normal growth and had no other medical

problems except for chickenpox 3 weeks earlier. His
family history was unremarkable. PT: 11 sec, PTT: 32 sec,
platelets count: 18x10/Ml
These clinical manifestations and laboratory results are
consistent with which condition?
A. TTP
B. DIC
C. ITP
D. HUS.
567. A 62-year-old female presents with jaundice and
the following laboratory data: Peripheral blood smear:
macrocytosis, target cells, Platelet count: 355 x 109/L
PT: 25 sec (reference range =10-14) APTT: 65 sec
(reference range = 28 36) Transaminases: elevated
(AST:ALT>1) Total and direct bilirubin: elevated. These
clinical presentations and laboratory results are
consistent with?
A. Inherited factor VII deficiency
B. DIC
C. Cirrhosis of the liver
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D. von Willebrand's disease

Which of the following clotting factors are measured by
the APTT test?
I, VII, IX, X
XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II,I
XII, VII, X, V, II, I
Normal platelets count and function, normal PT,
prolonged APTT, which of the following disorders is the
correct answer?Hemophilia A.
Overfilled Citrate tube for coagulation? Request a new
sample.
Aplastic anemia?Normocytic/normochromic anemia.
Vitamin K antagonist?
Warfarin/coumadin.
Rod like crystal in RBC?
HbC crystal,
Differentiation between HbSS (diseased) and HbAS
(trait)?
By Hb-electrophoresis.
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Gastrectomy leads to?

Vitamin B12 deficiency.
Thrombosis?
Blood clot.
Acquired coagulation disorder?
VIII deficiency
IX deficiency
VWF deficiency
Vitamin K deficiency
Organ produce erythropoietin? Kidney
increase osmatic fragility in ?hereditary spherocytosis
cell
RBC life span ?120 days .
Lavender tube? EDTA
Reticulocyte elevated in ? Hemolytic Anemia
Symptom of G6PD ? Favism.
Hematocrit are measures of red cell mass
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The most common form of leukemia in children ? acute

lymphoblastic leukemia
Leukocytosis characterized by the presence of immature
cells and high neutrophil alkalineb phosphatase ?
Leukemoid reaction
A disease characterized by progressive neoplastic
proliferation of immature white cell precursor ? acute
leukemia.
Some patient’s platelets clump in EDTA, or satellite,
making platelet counts falsely low. How should this be
correct?
A. Mix the sample
B. Warm the sample
C. Do manual count
D. Use sodium citrate tub

Save period of blood film in lab ?7 days.
The morphological classification of anemias is based on
which of the following?RBC indices
type of leukemia in more 40 years ?CML
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Forward light scatter in flow cytometry? Size and

volume.
qualitative test for sickle cell ? Solubility test.
type of Anemia (Shift to left) ? Iron deficiency anemia
Christmas disease ?factor lX
Icetric sample affect which result? MCH
Case study: a person with a bacterial infection, how is it
diagnosed ? increased WBC
evaluate the internal structures ?side scatter of the laser
beam.
Clinical Chemistry
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ammonia high in ? Liver disease
patient with history of alcoholism high liver enzyme diagnosis of this case is Liver
cirrhosis
what’s the source of insulin ?

Pancreas
what’s the source of cholesterol ? Steroid
what will give us false increase after heavy meal in triglycerides?

a-LDL
b-HDL
c-chylomicon
d- VLDL
patient have shortness of breath , fatigue , swallow in arms , which test must be
use ?
a-troponin
b-myoglobin
c-BNP
production of nucleic acid break down ? Uric acid
protein synthesis in ? Ribosome
Acetyl co A react with ? oxaloacetate
patient with 7.3 Ph – normal PCO2 – high HCO3 ? Metabolic alkalosis
ACTH function ? stimulate the the release of cortisoL
NA+ Low , what you can write in the result ? Hyponatremia

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random diabetes test was high with ketoacidosis what’s the disease in this case ?
DM type 1
what type of tube use with HbA1C test ? EDTA
gamma high - and albumin is low in electrophoresis what’s the result ?

Monolonal gammopathy seen in multiple myeloma
lactate is metabolized by liver via ? Gluconeogenesis (lactate transported to the

liver which then converted to glucose)
high ALT , high AST , what must seen with this result ? Liver disease
what we use to diagnose hepatic disease ? AST – ALT
BUN equal 2.14
TSH high , what we will seen ? T3 – T4 decrease
hypothyroidism (T3 and T4 low , TSH high) Symptoms include fatigue,weight gain
,cold intolerance) The most common cause is Hashiomto thyroiditis)
TSH low , what we will seen ? T3 – T4 increase

hyperthyroidism(TSH low, T3 and T4 high) Symptoms include weight loss, heat
intolerance , hair loss ,tachycardia and tumor) The most common cause is Graves
disease)
mainly electrolytes ? Cl- , HCO3 , NA+ , K+
electrolyte cation mainly extra cellular ? NA +
electrolyte cation mainly inside cellular ? K+
what’s biomarker is useful use to breast cancer ? CA15-3,HER2,ER,PR
congestive heart failure ? Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) test

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patient result in electrophoresis was decrease in albumin – Alpha 1 – gamma , and

Alpha 2 was increased , what’s the case here ? Nephrotic syndrome
patient with Beta and gamma bridge , in electrophoresis, what’s the case here ?
Liver chirosis
women has moon face and increase in cortisol , what’s we will see also ? Cushing
syndrome
what’s the test use to GFR ? Creatinine clearance
increase lipase & amylase and CRP +ve , what’s the case ? Acute or chronic
pancreatitis
hepatocellular carcinoma marker is ? AFP
hepatic coma can cause because what ? Ammonia
regulate acid-base by ? kidneys and lungs.
hereditary fructose intolerance (HFI) is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by

the deficiency in aldolase
patient come to hospital , after diagnosis we found high level of cortisol what
descriptions of this case ? Hypercortolism
which urine sample suitable with multiple myeloma disease to detect bence jones
protein ? First morning
patient come to hospital and after diagnosed him we found elevated in uric acid
and glucose , what’s the diseases may found in this case ? DM and gout
in long fast what process will be act ? Gluconeogensisedited
why use soudium flouride tube with glucose ? Because it inhibit glycolysis
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in phenylketonuria ( PKU ) case what we will see in urine? phenylalanine

accumulates and is converted into phenylp yruvate (also known as phenylketone),
which can be detected in the urine .edited
man drink alcohol a lot which test use in chemistry lab to this case ? GGT
patient came to hospital without symptoms, just he has hard to breath , the doctor
guess he may has AMI , what’s the enzyme use in this case to find the problem? Ck-
MB
the percentage in soudium citrate ?
9/1 –% 3.2
lavender tube is ? EDTA
gluconeogensis definition? formation of glucose 6 phosphate from

noncarbohydrate sources
glycated hemoglobin? Measure Glucose attached to hemoglobin ( 12 weeks

hyponatremia associated with ? Addison disease
marker of ovarian and endometrial cancers ? CA125
women have pain in in the right side under stomach, lab finding elevated bilirubin,
high AST and ALT , what’s most probably ? Hepatocellular damage
which enzymes responsible for regulating gluconeogensis and glycolysis ?
a-Pyruvate kinase
b- pyruvate carboxylate
which organ glucose demented as fuel ? Brain
patient with ketosis what most probably see here ? a-Hypokalemia
b- Hypertension
c-Low ph
ketone bodies see in ?
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a-Metabolic acidosis
b- Respiratory acidosis
c-Metabolic alkalosis
d- Respiratory alkalosis
BNP lead to what ? Heart failure
osmolality test affected by ? sodium, chloride, bicarbonate, proteins, and sugar

(glucose)
mg decrease cause ? muscle spasms and tremors, Adisson

patient result indicate to ( hypernatremia and hypokalemia ) , what we will see in
this case ? Hyperaldosteronism
the iron move by ? Transferrin
coronary heart disease associated with ? LDL

adrenal cortex hormone associated with ? ACTH
gland in the brain ? Pituitary gland
man do exercise to 6 hours what most probably in his result ? CK

man with enlarged breast and testes , what’s the rapid test can use here ? Hcg
how we can differentiate between DM type 1 and DM type 2 ? C peptide test
man came to hospital he suffer from short breath and hand swelling, high blood
pressure , what we will use ?
a-Myoglobin
b. Troponin
c. BNP
d. Arterial blood gases
high TSH and low T4 seen in ? Hypothyroidism
the master of gland called that because it response about secret most hormones ?
Anterior pituitary
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patient with high bilirubin , crystals in urine , amber urine color , leucine , which
probably disease we will see here ? Liver disease
stain use with DNA ? Ethidium bromide
first drawing tube ? Blood culture ,Soudium citrate

lipemia sample effective in
a-Spectrophotometer
b-Chromatography
what will seen in Gilbert syndrom ? High unconiugated ( indirect ) bilirubin
Patient with high ALP , what also use to confirm the bone problems ? GGT
what’s the function of vasopressin ? Control water reabsorption
thyroid gland carcinoma marker is ? calcitonin
serology tube is ? Plain tube
ammonia go to liver as ? Glutamine
keto amino acid ? Leucine
creatinine clearance suitable sample ? 24 urine
hormone cotrol potassium, chloride, soudium ? Aldosterone
creamy layer on sample , what’s the reason ? Chylomicrons
patient with low potassium, what’s the correct interpretation? Hypokalemia
patient eat meal before Chemistry test , that will lead to false increase in what
type of lipids ?
A-Triglyceride
b- LDL
c. HDL
prolactin hormone higher than 200 marker to ? One common cause of
hyperprolactinemia is a tumor on the pituitary gland called a prolactinoma
which of the following is the faster in cross adipose tissue ?
a-Amino acid
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b- Protein
hepatic obstructive cause by ? Post hepatic
CK -MB use for ? Cardiac
ectopy for stomach lead to ? Decrease vit B12
what use to diagnosis prostatic cancer ? PSA
most electrolyte in human body is ? NA cl k HCO3
cystic fibrosis mutation gene ? CFTR
CA 125 marker for ? Oviran
patient has nothing to eat just water and he has headache why ? Dehydration
glucagon hormone secreted by ? Pancreas alpha cells
release fo nucleic acid break it ? Uric acid
thyroid gland cancer marker ? Calcitonin
phenylketonuria what seen ? Low lucine , low tyrosine
reference method of glucose is ? Hexokinase
lipemic sample effect in ? HB
type of bilirubin increase in hemolytic anemia ? unconjugated
which of the following in chemistry lab photosensitive ? Bilirubin

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enzyme affected by hemolysis ? AST
jaffer reaction method is ? Coulometric method
employee it was in place with chemical substance , he has symptoms after few
hour , what he should does ? Go to emergency
natural lipid?
a-steroid
b- LDL
c-triglycerides
anticoagulant used in calcium analysis?
A)EDTA.
B) Citrate
C) heparin.
d) fluoride
what you will fond in urine sample with willson’s disease ? High copper
acromegaly cause is ? Growth hormone
what see with High sodium Low potassium ? Hyperaldosteronism
Control water reabsorption? ADH Or Vasopressin
Type of bilirubin increase in hemolytic anemia? Unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin.
Glycated Hb (hemoglobin) test what? HbA1c (average of glucose in 2-3 months).
In Jaffe reaction the creatinine reacts with? Picric acid in alkaline media.
Tumor marker use for? Cancer monitoring.
Patient with 3 days vomiting, with a distinctive smell of breathing (like nail
polish)? Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
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Chemical strip of urinalysis shows positive bilirubin and decreased urobilinogen,

what is the diag sis? Billary obstruction (post-hepatic jaundice).
Non pathological condition shows a high blood albumin level ? Dehydration
If the blood tube left for 5 hours what test not affected ? Uric acid.
Specific enzyme elevated in biliary obstruction ? GGT.
Patient with chest pain, suspected to have Acute myocardial infarction, the
confirmatory test? Troponin T.
Special test for evaluation the congenital hypothyroidism? TSH.
Tumor marker for colon cancer? Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).
Specific enzyme for hepatobiliary diseases? Alkaline phosphatase (ALP).
Specific enzyme for acute pancreatitis? Lipase.
A protein electrophoresis, all fractions are normal except Gamma fraction is

elevated, what is the diagnosis? Monoclonal gammopathy.
One patient with high level of ADH, what is the common finding? Hyponatremia.
Clinical condition associated with autoantibodies against thyroglobulin and

thyroid peroxidase? Hashimotos thyroiditis.
High sugar with normal insulin? Insulin Independent diabetes mellitus
Endocrine disorder, patient gain weight, cold intolerance ? Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
Endocrine disorder, in which the patient loss his weight, heat intolerance? Graves
disease.
This is the only lipoprotein synthesized and secreted in intestine ? Chylomicron.
High lipase and amylase?Pancreatitis
If creatinine is 5.9 (critical)!!! Call physician.
Normal fasting blood sugar, and high 2-hour postprandial glucose? Isolated
postprandial hyperglycemia, type 2 diabetes Mellitus, cardiovascular risk.
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Osmolality of urine depend on? Na+ specific gravity.
Phenylketonuria? Lack of phenylalanine hydroxylase.
Niacin (nicotinic acid/vitamin B3) and tryptophan deficiency cause? Pellagra.
Cushing syndrome? High cortisol, Hyperaldosteronism, high ACTH.
Hypoalbuminemia caused by? Acute or chronic inflammation, nephrotic syndrome,

liver cirrhosis, heart failure, malnutrition, allergy.
Hypercalcemia? Hyperparathyroidism.
Calculate LDL? LDL= total cholesterol - HDL-TG/S
Enzyme responsible of glycolysis? Pyruvate kinase.
Enzyme affects with alcohol? GGT.
Hormone control the adrenal gland? Астна - ACTH
Enzyme of obstructive jaundice? ALP.
Plasma vs serum? Plasma contain fibrinogen.
growth hormone in children? Gigantism.
High growth hormone in adult? Acromegaly.
High CA 19-9 and high lipase and amylase? Pancreatic cancer.
Calculate BUN? Urea/2.14
Familial hyper cholesterolemia? High LDL
Lipid affected by meal? Triglycerides
Enzyme specific for osteoporosis? Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
High urea, creatinine and ammonia, due to consuming of? High protein.
Hormone increase glucose? Cortisol, glucagon, epinephrine, 73, 74, ACTH, growth
hormone
Beta cell of pancreas secretes? insulin.

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Alpha cell of pancreas secrets? Glucagon
Organ produces erythropoietin? Kidney.
Hormone responsible of Na, K, water reabsorption and excretion of K. H?

Aldosterone.
High liver enzyme, GGT? Cholestasis.
High ALP? Seen in Paget disease.
Polyuria, weight loss, high glucose? DM.
The normal highest electrolyte? Sodium (Na 135-145).
High prolactin cause? Infertility.
Medium for electrophoresis? Agarose gel.
Corticosteroid hormone? Cortisol.
Positive CEA? Carcinomas of the colorectal (colonk pancreas, breast and stomach
High thyroid hormone? Hyperthyroidism.
The most nitrogenous product? BUN, urea.
What found in nephrotic syndrome? Proteinuria.
Catabolism and anabolism? Citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle).
Quantification of electrolytes? lon selective electrode (ISE).
Marker for alcoholic liver disease? GGT
Gray patches around the cornea? High cholesterol (familial hyperchlosterolemia).
Type of bilirubin elevated in obstructive jaundice? Direct bilirubin.
Atherosclerosis is due to? High LDL
Rickets is caused by? Vitamin D deficiency.

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Moon face or buffalo hump? Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome).
Genetic breast cancer? BRCA 1, 2 and HER2.
Calculate the CK-MB index? CK-MB/CK x 100
Unit for reporting enzymes? Activity unit.
Patient with ketone bodies and coma? Ketoacidosis
Hormone of adrenal cortex stimulated by? ACTH to produce cortisol, aldosterone,

DHEA
Hepatocellular disease confirmed by?ALT.
Which O the following not related to liver enzymes? Ck
Increase in which electrolyte will leads to cardiac arrest? Hyperkalemia (K).
An elevated AST, ALT, to exclude alcoholic cirrhosis? Test GGT
ormal range of GFR? 60-120mL/min.
Fine needle aspiration (FNA) for thyroid gland study? Follicle cells
Measure the amount of the chloride in sweat? Cystic fibrosis.
Breast cancer prognosis? ER/PR.
Breast cancer, ER? By IHC.
Male with enlarged breast? High beta-HCG.
Liver cirrhosis? Alcoholism.
Patient with given orange juice and become well? Hypoglycemic patient, orange
juice will result in high glucose.
Postprandial lipemia (increase triglyceride)? High chylomicrons give false increased

result.
Epinephrine secreted from? Adrenal gland (kidney)
Cross the adipose tissue? Fatty acid.

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DM patient with malnutrition? Celiac antibody test.
Heavy metal measured by? Atomic absorption spectroscopy
Long shelf-life enzyme? Lipase
Microbiology
bacteria appear on the blood agar like swarming ? Protues
oxidase positive bacteria? Pseudomonas, Campylobacter, Vibrio, Helicobacter

pylori
Maconkey agar used to ? Gram negative bacilli
gram -ve diplococci in CSF ? N.meningitis
salmonella in the stool , what type of WBCs will be present in stool ? Neutrophils
salmonella and shegella on EMB agar ? Colorless
differentiate test between S.pyogens and other streptococcus ? Bactercin sensitive
antibiotics agar ? Thyer martin agar
catalase +ve , motility +ve ? Listeria monocytogenes
bacteria motile cause diharrhea ? Salmonella
caused by treponema pallidium? Shyphilis
bacteria give beta hemolysis on blood agar ? Staylococcous aures
Why MacConkey agar is called selective media?

MacConkey Agar Is Selective for Non-fastidious Gram-negative Organisms.
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why mucoid appear on agar ? Because capsules
bacteria motile by what ? Flagella
the most bacteria cause toxic ? C.penfengers
what’s the color of gram negative bacteria after stain it ? Red color
crystal violet stain gram positive bacteria and give violet color why Because stain
peptidoglycan layer (Gram-positive bacteria have thick peptidoglycan in their cell
wall)
neonatal meningitis can cause by ? bacterial infection of birth canal (The most
common causes of neonatal bacterial meningitis are group B streptococcus, E. coli,
and L. monocytogenes.)
which bacteria give alpha hemolytic on Blood agar ? S.pneumonia & S.viridance
bacteria infect human from rice ? Bacillus cereus
persistent cough found in ? Bordetella pertusis
urea breath test using with bacteria to detect it what’s this bacteria ? H.pylori
RPR test use with what as sensitive test ? Laprosy – syphilisedited
torch test ? T= Toxoplasma O= other infection like (HIV , chicken pox , chlamydia ,
HTLV , syphilis, coxsackievirus) R= rubella C= cytomegalovirus H= herpes simplex
virus
bacteria found as normal flora in the eye with coagulase +ve ? S.aureus
protues bacteria give swarming on which agar ? Blood agar

proteus bacteria not give swarming on which agar ? MAC agar, PEA and CLED
blood agar media from which type of media ? Enriched & differential media
TB agar is ? L J agar
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confirmatory test of shyphilis? ( FTA-ABS ) + ( MHA – TP)

bacteria appear red pigment on agar ? Serratia
bacteria result green or blue color on agar?Pseudomonas
urease + ve ? Proteus
man have sheep’s he drink from the milk of this sheep’s , after short period he
suffer from headache and fever and weakness, what must probably see here ?
Brucella
patient suffering from watery diarrhea, after diagnosed him we found bacteria
motile by flagella, what the bacteria name?V.Cholera
baby with meningitis, and appear in blood agar with staphylococcus aureus do
statilism ,gram negative bacteria with rods shaoe ,whats the bacteria here
?H.infulnza B
bacteria lead to apportion in pregnancy women ? Lesteria
bacteria cause chronic pulmonary disease ? mycobacterium
bacteria in stool , urease +ve ? H.pylori
homophiles ( H.infulnza ) gram stain shape ? GN-Coccobacili(filamentous)
which of the following is true about shigella features ? Non motile , non lactose
fermenter
patient with diarrhea, we do selenite broth and we find H2S , what’s the bacteria
cause that ? Salmonella
albert stain use to ? C.diphtheria
diagnostic test for suggestion bacteria ?
a-Gimza stain
b- Culture
C-Nucleic acid
H.infulnza agar is ? Chocolate agar
kill microorganisms on living tissue ? Antimicrobial
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the most media use to sputum ? Blood & chocolate agar

which of the following is selective media ? MaConkey agar
a highly selective media containing cyclohexmide & chloramphenicol ? Mycosel

agar
which type of sample we need to diagnosis TB ? Sputum of early morning for 3
consecutive days
agar use for vibrio cholera? TCBS & alkaline peptone water
bacteria grow at >43 °c ? campylobacter jejuni
bacteria grow at 4°c temperature? LestieriaHistopathology
kill all organisms by ? Autoclave
patient eat food from refrigerator food was in refrigerator more than 3 days , and
he suffering from poisoning food , what’s the reason ? L.monostogen
bacteria has smile like fish smile ? Proteus
sample grow anaerobic? Sputum
which of the following is example on counter stain ? Methylen blue(in AFS)
patient have contamination after draw why ? S.epidermis
vibiro cholera in oxidase give us ? Positive
bacteria resistance Vancomycin? E.feaclies
baby 4 years patient with meningitis, which bacteria lead to that ?
a-Listeria monocytogenes
b- H.influnza B
c-Nesseria meningitis
elek test use with ? C.diphtheria
whooping cough see in ? Bordetella pertoesis
sample for culture came to lab after your finish time of your work , what you
should do ? Put it in refrigerator
bacteria appear as green metallic On EMB agar ? E.colli

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Bacteria lysis DNA ( DNAse +ve ) ? Staphylococcus aureus
streptomycin and rifampine use agent?
a.DNA
b. RNA
c. DNA – RNA
bacteria untreated cause cancer in stomach ? H.pylori
gas gangrene seen in ? C.penfingers
trypanoma pallidium result in ? Syphilis
bacteria mutations ? DNA erorr
stain uses with C. Diphtheria? Albert stain
cold acid fast stain ? Kinyoun
Klepsella bacteria resistance to ? Ampicillin
catalase test formula ? H2O2 -> O2 + H2O
coagulase read result by ? Clot by convert fibrinogen to fibrin
bacteria not has cell wall ? Mycoplasma bacteria
antibiotic use with brucella ? Rifampin , streptomycin
IMVC ++ - - ? E.coli
media use in motility test ? Sulphide indole motility media
urease test for brucella spp what color of medium ? Red
shyphilis positive with RPR what we can use to confirm it ? FTA – ABS
which organisms can growth on maconkey agar ?
a-Streptococcus
b- Niessieria
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c-Bacillus
d- Corynebacterium
Simple test used for differentiation between S. aureus and micrococcus?

Oxidative/fermentative media (O/F): micrococci (oxidative) staphylococci
(fermentative)
Lancefield group classify based on ? Polysaccharide
In triple sugar iron agar k /A ( Alkaline/acid ) +ve ? salmonella & shigella , proteus
Counter stain in gram stain ? Safranin

Most common cause of UTI in young female ? staphylococcus saprophyticus
patient with severe borns and inflammation that result from infection , what will
see in microbiology tests ? P. Aeroginousa
-A technologist didn’t apply antiseptic before drawing blood from a boy and the
boy developed a bacterial infection. What is the most probable cause ? Epidermidis
Sensitive to optochin? S.pneumoniae
Sore throat caused by ? Str. Pyogenes
Capsulated highly mucoid bacteria? Klebsiella spp.
Confirmatory test for VDRL? Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA -

ABS).
Special technique for treponema and spirochetes? Dark field microscope
Infant with meningitis, caused by gram positive rods with tumbling like motility?
Listeria monocytogenes.
Test differentiate M. tuberculosis from other mycobacteria ? Production of niacin

(nicotinic acid)
Gram positive rods, infect fetus and pregnant women, ab le to grow in 4C? Listeria
monocytogenes
Influenza virus attached to epithelial cells by? Heamagglutinin
How differentiate Staphylococci from streptococci ? By catalase test.

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Cause hemolytic uremic syndrome? Enterohemorrhagic-E. coli O157:H7, Shigella

dysenteriae.
In gram stain, 5. aureus arranged in ? Clusters
Media contain vancomycin-colistin-nystatin? Thayer martin media, modified

Thayer martin media.
Bile solubility test? Special test for S. pneumoniae, lysed by bile salts.
Neurotoxin produced by? C. tetani, C. botulinum, S. aureus, B. cerus.
Double zone of beta hemolysis? C. perfringens.
Antibiotic associated diarrhea? C difficle.
Bacteria transmitted by cat bite? Pasteurella multocida
Media inhibit & prevent the swarming of proteus s pp? CLED (salt deficient).
Bacteria grow at 42-43 C? Campylobacter, Helicobacter, Pseudomonas aeruginosa,

Barkholderia.
Bacteria grow at 4-43°C? Listeria monocytogenes & Yersinia.
This test differentiates group B from group A streptococci? CAMP test.
Cause peptic ulcer, urease positive? H. pylori.
Anticoagulant for blood culture? Sodium polyanethol sulphate.
Cell in bacterial infection? Neutrophil.
Shigella on XLD give? Red color.
Patient with UTI, bacteria indole positive, lactose fermenter and mo tile? E. coll.
Shigella on macConky agar? Colorless.
Salmonella on XLD? Pink color with black center.
Salmonella on macConky? Colorless or pale yellow.
The suitable time and temperature for autoclave that use 15 lbs? 121 C for 15
mins.
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Bacteria give a blue-green colony, positive fried egg appearance? Pseudomonas

aeruginosa.
Food poisoning and bacteria was a gram-positive bacilli? C. perfringens.
Role of crystal violet in MacCkonkey agar? Inhibit the growth of gram-positive

bacteria.
Gram positive, alpha hemolytic optochin sensitive ? S. pneumoniae
Drumstick like bacteria? C. tetani.
Bacteria cause pharyngitis? S. pyogenes.
Urea breath test for? H. pylori
Catalase positive, coagulase positive? S. aureus.
Enriched media? Medium containing natural proteins like blood, hemoglobin,

serum, growth factor like blood agar and chocolate agar. Required for fastidious
organism like Neisseria and streptococci
Bacillary dysentery caused by? Shigella.
Bacteria cause abortion? C. perfringens, bacteroid fragilis, brucella, G. vaginalism

N. gonorrhea, L. monocytogenes
Differentiation between S. aureus and other staphylococci? Coagulase.
Reagent of indole test? (Kovacs reagent), p-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde

(DMACA).
Patient with lockjaw? Tetanus (tetansopasmin), neurotoxin.
Aeration of Enterobacteriaceae? Aerobic and anaerobic.
Most common type of H. influenzae? B.
Catalase test? Positive in staph, and negative in streptococci.
PYR test used for? Group A and D streptococci (enterococcus aecalis)
Bacterial ID and sensitivity? Micro scan walk way.

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Most common bacteria with food poisoning?
S. saprophyticus
S. epidermdis
S. aureus
Micrococcus
Bordetella pertussis cause? Whooping cough.
Bacteria cause endocarditis? Viridans (vancomycin sensitive), enterococci

(vancomycin resistance).
Microaerophilic organism? Campylobacter jejuni, Helicobacter pylori.
Sterilization? Autoclave.
Bacteria causes food poisoning? Salmonella C. perfringens Campylobacter > S.

aureus.
Wrist joint? M. tuberculosis.
Normal flora of the eye? S. epidermis.
Solidifying agent of culture media? Agar.
Antibiotic for mycobacterium? First line: Isoniazid, ethambutol, rifampin,

pyrazinamide Second line: para-aminosalicylic acid, ethionamide,
fluoroquinolones.
Salmonella in stool, type of WBCs? Neutrophil (PMN).
Motile, catalase-positive? Listeria
Increase in temperature 3 C without hemolysis, within 30 minutes after blood

transfusion? Gram stain or culture of blood bag (suggest bacteria sepsis).
Why MacConkey agar is selective and differential? Contains bile salt and crystal
violet to inhibit gram positive bacteria (selective for gram negative bacteria).
Differential: contain lactose (LF pink and NLF colorless)
Why crystal violet stains the gram-positive bacteria? Thick peptidoglycan layer.
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Which media inhibit the swarming of proteus spp? CLED, PEA, MAC.
Brucella antibiotics? Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines+doxycycline,

doxycycline+rifampin, streptomycin.
Quality of sputum for testing? On gram stain, acceptable sputum shows <10
squamous cells and >25 PMNs/LPF.
Media for motility test? MMT, SIM, IMO, MIU.
Give positive with ladine? Starch, glycogen,
Special medium for Mycobacterium ? Löwenstein–Jensen medium (LJ)
Reagent of indole test? ? (Kovacs reagent), p dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde

(DMACA)
bacteria used in biological warfare ? Bacillus anthracis
Phaarygitis cases by ? Group A
Lyme disease caused by ? Borrelia burgdorferi
Widal test for ? salmonella
salmonella caused ?Typhoid fever
Media for Neisseria? Thyer martin
chines letter ?Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Enrichment media ?Selenite F broth media
Rheumatic fever caused by ? S.pyogenes
Nosocomial infections oxidase negative ? Acinetobacter baumanni.
VP test positive ?Enterobacter
primary stain for acid fast bacteria ? Carbol fusion
Distinguish between Neisseria gonorrhea and m eningitides ? Maltose.
Xld ? selective media

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Stool sample with urease positive and H2s positive ? proteus
Which of the following are Gram-negative motile rods that are characterized
by gray, sprading film of growth on agar plates ? Proteus vulgaris
is giving the shape to the bacteria ? Cell wall.
M. tuberculosis bacilli stain with? Zheil Nelson stain.
TB specimen ? sputum.
proteus best growth in media? Blood agar.
Which agar use for MRSA ? Mannitol salt agar
Loop full in urin culture? 0.001
Blood culture for 2 bottle ?10-20
Relapsing fever ? borrelia recurrentis.
Bacteria transmitted by Tick bite ? Borella Burgdorferi.
Streptomycin antibiotic how its work ? protein synthesis
Tracoma cause by ?chlamydia.
mycobacterium growth about 25 days ?- M kanasi.

Bacteria that cause blindness ? chlamydia and N. gonorrhoeae in children.
Histopathology
what’s the paraffin wax temperature? 56 °C ± 2
less period to store cytology sample is ? A month
what is the function of primer in PCR?
defines the region that will be amplified, resulting in millions and millions of copies
in a very short timeframe
formalin percentage for routine use1/10

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lab moving to another building what block should they take in histology lab ? Less
than10years
cytology sample come without name and number what should we do ?Reject
RNA chains and direction? Adenine- -uracil - guanine- cytosine ( 5 to 3)
DNA chains and direction ? Adenine- Thymine- cytosine - guanine ( 3 to 5(
,A with T and C with G ,
technologist when work on embedding phase in lab someone hit his hand what we
will see in tissue
a-thick tissue
b- contamination in stain
c-air bubble
gastric core sample how we put it in mold in hitology lab?
a-6 pieces in one mold
b- 3 – 3 pieces in 2 mold
c-Take 3 pieces and leave 3
d- Every pieces in special mold
frozen section sample has spaces what is the reason ? Slow freezing
what’s the fixation of FNA ? Immediately immerse in alcohol 95% after leave it dry
in air
what’s the type of fixative in Pap stain ? 95% ethanol
embedding temperature is ? 40-70 C
saliva store temperature is
20-
molting point of paraffin wax is ? 56 °C ± 2

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device use to cutting block in histology lab ? Microtome
define fixation ? alter tissue by stabilizing the protein so that it resistant to further
change
most stain use in histology ? Hematoxylin and eosin
the commonly used fixative for preparation of frozen section is ? Alchool 95%
size cutting in renal biopsy? 4-5 um
what is the stain use with fat ? Oil red O
what’s the bag use to tissue ? Red bag
which mainly stain use in histopatholo gy lab ? Hematoxylin & eosin
pathologist request re-embedding what’s the reason ? Over dehydration
why pathologist ask assistant clean the place of cutting sample always
a-For quality
b- To avoid contaminatio
when see spores in sample , and repeat it and see spore again the problem in
histology lab it was in which phase ? Fixation
in histology lab if the information of patient different about container what we

should do in this case ? Reject
electronic microtome need to ? Calibration
pleural fluid sent to central lab in which temperature
2-8 ,20-22
frozen sample in histopathology lab , when cut it the sample be come break down
what we should do in this case ? Change size of sample to small With change
temperature also
pathologist was late , and we have patient what you should in this case?
a-Act on samples
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b- Inform doctor
c-Act on samples and after you finish doctor come to see your work
after finish use xylene where put xylene ?
a-Plastic
b- Glass
pap staining nucleus and give color what’s the color ? Blue to black
someone want to open oncology lab , what’s important system in this case should
be available?
a.DNA
b.Purification
c-Cell culture
d- Microbliting
tissue under microscope was pale , what’s the reason ? Less time staining
what use in infiltration stage in histopathology lab ? Paraffin wax
2samples in histology lab in 10% formalin , but second sample it was in microwave
in 65 C , which more suitable sample for PCR test ? First sample because not
exposed to heat
skin biopsy remain more than 3 hours in normal saline , what we should do in this
case ? Reject
muscles section store in temperature?37°c
cytology sample fixation by ? 95% ethanol
in histology lab , tissue appear with pigment under microscope why?
a-Stain expire
b- Process was fast
c-Process need reagent

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in histology lab the tissue appear with pale color why?
A-Less time with stain
B- Problem from embedding
tissue come with epithelial tissue , what should do in this case?
Gloves
B- Re embedding
the stage give us the enable to section and cutting ? Embedding
histology sample temperature is‫؟‬
a-50 C
b- 70
C c-37 C
electrophoresis with DNA test what will use ? Ethidum bromide
In Pathology cases, the slides, blocks, reports are retained for at least 10 years.
a. Histology sample: 30 days.
b. Cytological sample: 30 days.
c. Cytological slides: 5 years.
d. FNA: 10 years.
Lab moving (less than 10 years samples).
Explosive solution: picric acid.
Amoeba stained by iodine eosin blue.
IHC positity on edge and negativity on the middle? Under fixation.
In H&E stain: haematoxylin stain the nucleus, and eosin stain the
cytoplasm,routine stain.
Fixative used for testicular tissue: Bouin solution.

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If xylene mixed with water!! Eosin, counter stain problem. Dip in alcohol.
Formalin ratio: 10 10 20 times.
Slide with brown/black color? Acid hematin pigment (formalin), at low pH
Cryostat used for? Frozen section
Time for fixation? 24 h. (optimal is 8-12 h).
Saliva store at?2-30°c
Cytological samples: 4 C
Tissue processing steps.
1. Fixation.
2. Dehydration.
3. Clearing .
4. Impregnation with molten paraffin wax.
5. Blocking.
6. Cutting.
7. Staining.
8. Microscope Examination
10% neutral buffered formalin (NPF) 6.8-7.2, routine Fixative.
Specimen in formalin should not be placed into the fridge.
The grossing area is cleaned with phenol or glutaraldehyde.
The specimens are stored 1-3 months.
The pencil is used for labeling.
The ethanol (95%) fixative is best for glycogen studies and used for cytology
specimens.
Glutaraldehyde is a good fixative for EM studies, give good morphology.

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Osmium tetroxide is a good fixative for lipids. Avoid 100% ethanol.
Lipid/phospholipids fixative: formal calcium.
Chromosomal study: FISH
The recommended methods for the disposal of xylene are incineration and
evaporation Only certified professionals should complete these processes.
Chemical waste disposal services through waste hauler (EPA environmental
protection agency hazardous waste).
Electron microscope embedding media: Epoxy resin, provide ultrastructure

preservation (cross-link with the specimen)
Charged slide: for tissue adhesion.
95% alcohol used as a fixative for fine needle aspiration (FNA) smears.
Skin biopsy in Normal saline; in no way should normal saline be used, even for a
short time, to store and transport excised tissue; it is imperative that such tissues
be placed immediately in a proper fixative like 10% formalin.
Xylene in histopathology: deparaffinization (clearing).
For incomplete dehydration; out in the xylene to remove the wax, ascending
alcohol to remove the xylene,
best temperature for histology tissue? 37 c
we should store saliva sample in ? -20 C
Restriction enzyme work on ? 10 bp
most commonly substance fixation using to frozen section ? 95%alcohol
FNA what to do to fixative ?95% alcohol
DNA helical ? Double helical
fixation in fresh sample is ? NBF 10 %
which nuclear in pyrimides ? Uracil
cytotechnologist went to FNA for two different patient?

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a-label the two slide and place it in the same fixative jar
b- label the slide and place it into two different fixative jars
cytology cell block fixative contains?
a-alcohol- formaldehyde- phosphate buffer
b- alcohol- formaldehyde- normal saline
What is the function of microtome ? cutting (produce section of 3-5 micron )
In which step does pathologist explain and cuts the tissue ? grossing
Histological sample with slightly erased label, what is the most important thing to
be visible ? Patient name and site of origin
Cell blocks? Micro biopsies embedded in paraffin wax for cytology specimens,
small tissue fragments from fine needle aspiration (FNA).
Special stain for stomach? PAS
Tissue processing machine depend on? Solution viscosity, agitation, heat, vacume
& pressure.
The proper thickness of tissue? 2-4 mm, 3-5 microns.
Tissue infiltration/embedding is done by? Paraffin wax, resin, agar, gelatin,

celloidin
Frozen section with holes, clefts and vacuoles? It's an ice artifact (water), due to
the slow freezing of tissue, the solution is: freeze fast (flash/snap).
Embedding done by? Filling of tissue with paraffin wax, using a suitable size of
mould or tissue cassettes.
Tissue cassette not closed? Cut the tissue into a proper size.
Air bubbles tissue artifact? Due to poor floatation technique which lead to
Inadequate adherence of tissue to the slide, solved by using of distilled water in
the bath, also using of alcohol or detergent to reduce the surface tension. Placing
of cover slip (mounting).
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Temperature of water bath in the bath? 10 C below the melting point of paraffin
wax.
Methods for detecting the chromosomal translocation? • FISH, cytogenetic

analysis, karyotyping, DNA microarray, PCR and Immunohistochemistry (IHC).
Special stain for connective tissue? Gomori trichrome, Reticular stain, Masson stain
and Mallory analine blue collagen stain.
Histology sample should be retained for how many days after final report? 14 days
Cryostat sectioning temperature? -15 to -30C
FNA fixative? 95% ethanol alcohol
Which type of tissue take short time in tissue processing? Core biopsy (small size).
Cytology sample received without name and number? Reject.
During tissue embedding, hand is moved? Air bubbles.
6 gastric core sample in mold? 6 pieces in one mold.
Fixation used in Pap smear? 95% ethanol alcohol.
Tissue fixation? Stabilizing protein so that it is resistant to further change,

putrefaction, decaying and autolysis.
Hematoxylin is extracted from? Heartwood/log wood tree.
When the pathologists request the re-embedding of tissue? Over-dehydrated

tissue, too hard paraffin wax for sectioning, tissue incorrectly embedded/oriented.
Delay in tissue disposal/waste (company)? Inform the supervisor.
Why pathologist ask for cleaning the surface of grossing area? To avoid the
contaminatio
The patient details between the container and request form is not matched?
Reject.
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papanicolaou stain results? Nucleus: blue to black, cytoplasm: pink, yellow green,
grey.
Technologist see scratches on the slides under microscope? Put the slide properly.
Pale staining of tissue? Less time of staining
sample in histology, one in formalin and the other in microwave (65C), which can
be used for PCR? The one in microwave (DNA thermal stability is 140 C).
Muscle tissue storage temp? -20 to -80C Step makes tissue capable for cutting?
Embedding.
Mycology
germ tube test use with ? Candida albicans

fungi with cotton shape ? Aspiregillus
KOH 10 % use to ? To separate fungi and skin (dissolve the keratin In the skin ,hair
and nail)
most common stain to fungus? PAS other stain( Grocott methamine silver (GMS)&
lacto phenol cotton blue)
fungi branching in 90 degree? Mucor
fungi branching in 45 degree ? Aspergillus fumigatus
patient with AIDS , which fungi can infect him ? Cryptococcous neoformans
which fungi cause thrush ? C.albicans
fungi with white cottony shape grow in 25C or 8C ? Fusarium spp
CSF sample stained by giemza stain we find spherical shape like cells with
purplecolor , now which stain use to more identify ?
a. Indian ink
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b. Acid fast
which of the following is endogenous fungi ? Candida
fungi shape like cottage cheese? Candida
dimorphic fungi is ? Fungi can grow as yeast or mold
fungi has capsule ? C.neoforrmance
stain use for fungi ? PAS
germ tube use to diagnosis? Candida albicans
media for fungi not SDA ? PDA ( potato dextrose agar )
Chicago disease infected by ? Blastomycosis
oral trash is ? Candida albicans
blastomycosis staining by ? Chicago stain
method used for diagnosis of skin mycosis ?
a. Culture
b.Molecular
c- Microscope
shows spaghetti and meatballs shape ? malassezia furfur
which of the following is monomorphic fungi ? C.neoformance
Culture media used for fungi? Sabouraud dextrose agar (SDA).
Detection of fungi in a skin sample by?10% KOH.
Ringworm caused by?Trichophyton.
Fungal stain?
Grocott methamine silver, periodic acid Schiff, lactophenol cotton blue.
Wood lamp test? For hair skin infected by dermatophytes, M. furfur, tinea
versicolor, pityriasis.
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Indian ink used for?Detect of capsule and cryptococcus neoformans
Fungus seen by dark field microscope and Indian ink?
C. neoformans.
Wood lamp? Fungal examination.
White Piedra?Trichosporon spp
Note that black Piedra caused by Piedraia hortae
Fungal spores in tissue section?
Floatation bath.
Virology
girl had eye infection after swimming? Adenovirus
lesion on penis seen in ? Shyphilis or HSV
store virus sample in ? -20 _ -70 C
what’s the marker of HBV ? HBeAG + HbcAB + HBsAG
fecal oral route virus is ? Coxsackie virus
patient with acute infection of HCV , what we will see in the result?
antiHCV– IgM
what’s the confirmatory test use with HCV ? RIBA
what’s the confirmatory test use with HIV ? Western blot
atypical lymphocyte seen with ? EBV
baby case with diarrhea what’s the reason ? Rota virus
which type of vaccine not given to baby before 6 months age ?

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and HA vaccine MMR and Varicalle
mother has IgG ab because infected when her pregnancy , after delivery the baby
has heart murmur , which of the following is right about this case ?Mother rubella
IgG , baby rubella IgM
patient have immunity against HBV , what we will see in the result of him AbsHB
AbeHB and AbcHB,
women do test for HIV , and her husband come to hospital angry, how we can
solve this problem? relax him and tell him you can’t given him the result
women do test for HIV , and her husband come to hospital angry, how we can
solve this problem? relax him and tell him you can’t given him the result
CD4 : CD 8 ratio low , seen in ? Immunosuppressive
monospot +ve ? EBV
saliva is the common sample transmission of virus , which virus ? EBV
patient with fever and tourniquet +ve , what’s the reason ? Dengue virus
antiretroviral define as ? Can lowering capacity of HIV to transmission
how monitoring effectiveness of treatment?
A.PCR
b. RT – PCR
c-Antiretroviral Ab test
negri body seen in ? Rabies virus
cervical cancer may cause by which virus ? HPV
HIV detect by ? RT – PCR
HIV problem in ? P24
virus transmission fecal oral ? HAV

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baby has chest inflammation , and enlarged cells , which virus response here ?
CMV
less dangerous sample in HIV ? Urine
ovarian cancer because which virus ? Papillomavirus
transmission by gender?
a-HAV
b. HPV
c. EBV
mother has hepatitis B , and she transferred to baby , what’s the first will be see in
hepatitis test ?
a.AGsHB
b.AbsHB
c.HBsAG
virus in stool is ? Polo virus
HIV test monitoring is ? CD4:CD8 ratio
which virus you can see by electron microscope? Chicken pox virus
which hepatitis lead to hepatic cancer ? HCV
barking cough seen in ? Para influenza
adeno virus is ? DNA virus
which virus with sandy appearance ? Arena virus
Patient present with splenomegaly and positive mono-spot test, which virus is
suspected? EBV (Epstein Barr virus).
Patient with swelling of salivary and parotid glands, and anorexia what is the
suspected virus? Mumps virus.
A virus causes eye irritation & conjunctivitis after swimmin g? Adenovirus

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. infant with diarrhea caused by a virus that can prevented by national

immunization program? Rota virus.
. Electron microscope shows virus with crown like projections?
Corona virus
Virus cause intranuclear giant cytopathic effect as owl eyes?
Cytomegalovirus.
Viral meningitis?Normal glucose with high protein.
Giant intranuclear inclusion like owl eyes cytopathic effect?
CMV (cytomegalovirus).
Test for monitoring of HIV? CD4 count.
Croup disease or barking cough caused by? Parainfluenza virus.
HDV associated with which virus?HBV
Atypical lymphocytes, heterophil tests, monospot test, lymphadenopathy,

nasopharyngeal carcinoma?EBV
Cases of traveler related hepatitis?HAV
HPV-18, risk?High risk of cervical cancer.
Herpes simplex virus cause?Painful lesions.
PCR for HIV?
RNA amplification.
Which of the following conditions associated with a high level of S-type amylase?
Mumps
Intestinal obstruction
Alcoholic liver disease.
Peptic ulcer,
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Screening test for HIV?ELISA (anti-HIV).
Viral life cycle?
Attachment (adsorption)> penetration (entry)> uncoating> replication> assembly

(maturation)> release.
Covid-19 patient, acute phase reactant protein?CRP high.
Mother with hepatitis, what is the marker of congenital infection

(newborn)?Positive HBsAg
Virus transmitted by fecal-oral route?
Adenovirus, norovirus, HEV, HAV, Enteroviruses, Poliovirus, Coxsackie virus, A & B,

Echovirus, Rotavirus.
Acute HCV infection?Anti-HCV/IgM.
Baby with diarrhea and runny nose? Rota virus.
Vaccine not given to baby before age of 6 months?
MMRV, Varicella, HA vaccine.
Congenital infection of baby with rubella?Mother (IgG), baby (IgM).
Positive HIV patient? Notify the infection control.
Less dangerous sampler for HIV transmission?
Saliva, sweat, urine.
Urinalysis and Body fluids.
what’s the cause of turbidity sample ? Urine : highWBC, bacteria / Blood : lipemic
brown black urine , in increase what ? Alkaptonuria
increase urobilinogen lead to ? Increase yellow color in urine
oliguria mean ? Decrease output urine

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amorphus phoshpate color is ? White
nitrite indicate to ? UTI
man come with semen sample and tolld staff he misses the first , how that will
affect in result ? Portion of the semen
urine sample delayed for 2 hour and came to microbiology culture ? Reject
how we can differentiate between yeast and RBCs? 2% acetic acid
the normal range of Ph in the Urine
4.5-8
pus in urine called ? Pyuria
hematuria define? Heme or blood with urine (hematuria(intact RBCs)
hemoglobinuria(Hb from lysed RBCs)
more common crystals and mainly crystals ?Tamm–Horsfall protein
normal range of volume semen ? 2-5 ml
sample CSF diagnosis, and after diagnosed we found low glucose , and WBCs
lymphocytes , what we seen in this case
the temperature degree use in bence jones protein case ? 40- 60C
when patient infected by bacteria meningitis which WBCs can see more than other
WBCs ? Neutrophils
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when we use low power in microscopic, to detect what ? Casts
epinephrine hormone secreted from which organ ? Kidney
which sample use with pheochromocytoma?24hour urine
the different between hyaline cast and waxy cast ?Refractive index
RBC in CSF should be how ? 0
sample need work quickly? CSF
which of the following cause renal failure? Waxy , Broad
what’s more suitable test to detect drug in toxicology lab ? Urine
cloted CSF sample , what should do with this sample ? Count manually RBCs and
WBCs
what should see in semen ? Above 75% viability
DM urine sample use ? Fasting
normal cast seen in urine ? Hyaline 0-4
normal found in urine ? Urobilinogen
CSF should have ? Zero RBC
normal sperm concentration? 20 – 250 million
how diagnosis viability in semen sample ? More than 20 million motile sperm
what we seen in alkalosis urine ? Amorphas phosphate
to semen analysis patient should stop for how much ? 2- 5 days
glucosuria cause is ? renal tubular dysfunction
CSF normal volume is ? 10–20 mL of CSF is collected
vit . C crystals ? Calcium oxalate
ketone in urine indicate to ? Metabolic keto acidosis
normal Ph is ? 6 urine
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we can detect viability in semen by ? Eosin – nigrosine
crystals in alkaline urine ? Triple phosphate
crystals seen in acidic urine ? Calcium oxalate
how to know good sputum sample ? Epithelial tissue less than squamous epithelial
CSF sample should ? Work immediately
urine formed by ? Filtration- Reabsorption – secretion
synovial fluid in infection case ? Cloudy and cell more than 1000
sample for γ-hydroxybutyrate (GHB)?
a-urine
b- blood
c-hair
d- saliv
fine silky needle crystal?
a-Tyrosine
b- Hemosiderin
c- Cholesterol
ammonia like smell in urine ?
Dehydration, kidney disease,UTI
presence of WBCs casts in urine indicate damage of which organ?
A) kidney.
B) bladder.
C) urethra
Amber color of urine presence of ? Bilirubin

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Maple syrup - Maple syrup disease ? (branched chain aminoaciduria)
Synovial fluid sample use with ? joint disease
-Acidic urine crystals ? amorphous urates, uric acid, ca oxalate, bilirubin, tyrosine,
leucine, cysteine
Normal sperm count?
20 million to 250 million.
Time of fresh semen sample?
2 Hours
Case: gram stain of CSF shows kidney shape gram negative bacteria, with low
glucose and elevated protein? Which bacteria is suspected?
N. meningitidis (meningococcal infection)
The dark yellow color of amniotic fluid is due to presence of?
.Bilirubin
Acids for urine preservation?
Hydrochloric acid, boric acid
Detection of ketones in urine?
Sodium nitroprusside, Acetest is a nitroprusside and glycine tablet used to detect

ketones, enzymatic method uses beta-hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase to detect
the presence of beta-hydroxybutyric acid.
Differences between hyaline and waxy cast?
1.Hyaline cast: seen in normal individual & in renal disease (increased), congestive
heart failure, consists of tamm-horsfall protein, colorless,
2.translucent, low refractive index. Waxy cast: renal diseases, tubular

inflammation and chronic renal failure, nephrotic syndrome, consists of
degenerated granular cast and cells, yellow, high refractive index, contain cracks.
Urine cast in case of Sickle cell anemia?

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Hemosiderin (hemoglobin) cast.
Urine with high WBCs?
UTI & pyelonephritis.
Urine crystal in renal tubular acidosis (RTA)? Calcium salts (Calcium phosphate,
calcium carbonat
Normal urine pH?
Acidic (4 to 8) average (5-6).
Low CSF glucose, high lactate and high protein?
Bacterial, fungal meningitis.
Ghost cell?
RBCS in hypotonic urine.
Pleural fluid sample exudate characterized by? High protein
Most common type of urine casts?
.Hyaline cast
Bence jones protein?
Heat test 40-60 C.
Differentiation between hyaline and waxy cast?
.Refractivity
Most common type of urine sample?
Random.
Turbid semen due to?
WBCS,
Color of amorphous phosphate?

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White,
Fruity odor urine?
.Acetone
Urine type for culture?
Mid clean catch MSU.
if patent has respiratory acidosis what is the urine pH? Below 5.5, acidic.
Confirmatory test for pheochromocytoma?
Catecholamine in urine (24h).
What is the most likely cause of the following CSF results? Glucose: 20 mg/dl,
protein: 200 mg/dL, lactate: 50 mg/dL (normal 5-25 mg/dl
A Viral meningitis)
B. Viral encephalitis
C. Cryptococcal meningitis
D. Nate bacterial meningitis
Checking pH and Specific gravity of urine by?
Dipstick.
Source of transitional epithelia cell?
.Renal pelvis, ureters, bladder, and male urethra
Calcium oxalate crystal in urine?
Vitamin C (ascorbic acid/oxalic acid) supplementation.
Urine specific gravity 1.035?
Hypersthenuric urine
Note: 1.010 is isosthenuric, less than 1.010 is hyposthenuric.

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Primary found in normal urine?
Chloride.
Pinkish foam urine?
Pathologic: blood. Hb.
Non-pathologic beet, medication (senna).
The optimal sample volume of Ascitic fluid?
>100ml
CSF sample volume for cell count?
1 ML
Amniotic fluid processing?
10-20 mL is collected maximum 30 mL, centrifugation, or filtration.
Brown-black urine?
Alkaptonuria (homogentisic acid), melanoma, melanin, melanogen
Dark yellow color?
Urobilinogen, bilirubin.
Positive nitrite urine strip?
UTI, bacterial infection mainly gram-negative bacteria. Culture is recommended.
Urine delayed for 2 hours for culture and sensitivity?
Should be rejected unless, the sample were in refrigerator (maximum for 24 hours
Shift is finished, one urine sample came to the lab?
Refrigerate the sample. Or according to the options.

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Suitable sample for drug test?
Urine.
Clotted CSF sample?
If the specimen is clotted, the cell count cannot be performed. Notify the physician
immediately.
Protein could be raised because the cerebrospinal fluid may be contaminated with
peripheral blood in a traumatic tap.
Review only the malignant cell.
WBCs cast?
.Kidney damage
Immunology and serology.

patient with pain in joint what’s the test should be order ? RF test
what the best example of APC ? dendritic cells, phagocytes,B cells
heterophilia test + ? EPV
classical complement pathway start by what
Ab-Ag complex activate c1
IgG percentage in infants equal 0%
what is the secondary immunity ? IgG
antibody dimer ( number of arm ) ? IgA
antibody elevated in parasite an allergy cas ? IgE
patient sensitive with pencilin ant the allergy react appear after 30 minutes what’s
the type of hypersensitiveHypersensitive type 1
test use for rehumatic fever ? ASO
which type of immunoglobulin that’s has capacity to cross placenta ? IgG

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define affinity
strength of the interaction between single epitope and single paratope
define avidity?
overall strength of antigen-antibody complex
which enzyme use in ELISA ? horseradish peroxidase (HRP) and alkaline

phosphatase (AP
solid phase in sandwich ELISA ? Spesific ab
antigen antibody reaction in complement, which pathway? Classical pathway
immunoglobulin has 4 subgroup? IgG
immunoglobulin has more avidity ? IgM
patient with SLE + , RA - ? SLE
patient with SLE reaction ? Lupus
which of the following is example on HLA class 2 ? WBC
which immune cells response about activating T helper cells ? Antigen presenting
cells(APCs) include: DCs, macrophages and B-cells which capture, processing and
presentation of Ags to T-cell by MHC molecules (MHC II binds and activate T
helper,CD4)
in adaptive immune response what type of cells activated ? T-cells from thymus
in chemotaxis which cells will come to support complement system Neutrophils
which cells response about cell mediated immunity ? T- cells
the most complement in the blood ? C3
IG : pentameter ( number of arm ) IgM
sample diluted 1 on 4 saline 5
what are the anatomical features of lymph nodes ? Gut asessution lymph tiusse
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lymph node makes from ?mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) &Gut -

associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)
immunoglobulin in electrophoresis indicate to which band ? Gamma
Ab function ? Protect the body from antigen, opsonization, neutralization
immunoassay negative , what’s the next ? Report the results
what’s the test should be +ve in Rheumatoid arthritis?
a.AST
b. ALT
c-Rheumatoid factor
T cells found in ? Thymus
alternative pathway start by ? B factor
to insure if patient have immunity agent virus use ? IgG
doctor guess patient suffer from anti phospholipid syndrome , how confirm that ?
Anti cardio leptin
the reason of T lymphocytes maturation is ? Thymus
Ab excess is ? Prozone
high basophils seen in ? Allergic case
cells attack cell mediated seen in ? Hypersensitive type 4
last step in ELISA is ? Add substrate
use to labile in ELISA ? Enzyme
autograft is ? Transplant from same person
Isograft is ? Genital identification ( twins )
ANA , AMA , ASMA are marker for ? Autoimmune disease

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amount of T cells in immunity ? 70%
immunoassay for drug abuse the result was negative what should you do ?
a-release report
b- repeat the test with the second sample that we have
c-use another confirmatory instrument
immune tolerance? Expose T cell to host Ag during maturation in thymus
CD marker for T helper cell ? CD4
Immunoglobulin in recent infections ? IgM 1
Lymphocyte section with ? viral infection
Principle of ELISA?
Antigen-Antibody complex.
Type 4 hypersensitivity?
Delayed hypersensitivity take 24-72 hours (days).
Define autoimmune disease?
An autoimmune disease occurs when an individual produces antibody or a T cell

response to own antigens.
What is the labeled material in ELISA?
Antibody labeled with an enzyme.
Type 1 hypersensitivity?
.IgE
Positive ANA and positive RF?
SLE
Innate immunity cell?

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Neutrophil, monocyte, basophil, eosinophil, macrophage, dendritic cell.
?Organ produces T lymphocyte
Bone marrow.
.C3 cleaved by? C3 convertase.
Fc receptor?Fragment crystallizable receptor, found on many ce ll .

surfaces like (phagocytic cells(, bind the Fc portion (C -terminal domain(
of antibody heavy chain (complement and opsonization, phagocytosis,
.(ADCC
Cytotoxic lymphocyte critical in innate immunity?
Natural killer cell (NK cell).
Name of IgM structure?
Pentameric
Ig with highest concentration?
IgG.
Ag binding site of Ab is called?
Fab (paratop).
Transplantation of cartilage from one to another?
.Allograft transplantation
Catalyze the proteolytic cleavage of C3 into C3a and C3b?
C3 convertase.
g is component of which type of globulin?
Gamma.
Ab of secondary response?
IgG.
Ab of the primary and first response?

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IgM.
Last step in ELISA?
Stop solution or add substrate.
HIV confirmatory test?
WB (most common), IFA, NAAT.
Neutrophil?
Phagocytosis (opsonization), chemotaxis.
T-helper cell marker?
CD4.
IHC for adenocarcinoma taken from breast tissue
Carcinemeryonic Ag.
Case: a woman came with joint pain and deformity when she stood up what
test should be done?
Rheumatoid Factor (RF).
TPHA principle?
Sheep RBCs or gel particles sensitized with T pallidum sonicate.
CD marker during the first stage of T cell
.CD2
Which of the following is correct regarding acquired thrombotic

thrombocytopenic purpura
Autoimmune disease.
Immunoglobulin with shortest half-life?
IgE (1 to 5 days).
Immunity to varicella zoster virus?

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IgG.
Low CD4:CD8 ratio
Immunocompromised/immunosuppression.
Patient have immunity against certain virus?
.IgG (protection(
Enzymes used in ELISA?
Horseradish peroxidase (HRP), alkaline phosphatase (AP).
Serology test tube?
Plan tube (red top).
The optimum temperature of complement fixation test (CFT( is .
56 C
CD markers for T lymphocytes?
CD3, CD4.
Chemical movement of neutrophil called?
Chemotaxis.
Liver macrophage is called?
Kupffer cell.
Macrophage of which organ responsible of elimination of bacteria?
Liver and spleen.
Protein produced by activated macrophages?
Interleukins.
Administration of intravenous penicillin, then rashes and fever, caused by?
IGE
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Patient with dry mouth and gritty feeling eyes, high ANA, anti SS Abs, caused by?
Sjogren syndrome.
Laboratory operation.
conflict of interest?
exists when professional judgment concerning a primary interest (such as patients'

welfare or the validity of research) may be influenced by a second ary interest
(such as financial gain).
.Authors must complete their conflict of interest form when submit ting their
manuscripts for peer review
what will affect the workload in the lab ? Short Stuff
PPE for biosafty cabinet which level ? Level 3
chemical spill with fumes , what is the first response in this case ? Contain
how diluted 5 times ? 1:5 dilution , 1/5 dilution = 1 part sample and 4 parts diluent
in a total of 5 parts
husband want to see lab results of his wife? Reject
physician want to see results of patient he is not responsible about patient ?Reject
women come to donation , she is pregnant and she want do that to apportion baby
what we do?
a-Let her donate like any donate
b- Send her to patient relationship
c-Send her to doctor
fire developing and reach to the roof , what we do after switch on alarm?
close the door and escape
when you work in phlebotomy and take blood from donation he ask you about
your name what you should do in this case ? I tell him my name and continue to
take blood from him
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when he play without reason , then do test all result was normal , what
must probably in this case ? Malnutrition
lab work to 24 hours ? Blood bank
the first procedure to be followed if the blood gas instrument is out of control for
all parameters ? Calibration
when you take sample from patient the needle penetrated your finger , what you
should do in this case
a-Put alcohol on your finger
b- Continue your work and without care to that
c-Ask the help from staff
d- Wash it and cover it
when you come to lab to start work you found sample of soudium fluride without
ice what you should do in this case ? Reject
how you can protect you self in lab ? Gloves – gowns-mask
when you work in lab the reagent fly and entering in you eye exam hat you should
do in this case ? Eye washes
the open file in hospital? For free
define the privacy in lab ? No one see the result exception the doctor responsible
about patient and patient
slide appear under microscope normal , but when add oil we can’t see anything
, what’s the reason?
a-Slide position not good
b- Excess oil
definition of patient right ? Save patient from any medical injury that’s injury result
from errors work
analytical error like what ? Invalid calibration

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man come to donate to his relative and his blood compatible with another patient
with low HB , what you should do in this case ? Ask him if accept take his blood to
another patient need it or no
when you take off gloves in the lab ? When answer the phone
worker was work on tuberculosis sample and when he work the sample fall on the
floor , after that he alarm all staff and get out them from the lab , why
Tuberculosis can be transmission by inhalation
important in policy of medical insurance?
a-detailed treatment expense
b-post treatment expense
c-present before treatment plan started
specialist in lab have many samples and that’s lead to inform wrong result , what
should he do in this case?
a-Request flaunter
b- Inform supervisor
c-Collect information and upload file
d- Go to nurse and inform by the wrong
what’s the most important phase when we inform about critical sample?
a-Read back
b- Inform in 30 minutes
the device in the lab smoke comes out , what we should do in this case
a-Protect the patient
b- Contain the fire
define accuracy ? is a measure of a laboratory test result's closeness to the true

.value
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define patient responsibility ? As a patient receiving care, it is your responsibility

to: Provide accurate information about your health, including your present
condition, past illnesses, hospitalizations, medications, allergies to or use of any
natural products and vitamins as well as any other matters that pertain to your
health
patient 16 old years, want to diagnosis HIV , and ask you if the test +ve put the
sample in wast and delete information of the test , what you should do in this
case?
a.Inform police
b. Do like he want
c. Inform his father or mother
d. Print report and act like with samples as all samples
spill 3 liter of formalin what we should do in this case ? We ask infection control
patient came to hospital and after test you detect the patient have HIV , what yous
hould in this case?
a-Inform the administrate of hospital
b- Inform the security
c-Brother of patient
d- The administrate of infection control in hospital
after you finish work , nurse came with urine sample what you should do in this
case?
a-Put the sample in refrigerator
b- Put the sample in freezer
if the company response about take organ from histology lab not come to take
waste what should do in this case?
a.Inform supervisor
b. Put organ in normal waste

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doctor need approve about lab result , how we can prove to him the results is
right? By report about device reading
someone call you to donate but he want take the many to do that , what you
should do in this case ? Reject
toxicology definition? Substance can lead to death with few amount ( poising
toxicology use to ? Detection the reason of death
someone want to do clinical trail what should not do it ? Didn’t do it without

Patient approval
factor lead to increase stress in lab ? Few staff work
substance with +3 red color where you should store it ? Cabinet for flammable
substance ( yellow
doctor request lipid test , the specialist do error by add glucose test with lipid test ,
what should specialist do in this case ? give the doctor the lipid result and inform
him about glucose If results show he is have a DM,If it isn’t
don’t do anything system computer error , and you have samples , what you
should in this case ? Act on sample manual until system work good
donation with normal all physical exam , but the pressure of blood is high , what
we should do in this case ? Reject
what use in the floor of the lab ? Ceramic
why use automation in lab ?
a-Large sample
b- Reduce cost
c-More accurate
d- Improve quality in the laboratory
patient 12 years old , have mild anemia and 12 HB , the blood group of patient is O-
the doctor request one unit, the match was good for patient is poor quality , what
we should DO?
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a-Not give patient unit
b- Give patient unit
c-Ask the doctor if give him or no
the doctor request 6 unit blood to emergency case with bleeding , but the request
not has ABO grouping , with no sample to test , the Request chose O- blood group ,
what we should do in this case ?
a. Give him the unit
b. Doctor signature paper to response that
how can’t see the files of patient
a-Intern
b- Doctor
c-Patient
If father and his son come to phlebotomy , the father was not trust of you , and
askbyou about your ID , what you should do in this case ? Show him ID and ask him
gently to complete your work
patient when transfusion blood be came angry and start use bad language with
workers , what you should do in this case
a-Stop transfusion
b- Leave the room
C- ignoring him
hospital has many patient and stress inpatient department , and ask help from lab
staff what we should do in this case
a-Decrease lab staff
b- Transfer sample to reference lab
c-Re evaluate reagent quality

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patient safety definition ? Save patient from any medical injury
evaluate worker in lab every?
a-Month
b- Week
c-Years
doctor request expensive and not available, what should do in this case ? Send
sample to another lab
HIV level hazard ? Level 2
old device in lab as backup, when your new device has problem and you will work
on ˑ this old device what you need to do before work ? Maintenance
which of the following is respect to patient raits?
a-Take photo to surgery without premission
b- Talk about case with friends
c-Take premission from him to treat
brother come as visitor to take brother results?
a-Send him to physician response☑️
b- Give him the result without anything
c-Look to his ID to insure if the patient true his brother and after insure give him
the result
solution use to clean bench ? Bleach soultion ( chlorxide
spill chemical substance we try to contain , after contain what we should do ?

Leave
where you should put the new reagent ‫؟‬
A-Leave it on bench
B-Ask supervisor
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C-Put it in suitable place
what should do as medical practice? Developing my self
microbiology lab is dangerous lab because you may work on HIV sample or another
dangerous sample , what you should if you work in microbiology lab
a-Save intern
b- Save patient
c-Assessment risk
what’s the aim of safety ‫؟‬
A- Save workers
B- Save patient
C- Save environment from risk
sample urine came to lab after your finish time of your work , what you should do
? Put it in refrigerator
after transfusion , donor temperature increase 3 C , and he not has hemolysis sign ,
what should do in this case ? Culture
some one die in fire because Oxygen low , which test use to confirm that ? Oxygen
to carbon test
heroin convert to morphine in picture , and ask you what’s the reaction type ?
Hydrolysis
plastic equipment use in lab because?
a-Role
b- Resistance sterilization heat
most error occurred in ? Pre analytical
error in the result of lab last period , after investigations, the cause of error was
new nurse , and , this is example for which error ? Pre analytical
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analytical error is the personal error , which person reason ?
a-Emotional
b- Physical
the first procedure to be followed if blood gas instrument is out of control for all
parameters? Re calibration
children age equal ? To 12years
explosive reagent in lab ? Picric acid
doctor request expensive test , what we should do ?
a-Reject
b- Send to another lab
chemistry lab BLS is ? 3
why most error occurs in pre analytical stage ? Misidentified information
nitro cellulose use in ? Southern blot
definition of delta check ? History of the result to same patient ( for more insure )
LIS definition ? Systemic laboratory program
person work without license? Prison for 6 month or pay money
how you can protect your self in lab ? G loves – gowns – mask
QC1 out and QC2 & QC3 within the range what should you do?
a-do calibration
b- load new reagents and do calibration
c-repeat QC1 which new vail
d- do the analysis any way
If there is a leak in the autoclave ? reduce effectiveness of the steril
Latex gloves used to protect ?

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A)protect against blood and body fluids.
B) needle prick
C) chemicals and burns
used for acid spills? Sodium bicarbonate
where should you put the MSDS ? in a place where all staff can see
What is the correct ppe for use in SARSV2? Gown gloves n93 mask
doctor gets finger pricked with HBV patient ? go to infection control
When test is truly negative this is? Specificity.
Suitable mask for MERS-CoV?N95
Access to patient information, results, diagnosis, this state best described

by?Patient confidentiality.
Treatment of patient regardless of age, sex, or religion is called? Access to care.
Disinfectant that kills the microorgani sms and spores? Glutaraldehyde.
Spill emergency code? Orange color.
Person who directly contact with patients and provide care? Primary health care
provider.
Define proficiency tests? External quality control, evaluates a laboratory testing

results by: comparing them to those of similar laboratories.
Abduction code color? Pink color nfant)
While taking blood sample from a patient the lab technician sustained in a
needlestick what the proper action is? Wash the wound
Steps of PCR? Denaturation, annealing and extension.
Child abduction code? Purple.
Glove for chemical bottles? Nitrile gloves (chemical resistance).
Meaning of CBAHI? Saudi central board for accreditation of healthcare institutions.

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Children age? 2 to 12 years, Neonate birth to 1 months, Infants 1 month to 2 years

(WHO).
Normal range? Characteristic of 95 9%of values from a normal population.
Medical privacy? The practice of maintaining the security and confidentiality of

patient records.
Filter used in lab? HEPA..
Smallest amount that cause death? Poison.
Neutralizing acidic spill? Backing soda.
Handling blood samples? Use PPE (gloves, gown, mask).
Disposal of microscopic slides? Sharp waste container.
Spill? Read the MSDS instructions.
Confirmatory test with other method? High specificity.
lab tech. in break, and child refuse blood drawing by anyone? Respect his request.
Husband rights about his wife reports? Reject, except for HIV and infectious
diseases.
Physician (not responsible about the patient) want to see the results and report of
the patient? Reject, need patient consent
Patient ask about your name? Tell him (one of patient rights).
Needle stick? Wash your hand with soap and running water.
How you protect yourself in the lab from infection? PPE.
Reagent splash to the eye? Flush your eye with water (eyewash stations).
Important information of policy in medical insurance? Present before treatment

plan is started.
Specialist in the lab have many samples, which leads to wrong result typing?
Correct the report/inform the supervisor.
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Smoke came out from one machine in lab? Protect/rescue the patient, follow
PASS/RACE
Positive HIV patient, want you to delete his result from the system? Print the
report and handle the sample like the other samples
Doctor need approve for one result? Print the reading from the machine.
Increased pressure and stress in lab? Few staff.
NFPA 3 score red? Flammable cabinets.
Flooring of laboratory? Ceramic, epoxy, vinyl, linoleum.
Laboratory benches made of? Epoxy resin, phenolic resin, ceramic.
Health system? Organization of hospital, physicians, providing comprehensive

care.
Bench cleaning solution? Chlorine bleach.
Latex gloves? Protection from blood and body fluids, aqueous solutions,
detergents, alcohols.
Heat resistant/tolerant gloves (kevlar, aluminum, zetex gloves? Against very high
or very low temperatures.
Neoprene gloves? Against organic solvents, oil, organic acids.
Nitrile gloves? Against chlorinated compounds, chemical, puncture resistant.
Vinyl gloves? Low risk, nonhazardous materials.
Butyl rubber gloves? Protect against chemicals, corrosive acids (nitric acid, sulfuric
acid).
Parasitolog.
ova with terminal spine ? S.haematobium

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ova with lateral spine ? S.mansoni
parasite leaf shape , and motility by flagella?
giardia lamblia
patient come to hospital and lab result was cells like banana shape and RBCs ,
what is the disease ? Malaria
active trophozoite attached to lining of the small intestine , what is the parasite?
Giardia lambelia
women patient from jazan , found ring shape in thick blood film , what’s the
diagnosis result ? Malari
patient come to hospital and when do blood film to him we found banana shape
and ring stage what’s the reason to see that in blood film ? Bite by anopheles (
(malaria
how can diagnosis hydiated cystic ? Ab in the serum
schistosoma with hematouria ? S.hematoupium
parasite cause rash on thigh ? HOOK WORM
parasite whip warm ? Trichuris tricheria
parasite infect muscles? T.spiralies
fat in the stool called ? Steatorrhea
parasite transmission by egg ? most of parasites are transmission by egg for ex:
ascaris lumbricoides
parasite has 3-5 nuclear ? Giardia ,E.histolytica
in usually we not found parasite in urine , but there’s a type of parasite can found
it in urine , which of the following is a parasite we can found it in urine ?
S.hematoubim
how we can see parasite in lab ? By thick and thin blood film
SLLE 2022
:Rose_lab
patient with AIDS , infected by parasite , which of the following parasite

opportunistic to AIDS ? Cryptosporidium parvum
women has cat in her home , which parasite can infect her ? Toxoplasma gondii
which parasite has larvea without egg ? Strongyloids stercoralis
hydatid disease ? E.granulosus
women with vaginitis , in lab we finding organisms motile ( jerky motile ) , she
infected by what ? T.vaginalies
parasite with pear shape ? Giardia lambelia
parasite seen in urine ? Trichmounes vaginalis
patient come from Africa, he has sleep sick , what’s probably seen in lab ? T.Bruci
infective stage of trypanosoma ? metacyclic trypomastigotes
women came to hospital and with discharge green vagina ? T.vaginalies
patient has parasite infection and itching in acinus , we use scotch to diagnose,
what’s the parasite ? E. Vermicoularies
which stain use with malaria ? Geimsa stain
parasite leaf shape and motile by flagella ? Giardia lamblia
whip worm parasite? Trichurs tricheria
patient with rectal prolapse ? Trichumos tricheria
Which type of plasmodium cause malignant malaria? Plasmodium falciparum.
case: Female with yellowish-green frothy vaginal discharges what is the second
sample
A) urine.
C) stool
Parasite has 4 nuclei and causes diarrhea, what's this parasite ? Giardia lamblia
Wet preparation of stool show egg with bipolar plugs (barrel shape)?
SLLE 2022
:Rose_lab
Egg of Trichuris trichura.
Type of WBCs elevated in E. vermicularis infection? Eosinophils.
Hematuria caused by?
S. hematobium
Parasite cause acute diarrhea?
Giardia
Special stain for parasites?
Giemsa stain, H&E.
Special sin for amoeba?
Best carmine, PAS.
Cylindrical larvae?
Nematodes (ascaris, hook worm).
Cell in parasitic infection?
Eosinophil.
Visceral leishmaniasis caused by?
Leishmania donovani.
concentration technique we are looking for parasite in? Sediment.
Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis caused by?
Naegleria fowleri.
Sign of pin worm infection?
Preanal itching
Case (trophozoite with ingested RBCS and the cyst with quadrant nuclei)?
SLLE 2022
:Rose_lab
E. histolytica.
Abdominal pain and diarrhea no cyst or trophozoite, positive string test?
Giardia.
Nocturnal parasite?
W. bancrofti, B. malayi,
Note loa loa with diurnal periodicity
Stain for trypanosoma?
Giemsa stain,
Parasite in urine?
S. haematobium, S. stercoralis, T. vaginalis, E. vermicularis

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‫اسئلة وتجميعات اختبار الهيئة‬

Patient with anti-E need blood = Same Rh phenotype (blood with no E

Heterozygous of lutherna (Lu)? = Lu (a+b+(

Homozygous for lutheran Lu (a)? = Lu (a+b-)

Patient with null kidd he has what Ab = Anti-Jk3

Acquired B found in = A group

Blood group system destroyed by routine Blood bank enzymes =Duffy

Ficin and papain enzymes inhibited which antibody = Duffy, M. N, S

Prevent malaria = Fy (a-, b-)

cause PCH = auto anti P

antigen receptor for malaria p. vivax = fy (a+, b+)

What is the Fisher-Race genotype for a person with anti-c? DCE/dCe

reduced numbers of ag D = weak .

yellow fever deferral from blood donation how many weeks?

Sugar for H antigens = L-fucose

What antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual? = Anti-A, B, and H

Mother O blood group, father A blood group, the child expression =

Genotype of A blood group = A0 or AA

Chromosome of ABO genes location = Chromosome 9.

Father O ,mather AB , baby = 50% A,50%B

which blood group has the least amount of H antigen

N-acetyl-D-galactosamine is the immunodominant carbohydrate that

Father genotype of AB and mother genotype B give genotype in

Which blood group is universal acceptor = AB positive

what the GVHD Graft versus host disease ? If the patient is

indirect antigloubolin ? In vitro sensitization

direct detection sensitize RBCs in vivo

patient with hemophilia A which blood component need ?

recipient blood then after 30 minutes the temperature increase 3 C

patient with allergy in place of insulin injected ? Generalized insulin

An elution? is the process of removal of antibody from red blood cells.

Intrauterine transfusion what’s the tests use with it ? KB – Rossete test

autologous donation period ? 1 week

patient come to emergency, what type of blood group transfusion in this

Homozygous Jka? Jk(a+b-)

we will transplant Bone marrow what we do ? Irradiation RBCs

a-Transfusion Random PLT

after transfusion platelet drops in count what is cause?

PLT store temperature? 22-24 C

what we need from blood components in liver disease ? FFP

blood group type transfusion to aquaired B phenomenon? Group A

gene in Rh ? RHD & RHCE

technique use to AB screening?

what Type of I Ag found in new born

lewis antigen immunoglobulin type and relationship between it and HDN

null Ag Lu ? Lu (a- b-)

substance use to store blood for 35 days ? CPD-A

Ag immunogenicity in arrangement after ABO and RH , which Ag ? Kell

which of the following is anti Lu ( a ) ? Lu (a- / b+)

someone come to donate PLT , and rejected , in diagnosis we find the

how much RBCs storing with SAGMA?

PLT separate done by?

.Frozen RBC = 10 years -65'C

Temperature / length of days or times Platelet = 5 days 20-24 'C

Sugar for H antigens = L-fucose

H antigens by phenotype (highest to lowest concentration ‫؟‬

Which genotype is heterozygous for C? DCe/dce

What antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual? = Anti-A, B, and H

A complete Rh typing for antigens C, c, D, E, and e revealed negative

Rh positive refers to the presence of D antigen; Rh negative refers to the