SOAL LATIHAN ATPL

SUBJECT: AIR LAW

1. What does Cabotage refer to?

a. Domestic air services within a state.
b. An international air carrier.
c. A flight above territorial waters.
d. Crop spraying.

2. The Convention signed by the states relating to damage caused by foreign aircraft to persons
and property on the ground is:
a. the Tokyo convention.
b. the Rome convention.
c. the Warsaw convention.
d. the Paris convention.

3. The Convention on offences and other acts committed on board an aeroplane is:
a. the Tokyo convention.
b. the Paris convention.
c. the Rome convention.
d. the Chicago convention.

4. Which of the following annexes to the Chicago Convention contains the minimum
specifications for the construction of aerodromes?
a. Annex 6.
b. Annex 11.
c. Annex 10.
d. Annex 14.

5. The objectives of ICAO were defined by:

a. the Geneva Convention of 1936.
b. the Chicago Convention of 1944.
c. the Warsaw Convention of 1929.
d. the Geneva Convention of 1948.

6. The other type of regulation are the Regional Supplementary Procedures (SUPPS). As the
name indicated, SUPPS establish Operating Procedures design for application :
a. In specific air navigation region.
b. World wide application.
c. In European airspace region.
d. In United State of America’s airspace.

7. Aircraft owned by the Directorate General of Custom, shall be deemed to be :

a. State aircraft.
b. Civil aircraft.
c. Commercial aircraft.
d. State-owned enterprise.
8. According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of
letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
a. the State of Registry or Common Mark Registering Authority.
b. the State of Registry only.
c. the International Civil Aviation Organization.
d. the International Telecommunication Union.

9. Which of the following is not allowed in a registration mark?

a. NNN
b. XXX
c. RCC
d. DDD

10. Which of the following registration marks would not be permitted?

a. G-PRAT
b. SY-PAN
c. 3T-SSS
d. YT-LLL

11. The continuing validity of a Certificate of Airworthiness of an aircraft is subject to the laws
of:
a. the State of Registration.
b. the State of Registration or the State of the Operator.
c. the State of Operator.
d. the State of Registration and the State of Design.

12. Where should the original C of A be at all times ?

a. Back at base in the aircraft documents
b. With the authority
c. On the aircraft
d. Left on the ground

13. When an aircraft is no longer airworthy, it can get permission to fly without fare-paying
passengers to an aerodrome where it can be restored to an airworthy condition. Who can
grant such permission ?
a. The State of operation
b. The Authority
c. The State of Registry
d. The State of manufacturer

14. All aviation personnel shall have a certificate of competency. The aviation personnel as
dictated above, is :
a. Pilot and engineers of the aircraft.
b. Any persons who have certain skill where his job directly influence flight safety.
c. The flight operation officer or air traffic controller.
d. Any persons who have certain skill where his job directly or indirectly influence flight
safety.
15. Which of the following Annexes of the Chicago Convention contains the minimum
specification for a crew member’s license to be recognized by Contracting States?
a. Annex 2.
b. Annex 3.
c. Annex 1.
d. Annex 4.

16. A pilot holding a CPL(A) can act as:

a. PIC of any aircraft in non-commercial aviation.
b. PIC in any single engine aeroplane engaged in commercial aviation.
c. PIC of any single pilot aeroplane engaged in commercial aviation.
d. PIC in any aircraft for which he/she is class/type rated engaged in non-commercial
aviation.

17. From what date is a medical certificate valid from?

a. The date of the initial general medical examination.
b. The date the certificate delivered to the pilot.
c. The date of license issue.
d. The date of the revalidation of the license.

18. An applicant for a CPL(A) shall hold:

a. a current class 3 medical assessment.
b. a current class 2 medical assessment.
c. a current class 1 medical assessment.
d. a current medical assessment to a level prescribed by the authority of the state of
license issue.

19. Unless suspended, cancelled or otherwise varied by DGAC, your ATPL shall remain in force
:
a. Indefinitely, provided you have complete 5 hours flying within the proceeding 6
moth.
b. Indefinitely.
c. For a period of 12 months following the last medical examinations.
d. Indefinitely, provided a biennial flight review and annual medical examination are
completed.

20. An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the
control tower. What does this mean?
a. Do not land.
b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable.
c. Give way to other aircraft.
d. Return for landing and await clearance to land.

21. Which has priority to land?

a. A hospital flight.
b. An emergency.
c. A military flight.
d. A VIP flight.
22. Aircraft “A” with ATC clearance is flying in VMC in a CTR. Aircraft “B” without ATC
clearance is converging at approximately the same altitude. Which aircraft has the right of
way?
a. Aircraft “A” if “B” is on its right.
b. Aircraft “A” regardless of the position of “B”.
c. Aircraft “B” regardless of the position of “A”.
d. Aircraft “B” if “A” is on its left.

23. Who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time?
a. The owner.
b. The Operator.
c. The PIC.
d. The ATC controller.

24. The vertical separation minima for IFR flights in CAS applied by ATC above FL290 is:
a. 500 ft.
b. 1,000 ft.
c. 2,000 ft.
d. 1,000 ft if RVSM is applied otherwise 2,000 ft.

25. If two aircraft in flight are well separated but on a collision course, the aircraft with the other
on its left should do what ?
a. Maintain course and speed
b. Turn right
c. Slow down
d. Turn right

26. Two aircraft of the same category are approaching on airport to land. The right – of – way
belongs to the aircraft :
a. Thats is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or
overtake the other.
b. At the lower altitude, but pilots shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of
or to overtake the other.
c. At the lower altitude, but pilots may not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of
or to overtake the other.
d. At the higher altitude

27. The Air Traffic service is provided for the purpose of:
a. preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the
maneuvering area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.
b. applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow
of air traffic.
c. preventing collisions between controlled aircraft and expediting and maintaining an
orderly flow of air traffic.
d. avoiding collisions between all aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly
flow of air traffic.
28. What is the definition of Distress?
a. An emergency condition where an aircraft is in grave and imminent danger and
requires immediate assistance.
b. Persons on board an aircraft are in imminent danger and the flight cannot be
continued.
c. The aircraft will be unable to land at a suitable aerodrome.
d. The aeroplane has a message to transmit concerning the safety of person on board or
within sight.

29. What are the three elements of an Air Traffic Control Service?
a. Radar, SAR and FIS.
b. Area, Approach and Aerodrome.
c. Radar, Procedural and FIS.
d. Radar, Procedural and Alerting Service.

30. The Approach Control Service is an ATC service:

a. provided for arriving and departing controlled flights.
b. provided for arriving and departing IFR flights.
c. provided for IFR and VFR flights within a CTR.
d. provided for IFR flights within an ATZ.

31. Who is responsible for the organization of an efficient SAR service?

a. FIC and RCC.
b. RCC and rescue sub-centers.
c. FIC, RCC and ACC.
d. ICAO through regional navigation plans.

32. An aircraft wheel gets stuck in the mud whilst taxiing to the runway for take-off and sustains
damage. Is this:
a. an incident.
b. an accident.
c. a serious incident.
d. a normal operating hazard.

33. Who is responsible for the investigation of an accident?

a. State of Occurrence.
b. State or Registry.
c. ICAO.
d. Combination of A and B.

34. The purpose of Accident Investigations is the prevention of future accidents and:
a. apportion blame.
b. to improve manufacturing design.
c. to help judicial proceedings.
d. nothing more.

35. Who is entitled to be represented at any investigation?

a. The State of Registry.
b. The State of Design.
c. The State of Manufacture.
 d. All the above.

36. The annex to the Chicago convention which deals with the entry and departure of
cargo and other articles on international flights is:
a. Annex 15
b. Annex 16
c. Annex 9
d. Annex 8

37. Which freedom of the air is applicable to a flight which wishes to land in a foreign
state for technical reasons?
a. 1st freedom
b. 3rd freedom
c. 4th freedom
d. 2nd freedom

38. ICAO establishes:

a. aeronautical standards adopted by all states
b. proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes
c. standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states
which are signatory to the Chicago Convention of 1944
d. standards and recommended practices for contracting states

39. The first freedom of the air is:

a. The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered
and fly to any other state
b. The right to over fly without landing
c. The right to land for a technical stop
d. The right to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between
two states

40. The Convention which deals with offences against penal law is:
a. the convention of Rome
b. the convention of Madrid
c. the convention of Tokyo
d. the convention of Warsaw

41. One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:

a. develop principles and techniques for international aviation
b. approve the ticket prices set by international airlines
c. approve new airlines operating turbine engine powered aircraft
d. approve new international airlines

42. Which international convention established ICAO?

a. Chicago
b. The Hague
c. Warsaw
d. Montreal
43. The standards contained in the annexes to the Chicago convention are to be
considered:
a. binding upon all airlines operating international routes
b. binding for contracting states that have not notified ICAO about national
differences
c. advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within contracting states
d. binding for all contracting states

44. Which body of ICAO finalizes the SARPs to be submitted for adoption?
a. The Council
b. The Regional Air Navigation Committee
c. The Air Navigation Commission
d. The Assembly

45. The second freedom of the air is the:

a. right to cabotage traffic
b. right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board
between two states
c. right to land in a foreign state for a technical stop
d. right to over fly a foreign state without landing

46. Which annex contains information concerning Air Traffic Services?

a. Annex 11
b. Annex 10
c. Annex 14
d. Annex 15

47. To which passengers does EU Regulation 261/2004 apply?

a. To all passengers travelling on an EU registered aircraft wherever it may be
operating
b. Those departing from an EU member state or travelling to an EU member
state on an airline based in an EU member state
c. Only to those departing from an EU member state or travelling on an airline
based in an EU member state
d. To all passengers who are citizens of an EU member state

48. To which passengers does EU Regulation 261/2004 apply? Those who

a. arrived in time for check-in as indicated on the ticket or communication from
the airline, or, if no time is so indicated, no less than 30 minutes prior to the
scheduled departure time of the flight
b. arrived in time for check-in as indicated on the ticket or communication from
the airline, or, if no time is so indicated, no less than 45 minutes prior to the
scheduled departure time of the flight
c. arrived in time for check-in as indicated on the ticket or communication
from the airline, or, if no time is so indicated, no less than 1 hour prior to the
scheduled departure time of the flight
d. arrived in time for check-in as indicated on the ticket or communication from
the airline, or, if no time is so indicated, no less than 2 hours prior to the
scheduled departure time of the flight
49. How much is the cash compensation given to a passenger under the EU Regulation
261/2004 travelling on a flight not within the EU of greater than 3500 km if the
flight is cancelled?
a. €250
b. €400
c. €600
d. €800

50. How or where are airlines obliged to inform passengers stating that : “If you are
denied boarding or if your flight is cancelled or delayed for at least two hours,
ask at the check-in counter or boarding gate for the text stating your rights,
particularly with regard to compensation and assistance.”
a. This is given verbally to individual passengers by airline staff at check-in
b. Printed on the airline ticket or the on-line receipt
c. Printed on a leaflet attached to the boarding pass
d. On a notice and on display at the passenger check-in counter