DR ASHGAN's Listening Test Book PDF

‫‪Page 1‬‬
‫‪OET 2.0 LISTENING TESTS‬‬
‫‪OET with Dr ASHGAN‬‬
‫بسم اهلل الرمحن الرحيم‬
‫زميالتي و زمالئي األعزاء‪ ,‬أوالً أتمنى لكم من ك ّل قلبي النجاح و التفوق في حياتكم العلمية‬
‫و العملية‪ ,‬و أن يعينكم هللا و يوفقكم في اجتياز هذا االمتحان بأعلى الدرجات‪ ,‬و تكملوا أهدافكم‬
‫التي تنتظرون تحقيقها بفارغ الصبر‪ .‬بالدراسة و الصبر و الجهد المتواصل تستطيعون انجاز‬
‫المستحيل‪ ,‬ال تنظروا إلى الخلف و اجعلوا أهدافكم أمام أعينكم‪ ,‬فالمستقبل في انتظاركم‪.‬‬
‫د‪ .‬أشجان‬
Page 2
THE INDEX
TEST QUESTION PAGE ANSWER PAGE

TEST 1 3 12
TEST 2 13 22
TEST 3 23 31
TEST 4 32 41
TEST 5 42 52
TEST 6 53 60
TEST 7 61 69
TEST 8 PART A only 70 74
FREE SAMPLE TEST 3 75 89
Page 3
OET 2.0 LISTENING TEST / TEST 1

Page 4

# Dr ASHGAN
Listening test
This test has three parts. In each part you will hear a number of different extracts.
At the start of each extract, you will hear this sound:--beep--
You will have time to read the questions before you hear each extract and you
will hear each extract ONCE ONLY.
At the end of the test you will have two minutes to check your answers.
Part A
In this part of the test, you will hear two different extracts. In each extract, a
health professional is talking to a patient. For questions 1 to 24 complete the
notes with information you hear. Now look at the notes for extract one.
EXTRACT 1
Questions 1- 12
You hear a physician talking to a patient called Mr Victor Rosario.
For questions 1-12, complete the notes with a word or short phrase.
You now have 30 seconds to look at the notes.
patient: Victor Rosario.

AGE: 67
pateint description of symptoms:
* has frequent nausia & vomiting with aspiration pneumonia and
_____________________ ( 1)
*endoscopy exposed a small ulcer after dropping hematocrit and feels
______________________ now . ( 2)
* last week CT scan revealed pneumatosis, cecum worrisome for ischemic
colitis, bilateral hydronephrosis and ___________________(3)
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*had multiple bowel movements, passing flatus and heavy gastric pain
________________________ (4) .
*chronic alcohol user, quitted ______________ long ago . (5)
past medical history:

* has COPD
* has history of pneumonia and aspiration pneumonia, osteoprosis ,
alcoholism & _____________________ . (6)
physical examination :
* he is a febrile, heart rate_100s-120s at times with _____________.( 7)
* respiratory rate 17-20, bp 130s-150s, 60s-70s, abdomen is distended with
tenderness, mainly in the upper abdomen, very hard to
________________.(8)
diagnosis:
* CT scan shows pneumatosis in the cecum enlarged & filled with stool &
_________________(9) , chronically dilated small bowel.
* has a possibility of ischemic cecum with _____________(10), bilateral
hydronephrosis on atrial fibrillation, aspiration pneumonia, chronic alcohol
abuse, acute renal failure, COPD ,anemis with gastric ulcer.
further diagnosis :
*________________(11) to assess it further to see if there is worsening
pneumatosis versus resolution to further evaluate liver lesions & make
decisions regading planning at that time .
* has frequent desaturations secondary to aspiration pneumonia, so any
surgical procedure or any surgical intervention would definitely need
________________(12) & then require long- term ventilator care.
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EXTRACT 2
questions 13-24
You hear a doctor talking to a patient called Noah Baxter.
for questions 13-24, complete the notes with a word or short phrase. You
now have 30 seconds to look at the notes.
patient: Noah Baxter.
Age: 36
symptoms and diseases: allergies
patient’s description of symptoms:
* intolerance to inhalant and _________________( 13) .
* no anaphylaxis or angioedema
past medical history:
* was under dialysis due to __________________(14), 6 months ago
* during that time, had acute event of perioral swelling
* etiology uncertain
* diagnosis showed allergic reaction was because of
________________(15), used to treat a cellulitis dialysis shunt infection.
medications:
* atenolol for controlling blood pressure
* sodium bicarbonate, lovasa&_____________________(16) .
previous treatments:
* corticosieroid therapy, antihstamine therapy & monitoring
* permcath insertion________________________(17) in peritoneal dialysis
allergies:
* heparin causes thrombocytopenia
family history of illness:
* family members have severs heart disease,___________(18) and food
allergies.
physical examination:
* blood pressure 128/78, pulse 70
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* tempreture 97.8, weight______________(19) , height5’7

impression: has developed ___________________(20).
further diagnosis:
* require radioallergosorbent test to investigate________________(21) to
determine allergic substances.
further treatment:
* avoid the_____________________(22) that test report shows
*stop further usage of____________________(23)
*use EpiPen in the event of acute angioedema or _______________(24) or
sensation of impeding allergic reaction.
THAT IS THE END OF PART A. NOW LOOK AT PART B.

PART B
In this part of the test, you will hear six different extracts. In each extraxt,
you will hear people talking to a different healthcare setting.
For queations 25-30, choose the answer A,B or C which fits best according
to what you hear. You will have time to read each question before you
listen.
Complete the answers as you listen.Now look at question 25.
25- You hear a doctor briefing his colleague about a patient.

What does he warn his colleague about?
A. patient has ruptured appendix with free air under the diaphragm.
B. patient has worsening abdominal pain, nausia and vomiting.
C. patient might need to be transferred to ICU if condition worsens.
26- You hear part of a surgical teams’ briefing.

The male surgeon suggests that the patient could
A. require a C-section in her second stage.
B. be at risk of persistent late decelerations.
C.require a C-section in case of fetal distress.
Page 8
27-You hear a radiologist talking about a new initiative that has been
introduced.
What objective was it intended to achieve?
A. make patients proactive during CT and MRI.
B. eliminate delay in services to patients.
C. make the reports readily available.
28. You hear a pharmacist talking to a doctor regarding a patient’s

medication.
They agree to choose the method which will
A. be less sedating and tolerable for patient.
B. impact on patient’s participation in therapies.
C. let patient go home as early as possible.
29.You hear an optometrist talking to a patient.

The optometrist suggests that the patient could
A. require a surgery for her condition.
B. benefit from eye drops foe few months.
C. need glasses with more powerful lenses.
30.You hear a podiatrist talking about a proposal to offer help with dialysis
patients’ foot care.
What problem was it intended to solve?
A. high risk of complications with patient’s feet.
B. struggle experienced by patient to attend dialysis.
C. difficulty faced by patient to access the service.
THIS IS THE END OF PART B. NOW LOOK AT PART C

Page 9
PART C
In this part of the test, you will hear two different extracts. In each extract,
you will hear a health professionals talking about aspects of their work. For
queations 31-42, choose the answer A,B or C which fits best according to
what you hear. Complete your answers as you listen. Now look at extract 1.
Extract 1
Questions 31-36.
You hear the lecture given by a physician on the topic white blood cell
disorders. You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31-36 .
31. Which of the following statements is correct?

The range of white blood cell is affected by
A. age and gender
B. age and race
C. gender and race
32.Which of the following white blood cells fight viral infections?

A. neutrophils
B. monocytes
C. lymphocytes
33.While naming disorders white blood cell is suffixed with philia, if

A. one type of white blood cell is abundant.
B. one type of white blood cell is scarce.
C. there is too much types of white blood cell.
34.What is the popular cause of leukophilia ?

A. infection medications like prednisone.
B. secretion of antibodies by the body.
C. increased number of white blood cells.
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35. Which one of the following is not caused by genetic mutation ?

A. severe congenital neutropenia.
B. cyclic neutropenia.
C. autoimmune neutropenia.
36. White blood cells are unable to function in:

A. leukocyte adhesion deficiency.
B. chronic granulomatous disease.
C. chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
NOW LOOK AT EXTRACT TWO

Extract 2
questions 37-42
You hear an interview with a neurosurgeon called Dr Lan March, who
specializes in the treatment of concussion in sport.
You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.
37.What is the aim of these new guidelines ?

To provide a resource for
A. everyone who are either players or coaches of any sport.
B. the top-level professional sports people and their coaches.
C. parents, teachers and coaches of young people playing sport.
38.How do we know when someone is suffering from concussion ?

If the person is:
A. disoriented following a hard knock to the head.
B. acutelly knocked out on the ground.
C. all of the above mentioned.
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39. What is the minimum interval required before playing again after
concussion ?
A. two weeks.
B. less than two weeks.
C. more than two weeks.
40. Who has more chance to get a concussion?

A. anyone who takes part in any outdoor sports.
B. people playing sports with more bodily contact.
C. likely to affect kids as same as professional players.
41. According to Dr March, having specialist concussion doctors on hand for

youth sports is:
A. unnecessary.
B. advisable.
C. essential.
42. Chronic traumatic encephalopathy occures when the players use their
helmets and heads to:
A. make a blow.
B. receive a blow.
C. avoid a blow.
THIS IS THE END OF PART C.
YOU NOW HAVE 2 MINUTES TO CHECK YOUR ANSWERS

Page 12
ANSWERS :
1. Abdominal discomfort
2. Anemic
3. Multiple liver lesions
4. Yesterday
5. Smoking
6. Microcytic anemia
7. atrial fibrillation
8. Localize
9. air fluid levels
10. possible metastatic disease
11. Repeat CT scan
12. Intubation
13. Environmental allergies
14. Renal failure
15. Keflex
16. Dialyvite
17. Three times
18. Carcinoma
19. 207 pounds
20. Acute anaohylaxis
21. Specific IgE antibodies
22. Offending agents
23. Cephalosporin antibiotics
24. Allergic reaction
25. A 26. C 27. B 28. A 29. A 30. C

31. B 32. C 33. A 34. A 35. C 36. B
37. C 38. C 39. A 40. B 41. A 42. A
Page 13

Page 14
# DR ASHGAN

#Dr ASHGAN
Listening test
Part A
EXTRACT 1
Questions 1- 12
You hear a physician talking to a patient called Pamela Erikson.
patient: Pamela Erikson. ( 21 years old )

symptoms& disease : itchy, red rash on feet
patient’s description of symptoms :
itchy red rash on feet tingling persistently for _______________(1)
right great toe, 2nd toe, 3rd toe and 4th toe
onset of itching starts after ________________(2)
does not smoke, drinks regularly
past medical history :
________________(3) and frequent ear infections
has__________________(4)
no medications
gets___________________(5) while accessing adhesive tape
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family history :
paternal grandmother has cataract
_______________(6) has migraines
diagnosis :
physical examination reports show blood pressure 110/64, respiratory rate is
______________(7), heart rate is 66, tempreture is 98.6,
________________(8) is warm to cool, proximal to distal the dorsalis pedis artery
pulse palpable bilateral, the posterior tibial artery pulse palpable bilateral,
no_______________(9) observed and varicosities are not observed.
right great toe, 2nd toe, 3rd toe and 4th toe shows erythema and ___________(10)
muscle strength for all groups tested and muscle tone is normal.
inspection and palpation of bone, joits and muscles unremarkable.
assessment :
tinea pedis, a________________(11) of skin from right toes
KOH test shows no visible microbes.
further treatment :
Lotrimin AF 1% cream to apply four times a day.
Griseofulvin 250 mg PO, once in________________(12) for four weeks.
EXTRACT 2
questions 13-24
You hear a doctor talking to a recently admitted patient called Roy Miller.
for questions 13-24, complete the notes with a word or short phrase.
patient: Roy Miller.

reason of referral: shortness of breath.
patient’s description of condition:
getting up________________(13) are difficult due to pauses to catch breath.
getting worse now because of longer pauses while doing activities.
feels__________________(14) and has barking kind of cough.
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worse at night as it keeps awake at night

cough is quite thick and_________________(15) in color
feels feverish
medical history :
diagnosed with_______________(16) last year
used to be a smoker, but quitted__________________(17)
worked in very dusty___________________(18)
get gout time to time and takes____________________(19)
also has arthritis in________________(20),
has prescription for_______________(21) and is taking a lot more over last week.
also taking statin for cholesterol and paracetamol when____________(22) is high.
is allergic to _______________(23), gives rash and itches.
effects of condition on everyday life :

thinking about moving into a _________________(24) as stairs make it worse.
Thinks it might be a chest infection.

Page 17
PART B
In this part of the test, you will hear six different extracts. In each extraxt, you will
hear people talking to a different healthcare setting.
For queations 25-30, choose the answer A,B or C which fits best according to what
you hear. You will have time to read each question before you listen.
Complete the answers as you listen.
Now look at question 25.

25. You hear a doctor explaining to his patient about a bone-marrow biopsy.
Bone marrow sample can be obtained from?
A. the blood forming portion of thinner core of bone.
B. both sternum and front of pelvic bone near groin.
C. pelvic bone near the lower back side of the hip.
26. You hear two hospital managers talking about an information session for
people who want to do voluntary work.
What problem do the managers discuss ?
A. issues with event management systems.
B. difficulty in finding a good catering service.
C. issues with contacting the participants.
27. You hear a discussion between a nurse and a doctor on different categories of
chemotherapy drugs.
Anti-metabolites
A. imitate as nutritional sources for cells.
B. starve the essential cells to their death.
C. prevent cancer cells from reproducing.
28.You hear a discussion between a doctor and a nurse about pancreatic

neuroendocrine tumors.
Which of the following tumors is not usually located at the head of pancreas ?
A. glucagonoma.
B. insulinoma.
C. gastrinoma.
Page 18
29.You hear a monologue by a pgysician explaining about gall stones.

Which is the common type of gall stones ?
A. blue-green gall stones.
B. pigment gall stones.
C. cholesterol gall stones.
30. You hear a doctor briefing junior doctors about trigger point injections>
Which one of the following is not a complication of trigger point injection ?
A. skin irritation.
B. mild healing.
C. skin infection.

Page 19
PART C
In this part of the test, you will hear two different extracts. In each extract, you
will hear a health professionals talking about aspects of their work.
you hear. Complete your answers as you listen. Now look at extract 1.
Extract 1
Questions 31-36.
You hear a veterinarian called dr Hann giving a presentation. You now have 90
seconds to read questions 31-36 .
31. The symptoms showed by Tucker proir to admission was

A. yelping with severe neck pain.
B. signs of lack of coordination.
C. slipping on the tiled floors.
32. The information revealed by Tucker’s diagnostic tests was

A. last 3 neck vertebrae compressing inward.
B. 3 cervical vertebrae pressing outward.
C. false suspicion of a cervical deformation.
33. The first signs of wobblers syndrome is seen

A. early in Doberman compared to Great Dane.
B. early in Great Dane compared to Doberman.
C. between 4 to 6 years in Doberman and Great Dane.
34. The efficient cure for wobblers syndrome in dogs is

A. feeding low calcium diet.
B. steroids and restricted activity.
C. modified dorseal laminectomy.
35. The spine surgery in dogs helps to

A. uncompress the spinal cord.
B. function with extreme pressure.
C. reconstruct the affected vertebrae.
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36. Tucker’s case study is not a perfect example for

A. how pet health insurance really pays the owner.
B. how early detection of the disease helps in cure.
C. how much deteriorating is wobblers syndrome.

Extract 2
questions 37-42
You hear an ophthalmologist called dr Ralph Peterson giving a presentation. You
now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.
37. What is the benefit of integrating genetics into medical care ?

A. helps in post-symptomatic evaluation of a disease.
B. helps to intervene before the symptoms manifests.
C. helps to relay progression and severity of disease.
38. Which one is a systemic disease that is not mentioned by dr Peterson ?

A. hypothyroidism.
B. hypertension.
C. diabetes.
39. According to dr Peterson, what does result in disease ?

A. mutations that occures in Rhodopsin.
B. Rhodopsin responding tremendously to light.
C. Rhodopsin responding abnormaly to light.
40. According to dr Peterson, whom do the public recognize as viable health care
providers in term of ocular disease ?
A. optometrists.
B. ophthalmologists.
C. opticians.
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41. According to dr Peterson, which healthcare professionals are doing genetic

testing most ?
A. optometrists.
B. ophthalmologists.
C opticians.
42. Which is not a factor that is pushing genetic testing into clinical care ?
A. decrease in the costs to do the analysis.
B. increase in time taken to do an analysis.
C. insurance companies are paying to do an analysis.

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ANSWERS:
1. Past 4 weeks
2. Removing sweaty sock
3. Chickenpox
4. Surgical ear tubes
5. Severs rash
6. Maternal aunt
7. 18
8. Lower extremities
9. Edema
10. Scaling
11. Fungal culture
12. 8 hours
13. Stairs
14. Weary
15. Dirty green
16. COPD
17. 6 years ago
18. Mines
19. Allopurinol
20. Knees
21. Inhalers
22. Arthritis
23. Penicillin
24. Bungalow
25. B 26. B 27. A 28. A 29. C 30. B

31. A 32. A 33. B 34. C 35. A 36. C
37. B 38. A 39. A 40. A 41. B 42. B
#Dr ASHGAN
Page 23

Page 24

#Dr ASHGAN
Listening test
Part A
EXTRACT 1
Questions 1- 12
You hear a physiotherapist talking to Linda, a woman who has lower back pain.
patient: Linda Maxwell.

symptoms :
* having pain on the left side of____________________(1)
*also felt around hip and buttocks
* experienced mostly during____________________(2)
*had on and off for years
* kicked off as a sort of ___________________(3)
* hurts while putting__________________(4) on the left leg.
* feel a ________________(5) while roll during sleep
* move down to_______________(6) through back of knee
* pain aggravates while doing exercises
background : employed as a_____________________(7)
Page 25
details :
* walk everyday to work
*_________________(8) probably 4 or 5 times a week.
* run likely around 40 km a week
* normally___________(9) a twice a week ( hasn’t lately due tight work schedule)
medical history :
* had injury playing _________________(10) when young
* located where hip is dislocated
* did a lot of_______________(11)
*had lower back pain for couple of years
initial treatment :
* been to a___________________(12) twice
* did exercise for a while
* usually take anti-inflammatory drugs like Nurofen if pain is high
EXTRACT 2
questions 13-24
You hear a General Practitioner talking to a patient called Xavier Murphy.
patient: Xavier Murphy.

background to condition :
* experienced discomfort for the past week.
* had a fever for________________(13)
* has been feeling nauseous even in the__________________(14)
effects of condition on everyday life :
* vomited in_________________(15) both yesterday and today
* does not feel hungry and not able to complete meals
concerns expressed :
* feels tired along with______________(16) and stiff in the mornings
* skin is turning_____________________(17)
* urine is turning___________________(18) in color
Page 26
backgroung details :
* married, father of two children ( son-7 y.o and daughter- 10 y.o )
* employed as____________________(19)
* works on_______________________(20) overseas
*returned lately from Dubai_________________(21)
* heavy smoker ( smokes_____________(22) cigarettes a day )
* also has a couple of beers most days
family history :
* father retired a____________(23) ago ( in good health )
* mother has high blood pressure and takes_________________(24)
* also has three sisters
PART B
Complete the answers as you listen. Now look at question 25 .
25. You hear a monologue of a doctor briefing about rubella disease.

12.5 million rubella cases were reported in the US,________
A. between 1946 to 1956.
B. since 2004.
C. between 1964 to 1965.
26. You hear a discussion about different types of kidney cancers.

Which is not a common type kidney cancer among adults ?
A. transitional cell carcinoma.
B. Wilms tumor.
C. inverted papilloma.
Page 27
27. You hear a nurse briefing his colleague about a patient.

Which one of the following is not correct about the patient ?
A. has an extreme limitation of the ability to walk.
B. is following a strict heart healthy diet.
C. his wife has Alzheimer’s and is allergic to penicillin.
28. You hear a discussion about common types of neuropathic pain.

Which one of the following is not caused by nerve compression ?
A. Phantom limb pain.
B. Pudendal neuralgia.
C. Carpal tunnel syndrome.
29.You hear two doctors discussing about a new device to ease breathing
difficulties in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
Which one of the following is incorrect about the new device ?
A. looks like a valve.
B. reduces lung volume.
C. helps to breathe long.
30. You hear members of a hospital committee discussing problems in the X-ray
department.
What is the main reason for the congestion ?
A. break down of an X-ray machine.
B. X-ray department is always a busy department.
C. delay in the paperwork for the repair.

Page 28
#Dr ASHGAN
PART C
Extract 1
Questions 31-36.
You hear a monologue of a physician, giving a lecture on the different types of
non-Hodgkins lymphoma. You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31-36 .
31. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

A. B-cells and T-cells aid in killing infectious agents.
B. lymphomas may arise from T-cells.
C. two types of lymphomas are T-cells and B-cells.
32. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

high-grade lymphoma cells
A. are easily distinguishable from normal cells.
B. have the ability to destroy aggressively.
C. have exponential rate of grading cells.
33. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

aggressive non-Hodgkin lymphoma
A. always responds better to treatment.
B. is cured early after the diagnosis.
C. is either high or intermediate grade.
34.Which is the most common kind of lymphoma ?

A. follicular lymphoma.
B. diffuse large B-cell lymphoma.
C. nodal lymphoma.
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35. When lymphomas arise from the lymph nodes, it is called as________
A. nodal disease.
B. extra nodal.
C. nodal lymphoma.
36. Which one of the following lymphoma does not look like being in spherical
clusters ?
A. low-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
B. intermediate-grade non-Hodgkin lympgoma.
C. follicular lymphoma.

Extract 2
questions 37-42
You hear an physiotherapist called Chris Maloney, giving a presentation about
treating a high jumper with a knee injuey. You now have 90 seconds to read
questions 37-42.
37. When Chris first met the patient, he found out that she was_________
A. forced to pull out an event.
B. thinking about quitting the sport.
C. reluctant to various therapists.
38. During the assessment of the patient’s knee, Chris concluded that______
A. her body type was totally unfit as an athlete.
B. she lacked strength in some key muscles.
C. her pain was exclusively located in one area.
39. In the first stage of her treatment, Chris_______

A. was keen on describing the causes in detail.
B. took aid from MRI to support his approach.
C. was able to clear some pain in therapy.
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40. Why did Chris discourage taping ?

A. the patient was keen on getting taping for relief.
B. the treatment aimed to succeed without taping.
C. taping does not offer any benefit for the patient.
41. In the gym activities of patient, Chris’s main concern was to ensure that she
was able to________
A. manage her own without any additional external support.
B. try out a wide range of fitness exercises for more strength.
C. focus on following the techniques precisely without error.
42. What was the reason behind the changes in patient’s run-up technique ?
A.. to minimize the stress developed on take-off leg.
B. to help her achieve more strength before the jump.
C. to make her compete without the support of taping.
#Dr ASHGAN
Page 31
Answers :
1. Lower back
2. Running
3. Dull pain
4. Weight
5. Shooting pain
6. Back of leg
7. Middle school teacher
8. Ride bike
9. Swim
10. Soccer
11. Physiotherapy
12. Osteotherapist
13. A few days
14. Afternoons
15. The morning
16. Pain in joints
17. Yellowish
18. Darker
19. An electrician
20. Building sites
21. 10 days ago
22. 10
23. Couple of years
24. Medication
25. C 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. C 30. A

31. C 32. A 33. B 34. C 35. C 36. B
37. B 38. B 39. C 40. B 41. C 42. A
#Dr ASHGAN
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Page 33

#Dr ASHGAN
Listening test
Part A
EXTRACT 1
Questions 1- 12
You hear to a physician talking to a patient called Mr Kevin Chamberlin.
patient: Mr Kevin Chamberlin.

symptoms & disease : persistent cough for the past two weeks and shortness of
breath.
patient’s description of symptoms :
* has coronary artery disease and________________(1) with prior stent
supported angioplasty.
* has persistent cough for the past two weeks and shortness of breath.
* was also treated for_______________(2)
* does not drink, but smokes regularly
past medical history :
* has coronary artery disease since_____________(3)
*has peripheral vascular disease for over 10 years
* has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease & _______________(4)
Page 34
past surgeries :
* had right fem-popliteal bypass about 8 years ago
* had neck fusion in the remote past stent supported angioplasty to _________(5)
in the heart.
medications :
Aspirin 81 mg/day, acalopidogrel 75 mg/day, Allopurinol 100mg/day,
Levothyroxine______(6)/ day, Lisinopril 10 mg/day, Metoprolol 25 mg/day,
Atrovastatin 10 mg/day
diagnosis :
* cardiovascular studies normal upstroke, distal pulse symmetrical, heart regular
with normal S1 with ______________(7), S4 at the apex & lungs with decreased
air entery.
* Echocardiogram shows mild bilateral enlargement, left ventricle normal
thickening, mildly dilated ventricle
* EF of 40%, mild mitral regurgitation &______________(8), grade 2
* Nuclear stress study shows fixed inferolateral defects
*_________________(9) identified
*laboratory data shows normal white cells, hemoglobin 11, BUN of 12.1 ,
creatinine of 0.8, troponin of 0.04, BNP of 5700, had no syncope.
impression :
_________________(10), ischemic with exacerbation of symptoms
further treatment :
* electrophysiology study is required for ______________(11)
* defibrillator will be determind at a later stage
* to continue Metoprolo with a little gigher dose of 25 mg twice a day, also
continue Atrovastatin
* increase Lisinopril to 20 mg daily to improve________________(12)
* take Hydralazine 50 mg
Page 35
EXTRACT 2
questions 13-24
You hear an obstetrician talking to a patient called Vanessa Gorden.
patient: Vanessa Gorden.

* works as a______________(13)
medical history :
* has occasional_________________(14)
* is allergic to penicillin
* has a__________________(15). Non smoker
* this will be her second child
* took________________(16) before first pregnancy
* first baby presented as__________________(17)
*__________________(18) required during intervension
* after giving birth, had problems with____________________(19)
* helped by midwife
baby’s father :
*family history of________________(20)
* child from previous marriage has_________________(21)
points raised :
* not keen on_____________(22)
* enquired about the possibility of________________(23)
* provided her with____________________(24) on preparing sibilings for new
baby

Page 36
PART B
25. You hear a pharmacist talking to a patient.

What does he warn the patient about ?
A. patient has a prescription from the hospital.
B. Tylenol affect the functioning og the kidneys.
C. Ibuprofen reduce blood flow to the kidneys.
26. You hear a discussion between a nurse and a physician explaining about Nipah
virus .
Nipah virus was identified in
A. a village in Malaysia.
B. Singapore.
C. Malaysia and Singapore.
27. You hear a radiographer talking to a patient about her MRI scan .
What makes the scan easier for the patient ?
A. large diameter of equipment.
B. the brand new equipment.
C. bell that patient can squeeze.
28. You hear a nurse reporting to the doctor regarding a patient.

Which one of the following is incorrect about the patient ?
A. O2 sat is 90% on room air.
B. heart rate is 112.
C. blood pressure is 86 over 40.
Page 37
29. You hear a pharmacist talking to a doctor about a patient’s medication.

She says that the medication is making
A. the patient dozy.
B. the patient’s face dry.
C. the patient sloppy.
30. You hear two doctors doing an activity at a staff training day.
The references made should be based on
A. evidences from the case notes.
B. severity of the symptoms.
C. the matter of priority.
#Dr ASHGAN
Page 38
PART C
Extract 1
Questions 31-36.
You hear a geriatrician called Dr Claire Cox, giving a presentation on the subject of
end-of-life care for people with dementia. . You now have 90 seconds to read
questions 31-36 .
31. Which of the following is correct statement about dementia ?

A. is a remediable disease with certain problems.
B. is the highest cause of death in Australia.
C. has incalculable course unlike other conditions.
32. Why did Dementia Australia decide to examine the issue of end-of-life
dementia care ?
Because they
A. lead campaigns on dementia issues and have funds to do researches.
B. have many informal proofs that the current system is not efficient.
C. need a new initiative for dementia patients, their families and carers.
33. Who were the pollsters of the survey conducted by dementia Australia ?
A. doctors, nurses and others working with patients.
B. researchers appointed by Dementia Australia.
C. care professionals, family members and carers of the patients.
Page 39
34. Which one of the following is not a finding of the survey conducted by
Dementia Australia ?
A. patients, their family members, carers might be unaware of available services.
B. dementia patients are at times reluctant to take pain medications like
morphine.
C. care professionals are unaware of legal matters related to end-of-life dementia
care.
35. The patients are legally entitled to

A. adequate pain control only if it did not hasten death.
B. refuse food and hydration even in end-of-life care.
C. refuse antibiotics only in the end-of-life care.
36. Which is the most efficient method to reduce the headache of making
decision on carers ?
A. discussing and documenting preferences.
B. respecting the wishes of the patients.
C. all of the above mentioned.
Extract 2
questions 37-42
You hear a lecture given by a Dr Aaron Broderick on the topic blood types
classifications. You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.
37. What is the reason behind the various types of blood ?

A. cells and yellow liquid plasma present in blood.
B. ABO antigens and rhesus antigens present in blood.
C. difference in the blood compsition among individuals.
Page 40
38. Cross-matching of blood tyoes is vital because____

A. the old red blood cells will attack the new red blood cells .
B. antigens in the patient’s blood will reject new red blood cells.
C. it ensures safe red blood cell transfusion in patient.
39. Which blood group have antigen in the surface of red blood cells and antibody
in plasma ?
A. AB.
B. B.
C. O.
40. In the US, people of which blood group are above five per cent of the
population ?
A. AB+
B. B+
C. AB-
41. According to Dr Broderick, what determines the blood group of the child ?
A. inhered genes.
B. genes of both parents.
C. genes of the father.
42. Which one of the following statements is not correct about anti-D
immunoglobulin ?
A. is the cure for severe jaundice and brain damage in fetus.
B. inhibits antibodies in the mother to nullify a sensitizing event.
C. effect of the medication will remain as far as twelve weeks.

Page 41
ANSWERS :
1. Peripheral vascular disease
2. Pneumonia
3. 2016
4. Hypertension
5. Unknown vessel
6. 100 mcg
7. Normally split S2
8. Diastolic dysfunction
9. No reversible ischemia
10. Cardiomyopathy
11. Ventricular tachycardia
12. Blood pressure management
13. Computer programmer
14. Asthma attack
15. Vegetarian diet
16. Fertility drugs
17. Breech birth
18. Forceps
19. Breastfeeding
20. Epilepsy
21. Down syndrome
22. Aminocentesis
23. CVS testing
24. A leaflet
25. C 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. C

31. C 32. B 33. B 34. B 35. B 36. A
37. C 38. C 39. B 40. B 41. A 42. A
#Dr ASHGAN
Page 42

Page 43

#Dr ASHGAN
Listening test
Part A
EXTRACT 1
Questions 1- 12
You hear to a physician talking to a patient called Mr Medehgui.
patient: Mr Medehgui. ( 80 years old )
Symptoms & disease : possible idiopathicnormal pressure hydrocephalus.
Patient’s description of symptoms :

12 months ago he had _______________(1). Gait impairment and incontinence.
Had CSF drainage via temporary spinal catheter.
Medical history :
Has________________(2) ans had a cervical laminectomy
Fusion six months back
Patient is unable to walk, need a walker and a supporting assistant to walk
_______________(3) is worsesed
Page 44
Medications :
Aricept 10 mg in the evening, Carbidopa 25 mg or levodopa 100 mg_________(4).

Citalopram 40 mg daily,_____________(5) 100 mg twice a day.
Finasteride 5 mg once a day, Flomax______________(6) once a day. Multivitamin

with iron once a day. Omeprazole 20 mg once a day. Senna 8.6 mg twice a day.
Both tylenol 65. mg and promethazine 25 mg_______________(7).
Clinical finding :
the cranial nerve exam shows no upgaze
Down gaze and horizontal gaze are________________(8).

gait is severely impaired
________________(9) appear larger.
The frontal horn span was previously about 5.5 cm and now it is 6 cm.
The__________________(10) is 15 cm.
Impression : Idiopathic normal pressure hydrocephalus
possibility of________________(11).
Incontinence and urinary urgency.
Further treatment :
repeat CSF drainage by a spinal catheter.
Also recommend___________________(12)
Page 45
EXTRACT 2
questions 13-24
You hear an obstetrician talking to a patient called Selena Ramirez.
patient: Selena Ramirez.
Symptoms and diseases : severe headache and pulsatile tinnitus.
Patient’s description of symptoms :
Severe headaches and pulsatile tinnitus for the______________(13).

gets pulsation in the head with heartbeat sounds
Feels pain on upper regions of_______________(14)
no nausea or vomiting, no past history of headaches
gets pulsating sounds in_______________(15)
ear pulsations started after a flight trip
no drop or change in__________________(16) and vision
had dizzy episodes in the past with nausea
used to smoke_________________(17), does not drink & smoke now.
Previous illness :
had skin cancer on arm and back.
is a_________________(18), had a left nephrectomy, C-sections, mastoidectomy,
laparoscopy and temporal arteritis.
Medications :
Tylenol, Excedrin, a multivitamin and__________________(19)
allergic to codeine and penicillin
Familly history of illness :

father has cancer, hypertension and________________(20)
Page 46
Diagnosis :
blood pressure at 120 over 78, pulse 64 and regular, tepreture is 97.4 .
cardiovascular test shows_____________(21) and rhythm without murmer.
an old mastoidectomy scar on your left ear.
______________(22) is midline, grossly hearing is intact.
has pulsatile tinnitus, left ear with eustachian tube disorder as the etiology,
has a possibility of________________(23), deviated nasal septum, dizziness,
probably duo to possible meniere disease.
Further treatment :
to start a 2 gram , less sodium diet.
a________________(24) as a part of workup and evaluation.
Nasacort AQ nasal spray, one spray each nostril daily.
use hearing protection devices at all times.
revaluation in 3 weeks.

Page 47
PART B
Complete the answers as you listen. Now look at question 25
25.You hear a physician explaining the issues involved in treating lower back pain.
The most constructive way to treat back pains issues are using___________
A. imaging, spinal injections, opioids and surgery.
B. integrated care and occupational intervensions with prevention strategies.
C. bio-psychosocial strategy with initial non-pharmacological tretment.
26.You hear a discussion about melasma and different types of melasma.

Which one of the following type of melasma is characterized by the presence of
excess melanocytes ?
A. unnamed type found in people with dark complexion.
B. dermal melasma.
C. epidermal melasma.
27.You hear a discussion between two doctors about VX and its effects.
Which on of the following statements is correct ?
Sarin is__________
A. less toxic by inhalation.
B. more toxic by entery through the skin.
C. more volatile nerve agent than VX.
Page 48
28.You hear a nurse in the emergency department discussing the care of a patient
with a doctor.
What do they agree to do first ?
A. put the patient’s arm in a sling.
B. wait until the patient calms down.
C. treat patient’s pain to relax the arm.
29. You hear a discussion between a doctor and nurse about the cause of glioma.
Which one of the following types of glioma does not involve oligodendrocytes ?
A. astrocytoma.
B. oligoastrocytoma.
C. oligodendroglioma.
30. You hear a doctor explaining to his nurse about functional gastrointestinal
disorders.
Which one of the following is the most serious symptom of functional
gastrointestinal disorders ?
A. hematochezia.
B. acid reflux.
C. abdominal hypersensitinity.
#Dr ASHGAN
Page 49
PART C
Extract 1
Questions 31-36.
You hear a an interview with Professor John McNeil, who led a study on the
impacts of aspirin. You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31-36 .
31.What was the evidence received from the spree trial by giving low dose aspirin
to the elderly ?
A. no harms and some benefits.
B. no harms and no benefitd.
C. some harms and no benefits.
32.What was the endpoint of the study led by Professor John McNeil ?
A. ability for the survival.
B. how long the elderly remained sound.
C. how long the elderly stayed disable.
33.Which one of the following statements is not a finding of the study ?

A. low dose aspirin did not seem to raise survival.
B. low dose aspirin did not prevent stroke.
C. high dose aspirin did prevent heart attack.
Page 50
34.Which one of the following statements is correct ?

A. aspirin prevents cancer.
B. aspirin heightens bleeding.
C. placebo prevents cancer.
35.Which one of the following statements is correct ?

Number of people who were diagnosed with dementia
A. was higher in those who took aspirin.
B. was lower in those who took aspirin.
C. was equal in both cohorts of the study.
36.According to Professor John McNeil, among different age groups

A. the effect of aspirin varied significantly.
B. the effect of aspirin remained the same.
C. the effect of aspirin was negligible.

Extract 2
questions 37-42
You hear a physician, giving a lecture on ankle fructures. You now have 90
seconds to read questions 37-42.
37.The lateral malleolus fructure require surgery if

A. the ankle joint remains stable.
B. the ankle joint is unstable.
C. fibula fructure is around 4 cm.
38.Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

A. medial malleolus fructure happens at the end of tibia.
B. a displaced medial malleolus fructure does not need surgery.
C. an isolated lateral malleolus fructure is not very rare.
39.Which of the following fructures can lead to arthritis ?

A. bimalleolar equivalent fructure.
B. bimalleolar ankle fructure.
C. displaced medial malleolus fructure.
Page 51
40.Which one of the following explains bimalleolar equivalent fructure ?

A. has a ligament tear on inner side of ankle.
B. is a fructure involves only fibula.
C. all the above mentioned.
41.Which of the following fructures involve only tibia ?

A. posterior malleolus fructure.
B. bamalleolar ankle fructure.
C. maisonneuve fructure.
42.Syndesmosis is the
A. force of injury passing through the large ligament.
B. large ligament that connects the two bones of leg.
C. force of injury passing through supporting ankle ligament.

Page 52
ANSWERS :
1. Severe cognitive impairment
2. Cervical stenosis
3. Memory
4. Three times a day
5. Colace
6. 0.4 mg
7. As needed
8. Intact
9. Ventricles
10. Third ventricular span
11. Supranuclear palsy
12. A shunt surgery
13. Past three months
14. Head
15. Left ear
16. Hearing
17. 1 pack a day
18. Kidney donor
19. Probiotic
20. Heart disease
21. Regular heart rate
22. Weber exam
23. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
24. Carotid ultrasound study
25. B 26. A 27. C 28. C 29. A 30. A

31. C 32. B 33. C 34. B 35. C 36. C
37. B 38. B 39. B 40. C 41. A 42. B
#Dr ASHGAN
Page 53

Page 54

#Dr ASHGAN
Listening test
Part A
EXTRACT 1
Questions 1- 12
You hear a cardiologist talking to Sarah, a patient with a pacemaker.
patient : Sarah
Sarah’s medical history :
had surgery in _____________________(1) to correct her heart problem.
her parents trieb to explain that she had____________________(2).
history of surgery and Sarah’s memories :
it was________________(3) after surgery.
her lips and nails were___________________(4).
patient’s exercise and fitness :
she kept________________(5) consistently as she was getting older.
she used to dance for________________(6) a week.
she is still _____________________(7) regularly.
she gets_____________________(8) every now and then.
Page 55
drinking habits and heart condition :

she has____________________(9) drinks once a week.
has________________(10) chest pain.
noticed___________________(11) easily.
her family history of heart disease is_________________(12).
EXTRACT 2
questions 13-24
You hear a GP talking to Kevin about his accedent.
patient: Kevin.
patient’s general medical history, exercise and lifestyle :
he is_____________________(13) years old.
his______________________(14) is lower than average.
he_____________________(15) for about 100-150 kilometers a week.
family medical history :
his mother is a____________________(16).
his father had a_______________________(17)
Kevin’s health problems and medical treatment in West Africa :
had a lot of____________________(18) troubles.
had______________________(19) constantly.
he received____________________(20) medical care.
patient’s bicycle accident and onset of pain :
smashed himself on____________________________(21).
after the accident they went to the _______________________(22).
pain started after having___________________________(23).
pain appeared after_____________________(24) level went down.

Page 56
PART B
25.Which of the following information is incorrect regarding the patient’s

condition ?
A. his dose of morphine has been increased.
B. he is on Amoxi-clav.
C. he takes hypertension medication.
26.According to the brief given by the nurse

A. it took 10 min of CRP to reach return of pulse.
B. on arrival, the patient’s O2 sat was 69%.
C. he has a history of parathyroid cancer.
27.According to the extract

A. the patient is 65 years old.
B. her presenting feartures were suggestive of pneumonia.
C. the patient is to be commenced on antibiotics and steroids.
28.According th the extract

A. the patient was diagnosed with lung cancer for the first time in 2009.
B. when arrived th the ER. His PO2 sat was 68%.
C. the patient has a history of shortness of breath since one month.
29.Regarding the patient’s analgesia

A. the patient is well controlled.
B. the patient is not allowed to take analgesia anymore.
C. her last dose of analgesia was 3.30 mg.
Page 57
30.According to the extract

A. the patient is diagnosed as a case of stroke.
B. his daughter reported that he was speaking irregularly.
C. the patient is showing non-compliance regarding taking his antihypertensives.
PART C
Extract 1
Questions 31-36.
You hear an interview with Professor Grobman, who is a Professor of Obstetrics
and Gynecology. You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31-36 .
31.What does professor Grobman believe to be the problem with induced labor ?
A. that it inevitably leads to cesarean section.
B. that a belief was built on the basis of misunderstanding of certain results.
C. that the procedure has not been performed correctly.
32.The population undergoing induced labor are described as biased because

A. there was a greater number of women who underwent induced labor when
compared with those who did not.
B. the difference in the gestational age between the two groups.
C. they had a meical problem that made inducing labor an indication.
33.What point does professor Grobman make by comparing induced to

spontaneous labor ?
A. induced labor is optional.
B. induced labor precedes cesarean section.
C. spontaneous labor is safer.
Page 58
34.What is the concern with regard to cesarean delivery truly about ?

A. the patient being experiencing child birth for the first time.
B. the patient having co-morbid conditions.
C. the bad outcome when it comes to the babies health.
35.What would professor Grobman like to decrease the rate of ?

A. cesarean sections.
B. vaginal deliveries.
C. unnecessary interventions.
36.Women who were randomized to normal vaginal delivery had_____outcomes

when compared to thoses going through induced labor
A. worse.
B. better.
C. the same.
#Dr ASHGAN
Page 59
Extract 2
questions 37-42
You hear an interview with Serge Negus and Kathleen Bainbridge, about phantom
smells. You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.
37.Serge states that he lost his sense of smell as a result of

A. a fructured skull.
B. a broken nose.
C. nerve damage.
38.Why did not Serge ming experiencing phantom smells ?

A. the experience was not that bad.
B. he realized that it is common and could happen to anyone.
C. it is untreatable anyway.
39.What is Serge telling us about the slightly bad smell that he had ?
A. he could not find the place where it is coming from.
B. it was unfamilliar to him.
C. he would choose never being able to smell again.
40.According to Kathleen’s definition of phantosmia,which of the following is

true?
A. it is always preceived as of something is burning.
B. the patient is considered to be hallucinating.
C. it is a true phenomenon.
41.What does Kathleen say about the study that she participated in ?
A. they used batteries as the source of odour.
B. they included a question about ohantom smells within the already established
survey.
C. over 7000 people reported experiencing phantom smells at least once.
42.What is the interviewer’s opinion regarding the study ?

A.it’s results might be somehow inaccurate.
B. it was tested on a small number of subjects.
C. it’s outcomes were surprisingly predictable.
Page 60

ANSWERS :
1.1991
2. Transposition of the great vessels
3. Difficult to walk
4. Blue
5. Dancing
6. Five hours
7. Walking / taking classes
8. Headches
9. 3-4 drinks
10. No
11. Bruising
12. Negative
13. 33
14. Cholesterol
15. Bicyles
16. Heavy smoker
17. Pacemaker
18. Stomach
19. Diarrhea
20. minimal
21. The asphalt
22. Coffee shop
23. Coffee
24. Adrenaline
25. C 26. B 27. B 28. A 29. A 30. C

31. B 32. C 33. A 34. A 35. C 36. A
37. C 38. A 39. B 40. B 41. B 42. A
Page 61

Page 62

#Dr ASHGAN
Listening test
Part A
EXTRACT 1: Questions 1- 12
You hear a gastro-enterlogist talking to new patient called Simon Mortlake. For
questions 1 to 12, complete the notes with a word or short phrase. You now have
30 seconds to look at notes.
patient : Simon Mortlake.

patient history :
age 57
referred with a suspected (1)_______________( three years ago).
-endoscopy
-(2)_________________( clear )
successfully treat for (3)___________________(medically)
surgery for (4)___________________( two years ago )
occupation : retired (5)___________________.
current symptoms :
indigestion – especially (6)_________________after meals
feels that he lacks (7)_________________________.
somw (8)____________________on exertion
report loss of (9)________________________
Page 63
no (10)______________________ to abdomen
patient concerns :
family history : uncle had (11)______________________
planning a trip to (12)____________________
EXTRACT 2
questions 13-24
You hear a vascular surgeon talking to new patient called Monica Pattison.
patient : Monica Pattison
patient history and background :
varicose veins : first occurrence whilst (13)_________________( 25 years ago ).
symptoms abated ( sfter 18 months ).
worked as a (14)_________________ in a resaurant.
symptoms recurred ( four years ago ).
- calves described as (15)_________________ and itchy.
previous treatment :
self-help : movement, keeping feet elevated, no (16)_____________ of legs.
exercise : moderate daily walk ( 30 minutes )
GP : further self-help only, patient advised to (17)_________________.
recent symptoms and treatment :
oedema in (18)_____________________( 1 yeas ago )
inflammation of feet and ankles
recurrent night (19)____________________.
ultrasound scan excluded (20)____________________.
treatment by injection of (21)________________( local aesthtic, day patient )
used bandages ( one week ) and (22)________________( for a further week)
side effects – severe (23)_____________________
patient concerns :
worried about invasive surgery
- also about the effect on her (24)____________________business.
Page 64
PART B
25. You hear a nurse in the obstetrics department talking to the obstetrician.
She’s worried because the patient
A. is still unaware of her pregnancy.
B. has reacted badly to news of her pregnancy.
C. says she may want to terminate her pregnancy.
26. You hear a senior doctor giving a group of medical students training in how
conduct a physical examination.
He says that during the examination of a patient’s shoulder, the doctor should
A. keep an open mind about what problems there might be.
B. perform specific tests suggested by the patient history.
C. be ready to help the patient remove any clothing.
27. You hear a GP talking to a patient about his mother.

What is he seeking advice about ?
A. how to deal with his mother’s emotional state.
B. hpw quickly a condition is likely to develop.
C. who to refer to for practical assistance.
28. You hear two nurses discussing a patient’s care plan.

Before she can be discharged, the patient needs
A. to demonstrate that she’s sufficiently mobile.
B. some help to come to terms with her condition.
C. guidance in how to self-administer some medication.
Page 65
29. You hear a surgeon briefing a team about an upcoming operation.

What is he concerned about regarding the post-operative period ?
A. when medication will be administered.
B. how soon the patient will resume smoking.
C. whether the patient’s pain will be managed effectively.
30. You hear a dentist talking to a patient.

What is the patient doing ?
A. complaining about his last appointment.
B. asking for some remedical work to be carried out.
C. enquiring about a possible further course of treatment.

Page 66
PART C
31. Toby expains that sport people fear getting hamstring injuries because
A. it takes long time to recover from one.
B. there is a hig risk of occurrence.
C. the therapy can be very painful.
32. Toby explains that hamstring injuries are common in sports which
A. tend to involve players in very long matches.
B. are popular with players of different ages.
C. require players to move in certain ways.
33. In terms of preventing hamstring injuries, Toby mentions that sport people
need to
A. maintain ease of movement in another part of the body.
B. ensure that warm-up exercises are not increasing the risk.
C. be cautious about working directly on the muscle concerned.
34. Toby suggests that during invasive training programmes

A. pain in the hamstring should be seen as a warning sign.
B. working on gluteal muscles can help avoid hamstring problems.
C. people with a history of hamstring strains need to avoid certain exercises.
35. What is Toby’s first concern when treating a hamstring injury ?

A. to get the athelete to describe the symptoms.
B. to take action to reduce any swelling.
C. to ensure that pain is well managed.
Page 67
36. What does Toby say about recovering from hamstring injuries ?
A. the effects may be permanent in some cases.
B. it is hard to predict how long it will take in each case.
C. treatment can be counter-productive in less severe cases.

Extract 2
questions 37-42
You hear a clinical pharmacist called Emma Royce giving a presentation about the
side effects of certain types of medication. You now have 90 seconds to read
questions 37-42.
37. Emma explains that the condition known as pathological gambling

A. was first identified in patients with Parkinson’s disease.
B. affets a disproportionate number of Parkinson’s patients.
C. often occure in Parkinson’s patients whatever treatment ther are having.
38. Emma says that pathological gambling as a side effect of Parkinson’s

medication
A. may be more extensive than existing data suggests.
B. is probbly restricted to patients with an existing disorder.
C. seems to have been over-estimated in the absence of reliable data.
39. In the case of the patient called Harry, what associated symptoms led his wife
to discover his gambling problem ?
A. insomnia.
B. loss of appetite.
C. compulsive shopping
40. What poin does Emma make about the role of underlyingrisk factors in the
development of pathological gambling ?
A. certain personal characteristics clearly play a part in this.
B. prolonged exposure to the drug makes this hard to assess.
C. there a lack of conclusive evidence to back up claims about this.
Page 68
41. Emma feels that the long-term effects of this type of adverse reaction
A. can be extremely serious for the patient’s wellbeing.
B. are limited because the symptoms soon disappear.
C. depend on the level of support the patient has.
42. What does Emma suggest for the management of drug-induced pathological
gambling in Parkinson’s patients ?
A. patients should decide whether to continue with their medication.
B. patients should be observed to see how severe their reaction is.
C. patients should be taken off the medication as soon as possible.

Page 69
ANSWERS :
1. Stomach ulcer
2. Biopsy
3. Helicobacter pylori
4. Hernia
5. Police officer/man
6. Heartburn
7. Energy
8. SOB/breathlessness
9. Appetite
10. Swelling
11. Gastrectomy
12. Antarctica
13. Pregnant
14. Chef
15. Scaly
16. Crossing
17. Lose (some) weight
18. Left leg
19. Cramps
20. Blood clots
21. Foam
22. Compression stockings
23. Headaches.
24. Hotel
25. B 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. C 30. C

31. B 32. C 33. A 34. A 35. B 36. A
37. B 38.A 39. C 40. A 42. A 42. C
#Dr ASHGAN
Page 70

Page 71

#Dr ASHGAN
Listening test
Part A
EXTRACT 1: Questions 1- 12
For questions 1 to 12, complete the notes with a word or short phrase. You now
have 30 seconds to look at notes.
Patient name : Ran Jones

date of birth : 15-09-1955
description of initial symptoms :
*severe (1)_______________________
*worsened past week
* (2)____________sputum
*no (3)_____________
*used some antibiotics, but (4)_____________________
*had smoking habit from last (5)_____________________
vital signs :
*checked (6)_____________first
*reported it is 37 centigrade
*next moved to check (7)________________ and had before reported 150/84
*and lastly, the pulse rate and reported (8)______________
*the chest is (9)_____________________
Page 72
initial treatment :
* recommended (10)___________________ at home
* prescribed two antibiotic drugs
*had no idea of how to use
*medications: and the second drug is (11)___________________ in nature
follw-up or checkup :
*advised to book appointment immediately
*visit in (12)_________________ upon completing medicines.
EXTRACT 2
questions 13-24
patient : Christine May
physical Examination :
*headache ( recently worsened )
*had physical examination (13)_______________ago
*reported this problem 3months ago
*having pain (14)______________________
general symptoms :
*pain started at back of (15)_________________
*and it is (16)_________________________
*no relaxation, always had this headache
*thus, he do not had enough (17)__________________
*exacerbated moves
*pain increases, when lying down
*no easy sleep
*pain starts at back from both sides and meets in (18)__________________
*no headache before
*until he met with an (19)__________________in parking lot
*after (20)__________________the pain atarted
Page 73
*did not go to hospital and took (21)____________________medicines

*6 adsols 4 times like 24 pills a day
*thoigh no relief
*he felt (22)_________________at nights during sleep
general information :
*he works as at (23)________________________
*can do his works
*feeling high pain around (24)__________________
THAT IS THE END OF PART A.

Page 74
ANSWERS OF PART A :
1. Cough
2. greenish
3. No fever
4. No impeovement
5. 35 years
6. Tempreture
7. Blood pressure
8. 88
9. wheezing
10. Inhalers
11. Anti-inflammatory
12. 10 days
13. 2 years
14. Every day
15. Neck
16. Throbbing
17. Sleep
18. Middle
19. Accident
20. 3-4 days
21. Self-prescribed
22. Uncomfortable
23. Car dealership
24. Spinal cord
Page 75
FREE SAMPLE TEST 3

Page 76
Sample Test 3
LISTENING SUB-TEST – QUESTION PAPER

CANDIDATE NUMBER:
LAST NAME:
FIRST NAME:
MIDDLE NAMES: Passport Photo
E
PROFESSION: Candidate details and photo will be printed here.
VENUE:
L
TEST DATE:
P
CANDIDATE DECLARATION
By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way (other than to take the test) or assist any other person to disclose or use any OET
test or sub-test content. If you cheat or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice
M
or information, you may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take
further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and investigated for
malpractice, their personal details and details of the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.
A
CANDIDATE SIGNATURE:
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES S
TIME: APPROXIMATELY 40 MINUTES
DO NOT open this question paper until you are told to do so.
One mark will be granted for each correct answer.
Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.
At the end of the test, you will have two minutes to check your answers.
At the end of the test, hand in this Question Paper.
You must not remove OET material from the test room.
HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS
Part A: Write your answers on this Question Paper by filling in the blanks. Example: Patient: Ray Sands
Part B & Part C: Mark your answers on this Question Paper by filling in the circle using a 2B pencil. Example: A
B
C
SAMPLE
www.occupationalenglishtest.org
© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment – ABN 51 988 559 414
[CANDIDATE NO.] LISTENING QUESTION PAPER 01/12
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N K
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B
SAMPLE

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Occupational English Test

Listening Test
This test has three parts. In each part you’ll hear a number of different extracts. At the start of each extract,
you’ll hear this sound: --beep--
You’ll have time to read the questions before you hear each extract and you’ll hear each extract ONCE ONLY.
Complete your answers as you listen.
At the end of the test you’ll have two minutes to check your answers.
L E
P
Part A
In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, a health professional is talking
to a patient.
M
For questions 1-24, complete the notes with information that you hear.
Now, look at the notes for extract one.
S A
SAMPLE

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Extract 1: Questions 1-12
You hear a rheumatologist talking to a patient called Harry Davies, who suffers from gout and is attending for
a medication review. For questions 1-12, complete the notes with a word or short phrase that you hear.
You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.
Patient Harry Davies
Medical History • suffers from gout
• had his first serious attack while on holiday – pain in his
E
(1) accompanied by swelling
L
• initially thought it was either:
P
- (2)
- possibly related to medication taken for (3)
M
control
• describes the pain as (4)‘ ’
A
• was unable to (5)
S
• says the clinic initially suspected (6) before
diagnosing gout
• reports previously feeling similar pain after (7) –

but less intense, self-resolving
Treatment received • (8) – not effective
• Colchicine – caused (9)
• (10) – caused nausea (may have overdosed)
• (11) – quite effective
• Allopurinol – caused (12)
SAMPLE

Page 80
You hear a doctor in an emergency department talking to a patient called Gail Kennedy. For questions
13-24, complete the notes with a word or short phrase that you hear.
You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.
Patient History Gail Kennedy
Two weeks ago • returned from South America
• at first assumed she had extreme (13)
E
• symptoms intensified over time
L
• suspected (14) and so contacted GP
• GP suspected malaria (despite commencement of
P
(15) two weeks prior to holiday)
M
• GP prescribed Artesunate plus Mefloquine (three-day course)
A
Following days (
• (16) heavily.
S
Yesterday • persistent vomiting and (17)
Observations • no evidence of (18) from examination
• no SOB or wheezing
• patient describes heart as (19)
• reports irritation and dryness in her (20)
• reports no (21)
• loss of appetite
Additional information
• prior to holiday had vaccinations for both typhoid and
(22)
• had (23) during holiday – self medicated
• underwent (24) in 2011
That is the end of Part A. Now look at Part B. SAMPLE

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Part B
In this part of the test, you’ll hear six different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear people talking in a different
healthcare setting.
For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B or C) which ﬁts best according to what you hear. You’ll have time
to read each question before you listen. Complete your answers as you listen.
Now look at question 25. A

B
Fill the circle in completely. Example: C
E
25. You hear a patient talking to a dental receptionist.
L
How does he feel?
P
A worried that he may have damaged a filling
B disappointed that he can’t be seen immediately
M
C nervous about being treated by a different dentist
A
26. You hear part of a presentation to nursing staff about an extension to visiting hours.
S
What is the speaker doing?
A detailing the benefits of the planned change
B reassuring them that their workload won’t increase
C explaining steps they should take to avoid problems
27. You hear a surgeon discussing a patient with a nurse in the recovery ward.
What is the surgeon concerned about?
A incomplete results from lab tests
B possible post-operative side effects
C the patient’s level of consciousness
SAMPLE

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28. You hear a chiropractor briefing a colleague about a patient called Ryan.
What is the overall aim of the treatment plan?
A improving pain relief
B restoring feelings in his arm
C treating the side-effects of an operation
E
29. You hear a surgeon talking to a group of medical students about patient risk in emergency surgery.
L
The surgeon is emphasising the fact that
P
A prompt preparation is the most effective way to minimise patient risk.
B certain types of surgery carry more risk for patients than others.
M
C patients at high risk require extra recovery time after surgery.
A
30. You hear a surgeon talking to a patient who’s just had a knee operation.
S
The man’s comments reveal that he’s
A determined to start doing sport as quickly as possible.
B impressed by how little time he spent in the hospital.
C surprised that he’ll be relatively pain-free so soon.
That is the end of Part B. Now look at Part C.
SAMPLE

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Part C
In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different

fe extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear health professionals
talking about aspects of their work.
For questions 31-42, choose the answer (A, B or C) which ﬁts best according to what you hear. Complete your
answers as you listen.
A
Now look at extract one. B
Fill the circle in completely. Example: C
E
You hear an interview with Dr Helen Sands, about her work with patients who are learning to cope with amputation.
L
P
31. How did the young patient called David react to the amputation of his leg?
M
A He felt he was now excluded from normal life.
B He compared it to the experience of a relative dying.
A
C He resented his inability to take part in physical activities.
S
32. What does Dr Sands suggest about pain in a missing or ‘phantom’ limb?
A Under-reporting by patients makes it hard to know how frequent it is.
B The discomfort can generally be traced to a physical cause.
C The problem affects far fewer patients than in the past.
33. Some patients feel that their missing limb is still attached but
A would cause pain if they used it.
B is fixed in a strange position.
C has increased in size.
SAMPLE

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34. Dr Sands’ current treatment trial includes people who have
A reacted badly to previous treatments.
B failed to respond to any form of medication.
C reported pain levels that impact on their daily lives.
35. In Dr Sands’ current trial, patients are
E
A helped to come to terms with the loss of a limb emotionally.
shown how to manage a computer-operated prosthetic limb.
L
B
C made to move a simulation of the missing limb in their minds.
36.
A its effects are long-lasting.
M P
Dr Sands feels one advantage of the trial group’s treatment is that
A
B it can be used by patients after discharge.
S
C it helps certain patients to become almost pain-free.
Now look at extract two.
SAMPLE

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You hear a dermatologist called Dr Jake Cooper talking about a skin condition called Hidradenitis Suppurativa (HS).
37. When describing the condition known as HS, Dr Cooper suggests that it
A is fairly common so should be more accurately diagnosed.
B would be better understood if it presented more uniformly.
E
C may be incorrectly treated due to misinformation from patients.
P L
38. Dr Cooper explains that one cause of HS may be blocked hair follicles resulting from
A shaving of the affected area.
M
B the overuse of deodorants.
the effects of smoking.
A
C
S
39. When describing the case of a patient called Sophie, Dr Cooper suggests that
A HS has a tendency to get progressively worse.
B diagnosis of HS may require a full patient history.
C a multiple treatment approach is often required for HS.
40. Dr Cooper says that those treating patients with HS should be aware that the condition
A may recur after disappearing for many years.
B may be triggered by an episode of depression.
C may become increasingly difficult to treat over time.
SAMPLE

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41. When discussing a patient called Emily, Dr Cooper suggests that her mother’s attitude
A reflected a lack of sympathy and understanding.
B led to a delay in confirming the correct diagnosis.
C may have contributed to the severity of the symptoms.
42. When discussing the treatment of HS sufferers, Dr Cooper recommends they should
E
A eat healthy foods such as brown bread.
restrict their intake of dairy products.
L
B
C avoid all types of alcoholic drinks.
P
That is the end of Part C.
M
You now have two minutes to check your answers.
A
THAT IS THE END OF THE LISTENING TEST
SAMPLE

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N K
L A
B
SAMPLE

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Sample Test 3
LISTENING SUB-TEST – ANSWER KEY

PARTS A, B & C
L E
P
A M
S
Page 89
PART A: QUESTIONS 1-12
1 left knee
2 (an) insect bite
3 cholesterol
4 excruciating
5 drive
6 septicaemia / septicemia / blood poisoning
7 (playing) rugby
8 anti(-)inflammatories / NSAIDs
9 (awful) diarrhoea / diarrhea
10 liquid morphine / morphine sulphate
11 (an) ice pack
12 skin rash
PART A: QUESTIONS 13-24
13 jet lag
14 meningitis
15 Malarone
16 sweating / diaphoresis
17 bad headache / severe headache / splitting headache
18 jaundice
19 (really) racing
20 eyes
21 stomach pain / abdominal pain / abdominal discomfort
22 hepatitis / hep A
23 cold sores (on [her] [upper] lip) / cold sores (all over [her] [upper] lip) / Herpes labialis
24 lumpectomy
1
Page 90
PART B: QUESTIONS 25-30
25 A worried that he may have damaged a filling
26 B reassuring them that their workload won’t increase
27 B possible post-operative side effects
28 C treating the side-effects of an operation
29 A prompt preparation is the most effective way to minimise patient risk.
30 B impressed by how little time he spent in the hospital.
PART C: QUESTIONS 31-36
31 B He compared it to the experience of a relative dying.
32 A Under-reporting by patients makes it hard to know how frequent it is.
33 B is fixed in a strange position.
34 C reported pain levels that impact on their daily lives.
35 C made to move a simulation of the missing limb in their minds.
36 B it can be used by patients after discharge.
PART C: QUESTIONS 37-42
37 A is fairly common so should be more accurately diagnosed.
38 C the effects of smoking.
39 B diagnosis of HS may require a full patient history.
40 A may recur after disappearing for many years.
41 A reflected a lack of sympathy and understanding.
42 B restrict their intake of dairy products.
---
END OF KEY
2
Page 91
Sample Test 3
LISTENING SUB-TEST – AUDIO SCRIPT
L E
P
A M
S
OCCUPATIONAL ENGLISH TEST. LISTENING TEST.
Page 92
This test has three parts. In each part you’ll hear a number of different extracts. At the
start of each extract, you’ll hear this sound: ---***---.
You’ll have time to read the questions before you hear each extract and you’ll hear
each extract ONCE ONLY. Complete your answers as you listen.
At the end of the test, you’ll have two minutes to check your answers.
Part A. In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, a
health professional is talking to a patient. For questions 1 to 24, complete the notes
with information you hear. Now, look at the notes for extract one.
PAUSE: 5 SECONDS
Extract one. Questions 1 to 12.
You hear a rheumatologist talking to a patient called Harry Davies, who suffers from
gout and is attending for a medication review. For questions 1 to 12, complete the
notes with a word or short phrase. You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.
PAUSE: 30 SECONDS
---***---
F: Now Mr Davies, I understand your GP has referred you to me so that we can review the
medications you’re taking for your gout.
M: That’s right.
F: So tell me a bit about this gout. When did it start?
M: Well, my first serious attack was last year. My wife and I were on holiday, and I woke up
one morning with a really bad pain in my left knee. Well, I never thought of gout, ‘cause I
always assumed that just happens somewhere like your big toe. And anyway, I’m only
40, I thought it was something only old people get. So anyway, it was all red and
swollen, and I decided it must be an insect bite. But I couldn’t think how that might‘ve
happened, you know, without me feeling something at the time. Or my wife suggested it
might be something to do with the pills I take for my cholesterol.
F: Unlikely I think.
Page 93
M: But anyway, the pain didn’t get any better; in fact quite the opposite. I started to get
frightened because I thought it might be a sign of something really serious – it was
excruciating. So my wife thought I needed to get some help. So, she phoned the local
clinic and told them about my symptoms. They told her to bring me in. It was a good
thing she was there – I was in too much pain to drive. I mean, I could only just
manage to walk from the house to the car.
Anyway, when we got there, the doctor took a look and said he wanted to take a blood
sample. He said it might be an emergency, because it looked as if it could be
septicaemia. So then we got really frightened, but about an hour later they came back
and said no it wasn’t, thankfully, but they thought I had gout. So actually, at that stage,
we were quite relieved.
F: I can imagine.
M: And the doctor asked if I’d ever felt anything like it before. Well, actually, then I
remembered that in the winter I play quite a bit of rugby, and sometimes I’d get some
soreness in the same place the day after, but I’d just thought I’d sprained it or
something. And it would go away after a couple of days. But this pain’s much worse,
and it comes even when I’ve been resting – I’ve had it quite a few times since my first
attack.
F: Right. So what have you been taking to deal with the pain?
M: Well at first the doctor at the clinic suggested I took some anti-inflammatories, but I can’t
say they made much difference. So when I got the next attack I was at home and I
went to my GP. She suggested I took… I can’t remember the name, Col something
F: Colchicine?
M: That’s the one. So that dealt with the pain better, but it gave me awful diarrhoea.
F: Yeah.
M: I‘d never take it again. And then I had a really bad attack. I think the doctor had got to
the stage where, you know, she was already giving me really powerful medicines to no
effect - so, she gave me liquid morphine to take. It made me feel quite sick actually, and
I was a little bit ‘away with the fairies’, you know, walking around not quite knowing
where I was?
F: Right. Did you try any other sort of treatment apart from the medications?
M: Yes, my GP said I could try using an ice pack and that did make a bit of difference, but
you can’t have it on all the time. So anyway, after that she said let’s try Allopurinol, see
how you get on with that. So I started taking that, but I didn’t get on with it. It gave me a
Page 94
skin rash, so I rang her up and she told me to stop taking it – that I’d better see
a specialist. So, I here I am. Is there’s anything more you can do?
F: Well, I’m sure we can find…[fade]
PAUSE: 10 SECONDS
Extract two. Questions 13 to 24.
You hear a doctor in an emergency department talking to a patient called Gail

Kennedy. For questions 13 to 24, complete the notes with a word or short phrase. You
now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.
PAUSE: 30 SECONDS
---***---
Mrs Kennedy?
Yes.
I’m Doctor Jarvis. Sorry to keep you waiting. Now, can you tell me what’s brought you
here today?
Well, I got back from holiday two weeks ago, and I’ve been feeling awful ever since.
It was a long haul flight because we’d been to South America, and when I got back I
felt awful. I thought it must be jet lag, but brutal, much worse than I remember having
before. Anyway, I thought I’d get over it, but it actually got worse. After a few days, I
was getting bad chills, non-stop shivering and achy muscles. I just felt lousy. I mean
normally I’m pretty healthy, I don’t get a lot of illnesses, so I started to worry. I thought
maybe I’d got meningitis. So I rang the doctor. When I told him where I’d been, he
said I should come in and see him because it might be malaria. So I said, well it can’t
be because I’ve been taking Malarone – I’d started on that two weeks before going
away. I tried Larium a few years ago, but it gave me really odd dreams, so I didn’t
want to take that again. Anyway the doctor said some sorts of malaria are resistant to
these drugs, and I know I did get a few bites when we were there. He gave me some
pills to take for three days just in case it was malaria.
Page 95
Right. Can you tell me what they were?
Art something …
Artesunate?
That’s right. And something else. Hang on, I’ve got the box here… mefloquine.
OK.
So I went home and I took the pills, but I didn’t feel any better, in fact I got worse. I felt
really weak and I was sweating buckets, just dripping with it. I finished the pills
yesterday morning. Since then, I’ve been really bad. I haven’t been able to keep
anything down. I was throwing up all day yesterday and had the most splitting
headache, I’ve never had anything like it. So I rang the doctor again and he said the
blood test had come back negative, but if I wasn’t feeling better today I should come
in to the emergency department, and get some more tests done.
Right. Well I’ll just do a brief examination… (pause)
OK, so your skin’s a good colour, I can’t see any sign of jaundice, and your
breathing’s sounding pretty good – you haven’t had any episodes of breathlessness,
have you?
No. But yesterday my heart was really racing.
Yes, there’s some evidence of that, now.
And something else, all this week I’ve felt as if there was something scratchy in my
eyes, like sand or something, and they feel really dry.
I see. And have you had any abdominal discomfort?
Well there’s no pain, but I don’t have any appetite – I can’t really keep anything down,
like I said.
Right. Now, apart from taking the anti-malarials, did you have any vaccinations before
you went away?
Page 96
Yes, I had all the injections – typhoid, and what else?… not yellow fever because I’d
already had that before,.. but I did have one for hepatitis A. And they were fine, I
don’t usually have any problems with things like that. Then, while we were away, I did
get cold sores all over my upper lip. I’ve had them before and I’d got some over-the-
counter stuff for them so I just used that. Apart from that, I was fine during the
holiday. I’m normally very healthy. I did have breast cancer a few years ago - that
was in 2011. I had a lumpectomy, so I was taking tamoxifen for five years, but I don’t
have to take it now.
OK. So it’s possible that this might be a reaction to certain drugs, but we’ll need to
……………. [fade]
PAUSE: 10 SECONDS
That is the end of Part A. Now look at Part B.
PAUSE: 5 SECONDS
Part B. In this part of the test, you’ll hear six different extracts. In each extract, you’ll
hear people talking in a different healthcare setting.
For questions 25 to 30, choose the answer A, B or C which fits best according to what
you hear. You’ll have time to read each question before you listen. Complete your
answers as you listen.
Now look at Question 25. You hear a patient talking to a dental receptionist. Now read
the question.
PAUSE: 15 SECONDS
---***---
M Hi, I’d like an urgent appointment, please.
F Let’s see. Who’s your usual dentist?
M Mr García.
F You say it’s urgent – are you in pain?

Page 97
M Yeah – it’s the tooth Mr García filled last week.
F Well, he’s away today I’m afraid, but there’s a free slot this afternoon with his colleague
Mrs Brown.
M That would be OK. But are you saying Mr García could fit me in tomorrow?
F That’s right – we’d get you in first thing. Can you wait?
M Well, I’m not chewing on that side and I’m taking paracetamol, which is helping. The pain
started when I was eating a steak so I’m frightened I might’ve upset Mr Garcia’s work. It
makes sense for him to check it out.
F OK. We’ll book you in for tomorrow morning at….. [fade]
PAUSE: 5 SECONDS
Question 26. You hear part of a presentation to nursing staff about an extension to
visiting hours. Now read the question.
PAUSE: 15 SECONDS
---***---
F Now, you’ll have received the survey asking your opinion about extending visiting hours
and doubtless you’ve got your own ideas about the possible impact on your work. You’re
probably aware of the evidence pointing to the positive effects on patient recovery rates
of increased contact with loved ones. This isn’t in question, but of course things must be
managed properly. I’ve heard concerns about how busy everyone is; that you’ve got
enough on your plates without having to worry about extra demands from visitors. Well,
we’ve carefully planned things to prevent you being overrun with queries, interruptions
and so on. Visitors will be given a list of ‘do’s’ and ‘don’ts’ outlining what’s expected of
them. Meanwhile, managers will be monitoring things carefully to make sure routines
aren’t disrupted at all.
PAUSE: 5 SECONDS
Page 98
Question 27. You hear a surgeon discussing a patient with a nurse in the recovery
ward. Now read the question.
PAUSE: 15 SECONDS
---***---
M: It looks like Mrs Jones is still a bit groggy after her thyroidectomy. Will she
be going up to the ward soon?
F: Yes, I’m going to call a porter. She should be going up in fifteen minutes.
M: OK. I’ve added some extra post-op pathology orders. She may have
problems with a drop in her calcium. Her thyroid was just huge. We didn’t
see all four parathyroid glands and we need to check that they haven’t
been affected by the procedure. She seems OK, but I want her calcium
level checked twice a day. She needs to be monitored for any breathing
problems, muscle cramping and numbness, and for tingling in her fingers.
F: OK, I’ll make sure a report to watch out for hypocalcaemia is passed on.
M: OK. If you need me, call me.
PAUSE: 5 SECONDS
Question 28. You hear a chiropractor briefing a colleague about a patient called Ryan.
Now read the question.
PAUSE: 15 SECONDS
---***---
M Today, we’re going to start with Ryan. He’s two weeks post-surgery for a torn rotator
cuff. He also had a spur on his acromion process removed. This is his first time in rehab,
post- surgery I believe?
F That’s correct.
Page 99
M OK, so today, we’re going to begin utilising high-frequency vibration to break up the scar
tissue forming in his left shoulder joint following the surgery. We're going to do each of
his treatments that way, so you'll see a progression over time – how we get him back
to a point where he's able to live his normal life. Movement’s the key to rehabilitation,
and this treatment resonates with the nerves too, so it should eventually help them
heal quicker and reduce his discomfort.
PAUSE: 5 SECONDS
Question 29. You hear a surgeon talking to a group of medical students about patient
risk in emergency surgery. Now read the question.
PAUSE: 15 SECONDS
---***---
M If you look at the risks of elective surgery, they’re really very low compared to
emergencies. Clearly then, we can make the biggest difference in reducing risk and
improving outcomes in emergency surgery. Our mortality outcomes here are actually
below average. We’re at 8% compared to around 13% nationally. The emergency
patients I handle tend to be older, so they’re at higher risk. And when they come in, we
haven’t got long to prepare them in order to reduce any risks. Maybe an hour or two. In
terms of patient safety, every minute, every half-hour we can use to get them ready
counts. That’s because the patients we’re thinking about are prone to developing post-
operative complications given that they have a range of associated heart, kidney and
lung problems.
PAUSE: 5 SECONDS
Question 30. You hear a surgeon talking to a patient who’s just had a knee operation.
Now read the question.
PAUSE: 15 SECONDS
---***---
F How are you feeling Mr Shaw?

Page 100
M Exhausted. But the pain-killers must be working – I can’t feel my knee, as you predicted.
F You’re bound to feel weary after an operation. It went well, though. We cleaned out
loose cartilage from the joint. You can go home now.
M Oh, thanks. I had an arthroscopy on the other knee several years ago, so I know what
it’s like. The idea that it gets done in less than a day is still pretty mind-boggling, though.
F You’ll need crutches for two weeks, but you should be walking OK within a month. Give
it four months before you put any serious impact on it though.
M Four months? After my last op, I started running again within a month. Thinking about it
though, I guess I paid for it. That knee had a lot of niggles for months afterwards.
F If your body’s hurting, it’s telling you something.
PAUSE: 10 SECONDS
That is the end of Part B. Now, look at Part C.
PAUSE: 5 SECONDS
Part C. In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you’ll
hear health professionals talking about aspects of their work.
For questions 31 to 42, choose the answer A, B or C which fits best according to what
you hear. Complete your answers as you listen.
Now look at extract one.

Extract one. Questions 31 to 36. You hear an interview with Dr Helen Sands, about her
work with patients who are learning to cope with amputation.
You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31 to 36.
PAUSE: 90 SECONDS
---***---
Page 101
M I’m joined today by Dr Helen Sands, who works with patients who’ve had limbs
amputated. Now, amputation is an extremely traumatic experience for patients.
Helen, in your experience, how do younger patients tend to react to it?
F Well, in a range of ways, depending on whether the loss was expected, if it was due
to chronic illness, or to something sudden, like an accident. One of my young
patients in that situation – let’s call him David – said losing his leg suddenly was like
the pain of an unexpected death in the family. And although this didn’t really apply to
him, for many young people, even watching a football game can make them feel shut
out of activities they once took for granted. But then others come to terms with the
fact that for them, normality will be something different from what it was before the
operation.
M And patients can still suffer pain from a missing limb, can’t they, even after the limb’s
been amputated – what’s called phantom limb syndrome. How common is this?
F Well, the phenomenon was first observed many years ago in soldiers who’d lost a
limb in combat. The majority reported pain coming from the missing limb. Obviously
surgical techniques have improved, but a large number of amputees still report
suffering from a degree of pain from the missing limb. In a few instances, this might
be due to a poorly-fitting prosthetic for example, or residual limb pain, but the majority
of cases are harder to explain. And patients are reluctant to talk about it, in case
medical professionals doubt their mental state, so it’s not very easy to say just how
often it occurs. However, I still tend to think it’s large numbers.
M And you must have come across examples of this phantom limb syndrome in your
own patients who have missing limbs.
F Yes, of course. Many patients report feeling as if the missing limb is still attached to
their body, even years after the amputation. Some patients have reported actually
trying to use it just as they did before. And in the case of other patients they feel as
though the missing limb is permanently at an abnormal angle, and they have to make
allowances for it when moving around. I’ve come across a number of instances of
that. And other patients experience what we call telescoping – the sensation that the
limb is still there as normal, but it’s become smaller… shrunk, somehow.
M And I understand that you have a treatment trial going on in the hospital at the
moment.
F Well, yes. I mean, in the normal course of treatment, we administer analgesia, and
we also make use of local injection therapy, using pain-blocking agents.
Page 102
Unfortunately, though, these don’t always work as well as we might like. So we’re
working with a group of patients who have reached the point where the pain’s badly
affecting normal activities such as sleeping and going to work. All patients in the
group have suffered from phantom-limb pain for ten years on average – so they’re
the most extreme cases we could find.
M So how did you set about treating the patients in the trial group?
F Well, when a limb is lost, that affects a number of brain functions, and we wanted to
try to restore those functions. So we attached electrodes to the remaining muscles of
the stump and then asked patients to try to move the phantom limb. And patients
could view their virtual limb moving on a computer. But they couldn’t just imagine
moving the limb – they actually had to force their brain, if you like, to perform the
action, because only then would these circuits, these pathways, be restored in their
brains. So the patient controlled the virtual limb just as they would have with their
own limb. And slowly, they got better at doing this, in a way that was productive to
the brain. And patients invariably reported that as a result, their pain diminished.
M So the treatment was useful. Does it have any other advantages?
F Well, we followed up patients after different periods of time, and the improvements
were still there, but not to the same degree – but the decrease in pain levels was still
statistically significant. But this kind of treatment is very easy for patients to do at
home once they’ve left the hospital. They only need a computer with a webcam, and
the programme.
M And this research is ongoing, of course, so we [fade] ………….
PAUSE: 10 SECONDS
Now look at extract two.
Extract two. Questions 37 to 42. You hear a dermatologist called Dr Jake Cooper
talking about a skin condition called Hidradenitis Suppurativa (HS).
You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37 to 42.
PAUSE: 90 SECONDS
---***---
Page 103
Hello, my name's Jake Cooper. I'm a dermatologist and I'm going to talk about a skin
condition called Hidradenitis Suppurativa, commonly abbreviated to HS.
Let me tell you a bit about this condition. HS is a chronic inflammatory disorder
characterised by painful swollen lumps on the skin, which may break open, releasing fluid or
pus. It's also called acne inversa, and in fact sufferers often think they’ve got acne or
pimples. But unlike acne, HS affects apocrine gland-bearing sites, in particular the armpits
and the pubic regions. It’s not a very well-known disease in the medical community, which is
surprising as it affects about one per cent of the population, and early occurrences are
commonly misdiagnosed as simple nodules or abscesses. This is unfortunate as the
condition can be very distressing for the patient.
We don’t know exactly what causes HS, though it seems to be linked to blocking of the hair
follicles in the affected area. It tends to occur most often in younger females, and it’s often
found in patients who are overweight. Studies carried out into a possible link between
deodorant use and HS have so far been inconclusive, but the condition is more prevalent
amongst smokers and there’s some evidence that nicotine may affect the follicles. Patients
sometimes worry that they’ve caused the condition by shaving or possibly by using
depilatory creams, but there’s no evidence that either is a contributing factor.
Let me tell you about one case I encountered recently. This was a 22-year-old woman
called Sophie who came to see me because she had a number of painful boils in her groin.
These had been occurring, with fluctuating severity, for the previous three years. When I
questioned her further, I learnt that she’d previously undergone incision and drainage of
various lesions on multiple occasions, at various medical centres. She also told me she’d
taken a course of an unknown oral antibiotic to treat an abscess about two months earlier.
So I was able to put two and two together and make a connection with HS. Then we could
start to think about the right sort of long-term treatment for her.
When treating patients with HS, it’s important to be aware of the impact it can have on them.
Many studies have confirmed that patients with HS commonly experience depression as a
result of their condition. Additionally, HS has a significant psycho-social impact. Patients
reported feeling 'unworthy' and 'unlovable' and described their lesions as 'ugly, smelly, and
embarrassing'. In some cases, symptoms may spontaneously resolve themselves for long
periods of time. But both doctor and patient need to remember that there could be a flare up
years or even decades later - and that currently, treatment is limited to finding a way to
manage the condition.
HS may present itself in younger patients too. In another case, I saw a 14-year-old girl
called Emily, who came to see me with her mother following a diagnosis of HS by her GP.
Page 104
We needed to confirm the diagnosis and decide on the most appropriate treatment. Her
mother expressed concerns about what she referred to as ‘Emily's unappealing hygiene'.
This was said in front of the girl. Now, we know that HS is notably not due to poor hygiene.
While HS is a skin disease, it’s happening lower in the dermis than just the surface level. In
this case, Emily had a lesion on the mons pubis, which required surgical intervention.
Following incision and drainage, her condition improved, but this does illustrate the need to
consider not just the patient, but also the attitude of family members.
In general, when it comes to treatment, once we make a diagnosis, there are multiple
therapies indicated, depending on the severity of the disease and patient presentation. One
thing patients often ask me is whether they need to make changes to their diet. One small-
scale study followed twelve HS sufferers who cut out beer from their diet, together with
other foods containing yeast, such as bread and some types of cake. And this did appear
to have an effect on their symptoms. It’s also known that over-production of one group of
hormones called androgens may contribute to the symptoms of HS. These hormones are
linked to insulin, and foods such as milk and cheese can raise insulin levels, so reducing
these types of foods might be helpful. However, a controlled diet which leads to weight
loss, is certainly recommended for patients who are overweight or obese.
PAUSE: 10 SECONDS
That is the end of Part C.
You now have two minutes to check your answers.
PAUSE: 120 SECONDS
That is the end of the Listening test.

THE END

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‫‪Page 1‬‬

‫‪OET 2.0 LISTENING TESTS‬‬

‫‪OET with Dr ASHGAN‬‬

‫بسم اهلل الرمحن الرحيم‬

TEST QUESTION PAGE ANSWER PAGE

OET 2.0 LISTENING TEST / TEST 1

OET 2.0 LISTENING TEST / TEST 1

patient: Victor Rosario.

past medical history:

* tempreture 97.8, weight______________(19) , height5’7

THAT IS THE END OF PART A. NOW LOOK AT PART B.

25- You hear a doctor briefing his colleague about a patient.

26- You hear part of a surgical teams’ briefing.

28. You hear a pharmacist talking to a doctor regarding a patient’s

29.You hear an optometrist talking to a patient.

THIS IS THE END OF PART B. NOW LOOK AT PART C

31. Which of the following statements is correct?

32.Which of the following white blood cells fight viral infections?

33.While naming disorders white blood cell is suffixed with philia, if

34.What is the popular cause of leukophilia ?

35. Which one of the following is not caused by genetic mutation ?

36. White blood cells are unable to function in:

NOW LOOK AT EXTRACT TWO

37.What is the aim of these new guidelines ?

38.How do we know when someone is suffering from concussion ?

40. Who has more chance to get a concussion?

41. According to Dr March, having specialist concussion doctors on hand for

THIS IS THE END OF PART C.

YOU NOW HAVE 2 MINUTES TO CHECK YOUR ANSWERS

25. A 26. C 27. B 28. A 29. A 30. C

OET 2.0 LISTENING TEST / TEST 2

OET 2.0 LISTENING TEST / TEST 2

patient: Pamela Erikson. ( 21 years old )

patient: Roy Miller.

worse at night as it keeps awake at night

effects of condition on everyday life :

THAT IS THE END OF PART A. NOW LOOK AT PART B.

Now look at question 25.

28.You hear a discussion between a doctor and a nurse about pancreatic

29.You hear a monologue by a pgysician explaining about gall stones.

THIS IS THE END OF PART B. NOW LOOK AT PART C

31. The symptoms showed by Tucker proir to admission was

32. The information revealed by Tucker’s diagnostic tests was

33. The first signs of wobblers syndrome is seen

34. The efficient cure for wobblers syndrome in dogs is

35. The spine surgery in dogs helps to

36. Tucker’s case study is not a perfect example for

NOW LOOK AT EXTRACT TWO

37. What is the benefit of integrating genetics into medical care ?

38. Which one is a systemic disease that is not mentioned by dr Peterson ?

39. According to dr Peterson, what does result in disease ?

41. According to dr Peterson, which healthcare professionals are doing genetic

THIS IS THE END OF PART C.

YOU NOW HAVE 2 MINUTES TO CHECK YOUR ANSWERS

25. B 26. B 27. A 28. A 29. C 30. B

OET 2.0 LISTENING TEST / TEST 3

OET 2.0 LISTENING TEST / TEST 3

patient: Linda Maxwell.

patient: Xavier Murphy.