Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi: VTU-ETR Seat No.: A

VTU-ETR Seat No.
Question Paper Version : A
Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) August – 2023
Physics
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
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13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
PART – I
PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]
1. What is the significance of research?

a) Gathering information b) Solving problems
c) Formulating theories d) Analyzing data
2. Which of the following best defines research?

a) Systematic investigation b) A random experiment
c) A personal opinion d) An intuitive guess
3. Which of the following is NOT an objective of research?

a) Exploring new phenomena b) Developing new theories
c) Testing pre conceived notions d) Proving personal beliefs.
4. What is the difference between research methods and research methodology?

a) Methods are practical techniques, while methodology is the theoretical framework.
b) Methods focus on data analysis, while methodology focuses on data collection.
c) Methods are used in natural sciences, while methodology is used in social sciences.
d) Methods are objective, while methodology is subjective.
5. What are the criteria of good research?

a) Replicability, Objectivity and Reliability
b) Creativity, Subjectivity and Originality
c) Simplicity, brevity, and clarity
d) Validity, Complexity and comprehensiveness
6. What is the purpose of reviewing the literature in research?

a) To validate the researcher’s hypothesis b) To identify gaps in existing knowledge
c) To find short cuts for conducting research d) To plagiarize ideas from previous studies.
7. What is the role of a theoretical framework in research?

a) It provides a structure for organizing the literature review.
b) It establishes the research objectives and hypotheses.
c) It guides the data collection and analysis process.
d) It helps in selecting the appropriate research design.
8. What is the meaning of research design?

a) The overall plan for conducting a research study.
b) The specific research method used in data collection.
c) The Statistical analysis technique used in research.
d) The process of formulating research questions.
Ver-A : PY 1 of 11
9. Which of the following is an important principle of experimental designs?
a) Random sampling of participants b) Use of control groups
c) Longitudinal data collection d) Qualitative data.
10. What is the need for research design?

a) It helps in determining the sample size
b) It ensures the accuracy of data analysis.
c) It provides a structure for conducting research
d) It minimizes the ethical concerns in research.
11. What is the difference between a sample survey and a census survey?
a) Sample survey includes the entire population, while census survey includes a subset.
b) Sample survey is conducted using questionnaires while census surveys use interviews.
c) Sample survey is less accurate than census survey.
d) Sample survey is more expensive than census survey.
12. What are the types of sampling designs?

a) Probability sampling and non probability sampling.
b) Cluster sampling and convenience sampling.
c) Snowball sampling and purposive sampling.
d) Quota sampling and stratified sampling.
13. Which of the following is NOT a classification of measurement scales?

a) Normal Scale b) Ordinal scale c) Interval scale d) Hierarchical scale
14. What are the sources of error in measurement?

a) Systematic error and random error b) Measurement bias and sampling error
c) Observer bias and response bias d) Internal validity and external validity.
15. What is the purpose of scaling in research?

a) To measure the central tendency of data
b) To determine the reliability of measurements
c) To assign numbers to represent characteristics
d) To calculate statistical significance.
16. What is the process of data preparation in research?

a) Collecting data from primary sources. b) Analyzing data using statistical software.
c) Cleaning and organizing data for analysis. d) Conducting data visualization techniques.
17. Which of the following is NOT a problem in the data preparation process?
a) Handling missing values b) Dealing with outliers
c) Ensuring data privacy d) Checking data accuracy.
Ver-A : PY 2 of 11
18. What are the measures of central tendency?
a) Mean, Median and mode
b) Variance, standard deviation and range
c) Skewness, Kurtosis and correlation
d) Probability, confidence interval and hypothesis testing.
19. What do measures of dispersion indicate in research?

a) The shape of the data distribution b) The spread or variability of the data
c) The central value of the data set d) The relationship between variables.
20. What is the purpose of descriptive statistics?

a) To summarize and describe data b) To test hypotheses and make inferences
c) To establish causal relationships d) To predict future outcomes.
21. What is the difference between a parameter and a statistic?

a) Parameters describe populations, while statistics describe samples.
b) Parameters are qualitative, while statistics are quantitative.
c) Parameters are based on theory, while statistics are based on observation.
d) Parameters are mode reliable than statistics.
22. What is the central limit theorem?

a) It states that the sample mean approaches the population mean as the sample size increases.
b) It explains the relationship between the mean and standard deviation of a sample.
c) It ensures that the sampling distribution is normally distributed.
d) It allows for the estimation of population parameters based on sample statistics.
23. What is the standard error?

a) The standard deviation of the population.
b) The standard deviation of the sample.
c) The measure of sampling error.
d) The measure of non-sampling error.
24. What is the purpose of finite population correction?

a) To adjust for sampling bias.
b) To account for non-response error.
c) To correct for measurement error.
d) To adjust the standard error for small populations.
25. What does statistical inference involve?

a) Making predictions about the future based on past data.
b) Estimating population parameters from sample statistics.
c) Analyzing the relationship between variables.
d) Describing and summarizing data.
26. If terms such as, ‘positive’, ‘negative’, ‘more than’, ‘less than’ etc are used to make a statement,
then such a hypothesis is called…..
a) Relational hypotheses b) Causal hypothesis
c) Research hypothesis d) Directional hypothesis.
Ver-A : PY 3 of 11
27. The tests of significance or test statistic are classified into…..
a) Parametric test
b) Non parametric test
c) Both parametric and nonparametric tests
d) None of these.
28. A two-tailed test rejects the null hypothesis if the sample mean is significantly____ than the
hypothesized value of the mean of the population.
a) Higher b) Lower c) Higher or lower d) None of these
29. _________ is a way to test for comparing two related samples, involving small values of ‘n’ that
does not require the variances of the two populations to be equal.
a) Z-test b) Paired t – test c) f-test d) None of these
30. As a test of independence, X2 test enables us to explain _______

a) Whether or not two attributes are associated b) The fit is considered to be a good one
c) Whether test is significant d) None of these
31. The ANOVA technique is important in the context of all those situations where all want to
compare ______
a) Two population b) More than two populations
c) Less than two populations d) Single population.
32. Analysis of variance in which only ______ is used to analyze the difference between more than
two population means is called one way anova.
a) Two criterion (variable)
b) One criterion (variable)
c) Both two criterion (variable) and one criterion (variable)
d) None of these.
33. The basic principle of ANOVA is to test for differences among the ______ by examining the
______ within each of these samples, relative to the amount of variation between the samples.
a) Means of the populations and amount of variation
b) Estimation of the population and amount of variation
c) Means of the samples and amount of variation
d) Samples and amount of variation.
34. While applying the ANOVA techniques, the influence the uncontrolled variable is usually
removed by _______
a) Multiple regression method b) Simple linear regression method
c) One way ANOVA d) All of these
35. What are the other assumptions in ANOVA ______

a) Various treatment groups are selected at random from the population.
b) The groups are homogeneous in variability.
c) The regression is linear and is from group to group.
d) All of these.
Ver-A : PY 4 of 11
36. Regression analysis helps to determine ______ to measure the variability or spread of values of
a dependent variable with respect to the regression line.
a) Independent value b) Dependent value
c) Linear regression d) Standard error of estimate.
37. Regression models are used for several purposes, including the following_______
a) Data description
b) Parameter Estimation
c) Linear regression and standard error of estimate
d) All of these.
38. Factor analysis is by for the most often used _______ of research studies, specially pertaining to
social and behavioural sciences.
a) Multi functional technique b) Multi lateral technique
c) Multi linear d) Multivariate technique.
39. _______ , in the context of factor analysis, is something like staining a microscope slide.
a) Flipping b) Factoring
c) Rotation d) Synchronizing.
40. In _______, the correlations are computed between pairs of respondents instead of pairs of
variables.
a) Q-type factor analysis b) P-type factor analysis
c) R-type factor analysis d) S-type factor analysis.
41. If the outcome of an experiment is certain, that is the outcome is always the same, it is then a
______
a) Probabilistic Experiment b) Quasi Experiment
c) Deterministic Experiment d) Random Experiment.
42. The probability of the occurrence of a single event, such as P(A) or P(B), which takes a specific
value irrespective of the values of other events, i.e. unconditioned on any other events, is called
______
a) Joint Probability b) A marginal probability
c) Conditional Probability d) Unconditional Probability.
43. When the sample space S is countable, it is known as a ______

a) Discrete sample space b) Continuous sample space
c) Asynchronous sample space d) Synchronous sample space.
44. If two or more events cannot occur simultaneously in a single trail of an experiment, then such
events are called _______
a) Mutually exclusive events or disjoint events b) Collectively exhaustive events
c) Both A and B d) Joint events.
45. The _______ is that value that occurs most often or has the greatest probability of occurring.
a) Mean of a random variable b) Mode of a random variable
c) Median of a random variable d) None of these
Ver-A : PY 5 of 11
46. Two events are mutually exclusive if the occurrence of one of them prevents or rules out the
occurrence of the other is called _______
a) Collectively exhaustive events b) Mutually exclusive events
c) Both A and B d) None of these.
47. Binomial probability distribution is a widely used probability distribution where ______
a) There are only two possible outcomes b) There exists discrete random variable
c) it’s a Bernoulli process d) All of these
48. Mean  and standard deviation  are called parameters of ________

a) Normal distribution b) Binomial
c) Bernoulli Process d) Poisson
49. The Poisson process measures the number of occurrences of a particular outcome of a discrete
random variable in a predetermined _______
a) Time interval b) Space
c) Volume d) All of these
50 In the _______ process, the random variable values need counting. Such a count might be
number of telephone calls per hour coming into the switchboard, number of fatal traffic
accidents per week in a city/state etc. and so on.
a) Binomial distribution b) Normal distribution
c) Bayesian d) Poisson
Ver-A : PY 6 of 11
PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Physics)
[50 MARKS]
51. The value of acceleration due to gravity at a height of 10 km from the surface of earth is ‘x’, at
what depth inside the earth is the value of acceleration due to gravity has the same value of ‘x’.
a) 10 km b) 15 km c) 20 km d) 5 km
52. Bulk modulus related with Young’s modulus and Rigidity modulus by the relation.
9K
a) Y  b) Y = 2(1 + K)
  3k
2
c) Y = 3K(1 + 2) d) K 
3Y
53. A Good Elastic material have

a) Low elongation stress required to make elongation
b) More elongation stress required to cause less elongation
c) Low yield point
d) Low value of Young’s modulus
54. A satellite is orbiting close to the earth and has kinetic energy ‘K’ the minimum energy
required to just overcome the gravitational pull of earth.
a) 2K b) 2 2 c) K d) 3 K
55. Oil spreads over the surface of water where as water does not spreads over the surface of
water, due to
a) surface tension of water is very high b) surface tension of water is very low
c) Viscosity of oil is high d) Viscosity of water is high
56. The speed V of the molecules of mass m of an ideal gas obeys Maxwell’s velocity distribution
law at an equilibrium temperature T. Let (Vx , Vy , Vz) deviate the components of the velocity
and kB the Boltzman constant. The average value of (Vx – Vy)2 , where  and  are
constants is ________
a) (2 – 2)/kBTm b) (2 + 2)kBT/m c) ( + )2 kBT/m d) ( – )2kBT/m
57. Let W be the work done in a quasistatic reversible thermodynamic process. Which of the
following statement about W is correct?
a) W is a perfect differential if the process is isothermal.
b) W is a perfect differential if the process is adiabatic.
c) W is always a perfect differential.
d) W cannot be a perfect differential.
58. Consider the melting transition of ice into water at constant pressure. Which of the following
thermodynamic quantities does not exhibit a discontinuous change across the phase transition?
a) Internal energy b) Helmholtz free energy c) Gibbs free energy d) Entropy
Ver-A : PY 7 of 11
59. The entropy of a system (s), is related to the accessible phase space volume  by
S = kB ln (E, N, V) where E, N, V are the energy, number of particles and volume
respectively. From this one can conclude that 
a) does not change during evolution to equilibrium
b) oscillates during evolution to equilibrium
c) is a maximum at equilibrium
d) is a minimum at equilibrium
60. Ten grams of ice at 0C is added to a beaker containing 30 grams of water at 25C. What is the
final temperature of the system when it comes to thermal equilibrium? (The specific heat of
water is 1 cal/gm/C and latent heat of welting of ice is 80 cal/gm).
a) 0C b) 7.5C c) 12.5C d) –1.25C
61. A wire of 1.2m long has mass of 0.012 kg attached to it. If the wire is under tension of 1600N,
then the speed of transverse wave is
a) 200 m/s b) 800 m/s c) 600 m/s d) 400 m/s
62. In Doppler effect, the change in frequency depends on the following :

a) Distance between source and listener b) Speeds of source and listener
c) Density of air d) Temperature of the medium
63. A free particle is oscillating in a straight line. The maximum velocity attains during any
oscillation is 60 m/s. The angular frequency of oscillation is : (Given amplitude of
oscillation = 1 m)
a) 60 rad/s b) 40 rad/s c) 30 rad/s d) 120 rad/s
64. When a sound wave enters from one medium to another, which of the following quantity does
not change?
a) Wavelength b) Speed c) Frequency d) None of these
65. If x(w) represents the Fourier transform of an imaginary signal x(t), then which of the
following statement is true:
a) x(w) will be conjugate symmetric in nature
b) x(w) will be conjugate anti-symmetric in nature
c) Real part of x(w) will be even function of w
d) Imaginary part of x(w) will be odd function of w
66. A wave front is defined as a surface of _______ phase.

a) constant b) increasing c) decreasing d) time variable
67. If red light is replaced by blue light illuminating the object in a microscope, the revolving
power of the microscope will ________.
a) decrease b) increase c) get halved d) remain unchanged
68. The principle of Laser action involves

a) stimulated emission
b) population inversion
c) Amplification of particular frequency emitted by the system
d) All of the above
Ver-A : PY 8 of 11
69. In optical fibers, the Rayleigh scattering is proportional to
1 1 1 1
a) b) 2 c) 3 d)
   4
70. The holograms found on credit-cards are an example of ________

a) Volume Holograms b) Reflection Holograms
c) Rainbow Holograms d) Hybrid Holograms
71. The vector potential at the position defined by a vector r in a uniform magnetic field may be
written as
a) B r
1

b) B  r
2
 c) B r  
d)  B r
72. An alternating emf is given by V = 400 sin(100nt) Volts. The rms value of the emf is
a) 400 V b) 200 2 V c) 200 V d) 100 2 V
73. Which of the following alloy is widely used in thermocoupled?

a) Brass b) Bronze c) Duralium d) Nichrome
74. Coefficient of coupling between two tightly coupled coils wound on a magnetic core is
a) zero b) 0.5 c) 1 d) 0.6
75. Which of the following is not the Maxwell’s equation?

a) div D =  b) div B   0 J
B D
c) curl E  d) curl H  J 
t t
76. The common wave number difference in the two successive rotational lines is
h h h h
a) 2
b) 2
c) 2
d) 2
8 I C 4 I C 2 I C  IC
77. The value of the Lande g-factor for a fine structure level defined by the quantum number
L = 1, J = 2 and S = 1 is
a) 5/2 b) 3/2 c) 5/3 d) 11/3
78. Atomic packing factor of a simple cubic structure is

a) 0.42 b) 0.52 c) 0.62 d) 0.72
79. Raman shift depends upon

a) Incident intensity b) Resolving power of spectrograph used
c) Molecular energy level of scatterer d) Incident wavelength
80. Penetrating power of X-rays can be increased by

a) Increasing the potential difference between anode and cathode
b) Decreasing the potential difference between anode and cathode
c) Increasing cathode filament current
d) Decreasing cathode filament current
Ver-A : PY 9 of 11
81. What is the mass number A of a nucleus whose radius r = 2.71 fermi?
(Given that r0 = 1.310–15 m)
a) A = 6 b) A = 7 c) A = 8 d) A = 9
82. The nucleus radius of the order of

a) 10–10 m b) 10–14 m c) 10–12 m d) 10–8 m
83. Commonly use moderator in nuclear reactors is/are

a) heavy water b) ordinary water c) graphite d) All of these
84. If 3.6g of Uranium be completely converted into energy, how many kilowatts of energy will be
obtained from it?
a) 9107 Kilowatt – hours b) 9106 Kilowatt – hours
c) 9105 Kilowatt – hours d) 9104 Kilowatt – hours
85. Radius ‘R’ of a nucleus changes with the nucleon number ‘A’ of the nucleus as :
a) r  r0 A 2 / 3 b) r  r0 A1/ 3 c) r  r0 A 3 / 2 d) r  r0 A 1 / 3
86. As an object approaches the speed of light it’s mass becomes

a) zero b) Double c) Remains same d) Infinite
87. The energy which an electron possesses at 0 K is

a) Valance Energy b) Fermi Energy c) Conduction Energy d) Kinetic Energy
88. What happens when moisture gets into the insulating material?
a) It increases dielectric constant b) It increases the insulation resistance
c) It increases the dielectric strength d) It increases the dielectric loss
89. Soft magnetic materials line iron and its alloy are used in the manufacture of
a) Permanent Magnets
b) Magnets for toys
c) Magnets used in measuring meters of current and voltage
d) Cores of transformers employed in power generation.
90. In a pure semiconductor the charge carriers are

a) Holes only b) Electrons only
c) Both Holes and Electrons d) All of these
91. Which is the correct form of D’Alembert’s principle

 
a)  Fi  Pi ri  0 b)  Fi  q i  q  0
i i
c)  P  q r  0
i i d)  F  P r  0
i i i
i i
92. If the constraints relation do not depends on velocity such constraints is

a) Non hololomic b) Rheonomic c) Hololomic d) Scleronomic
Ver-A : PY 10 of 11
93. Schrodinger’s wave equations are
a) Governing the behaviour of em waves
b) Governing the probability behaviour of waves
c) Governing the behaviour of Complex Quantity ‘’
d) Governing the behaviour of matter waves
94. Uncertainty relations applied to

a) any dynomical variables
b) a pair of dynomical variables, the operators corresponding to which commute
c) pair of dynomical variables, the operators corresponding to which do not commute
d) ‘x’ and ‘P x’ only
95. Matter waves are

a) Longitudinal b) EM waves
c) Poilet waves d) Both Longitudinal and transvers
96. The voltage gain of a transistor connected in common-collector mode is :

a) Always equal to 1 b) Less than 1 c) More than 1 d) None of these
97. An intrinsic semiconductor at 300 K has equal hole and electron concentrations each of
410 16/m3. On doping, the electron concentration increased to 81026/m3. The new hole
concentration in doped semiconductor is :
a) 0.51026/m3 b) 41016/m3 c) 2106/m3 d) 8106/m3
98. The output of the given logic gate is :
a) XOR b) AND c) OR d) NAND
99. The amplifier has a gain of 40. When the feedback is applied, the gain falls to 20. Then the
value of feedback ratio is :
a) 0.02 b) 0.025 c) 1 d) 0.5
100. The decimal equivalent value for binary number (1101110)2 is :

a) (111)10 b) (110)10 c) (220)10 d) (222)10
*****
Ver-A : PY 11 of 11
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : B

Physics

bubble only.
is prohibited.
evaluation process.
PART – I
[50 Marks]
______
______



Ver-B : PY 1 of 11
compare ______
d) None of these.
removed by _______

d) All of these.
a) Data description
d) All of these.
Ver-B : PY 2 of 11
variables.





Ver-B : PY 3 of 11








Ver-B : PY 4 of 11







Ver-B : PY 5 of 11

a) Parametric test
d) None of these.

Ver-B : PY 6 of 11
PART – II
(Physics)
[50 MARKS]

 
a)  Fi  Pi ri  0 b)  Fi  q i  q  0
i i
c)  P  q r  0
i i d)  F  P r  0
i i i
i i



d) ‘x’ and ‘Px’ only


a) 0.51026/m3 b) 41016/m3 c) 2106/m3 d) 8106/m3
a) 0.02 b) 0.025 c) 1 d) 0.5
Ver-B : PY 7 of 11
a) (111)10 b) (110)10 c) (220)10 d) (222)10
(Given that r0 = 1.310–15 m)
a) A = 6 b) A = 7 c) A = 8 d) A = 9

a) 10–10 m b) 10–14 m c) 10–12 m d) 10–8 m

obtained from it?


b) Magnets for toys

a) 200 m/s b) 800 m/s c) 600 m/s d) 400 m/s

Ver-B : PY 8 of 11
oscillation = 1 m)
not change?


d) All of the above

1 1 1 1
a) b) 2 c) 3 d)
   4

a) 10 km b) 15 km c) 20 km d) 5 km
9K
a) Y  b) Y = 2(1 + K)
  3k
2
c) Y = 3K(1 + 2) d) K 
3Y
Ver-B : PY 9 of 11
c) Low yield point
a) 2K b) 2 2 c) K d) 3 K
water, due to
a) 0C b) 7.5C c) 12.5C d) –1.25C
written as
a) B r
1
2
 
b) B  r c) B r  
d)  B r
Ver-B : PY 10 of 11
a) 400 V b) 200 2 V c) 200 V d) 100 2 V

a) zero b) 0.5 c) 1 d) 0.6

a) div D =  b) div B   0 J
B D
t t
h h h h
a) 2
b) 2
c) 2
d) 2
8 I C 4 I C 2 I C  IC
L = 1, J = 2 and S = 1 is
a) 5/2 b) 3/2 c) 5/3 d) 11/3

a) 0.42 b) 0.52 c) 0.62 d) 0.72


*****
Ver-B : PY 11 of 11
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : C

Physics

bubble only.
is prohibited.
evaluation process.
PART – I
PART – I
[50 Marks]






a) Parametric test
d) None of these.
Ver-C : PY 1 of 11

______
______

Ver-C : PY 2 of 11
compare ______
d) None of these.
removed by _______

d) All of these.
Ver-C : PY 3 of 11
a) Data description
d) All of these.
variables.



Ver-C : PY 4 of 11







Ver-C : PY 5 of 11





Ver-C : PY 6 of 11
PART – II
(Physics)
[50 MARKS]
written as
a) B r
1
2
 
b) B  r c) B r  
d)  B r
a) 400 V b) 200 2 V c) 200 V d) 100 2 V

a) zero b) 0.5 c) 1 d) 0.6

a) div D =  b) div B   0 J
B D
t t
h h h h
a) 2
b) 2
c) 2
d) 2
8 I C 4 I C 2 I C  IC
L = 1, J = 2 and S = 1 is
a) 5/2 b) 3/2 c) 5/3 d) 11/3

a) 0.42 b) 0.52 c) 0.62 d) 0.72


Ver-C : PY 7 of 11
 
a)  Fi  Pi ri  0 b)  Fi  q i  q  0
i i
c)  P  q r  0
i i d)  F  P r  0
i i i
i i



d) ‘x’ and ‘P x’ only


a) 0.51026/m3 b) 41016/m3 c) 2106/m3 d) 8106/m3
a) 0.02 b) 0.025 c) 1 d) 0.5

a) (111)10 b) (110)10 c) (220)10 d) (222)10
(Given that r0 = 1.310–15 m)
a) A = 6 b) A = 7 c) A = 8 d) A = 9
Ver-C : PY 8 of 11
a) 10–10 m b) 10–14 m c) 10–12 m d) 10–8 m

obtained from it?
5


b) Magnets for toys

a) 200 m/s b) 800 m/s c) 600 m/s d) 400 m/s

oscillation = 1 m)
Ver-C : PY 9 of 11
not change?


d) All of the above

1 1 1 1
a) b) 2 c) 3 d)
   4

a) 10 km b) 15 km c) 20 km d) 5 km
9K
a) Y  b) Y = 2(1 + K)
  3k
2
c) Y = 3K(1 + 2) d) K 
3Y

c) Low yield point
Ver-C : PY 10 of 11
a) 2K b) 2 2 c) K d) 3 K
water, due to
a) 0C b) 7.5C c) 12.5C d) –1.25C
*****
Ver-C : PY 11 of 11
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : D

Physics

bubble only.
is prohibited.
evaluation process.
PART – I
PART – I
[50 Marks]
compare ______
d) None of these.
removed by _______

d) All of these.
a) Data description
d) All of these.
Ver-D : PY 1 of 11
variables.






Ver-D : PY 2 of 11


______
______

Ver-D : PY 3 of 11





Ver-D : PY 4 of 11

a) Parametric test
d) None of these.





Ver-D : PY 5 of 11



Ver-D : PY 6 of 11
PART – II
(Physics)
[50 MARKS]
(Given that r0 = 1.310–15 m)
a) A = 6 b) A = 7 c) A = 8 d) A = 9

a) 10–10 m b) 10–14 m c) 10–12 m d) 10–8 m

obtained from it?


b) Magnets for toys

a) 10 km b) 15 km c) 20 km d) 5 km
Ver-D : PY 7 of 11
9K
a) Y  b) Y = 2(1 + K)
  3k
2
c) Y = 3K(1 + 2) d) K 
3Y

c) Low yield point
a) 2K b) 2 2 c) K d) 3 K
water, due to
Ver-D : PY 8 of 11
a) 0C b) 7.5C c) 12.5C d) –1.25C

 
a)  Fi  Pi ri  0 b)  Fi  q i  q  0
i i
c)  P  q r  0
i i d)  F  P r  0
i i i
i i



d) ‘x’ and ‘Px’ only


a) 0.51026/m3 b) 41016/m3 c) 2106/m3 d) 8106/m3
a) 0.02 b) 0.025 c) 1 d) 0.5

a) (111)10 b) (110)10 c) (220)10 d) (222)10
Ver-D : PY 9 of 11
written as
a) B r
1
2
 
b) B  r c) B r  
d)  B r
a) 400 V b) 200 2 V c) 200 V d) 100 2 V

a) zero b) 0.5 c) 1 d) 0.6

a) div D =  b) div B   0 J
B D
t t
h h h h
a) 2
b) 2
c) 2
d) 2
8 I C 4 I C 2 I C  IC
L = 1, J = 2 and S = 1 is
a) 5/2 b) 3/2 c) 5/3 d) 11/3

a) 0.42 b) 0.52 c) 0.62 d) 0.72


a) 200 m/s b) 800 m/s c) 600 m/s d) 400 m/s

Ver-D : PY 10 of 11
oscillation = 1 m)
not change?


d) All of the above

1 1 1 1
a) b) 2 c) 3 d)
   4

*****
Ver-D : PY 11 of 11

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VTU-ETR Seat No.

Question Paper Version : A

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. What is the significance of research?

2. Which of the following best defines research?

3. Which of the following is NOT an objective of research?

4. What is the difference between research methods and research methodology?

5. What are the criteria of good research?

6. What is the purpose of reviewing the literature in research?

7. What is the role of a theoretical framework in research?

8. What is the meaning of research design?

10. What is the need for research design?

12. What are the types of sampling designs?

13. Which of the following is NOT a classification of measurement scales?

14. What are the sources of error in measurement?

15. What is the purpose of scaling in research?

16. What is the process of data preparation in research?

19. What do measures of dispersion indicate in research?

20. What is the purpose of descriptive statistics?

21. What is the difference between a parameter and a statistic?

22. What is the central limit theorem?

23. What is the standard error?

24. What is the purpose of finite population correction?

25. What does statistical inference involve?

30. As a test of independence, X2 test enables us to explain _______

35. What are the other assumptions in ANOVA ______

43. When the sample space S is countable, it is known as a ______

48. Mean  and standard deviation  are called parameters of ________

53. A Good Elastic material have

62. In Doppler effect, the change in frequency depends on the following :

66. A wave front is defined as a surface of _______ phase.

68. The principle of Laser action involves

70. The holograms found on credit-cards are an example of ________

73. Which of the following alloy is widely used in thermocoupled?

75. Which of the following is not the Maxwell’s equation?

78. Atomic packing factor of a simple cubic structure is

79. Raman shift depends upon

80. Penetrating power of X-rays can be increased by

82. The nucleus radius of the order of

83. Commonly use moderator in nuclear reactors is/are

86. As an object approaches the speed of light it’s mass becomes

87. The energy which an electron possesses at 0 K is

90. In a pure semiconductor the charge carriers are

91. Which is the correct form of D’Alembert’s principle

92. If the constraints relation do not depends on velocity such constraints is

94. Uncertainty relations applied to

95. Matter waves are

96. The voltage gain of a transistor connected in common-collector mode is :

98. The output of the given logic gate is :

a) XOR b) AND c) OR d) NAND

100. The decimal equivalent value for binary number (1101110)2 is :

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

3. When the sample space S is countable, it is known as a ______

7. Binomial probability distribution is a widely used probability distribution where ______

8. Mean  and standard deviation  are called parameters of ________

15. What are the other assumptions in ANOVA ______