NEET (Pre-Medical)

Conquer Batch-1 | Minor Test-02

Time: 3:20 Hours Test Date: 25 June 2023 Maximum Marks: 720

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questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany &
Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given
below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions
Nos- 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos-
36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any
10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidate are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they
start attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than
ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
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incorrect response, one mark will deducted from the total scores. The maximum are 720.
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(English)
 TEST SYLLABUS

Conquer Batch-1 | Minor Test-02 | 25 June 2023

Physics: - Kinematics.

Chemistry: - Atomic Structure & Some Basic Concepts of

Chemistry.

Biology: - Animal Kingdom & Biological classification

till Fungi.
 PART-A: PHYSICS
SECTION-A 5. If a vector A is parallel to another
 1 ˆ 1 ˆ vector B then the resultant of the vector
1. The expression  i+ j  is a
 2 2  A  B will be equal to
(1) Unit vector
(1) A (2) A
(2) Null vector (3) Zero vector (4) Zero
(3) Vector of magnitude 2
(4) Scalar 6. If a vector P making angles , , and 
respectively with the X, Y and Z axes
2. An object of m kg with speed of v m/s respectively.
strikes a wall at an angle  and rebounds
Then sin2  + sin2  + sin2  =
at the same speed and same angle. The
(1) 0 (2) 1
magnitude of the change in momentum
(3) 2 (4) 3
of the object will be

7. The length of second's hand in watch is 1

cm. The change in velocity of its tip in 15
seconds is

(1) Zero (2) cm / sec
30 2
(1) 2mv cos  (2) 2mv sin   2
(3) cm / sec (4) cm / sec
(3) 0 (4) 2mv 30 30

8. A particle moves towards east with

3. What is the angle between (P + Q) and
velocity 5 m/s. After 10 seconds its
(P  Q) direction changes towards north with
 same velocity. The average acceleration
(1) 0 (2)
2 of the particle is
 1
(3) (4)  (1) Zero (2) m / s2 N − W
4 2
1 1
(3) m / s2 N − E (4) m / s2 S − W
4. If | A  B |= 3A.B, then the value of | A + B | 2 2
is
1/2
 AB  9. The dimensions of Planck's constant and
(1)  A 2 + B2 +  (2) A + B
 3 angular momentum are respectively
(1) ML2 T −1 and MLT −1
(3) (A2 + B2 + 3AB)1/2 (4) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2
(2) ML2 T −1 and ML2 T −1
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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1 | Minor Test-02 1

 (3) MLT −1 and ML2 T −1 14. Number of particles is given by

(4) MLT −1 and ML2 T −2 n2 − n1

n = −D crossing a unit area
x2 − x1
10. The dimensions of K in the equation perpendicular to X-axis in unit time,
1 where n1 and n2 are number of particles
W= Kx2 is
2 per unit volume for the value of x meant
(1) M1L0 T −2 (2) M0L1T −1 to x2 and x 1 . Find dimensions of D
1 1 −2 1 0 −1
(3) M L T (4) M L T called as diffusion constant
(1) M0LT 2 (2) M0L2 T −4
11. Pressure gradient has the same
(3) M0LT −3 (4) M0L2 T −1
dimension as that of
(1) Velocity gradient
15. A person moves 30 m north and then 20
(2) Potential gradient
(3) Energy gradient m towards east and finally 30 2 m in
(4) None of these south-west direction. The displacement
of the person from the origin will be
12. The percentage errors in the (a) 10 m along north
measurement of mass and speed are 2% (2) 10 m long south
and 3% respectively. How much will be (c) 10 m along west
the maximum error in the estimation of (4) Zero
the kinetic energy obtained by measuring
mass and speed 16. A wheel of radius 1 meter rolls forward
(1) 11% (2) 8% half a revolution on a horizontal ground.
(3) 5% (4) 1% The magnitude of the displacement of
the point of the wheel initially in contact
13. The length of a cylinder is measured with the ground is
with a meter rod having least count 0.1 (1) 2 (2) 2
cm. Its diameter is measured with
(3) 2 + 4 (4) 
vernier calipers having least count 0.01
cm. Given that length is 5.0 cm. and
17. A person travels along a straight road for
radius is 2.0 cm. The percentage error in
the calculated value of the volume will half the distance with velocity v 1 and
be the remaining half distance with velocity
(1) 1% (2) 2% v 2 The average velocity is given by
(3) 3% (4) 4%
v 22
(1) v 1 v 2 (2)
v 21

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1 | Minor Test-02 2

 v 1 + v2 2v 1v 2 the next half time with a velocity v 2 . The
(3) (4)
2 v 1 + v2 mean velocity V of the man is
2 1 1 v 1 + v2
(1) = + (2) V =
18. One car moving on a straight road covers V v 1 v2 2
one third of the distance with 20 km/hr
v1
and the rest with 60 km/hr. The average (3) V = v 1v 2 (4) V =
v2
speed is
(1) 40 km/hr (2) 80 km/hr
2 23. If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance
(3) 46 km/hr (4) 36 km/hr with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2
3
then average speed is
19. A particle moves along a semicircle of 1 v 1 + v2
(1) v 1v 2 (2)
radius 10m in 5 seconds. The average 2 2
velocity of the particle is 2v 1v 2 5v 1v 2
(c) (d)
(1) 2 ms−1 (2) 4 ms−1 v 1 + v2 3v 1 + 2v 2

(3) 2 ms−1 (4) 4 ms−1

24. The correct statement from the
following is
20. A man walks on a straight road from his (1) A body having zero velocity will not
home to a market 2.5 km away with a necessarily have zero acceleration
speed of 5 km/h. Finding the market (2) A body having zero velocity will
closed, he instantly turns and walks necessarily have zero acceleration
back home with a speed of 7.5 km/h. The (3) A body having uniform speed can
average speed of the man over the have only uniform acceleration
interval of time 0 to 40 min. is equal to (4) A body having non-uniform velocity
25 will have zero acceleration
(1) 5 km/h (2) km/h
4
30 45 25. A bullet fired into a fixed target loses
(3) km/h (4) km/h
4 8 half of its velocity after penetrating 3
cm. How much further it will penetrate
21. The ratio of the numerical values of the before coming to rest assuming that it
average velocity and average speed of a faces constant resistance to motion?
body is always (1) 1.5 cm (2) 1.0 cm
(1) Unity (2) Unity or less (3) 3.0 cm (4) 2.0 cm
(3) Unity or more (4) Less than unity
26. Two boys are standing at the ends A and
22. A person travels along a straight road for B of a ground where AB = a . The boy at
the first half time with a velocity v 1 and B starts running in a direction

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1 | Minor Test-02 3

 perpendicular to AB with velocity v 1 . The (1) 2v3 (2) 2v 3
boy at A starts running simultaneously (3) 2v3 (4) 22 v 3
with velocity v and catches the other
boy in a time t, where t is
31. A motor car moving with a uniform
(1) a / v + v
2 2
1
(2) a / (v − v )
2 2 2
1 speed of 20m / sec comes to stop on
(3) a / (v − v 1 ) (4) a / (v + v 1 ) the application of brakes after travelling
a distance of 10m Its acceleration is
27. The coordinates of a moving particle at (1) 20m / sec2 (2) −20m/ sec2
any time are given by x = at2 and y = bt 2 .
(3) −40 m / sec2 (4) +2m/ sec2
The speed of the particle at any moment
is
32. The velocity of a body depends on time
(1) 2t(a + b) (2) 2t (a2 − b2 )
according to the equation v = 20 + 0.1t2 .
(3) t a2 + b2 (4) 2t (a2 + b2 ) The body is undergoing
(1) Uniform acceleration
28. A body under the action of several forces (2) Uniform retardation
will have zero acceleration (3) Non-uniform acceleration
(1) When the body is very light (4) Zero acceleration
(2) When the body is very heavy
(3) When the body is a point body 33. A car moving with a velocity of 10 m/s
(4) When the vector sum of all the can be stopped by the application of a
forces acting on it is zero constant force F in a distance of 20 m. If
the velocity of the car is 30 m/s, it can
29. A body starts from the origin and moves be stopped by this force in
along the X-axis such that the velocity at 20
(1) m (2) 20 m
3
any instant is given by (4t3 − 2t) , where t
(3) 60 m (4) 180 m
is in sec and velocity in m / s . What is the
acceleration of the particle, when it is 2 m
34. A body moves from rest with a constant
from the origin
acceleration of 5m / s2 . Its instantaneous
(1) 28 m / s2 (2) 22 m / s2
speed (in m / s) at the end of 10 sec is
(3) 12m / s2 (4) 10 m / s2
(1) 50 (2) 5
(3) 2 (4) 0.5
30. The relation between time and distance
is t = x2 + x , where  and  are 35. A body starts from rest. What is the ratio
constants. The retardation is of the distance travelled by the body
during the 4th and 3rd second
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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1 | Minor Test-02 4

 7 5 (4) Decreasing velocity
(1) (2)
5 7
7 40. Acceleration of a particle changes when
3
(3) (4) (1) Direction of velocity changes
3 7
(2) Magnitude of velocity changes
SECTION-B (3) Both of above
36. The position x of a particle varies with (4) Speed changes

time t as x = at2 − bt3 . The acceleration

of the particle will be zero at time t 41. The relation 3t = 3x + 6 describes the
equal to displacement of a particle in one
direction where x is in metres and t in
a
(1) (2) 7.5 km / h sec. The displacement, when velocity is
b
zero, is
a
(3) (4) Zero (1) 24 metres (2) 12 metres
3b
(3) 5 metres (4) Zero

37. The displacement of a particle starting

42. A particle starts from rest. Its
from rest (at t = 0) is given by
acceleration (a) versus time (t) is as
s = 6t2 − t3 . The time in seconds at which shown in the figure. The maximum speed
the particle will attain zero velocity of the particle will be
again, is
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 8

38. A body is moving according to the

equation x = at + bt2 − ct3 where x=
displacement and a, b and c are (a) 110 m/s (2) 55 m/s
(c) 550 m/s (4) 660 m/s
constants. The acceleration of the body
is
43. A car accelerates from rest at a constant
(1) a + 2bt (2) 2b + 6ct
rate  for some time, after which it
(3) 2b − 6ct (4) 3b − 6ct2
decelerates at a constant rate  and
comes to rest. If the total time elapsed
39. The distance travelled by a particle is
is t, then the maximum velocity acquired
proportional to the squares of time, then
by the car is
the particle travels with
 2 + 2   2 − 2 
(1) Uniform acceleration (1)  t (2)  t
(2) Uniform velocity      
(3) Increasing acceleration
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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1 | Minor Test-02 5

 (  + ) t  t of the main scale. The least count (in
(3) (4)
 + cm) of the callipers is :
n− 1 n
(1) x (2) x
44. A particle is dropped vertically from rest n n− 1
from a height. The time taken by it to fall x x
(3) (4)
through successive distances of 1 m each n n− 1
will then be
48. The circular scale of a micrometer has
(1) All equal, being equal to 2/g
200 divisions and pitch of main scale is 2
second
mm. Find the measured value of
(2) In the ratio of the square roots of the
thickness of a thin sheet.
integers 1, 2, 3.....
(3) In the ratio of the difference in the
square roots of the integers i.e.
1,( 2 − 1),( 3 − 2),( 4 − 3) .... (1) 3.41 mm (2) 6.41 mm
(3) 3.46 mm (4) 3.51 m
(4) In the ratio of the reciprocal of the
square roots of the integers i.e.,.
49. In a vernier calliper, N divisions of vernier
1 1 1 1
, , , scale coincide with (N–1) divisions of
1 2 3 4
main scale (in which 1 division represents
1 mm). The least count of the instrument
45. A screw gauge advances by 3 mm in 6
in cm should be:
rotations. There are 50 divisions on
(1) N (2) N – 1
circular scale. Find least count of screw
1 1
gauge: (3) (4)
10N N− 1
(1) 0.002 cm (2) 0.001 cm
(3) 0.01 cm (4) 0.02 cm
50. The frequency of vibration of string is
1/2
46. A student measured the diameter of a p F 
given by  =   . Here p is number
wire using a screw gauge with least 2l  m 
count 0.001 cm and listed the of segments in the string and l is the
measurements. The correct measure length. The dimensional formula for m
(1) 5.3 cm (2) 5.32 cm will be
(3) 5.320 cm (4) 5.3200 cm (1) [M0LT−1 ]
(2) [ML0T−1 ]
47. In a vernier callipers, one main scale
(3) [ML−1T0 ]
division is x cm and n divisions of the
vernier scale coincide with (n-1) divisions (4) [M0L0T0 ]

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1 | Minor Test-02 6

 PART-B: CHEMISTRY Which of the following of statements is
SECTION-A true according to Dalton's atomic
51. Number of atoms in 558.5 gram Fe (at. of theory?
Fe = 55.85 g mol-1) is (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(1) twice that in 60 g (3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (W)
(2) 6.023  1022
(3) half that in 8 g He 55. In me experiment, 4g of H2 combine with
(4) 558.5  6.023  1023 32g of O2 to form 36g of H2O. In another
experiment, when 50g of H2 combine
52. The simplest formula of a compound with 400g of O2 then 450g of H2O is
containing 50% of element X mass 10) formed. Above two experiments follow
and 50% of element Y (atomic mass 20) (1) The law of conservation of mass
is (2) The law of constant composition
(1) XY (2) XY3 (3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) X2Y (4) X2Y3 (4) Neither (1) nor (2)

53. The increasing of molarity with 25 gm 56. If maximum fluoride ion presence was
each of NaOH, LiOH, Al(OH)3, KOH, in set to 4 ppm number of moles of
same volume of water? fluoride in 10 ml drinking water ?
(1) Al(OH)3 < B(OH)3 < KOH < NaOH < (1) 2.10  10-3 (2) 2.10  10-2
LiOH (3) 3.10  10-3 (4) 3.3  10-2
(2) LiOH < NaOH < KOH < B(OH)3 <
Al(OH)3 57. How many moles of magnesium
(3) LiOH < NaOH < B(OH)3 < KOH < phosphate, Mg3(PO4)2, will contain 0.25
Al(OH)3 mole of oxygen atoms?
(4) NaOH < LiOH < B(OH)3 < Al(OH)3 < (1) 0.02 (2) 3.125  10-2
KOH (3) 1.25 10-2 (4) 2.5  10-2

54. Consider the following statements. 58. The incorrect statement for 14 g CO is :
(i) Atoms of H, O, N and C have identical (1) It occupies 2.24 L at NTP
properties but different mass. 1
(2) It corresponds to mole of CO
(ii) Matter is divisible into atoms which 2
are further indivisible. (3) It corresponds to same mole of CO
(iii) The ratio of N : H in NH3 is 1 : 3 and N and N2
: O in nitric oxide is 2 : 1. (4) It corresponds to 3.01  1023
(iv) Dalton's atomic theory support law molecules of CO
of conservation of mass.

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1 | Minor Test-02 7

59. The number of hydrogen atoms present (3) Only A (4) Both B and D
in 25.6 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) which has
a molar mass of 342.3 g, is: 64. Match the amounts given in List I with
(1) 22  10 23
(2) 9.9  10 23 their no. of moles given in List II and
(3) 11  10 23
(4) 44  10 23 select the correct answer using the code
given below the lists :
60. Number of electrons present in 3.6 mg of List I List II
NH4+ are: (Amount) (No. of moles)
P. 4480 mL of CO2 at 1. 0.1 mole
(1) 1.2  1021 (2) 1.2  1020
STP
(3) 1.2  1022 (4) 2  10-3
Q. 0.1 g-atom of iron 2. 0.2 mole
R. 1.5  10 23
molecules of 3. 0.25 mole
61. Phosphine (PH3) decomposes to produce
oxygen gas
vapours of phosphorus and H2 gas. What
S 9 mL of water 4. 0.5 mole
will be the change in volume when 100
(1) P - 1; Q - 2; R - 3; S - 4
mL of phosphine is decomposed?
(2) P - 4; Q - 2; R - 1; S - 3
(1) +50 mL (2) 500 mL
(3) P - 2; Q - 1; R - 3; S - 4
(3) +75 mL (4) 500 mL
(4) P - 4; Q - 3; R - 1; S - 2

62. One isotope of a non-metallic element

65. Assertion : Atomicity of oxygen is 2.
(X) has mass number 127 and 74
Reason : 1 mole of an element contains
neutrons in the nucleus. The anion
6.023  1023 atoms.
derived from the isotope has 54
(a) If both assertion and reason are true
electrons. Hence, symbol for the anion is
and reason is the correct explanation of
(1) 127
54
X− (2) 127
53
X−
assertion.
(3) 74
53
X− (4) 74
54
X− (b) If both assertion and reason are true
but reason is not the correct explanation
63. If Avogadro number NA, is changed from of assertion.
6.022  1023 mol-1 to 6.022  1020 mo-1, (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
this would change (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(A) the mass of one mole of carbon
(B) the ratio of chemical species to each 66. Which of the following pairs will have
other in a balanced equation same chemical properties ?
(C) the ratio of elements to each other in (1) 14
6
C and 715N (2) O2− and F−
a compound 40 40 35 37
(3) 18
Ar and K
19
(4) 17
Cl and 17
Cl
(D) the definition of mass in units of
grams.
(1) B and C (2) Both A and C

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1 | Minor Test-02 8

67. The five d-orbitals are designated as 71. Match the columns.
dxy ,dyz ,dxz ,dx2 − y2 and dz2 . Choose the Column I Column II
(Atom/Ion) (Electronic configuration)
correct statement.
A Cu p 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10
(A) The shapes of the first three orbitals
B Cu2+ q 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2
are similar but that of the fourth and
C Zn2+ r 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1
fifth orbitals are different
(B) The shapes of all five d-orbitals are D Cr3+ s 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d9
similar t 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3
(C) The of the first four orbitals are (1) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (t)
similar but that of the fifth orbital is (2) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (t)
different (3) A – (r), B – (s), C – (t), D – (p)
(D) The shapes of all five d-orbitals are (4) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (s)
different
(1) Both A and B (2) Only A 72. Which of the following statement(s)
(3) Both C and D (4) Only C is/are incorrect regarding photoelectric
effect?
68. If uncertainty in position(N1 and (i) The number of electrons ejected is to
momentum are equal, then uncertainty the intensity of light.
in velocity is : (ii) There is some time lag between the
striking of light beam on the metal
1 h h
(1) (2) surface and the ejected of electrons.
2m  2
(iii) The kinetic energy of ejected
1 h h electrons depends upon the brightness
(3) (4)
m   of light.
(iv) The kinetic energy of the ejected
69. The ratio between kinetic energy and the electron is proportional to the frequency
total energy of the electrons of hydrogen of the incident radiation.
atom according to Bohr's is (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (3) (ii) only (4) (ii) and (iv)
(3) 1 : -1 (4) 1 : 2
73. The number of s-electrons present in an
70. Bohr radius of nth orbit of an atom is ion with 55 protons in its unipositive
given by the expression : state is
2 2
nh nh (1) 8 (2) 9
(1) r = (2) r =
42me2 42mZe2 (3) 12 (4) 10
2 2 2 2
nh nh
(3) r = (4) r =
42mZ 42me2Z

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1 | Minor Test-02 9

74. How many of the following metal ions (C) Magnetic orbital quantum number
have similar value of spin only magnetic 'ml’ for a particular 'l' (azimuthal
moment in gaseous state ? quantum number) has (2l + 1) values.
(Given: Atomic number : V, 23 ; Cr, 24 ; (D) ±1/2 are the two orientations of
Fe, 26 ; Ni, 28) electron spin.
V3+ ,Cr3+ ,Fe2+ ,Ni3+ (E) For l = 5, there will be a total of 9
(1) 1 (2) 2 orbital.

(3) 3 (4) 4 Which of the above statements are

correct?

75. The number of radial and angular nodes (1) (A), (B) and (C)
in 4d orbital are respectively (2) (A), (C), (D) and (E)
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 3 and 2 (3) (A), (C) and (D)
(3) 1 and 0 (4) 2 and 1 (4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

76. According to Bohr's atomic theory : 78. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Bohr's theory accounts for
Z2
(A) Kinetic energy of electron is  2 the stability and line spectrum of Li+ ion.
n
Statement II : Bohr's theory was unable
(B) The product (v) Of electron and
to explain the splitting of spectral lines
principal quantum number (n) 'vn'  Z2 .
in the presence of a magnetic field.
(C) Frequency of revolution of electron in
In the light of the above statements,
Z3 choose the most appropriate answer
an orbit is  3
n from the options given below:
(D) Coulombic force of attraction on the (1) Both statement I and statement II are
Z3 true.
electron is  4 . Choose the most
n (2) Statement I is false but statement II
appropriate answer from the options is true.
given (3) Both statement I and statement II are
(1) (C) only (2) (A) and (D) only false.
(3) (A) only (4) (C) and (D) only (4) Statement I is true but statement II is
false.
77. Consider the following statements :
(A) The principal quantum number 'n' is a 79. The orientation of an atomic orbital is
positive integer with values of 'n' = 1, 2, governed by
3, …... (1) Spin quantum number
(B) The azimuthal quantum number 'l' for (2) Magnetic quantum number
a given 'n' (principal quantum number) (3) Principal quantum number
can have values as ‘l’ = 0, 1, 2, …… n (4) Azimuthal quantum number

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80. The electronic configuration of an (2) If both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R)
element is 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 3d , 4s .
2 2 6 2 6 5 1
is not the correct explanation of(A).
This represents its (3) If(A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(1) excited state (2) ground state (4) If (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
(3) cationic form (4) anionic form
85. If the principal quantum number n = 6,
81. The correct order of increasing energy of the correct sequence of filling of
atomic orbitals is electrons will be
(1) 5p < 4f < 6s < 5d (1) ns → np → (n − 1)d → (n − 2)f
(2) 5p < 6s < 4f < 5d (2) ns → (n − 2)f → (n − 1)d → np
(3) 5p < 5d < 4f < 6s
(3) ns → (n − 1)d → (n − 2)f → np
(4) None of these
(4) ns → (n − 2)f → np → (n − 1)d
82. If the nitrogen atom has electronic
configuration 1s7, it would have energy SECTION-B
lower than that of the normal ground 86. What is the ratio of the masses of
state configuration 1s 2s 2p , because
2 2 3 oxygen that are combined with 1.08 g of
the electrons would be closer to the nitrogen in the compounds N2O3 and NO?
nucleus. Yet 1s7 is not observed because (1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 3
it violates. (3) 3 : 2 (4) 1 : 2
(1) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
(2) Hund’s rule 87. Number of waves made by a Bohr
(3) Pauli exclusion principle electron in one complete revolution in 3 rd
(4) Bohr postulate of stationary orbits orbit is
(1) 2 (2) 3
83. Isodiaphers among the following options (3) 4 (4) 1
is :
(1) 14
C and 23
N (2) 24
Mg and 23
C 88. A particular electromagnetic radiation
6 11 12 11
with wavelength 200 nm
(3) 42 He and 816O (4) 12
6
C and 715N (1) has a higher frequency than radiation
with wavelength 400 nm
84. Assertion (A) : The emission of - (2) is in the visible region of the
particles results in the formation of electromagnetic spectrum
isodiapher of parent element. (3) has a greater speed in vacuum than
Reason (R) : Isodiaphers have same does radiation of wavelength 400 nm
isotonic number. (4) has a greater energy content per
(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) photon than does radiation with
is the correct explanation of (A). wavelength 100 nm.

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89. The number of molecules and moles in D v = (Orbital angular momentum s 0
2.8375 litres of O2 at STP are respectively of electron in its lowest energy )
(1) 7.527  10 23
and 0.125 mol (1) A – P, B – Q, C – R, D – S
(2) 1.505  10 23
and 0.250 mol (2) A – Q, B – P, C – R, D – S
(3) 7.527  10 22
and 0.250 mol (3) A – S, B – R, C – Q, D – P
(4) 7.527  10 22
and 0.125 mol (4) A – R, B – S, C – P, D – Q

90. Energy for 7.25  1015 photons of 5.37  95. Statement-1: Energy emitted when an
1014 s-1 frequency in Einstein unit is electron jump from 5 → 2 (energy level)
(1) 1.20  10-8 (2) 2.58  10-3 is less than when an electron jump from
(3) 3.56  10-19 (4) 8.33  102 2 → 1 in all 'H' like atom.
91. How many core electrons are there in Statement-2: The |total energy
Na? difference| between 1 & 2 energy level
st nd

(1) 11 (2) 1 is greater than that of any two energy

(3) 10 (4) 9 level provided level '1' is not part of
those two energy levels.
92. How many orbitals are there in ‘h’ (1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is
subshell? true and statement-2 is correct
(1) 9 (2) 11 explanation for statement-1.
(3) 13 (4) 15 (2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is
true and statement-2 is NOT the correct
93. What is the mass of electrons present in explanation for statement-1.
the anti-penultimate shell of Fe2+ ion? (3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is
(Atomic mass of iron = 56g) false.
(1) 72. 8 × 10−31 g (2) 5. 04 × 10−29 g (4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is
(3) 7. 28 × 10−31 𝑘𝑔 (4) 72. 8 × 10−28 g true.

94. Given in hydrogenic atom rn, Vn, E, Kn 96. Statement-1 : Emitted radiations fall in
stand for radius, potential energy, total visible range when an electron jump
energy and kinetic energy in nth orbit. from higher level to n = 2 in Li+2 ion.
Find the value of U, v, x, y. Statement-2 : Balmer series radiation
A p 1 belongs to visible range in H-atoms.
Vn
U= (1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is
Kn
true and statement-2 is correct
B 1 q -2
 Ex explanation for statement-1.
rn (2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is
C rn  Z y r -1 true and statement-2 is NOT the correct
explanation for statement-1.
(N = Atomic number)

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 (3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is 102. Which one of the following organisms is
false. not an example of eukaryotic cells?
(4) Statement-4 is false, statement-2 is (1) Euglena (2) Escherichia coli
true. (3) Paramecium (4) Amoeba

97. The percentage composition of carbon 103. Select correct option

by mole in methane is : (1) Diatoms – soap box like arrangement
(1) 80% (2) 25% of cell wall
(3) 75% (4) 20% (2) Desmids – Red sea
(3) Slime moulds – Spores are dispersed
98. 5 g Zn reacts with : by water current
(i) Excess of NaOH (ii) Dilute HCl (4) Euglena – Found in running water
Then volume ratio of H2 gas evolved in (i)
and (ii) is : 104. Which of the following protists are
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 saprophytic in nature?
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 3 : 1 (1) Paramoecium
(2) Slime molds
99. The maximum amount of BaSO4 that can (3) Desmids
obtained on mixing O3 mole BaCl2 with 1 (4) Gonyaulax and Euglena
mole H2SO4 is:
(1) 0.5 mol (2) 0.1 mol 105. Five kingdom classifications was not
(3) 0.15 mol (4) 0.2 mol based on which of following criterion?
(1) Mode of nutrition
100. A quantity of aluminium has a mass of (2) Mode of Locomotion
54 g. What is the mass of same number (3) Complexity of cell structure
of magnesium atoms? (4) Complexity of body organization
(1) 12.1 g (2) 24.3g
(3) 48.6 g (4) 97.2 g 106. In Whittaker's five kingdoms of
classification, which kingdom includes
PART-C: BIOLOGY (BOTANY) archaebacteria, eubacteria and
SECTION-A cyanobacteria?
101. Which of the following kingdom includes (1) Monera (2) Protista
unicellular eukaryotes in Whittaker (3) Fungi (4) Plantae
classification
(1) Kingdom Monera 107. With respect to fungal sexual cycle,
(2) Kingdom Protista choose the correct sequence of events
(3) Kingdom Fungi (1) Karyogamy → plasmogamy → meiosis
(4) Kingdom Animalia (2) Meiosis → plasmogamy → karyogamy
(3) Plasmogamy → karyogamy → meiosis
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 (4) Meiosis → karyogamy → plasmogamy
115. On storage grains aflatoxin are produced
108. Which of the following group does not by the growth of
represent ‘Sac Fungi’ (1) Agrobacterium
(1) Morels (2) Mushrooms (2) Aspergillus
(3) Yeasts (4) Truffles (3) Tobacco mosaic virus
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
109. Hyphae which are in the form of
continuous tubes filled with 116. Which kingdom is mismatched?
multinucleated cytoplasm are known as (1) Fungi …. Usually saprotrophic
(1) Multinucleate (2) Coenocytic (2) Plantae …. Usually photosynthetic
(3) Septate (4) Multicellular (3) Animalia …. Photoautotrophic
(4) Protista …. Various modes of nutrition
110. Fusion of two haploid cells immediately
results in the diploid cell during sexual 117. The entities not included in any of the
reproduction in the following group five kingdoms of Whittaker are
(1) Albugo (2) Phycomycetes (1) Viruses
(3) Deuteromycetes (4) Both (1) and (2) (2) Viroids and Prions
(3) Lichens
111. Edible sac fungi are (4) All of these
(1) Mushrooms (2) Rhizopus
(3) Morels (4) Yeast 118. How many of the given mode nutrition
are found in monera?
112. Which of the following is not a member Photosynthetic, Chemosynthetic,
of fungi imperfeci? Parasitic, Saprophytic
(1) Alternaria (2) Aspergillus (1) Four (2) One
(3) Colletotrichum (4) Trichoderma (3) Two (4) Three

113. Which of the following fungi is used to 119. Which of the following is not a feature of
make bread and beer? the plasmids?
(1) Mushrooms (2) Puccinia (1) Independent replication
(3) Truffles (4) Yeast (2) Circular structure
(3) Transferable
114. Protista is a link between (4) Single stranded
(1) Bacteria and green algae
(2) Virus and bacteria 120. Which of the following component
(3) Prokaryotic and multicellular provides sticky characters to the
eukaryotic organisms bacterial cell?
(4) Dinoflagellates and zooflagellates (1) Nuclear membrane
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 (2) Plasma membrane (3) Nitrogen fixation
(3) Cell wall (4) Both (1) and (3)
(4) Glycocalyx
125. Select the mismatch
121. Spirulina belongs to kingdom (1) Protists – Eukaryotes
(1) Plantae (2) Monera (2) Methanogens – Prokaryotes
(3) Protista (4) Fungi (3) Gas vacuoles – Green bacteria
(4) Large Central vacuole – Animal cell
122. Which is not true for monerans?
(1) They are prokaryotic 126. Which one of the following is a correct
(2) Most of them have cell wall statement :-
(3) Sap vacuoles are absent (1) Linnaeus proposed a five kingdom
(4) They reproduce by mitosis and sexual classification
reproduction only (2) Halophiles are present in the gut of
several ruminant animals
123. Match the following and choose the (3) All single celled prokaryotes are
correct placed under protista
1. Family (i) tuberosum (4) Mycoplasma can survive without
2. Kingdom (ii) Polymoniales oxygen
3. Order (iii) Solanum
4. Species (iv) Plantae 127. Which of the following statement is/are
5. Genus (v) Solanaceae correct with respect to Bacteria
(1) (i) - 4, (ii) - 5, (iii) - 2, (iv) - 1, (v) - 3 (a) Bacteria are the sole members of the
(2) (i) - 5, (ii) - 4, (iii) - 2, (iv) - 1, (v) - 3 Kingdom Monera
(3) (i) - 5, (ii) - 3, (iii) - 2, (iv) - 1, (v) - 4 (b) Bacteria occur almost everywhere
(4) (i) - 4, (ii) - 3, (iii) - 5, (iv) - 2, (v) – 1 (c) Bacteria are the most abundant
microorganism
124. The labeled structure ‘1’ is specialized (d) 80 S type of Ribosome are present in
cell for? bacteria
(1) a & d (2) b & d
(3) a, b, c (4) b, c, d

128. Which statement is/are wrong with

respect to Archaebacteria.
(a) Archaebacteria differ from other
bacteria in having a different cell wall
structure.
(1) Photosynthesis (b) Feature of cell wall is responsible for
(2) Water Absorption their survival in extreme conditions.
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 (c) Methanogens are present in the guts (iii) Euglenoids (c) Gonyaulax
of several ruminant animals such as cow (iv) Slime moulds (d) Saprophytic protists
& buffalo. (1) (i) a (ii) b, (iii) c, (iv) d
(d) These are oldest of the living fossils. (2) (i) b (ii) c, (iii) a, (iv) d
(e) Peptidoglycan & muramic acid are (3) (i) b (ii) c, (iii) d, (iv) a
present in cell wall (4) (i) c (ii) a, (iii) b, (iv) d
(1) a and e (2) b and e
(3) a, b and c (4) only e 132. Slime moulds are _____(i)______protists.
The body moves along decaying twigs
129. Which one is/are correct match and leaves engulfing organic material
Kingdom Organism under suitable conditions, they form an
(i) Monera Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, aggregation called_____(ii)______which
BGA, Euglenoids may grow and spread over several feet.
(ii) Protista Diatoms, Dinoflagellates,
In above question (i) & (ii) are
Euglenoids
respectively.
(ii) Protista Albugo, Mucor, Penicillium,
(1) (i) Autotrophic, (ii) plasmodium
Slime-moulds
(2) (i) Chemosynthetic autotrophic(ii)
(1) Only (i) (2) Only (ii)
plasmodium
(3) Only (iii) (4) All are correct
(3) (i) Saprophytic, (ii) Phycobiont
(4) (i) saprophytic, (ii) plasmodium
130. Which statement is/are wrong with
respect to kingdom protista.
133. Majority of Euglenoids are Fresh water
(i) All single celled eukaryotes are placed
organisms found in stagnant water.
under protista
Instead of cell wall, they have a protein
(ii) The boundaries of this kingdom are
rich layer called _____(a)________which
not well defined.
makes their body flexible. They have
(iii) Chrysophytes, dinoflagellates,
_____(b)______flagella;
Euglenoids, slime moulds and protozoans
(a) & (b) are respectively.
are included under protista.
(1) (a) Pellicle, (b) One
(iv) All protista are eukaryotic,
(2) (a) Pellicle, (b) Three
achlorophyllous, heterotrophic,
(3) (a) Gelatinous sheath, (b) Two
nonvascular organism.
(4) (a) Pellicle, (b) Two
(1) only (ii) (2) only (iii)
(3) only (iv) (4) None of these
134. Organisms which are found in fresh
water as well as in marine environment,
131. Match Column I with Column II
they are microscopic and float passively
Column-I Column-II
in water current (plankton). Most of
(i) Chrysophytes (a) Absence of cell wall
them are photosynthetic. The cell wall
(ii) Dinoflagellates (b) Golden algae
form two thin overlapping shell, which fit
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 together as in a soap box. Organisms (C) Fungi can also live as symbionts in
which possess above characters are association with algae as lichens and
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Chrysophytes with roots of higher plants as mycorrhiza
(3) Diatoms (4) 2 & 3 both (D) Fusion of two nuclei called
plasmogamy
135. Read the following four statements (A-D) How many of the above statement are
and How many of the statement are correct ?
correct ? (1) Two (2) Three
(A) All single celled eukaryotes are (3) Four (4) one
placed under protista
(B) Most of the organism of chrysophytes 139. The sexual cycle in fungi involves three
are photosynthetic. steps, which statement is/are correct
(C) Dinoflagellates appear yellow, green (A) Fusion of protoplasm between two
brown, blue or red depend on the main motile or nonmotile gamete called
pigments present in their cells. karyogamy
(D) Chloroplast absent in Euglena (B) Fusion of two nuclei called
(1) Two (2) Three plasmogamy
(3) Four (4) one (C) Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid
spores–
SECTION-B (1) A & B (2) B & C
136. As compared to slime moulds, (3) A & C (4) only C
Euglenoids has:
(A) Presence of chloroplast 140. Match the classes of fungi given in
(B) Mixotrophic nutrition Column I with their common names
(C) Presence of proteinaceous pellicle given in Column II
(D) Presence of contractile vacuole Column I Column II
(1) A & B (2) B & C (i) Phycomycetes (a) Imperfect fungi
(3) A, B & C (4) A, B, C & D (ii) Ascomycetes (b) Club fungi
(iii) Basidiomycetes (c) Sac fungi
137. Select the wrong pair (iv) Deuteromycetes (d) Algal fungi
(1) Red tide – Gonyaulax (1) (i) a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) d
(2) Cellulosic cell wall – Archaebacteria (2) (i) d (ii) c (iii) b (iv) a
(3) Saprophytic protists – Slime moulds (3) (i) c (ii) b (iii) d (iv) a
(4) Mycoplasma – Cell wall less & can (4) (i) b (ii) a (iii) c (iv) d
survive without oxygen
141. Read the following statement (A-D)
138. Read the following statement (A-D) regarding the class phycomycetes &
(A) Cell wall of Fungi consists of chitin. select wrong statement
(B) Most fungi are heterotrophic
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 (A) In phycomycetes mycelium is (e) Bread and beer are manufactured by
multinucleate (Coenocytic) and septate Yeast.
(B) Wall of hyphae is composed of How many statements are correct?
cellulose (1) 2 (2) 5
(C) Asexual reproduction take place (3) 3 (4) 4
through zoospores.
(D) Members are found in aquatic 145. Bacteria reproduce mainly by :
habitats and on decaying wood. (1) Spores (2) Fission
(1) only A (2) only B (3) Conjugation (4) Recombination
(3) only C (4) A & D
146. Which statement is correct for
142. A dikaryon is formed when mycoplasma ?
(1) Meiosis is arrested (1) Completely have cell wall
(2) Nuclei of fusing cells do not fuse (2) They are the smallest living cells
immediately known
(3) Cytoplasm does not fuse (3) Can not survive without oxygen
(4) None of the above (4) All are correct

143. Members of phycomycetes are found in 147. Based on their shape bacteria are
i. Aquatic habitats grouped in :
ii. On decaying wood (1) Coccus, Bacillus, Vibrio and Rickettsia
iii. Moist and damp places (2) Coccus, Bacillus, Mycoplasma and
iv. As obligate parasite on plants Spirillum
Choose from the following options (3) Coccus, Bacillus, Vibrio and Spirillum
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) i and iv (4) All of the above
(3) ii and iii (4) All of the above
148. Which statement is correct for slime
144. Given below the following statements moulds ?
(a) Cell wall in many members of (1) Form an aggregation called
phycomycetes is composed of cellulose. Plasmodium
(b) The mycelium of deuteromycetes is (2) May grow and spread over several
aseptate & unbranched & Asexual feet
reproduction is performed by conidia. (3) Spores extremely resistance and
(c) In ascomycetes, conidia are produced survive for many years, even under
exogenously on conidiophores. adverse conditions
(d) Trichoderma is used to control fungal (4) All are correct
diseases in plants which belong to class
basidiomycetes.

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149. Which one is incorrect for Protista ? animals having double circulation are not
(1) Members of Protista are primarily homoiothermous.
aquatic (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Some have flagella or cilia (2) Both statements A and B are
(3) Cell body not contains a well defined incorrect
nucleus and other membrane-bound (3) Only statement A is correct
organelles (4) Only statement B is correct
(4) Protists reproduce asexually and
sexually by a process involving cell 153. Which of the following class is named on
fusion and zygote formation the basis of mode of locomotion of
animals belonging to it?
150. Agaricus (mushroom), Ustilago (smut) (1) Amphibia (2) Mammalia
and Puccinia (rust fungus) are members (3) Reptilia (4) Aves
of :
(1) Ascomycetes 154. Balancing organ statocyst is present in
(2) Basidiomycetes (1) Prawn and cuttlefish
(3) Phyocmycetes (2) Cockroach and Psittacula
(4) Deuteromycetes (3) Crow and flying fox
(4) Krait and tree lizard
PART-D: BIOLOGY (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION-A 155. Which of the following is a viviparous
151. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. fish having placoid scales?
birds. (1) Magur (2) Rohu
(1) Presence of feathers is a (3) Dog fish (4) Cuttlefish
characteristic feature
(2) Presence of scales on hind limbs 156. Which of the following set of vertebrates
show reptilian ancestry of birds are homoiothermous and have long
(3) Oil gland is present at the base of tail bones with air cavities?
(4) Air sacs connected to lungs are (1) Corvus, Neophron, Pavo
directly involved in gaseous exchange (2) Canis, Felis, Hemidactylus
(3) Chameleon, Calotes, Bungarus
152. Read the following statements A and B (4) Bufo, Hyla, Salamandra
and choose the correct answer.
Statement A: All vertebrates are 157. Select the incorrect match.
chordates but all chordates are not (1) Calotes – Garden lizard
vertebrates. (2) Aptenodytes – Penguin
Statement B: All homeothermous (3) Elephas – Elephant
animals have double circulation but all (4) Delphinus – Blue whale

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158. Which of the following is not an 163. All of the following are hermaphrodite
exclusive feature of mammals? animals except
(1) Mammary glands (1) Sycon (2) Taenia
(2) Hair (3) Pleurobrachia (4) Aedes
(3) Four chambered heart
164. Which of the following is a correct set of
(4) Ear pinna
poikilothermous animals?
(1) Hagfish, Betta, Turtle
159. Select the mismatch among the
(2) Penguin, Tiger, Cobra
following.
(3) Crocodile, Pigeon, Kangaroo
(1) Ascaris – Roundworm
(4) Parrot, Platypus, Peacock
(2) Pila – Pearl oyster
(3) Wuchereria – Filarial worm 165. Read the following statements A and B
(4) Octopus – Devil fish and choose the correct option.
Statement A : Petromyzon is an
160. Complete the analogy and choose the ectoparasite which lays eggs in fresh
correct option. Pheretima : Earthworm :: water and its larva after metamorphosis
Ancylostoma : ______ returns to the ocean.
(1) Ringworm (2) Hookworm Statement B : All chordates possess jaws
(3) Filarial worm (4) Silkworm inside their mouth.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
161. Cnidarians exhibit two basic body forms: (2) Only statement A is incorrect
polyp and medusa. Polyp is produced by (3) Both statements A and B are
sexual reproduction and medusa is incorrect
produced by asexual reproduction. This (4) Only statement B is incorrect
alternation of generation is called
(1) Metamorphosis (2) Metastasis 166. Read the following statements and
(3) Metagenesis (4) Mutagenesis choose the option with only correct
statement(s).
162. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. a. Roundworms is a name given to only
round worms. parasitic forms of worms.
(1) The body of round worms is circular b. Arthropods are the most abundant
in cross section group of animals and they have jointed
(2) Alimentary canal is incomplete with a anal styles.
well developed muscular pharynx c. Soft body of molluscs is surrounded
(3) Males and females are distinct, by calcareous shell.
showing sexual dimorphism d. Presence of water vascular system is
(4) Fertilization is internal but the most distinctive feature of porifers.
development may be direct or indirect (1) a and b (2) b and c
(3) a, b, c and d (4) Only c
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 172. Choose the incorrect match.
167. In the following given box, how many (1) Porifera – Mostly asymmetrical
animals are bilaterally symmetrical, (2) Platyhelminthes – Acoelomates
triploblastic and acoelomates? (3) Echinodermata – Complete digestive
Hydra, Obelia, Taenia, Fasciola, system
Ancylostoma, Wuchereria, Hirudinaria (4) Hemichordata – Collar cells
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 5 173. Presence of statocyst as balancing organ,
biradial symmetry and only sexual mode
168. The animals which exhibit radial of reproduction is present in
symmetry in adult forms of life and (1) Pleurobrachia and Beroe
bilateral symmetry during larval stages (2) Hydra and Obelia
are placed in the phylum (3) Sycon and Spongilla
(1) Echinodermata (2) Porifera (4) Asterias and Ophiura
(3) Coelenterata (4) Mollusca
174. Match the items in column-I with those
169. Select the incorrect match. in column II and choose the correct
(1) Spongilla – Loose cell aggregates option.
(2) Fasciola – Cellular level of Column - I Column - II
organisation a. Bungarus i. Bioluminescence,
(3) Physalia – Tissue level of organisation ciliated locomotory
(4) Limulus – Organ system level of structures
organisation b. Ctenoplana ii. Gill slits, scales
c. Euspongia iii. Scales, creeping
170. Which of the following can be broadly mode of locomotion
considered as a differenting feature d. Pterophyllum Iv. Spongocoel,
between ctenophores and coelenterates? choanocytes
(1) Presence of extracellular digestion (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) Presence of radial symmetry (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) Types of locomotory structures (3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) Development is indirect with larval (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
stage
175. Complete the analogy w.r.t. circulatory
171. Tentacles and cnidoblasts are present in system. Pheretima : Closed type ::
(1) Pila and Pinctada ________ : Open type
(2) Hydra and Obelia (1) Nereis (2) Locusta
(3) Ctenoplana and Pleurobrachia (3) Rana (4) Carcharodon
(4) Asterias and Cucumaria

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176. Select the incorrect statement. 181. Read the following statements A and B
(1) Classification helps in assigning a and choose the correct option.
systematic position to newly described Statement A : The skeleton in sponges is
species made up of spicules or spongin fibres.
(2) All multicellular animals exhibit the Statement B : Larval stages are
same pattern of organisation of cells morphologically distinct from the adult
(3) In sponges, some division of labour stage in sponges.
occurs among the cells (1) Both statements are correct
(4) Tissues are grouped together to form (2) Both statement are incorrect
organs and each organ is specialized for (3) Only statement A is correct
a particular function (4) Only statement B is correct

177. All of the following features are 182. During embryonic development,
considered as basis of classification of mesoderm first developed in animals
animals except placed in the phylum
(1) Level of organisation of cells (1) Annelida (2) Arthropoda
(2) Body symmetry (3) Ctenophora (4) Platyhelminthes
(3) Nature of coelom
(4) Types of cell division 183. Match items given in column-I with
those in column II and choose the
178. Choose the incorrect match. correct option.
(1) Operculum – Osteichthyes Column – I Column - II
(2) Parapodia – Annelids a. Torpedo (i) Stomochord
(3) Radula – Echinoderms b. Trygon (ii) Electric organ
(4) Hair – Mammals c. Saccoglossus (iii) Poison sting
d. Bombyx (iv) Silkworm
179. Metameric segmentation first evolved in (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
the members of phylum (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) Arthropoda (2) Annelida (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) Mollusca (4) Chordata (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

180. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. animals 184. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
and their features Balanoglossus.
(1) Ascaris – Endoparasite (1) Body is divisible into proboscis, collar
(2) Laccifer – Jointed appendages and trunk.
(3) Planaria – Metamerism (2) Excretory organ is proboscis gland.
(4) Euspongia – Osculum (3) They are bilaterally symmetrical,
triploblastic and coelomates.

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 (4) Fertilization is internal and (2) Betta and Pterophyllum
development is indirect (3) Exocoetus and Catla
(4) Hippocampus and Pterophyllum
185. Complete the analogy and choose the
correct option. Internal fertilization : 190. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
Pristis :: External fertilization : ________. cyclostomes.
(1) Carcharodon (2) Crocodilus (1) They have elongated body bearing 6-
(3) Clarias (4) Aptenodytes 15 pairs of gill slits for respiration
(2) Body is devoid of scales and paired
SECTION-B fins
186. Lamprey is placed in the taxon Agnatha (3) They may die within few days after
which is a spawning
(1) Sub phylum (2) Class (4) Presence of cartilaginous cranium
(3) Division (4) Super class and bony vertebral column

187. Read the following statements and 191. Clasping of tree branches by birds
choose the option which correctly state became possible due to modification of
them as true (T) or false (F). (1) Forelimbs (2) Hindlimbs
A. Locusta is a gregarious pest. (3) Wings (4) Beak
B. In molluscs, feather-like gills are
present in mantle cavity. 192. All of the following can be considered as
C. Calcareous ossicles form exoskeleton the basis of animal classification except
in most of the echinoderms. (1) Patterns of digestive, circulatory and
D. In Branchiostoma, notochord is reproductive system
present only in larval tail. (2) Number of germ layers during
ABCD ABCD embryonic development
(1) T F T F (2) T T F F (3) Levels of organisation
(3) F T F T (4) T T T F (4) Types of cell division

188. Generally, chordates differ from non- 193. Observe the given diagrams and select
chordates in presence of the option that identifies the structure
(1) Nerve cord incorrectly.
(2) Heart
(3) Germ layers
(4) Pharyngeal gill slits

189. Which of the following set of bony fishes

is marine?
(1) Exocoetus and Hippocampus
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 (1) Structure (a) is found in annelids, (2) Both statements (A) and (B) are
molluscs, arthropods, echinoderms, incorrect
hemichordates and chordates. (3) Only statement (A) is correct
(2) Structure (b) is present in (4) Only statement (B) is correct
aschelminthes in which the body cavity
is lined by mesoderm completely. 197. Select the group of animals that possess
(3) Structure (c) is present in closed type of circulation.
platyhelminthes. (1) Earthworm, Silkworm, Tongueworm
(4) In structure (c), there is no cavity (2) Salamander, Earthworm, Turtle
between the body wall and gut wall. (3) Roundworm, Tongueworm, Honeybee
(4) Lizard, Earthworm, Tongueworm
194. Select the animal that is a living fossil
and have segmented body. 198. What is true about Nereis, Periplaneta
(1) Limulus (2) Bombyx and Apis?
(3) Apteryx (4) Pinctada (1) They all belong to the same phylum
(2) They all have jointed anal style
195. Select the correct statement w.r.t adult (3) They all possess dorsal heart
Porifers. (4) None of them is aquatic
(1) Fertilisation is external with direct
development. 199. How many of the organisms given below
(2) Water enters the body of poriferans in the box are not flightless birds?
via osculum and leaves via ostia. Psittacula, Neophron, Pavo, Columba,
(3) Sponges are hermaphrodite i.e., eggs Apteryx, Aptenodytes, Struthio, Corvus
and sperms are produced by the same (1) Six (2) Four
individual. (3) Three (4) Five
(4) The body is supported by a skeleton
made up of calcium and magnesium 200. All mammals possess following
only. characters except
(1) Mammary glands
196. Read the given statements and select (2) Seven cervical vertebrae
the correct option. (3) Dorsal notochord in embryonic stage
Statement (A): Metagenesis refers to (4) Internal fertilisation
occurrence of drastic change in sponges.
Statement (B): Chitinous exoskeleton is
mainly responsible for diversification of
insects on land.
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are
correct

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