XI - Reshuffling Test - Paper - 2

FIITJEE Reshuffling Test
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

DATE: 06.08.2023 Paper – 2
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 204
▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong
results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section -II is Chemistry and Section -III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section has only one Part: Part - A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
CLASS - XI
provided for rough work.

6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with a blue / black ball point pen for each
character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the
designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Sections.

(i) Part-A (1 – 8) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Part-A (9 – 16) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer(s). Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Part-A (17 – 20) contains 2 Paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 2 Multiple Choice Questions
which have only one correct answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1
mark for wrong answer.
Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________
Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________
Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________
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RESHUFFLING TEST-CLASS-XI-PAPER-2 2
USEFUL DATA
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
Acceleration due to gravity : g = 10 m/s2 −1 −1
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K mol
−34
Planck constant : h = 6.6  10 J − s = 0.0821 Lit atm
−19 −1 −1
Charge of electron : e = 1.6  10 C K mol
Mass of electron : me = 9.1  10
−31
kg
= 1.987  2 Cal
−1 −1
−12 2 2 K mol
Permittivity of free space :  0 = 8.85  10 C /N −m
Avogadro’s Number Na = 6.023  10 23
Density of water :  water 3
= 10 kg / m
3
−34
5 2 Planck’s constant h = 6.625 10 J .s
Atmospheric pressure : Pa = 10 N / m −27
Gas constant : R = 8.314 J = 6.625 10 erg .s
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
K −1 mol −1 1 calorie = 4.2 joule
−27
1 amu = 1.66 10 kg
−19
1 eV = 1.6  10 J
Atomic No: H = 1, He = 2, Li = 3, Be = 4, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Ne = 10, Na = 11,
Mg = 12, Si = 14, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar = 18, K = 19, Ca = 20,
Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Zn = 30, As = 33, Br = 35,
Ag = 47, Sn = 50, I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92.
Atomic masses: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, Be = 9, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23,

Mg = 24, Si = 28, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52,
Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Co= 59, Ni = 58.7, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80,
Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207, U = 238.
Section – I Physics
PART – A
(Only One Correct Type)
This part contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four options (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. When a piece of wire is held diametrically in a screw gauge [ pitch =1 mm , number of division on
circular scale = 100 mm ]. The reading obtained are as shown in the figure.
20
Now if we measure the same with the help of vernier callipers [ 1 MSD = 1 mm, 10 divisions of
vernier coinciding with 9 divisions of main scale ] having negative zero error of 0.5 mm, then find
which of the following figures correctly represents the reading.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
2. The police is chasing a thief and both move on same straight road. After passing a particular
point , their velocity v vary with time t as shown in the figure . When will the police catch the
thief ?
(A) 90 sec (B) 80 sec

(C) 60 sec (D) 120 sec
3. When a person start walking without slipping on a horizontal rough surface. Then on person
(A) Friction acts in the direction of motion.
(B) Friction acts opposite to the direction of motion.
(C) No friction is acting.
(D) None
4. A small metal ball is being pulled gradually on a fixed frictionless hemisphere as shown in the
figure. Radii of ball and that of the pulley are much smaller than that of hemisphere. As the ball
slides from the bottom to a position close to the top of the hemisphere, how do the magnitudes of
the pulling force F and contact force R between the ball and the hemisphere change?
(A) F increases and R decreases.

(B) F decreases and R increases.
(C) F decreases and R remains unchanged.
(D) F remains unchanged and R decreases.
5. Marble A is placed in a hollow tube , and the tube is swung in a horizontal plane causing the
marble to thrown out . As viewed from the top , which of the following choices best describes the
path of the marble after leaving the tube?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
6. The system shown is released from rest in the position shown. Neglecting friction, the normal
force between block A and the ground is.
(A) less than the weight of A plus the weight of B

(B) equal to the weight of A plus the weight of B
(C) greater than the weight of A plus the weight of B
(D) can’t be determined.
7. There is a river of width L and having uniform flow velocity 2V. A man having constant speed V in
still water while he can walk with a constant speed 3V/2 on the ground. The man is at point A and
wants to reach directly opposite point B on the other side of the bank. Find the direction in which
man will jump with respect line AB in order to complete the journey in minimum time?
VR−G
L
2V
1 2
(A) sin  = (B) sin  =
2 3
2 2
(C) sin  = (D) sin  =
5 7
8. Choose the most appropriate statements.

(1) Newton’s first law is a definition of inertial frame.
(2) Newton’s first law is derived from Newton’s second law.
(3) Tension is magnitude of force between two adjacent sections of a body.
(4) In Newton’s third law, action –reaction pair must have same nature (Pulling or Pushing)
(5) ‘ma’ is a force. (where m → mass, a →acceleration)
(6) Earth is an inertial frame.
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 1, 3, 4, 6
(C) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 (D) 1, 3, 4
PART – A
(One or More Than One Correct Type)
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
9. For a curved track of radius R, banked at angle 

(A) a vehicle moving with a speed v0 = Rgtan  is able to negotiate the curve without calling
friction into play at all
(B) a vehicle moving with a any speed v > v0 may able negotiate the curve with frication called
into play
(C) a vehicle moving with any speed v < v0 must also have the force of friction into play
(D) the minimum value of the angle of banking for a vehicle parked on the banked road can stay
there without slipping, is given by  = tan−1 s (  s = coefficient of static friction)
10. Two projectile are thrown at an angle   with horizontal from the top of tower with same speed u
simultaneously at t = 0. They hit the ground at x1 and x2 from bottom of the tower at time t1 and t2
respectively . (Given data : t1 – t2 = 2 sec and x1 – x2 = 20m. g = 10m/s2). Then
(A) u = 5 2 m / s (B) u = 10 2 m / s
(C)  = 30o (D)  = 45o
11. In the shown figure pulleys are ideal and thread is massless. Block are released from rest. Then
(A) The acceleration of 2 kg block is 5 m/s2.

(B) The acceleration of 3 kg block is zero.
(C) Tension in string connected with 2 kg block is 20 N.
(D) Tension in the string connected with 2 kg block is 10 N.
12. The system is released from rest and the acceleration of wedge is ‘a’.
2m
60o
a
(A) The horizontal acceleration of block is a (B) The horizontal acceleration of block is
2
3 5
(C)Tension in string is ma (D) Tension in string is ma
2 2
13. Three particles A,B and C situated at vertices of an equilateral

triangle, all moving with same constant speed such that A always
move towards B. B always towards C and C always towards A. initial
separation between each of the particle is ‘a’ (Take t=0 when the
motion starts). Then
2a
(A) They will meet at the centroid of the triangle at t =
3v
(B) Distance covered by particle A when it completes one revolution around O is
D=
2a
3
(
1 − e−2 3 )
3v
(C) magnitude of average velocity of each particle till they meet is
2
(D) Distance covered by particle A when it completes one revolution around O is
a
(
D = 1 − e−2 3
3
)
14. Consider an infinite mass – pulley system as shown. If

this system is now released then
(A) The acceleration 'a1 ' is g/2
(B) The acceleration 'a1 ' is g/3
3mg
(C) Tension T1 =
2
4mg
(D) Tension T1 =
3
15. The pitch of screw gauge is 1 mm and it’s circular scale is divided into 100 divisions. When
nothing is put between the studs the zero of main scale is not seen but when circular scale is
rotated by 450o the zero of the main scale is just visible and the zero of main scales coincides
with zero of circular scale. When a glass plate is placed between the studs the circular scale lies
between 18th and 19th division of the main scale and circular scale reads 34 divisions. Then
(A) There is negative zero error and it’s magnitude is 1.25 mm.
(B) There is positive zero error and it’s magnitude is 1.25 mm.
(C) Thickness of the glass plate is 19.59 mm.
(D) Thickness of the glass plate is 17.09 mm.
16. At the moment t=0, a stationary particle of mass m experiences a time – depended force
F = at (  − t ) , where a is a constant vector,  is the time during which the given force acts. then
(A) the momentum of the particle when the action of the force discontinued is a3 / 6
(B) the momentum of the particle when the action of the force discontinued is a3 /12
(C) the distance covered by the particle while till the force acted is a4 /12m
(D) the distance covered by the particle while till the force acted is a4 / 6m
PART – A
(Comprehension Type - Only One Correct)
This part contains 2 Paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, there are 2 Multiple Choice Questions.
Each question has four options (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question No. 17 and 18
If block A is pulled by force F in the 2m 4m

figure, assuming the surfaces and the
pulleys P1 and P2 are all smooth and
pulleys and string are light then. P1
A B
F P2
m C
17. Acceleration of block B

F 4F 13F 11F
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7m 21m 42 m 42 m
18. Acceleration of block A

F 4F 13F 11F
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7m 21 m 42m 42m
A stone is dropped from the top of a tower and before it hits the ground another stone is also dropped.
Separation s between the stones is plotted against time t assuming that the stones do not bounce from
the ground. Portions OA and BC of the graph are parabolic, while portion AB is a straight line.
Acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s².
19. Height of the tower is

(A) 25 m (B) 30 m (C) 40 m (D) 45 m
20. When the first stone hits the ground, the second stone was moving with
(A) 10 m/s at a height 40 m. (B) 10 m/s at a height 25 m.
(C) 20 m/s at a height 20 m. (D) 20 m/s at a height 25 m.
Section – II Chemistry
PART – A
1. If the value of (n + l) is not > 3, then the maximum number of the electrons in all the orbitals
would be
(A) 12 (B) 10
(C) 2 (D) 6
2. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom (in the ground state) is x kJ. The energy required for an
electron to jump from 2nd orbit to the 3rd orbit will be
(A) x/6 (B) 5x
(C) 7.2x (D) 5x/36
3. Which is correct statement?

(A) 10 gram molecule hydrogen means 10 moles of H 2.
(B) Second ionisation enthalpy of nitrogen is greater than oxygen.
(C) There are 2 types of P— Cl bond in PF3Cl2 molecule
(D) During the formation of CH4, carbon is in its ground state
4. If each orbital can hold a maximum of three electrons, the number of elements in 9th period of
periodic table (long from) are.
(A) 48 (B) 162
(C) 50 (D) 75
5. The molecular shapes of SF4 , SiF4 and XeF4 are:

(A) the same, with 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively
(B) the same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively
(C) different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pair of electrons respectively
(D) different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pair of electrons respectively
6. When a substance A reacts with water, it produces a combustible gas B and a solution of
substance C in water. D reacts with this solution of C and produces the same gas B on warming.
D can also produce gas B on reaction with dilute H2SO4. A imparts a deep golden yellow colour
to smokeless flame. A, B, C and D respectively are:
(A) Na, H2, NaOH, Zn (B) K, H2, KOH, Al
(C) Ca, H2, Ca(OH)2, Sn (D) CaC2, C2H2, Ca(OH)2, Fe
7. Given that the abundances of isotopes 54Fe, 56Fe and 57Fe are 5%, 90% and 5%, respectively.
The atomic mass of Fe is
(A) 55.85 (B) 55.95
(C) 55.75 (D) 56.75
8. Which of the following has maximum number of atoms?

(A) 24 g of C (Mol. Wt. = 12 g mol–1)
(B) 23 g of Na (Mol. Wt. = 23 g mol–1)
(C) 48 g of S (Mol. Wt. = 32 g mol–1)
(D) 108 g of Ag (Mol. Wt. = 108 g mol–1)
PART – A
9. Going down in II A group, following properties decrease :

(A) solubility of sulphates in H2O (B) hydration energy
(C) thermal stability of carbonates (D) ionic radius in water.
10. Which is/are having zero dipole moment?

(A) PCl3Br2 (B) PF2Cl3
(C) SF4 (D) XeF4
11. Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) F is the most electronegative and Cs is the most electropositive element
(B) The ionization energy of halogens decreases from F to I
(C) The electron affinity of Cl is higher than that of F but their electronegativities are in the reverse
order
(D) The electron affinity of noble gases is almost zero
12. Limitations of octet rule include(s):

(A) Not always applicable for central atom with period number greater than or equal to 3
(B) odd electron species exist
(C) It doesn’t comment about geometry of molecule
(D) Existence of XeF2, XeF4
13. Which of the following d – orbitals is/ are able to form  - bonding with p - orbitals on the
neighbouring atoms?
(A) dx2 − y2 (B) dxy
(C) dyz (D) dz2
14. The process(es) requiring the absorption of energy is/are:

−
(A) O → O → O 2−
2−
(B) O
−
(C) Fe3+ → Fe2+ (D) Ar → Ar
15. In which of the following compound(s) nitrogen exhibits sp3 hybridisation state?
(A) NH3 (B) NO
(C) NH2OH (D) NO2
16. Which of the following solutions have the same concentration?

(A) 20 g of NaOH in 200 mL of solution
(B) 0.5 mol of KCl in 200 mL of solution
(C) 40 g of NaOH in 100 mL of solution
(D) 20 g of KOH in 50 mL of solution
PART – A
Different kind of molecules are available in chemistry, like molecules having single central atom,
molecules having more than one central atom, molecules having odd number of electrons and even if
some molecules do not exist with theoretical support.
17. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) The free electron of ClO3 molecule is not present in the d-orbital of Cl atom
(B) The hybridization of central atom of Cl2CO is sp2
(C) In PCl3F2 axial bonds are longer than eq. bonds
+
(D) The hybridization of NO2 is sp and it is linear in shape
18. The BF3 is a planar molecule where as NF3 is pyramidal because

(A) B-F bond is more polar than N-F bond.
(B) Boron atom is bigger than nitrogen atom.
(C) Nitrogen is more electronegative than boron.
(D) BF3 has no lone pair but NF3 has a lone pair of electrons.
According to the Avogadro’s law, equal number of moles of gases occupies the same volume at identical
condition of temperature and pressure. Even if we have a mixture of non-reacting gases then Avogadro’s
law is still obeyed by assuming mixture as a new gas.
Now let us assume air to consist of 80% by volume of Nitrogen (N2) and 20% by volume of oxygen (O2).
If air is taken at STP then its 1 mole would occupy 22.4 L. 1 mole of air would contain 0.8 mole of N 2 and
0.2 mole of O2 hence the mole fractions of N2 and O2 are given by ,
19. Volume occupied by air at NTP containing exactly 11.2 gm of Nitrogen :

(A) 22.4 L (B) 8.96 L
(C) 11.2 L (D) 2.24 L
20. If air is treated as a solution of O2 and N2 then % W/W of oxygen is :

(A) 100/9 (B) 200/9
(C) 250/9 (D) 350/9
Section – III Mathematics

PART – A
1. If x sina + y sin2a + zsin3a = sin4a

x sinb + y sin2b + zsin3b = sin4b,
x sinc + y sin2c + zsin3c = sin4c.
z y+z z−x
Then the roots of the equation t 3 −   t 2 −  t +   = 0,a,b,c  n, are
2  4   8 
(A) sin a, sin b, sin c (B) cos a, cos b, cos c
(C) sin 2a, cos 2b, cos 2c (D) cos 2a, cos 2b, cos 2c
2 4 6 1 2 4 6 1
2. Suppose cos + cos + cos = − and cos cos cos =− ,
7 7 7 2 7 7 7 8
2  2 2 2 3
then find cosec + cosec + cosec =
7 7 7
(A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 6 (D) 5
4x 2 + x + 4 x2 + 1 31
3. Consider the equation + = , has
x +1
2
x + x +1 6
2
(A) The number of distinct real roots equals to 4

(B) The number of distinct real roots equal to 5
(C) The sum of all distinct real roots of the equation is – 2.
(D) The sum of all distinct real roots of the equation is – 1.
4. If a, b, c  R and a2 + b2 + c2 + 4 = ab + bc + 2c + 2a, then roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 are:

(A) real and distinct (B) real and equal
(C) imaginary (D) none of these
5. Let f ( x ) = −x100 . If f(x) is divided by x2 + x, then the remainder is r(x). Find the value of r(10).
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 5 (D) 6
6. The number of integral values of ‘a’ for which the quadratic equation
x2 + ( a + 19 ) x + 19a + 1 = 0 has integral roots, are:
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
5.2016 + 32017 . + .2018

7. Let , are roots of x2 − 3x + 5 = 0 then value of is
2016 + 2016
(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 15 (D) 5/3
If the equation (| x | +2) − ( 2p − 3 )(| x | +2) − (p − 5 ) = 0 has exactly three distinct real roots then
2
8.
number of value(s) of p is (are):
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) infinite
PART – A
)( ) ( )
2
9. The value(s) of p for which the inequality log p2 +1 3x2 − 2x − p + 6  cos2  1 − 4sin2  − cos2 3
(
is satisfied for all real values of x and  is(are):
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 4 (D) 5
10. Consider f ( x ) = x2 − (b + 1) x + 2 (a − 5 ) where a, b  N. Identify which of the following

statement(s) is (are) correct?
(A) If f(x) = 0 has two distinct real roots for all values of ‘b’, then sum of values of ‘a’ is 15.
(B) If f(x) = 0 has two distinct real roots for all values of ‘b’, then sum of values of ‘a’ is 10.
(C) If f ( −1)  0 for all values of ‘a’ then least value of ‘b’ is 7.
(D) If f ( −1)  0 for all values of ‘a’ then least value of ‘b’ is 6.
1 1
11. Let , are roots of the equation x 2 + px + q = 0, , are roots of x2 + p1x + q1 = 0 and , are
 
roots of x2 + p2 x + q2 = 0. Then find the correct relations.
p
(A) q1q2 = 1 (B) p1 + p2 = ( q + 1)
q
(C) qq2 + p q2 + q = 0
2
(
(D) ( qp1 − qp2 ) = p2 − 4q ( q + 1) ) 2
1
12. The greatest value of the function f ( x ) = on the interval  −2,1 depending on the
2bx − x 4 − 3b2
2
parameter ‘b’ is/are

1 1
(A) − 2 if b  0,2 (B) if b  0,4
3b 4b − 4 − 3b2
1 1
(C) if b  2 (D) − 2 if b  2
8b − 16 − 3b2 3b
13. The equation x4 − 9x3 + 2 (10 − a ) x2 + 9ax + a2 = 0 for x where ‘a’ is real parameter has
25
(A) 4 distinct real roots is a > − 4,a  0. (B) 2 distinct real roots if −  a  −4.
4
25
(C) No real roots if a  − . (D) 3 distinct real roots for 2 values of a.
4
o
15
14. If 4cos36o + cot = n1 + n2 + n3 + n4 + n5 + n6 , then
2
(A) n = 21i (B) ni2 = 91 
(C)  n n = 165
1 2 (D) None of these
n
cos ( 2  3r −1 )
n
cos ( 3  2r −1 )
15. Let S(n) = sin ( 3r  )
r =1
,  = 18 and P(n) = 
r =1cos ( 2r  )
,  = 36 , then
(A) S(2012) + P(2012) = 2010 (B) S(2012) + P(2012) = 2012

(C) P(2011) – S(2011) = 2009 (D) P(2011) – S(2011) = 2008
16. Let 1    2    3 and f ( x ) = ( x +  )( x −  ) + 2 then select the correct option(s):

(A) equation f(x) = 0 has real and distinct roots
(B) Equation 5|f(x)| = 1 has 4 solution
(C) Equation 3|f(x)| = 25 can have 4 solutions
(D) equation f(|x|) = 1 can have 4 solution
PART – A
A line OA of length r starts from its initial position OX and traces an angle AOB =  in the anticlockwise
direction. It then traces back in the clockwise direction an angle BOC = 3 (where   3) . L is the foot
of the perpendicular from C on OA.
sin3  cos3 
= =1
CL OL
1 − r cos 
17. is equal to
r sin 
(A) tan2 (B) cot 2
(C) sin2 (D) cos2
2r sin 
18. is equal to
1 + 2r cos 
(A) tan2  (B) cot 2 
(C) cot 2 (D) tan2
Consider biquadratic equation 81x 4 + 216x 3 + 216x 2 + 96x = 65, whose roots are, a, b, c, d. Given a, b
are real roots and c, d are imaginary roots.
The value of ( a + b ) − ( c + d ) is equal to –

3 3
19.
−128 −64 −142
(A) (B) 0 (C) (D)
3 3 3
The value of c 3 + d 3 − ( a + b ) is equal to –

3
20.
52 53 59 50
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 9 9 9
FIITJEE Reshuffling Test

Class - XI
for IITJEE 2025
(06.08.2023)
PAPER – II
ANSWERS
PHYSICS
PART – A
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. C
5. D 6. A 7. D 8. D
9. ABCD 10. BD 11. BC 12. BD
13. ABC 14. AD 15. AC 16. AC
17. A 18. C 19. D 20. D
CHEMISTRY
PART – A
1. A 2 D 3 A 4 D
5 D 6 A 7. B 8. A
9. ABD 10. BD 11. ABCD 12. ABCD
13. BC 14. ABD 15. AB 16. AB
17. C 18. D 19. C 20. B
MATHEMATICS
PART – A
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. C
5. A 6. C 7. C 8. A
9. BC 10. AC 11. ABCD 12. CD
13. ABD 14. AB 15. AD 16. AB
17. A 18. D 19. B 20. A

XI - Reshuffling Test - Paper - 2

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FIITJEE Reshuffling Test

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 204

provided for rough work.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

C. Marking Scheme For All Sections.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

Atomic masses: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, Be = 9, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23,

(A) 90 sec (B) 80 sec

(A) F increases and R decreases.

(A) less than the weight of A plus the weight of B

8. Choose the most appropriate statements.

9. For a curved track of radius R, banked at angle 

(A) The acceleration of 2 kg block is 5 m/s2.

13. Three particles A,B and C situated at vertices of an equilateral

14. Consider an infinite mass – pulley system as shown. If

Paragraph for Question No. 17 and 18

If block A is pulled by force F in the 2m 4m

17. Acceleration of block B

18. Acceleration of block A

Paragraph for Question No. 19 and 20

19. Height of the tower is

3. Which is correct statement?

5. The molecular shapes of SF4 , SiF4 and XeF4 are:

8. Which of the following has maximum number of atoms?

9. Going down in II A group, following properties decrease :

10. Which is/are having zero dipole moment?

11. Which of the following statements are correct?

12. Limitations of octet rule include(s):

14. The process(es) requiring the absorption of energy is/are:

16. Which of the following solutions have the same concentration?

Paragraph for Question No. 17 and 18

17. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

18. The BF3 is a planar molecule where as NF3 is pyramidal because

Paragraph for Question No. 19 and 20

19. Volume occupied by air at NTP containing exactly 11.2 gm of Nitrogen :

20. If air is treated as a solution of O2 and N2 then % W/W of oxygen is :

Section – III Mathematics

1. If x sina + y sin2a + zsin3a = sin4a

(A) The number of distinct real roots equals to 4

4. If a, b, c  R and a2 + b2 + c2 + 4 = ab + bc + 2c + 2a, then roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 are:

5.2016 + 32017 . + .2018

10. Consider f ( x ) = x2 − (b + 1) x + 2 (a − 5 ) where a, b  N. Identify which of the following

parameter ‘b’ is/are

(A) S(2012) + P(2012) = 2010 (B) S(2012) + P(2012) = 2012

16. Let 1    2    3 and f ( x ) = ( x +  )( x −  ) + 2 then select the correct option(s):

Paragraph for Question No. 17 and 18

Paragraph for Question No. 19 and 20

The value of ( a + b ) − ( c + d ) is equal to –

The value of c 3 + d 3 − ( a + b ) is equal to –

FIITJEE Reshuffling Test

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Batch :__ Date of Examination :_