NSSCH Examiners Report 2020

REPUBLIC OF NAMIBIA
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, ARTS AND CULTURE
DIRECTORATE OF NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS AND ASSESSMENT
REPORT ON THE EXAMINATIONS
NSSCH
OCTOBER/NOVEMBER 2020
CONTENTS
ACCOUNTING
Paper 8335/1.................................................................................................................................................................... 3
Paper 8335/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 10
AFRIKAANS SECOND LANGUAGE

Paper 8314/1 Reading and Directed Writing.................................................................................................................. 19
Paper 8314/2 Continuous Writing................................................................................................................................... 21
Paper 8314/3 Literature.................................................................................................................................................. 24
Paper 8314/4 Speaking.................................................................................................................................................. 27
ART AND DESIGN

Paper 8345/1&2............................................................................................................................................................. 29
BIOLOGY
Paper 8321/1.................................................................................................................................................................. 31
Paper 8321/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 35
Paper 8321/3 Practical Test............................................................................................................................................ 43
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 8336/1.................................................................................................................................................................. 47
Paper 8336/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 53
COMPUTER STUDIES
Paper 8324/1.................................................................................................................................................................. 59
Paper 8324/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 67
DESIGN AND TECHOLOGY

Paper 8340/1 Written...................................................................................................................................................... 71
Paper 8340/2 Design...................................................................................................................................................... 74
Paper 8340/3 Coursework.............................................................................................................................................. 75
ECONOMICS
Paper 8337/1 Essay questions....................................................................................................................................... 79
Paper 8337/2 Data response......................................................................................................................................... 86
ENGLISH SECOND LANGUAGE

Paper 8315/1 Reading and Directed Writing.................................................................................................................. 91
Paper 8315/2 Continuous Writing................................................................................................................................. 101
Paper 8315/3 Literature................................................................................................................................................ 104
Paper 8315/4 Speaking................................................................................................................................................ 106
FIRST LANGUAGE AFRIKAANS

Paper 8301/1 Reading and Directed Writing................................................................................................................ 107
Paper 8301/3 Literature.................................................................................................................................................111
Paper 8301/4 Speaking................................................................................................................................................ 113
FIRST LANGUAGE ENGLISH

Paper 8302/4 Speaking................................................................................................................................................ 122
FIRST LANGUAGE GERMAN

Paper 8303/4 Speaking................................................................................................................................................ 127
NSSCH Examiners Report 2020

1
FIRST LANGUAGE OSHIKWANYAMA
Paper 8304/4 Speaking................................................................................................................................................ 137
FIRST LANGUAGE OSHINDONGA

Paper 8305/4 Speaking................................................................................................................................................ 148
FIRST LANGUAGE RUKWANGALI

Paper 8306/4 Speaking................................................................................................................................................ 156
FIRST LANGUAGE SILOZI

Paper 8307/4 Speaking................................................................................................................................................ 166
FOREIGN LANGUAGE GERMAN

Paper 8317/3 Speaking................................................................................................................................................ 171
GEOGRAPHY
Paper 8330/1................................................................................................................................................................ 173
Paper 8330/2................................................................................................................................................................ 182
Paper 8330/3................................................................................................................................................................ 195
HISTORY
Paper 8331/1 International Relations........................................................................................................................... 199
Paper 8331/2 Depth Studies........................................................................................................................................ 209
MATHEMATICS
Paper 8323/1................................................................................................................................................................ 223
Paper 8323/2................................................................................................................................................................ 229
PHYSICAL SCIENCE
Paper 8322/1................................................................................................................................................................ 239
Paper 8322/2................................................................................................................................................................ 245
Paper 8322/3 Practical Test.......................................................................................................................................... 253

2
ACCOUNTING
8335
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
The candidates could answer most of the paper, but membership fees account and suspense account were answered
poorly.
Very poor handwriting was common. The markers could not always read the handwriting.
Many abbreviations were still used. These will NOT be marked.
Corrections of answers were messy and markers could sometimes not see the amounts.
Some questions (membership and suspense) were misinterpreted.
COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS
1 (a) (i) Poorly answered. Candidates could not do the income account or calculate the entrance fee amounts.
Answer
Entrance Fees
N$ N$
Accumulated fund (1) 1 060 (1) Bank 2 650 (1)
Income & Expenditure (1) 1 590 (1)
2 650 2 650
[5]
(ii) Candidates who did the trading account in vertical format did well, but the candidates who did a
T-account struggled to name the correct contra accounts.
Answer
Club Badges
Trading Account for the year ended 2019
N$ N$
Sales 3 120 (1)
Less Cost of sales 2 300
Opening Stock (Inventory) 800 (1)
Add Purchases 2 000 (1)
2 800
Less Closing Stock (Inventory) 500 (1)
Gross Profit 820
OR
Club Badges
Trading Account for the year ended 2019
N$ N$
Opening Stock (Inventory) 800 (1) Sales 3 120 (1)
Purchases 2 000 (1) Closing Stock (Inventory) 500 (1)
Profit and Loss (Gross Profit) 820
3 620 3 620
[4]

3
(iii) Dates were a big problem. The opening dates must be on 1 January 2019 and not on 31
December 2018, as many candidates indicated.
New members' subscriptions were already included in the amount for Bank, N$30 210. Many
candidates did not calculate bad debts.
Most of the candidates did not know that they had to calculate the income and expenditure accounts by
using the number of members at the year end.
Accrued income on 31 December 2019 was then the balancing figure.
Answer
Membership Fees Account
N$ N$
2019 2019
Jan 1 Balance b/d 720 (1) Jan 1 Balance b/d 1 200 (1)
Bank
Dec 31 Income and Expenditure (1) Dec 31 (480 (1) + 30 210 (1) +
(29 760 (1) + 4 770 (1)) 34 530 480 (1)) 31 170
Balance (Income received
in advance) 480 (1) Bad debts 240 (1)
Balance (Accrued
Income) 3 120 (1)
35 730 35 730
2020
Jan 1 Balance b/d 4 200
[11]
(b) Fairly answered although a lot of candidates could not make the correct decision according to their
membership account. Answer could be yes or no depending on the learner's membership account.
If the learner's accrued income at the end was high, he should have answered no (with reasons). If
the accrued income was low, learner had to choose the yes option (with the appropriate reasons).
Answer
Depends on the answer of the candidate.
The treasurer is not satisfied. (1)

Membership fees received in advance the previous year were more than the accrued fees. (1)
In the current year, however, the outstanding fees are much more than the fees received in advance. (1)
The number of bad debts can increase due to accrued membership fees.(1)
Arrears have increased.(1)
Number of members in arrears have increased from 6 to 26.(1)
OR
The treasurer is satisfied. (1)
53 more members joined and all of them paid. (1)
Most of the accrued members of 2018 paid this year. (1)
Some members have already paid in advance for next year. (1)
Accrued income did increase from last year but there are more members.(1) Any four [4]

4
2 Fairly answered. Biggest mistake was that the candidates did not indicate income and expenses and
whether they increased or decreased. For example, no.1 paper expenses decreased.
Answer
No Assets Owner’s equity Liabilities

Effect Reason Effect Reason Effect Reason
1. + 660 (1) Prepaid expense +660 (1) Stationery - expense 0
increase (1) decrease(1)
2. 0 -2 000 (1) Rent Received - +2 000 (1) Income received
income decrease (1) in advance increased
Provision for
3. - 200 (1) - 200 (1) Profit and Loss - 0
doubtful debts expenses increased
increased (1) (1)
[12]
3 (a) Fairly answered. Some candidates struggled to calculate the amounts for debtors.
On the payments side many candidates did not calculate the monthly salaries, operating expenses and
directors' fees! Interest on loan was also badly calculated.
Biggest concern was the number of candidates that included bad debts and depreciation, which are non-
monetary items, under payments.
Answer
JULY AUGUST SEPTEMBER
RECEIPTS N$ N$ N$
Sales 30 800 (1) 30 800 (1) 28 000 (1)
Debtors 17 640 (1) 16 170 (1) 16 170 (1)
22 680 (1) 30 240 (1) 27 720 (1)
Tax refund 3 100 (1)
Share Capital 2 000 (1)
Share Premium 1 000 (1)
71 120 80 310 74 890
PAYMENTS
Creditors 47 880 (1) 43 890 (1) 43 890 (1)
Salaries 12 300 (2) 13 530 (2) 18 040 (2)
Dividends 8 000 (1)
Operating Expenses 4 750 4 750 4 750 (1)
Interest on Loan 500 500 (1) 250 (2)
Loan 20 000 (1)
Directors’ Fees 2 000 2 000 2 000 (1)
67 430 72 670 88 930
Net Receipts/Payments 3 690 7 640 (14 040)

Bank balance b/d 3 942 (1) 7 632 15 272
Bank balance c/d 7 632 15 272 1 232 (1)
[30]

5
(b) Answered satisfactory.
Answer
Arrange for overdraft facilities
Re-phase expenses
Sell surplus fixed (non-current) assets
Reduce/decrease debtors’ collection period
Prolong/increase creditors’ payment period
Issue more shares
Obtain a loan Any four [4]
4 (a) Opening balance must also be on 30 September.

Almost all the candidates left out the cancellation of Davy Supplies' cheque and new cheque which was
presented for payment.
Answer
Cash Book of Sepeng Dealers – September 2020
N$ N$
30 Bad debts recovered 600 (1) 30 Balance b/d 3 266 (1)
Bank charges
Davy Supplies 500 (1) (57 + 11 (1) + 38 (1)) 106
Balance c/d 3 748 Interest on overdraft 116 (1)
Insurance 700 (1)
J. Oduro (R/D) 160 (1)
Davy Supplies 500 (1)
4 848 4 848
2020
Oct 1 Balance b/d 3 748 (1)
[10]
(b) Fairly well answered. The candidates who chose the debit, credit columns presentation generally
scored more marks.
Answer
Sepeng Dealers
Bank Reconciliation Statement at 30 September 2020
Debit Credit
N$ N$
Credit Balance according to Cash Book 3 748 (1)
Debit unpresented Cheques No 262 4 920 (1)
No 264 346 (1)
No 265 500 (1)
Credit outstanding deposits 2 500 (1)
Debit Balance according to the Bank Statement 482 (1)
6 248 6 248
OR
Sepeng Dealers
Bank Reconciliation Statement at 30 September 2020
Debit Credit
N$ N$
(Credit) Balance according to Cash Book 3 748 (1)
Add outstanding deposits 2 500 (1)
6 248
Less unpresented cheques No 262 4 920 (1)
No 264 346 (1)
No 265 500 (1)
Debit Balance according to the Bank Statement 482 (1)
[6]
6
(c) Candidates did not read that it only involved the bank reconciliation statement, but it was fairly well
answered.
Answer
- Reconcile the differences between the business’ records and the bank records to
- Deterring fraud
- Ensure that there is an accurate figure for bank in the balance sheet
- Check for errors made by the bank
- Check for errors in the cash book
- Identify “stale” cheques
- Record unpresented cheques
- Record outstanding deposits Any four [4]
5 (a) Was answered very well. A few candidates combined the two and then lost all the marks because in
these cases a wrong format was used.
Answer
Tele Tale Manufacturers
Manufacturing, Trading and Profit and Loss account
for the year ended 31 August 2020
Cost of raw materials consumed N$ N$ N$
Opening stock of raw materials 17 500 (1)
Add Purchases of raw materials (200 300 - 1 650) 198 650 (2)
Add Carriage inwards of raw materials 2 450 (1) 218 600
Less Closing stock of raw materials 21 000 (1) 197 600 (1)
Add Direct costs
Direct factory wages 25 000 (1)
Prime cost 222 600
Add Factory overhead expenses 49 700
Indirect factory wages 14 555 (1)
Motor expenses (7 800 x ⅔ ) 5 200 (1)
Rent and rates (12 500 + 1 000 x 80 %) 10 800 (1)
General factory expenses 4 110 (1)
Repairs 1 035 (1)
Factory cleaning materials 2 500 (1)
Depreciation (7 500(1) + 4 000 (1)) 11 500
272 300
Add Work in progress (1 September 2019) 4 750 (1)
277 050
Less Work in progress (31 August 2020) 8 150 (1)
Production cost of completed goods 268 900
Sales (424 500 (1) – 2 900 (1)) 421 600
Less Cost of sales 321 650
Opening stock of finished goods 10 000 (1)
Add Purchases of finished goods 55 000 (1)
Add Production cost of completed goods 268 900 (1) 333 900
Less Closing stock of finished goods 12 250 (1)
Gross Profit 99 950
Add Other Income 2 550
Interest on fixed deposit 1 750 (1)
Interest Received 800 (1)
Gross Income 102 500
Less Other expenses 23 665
Discount Allowed 2 890 (1)
Salaries and wages 10 460 (1)

7
Motor expenses (7 800 x ⅓) 2 600 (1)
Rent and rates (12 500 + 1 000 (1) x 20 % (1)) 2 700
General Administrative expenses 1 095 (1)
Bad Debts 420 (1)
Depreciation 3 500 (1) 234 652
Net Profit 78 835
[3]
(b) Very well answered.

Answer
Accrual/Matching (1)
Income of one year is matched against the expenses of the same financial year irrespective of the date of
payment. (1)
The accrued rent will be added to the rent and rates expense account. (1) [3]
6 (a) Fairly well answered although some candidates chose the wrong account to be debited or credited.
Answer
Steward Traders
General Journal – September 2020
Debit Credit
N$ N$
30 Frenzy Traders 3 780 (1)
Rent expense 3 780 (1)
P. Newman 270 (1)

Bank/Cash 270 (2)
R. Tsumkwe 1 220 (1)

Suspense 1 220 (2)
P. Sedric 1 290 (1)

Returns outwards 1 290 (1)
S. Stewards 735 (1)

Crew Stationers 735 (1)
Suspense 2 700 (1)

D. Fallen 2 700 (2)
Bank 3 500 (2)

Water 1 750 (1)
Suspense 1 750 (1)
OR
Bank 3 500 (2)
Suspense 3 500
Suspense 1 750 (1)
Bank 1 750 (1)
[19]

8
(b) Very badly answered. Only a few candidates read the instructions correctly to see that they had to
calculate the opening balance in order for the suspense account to balance.
Answer
Suspense Account
N$ N$
2020 Difference per Trial 2020
Sep 30 Balance b/d 270 (2) Sep 30 R Tsumkwe 1 220 (1)
D Fallen 2 700 (1) Bank 1 750 (1)
2 970 2 970
[5]
POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS
Keep up the good work, especially with the new AS syllabus.
We could see that candidates were taught well because most of the formats and accounts were good and they knew
the content of the syllabus.

9
8335
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
Teachers are thanked for emphasising the importance of dates – the use of dates has improved markedly. The names
of contra accounts, layouts of the Income Statement and Balance Sheets for different types of businesses, etc. must be
emphasised. It is important that teachers ensure that the entire syllabus is taught. It is obvious that some topics are
not covered sufficiently well.
Teachers are requested to train candidates to read with understanding, focusing especially on the requirements of
questions, i.e. ‘what is the question asking us to do?’ Emphasise that candidates must read the entire instruction, as
many only answer the first part of the question.
It remains a concern that too many candidates continue to opt for the incorrect level in Accounting. Teachers should
advise each candidate to choose a level suited to the his/her achievement of success in this subject.
1 (a) Answered well. Candidates who did not score well did not realise that the question required that the
disadvantages of a partnership be taken into account. Profit sharing was not a disadvantage as
shareholders also share in profits.
Answers
- The partners have unlimited liability for the debts of the business
- A partnership has less access to capital than a company
- Decisions in a partnership have to be made by the partners as compared to a board of directors or in an
AGM
- There is more potential for disputes between partners than between shareholders
- The legal existence of a partnership ends with the death of any partner whereas a company has a
continuing legal existence if a shareholder dies
- Limited in size
- Losses are shared
- 2 – 20 partners, company unlimited Any three [3]
(b) The appropriation account was answered fairly well. However, candidates struggled with the
calculation of the interest on capital of Rose (80 000 x 15%) + (275 000 x 15% x 6/12).
Candidates continue to provide Aliens – the main aliens being Drawings and Capital.
Candidates loss of the own figure marks due to Aliens. Salaries needed to be given for 12 months.
Answer
Flower Stores
Appropriation account for the year ended 28 February 2020
N$ N$ N$
Profit and Loss 98 250 (1)
Salaries
Rose (2 250 x 12) 27 000 (1)
Dalia (1 750 x 12) 21 000 (1) 48 000
Interest on Capitals
Rose (12 000 (1) + 20 625 (1)) 32 625
Dalia 6 750 (1) 39 375 87 375
10 875
Profit Share
Rose (66,7%) 7 250 (2) O/F
Dalia (33,3%) 3 625 (2) O/F
[10]

10
(c) Answered fairly well. Some candidates mixed up the debit balance of Rose and the credit balance of
Dalia. Candidates are reminded that in a ledger account the correct names of the accounts must be
provided, i.e. Appropriation and not ‘share of profits’. Candidates forfeited marks due to incorrect dates.
Answer
Current Account
Date Details Rose Dalia Date Details Rose Dalia
N$ N$ N$ N$
2019 2019
Mar 1 Mar 1 Balance 3 165 (1)
2020 2020
Balance 27 770 (1)
Feb 28 Feb 28 Salaries 27 000 (1) 21 000 (1)
Drawings
(31 900 (1) - Interest on
1 750 (1)) 30 150 29 000 (1) Capital 32 625 (1) O/F 6 750 (1) O/F
Balance c/d 8 955 5 540 Appropriation 7 250 (1) O/F 3 625 (1)
66 875 34 540 66 875 34 540
Mar 1 Balance 8 955 (1) O/F 5 540 (1) O/F
-3 for dates: 2019, Mar 1 (1)

2020, Feb 28 (1)
2020, Mar 1 (1) [13]
(d) Answered poorly. Candidates were expected to choose a method that was more beneficial.
Some candidates did not specify which method was more beneficial and simply gave the
features of each type of capital account.
To critically analyse this question, candidates were expected to comment on the opening debit balance of
Rose’s current account which in the end became a credit, mainly due to the interest earned on her capital.
They should have commented on the effect of excessive drawings which would eventually lead to a debit
balance on the fluctuating capital account.
Answer
Combination of fixed and fluctuating
- At the beginning of the financial year Rose had a debit balance on her current account which
may have been due to high amounts of drawings and/or low profits.(1)
- Based on this result Rose’s interest on capital would be less when maintaining fluctuating
accounts (1) and therefore it would have been beneficial to maintain fixed capital accounts.(1)
- However, at the current year’s results Rose had a credit balance on her current account which
may have been due to lower amounts of drawings than the previous year and/or higher
profits.(1) If the current year’s result continues in the same vein, the interest on capital
which she will receive would be greater in a fluctuating capital account.(1) It is thus more
beneficial for Rose to maintain fluctuating capital accounts.(1)
Only fixed
- It is always preferable to have fixed capital accounts (with separate amounts).
- To prevent capital balances of becoming negative (dr.)
Rose earns interest of capital of N$32 625 or N$53 250 as from next year.
- Especially due to excessive drawings.
- Her capital is N$80 000 + 275 000 which would earn 15% (53 250) (1) interest each year. (1)
- Current account can have a negative balance.
To measure her returns. [6]
2 Calculations
Furniture and Equipment
N$ N$
Balance b/d 104 000 Asset Disposal 24 000
MM Dealers 30 000 Balance c/d 110 000
134 000 134 000

11
Asset Disposal
N$ N$
Furniture and Equipment 24 000 Provision for Depreciation 7 200
Profit and Loss 2 200 Cash 19 000
26 200 26 200
Provision for Depreciation

N$ N$
Disposals 7 200 Balance b/d 19 200
Balance c/d 33 400 Depreciation 21 400
40 600 40 600
Old
1 Oct 2008 – 31 March 2009 24 000 × 0,2 × 6/12 = 2 400
Rest 1 Oct 2008 – 30 Sept 2009 80 000 × 0,2 = 16 000
New 1 Apr 2009 – 30 Sept 2009 30 000 × 0,2 × 6/12 = 3 000
21 400
(a) Fairly answered.

However, the calculations were often incorrect:
• Rent Income represented 13 months: N$15 600 / 13 = N$1 200 received in advance
• Provision for doubtful debts was poorly calculated.
Debtors N$20 700 - N$600 = N$20 100 x 8% = N$1 680 – the opening balance of N$720 = N$880
increase, thus it increases the expenses
• Interest received on loan to member: N$32 000 x 12% x 9/12 = N$2 880
N$40 000 x 12% x 3/12 = N$1 200 = N$4 080
• Profit on sale:
Cost Price N$24 000 minus Depreciation to date of sale N$7 200 = Book Value N$16 800 =
N$2 200 profit
• Depreciation: N$104 000 x 20% x 6/12 = N$10 400
N$110 000 x 20% x 6/12 = N$11 000 = N$21 400
• Total Distribution to members must be included in the Income Statement, i.e.
N$32 000 + N$76 000 = N$108 000
Answer
Animal Planet CC
Profit and Loss and Appropriation Account
for the year ended 30 September 2020
N$ N$
Gross Profit 410 600 (1)
Add Other Income 35 940
Rent Income (15 600 – 1 200) 14 400 (1)
Bad debts recovered (3 26 0– 460) 2 800 (1)
Commission Received (9 600 + 2 400) 12 000 (1)
Interest Received on loan to member (1 200 (1) + 2 880 (1)) 4 080
Discount Received 460 (1)
Profit on sale of asset (24 000– 7 200 (1) – 19 000 (1)) 2 200
Gross Income 446 540
Less Expense 147008
Interest on loan from member 3 000 (1)
Wages and salaries 52 000 (1)
Rates 5 800 (1)

12
Bad debts (1 400+ 600) 2 000 (1)
Sundry Expenses (49 760 (1) – 3 000 (1)) 46 760
Service rendered 7 000 (1)
Interest on loan: Jungle Bank (48 000 x 17/100) 8 160 (1)
Provision for doubtful debts (1 608 – 720 (1)) 888
Depreciation* (2 400 (1) + 16 000 (1) + 3 000 (1)) 21 400
Net Profit before tax 299 532
Income tax (50%) 149 766 (1)
Net profit after tax 149 766
Add Retained Profit 6 960 (1)
156726
Less Distribution to members (32 000 (1) + 76 000 (1)) 108 000
Retained Profit c/d 48726
* 104 000 x 20% x 6/12= 10 400 (1)
110 000 x 20% x 6/12 = 11 000 (1)
21 400 (1) [25]
(b) Fairly answered. It is unacceptable that Higher Level candidates mix up Current Assets and Current
Liabilities. The amount owed to the Receiver of Revenue is N$149 766 (dr) – N$120 200 (cr) = N$29 566
Answer
Animal Planet CC
Balance Sheet (Statement of Financial Position) Extract
as at 30 September 2020
N$ N$
CAPITAL EMPLOYED
Owners’ Equity
Members Contribution (76 000 + 7 000) 83 000 (1)
Retained Profit 48 726 (1) O/F
131 726
Current Liabilities 198 746 (1)
Creditors (56 820 (1) + 27 000 (1))
Accrued Expenses 83 820
Distribution payable to members 8 160 (1)
Receiver of Revenue (149 766 (1) – 120 200 (1)) 76 000 (1)
Income Received in advance 29 566
1 200 (1)
[10]
(c) Answered well. Candidates who did not fare well failed to compare and only provided answers for
one type of business.
Answer
Sole Trader Close Corporation
One owner (1) One to ten owners (1)
Can lose personal possessions if bankrupt (1) Limited liability (1)
Risk and reward goes to owner (1) Share risk and reward by members (1)
Supply own capital and skills (1) Share capital and skills (1)
Lacks continuity (1) Has continuity (1)
Nobody to cover during illness and holidays (1) Can cover illness and holidays (1)

13
Only one supply expertise and skills (1) More supplying expertise and skills (1)
Decision-making easy (1) Decision-making more difficult (1)
All profit belongs to owner (1) Profit shared (1)

Any three comparisons x 2 [6]
3 (a) Poorly answered. Candidates are encouraged to do the Receiver of Revenue account as their calculation.
Answer
Receiver of Revenue (Income Tax)
N$ N$
Bank 23 000 (2) Balance b/d 5 000
Balance c/d 2 000 Appropriate Account 20 000
25 000 25 000
OR (20 000 + 5 000 (1)) – 2 000 (1) = 23 000 [2]
(b) Very poorly answered. Again, candidates would have scored better and earned more marks if
they had done a Fixed Assets Account. Very few included the N$16 000.
Answer
Fixed Assets
N$ N$
Balance b/d 220 000 Depreciation 16 000
Bank 108 000 (3) Disposal 2 000
Balance c/d 310 000
328 000 328 000
OR (310 000 – 220 000 (1)) + 2 000 (1) + 16 000 (1) = 108 000 [3]
(c) (i) Answered well.

(ii) Answered well.
(iii) Answered well but many did not give the final answer as x times.
(iv) Poorly answered. Candidates did not compare 2019 and 2020. It is expected of Higher Level
candidates to know that if two consecutive years are provided that a comparison is required.
Answers
(i) Current Assets : Current Liabilities
100 000 : 68 000 (1)
1,47 : 1 (1) [2]
(ii) 40 000 : 68 000 (1)

0,59 : 1 (1) [2]
Cost of Sales
(iii)
Average Stock
380 000
55 000 (1)
6,91 times (1) [2]

14
(iv) - Current ratio increased from 0,7 to 1,47. This shows that the company managed their
working capital better. A 2 : 1 ratio can be satisfactory (1)
- Acid test ratio also improved from 0,3 to 0,59. Short term liquidity (more available cash). A
ratio of 1 : 1 can be satisfactory (1)
- Stock turn from 5 times to 6,19 times. Stock moves faster which indicates higher returns (1)
- Improvement but not satisfactory (1)

- Overdraft is much reduced but still significant
- Creditors (trade payables) are greater than debtors (trade receivables)
- No funds available to pay debts and expenses
- Business is very reliant on debtors (trade receivables) paying up but in fact debtors (trade
receivables) are increasing and so may not be collected as efficiently as before
- Creditors (trade payables) are increasing exponentially
- Sell fixed assets
Only maximum (3) for not comparing [6]
(d) (i) and (ii) Poorly answered. These are calculations and it was evident that the formulas were
not studied.
Answers
42 000
(i) x 100%
342 000 (1)
= 12,28% (1) (1 mark for comments on ratio changes and 1 for reason) [2]
720
(ii)
169 (1)
= 4,26 times (1) [2]
4 (a) Fairly answered. However, candidates felt that stock increased, whereas it decreased.
Answers
(i) - If assets are valued too high or too low
- Eveline will share in profits and losses she did not help to generate
- The current market value of stock (inventory) could be less than the original cost price due to stock
(inventory) that is no longer usable or recorded at a different method
- Avoid undercasting gross profit – prudence; damaged/shop soiled – increase in value
Any two [2]
(ii) - Buildings appreciate in value, therefore the current market value will be more than the
original cost price (historical cost)
- The realistic valuation price will be taken by Eveline/ prudence realistic value [2]
(b) Well answered. Some candidates lost marks due to incorrect dates.
Answer
Purchase of business account
Date Details Amount Date Details Amount
N$ N$
2019 Creditors (Trade 2019
250 000 (1)
March 1 payables) 10 000 (1) March 1 Buildings
Chris Traders 1 000 000 (1) Vehicles 135 000 (1)
Stock (Inventory) 40 000 (1)
Debtors (Trade
35 000 (1)
receivables)
Goodwill 550 000 (1)
1 010 000 1 010 000
[7]

15
Chris Traders account
Date Details Amount Date Details Amount
N$ N$
2019 2019
Loan: Oshakati Bank
March 1 1000 000 (1) March 1 Purchase of business 1 000 000 (1)
1 000 000 1 000 000
[2]
(c) Well answered. Candidates failed to include the Goodwill in the Balance Sheet and some entered
Goodwill under Current Assets. Goodwill is under Non-Current Assets.
Answer
Eveline
Balance Sheet (Statement of Financial Position)
as at 1 March 2019
N$ N$ N$
Fixed assets 550 000 (1) O/F
Goodwill 600 000
Buildings (350 000 (1) + 250 000 (1)) 560 000
Vehicles (425 000 (1) + 135 000 (1)) 185 000 (1)
Equipment 1 895 000
655 000
Working capital
Current assets 735 000
Stock (Inventory) (111 500 (1) + 40 000 (1)) 151 500
Debtors (Trade receivables)
(98 500(1) + 35 000 (1)) 133 500
Bank 450 000 (1)
Less: Current liabilities 80 000
Creditors (Trade payables)
(70 000 (1) + 10 000 (1)) 80 000
2 550 000
Financed by
Capital 1 550 000
Long-term liability 1 000 000

Loan: Oshakati Bank 1 000 000 (1)
2 550 000
[14]
(d) Fairly answered

(i) Goodwill is paid for as it will help to generate profits. Candidates misinterpreted the question and
incorrectly explained the going concern concept.
(ii) These examples of ‘good reputation’, ‘good location’, etc., were often provided under (i) above.
Students are advised to read questions more thoroughly.
Answer
Where Goodwill exists it enables the earning of greater profits than would normally be expected. (2)
Reasons for Goodwill: - location of business
- quality of products and services
- reputation
- regular customers
- contacts with suppliers
- brand names
Accept any other valid reasons Any two x 2 [6]

16
5 The entire question was poorly answered. Candidates did not read with understanding.
(a) The number of hours was often given as dollars and candidates did not know how to calculate this.
Answer
Sesriem: N$120 ÷ 10 = 12 hours per table (1)

Usakos: N$150 ÷ 10 = 15 hours per table (1) [2]
(b) Many did not know that Selling Price minus Variable Costs = Contribution. Furthermore, this had to
be calculated for each type of table.
Answer
Sesriem Usakos
N$ N$
Selling price per unit 700 520
Less Variable cost per unit 363 340
Contribution per unit 337 (1) 180 (1)
[2]
(c) (i) Poorly answered, but those who could manage (b) above, presented good answers.
(ii) Fairly answered. Students did not calculate the contribution per labour hour of the Sesriem table,
i.e. Contribution / number of labour hours to make one Sesriem table.
Answers
(i) The business should prioritise production of the table with the higher contribution per labour
hour. [1]
(ii) Sesriem (1) as the contribution per labour hour is N$28,08 (337 ÷ 12) (1)
rather than N$12 (180 ÷ 15) (1)
Has a higher selling price
Uses fewer hours per unit [3]
(d) Very poorly answered.

It was expected of candidates to re-allocate the 18 000 labour hours between Sesriem and Usakos. As the
contribution of Sesriem is higher (N$337) all units of Sesriem must first be
produced. Sesriem utilises 12 000 labour hours (1 000 units of Sesriem x 12 hours each).
The remaining 6000 hours (18 000 – 12 000) can be allocated to Usakos, thus producing 400 Usakos tables,
i.e. 6 000 hours / 15 hours. The demand of 800 Usakos tables will not be met, thus the other 400 Usakos
tables can be purchased to meet the demand of customers.
Answer
- Produce all 1 000 units of Sesriem as variable cost of 363 is lower than 480
- 18 000 hours – (1 000 of Sesriem x 12 hours each) = 12 000
- 18 000 – 12 000 Sesriem hours = 6 000 hours remaining
- 6 000 hours (for Usakos) ÷ 15 hours = 400 units of Usakos
- Can buy up the extra 400 from supplier @ N$440 each. Contribution is still made i.e. N$440 – N$340
(variable cost) = N$100
- Fixed cost would already be covered in production
- Demand of customers will be met (will not lose customers to other suppliers)
- Since Sesriem is being prioritised the business can produce all that is necessary (1) and the
variable cost of production is less than the buy in price.(1)
- Only 6 000 labour hours will be available to produce Usakos tables (1) and there will be a shortfall in
production of 400 units.(1) Purchasing Usakos tables at N$440 would still give a positive contribution (1)
and although the buy in cost will lead to a loss per unit (1) the fixed cost will have to be paid as well as
the purchase cost. (1)
- Buying in would allow for the demand to be met (1) and avoid the danger of customers going elsewhere
and there being a loss in customer goodwill. (1)
Any five points [5]

17
(e) Well answered – those who did not score well with this question did not know the definitions.
Answer
Marginal costing
The cost of producing one additional (extra) item (1) i.e. only the variable cost
Absorption costing
All costs associated with the manufacturing of a product that must be paid irrespective of the level of the
production (1)
Direct and indirect
Total cost of producing [2]
(f) Poorly answered – those who did not score well in this question did not know the formulae. Because
the manufacturing utilised more machine hours, this department needed to absorb overheads based
on the machine hour rate.
Answer
(i) Machine hour rate (1) because this division is more machine intensive/uses more machine hours than
labour hours (1) [2]
(ii) Labour hour rate (1) because this division is more labour intensive/uses more labour hours than
machine hours (1) [2]
(g) Poorly answered – those who managed (f) above, were able to answer this question.
Answer
Manufacturing
680 000
40 000 (1)
= N$17 (1) [2]
Branding
120 000
30 000 (1)
= N$4 (1) [2]
My suggestions are the same as for last year. The work of candidates, in general, was presented neatly, however, there
were some candidates whose the handwriting was very difficult to read. Very few candidates are scratching out. It is
evident that at some centres a generous amount of revision had been covered.
During this unprecedented and unusual Covid-19 year, many schools found the challenges onerous. Many candidates
did not have the required devices and internet to manage online learning (as well as some teachers). If we were to
experience similar impacts in future, I would suggest that teachers provide candidates with the external question papers,
as well as the answers, so that they can revise on their own. The Namcol revision books are available with these
questions and answers. However, insufficient books were available this year. With revision during face-to-face learning,
it is imperative that teachers do the exercises with the candidates, as a revision lesson, summarizing the main points. It
is a suggestion that teachers avail themselves to candidates during their study break (before the commencement of the
external examination) to assist candidates with questions that might arise as the candidate revises.

18
AFRIKAANS AS A SECOND LANGUAGE
8314
Paper 1
ALGEMENE KOMMENTAAR
Kandidate het goed gepresteer in hierdie vraestel. Baie leerders is op die regte vlak ingeskryf hoewel daar tog nog
sentrums is wat verkies om alle kandidate op Hoër Vlak in te skryf terwyl sommige kandidate duidelik eerder op die
gewone vlak ingeskryf behoort te wees, te oordeel aan growwe taal, spelfoute en swak woordeskat wat by van die
kandidate voorkom.
Baie kandidate skryf lang dele uit paragrawe of selfs die hele paragraaf neer met die hoop dat antwoorde daarin sal
voorkom.
Dit is belangrik dat die verslag van die eksaminatore bestudeer word en verkeerde formate en stelswyses onder die
kandidate se aandag gebring word om foute wat gereeld gemaak word uit te skakel.
Kommentaar op individuele vrae:
AFDELING 1
1 Die vraag is goed beantwoord en die meeste kandidate het vol punte vir die vraag behaal.
2 Goed beantwoord.
3 Meestal goed beantwoord. Meeste kandidate het by die woord limiet gehou, maar die getal woorde wat
hulle gebruik het, is nie elke neergeskryf nie. Baie kandidate het egter ook net die paragraaf waarin die
antwoord voorkom, neergeskryf.
4 Baie goed beantwoord. Omtrent alle kandidate het die vraag korrek beantwoord.
5 Meeste kandidate kon die twee middels met mekaar vergelyk. Sommige kandidate het egter nie ’n
vergelyking getref nie en slegs neergeskryf waarvoor kompos in tuine aangewend word.
AFDELING 2
Vrae 6 – 11
Die meerkeusige vrae is oor die algemeen goed beantwoord. Baie kandidate het 4-6 punte hier behaal en niemand het
geen punte behaal nie.
12 Die vraag is redelik swak beantwoord. Kandidate kon nie die toepaslikheid van die titel bespreek nie.
13 Die vraag is goed beantwoord. Kandidate kon die antwoord net uit die teks lig.
14 Die vraag is nie goed beantwoord nie. Kandidate het die woord voorkom(verhoed/keer) met
voorkoms(simptome- die fisiese eienskappe van malaria) met mekaar verwar. Baie het dus die
simptome daarvan bespreek.
15 Die vraag is swak beantwoord. Paragrawe of groot gedeeltes daarvan is weereens direk uit die leesstuk
neergeskryf as bewys dat die skrywer haar boodskap suksesvol oorgedra het.

19
Afdeling C
Vraag 16
Oor die algemeen is die Vriendskaplike/Informele brief en Dagboekinskrywing redelik goed beantwoord. Daar is egter
kandidate wat die volgende foute begaan het:
(a) Kandidate ken nie vorm van die vriendskaplike/informele brief en dagboekinskrywing nie.
(b) Kandidate skryf adresse in engels by die informele brief.
(c) Min of geen eie insette/voorstelle/regstellende aksies word verskaf om dit wat hy / sy verbrou het reg
te maak nie.
(d) Herhalend en onvanpaste idiome.
(e) Baie swak en lomp sinstrukture.
ALGEMENE PROBLEME
Kandidate maak hul steeds skuldig aan:
• Die verkeerde gebruik van die betreklike voornaamwoord
• Verkeerde woordorde/Sinskonstruksie
• verkeerde gebruik van die voorsetsel
• verkeerde gebruik van voegwoorde
• verkeerde lettergreepverdeling aan die einde van ’n sin
• foutiewelike gebruik van die trappe van vergelyking
• foutiewelike gebruik van skryftekens en leestekens
• dubbele ontkenning
• te lang sinne
• direkte vertaling uit Engels
Hierdie foute is reeds aangespreek in die 2019 verslag en moet asseblief met kandidate behandel word.
Spelfoute wat deurgaans voorgekom het:

krises -krisis
ontmidelik -onmiddellik
ontmoontlik -onmoontlik
ontwaar -onwaar
ontwettig -onwettig
veranwoordlik -verantwoordelik
Namibia -Namibië
soo -so
waardeur jou vriendskap -waardeer jou vriendskap
kompetiesie -kompetisie
nogsteeds -nog steeds
tooivel -twyfel
van -want
litres -liters
title -titel
middles -middels
maaklik -maklik
bekkomerd -bekommerd
werêld -wêreld
tiepies -tipies
dagliks -daagliks
voorentoe -vorentoe
poliesie -polisie
staadig -stadig
virminder -verminder
hartseerlik -hartseer
proebeer -probeer
gevoelings -gevoelens
Onderrig die vorm van verskillende skryfstukke en evalueer dit totdat die kandidate dit bemeester het.
Baie dankie aan onderwysers wat toegesien het dat hulle kandidate goed voorbereid was en vir u harde, onbaatsugtige
werk.
20
8314
Paper 2
Die moeite wat eksaminatore die afgelope tydperk ingesit het met die kurrikulum wat nou ten einde loop, word baie
waardeer. Daar is baie inligting wat met die 2020 verslag deurgegee word wat steeds uiters toepaslik is vir die nuwe
kurrikulum.
Die beplanning van skryfstukke is uiters belangrik. Kandidate moet gemotiveer word nie slegs gedurende die jaar in
die klasopset beplannings van skryfstukke te doen nie, maar ook gedurende die eksamen. Die beplanning moet op ŉ
aparte bladsy gedoen word en so ook die skryfstuk. Om die skryfstuk te skryf en dan weer net so oor te skryf, dien geen
doel nie. Daar is steeds sentrums waar geen beplanning gedoen word nie.
Daar moet baie meer aandag gegee word aan die skryf van opstelle en dit moet ook deel vorm van die sentrums se
interne eksaminering. Kandidate wat min of geen skryfstukke tussen graad 10 en 12 skryf, nie ervaar die skryfproses
as ŉ enorme uitdaging.
Daar is steeds kandidate by vele sentrums wat nie ŉ inleiding en ŉ slot skryf nie. Dit is tog kardinaal om die skryfstuk
tot ŉ eenheid te bind, hetsy dit ŉ verhalende, beskrywende, beredenerende of watter skryfstuk ook al is. Kandidate
moet asseblief ook die hele onderwerp neerskryf en onderstreep. Sodoende dwaal hulle nie van die onderwerp af nie.
Die korrekte aantal woorde moet ook aangedui word;
Bespreking van onderwerpe:
Die eerste onderwerp, “Die gebruik van verbode middels op sportgebied moet gewettig word. Stem jy saam?”, is
redelik goed beantwoord. Kandidate moet egter reeds in die inleiding standpunt inneem en dit dan motiveer in die
daaropvolgende paragrawe. Sommige kandidate het oor die voordele en nadele van verbode middels geskryf. Dit
maak die skryfstuk nie baie oortuigend nie.
Die tweede onderwerp, “ŉ Geheim in Ouma se dagboek”, was baie gewild. Oor die algemeen het kandidate die
onderwerp goed beantwoord. Daar was wel kandidate wie se aanloop tot die tema veels te lank was. Van die skryfstukke
was ook baie onrealisties.
Die derde onderwerp, “Die bewaring van ons waterhulpbronne is in die hande van die jeug. Bespreek”, was minder
gewild. Kandidate het nie regtig gefokus op die rol wat die jeug speel nie en eerder geskryf oor hoe water bewaar moet
word. Daar is ook meer gefokus op die gebruike van water.
Die vierde onderwerp, “Almal moet soms moeilike besluite neem. Vertel van ŉ moeilike besluit wat jy moes neem en
hoe dit jou lewe beïnvloed het, was ook baie gewild. Baie goeie skryfstukke het hier voorgekom. Van die kandidate se
aanloop tot die besluitneming was soms te lank en hulle het dan ook nie gefokus op die invloed wat die besluit op hulle
lewe gehad het nie. Baie kandidate het nie gefokus op hulle huidige omstandighede nie en situasies in die toekoms
geskep.
Die vyfde onderwerp waarin die woorde: “Ons maak oogkontak … en ek WEET – ek gaan dié dag nooit vergeet
nie, was ook baie gewild. Die onderwerp het baie goeie skryfstukke opgelewer. Daar was wel kandidate by wie die
aanhaling nie regtig by die tema aangesluit het nie.
Die sesde onderwerp, “Wat? Afrikaans aan die uitsterf? Dit sal die dag wees! Wat is jou mening van die onderwerp?”,
was minder gewild. Die kandidate wat wel daaroor geskryf het, het nie baie oortuigend geskryf nie. Die onderwerp is
meer oor die algemeen en oppervlakkig hanteer en daar is min op feite gekonsentreer.
Algemene Foute
Verwys asseblief na die verslag van 2019 waarop algemene foute uiteengesit is. Dit was oor die algemeen
dieselfde foute wat kandidate gemaak het.
Let ook op die volgende:
Leestekens word of verkeerdelik of glad nie gebruik nie.

Kandidate begin sinne met:” Maar….” of “ En…”
Hulle is ook onseker oor die gebruik van te: tekort, tevrede, maar te doen, te loop

21
Voornaamwoorde moet onderrig word asook die gebruik daarvan in sinne byvoorbeeld: …..en hoe hard ek vir dit
(daarvoor) gewerk het, …alles was nie net oor dit (daaroor) nie. Ek sit te veel boeke in dit (daarin).
Verlede tydsvorm word nie korrek gebruik nie, byvoorbeeld: Hy was soos my broer gewees teenoor: Hy was soos my
broer.
Toe ek met hoërskool begin het wou ek teruggegaan het netbal toe, teenoor: Toe ek met hoërskool begin, wou ek
teruggaan netbal toe.
Kortliks daarna, teenoor… kort daarna
Op die een kant, teenoor … Aan die een kant.

Ek was siek gewees, teenoor: Ek was siek.
Dit het gemaak laat ek in die koerant was, teenoor …Dit het veroorsaak dat ek in die koerant beland het.
Eerstens mens kan, teenoor … Eerstens kan ŉ mens…
Ons vernietig ons wêreld deur om ons omgewing te beskadig, teenoor … Ons vernietig ons wêreld deur ons omgewing
te beskadig.
…met anders te kommunikeer, teenoor .. met ander te kommunikeer.
…uit die deur geloop, teenoor … by die deur uitgeloop.

…al minder en minder, teenoor … verminder
Dit vat my asem weg, teenoor … Dit slaan my asem weg.

My broer is van ŉ kar gestamp, teenoor … My broer is deur ŉ kar gestamp.
…mekaar af te bring, teenoor … mekaar af te kraak

Dit gaan nie goed uitdraai nie, teenoor … Dit gaan nie goed eindig nie.
…part van die wêreld, teenoor,… deel van …
Nog algemene foute:

Meer belangrik, teenoor … belangriker
afgesterf teenoor gesterf

ses jaar terug teenoor ses jaar gelede
faktoor, teenoor … faktor

direksie, teenoor … rigting
Ek loop al vir vyf jare teenoor ek loop al vir vyf jaar

dit raak net meer en meer teenoor vermeerder
meer interessant teenoor interessanter

Dis hoekom ek hier bly teenoor Dit is hoekom ek hier bly.
gemeente teenoor gemeenskap

Laastens werkloosheid is, teenoor: Werkloosheid is laastens…..
… platforms is vry, teenoor … gratis

opad, teenoor …op pad
dagliks, teenoor … daagliks

staad, teenoor … stad
tiepe, teenoor … tipe

nogsteeds, teenoor … nog steeds
besluiting, teenoor besluit

gevoelings, teenoor gevoelens

22
part van my lewe, teenoor deel van my lewe
ondou teenoor onthou

gebesluit, teenoor besluit
dit het my in skok gesit, teenoor ek was geskok

myself geniet, teenoor die aand geniet
rerig, teenoor regtig

Ek het met my ouma gebly, teenoor: Ek het by my ouma gebly.
In die aande, teenoor saans
Woordelys
sonsondergang
fisies
styg (op)
vir ewig (en altyd)

bereik (jou doelwit)
verewig (ontsterflik maak/ ewig laat voortleef)

spandeer
sport (wat jy beoefen bv. Rugby)

spyt (kom altyd te laat)
proses
onmoontlik
onsmaaklik
huis toe
op pad
tipe, tipies
waardeer (wat jy vir my doen)

waardeur (jy gaan)
sommige

23
8314
Paper 3
Letterkunde
Vanjaar was voorwaar ’n uiters uitdagende jaar om letterkunde te onderrig. Dis nogal ’n vak waar die persoonlike kontak
en aangesigonderrig noodsaaklik is. Vanjaar moes ons almal allerhande ander tegnieke en trieks gebruik om die vak
met behulp van die lug en elektronika te onderrig. Soms het dit soos ’n groot lugleegte gevoel waardeur jy moes breek.
As ek na die standaard van die vraestelle kyk, het u weer eens met vlieënde vaandels geslaag daarin. Kandidate het
duidelik die vrae beantwoord en het deurlopend ’n duidelike begrip van die tekste en die literêre tegnieke gehad.
Baie dankie vir die ure tyd, die denkkrag, die kreatiwiteit en die moeite wat hierin gegaan het. Mag u die vrug op die
arbeid op baie maniere pluk en diep dankbaar voel oor al die insette wat u dikwels onder moeilike omstandighede
gelewer het.
Administrasie
• Ten spyte van die groot druk tydens eksaminering, is die administrasie deeglik gedoen.
• Veel minder dokumente het ontbreek.
• Dankie vir die moeite wat met interne moderering in die meeste sentrums gedoen is.
• U word aan die volgende belangrike prosedure herinner:
• Haal asseblief die tien skrifte uit van die kandidate wie se mondeling u instuur as steekproef. Dit is nog dikwels
nagelaat.
• Die skrifte en mondeling van die laagste en hoogste kandidate moet deel vorm van die steekproef.
• Die steekproef moet verteenwoordigend wees van die hele spektrum van punte.
• Merk die name van die kandidate met ’n asterisk op die opsommingslys waarop u die name en punte inskryf.
[Written Work Assessment Form].
• U moet die vlakgebaseerde nasienskema gebruik vir die nasienwerk.
• By elke vraag wat u nasien, moet u die vlak aandui.
• Die punt van elke vraag moet onderaan en bo-aan die vraag verskyn.
• Dui die som van die totale op die eerste wit bladsy aan.
• U moet ook die totaal oordra op die blou voorblad.
• Maak u handtekening volledig by die punt.
• Let op dat die gedigantwoord in die vervolg slegs uit 10 sal tel. Moenie hier met halfpunte werk nie. Daar sal geen
verwerkte punt van 20 na 10 wees nie.
Algemene opmerkings oor die kandidate se beantwoording
Wat u onder die aandag van die kandidate kan bring:

• Ek herhaal wat verlede jaar gesê is, want baie kandidate is steeds geneig om eerder die storie te vertel as om ’n
literêre opstel te skryf:
• Kandidate het vanjaar grootliks hulle antwoorde DUIDELIK genommer. Baie dankie.
• Die kandidate voer ook die opdrag uit. Baie dankie daarvoor.
• Kandidate moet asseblief die vrae DEEGLIK lees.
• Vermy niksseggende omslagtige inleidings wat niks met die beantwoording van die vraag te doen het nie.
• Reageer onmiddellik op die vraag en beantwoord van die tweede paragraaf af die vraag.
• Skryf ’n duidelike inleiding wat op die vraag reageer. Gee daarna aandag aan elke kolpunt. Elke kolpunt dra ewe
veel waarde.
• Kandidate kan nie die vraag beantwoord sonder om ooit na die kernwoorde van elke vraag te verwys nie.
• Gebruik aanhalings om stellings te staaf. Die oomblik as kandidate dit begin doen, word veel minder storie vertel
en baie duideliker geredeneer en gepoog om die vraag te beantwoord.
• Sorg dat die antwoord gefokus is en gebruik so dikwels as moontlik die kernterme van die vraag om te wys hoe jy
besig is om die vraag te beantwoord.
• Eindig met samevattende slot wat gevolgtrekkings bevat op grond van bewyse en redenasies.
• Daar is ’n verskil tussen die kontekstuele- en langvraag: Die antwoord van die kontekstuele vraag moet die
afgedrukte teks as uitgangspunt gebruik. Eers nadat die relevante dele uit die teks bespreek is, word daar wyer
met die teks gewerk.
• By die kontekstuele vraag moet ewe veel aandag aan elkeen van die kolpunte gegee word.
• Daar is steeds kandidate wat nie paragrawe gebruik nie. Elke antwoord is ’n opstel.
• Geen subopskrifte word gebruik in ’n opstel nie.
• Kandidate wat in notavorm skryf, word baie kwaai gepenaliseer.
• Geen kolpunte word gevolglik toegelaat nie.

24
Spesifieke vrae:
1 “Plaaskind” (kontekstuele vraag)

Gebruik die uittreksel intensief. Elke kolpunt het ewe veel gewig gedra. Kandidate moet in hulle bespreking
gelykwaardige aandag gee aan elke kolpunt. Fokus die bespreking daarop om die opdrag in die kolpunt
te beantwoord. Haal uit die uittreksel aan om stellings te motiveer. Die karakter van die verkoopsman moes
indringend bespreek word. Daarna is die karakter van die erfgenaam soos die in die uittreksel voorkom, bespreek
word in duidelike kontras met die van die verkoopsman. Moenie die storie oorvertel nie. Beredeneer die saak van
die opdrag. Dis belangrik om te weet wat ironie is en om dit so uitgebreid as moontlik te bespreek en deeglik te
verduidelik
2 “Werksmanne van Slovoville” (Langvraag)

Die vraag het gefokus op die geslaagdheid van die verhaal na aanleiding van die uitbeelding van die verskillende
karakters. Die verhaal is geslaagd omdat die karakteruitbeelding bydra tot die tema of boodskap van die verhaal.
Dit was daarom belangrik om uit te wys hoe die verskillende karakters bygedra het tot die samewerking om die
gemeenskap te help ontwikkel. Die ironie is juis dat karakters wat net so arm is en nie saamwerk nie, maar steel
en moor, die ganse gemeenskap ondermyn.
3 Siener: Giel se karakter, Tjokkie se houding oor sien, die moeilikheidsmotief in die uittreksel en die afloop
daarvan. (kontekstuele vraag)
Ewe veel aandag moet aan elkeen van die kolpunte gegee word. Werk by hierdie kontekstuele vraag indringend
met die stof in die uittreksel en sluit daarby aan. Daar was genoeg in die teks, soos blyk uit die memorandum.
Kandidate moenie in die algemeen antwoord nie. Antwoorde moet gefokus wees op dit wat in die vraag gevra
word. Allerlei ander inligting oor Giel se karakter uit die voorafgedeelte van die drama is nie nodig nie. Bespreek
Giel se optrede soos aangebied in die uittreksel. Daar was genoeg inligting. Daar was ook genoeg oor Tjokkie
se ervaring van die sien. Die moeilikheidsmotief moet nie in die algemeen bespreek word nie, maar veral Giel se
moeilikheid en Tjokkie se moeilikheid. Dui dan aan watter effek hulle twee se moeilikheid op die afloop van die
drama het.
4 Siener: Misbruikmotief
Die fokus van hierdie vraag was op die misbruik in die drama. Kandidate kan dan nie lukraak alles wat hulle
weet, saamflans in ’n antwoord nie. Bespreek slegs die moeilikheidsmotief soos dit na vore kom by die verskillende
karakters. Let wel dat Ma nooit wou hê Tjokkie moes oor oorlede Pa sien nie. Hy is al meer as 20 jaar weg en die
kans dat hy sal terugkom, is hoogs onwaarskynlik. Ma verlang ook nie meer na oorlede Pa nie. Tiemie het ook
nooit vir Tjokkie gevra om te sien nie. Sy wil nie weet wie se kind dit is nie en ook nie Jakes nie. Jakes wil weet
of Tiemie wel swanger is. Eers na die sientoneel besef Jakes dat daar verdere moontlikhede is. Verder moet dan
aangedui word watter effek die moeilikhede op die drama in geheel het.
5 “Straatkind” (kontekstuele vraag)

Lees weer eens die vraag volledig en beantwoord die vraag. Watter literêre tegnieke word gebruik om die
verskillende karakters uit te beeld. Die straatkind is nie honger nie, want dit staan nie in die teks nie. Bly by die
teks en wat dit beteken. Sommige karakters aksentueer die problematiek van die straatkind, naamlik dat mense
oor hulle kyk en nie simpatie het nie. Die uitbeelding van die spreker en die anderkarakters kontrasteer
Kandidate moenie net metafore uitwys nie, maar dit deeglik verduidelik en aandui wat die funksie daarvan in
die gedig is. Dit kom wel voor asof die meeste kandidate die gedig goed verstaan, al behandel hulle nie alle
komponente in hulle antwoorde nie.
6 “My siel, Pa” (langvraag)

By die bespreking van ’n geslaagde gedig, is die relevansie van die inhoud nie ’n goeie motivering vir geslaagdheid
nie. Dis nie ’n goeie gedig omdat dit wat daarin gesê word, waar is nie. Dis ’n doeltreffende gedig omdat die soort
aanbieding, leestekens, rym en kontras wat gebruik word, goed werk om die boodskap oor te dra. Kandidate moet
nie net die leestekens uitwys en die rym benoem nie. Die belangrikste deel van die antwoord is die bespreking
van die funksie daarvan.
Te veel kandidate konsentreer op die parafrasering van die gedig en verduidelik nie hoe die leestekens, rym en
herhaling saamwerk om die boodskap van die gedig doeltreffend oor te dra nie. Die boodskap het met die kontras
tussen die pa en die seun te doen.
Dis duidelik dat die kandidate wel die gedig toeganklik vind en verstaan. Hulle kon daarmee identifiseer en die
relevansie van die teks vir vandag aandui.

25
Algemene opmerkings
Onderwysers slaag uitmuntend daarin om die letterkunde op ’n al hoe hoër standaard te onderrig. Weinig kandidate het
net die stories vertel. Dit blyk duidelik dat daar goeie onderrig gegee word.
Baie dankie vir al die harde werk en die moeite wat met die onderrig van die vak gepaard gaan.
Vrede.

26
8314
Paper 4
Mondeling
Vanjaar is waarskynlik die laaste jaar wat u die kursus in die skool aangebied het. Mag alles wat u hieruit geleer het u
rugsteun in die volgende tyd van skoolhou met die nuwe sillabus.
Uit die jare vanaf 2013 waarin die kursus aangebied is, was dit opvallend hoe u ontwikkel het in die afneem van die
mondelinge eksamen. Baie dankie aan alle eksaminators wat getrou hulle verslae gelees het en daaraan gewerk het
om ’n beter taak te verrig.
Ons is diep dankbaar oor die kwaliteit mense wat die vak aanbied. Ons besef hoeveel harde werk hierin gegaan het.
Mag die vrug van u ekstra myle en die besondere verhoudings wat u met die leerders het lank vrug dra vir die mense
van ons mooi land.
Administrasie
• Dankie vir die pligsgetroue moeite met die voorbereiding vir die eksamen.
• Dankie vir die organisasie van die mondelingtye en mondelingplekke. Ons weet dit het sy eie uitdagings.
• Dankie vir goeie opnames.
• Die meeste sentrums se opnames was gerangskik volgens die kandidaatnommers.
• Die voorskrifte is meestal getrou nagevolg.
• Buiten by een sentrum, kon ons alle CD’s oopmaak en was die aanbieding korrek gedoen.
• Daar was nog verskeie sentrums waar die relevante kandidate nie met ’n asterisk op die Summary Oral assessment
form gemerk was nie.
• Hierdie kandidate se vraestelle moet ook uit die pak gehaal word en bo-op geplaas word.
• Merk ook die name van die kandidate op die Written Work Assessment Form met ’n asterisk.
Ons herhaal die belangrikste riglyne vir die eksaminering met enkele byvoegings. Indien u dit getrou volg, skep
u die bes moontlike situasie vir die kandidate om maksimaal volgens hulle vermoë te presteer.
Voorbereiding
• Die voorbereiding vir die eksamen begin met die manier waarop die verskillende tekste in die klas onderrig word.
• Die leerders moet goed bekend wees met die detail-inhoud van die verskillende tekste. Daarsonder kan vrae nie
beantwoord word nie.
• Die leerders moet in staat wees om die inhoud in verband met die verskillende literêre terme te bring. Die vak
word op Hoër Graad geskryf. Dit impliseer ’n proses van abstraksie en toepassing. (Terme soos karakterisering,
herhaling, spanning, humor, ironie, rym, titel, simboliek, ruimte ...)
• Kandidate se skrifte word dan volgens die vlakgebaseerde skema nagesien.
• Die mondelinge eksamenvrae word gevra na aanleiding van elke individuele kandidaat se eksamenantwoorde in
die vraestel.
• U is welkom om die antwoordstelle te kopieer voordat dit nagesien word. Gee die antwoordstelle saam met die
vraestelle terug aan die kandidate. Hulle moet voorberei vir die eksamen.
• U behoort vir elke kandidaat vrae op te stel. Baseer dit op sy/haar geskrewe antwoorde.
• U kan nie net die vrae van die eksamenvraestel aan al die kandidate herhaal nie.
• Die kandidaat moet die kans kry om te motiveer waarom hy/sy sekere stellings in die antwoordstel gemaak het.
• Kandidate moet ook die kans kry om te verbeter op die antwoordstel.
• Hanteer asseblief elke kandidaat as individu.
• Die doel is om ’n diepte van die bespreking van die literêre tekste te bereik.
• Blote herhaling van detailinhoud kan nie hoë punte verdien nie.
• Waak asseblief teen die gee van onrealistiese hoë punte.
• Al die kandidate in ’n doodgewone sentrum kan nie A’s kry nie.
• Daar mag soms ’n uitsondering in enkele sentrums wees.
• Ons standardiseer punte in vergelyking met ander sentrums.
• Onrealistiese hoë punte lei tot die afmerk van die hele sentrum.

27
Vraagstelling
• By die vraagstelling herhaal ons weer die riglyne van vorige jare.
• Baie eksaminatore hou steeds nie daarby nie.
• Begin asseblief met die opwarmingsessie. Die idee is om enersyds die kandidate op hulle gemak te stel en
andersyds om die kandidaat aan die moderator bekend te stel.
• Sorg asseblief dat die opwarmingsessie nie onnodig lank aangaan en ander tyd opgebruik nie.
• Hou die opwarmingsessie by twee minute.
• Moet asseblief nie aan alle kandidate dieselfde vrae stel nie. Differensieer asseblief.
• Vra asseblief een enkele vraag op ’n slag. Kandidate raak verward as u te veel vrae gelyktydig vra.
• Moenie verduidelik nie.
• Geen antwoorde mag gegee word nie.
• Moenie kandidate begelei om die regte antwoord te gee nie.
• U gee ook geen aanduiding of die antwoord korrek of verkeerd is nie.
• Onthou asseblief dat dit nie u mondelingsessie is nie. Ons wil die kandidate so veel as moontlik hoor praat en nie
vir u nie.
• Sommige eksaminatore praat steeds te veel.
• Vra oop vrae wat die kandidaat so veel as moontlik tyd gee om te antwoord en te praat.
• Vermy vrae met kort antwoorde of enkelwoord-antwoorde.
• Moet asseblief nie die vrae op die vraestel herhaal nie. Vra vrae wat met die kandidate se eie werk verband hou.
• Vrae oor en name van skrywers of digters is onvanpas. Werk met die tekste.
• MOENIE die kandidate se antwoorde korrigeer of verbeter nie. Gaan asseblief net aan na die volgende vraag as u
dink hulle het verkeerd geantwoord.
• Kandidate mag geen notas na die mondelinge eksamen bring nie.
• Kandidate wat hulle antwoorde aflees, word baie streng gepenaliseer. Dit kan duidelik op die opname
gehoor word.
• Moet asseblief nie die 15 minute oorskry nie. Die mondeling kan selfs korter wees as die vrae flink gevra word en
die kandidate genoegsaam praat en antwoord.
Baie dankie vir die aanbieding van ’n kursus wat baie ontwikkel het. Ons kan ook sien hoe u in u aanbieding ontwikkel
het en hoe die standaard stelselmatig gestyg het.
Onthou altyd dat letterkunde die leerders se lewe verryk, dit ’n baie aangename manier is om taal en woordeskat aan
te leer en dat dit van kinders meer afgeronde mense met groter diepte maak. As die vak goed onderrig word, kan
kandidate baie goed in die komponent van taal presteer, wat weer ’n positiewe ervaring by die kandidate skep oor die
vak.
Hou aan om die kinders se lewe te verryk deur self goeie literêre tekste te kies en op ander terreine van u vakaanbieding
te gebruik tot voordeel en ontwikkeling van die leerders voor u.
Baie sterkte vir die jaar wat voorlê se harde werk.
Vrede.

28
ART AND DESIGN
8345
Paper 1 & 2
GENERAL REPORT
In addition to this general report, each centre will receive a centre-specific report for Paper 1 and Paper 2 (combined).
Five centres entered candidates for the 2020 NSSC Art and Design Higher Level examination. In total, 27 candidates
enrolled in the examination, 3 fewer entries than last year. A satisfactory level was achieved by these centres.
Administration
Congratulations to all the teachers concerned on their good administration this year. All the relevant lists and forms
were included with the submissions.
Compilation and presentation of work
All final outcomes were labelled as such and were firmly attached to the supporting work – thank you!
All works were securely glued to the preparatory pages and few became dislodged.
All soft chalk mediums, charcoal and pencil work was sprayed and covered appropriately and little smudging occurred.
Thank you.
Work submitted
Our thanks go to centres for adhering to the maximum number.
Preparatory work should be arranged to show the experimentation and development towards the final (best) piece.
For Paper 2, all the preparatory work should focus on one specific theme or topic. If the approach has been to submit
several sub-finals, the topic or theme should not be different to that of the final.
Please ensure that the inspirational artists and techniques are researched with understanding and care. Birthdates,
country of origin, media and technique/style should be appropriate and supportive of their own work. Candidates are
requested to provide some short written descriptions of their thought processes and experiences and to avoid providing
the definitions of terms found in a dictionary. Although not prescribed, candidates may be able to improve the personal
aspect of their work by reflecting their community and culture in some way.
Some comments on AO1

Only one case of irregularity marred the high standard of this year.
It was pleasing to note that nearly all candidates initiated ideas from primary sources and their own photographs. Where
internet sources are used, learners are encouraged to credit these to the original photographer or website (not Google
or Pinterest which are search engines).
Some comments on AO2
Many centres have encouraged their learners to document and explain the development of their themes towards a
final. This is relevant to both Painting and Related Media submissions, and to Photography. It should be applied to
Observational and, in particular, to Interpretative work. Practical experimentation should be accompanied by clear, brief
explanations, eventually culminating in the final. An inclusion of their interpretation can be useful to clarify their concept
to the examiners.
Coursework development should take place as a whole, and should not be divided into diverse sections with a ‘semi-
final’ at the end of each one. Greater cohesion and a more general flow of ideas towards the final are certainly beneficial.

29
Photography
Candidates are encouraged to include more photographic evidence of the exploration involved in achieving their
larger choices. As with Painting and Related Media, experimentation should be documented along with some brief
explanations of the candidates thinking process. The final should be supported by the relevant research which is
included in their preparatory work.
Where manipulations are involved, intentions and processes need to be explained in point form to increase the
understanding of the viewer. Screenshots provided as evidence are most beneficial. Where candidates create their
own manipulations, only their own photography may be used.
Comments on sections, papers and media use
The most popular questions were “The Traveller” and “A Hiding Place”. These were developed in an observational and
interpretative manner. It was pleasing to note that three candidates submitted questions from Section C (the ‘design’
section) this year.
The Coursework similarly contained either observational or interpretative themes, or a mixture of the two.
Media use was more experimental this year. Some candidates opted to use thread, oil paint, collages and various other
versions of mixed media. For the most part these choices were successful.
The understanding of what is required under each assessment objective continues to improve and the general standard
of work has been pleasing.
As mentioned previously, studentartguide.com is an immensely useful website. It showcases Cambridge art students’
work and discusses components of art syllabi. It also contains useful references to other web pages.
Teachers are advised to explore this site with their learners.
The guidance and inspiration given by the teachers to their learners is commendable. We look forward to future
submissions reflecting the candidates’ interest, skill and personal vision in this creative subject. Thank you all!

30
BIOLOGY
8321
Paper 1
Comments on individual questions
1 (a) Candidates only had to give the structural differences of bacteria, but many gave structural
characteristics of animal cells.
Answers
1 – no true nucleus/ DNA/ genetic material not surrounded by nuclear membrane/ DNA floating in
cytoplasm;
2 – no membrane bound organelles example mitochondria (have to mention an example to obtain the mark);
3 – has a cell wall;
4 – has smaller ribosomes than animal cells
5 – some bacteria have flagella, animal cells don’t
(b) Log and lag phases have been switched around in many cases. Many candidates took the graph as
indicating enzyme activity, explaining that phase D was the optimum enzyme activity and phase E
showed the phase where enzymes were denatured.
Answers
(i) A – lag phase;
B – log / exponential phase;
(ii) phase D:
food/water/nutrient sources become limited/ increased competition for
food/water/nutrients;
living space becomes limited;
environment/flask has reached its carrying capacity for the population; max [2]
phase E:
build up of toxins/ CO2 leads to death of bacteria;
food/ water/ nutrient sources used up/ lack of/ decreasing NOT less
Oxygen used up/ conditions inside flask are anaerobic;
2 The majority of candidates could identify the genus. Most candidates did not give contrasting features of
either annelids or nematode. Some candidates thought bristles are legs used for walking. Few candidates
were able to state ‘why’ mitosis and meiosis happen, others explained ‘what’ mitosis and meiosis are.
Although most candidates scored at least one mark at (c)(i), many could not measure accurately. Some
candidates lost marks because they could not use the tally method correctly.
Most candidates scored at least three marks for the histogram, however they should be able to scale on both axis,
using only the available grid and not extend it.
Labels of axis where also switched around and plotting was not done accurately.
Re-writing Caenorhabditis was done recklessly by a number of candidates.
Answers
(a) (i) Caenorhabditis; [1]
(ii) annelids are segmented worms, nematodes do not have body segments;
annelids have chaetae, nematodes do not;
(b) P – to form gametes/sex cells/sperm and egg;

Q – for growth of the zygote/ genetic stability
(Two identical daughter cells - not enough)
(c) (i) missing values: (± 1mm)

10.4 (10.3 – 10.5)
11.1 (11.0 – 11.2)
10.0 (9.9 – 10.1)
12.5 (12.4 – 12.6)
7.6 (7.5 – 7.7)

31
(ii)
(iii) Graph:
Ax – label of x-axis; (length + cm + scale)
Ay – label of y-axis; (frequency + scale)
B – all bars equal width;
P – correct plotting of heights of bars;
S – no space between bars;
(space next to y-axis allowed)
3 Many candidates knew the correct term is peristalsis; however the spelling remains a problem. Many
candidates wrote ‘peristalysis’, which could not be accepted as ‘lysis’ is a term in Biology which cannot be
attached to this term.
The process of digestion of various nutrients seems to be challenging to many learners. They find it difficult to
differentiate between amino acids and fatty acids. There seems to be limited understanding of the sequence of
events as food moves through the digestive system.
Many candidates thought that all nutrients are absorbed into the bloodstream and it starts in the duodenum,
causing the decreasing amount of fatty acids in the ileum.
Candidates do not seem to realise that pepsin is not the protease that works in the duodenum but trypsin
is. Furthermore, it is important to mention in the answer that protein is broken down to polypeptides and
polypeptides to amino acids. No marks were awarded for 'to amino acids'.
There was confusion about the site of absorption for each products of digestion
Answers
(a) peristalsis;
(b) (i) 1 - presence of bile;

2 - emulsifies fats into fat droplets;
3 - to increase the surface are for enzymes to attach to;
MAX 1 for mark point 1 - 3
4 - fats/lipids are digested by the enzyme lipase;
5 -lipase found in pancreatic juice and succus entericus;
(ii) absorbed;
into the lacteal;
as fatty acids and glycerol;
(c) (i) 1 - enzyme protease/trypsin;

2 - breaks down protein into polypeptides;
3 - polypeptides broken down by enzyme trypsin (into amino acids);
(ii) absorbed through the villi;
into the blood/ capillaries;
4 Most candidates gave a lot of information which were just alternatives views of the same marking point.
Many candidates still use water concentration instead of water potential. Candidates still confuse exosmosis and
exocytosis. Additionally it should be noted that, it is the cell membrane pulling away from the cell wall not the
vacuole pulling away from the cell wall.
The majority of candidates did not understand the question as being expenditure in active transport of salts, leaving
less energy for growth. They misinterpreted the question as being about salty soil and the plant losing water or a
mineral deficiency in the plant.
The majority of candidates scored at least three marks at (b)(ii). However, many wrote nitrogen as an example
of minerals used by plants. Nitrogen is not utilised by plants in that form, but as nitrates. Candidates at Higher
level are expected to be able to mention the term chlorophyll and those who stated ‘the green pigment’ were not
awarded marks.
Answers
(a) (i) photosynthesis;

32
transport of substances;
maintenance of temperature/cooling;
maintain turgor in the support of non-lignified parts of a plant;
(ii) 1 - salty soil has lower water potential that root cells;
2 - water molecules move by osmosis;
3 - from a high water potential in root cells to low water potential in soil/
down a water potential gradient/ across a partially permeable
membrane;
4 - loss of water through roots may lead to wilting/ plasmolyzed cells;
5 - water does not reach leaves for photosynthesis;
6 - no glucose produced leads to death of cells & plant/ plasmolysis
leads to death of cells and plant;
(b) (i) active transport requires/needs energy;

constant supply of energy results in less energy available for growth;
results in stunted growth/ reduced growth;
(ii) magnesium;
formation of chlorophyll/ enzyme activator/ part of middle lamellae of
plant cells;
nitrates/nitrites;
formation of amino acids/ proteins/ nucleic acids/ used for growth/
synthesis of chlorophyll/ part of auxins;
phosphorus/ phosphates;
formation of phospholipids/ formation of ATP/ synthesis of nucleotides;
A – DNA & genetic material
potassium;
maintaining turgor pressure/ formation of proteins/ functioning of
protein pumps/ open and close stomata/ promote fruit, flower and seed
formation/ increase size of fruit and yield;
iron;
chlorophyll synthesis/ constituents of electron carriers/ needed for
formation of enzymes
calcium;
cell wall and cell membrane stability
5 A good number of candidates did not identify the muscles correctly, some even referred to biceps and
triceps. Most candidates failed to see that the two diagrams representing inhalation were not underneath
each other.
The structures were misinterpreted by most candidates indicating the need for preparing learners to be able to
apply their knowledge to unfamiliar scenarios such as models.
Answers
(a) A and B – intercostal muscles;
C and D – diaphragm;
(b) B and C;
(c) P – spinal cord/vertebral column;

Q – rib;
R – (external) intercostal muscles;
S – trachea/ windpipe;
(d) at D: 1 - diaphragm relaxes and no energy is involved/passive process;

2 - change in volume of thorax/chest cavity not shown;
3 - diaphragm becomes dome shaped/curved during exhalation not
shown;
4 - ribs do not move in C to D;
33
6 Many candidates did not draw in on the diagram, they only labelled or only drew and did not label. There
was also a sizeable number of candidates that drew incorrectly.
Most candidates identified the liver correctly. Although most candidates mentioned aerobic respiration, they failed
to give the formation of water as the reason.
Most candidates scored a mark at (c), however many identified glomerulus as Bowman’s capsule and proximal
convoluted tubule as distal convoluted tubule. Additionally, in the descending limb, conservation or reabsorption of
water is different from osmoregulation in collecting duct.
The majority of candidates answered question (d) well, however some gave advantages and disadvantages of
using the dialysis machine.
Answers
(a) (i) connection from heart to kidney;
(ii) connection from kidney to bladder; (must come from concave side)
(MUST use label lines in both)
(b) (i) liver;
(ii) aerobic;
water is produced;
(c) A – glomerulus + function: ultrafiltration;

B – proximal convoluted tubule + function: reabsorption of glucose/
amino acids;
C – Loop of Henle + function: reabsorption of water and mineral ions;
D – collecting duct + function: removal of urine/ collect filtrate from distal
convoluted tubule/ helps maintain osmotic balance of blood;
(d) 1 - blood is pumped into the dialysis tube;

2 - which is partially permeable;
3 - and is long/coiled;
4 - to increase the surface area to increase the rate of diffusion;
5 - tube is surrounded by dialysis fluid;
6 - which contains same glucose/amino acid/nutrients/ H2O levels as blood;
7 - to prevent loss of glucose/amino acids/nutrients from blood;
8 - dialysis fluid is continually exchanged;
9 - dialysis fluid does not contain any urea;
10 - so all urea leaves blood by diffusion;
11 - dialysis fluid flows in opposite direction as blood;
12 - maintaining concentration gradient;
13 - anticoagulant (heparin) is administered to prevent clots;
14 - bubble trap/ counter flow removes bubbles and clots from blood;
15 - also rewarms blood to prevent shock when it is returned to body;
Positive suggestions to teachers.

Learners should be encouraged to think carefully about how they structure their answers to avoid distortion of meaning.
Learners, especially at Higher level are expected to know and use Biology terms correctly
It is very important that both teachers and learners pay close attention to details of each topic during instructional period.
This will equip learners with the ability to handle questions with different demands.

34
8321
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
Candidates should be aware of the difference between ‘describe’ and ‘explain’ in the question stem and that the mark
allocations serve as a guide to the degree of details expected. Biology Paper 2 require precision in answers and an
attention to details. Candidates needs to be encouraged to make use of correct terminology. The following are examples
of incorrect terms used in this paper: more rounder for more convex lens, excretion instead of egestion. Candidates
should be able to predict the amount of energy released from a particular cell from the distribution of the mitochondria.
When describing movement of molecules across membranes, candidates should always be clear about concentration
differences. Candidates should be aware that the neurotransmitter vesicles are not released into the synaptic cleft;
what is released are the neurotransmitters. Impulses are neither carried nor released but are transmitted by neurones.
Candidates should avoid the use of ambiguous terms and avoid too much generalisation of concepts.
(a) (i) Determining the dependent and independent variables remain a challenge to candidates from
most centres. Many candidates from most centres failed to make maximum use of space given
on the grid to draw the graph i.e. used less than half of the given space to plot the graph. The
majority of candidates did not use a ruler for joining plotted points and they got confused by the
choice of their scale. Some candidates did not label the axis and could not incorporate a key to
their graphs.
Answer
A – axis correct and labelled correctly;
S – size and scale correct;
P – points plotted correctly;
L – line graph drawn correctly by joining points using a ruler;
K – key to indicate the difference between the two graphs;
A – labelling curves
(ii) Most learners only added 13.4 and 3.6 KPa. A few who knew how to approach the question
ended up adding 98 and 50 instead of subtracting. Some candidates left out the units after
correct calculations.
Answer
98 - 49; = 49%;
(b) Describing the differences proved to be a very difficult task to candidates from most centers. Some
candidates only mentioned similarities instead of differences, which was not part of the expected
answers. Some mentioned only humans and mouse forgetting the main concept of hemoglobin
oxygen dissociation curve for the above-mentioned organisms. The skill of describing the trend on
the graphs was not well taught to the candidates. Most candidates tried to provide explanations to
the trend. Some referred to the alveoli/ size between human and mouse/difference on who is more
active between human and the mouse.
Answer
Curve for Human Hb oxygen dissociation curve is more to the left of that of the mouse; at 1kPa human
hemoglobin is 8% saturated, mouse hemoglobin is only 3% saturated; the curve for human hemoglobin rises
more steeply at lower partial pressures of oxygen/between 3 and 7 kPa; the curve for mouse hemoglobin
rises more gradually until it reaches 13 kPa;
The curve for the mouse rise more slowly from 1 to 3KPa and more rapidly from 3 to 11KPa
The curve for the mouse is more visibly sigmoid
(c) Some candidates only mentioned features without relating to the functions of the stated features.
In most cases the features were incorrectly linked to the functions for example absence of nucleus to increase
surface area.
Many candidates referred to area as “are”. Most learners gave answers which were directly related to the
hemoglobin which was not part of the question.
A wide variety of adaptations were acceptable for this question. However, the explanation had to be linked to
the correct adaptation in order to achieve credit. It was common for candidates to identify a correct adaptation
but then failed to give a correct explanation. The most common incorrect answers were no nucleus and
mitochondria to increase surface area for absorption of oxygen. Candidates should be reminded to be specific
in their responses.
35
Answer
biconcave discs to increases surface area for oxygen to diffuse into cell /large surface area to volume ratio;
shape creates a smaller volume – shorter diffusion distance for oxygen to reach center of cell; no nucleus
or other organelles – more space for hemoglobin in cell; elastic/flexible/ small- to squeeze through minute
blood capillaries; R flexible walls
No mitochondria- so it does not use up oxygen during the transport process;
Are numerous – to increase efficiency of oxygen transport;
2 (a) Well answered, however most candidates failed to outline the causes of discontinuous variation, they
referred to genes alone instead of different alleles of the same gene.
Answer
Discontinuous variation;
clear cut groups/groups do not merge into each other/individuals have or have no specific blood group/ no
intermediates/AW; caused by different alleles of one/few genes;
(b) Well answered but many candidates did not encircle the gametes when using the punette square.
Candidates failed to distinguish between phenotypes and genotypes and could not illustrate it on
paper. They were however able to get some partial marks.
Answer
parental phenotype AB A
F genotype: IAIA and IAIB

phenotype: A AB
The child with blood group B is adopted

1 correct labelling on the left; A if 4 correct
2 correct parental phenotypes and genotypes;
3 gametes correct and encircled
4 punnett square correct; A only one row for IA
5 F genotype and phenotype correct;
6 indication of child which has been adopted;
(c) Poorly answered, many candidates referred antigens as pathogens and some failed to explain the
significance of the absence of antigens on Blood group O. The concept of immune responses is
only understood better with reference to pathogen and not on distinguishing cell and non-self-cells in
terms of organ transplant and blood transfusion.
Answer
person with blood group O has no antigen A or B on their red blood cells;
other person will not recognise these cells as foreign;
no antibodies will be produced;
when receiving blood from blood group other than O;
red blood cells will be recognised as foreign;
person with blood group O produces antibodies A and B;
blood clotting will take place;

36
3 (a) Candidates struggled to spell scientific words correctly e.g. Plantae. They failed to rewrite the given
words correctly e.g. Family Fabaceae, Acacia and erioloba
Answers
Kingdom Plantae
Family Fabaceae
Genus Acacia
Species erioloba
(b) (i) Was well answered by most centres however there was a confusion between pollination and
seed dispersal
Answers
insects;
flower is coloured/is scented;
(ii) The method of seed dispersal challenged most candidates.
Answers
seeds eaten by animals/examples of animals;
seeds not digested;
they have a hard/protective coat;
when passing through digestive system/gut, seed coat softens;
egested away from the parent plant; R excrete
(iii) The question was well answered however some candidates failed to place some organisms
into their appropriate trophic levels. They drew a food chain with more than three trophic levels.
Some candidates drew food webs instead of food chains.
Answers
starting with camel thorn and arrows in correct direction;
herbivore from list/other correct herbivore and at least one possible
carnivore;
(c) Candidates failed to use the information provided to answer the question correctly. They preferred to
use their own knowledge instead and they could not score. The size of the leaves was often linked
to less stomata instead of smaller surface area for less evaporation. Many candidates referred to the
taproot system but could not indicate its significance for survival in arid conditions.
Answers
deep root system;
to reach groundwater;
leaves small;
Reduce surface area for evaporation/ minimize water loss through evaporation;
must mention both leaves and roots to obtain maximum marks;
(d) Candidates struggled to answer this question. Very few candidates managed to link the camelthorn
to a legume plant. Those who were able to mention it were not successful in mentioning the process
of nitrogen fixation. A good number of candidates identified the animal and droppings from the plant
but could not correctly identify the decomposition process as also responsible for the addition of
nutrient to the region underneath the tree.
Answers
leaves/flowers/pods/animal droppings;
Decomposed by bacteria and fungi;
Into ammonia and ammonium compounds;
Nitrifying bacteria convert ammonia and ammonium compounds;
To nitrites and nitrates
Nitrogen fixation by bacteria in the root nodules
Convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonium compounds;

37
4 (a) Well answered by most candidates, however the protein receptor sites were often referred to as the
receptor cells, which made their answer wrong.
Answers
A: synaptic vesicle/vesicle with neurotransmitter;
B: neurotransmitter;
C: synaptic gap/cleft; A synapse
D: post synaptic membrane;
E: receptors/protein receptor site; R receptor cell
F: presynaptic knob/terminal;
(b) Candidates could not link the number of mitochondria present in a particular cell to the amount of
energy that can be released. Most candidates referred to diffusion as an energy consuming process
for example when they outline that “energy used for the diffusion of neurotransmitter substances to
the post synaptic membrane”.
Answers
to synthesize more ATP / many mitochondria synthesize more ATP; A to release more energy
for synthesizing/resynthesizing neurotransmitters;
For exocytosis of neurotransmitter substance;
(c) Was answered correctly by very few candidates. The concept of chemical transmission of impulses
across a synapse was necessary to help the candidates answer the question correctly.
Answers
electrical impulse cannot be transmitted across synaptic cleft;
transmitted by chemical messenger;
No fusion of presynaptic vesicles with presynaptic membrane;
no neurotransmitter released/no exocytosis of neurotransmitter substance;
impulse does not reach postsynaptic neuron/no action potential generated in post
synaptic neuron;
no realisation of pain /impulse not detected by the CNS;
(d) (i) Well answered by most candidates, however a good number of candidates referred to the lens
as being concave instead of convex. Teachers are reminded to encourage the candidates to
make use of the language of the subject
Answers
B;
Lens is thicker/ more convex;
(ii) The majority of learners compared near and far accommodation instead of giving a direct answer.
Majority of the candidates did not link the effect of contraction and relaxation of the ciliary muscle
to its diameter.
Answers
ciliary muscles relax;
suspensory ligaments tense;
lens thinner/ less convex;

38
5 (a) This was fairly well answered although some candidates did not appreciate the significance of water,
oxygen and optimum temperature for seed germination to take place. Some candidates identified
some factor other than the water; temperature and oxygen. A few candidates were able to identify the
factors but could not explain how each one of the factors affect seed germination.
Answers
1. Water/moisture/humid conditions;
2. washes out abscisic acid;
3. Breaks seed dormancy
4. softens testa/ seed coat
5. transport of soluble nutrients in solution;
6. cause the cotyledons to swell and split the testa;
7. speeds up metabolism inside the seed;
8. needed for hydrolytic reactions;
9. oxygen;
11. for aerobic respiration;
12. To release energy for the growth of the embryo plant;
13. favourable temperature;
14. for enzymes to work at their optimal level; ( 2 marks for each factor)
(b) The majority of candidates were able to accurately describe roles of abscisic acid in seed germination.
Most of these candidates also described the significance of abscisic acid and the gibberellin; in
allowing seed germination when conditions are favourable. Fewer candidates went on to describe
the movement of GA by diffusion process from the embryo to the aleurone. The role of the GA was
wrongly identified as “activation of enzymes”. Candidates lacked facts about the roles of GA.
Answers
1. abscisic acid prevents the germination of the seed/maintain seed dormancy;
2. removed by being soaked in water after sufficient/enough rain;
3. allowing germination only when conditions are favorable;
4. gibberellin;
5. made by the embryo;
6. diffuses to the aleurone layer/layer underneath the seed coat;
7. aleurone layer synthesizes amylase/other hydrolytic enzymes;
8. amylase/other hydrolytic enzymes diffuses to endosperm;
9. amylase/other hydrolytic enzymes catalyses the hydrolysis of starch/correct reaction mentioned;
10. to maltose/correct product matching enzyme mentioned;
11. which can diffuse to the embryo/used by the embryo;
12. as an energy source; max [8]
(c) Most candidates knew Auxins and its functions in plant growth and development. They generalized
their answer without identifying the exact part of the plant which get stimulated for a specific tropic
response to take place. Auxins stimulate the plants to grow towards light/ plants to grow towards
gravity was the most common wrong answer given by candidates. The advantage of a positive
phototropic response was generally well known, but only a small number of candidates gained credit
for the seedling exposing a greater surface area to the light. Marks were lost for not continuing the
answer to describe the result of positive phototropism and positive geotropism. Mentions on flowers
being better exposed for pollination was not applicable to this question. Candidates should have only
focussed on seedlings and not plants at flowering stage.
Answers
1. auxins/IAA;
2. shoot grows towards light/away from gravity; R plant grows towards light.
3. shows positive phototropism/negative geotropism;
4. to expose leaves to sunlight/ allow leaves to be oriented in best position to trap maximum light;
5. for photosynthesis to take place;
6. roots grow towards gravity/away from sunlight; R plant grows towards gravity
7. shows positive geotropism/negative phototropism;
8. to anchor the seedling in the soil;
9. to enable to root to absorb water;
10. and mineral ions; (max 3 for each tropic response)

39
6 (a) Well answered by most candidates however a good number referred to oestrogen and its effect in girls.
Ambiguous answers like ‘ for development of hair, muscles and genitals’ were not scored.
Answers
1. testosterone (is produced by the testes);
2. starts to be produced while foetus develops in uterus;
3. develops male characteristics;
4. such as penis, scrotum etc./primary sexual characteristics;
5. during puberty;
6. testosterone produced again;
7. causing enlargement of penis;
8. development of secondary sexual characteristics;
9. growth of body hair;
10. enlargement of larynx/voice breaks;
11. muscular development;
(b) (i) The role of FSH is perhaps the least well known of the hormones associated with the menstrual cycle and
many candidates confused it with oestrogen and/or progesterone. It was often thought to be responsible
for ovulation. Good answers focused on the stimulation of follicles, subsequent maturation of the egg and
release of oestrogen by the Graafian follicle/release of progesterone by the corpus luteum. The site of
production of the hormones posed a challenge on so many candidates.
Answers
1. FSH secreted by;
2. anterior pituitary gland;
3. stimulates development of primary follicles into Graafian follicles;
4. induce/ stimulate the development of mature ovum in the Graafian follicle;
5. Stimulate the Graafian follicle to produce/secrete oestrogen;
6. Oestrogen inhibits the secretion of FSH;
7. causes endometrium/uterus lining to thicken;
8. around middle of the cycle;
9. oestrogen stimulate the production/secretion of LH
10. by the anterior pituitary gland;
11. LH secretion rises/starts;
12. slows down/inhibit the secretion of oestrogen;
13. LH stimulate/ induce ovulation;
14. LH stimulates the development of the corpus luteum;
15. LH induce/stimulate the corpus luteum secrete progesterone;
16. Progesterone maintains the thickening of the endometrium/uterus lining;
17. Progesterone inhibits the secretion of LH;
18. if no fertilisation;
19. drop in LH levels causes corpus luteum to degenerate;
20. all hormones drop to low level;
21. endometrium breaks down;
22. anterior pituitary gland starts secreting FSH again;
(for each one hormone max 3)
(ii) This question was not answered well. There was much confusion regarding which hormones are used in
fertility treatments and their role in the menstrual cycle. Quite a few candidates mentioned FSH and LH,
but were uncertain about how they work.

Some described stimulation of follicles and/or ovulation in vague ways; others referred to the ‘release
of ovaries’. Many candidates referred to egg production instead of ovulation. A few confused fertility
treatment with birth control and/or contraception. A large number referred to oestrogen, progesterone
and the endometrium.
Answers
1. FSH/LH;
2. stimulates development of a number of follicles;
3. more oocytes/ova released during ovulation;
4. increases chances of fertilisation;
5. oocytes/ova collected from ovaries;
6. by microsurgery;
7. sperm samples collected;
8. sperm and ova mixed in a petri dish/ test tube;
9. fertilization takes place in the Test tube/petri dish
9. allow growth of embryos in laboratory conditions;
10. selection/3 healthy embryos returned to uterus for implantation;

40
7 (a) Candidates referred to the “mosquito” and not Anopheles mosquito.
Plasmodium parasite was given many names e.g Virus, bacteria , protozoa and algae.
Plants were given as one of the organisms which contribute to the spread of malaria. The concept of
classification was not grasped by most learners from most centres. Candidates failed to identify the
kingdom of mosquitoes, humans and plasmodium parasite. The kingdom was often written starting with a
small letter.
Answers
1. Plasmodium;
2. Kingdom Protista/Protoctista;
3. unicellular;
4. eukaryotic;
5. Anopheles mosquito and;
6. human;
7. Kingdom Animalia; R Animals
8. multicellular;
9. eukaryotic; A cells with nucleus
10. heterotrophic nutrition;
11. no cell wall;
12. no chloroplasts;
13. cells highly specialised;
14. have a nervous system to coordinate bodily functions;
(b) This question was attempted by very few candidates nationwide. A variety of excellent responses were
seen for this question. Many candidates correctly referred to Bio magnification / bioaccumulation of non
biodegradable pesticides / insecticides and non specific nature of the pesticides/insecticides.
Candidates referred to insecticides as pesticides. Candidates need to be helped to distinguish between the
two. Methods were mostly correct but learners ended up giving advantages instead of disadvantages as
outlined in the question paper.
Answers
1. eradicating the vector/mosquito;
2. by killing adult mosquitoes;
3. by using insecticides/other valid methods;
4. mosquitoes become resistant to insecticides; A bio-accumulation biomagnification/non-biodegradable
pesticides persist in the environment
5. prevent eggs from being laid in water;
6. by covering standing water sources; A draining stagnant water
7. not possible to cover large swamps/marshes/lakes;
8. kill larvae which need to breath air;
9. by spraying oil on water;
10. environmental impact on vegetation in water /other aquatic organisms;
11 impossible to spray all little puddles of water after rain;
12. introducing larvae eating fish to water;
13. might impact food chain;
14. prevent adult female mosquito from biting humans;
15. sleep under mosquito nets treated with insecticide;/ wear clothes that cover the whole body
16. use insect repellant sprays or lotions on exposed skin;
17. not always available for local populations;
18. use of drugs to prevent infections/ vaccination;
29. Plasmodium develops resistance to the drug; A allergic reactions
20. new drugs need to be developed; A drugs are expensive
21. drugs can cause negative reactions in some people;
Vaccination is difficult because the parasite shows antigenic variation/its eukaryotic with many genes
22. create sterile male mosquitoes through genetic engineering
23. its expensive/ time consuming;
24. Infertile mosquitoes have reduced fitness which reduce their ability to outcompete the fertile onces;
25. Awareness campaigns/ education
26. Some areas are inaccessible/ no roads in remote areas/ language create a barrier
27. Vaccination against the plasmodium
28. antigenic variation/antigenic concealment/difficult to prepare a vaccine.
Must mention five methods and at least one disadvantage for each method.
1 mark per method and 1 or 2 marks per disadvantage.

41
8 (a) There were many answers to this question that described the nitrogen cycle. The microorganism involved and
the general description was very important for learners to get full marks to this question. Some candidates
were unable to produce a balanced essay and concentrated only on one process which was only allocated two
mark of the total mark of that question.
Answers
1. nitrogen fixation: conversion of nitrogen into absorbable/usable compounds;
2. occurs during lightning;
3. where energy is provided to convert;
4. nitrogen to nitrogen oxides;
5. nitrogen-fixing bacteria/Rhizobium bacteria;
6. which lives in root nodules of legumes;
7. convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonium compounds/ ions
9. ammonification: formation of ammonium and ammonia from nitrogen containing organic compounds;
10. organic compounds in faeces/urea/dead bodies of organisms;
11. carried out by bacteria and fungi/ decomposers;
12. nitrification: changing ammonium ions to nitrates/nitrites;
13. done by nitrifying bacteria;
14. nitrates can be taken up by plants;
15. denitrification: nitrates back to nitrogen;
16. by denitrifying bacteria;
(d) (i) Not well answered by most candidates who attempted the question. The effects of NOx was unknown
to most candidates. Answers like NOx causes asthma and cancer alone without specifying were not
acceptable. Candidates need to be encouraged to give specific and non-ambiguous answers
Answers
1. irritates airways;
2. irritates the eyes;
3. coughing, wheezing, difficulty breathing;
4. aggravates conditions such as asthma;
5. increases susceptibility to respiratory infections;
6. cause lung cancer /depletion of the ozone by NOx may contribute to skin cancer
(ii) There were many excellent answers given to this question although the majority of candidates were
awarded at least partial credit. Many candidates gave several reasonable effects of NOx, including
depletion of the ozone, global warming, loss of habitat, desertification and species extinction. Some
candidates outlined the effects of global warming on the environment, which was also credited. Only
very few candidates appeared unsure how to answer this question and they unfortunately got very
low marks
Answers
1. when nitrogen oxides react with other chemicals a) due to heat and sunlight;
2. ground-level ozone (smog) is formed;
3. this damages vegetation/crop yield;
4. acid rain;
5. nitrogen oxides react with water;
6. acids reach ground via rain/snow;
7. damages forests;
8. causes lakes and streams to become acidic;
9. poisons wildlife;
10. damages buildings, monuments;
11. causes chemical imbalance in water;
12. affects levels of nutrients available to plants/inhibition of activities of decomposers/loss of soil
fertility/leaching of soil nutrients;
13. contribute to eutrophication; A its effects
14. algae growth is accelerated;
15. depleting oxygen available;
16. reducing aquatic life/reduce availability of sea food;
17. contributes to global warming;
18. which affects sea level;
19. destroys plant and animal habitats;
20. acid rain dissolves out poisonous Aluminium and mercury from the soil which later on poison the
aquatic system.
21. NOx deplete the ozone/skin cancer/eye cataracts

42
8321
Paper 3
GENERAL COMMENTS
All candidates have adhered to the requirement of writing within the designated spaces on the pages of the examination.
However, some candidates are still using highlighters to highlight the keyword in a question, although this is not
advisable. Candidates also used the correct black or blue ballpoint pen to answer the questions as well as using pencils
for plotting a line graph.
Many candidates lack basic knowledge of the kinetic theory, effect of temperature on the enzymes. Many candidates
displayed a lack of skills in approaching descriptive and explanatory questions. Candidates lack the skills for interpreting
questions and relating the question to the practical.
They also displayed lack of skills on how to plot a line graph with three sets of results (labelling the axis, scaling, plotting,
using a ruler to join the points and providing a key) as a result, they lost marks unnecessarily.
Recommendation for teachers

Teachers should expose candidates to various ways of plotting a line graph with one or more than one set of results.
Teachers need to prepare the candidates thoroughly, pertaining to the basic practical skills required in Paper 3.
Teachers and candidates are reminded that the set of key skills (refer to pages 40 - 48 of the Syllabus) are examinable,
and school-assessed coursework provides candidates with first-hand experience that can be applied in examination
questions.
Teachers should also prepare candidates on how to interpret the questions as well as linking the information within the
paper. This can be achieved if a teacher provides sufficient past examination papers for exercise.
It is critical that the teacher do the practical in advance to see what work and what does not work and consult where
possible.
1 (a) (i) Fairly answered, although the candidates constructed a suitable closed table, there were no
headings or units as a results they could not score a mark. Other candidates wrote the heading
outside the table. With some candidates the table was not closed. Units for temperature and
time was also wrongly given for example Temp% and Time as Sec or M.
An example of how the table should have been completed, however, the value would have differed per
individual learner.
Answer
closed table + headings + units;
Time/minutes Temperature ºC
Test-tube A Test-tube B Test-tube C
0 60 60 30
2 59 58 25
4 52 57 23
6 48 55 21
8 44 53 20
10 43 52 19
(ii) Fairly answered, some candidates’ values from the table showed an increase downward instead
of a decrease and could not be score marks. Candidates could not compare the three test-tubes
in terms of which one lost most heat, less and least heat. Candidates also seemed not know
how to take the readings from the thermometers, hence give readings such as 3.2, 4.2 instead
of 32°C or 42°C.
Answer
B temperature decreases least;
C temperature decreases most;

43
(iii) Fairly answered, candidates were confused by plotting three sets of results. Some leaners
could not label their axes correctly, some candidates had a challenge with scaling, plotting and
providing a key. Some candidates drew a bar graph.
Answer
A – x-axis labeled time + min, y-axis labeled temperature + ºC;
S – more than 50% space used + correct scaling;
P – all points plotted correctly, using a ʘ or a x
L – points joined with a ruled line;
K – key or lines labeled correctly
(iv) Poorly answered, candidates could not relate to the amount of heat loss and they focused on the
increase and decrease of temperature which is already in the question, since they were expected
to provide a reason for the change in temperature. Candidates could also not compare the three
test-tube A, B and C in term of the amount heat lost and the reasons.
Answer
For A:
Ref. that decrease/ in temperature is between B and C/more than B and less than C;
Not covered so lost heat to environment;
For B:
Ref. to smallest amount of heat lost/least amount of heat lost/most heat retained/kept;
Cotton wool acts as insulator;
For C:
Ref. to most heat lost/least heat kept;
Ref. to evaporation/conduction occurring which results in heat loss;
(v) Poorly answered, few candidates could score a mark, although most of them referred to the
same amount of hot water instead of same volume of water and same temperature instead of
same starting temperature.
Answer
Ref. to:
using same volume of water;
same thickness of cotton wool / AW;
same size of test-tube;
same starting temperature/time;
avoid spilling water on a dry cotton;
thickness of the test-tube;
(vi) Well answered, although some candidates referred to the answers which should have been for
(v), most of them were able to give the correct answer “repeat the experiment”.
Answer
Ref to:
Do experiments separately in order to time more accurately / AW;
Have 3 people involved to take the time/temperature;
Repeat experiment;
(b) (i) Fairly answered, although some candidates referred to optimum temperature instead of
answering the question on why the human body temperature has to stay close to 37°C.
Answer
ensure enzymes do not denature/work best/remain active/AW;
(ii)
Well answered, most candidates scored a mark of vasodilation. Few candidates switched
vasodilation with vasoconstriction. Majority of candidates use words like hair falls, sleep and
some candidates referred to hair erector muscles as the hair on the skin which lie down.
Answer
hairs on skin lie down/remain flattened/AW;
muscles in walls of arterioles relax/arterioles dilate/vasodilation;
more blood flows in capillaries/more blood flows near skin surface;

44
(c) Well answered although some candidates could not distinguish between structural and behavioural
mechanism. Some candidates wrote long trunk for structural although long trunk is basically for
protection and feeding and not to keep the body cool. Some candidates also mentioned structures
such as ears, skin but did not give a correct adjective such as huge ears, wrinkly skin. Some
candidates have answered that elephants have long nose, big mouth parts.
Answer
Structural
Ref. to large/big/huge ears;
with blood vessels close to surface;
Wrinkly skin (traps moisture in the hollows);
Behavioural
Ref. to standing in the shade;
Take (mud) baths / AW;
Standing in water/drinking water/spraying water;
Fan ears to cool the blood;
2 (a) (i) Fairly answered, most candidates obtained a mark

Answer
Order from left to right on line is H, F, G, E;;
If order is incorrect, max. one mark for H next to F or G next to E;
Any order incorrect max 1
(ii) Well answered most candidates could score a mark.

Answer
E;
(iii) Poorly answered, candidates did not compare the results of test-tube E and H, they only stated
one of E or H and they did not properly describe the difference between the reaction. The speed
of each reaction was not measured and use the rate of the reaction as an explanation instead of
the effect of different temperatures on the enzymes.
Answer
E produces produces more CO2 than H;
Temperature in E is (closest to) optimum;
Enzymes in E more / most active;
More substrate converted to product;
(b) Poorly answered, candidates mixed the equation of anaerobic respiration with aerobic, and some
wrote the word equation instead of the symbol equation.
Answer
C6H12O6 → 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 (+ 2ATP)
(c) (i) Well answered, most candidates scored a mark except a few who wrote hydrogen bond or
peptide, or ester bond.
Answer
Glycosidic bond;
(ii) Fairly answered, some candidates were not sure where the circle should end.
Answer

Reject if bond is indicated on the starch molecule.

45
(iii) Well answered, most candidates obtained a mark, although there were a few candidates who
wrote lacteal, lactose and lactase.
Answer
Lactate/lactic acid;
(iv) Poorly answered, candidates indicated only the solution and contents of the test-tube instead
of the label of the test-tube in their discussion. Some candidates had the wrong solution in the
named test-tubes for example test-tube E consist of many bonds as starch is made of glucose
molecules. Candidates did not use the guide in fig 2.1 as a key in their descriptions.
Answer
E / glucose:
Most CO2 produced / colour closest to yellow;
Enzymes do not need to break down substance to glucose /
Much glucose for respiration already present;
F / lactose:
Least CO2 produced / colour closest to blue;
Each lactose releases only one glucose when broken down /
Least glucose present for respiration;
G / starch:
Less CO2 produced than E / more CO2 than F / green colour;
Breakdown of starch releases many glucose molecules;
(d) Poorly answered, most candidates misunderstood this question although they were required to
design an experiment. Candidates could not state the different variables correctly. Some candidates
discussed respiration and other test for example for reducing sugars which were not asked.
Answer
Ref. to min. 3 different pH values used;
Ref. to temperature kept the same;
Ref. to same volume / concentration of glucose / yeast;
Experimental procedure described / determine colour change after specific period of time;
Results described / closest to yellow at optimum pH (7) / closest to blue when pH acidic or alkaline / AW;
Results recorded in table;
Experiment repeated for more accurate results;

46
BUSINESS STUDIES
8336
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
There has been no improvement in the learners' work. There are still too many learners on Higher Level.
Evaluate – learners positive impacts and negative impacts should continually evaluate.
Learners must answer the questions in context if a case study is provided and not in general.
COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS
1 (a) (i) Learners lost marks because they said the production of goods and services or the factors of
production are used to a make profit. This is wrong.
Answer
Business activity
- Combination of all factors of production to satisfy customers' unlimited needs/wants with limited
resources
- Business activity/engaged in, with the primary purpose of making a profit.(K) [3]
(ii) Most learners received three marks for this question because they did not use the case in their
answers. Many learners wrote paying tax, but this did not warrant a mark.
Answer
- To combine scarce factors of production – to produce goods and services in order to make a profit
- Produce goods/services to make more profit and satisfy wants and needs
- Employment of workers – pay them wages, allow them to demand products/better living standards
K + An + Ap
2 + 1 + 1
Benefits identified (2)

Benefits identified and explained in case (2) [4]
(b) Learners do not know how to apply opportunity cost in context, therefore lost marks. Learners used
general examples.
Answer
Opportunity costs is the next best alternative given up by choosing another item.
ACG chose to give his employees reflector jackets but gave up the sun hats for guards
Definition only (1)

Definition explain in case K + An + Ap
1 + 1 + 1 [3]
(c) Not well answered, only a few learners used the definition of net assets to receive full marks. They
also did not compare the two businesses. Some said that DC is bigger. (In context it said that
ACG has the larger market share because they dominate the market.) Learners are not sure of the
meaning of “net assets”.
Some learners wrote producing of products – car guards do not produce and use minimal technology. Learners
used the word ‘dominate’ in the case study to show the differences, which is incorrect.
Memo indicates ACG is bigger than DC. The value of ACG's assets is greater than the value of their liabilities.
ACG has more assets than DG that makes them solvent.

47
Answer
Net assets
- If the value of assets is greater than the liabilities – definition (K1)
Reasons
- ACG has more assets than DG – more solvent.
- Value of liabilities – lower than total assets.
- Size of business – ACG is a larger business than DG.
- Number of employees (way of measuring size of business) K + Ap + Ev
2 + 1 + 1 [4]
(d) Learners did not receive full marks because they only gave positive outcomes of ACG. The learners
that gave negative outcomes did not use context–related outcomes.
Answer
- ACG provides a service to satisfy the needs of the community – creates employment opportunities
– increases income in community
- Ploughs back into community by providing sponsorships – contributing to charity
- Business pays tax to government – to develop country, improve infrastructure
- Helps to raise the standard of living in the communities – less poverty
- Helps with economic development of the area
- Invests in market research – to keep up with the latest consumer demands
However
Some services provided can have negative impacts on the community such as:
- guards not on duty
- guards lack ethics
- exploitation of workers K + An + Ap + Ev
2 + 1 + 1 +2 [6]
2 (a) Many centres managed to score marks. Some learners obtained full marks. Some learners were
confused with worker participation and did not score any marks. Some learners referred to costs
both under and advantages and disadvantages but can unfortunately not be rewarded for both the
increase and decrease of labour costs. Few learners referred to the advantages and disadvantages
for ‘workers’ instead of for the ‘business’.
Answer
Advantages
- More staff to be employed during busy times in the shop
- Cost effective - labour costs for part time workers are lower
- No need to pay extra benefits e.g. Pensions, Medical Aid
- Easy to terminate jobs in case of poor performance
- Expanding the pool of recruitment
Disadvantages
- Time-consuming to look after the record details of part-time staff
- Part-time workers not reliable – they can leave at any time
- Workers less motivated than full-time staff
- More money spent on recruiting and training new staff repeatedly
- Jobs not secured – no job satisfaction K + Ap + An + Ev
2 + 1 + 2 + 1 [6]
(b) This was fairly answered by many learners. They scored at least 2 marks.
However, some learners did not read the question properly, they only saw 'informal groups' and started
giving the advantages of informal groups, thus not earning any mark.
Answer
Informal groups
- Group developed with the objectives linked to the interest of the members
- If members are dissatisfied with management they could decide to do less work/short unofficial strike
- Leader of informal group may be different from the official work supervisor. If instructions are different,
the workers may not know who to obey
- Workers may think that informal group formation encourages favouritism (excluding some workers) and
bad attitudes – this can lead to disunity/conflict
48
- Workers might use their informal contact rather than the official channel. This may frustrate people in
the official channels
NO definition marks K + An
3 + 3 [6]
(c) This question was not answered well. It appears that there was some knowledge of shop stewards
and conveners but few learners started with definitions to score marks.
Answer
Shop stewards
- Are unpaid representatives of trade unions at factory/office level
- They represent the workers in consultation with management in raised grievances or if they are being
disciplined
- They negotiate pay and conditions of employment
Convenors
- People who organise meetings at work places, they can call meetings between workers and
management in order to resolve issues. K + An
2 + 2 [4]
(d) Some learners did not respond to the command word ‘identify’, instead, were ‘explained’ the
needs – no marks as a result.
In general, this question was not answered well. Learners explained how the need is satisfied instead of
indicating the need itself.
Answer
(i) Physiological needs/basic needs
(ii) Needs for self-actualisation
(iii) Safety/security needs
(v) Social need K
4 [4]
3 (a) (i) The question expected learners to give two facts. The question is well answered, most of the
learners scored 2 marks.
Answer
- Do not insist on long shifts – provide breaks in work timetable
- Protect workers from dangerous machinery
- Provide safety clothing and equipment
- Provide hygienic conditions and washing facilities
- Maintain reasonable workplace temperatures K
2 [2]
(ii) The question expected learners to list workers' responsibilities with regard to health and safety
regulations. The question was fairly answered, some learners got the maximum of 2 marks.
However, some listed responsibilities of employees in general, and some referred to employers,
instead of employees, thus losing marks.
Answer
- Workers a responsible for their own health and safety
- They must co-operate with the employer with regard to carrying out health safety duties
- They have a right leave a dangerous place of work if safety measures are not provided
K + An
1 + 2 [3]
(b) (i) Expected learners to give reasons of why the demand of imported goods did not decline, even
though tariffs imposed on them increased. The question was fairly well answered. Some learners
wrongly gave reasons why the demand of imports did decline.

49
Answer
- No domestically produced alternatives/substitutes available
- Foreign goods are of higher quality
- Local customers develop brand loyalty towards imported goods
- Exchange rates rise unexpectedly - making local goods expensive
- Foreign goods still cheaper than locally produced goods
- Habit-forming goods K + An
1 + 2 [3]
(ii) The question expects learners to name import restrictions other than tariffs. The question was
well answered. Most of the learners scored 4 marks.
Answer
Quotas
- Limit the amount of goods and services to be imported.
Subsidies
- Subsidising local companies enables them to compete against foreign firms
Exchange control
- Limits are placed on the amount of currency that can be exchanged for foreign currency to buy
foreign goods.
Embargo
- Government can ban import of goods/trade
Anti-dumping laws
- Bans foreign imports believed to be priced below fair market value K + An
2 + 2 [4]
(c) (i) The question expects learners to give problems that exporting business might have.
The question was poorly answered, most of the learners just explained how the country can benefit from
exports.
Answer
- Lack of information about the market and customers
- Language problems e.g. completing the necessary forms, producing adverts.
- Risk of not being paid – if customers don’t pay, it can be difficult to get money
- Different laws in different countries
- Fluctuations in the exchange rates
- Additional costs e.g. transport, etc.
- Supply chain from factory to customer – many hands
- Finding the right importer K + An + Ev
2 + 2 + 1 [5]
(ii) The question expected learners to give measures that the government can put in place, to
remedy the situation in question (c) (i).
The question was fairly answered, most of the learners scored 2 marks, since they named measures
that government could implement to increase exports.
Some of the learners who did not get three marks could not analyse their knowledge.
Answer
- Information and advice on foreign matters
- Introduction to contacts through diplomats
- Help promote products/services abroad through trade fairs
- Market research on overseas markets
- Encouraging bank to lend to exporters at lower interest rate
- Offering subsidies/tax reductions
- Trying to keep exchange rate of currency stable
- Offering credit facilities – if foreign customers refuse to pay – government will guarantee
payment K + An
2 + 1 [3]

50
4 (a) (i) Most of the learners could calculate the net value of the net profit for Namibia and Zambia. They
scored full marks. Well answered.
Answer
12 200 000
Namibia X (Ap1)
100 1
= 24 000 (An1)
24 110 000
Zambia X (Ap1)
100 1
= 26 400 (An1) [4]

(ii) This question was not answered well. Learners could identify that Zambia’s profit is higher than
Namibias. A lot of learners failed to distinguish between viewpoint of workers and of managers.
Most learners only gave a general comment about results but couldn’t relate their answers to the
viewpoint of workers and senior managers.
Answer
- Zambia’s profit more than Namibia's
Workers
- Namibia shows more sales and lower profits – will lead to a decrease in salaries
- Possibility to move to other work
Senior Managers
- Concern about lower profit
- Less money available for expansion
- Look into expenses of headquarters Ev
5 [5]
(b) Answered poorly. Learners couldn’t compare profitability of Namibia against Lesotho. Learners
could identify whether profitability and revenue increased or decreased but could not say why this
happened, or explain the possible causes.
Answer
Namibia
- Revenue increases
- Ratio/net profit increases
- Expenses decrease in 2019 and show an increase in net profit but it is not in relation with the increase
in revenue (15 000 – 200 000) maybe increase in overhead expenses high
Lesotho
- Revenue decreases
- Ratio/net profit decreases
- Expenses increase which leads to an increase in profit
Other factors
Exchange rate
- Fluctuation in rates can lead to variation in sales – depreciation of Namibian currency leads to
increased sales from other countries
Demand
Demand for products in Namibia lead to increases in sales of other countries
Taxes
- Increase in taxes in Namibia – leads to increased prices, demand decreases and sales decrease
K + Ap + An + Ev
3 + 1 + 2 + 2 [8]
(c) This question was answered very well. Majority of learners scored full marks.

51
However, the calculations of the degrees needed to draw the pie chart was a problem for some learners.
Answer
(K1) Drawing of pie chart

(An1) Correct labelling
(An1) Indicating Namibia as the biggest
Botswana - 60°
Namibia - 171°
Zambia - 94°
Lesotho - 34° [3]

52
8336
Paper 2
CASE
Questions 1 - 3
Necklaces, earrings, tourists (foreign customers), Andra, Van Kock Beads, beads
Questions 4 & 5
Chocolates, sweets, fudge, Fullerton Fudge
GENERAL COMMENTS
Generally, there is a great improvement in the performance and quality of work compared to last year. Most learners
demonstrated a better understanding of the subject content and were able to apply their knowledge in case.
In addition, most learners scored better marks in report writing, not many are still writing reports without a proper format.
1 (a) This question was well answered. Many learners were able to give clear and precise definition of the
term entrepreneur, well set in context.
Answer
Entrepreneur
– It is a person who combines and manages factors of production to produce markable products or services
which have the risk of profit/loss.
Case:
Andra combines and manages factors of production, such as beads and labour to produce marketable
products like necklaces and earrings which have the risk of a profit and loss K + An + Ap
1 + 2 + 1 [4]
(b) Fairly answered, although few learners focused their answers on different methods of advertising
instead of defining the term and stating its significance to the business.
Answer
Advertising
– Non-personal communication regarding a product, normally directed at a specific target market.
Case:
Andra prepared a weekly budget to spend on advertising to make people aware of her products.
Advertising informs potential buyers about a product and attempts to make consumers feel emotionally more
positive about the image of products encourages them to buy the goods. K + An + Ap
1+ 2 + 1 [4]
(c) Fairly answered question. Learners had a general understanding of the term e-commerce but they
were unable to explain its significance with reference to the business outlined in the case.
Answer
E-commerce
– use of electronic communication and internet to carry out business transactions.
Case:
Andra planned to make use of electronic communication to be in contact with her foreign customers.
Andra used the internet to advertise her product online. This allowed customers to order the necklaces and
earrings online. K + An + Ap
1 + 2 + 1 [4]
(d) The term was generally well understood by learners. Yet, some learners were unable to explain the
term correctly. A few learners defined start-up capital as the total amount of money invested in the
business rather than the money needed to establish a business.

53
Answer
Start-up capital
– amount of money required to start a new business. These funds help the business to meet its initial costs.
Case:
More start-up capital is required to cover both current assets as stocks as well as fixed assets (equipment)
before trading can start. K + An + Ap
1 + 2 + 1 [4]
(e) A large number of learners confused the term 'cash flow forecast' with 'cash flow'. They explained
'cash flow forecast' as money that comes in and flows out of the business. Hence majority only
gained a maximum of two marks in this question.
Answer
Cash flow forecast
– is an estimate of future cash inflows and outflows of a business, usually on a monthly basis. Shows the
expected cash balance at the end of each month.
Case:
Andra prepared a cash-flow statement to help her to determine how much money is required to set up her
business and to be able to apply for a bank loan. K + An + Ap
1 + 2 + 1 [4]
2 (a) Well answered question. Most learners were able to explain the purpose of the business plan.
Answer
A business plan is a detailed plan for the future operations of a business. It shows where the business is,
what it is aiming to do, how it will do it, the competition and amount of money required.
K + An
1 + 1 [2]
(b) This question was one of the more challenging questions for learners, thus most learners couldn’t
score good marks. Majority gave the definition of cash flow forecast or cash flow statement instead
of explaining the usefulness of cash flow forecast in a business plan. Learners who provided correct
answers couldn’t elaborate on the impact of cash flow forecast on Andra’s business plan.
Answer
Uses
- To determine the initial amount of start-up capital; expected income and expenses of the business.
- To keep the bank manager informed as to how much money the business requires, when it is
needed, how long it is needed for and the repayment ability.
- managing cash flow
How much is available for paying wages.
Whether business is holding too much cash which can be put to better use.
Evaluation
- A positive cash flow forecast will give her the opportunity to obtain a loan.
- Preparation of a cash flow forecast will allow her to borrow/acquire the exact amount needed to create
her business.
No marks for definition K + Ap + An + Ev
2 + 2 + 2 +2 [8]
(c) Most learners were able to gain full marks in this question by stating and explaining relevant
components to be included in the business plan, well set in case. Few learners lost marks for
misinterpreting the question and gave wrong answers such as Balance Sheets, Profit and loss
account, budget.
Answer
Description of business
Industry in which business operates.
Aim and Objectives
Set goals and how to reach them, e.g. ,to produce quality necklaces.

54
Market Research
Find consumer's wants and needs for necklaces and earrings.
Marketing Plan/marketing mix plan
Determine the marketing mix components which complement each other.
Production/operating plan
Method of production – suppliers – location.
Organisational plan
Indicating the owners, workers and their positions
Action plan
Actual programme/activities to be carried out K + An + Ap
2 + 2 + 2 [6]
(d) Well answered question. Most learners scored the full marks.
Answer
Arrange for bank loan
For overdraft in times of difficulty.
Reduce some of planned expenses
Until more finance is available.
Delay paying some of expenses
To put Andra in a better cash position.
Insist that customers pay cash
Immediate cash available for day to day expenses.
Increase forecasted cash income
Part time jobs. K + An + Ap
2 + 1 + 1 [4]
3 (a) Well answered question. Only few learners were confused and gave the factors that managers
should consider before seeking the sources of finance.
Answer
Risk factor/collateral
Banks do not finance risky situations.
Andra's business is new and small therefore more risky
Consider the experience of people in charge of the business
She is an entrepreneur and they are not always experts at running businesses but are more innovative
Financial statements of the business (profit and loss account, balance sheet, cash flow statement)
Their liquidity and gearing ratio
Consider general credit-worthiness of business
Will loan be secured?
Business plan
Explain clearly what the business hopes to achieve in the future. K + An + Ap
3 + 2 + 2 [8]
(b) (i) Fairly answered question, however, some learners stated the advantages and disadvantages of
a long term loan and an overdraft instead of stating how a long term loan differs from an overdraft.
Answer
Overdraft is when the bank gives Andra permission to withdraw more money from her account than it
currently contains.
Bank loan is a sum of money to be paid back to the bank with interest over an agreed period
K
2 [2]
(ii) Well answered. Learners were able to analyse the impact of each source of finance on the
entrepreneur and to recommend the best source.
Answer
Overdraft is short term finance – a more flexible form of finance and cheaper than a bank loan, but a
bank loan is more suitable to use for start-up capital, because Andra needs to buy fixed assets and
current assets to start her business and she can pay the loan back in 10 years' time or longer.

55
Overdraft interest rates are variable and the bank can insist that Andra pays back at short notice which
may not be not possible for a young entrepreneur. Ap + E
1 + 3 [4]
(c) Fairly answered since most learners know the different ways of increasing business productivity.
However, some learners couldn’t score full marks as they failed to explain how the identified methods
could be beneficial to the business.
Answer
- She can improve the employees' motivation – resulting in higher output levels – to meet tourist demand
- Train staff members – resulting better quality products – reducing mistakes and waste of resources,
performing tasks more efficiently – work becomes more interesting due to their ability to do different
jobs
- Improve stock control – correct stock levels – avoid disappointing tourists – no shortage of stock,
keeps on producing
- Improve quality control/assurance – reduce waste and save on costs
- Advanced technology – increase production of necklaces and earrings/contact with customer at any
time K + An + Ap + Ev
3 + 1 + 1 + 1 [6]
4 (a) Fairly answered. Learners demonstrated limitted subject knowledge on this question. Many learners
just listed the possibilities instead of showing how the use of retailers as a distribution channel may
negatively influence the operation of the producer.
Answer
Disadvantages
- Due to distance consumer – and a lack of own transport – distribution cost is higher, more paperwork
due to more transactions
- Impossible to reach wider market – which results in a declining market share
- No close contact with customers
- Retailer will increase prices to make a profit, demand may decrease
- Fullerton has no control on final price to be charged K + An + Ap + Ev
1+ 1 + 1 + 1 [4]
(b) This question was also fairly well answered. Majority of learners just gave the definition of wholesalers
but failed to state how they operate to gain full marks. Some learners were confused and stated the
advantages and disadvantages of wholesalers as a channel of distribution.
Answer
- A wholesaler operates between the manufacturer and the retailer.
- Wholesalers buy in bulk (large quantities) from the producer and break the products into small
quantities for the consumer/retailers.
DO NOT award -profit making,
- advantages and disadvantages of wholesalers K + An
1 + 2 [3]
(c) Although there were few learners who managed to gain full marks on this question, most learners
demonstrated a lack of understanding of trade between intermediaries i.e. failed to recognise what
might lead to the wholesalers charging higher prices. To get full marks, they should have described
the real work/ activities that wholesalers perform and how such work may influence their selling prices.
Answer
- Wholesalers add a mark-up to cover the costs and make a profit, thus increasing the price that
consumers will pay.
- Fewer consumers might support Fullerton because sweets are not a necessity.
Ap + Ev
1 + 3 [4]
(d) This question caused most confusion. Most learners read the information provided in the case without
an in-depth understanding. Consequently, they only discussed methods of sales promotion instead
of recognising that the product in question was already declining and explaining what should be done
to increase the product’s market share. However, some learners gained good marks in this question.

56
Answer
Regular advertising
Forces advertising on your target market
Reminds consumers about the product, creates a demand of a product.
Selling products into new markets
Different regions/different countries
Improving existing production
Making them more competitive
Bringing out new products/flavours
To keep customers' interest
Segment your market
To meet needs of customers more precisely
Branding products
Brand loyalty is created – customers keep buying products.
Packaging
Should be attractive – using more eye-catching colour, better looking packaging instead of
unattractive plastic bags. K + An + Ap + Ev
3 + 2 + 1 + 3 [9]
5 Most learners wrote their report using proper report format, however, few learners are still writing their
reports in a letter form. Learners seem not to understand what should be included in the introduction, so
they only copied the same information provided the question. Some learners wrote in the first person,
while others listed their answers without developing them so they lost some marks.
Answer
Report on channels of distribution

Report format (K2)
Title
Reference: To/From
Date
Introduction: Stating the problem (2)
Methods/Procedures Findings K2
Direct and indirect channels An4 + Ap4
Conclusion K1 + Ev2
Recommendation K1 + Ev2
Written in 3rd person. Maximum of 1 mark if written in 1st person.

Reward the advantages and disadvantages of each channel of distribution
Findings can include the following channels:
Direct
Retailer
Wholesaler
(No Agent)
Conclusion: Weigh up pro’s + con’s of two different channels for firm.
Recommendation: The most suitable channel for Fullerton business [20]
To: Fullerton's Fudge
From: Candidate’s Name
Date: Todays date
Reference: Distribution
Introduction
Selling directly but planning to open many retailers can be impractical for retailers because they do not live near to
factory.

57
Findings
Direct Channel – Producer – Consumer
Advantages
Suitable for the use of specialist businesses.
Cut out profit margins.
Manufacturer has full control over pricing + marketing of products
Direct marketing can be selective and targeted at potential customers
Disadvantages
Manufacturers are solely responsible for holding stock – staging cost higher
Direct marketing – poor image can lead to resentment “junk mail”

Producer – Wholesaler – Retailer – Consumer
Advantages
Wholesaler performs important stockholding and breaking bulk functions
Can provide a wider coverage over the country
Fewer transactions are needed for manufacturer
Gives credit to smaller retailers
May deliver to smaller retailers saving them money on transport
Promotion carried out by wholesaler
Wholesaler can give advice to smaller retailers and to manufacturer on consumers' expectations
Disadvantages
Shows down distribution chain
Wholesaler will expect to make a profit which will reduce profit margin for manufacturer
May be more expensive for the retailer to buy from a wholesaler than straight from manufacturer
May not have the full range of products, leads to limited choices
Takes longer for product to reach the shops and may not be of good quality
Conclusion
Direct channel not cost-effective but products can be cheaper. Wholesalers buy in bulk and retailers can
therefore buy in smaller quantities because they cannot afford large quantities
Recommendation
Wholesaler is the best option because the channel of distribution allows retailers to buy in small quantities and
the product becomes more widely available to consumers.

Teachers should ensure that all competencies in the syllabus are adequately covered and should seek assistance when
necessary.
They should explain each report component clearly and regularly assess learners on report writing. The report format
must be clearly displayed in the classroom.
Learners should be advised to read their questions carefully before attempting to answer any question. Also teach them
to answer in context.
Lastly, learners should be encouraged to study the subject definitions/terminology very carefully.

58
COMPUTER STUDIES
8324
Paper 1
General Comments
There has been a slight improvement in performance compared to last year. Albeit the pandemic challenges that
affected everyone, some candidates stood up to the examination and scored well. It was however clear that not all
topics were covered at some centres.
Selective teaching or learning was evident from some centres. Educators are encouraged to cover the entire syllabus
and therefore adequately prepare the candidates for the examination.
In general, candidates’ responses demonstrated subject knowledge appropriate to the specification. However, some
candidates were evidently not fully prepared for the examination. It is the duty of the educators to prepare candidates
to be as prepared as possible.
Furthermore, over the years, candidates found it predominantly challenging to apply knowledge to a given scenario
and the questions where candidates are required to write pseudocode. Educators are also encouraged to adequately
prepare candidates on how to deal with questions where application is needed as required by the syllabus.
The presentation of work was generally good. Candidates should also be encouraged to attempt all questions on the
question paper.
Comments on specific questions
1 Most candidates could not name and describe a feature of declarative

languages. Rather candidates presented general description(s) of how declarative languages function.
Rules (1 mark)
1 mark for any one bullet from
- Use variables which can be applied to existing fact/rules.
- Reduces the need for repetition of facts/ additional lines of code.
- Adds information/meaning based on other facts/rules.
- Establishes relationships between facts/rules.
- Can implement recursion
OR
Queries (1 mark)
allow facts/rules to be interrogated (1 mark)
OR
Pattern matching (1 mark)
- allows facts/rules to be matched. (1 mark)
2 (a) (i) The reasons expected had to justify choice of public cloud over private cloud. The notion of
public cloud being more secure than private cloud was not acceptable as this is circumstantial
rather than tied down to private / public.
- Public cloud services can be easily increased or decreased to match current needs.
- Can set up or easily expand capacity of public cloud storage without purchasing hardware.
- Public cloud removes need for backup/maintenance/ administration strategies (for the security
company).
- Public cloud has lower initial costs than private cloud.
- To allow authorised users to have access
1 mark per point (maximum 2 marks)
(ii) Generally well answered as candidates provided a wide variety of precautionary options.
- Username and passwords to access public cloud.
- Use of encryption.
- Firewall.
- Require use of digital certificate.
- Biometric techniques
NSSCO Examiners Report 2020

59
(b) Generally well answered. A common pitfall was candidates suggesting that public cloud is free but
that suggestion is invalid as it is not always the case. It also doesn’t follow that cloud storage is more
secure than local phone storage as this is circumstantial.
- Capacity can be increased / decreased to suite needs (scalability)
- Accessed from anywhere with internet connection
- Files accessible from another device
- Backup of data becomes easier
3 A sizeable number of candidates were better prepared for this question. Well done.
CLI:
– commands/instructions need to be typed in/entered
– user needs to remember the commands/use the correct syntax
– user needs to have some knowledge of how computers work
– user has more control over computer
– needs less system/memory resources
– user is in direct communication with the computer
– it is difficult to edit commands once they have been entered
– accesses the whole of the operating system
2 marks maximum for each one
GUI:
– only need to click/select an icon to carry out function
– (standard) icons represent (intuitive) applications
– menus are used to select action/options
– use a windows, icons, menus and pointers environment (not just WIMP)
– WYSIWYG
1 mark per point for CLI, maximum 2
1 mark per point for GUI, maximum2
4 Most of the candidates struggled to declare an array as well as perform required operations as required
by the syllabus. This area / concept proved challenging to most candidates. Teachers are encouraged to
prepare candidates better for such syllabus sections as well as avoid selective teaching / learning.
(a) DECLARE athletes[8] As athleteData or DECLARE athletes[7] As athletedata

1 mark for data type as athleteData
1 mark for an array of 8 values assigned to variable athletes
(b) DECLARE athletes[ ] INITIALLY athleteData (“Agnes”, “Witbooi”, 178, True, 6.25, 61•5)
OR
SET athletes[ ] TO athleteData (“Agnes”, “Witbooi”, 178, 1, 6.25, 61•5)
OR
athletes( ).forename = “Agnes” athletes( ).surname = “Witbooi” athletes( ).athleteNumber = 178 athletes(
).professional = 1 athletes( ).seasonBest = 6.25 athletes( ).weight = 61.5
1 mark for use of array e.g. athletes( ) (accept appropriate name or name candidate declared in (a))
1 mark for use of athleteData as a data type NOT a variable
1 mark for correct values in correct order or values related to the field name
Accept answers in pseudocode

- Array e.g. athletes( )
- Field Names e.g. .forename
- Assignment of value
(c) SET longest TO athletes[0].seasonBest

FOR counter FROM 1 to 10 DO
IF atheletes[counter].seasonBest > longest (or 8) THEN
longest = atheletes [counter]. seasonBest
END IF
END FOR
1 mark for assignments of longest before loop

1 mark for use of seasonBest as a field to access record at least once
1 mark for correct IF construct with correct condition (with end if or indentation)

60
1 mark for assignment of minimum using the array()
1 mark for correct loop construct (with end loop or indentation)
5 Well answered question. However more emphasis should be directed on teaching candidates to read and
understand questions before attempting.
1 mark for each correct output device + 1 mark for each reason, maximum of 2 per department
data collection centre

large computer screen/monitor – to clearly view the collated data
dot matrix printer – to print data sheets on multi formed paper
plotters – to print large sized graphs or charts of data collected
speakers / beep devices / alarms to alert users of any anomalies identified from the data being collected
design office
large computer screen/monitor
need to be able to see new designs very clearly if screens are CRT it is possible to use light pens
(graph) plotters
to produce “blue-prints” which can be used to build prototypes often necessary to produce full size drawings of new
product
3D printers
these allow production of solid prototypes/models that work reduces cost of tooling up to make a real working
example
marketing
laser printers
producing large numbers of brochures/catalogues/flyers quiet operation in office environment

high speed operation when producing large print runs
screens
to show dialogue/script when answering customer queries
headphones
to hear customer queries
finance
dot matrix/impact printer
pay slips produced on continuous stationery “hidden information” in ready sealed envelopes
laser/inkjet printer
produces payslip for later sealing

none secure
needed to produce hard copy of a wage slip
6 A sizeable number of candidates still did not get the concepts related to MIS as
the question was poorly answered.
- Provides past, present and prediction information
- Helps in decision making
- MIS manager typically analyses business problems
- MIS manager designs and maintains computer applications to solve the organisation's problems
- Helps with project management
- Managers use management information systems to gather and analyse information about various aspects of
the organization such as personnel, sales, inventory and production
- Management information systems are used to create reports on aspects such as sales, revenue and production
- Management information systems are used to create charts (on aspects such as sales, revenue and production)
- These reports are provided at regular intervals to managers at all levels to help them evaluate their companies'
performance

61
- By comparing daily, weekly or monthly reports to previous reports, managers are able to spot trends, such as
revenue growth or reduction
- By creating charts, can see trends such as revenue growth or reduction
1 mark for each correct point, maximum of 3
7 Well answered by majority of candidates.
(a) Three from:

- Interview face-to-face with managers asking about their views/opinions of the current system
- Managers can be available for in depth discussion/additional questions
- Not many managers, so time is not a constraint/consideration
1 mark for correct method, 1 mark for each correct reason, maximum 2
(b) Three from:

- Observation of the assembly workers to avoid disturbing/ distracting them at/from their work
- Observers can see the process first hand/for themselves
- Observers do not need to understand the technical language of the process
(c) Three from:

- Using questionnaires so that clerical staff can take them away and complete in own time
- Questionnaires can be anonymously returned/completed cannot use observation as the clerical staff
behaviour could change
- Too many clerical staff to interview Clerical staff can remain anonymous
- study / investigate past documents – this doesn’t interfere with their work
and doesn’t require much of their time
Award marks for well-argued incorrect method, maximum of two marks for each part
8 Seems concepts were well mastered by a majority of candidates.
(a) Three from:

- Translates the whole program as one complete unit
- Creates an executable file
- Is able to report on a number of errors in the code after compilation
- Does not need to be present in order to run the code
- Can optimise source code to run as fast or as efficiently as possible.
(b) Three from:

- Translates each line of source code into an intermediate stage and then executes that line/statement
- Reports on errors as lines of source code are entered
- Only a few lines of source code needs to be in memory at any one time
- Some interpreters execute code within a 'virtual machine’….
…these have been designed to disallow code from directly accessing the computer.
9 Part (a) and part c(iii) seemed to be challenging for a sizeable number of candidates.
(a) Any three from:

- an error-control protocol
- automatically initiates a call to retransmit any data packet or frame after receiving flawed or incorrect data
- when the transmitting device fails to receive an acknowledgement signal to confirm the data has been
received….
- ….it usually retransmits the data after a preset timeout and repeats the process a preset number
of times …
- ….until the transmitting device receives the acknowledgement.
- ARQs are often used to assure reliable transmissions over an unreliable service.
Maximum of 3
(b) (i) 11010001

1 mark for correct bit

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(ii) Any two points from:
- computer “B” counts number of 1-bits
- if number of 1-bits is even then byte has been transmitted correctly
- if number of 1-bits is odd then byte has been corrupted during transmission
1 mark for each correct bullet, maximum 2
(c) (i)
(see diagram above). 1 mark for identifying third byte and 1 mark for identifying 5th bit as an error
(ii) 1 mark for correct bit, maximum 1
0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0
(iii) Any two from:

- for example, a check sum
- brief description of check sum
- description of alternative checking method
- ask for data to be re-sent
- check digit
10 Generally well answered question although a small group of candidates struggled to design a meaningful
logic circuit.
(a) 1 mark to be allocated per gate except where shown differently.
Single NAND gate 2 marks, also a single 3 input OR gate at end.

Maximum 6

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(b) 1 mark for two correct rows, maximum 4
INPUT OUTPUT
X Y Z Working A
0 0 0 1
0 0 1 1
0 1 0 0
0 1 1 1
1 0 0 1
1 0 1 0
1 1 0 1
1 1 1 1
(c) (i) 93
(ii)
0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0
(iii) pattern with any five consecutive 1 bits
(iv) 31
11 Generally well answered question with the exception of part b(ii) where selective teaching / learning proved rife.
(a) 1 mark for first 3 items in their correct places + 1 mark for last 2 items in correct places

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(b) (i) Record 3097 will be over-written
1 mark for a correct point
(ii) 1 mark for name/description and a further mark for more detail
use an overflow area / bucket
- any record subject to collision is placed serially in overflow area
- set flag (to show overflow in use)
use of linked lists

- original location acts as head of list and points to list of any records that have been subject to a
collision/use of tag
next location after occupied one is used if not yet occupied

- this process continues until an empty location is found
use a secondary hashing algorithm

- to generate a new address for the record
12 Majority of candidates were better prepared for this question with the exception of part (b) where
candidates poorly applied the concept of Nano-particles in the given scenario.
(a) 1 mark for each correct point, maximum 2

- a field that covers science and engineering
- It takes place on a tiny scale - larger than the level of atoms and molecules, but within the range of
1-100 nanometres.
(b) 1 mark for each correct point, maximum 2

- the minute sizes of nanoparticles means they can behave in different ways and do not follow the same
laws of physics that larger objects do
- the minute sizes ensure more spaces of the skin are covered by the nanotech-based sunscreen
- this provides solutions to some problems that could not be dealt with effectively before
(c) 1 mark for each correct point, maximum 2

- early disease detection is possible if nano-sensors are used to identify and quantify biological
substances in body fluids.
- drug-delivery method that will make use of highly-targeted capsules to fight cancer cells or areas of pain
without affecting other organs.
(d) 1 mark for each correct point, maximum 1

- fears that there may be risks to humans and the environment that we don't know about yet, for example
tiny nanoparticles may be toxic under certain circumstances
- since this is a fairly emerging technology, it can be costly to effectively implement
- risk of being used for malicious purposes just like all emerging technology
13 Most candidates were generally well prepared for this question.
(a) - CPU regularly checks the peripheral if anything has happened that it needs to deal with.
It goes around each of its peripherals in turn.
-
Polling is much more inefficient than an interrupt system, as often nothing will have happened, so the
-
CPU wastes time asking.
(b) - Is when two computers exchange signals in order to set up a communication link
- Once both computers are happy, and ready, communication can continue.
14 Part (a) of the question proved challenging for majority of candidates. Candidates provided a wide variety
and interesting responses to part (b) of the question. Selective teaching / learning was evident.

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(a)
4G GPRS
4th Generation Long Term Evolution (LTE) General Packet Radio Service
Internet Protocol (IP) packet switched network packet-based wireless communication service
much faster, maximum speed can reach up to 1

slower, offers up to ≈ 171Kbps bit rate
Gbps with LTE-A Protocol-based.
Faster speed means it can support HD video Not so fast so can support multimedia messaging
streaming and seamless connectivity system (MMS) and not HD video streaming
Uses more battery life Battery life friendly
1 mark for each correct comparison, maximum 4
(b) Streaming applications e.g. YouTube, VoIP applications such as Skype

You need very high bit rates for streaming applications to function optimally otherwise there will be lots of
buffering or lagging when the video and audio play.
(c) - new teaching methods can be used

- improved communication between students/teachers/parents
- improved storage of educational resources like documents/video clips/audio clips, images etc
- 24/7 access to content
- improved portability
- students/teachers/parents can easily track progress
- facilitates non-contact / distance teaching / learning
15 Majority of candidates seemed to be well clued up with these contemporary

issues. Question was generally well answered.
(a) Cyberstalking
Description
- a criminal practice where an individual uses the Internet to systematically harass or threaten someone.
- can be perpetrated through email, social media, chat rooms, instant messaging clients and any other
online medium.
Strategies
- avoid posting personal data
- be mindful of your passwords
- be wary of emails, chats etc that ask for your personal information
- seek professional help if you are being cyber-stalked
- enable privacy options that limit your personal information from being accessed publicly
1 mark for a correct description and 1 mark for correct strategy, maximum 2
(b) Cyber-bullying
Description
- the use of electronic communication to bully a person, typically by sending messages of an intimidating
or threatening nature
- can occur through SMS, Text, and apps, or online in social media, forums, or gaming where people can
view, participate in, or share content

Strategies against
- seek adult or professional help
- don’t retaliate
- collect and store proof of cyber-bullying
- Reporting perpetrators to authorities
1 mark for a correct description and 1

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8324
Paper 2
Introduction
This report is divided into two sections; namely the general comments and the specific sections.
The overall impact of COVID19 was evident in most candidates’ work. Lack of thoroughness in attempting various
sections, failure to complete the projects as well as increased levels of plagiarism were just but a few of the indicators
that predominantly impacted the quality of candidates’ work.
Albeit the challenging times that affected everyone, some candidates still managed to follow the syllabus rubric and
presented detailed yet original work. Furthermore, at certain centres, there was evidence of candidates’ work being
thoroughly supervised as is expected. In most cases, at such centres the teachers also used the syllabus rubric closely
when mark thereby improving marking standards, fairness as well as consistency. A big well done to such candidates
and teachers.
General Comments
In most centres, clear signs of decline in quality of candidates’ work in comparison to last year were observed. There
was however a slight improvement in the level of marking with the exception of a few centres where it seemed as though
the teachers were new to Continuous Assessment marking. Despite the olds facing the candidates due to the difficult
COVID19 circumstances, some creative and outstanding work was also presented this year by some candidates.
At some centres the teachers seemed to inappropriately award marks to candidates and in such centres, the majority
of candidates would not provide even the minimum requirements of content in certain sections as prescribed by the
assessment rubric provided in the syllabus but yet awarded full marks in these sections. Teachers must diligently use
the assessment rubric that is provided in the syllabus when marking Continuous Assessment projects.
a. Completion of Continuous Assessment Projects:
It was also clear that candidates from some centres could not complete the Continuous Assessment project and therefore
would not attempt some stages at all or the attempts were incomplete. Candidates who start early enough and dedicate
more time to the projects mostly produce high end products. Candidates who start late or do not dedicate adequate
time to the projects produce poor end products. Teachers are strongly advised to make sure that learners start with their
projects in Grade 11 already for 8324 and 4325 and in Grade 10 for 6134 as Computer Studies is a two-year syllabus.
b. Assessment rubric interpretation:
Assessment rubric interpretation remains crucial. When a teacher does not interpret the assessment rubric to the
standards expected, the teacher will not award candidates marks that they deserve. This is either through over-
awarding or under-awarding marks to unacceptable levels. It is therefore advisable that teachers get ongoing mentorship
from educational officers or colleagues that are well skilled and experienced in Continuous Assessment for Computer
Studies, in the respective levels (8324/4325/6134). Additionally, in case your subject advisor or educational officer
does not specialise in Computer Studies, which a common occurrence, the teacher should try soliciting for help using
alternative routes such as online collaborative platforms among others.
c. Rigorous guide to candidates:
Teachers should be more vigilant with candidates’ CA projects from day one to the last day of submission. This should
be through rigorous revision and pre-assessment of project work of candidates. It was clear that many candidates
had no idea what to do in specific sections and they left out many sections. Teachers MUST guide learners through
the entire project and give suggestions for improvement as much as possible. By no chance, this approach does not
parallel doing the project for the candidates.
Teachers are advised to guide learners on all the topics (sections) that should be included in the project. Each topic
(section) should be discussed and handled thoroughly with learners. Give target dates and then check up on learner’s
progress on the set dates. This will ensure that the teacher can see where learners are struggling and where they
require assistance and guidance before it is too late. Whenever possible, let the learners’ parents or guardians aware
of the project as it helps you (the teacher) with home monitoring or follow ups.

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Find and apply innovative techniques to motivate your candidates throughout the CA project duration. As a maiden
project of this nature for most candidates, this is probably the most challenging and intense project that candidates are
embarking. As a life-long educator, your guidance will go a long way in their academic journey and as such it should be
given the respect and value that it deserves.
d. Continuous Assessment Project Topics:
Teachers are also expected to guide the learners in coming up with appropriate project topics or ideas. It was clear
that some learners chose projects which had nothing to do with solving problems that solicit them to showcase skills or
approaches that they learn in Computer Studies. Attempting such projects is defies the main objectives of the Computer
Studies syllabus and is therefore unacceptable. Furthermore, teachers are also recommended to discourage learners
from the same centre from working on the same project topics or ideas. Creative and unique project topics or ideas will
stimulate learners to come up with creative project end products yet promoting independence.
e. Caution against plagiarism:
Warn learners about plagiarism and copying from the internet as well as from one another. In the future, when work
is plagiarised or copied either from the internet or from another learner, no marks will be allocated for this work AND it
might even be considered as incomplete especially where evidence can be found of copying or plagiarism. Teachers
should be more vigilant and rigorous in checking for originality of candidates’ work.
If the teacher is unsure whether specific learners have copied or plagiarised from the internet or otherwise and the
learners cannot present reasonable solution to the problem, seek help from your subject advisor or educational officer.
If copying or plagiarism, etc. should be the case, you (the teacher) should be able to pick this up fairly early. Since you
start in grade 10 or 11 already and assess different sections of the project REGULARLY, guide the learner to redo this
section (topic) or start over. DO NOT LET COPYING OR PLAGIARISM OF PROJECT INFORMATION (from the internet
or otherwise) GO ON FOR TOO LONG, the longer you (as the teacher) wait the worse it becomes.
Encourage candidates to submit sections at set dates and discourage sudden or complete change of topics towards the
end as this normally means gross plagiarism or ‘resurrecting’ past projects. Also keep copies of candidates sectional
submission so that you have proof and can check against this.
Specific sections
a. Objectives:
The Objectives section is a key pinnacle of the entire project. The Business related and Computer related Objectives
should be SMART (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic and Timeous). It benefits the leaners in big ways if the
teacher guides them intensively on setting up SMART objectives as these determine the quality of the entire project.
Remember the learners most likely are doing this for the first time and it may take time and effort for them to grasp the
concept well enough. In most cases, poorly outlined objectives mean that even if the project takes off, the end product
will also be of poor quality. The converse is also true.
b. Data Flow in existing System:
For Higher Level, Data Flow in existing system, this section was not presented well in the project for most candidates.
Candidates are expected to show the logical flow of data in the existing system by using acceptable computer related
diagrams or charts such as Data Flow Diagrams (DFDs), Systems flow charts etc. and making use of the correct
symbols. Teachers are advised to teach learners on how to use these charts and guide them through intensive practice
sessions. This way learners will grasp the concepts as expected, thereby enabling the candidates to apply the concepts
in their own projects.
c. Action Plan:
The action plan should, in all instances, be clearly related to the objectives and the Gantt chart should reflect what is
set-out in the action plan. Detailed description of each stage should also be included. Like in yester years, it was a
common pitfall that the Gantt chart presented, did not correctly depict the time spent on the various stages as shown in
the detailed action plan. It was also common that some candidates did not provide the detailed description of what each
staged represented in the action plan covers and therefore could not score full marks even if the correct Gantt chart
was provided. Furthermore, this year plagiarism was rife on this section. Teachers should be particularly more vigilant.

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d. Hardware and software requirements:
Hardware and Software requirements should be related to THE REQUIREMENTS OF THE PROPOSED SOLUTION,
not general requirements to use a computer application. It should be made clear to learners that they should identify
the hardware and software used to create the system in the Technical Documentation and the hardware and software
needed to run the system in the User Documentation. Although there was an improvement on this section in comparison
to past years, some learners did not justify their choice(s) of the hardware and software in the contexts of the proposed
solution as expected.
It is also important for teachers to be extra vigilant with these sections as plagiarism is rife. Teachers are encouraged
to enforce candidates to provide specific hardware and software requirements rather than general hardware or software
requirements. This way, plagiarism will be easy to identify and will therefore be discouraged.
e. Design of method of solution:
The Design Method of Solution section requires learners to clearly show how the learner designed each module of the
system. A link from the Separate Modules section should be put to use thereby simplifying the candidates work. There
should be clear evidence of all modules, tables, forms, relationships, design view of queries, reports of the proposed
solution etc. The entire system should be covered, including the Main Menu.
f. Design algorithms for each module:
In syllabus 8324, learners should design an algorithm for each and every process in ALL modules, not only for one or
two. Pseudo code or Flow Charts are acceptable. If flow charts are used, then the correct symbols should be used.
g. Testing:
Testing of the proposed solution should involve test strategies for Input, Processing and Output of the proposed system.
Most learners focused on Input only. Queries (parameter and action, where entries are made and a process takes place)
can also be used for testing a type of data.
Teachers should also fairly award marks in consistence with the syllabus rubric.
h. User documentation
User documentation should be CLEAR. There are several guides on what should be included in the user documentation.
It should have a separate front page, index, introduction, problem description, etc. User documentation should guide
the user STEP BY STEP on how to use EVERY FEATURE AND BUTTON, etc. of the proposed solution.
i. Technical documentation:
Learners should be made aware that they create their OWN CUSTOMISED VALIDATION RULES WITH ORIGINAL
AND CUSTOM-MADE ERROR MESSAGES. System error messages cannot be accepted.
j. Technical skills:
For syllabus 8324, to give marks for Section 20 – Technical Skills, teachers should evaluate what was created, how it
was created and to which extent did the learner use exceptional methods to create a working system. The syllabus
provides clear mark allocation methods for each skills level. Mostly only very exceptional learners, using coding methods,
automated features and other advanced development skills, can score a 12 – 14 skills level.
Conclusion
Both seasoned and new teachers are advised to familiarise themselves with the assessment criteria interpretation as
well as assessment methods used for the project work before marking the projects. Try to reach out to your experienced
peers and challenge yourself to always learn and improve yourselves. Good teachers avoid professional isolation and
should therefore seek help from the more experienced teachers or subject advisors.
Collaboration among peers is encouraged as it curbs the challenges of space and time. Online collaborative methods
proved doable and beneficial during pandemic times e.g. WhatsApp, Google Groups etc. Perhaps such methods
should be used even more often beyond pandemic times.
The overall standard of the project work and internal project moderation was acceptable, but there are still some areas
which need to be addressed as soon as possible.
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70
DESIGN AND TECHNOLOGY
8340
Paper 1
General comments
This is now the 14th year for this syllabus to be examined. In comparison with the standard of 2020, the average
performance of candidates suggests that there was a decrease in marks. This decrease in marks could be as a result of
the difficult time this year, taking the situation of Covid 19 in consideration. The situation is still prevailing in the country,
but under this circumstances the candidates did well. Thanks to all the role players, especially the teachers and the
candidates themselves. Overall there was evidence that there was a slight decrease in the achievement of results in
comparison with that of 2019.
Candidates interpret the questions well and in most cases quality answers were given. It is also evident that most of the
candidates answered the resistant material question while about 15% answered the communication question and 1%
of candidates answered the technology question. The candidates, who answered the technology question, achieved
overall less marks than the rest except a few who performed better.
Part A
1 (a) Most of the candidates did answer this question correctly.
(b) Most of the candidates answered correctly.
2 About 50% candidates answered this question correctly.
(a) The candidates had to identify the two methods of conversions of wood.
- They could not answer as expected, because the term “conversion” was unknown to them.
(b) Because they could not relate to the above mentioned term, they could not answer this question correctly.
(c) Only a few candidates could differentiate between the plywoods.
3 (a) Most of the candidates scored good marks for this question.
(b) Most of the candidates could answer correctly
4 (a) About 50% of the candidates answered as expected, but the rest of candidates did not know what
“dropforge” is
(b) Most of the candidates answered this question as expected, very well.
5 (a) Most of the candidates could successfully answer the question correctly
(b) Most of the candidates answered this question correctly.
6 Most of the candidates could not answer this question correctly, because they did not know the different
types of forces.
7 Only a few candidates could answer this question correctly. Most of them lacked the mathematiscal and
scientific skills.

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8 (a+b) Most of the candidates could not see the ratio of the number of teeth in the gear system shown.
9 About 50% of the candidates answered this question fairly well.
10 (a+b) Most of the candidates could candidates could score full marks in this question regarding the systems.
(c) Most of the candidates did not know what “astable” means.
11 Design and Communication
Only two centres answered this question.
(a) Front; top and right view
• Most of the candidates that attempted this question drew the views of the correctly
• Quality of the line work was satisfactory
• Overall presentation of the drawing was fair.
• The hidden detail was done by most of the candidates.
(b) Dimensions
Most of the candidates inserted the four dimensions as required, but fail to score maximum marks, because it
was not done according to the SANS code
(c) Print writing
Most of the candidates did the print writing, but failed to do it correctly according to standard. Only one or two
candidates could score full marks.
(d) Truncated cone
(i) Almost all the candidates answered the question, but all of them could not score maximum
marks, because they drew the centre line incorrectly.
(ii) Most of the candidates could not draw the top view of the cone correctly, because they lack the
skills to do the projections correctly.
(iii) Only a few candidates attempted this question, but only one or two could score maximum marks.
(iv) Only a few candidates attempted this question, but only one or two could score maximum marks.
(v) Most of the candidates scored good marks here, because some projection lines were shown.
(vi) Most of the candidates scored fair marks, but only a few could score maximum marks.
12 Resistant materials
Most of the candidates answered this part of the question paper.
(a) (i) Most of the candidates answered this question very well as expected.
(ii) This question was answered well by most of the candidates.
(iii) Only a few candidates could answer this question satisfactorily.
(b) (i) Only of the candidates could not identify A and B.

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(ii) Most of the candidates could score maximum marks.
(iii) Most of the candidates could not answer this question correctly.
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) Most of the candidates scored good marks for these questions.
(d) (i) Most of the candidates could answer this question fairly and scored good marks.
(ii) Most candidates gave valid reasons and scored good marks.
(iii) Only a few candidates could give the correct answer – work hardening
(iv) Most of the candidates attempted to answer this question, but quite a few of them could not score
maximum marks.
(e) (i), (ii) and (iii) Most of the candidates could give the correct answers and could score maximum marks.
(f) (i) Most of the candidates could answer this question correctly.
(ii) Most of the candidates could not describe the process, because they could not relate to extrusion.
(g) (i) and (ii) This question was answered very well by all the candidates, all of them did not scored
maximum marks, but most did.
(iii) (a) Correctly answered by most candidates.
(b) Although some of the sketches presented by the candidates were not completely correct. And on a
high standard, most of them scored good marks.
13 Technology
Only a few candidates answered this part of the question paper.
(a) (i) Only one candidate could score maximum marks.
(ii) This question was answered very well by most of the candidates.
(iii) Only one or two candidate could score maximum marks with the explanation.
(b) (i) Nobody could score maximum marks.
(ii) Only one candidate could score good marks.
(c) (i) This question was answered correctly by most candidates.
(ii) and (iii) Only one or two candidates could score maximum marks, most of them lacks mathematical skills.
(d) Most of the candidates gave good answers and scored good marks.
(e) (i) This question was not answered as was expected, but fair answers were given in some cases.
(ii) 1. Most of the candidates could not do the correct calculation and did not score top marks.
2 Most of the candidates attempted this question, but could in some cases not give satisfactory answers,
therefore could not score maximum marks.
(f) Only a few candidates could not give the correct answer (diagrams)
(g) (i) Most of the candidates scored maximum marks
(ii) Most of the candidates could not give the correct answer.

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8340
Paper 2
General comments
It is with great pleasure to thank all stakeholders in education, especially the teachers and candidates which went
through a difficult time to be prepared for this examination. Since the Covid 19 Pandemic is still prevailing in the country,
it was a very difficult time for all of us, but it is the wish of everybody to overcome this situation.
It is evident that each year the work of the candidates show improvement, in the bettering of marks achieved.
The standard of the candidates’ work was slightly better overall than that of 2019. Although a slight increase in marks in
the top band, which can be due to the quality of work presented in comparison to that of 2019.
The difficulty level of the paper was more or less the same as in 2019. It was set according to the prescribed standard
structure, allowing candidates to score high marks if they were well prepared. However, candidates did not present their
answers as well as expected. A lot of information was not given as required by notes and sketches, which resulted in
lower marks allocated, but overall they did better than the previous year.
(a) Most of the candidates answered this question satisfactorily, but there is still place for improvement
in some cases. A few candidates could not analyse their selected problem satisfactorily. They mostly
concentrated on the obvious and superfluous problems, limiting their opportunity to suggest innovative
solutions.
(b) This part of the question paper was answered fairly well overall. Quite a few candidates could not give
specific specification. They tend to give generic specifications on their analysis.
(c) Although the sketch work of most of the candidates was satisfactorily done, they failed to include
reasonable information by way of notes, labeling and evaluation. It was expected from the candidates
to evaluate each idea against the specifications.
It was also expected of the candidates not to generalize, for example, when referring to materials, a specific material
(timber, plastic, metal etc.) should be identified and the reason why the specific material was suggested should be well
documented, referring to its particular properties, uses, availability and environmental impact.
Candidates mostly tended to explore only three ideas, but this year most of them explored more than three. By doing
so, it satisfy it least a mark in the middle band of this particular assessment criterion. Candidates who could propose
four and more solutions also demonstrated that they had a wider perspective of the potential problem and could propose
unique and innovative solutions while also opening up the possibilities for further development. Therefore they scored
higher marks.
(d) A few candidates scored good marks, but most of them performed only fairly. Development means
that each component should be evaluated against the specifications. A proper detailed sketches and
working drawing should be given with notes, dimensions, sketches and relevant information. Anyone
should be able to take the development plan and make the artifact accordingly.
(e) Most of the candidates tended to list materials without showing evidence that these materials were
considered based on their particular properties. Only by listing and evaluating these particular
properties can be enough information to select an appropriate material for a specific function to
be done. Instead they made the list longer by adding tools and equipment to be used, which was
irrelevant, because it was not required as part of the answer.
(f) Quite a few candidates did well in this question, but there is still much room for improvement. If (d)
was done, the candidate should be able to give a final drawing or drawings by using different drawing
techniques, pictorial, orthographic or isometric. Work should be further detailed by rendering and
coloring and where there might still be some information lacking. Labeling, dimensions and notes
should be used to produce a complete and well-structured presentation.

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8340
Paper 3
GENERAL COMMENTS
The year 2020 has been a challenging year for NSSC/H Design and Technology coursework due to the implications
of Covid-19. Despite the challenges, centres must be commended for efforts deployed to ensure the completion and
submission of coursework samples from all reasons. Although there is decrease of 13% in the top band (Grade 1)
compared 2019, results in the middle band (Grade 3) shows a slight improvement of 2,4% compared to the previous
year. Despite 2020 being a difficult year to the education sector, coursework results are not as poor as anticipated.
The quality of coursework for NSSC/H 2020 is centres that are known to have done well over the years whereas the
same tendency was observed with centres that produced coursework that are below average. Regrettably, a big habitual
tendency of errors is still picked up at many centres since problems are more or less the same as in the previous years.
It implies that the overall quality of coursework did not show a remarkable improvement. Regional Offices should make
sure that Examiner’s Reports are studied and recommendations drafted for implementation purposes from the regions
to the schools.
Regional Office should give continuous professional development (CPD) programmes for teachers teaching Design
and Technology. If possible networking with DNEA, NIED and other regions with Senior Education Officers as well as
relevant stakeholders should be initiated to have teachers capacitated and assisted on a regular basis. The common
mistakes centres made during the 2020 design folder are basically the same as the previous years. This makes one
realise how many candidates are penalised for poor quality work submitted because of centres who have not been
putting in the much needed efforts from the beginning of the Senior Secondary phase. A conclusion could be drawn that
Centre Reports are not studied and recommendations not implemented by many centres. Due to the defiant negligence
by some centres, the assistance of the Regional Directors is needed to make sure that Senior Education Officers and
Circuit Inspectors study and analyse these reports and monitor that the recommendations are implemented at schools
that present Design and Technology as a subject.
Once again, Regional Offices, principals and HOD’s are pleaded to take the responsibility of ensuring that folders and
projects are monitored throughout the two year NSSC course in future. Towards the end of the second term of the
Grade final year, the folders should be internally moderated before the marks are dispatched to DNEA for external
moderation. Regional Offices must make sure that NSSC schools are provided with the necessary materials and tools
for candidates to build quality models. DNEA observed that some centres’ projects were compromised by the lack of
adequate resources. It is not expected to see candidates who are not submitting any folder or coursework and that
zero marks are given with explanations as to why learners do not submit while on the other hand no evidence or proof
is shared in attempted of efforts done by teacher/HOD/ principal schoolboard /Regional Office ( SEO’s). Since the folder
is supposed to be completed over a two year time span it should not be done in one weeks time which is the case at
some Centres.
Candidates who are not submitting photographic evidence has become common practice, yet marks are awarded for
the quality of products by the centres. There were a few cases where candidates made poor problem selections and
outcomes and showed little evidence of imaginative interpretation and creativity. The sample of work presented for
moderation was suitable in most cases and centres generally applied the assessment criteria appropriately, although,
in some cases, this was not at the correct level.
All folders must include clear photographic evidence of the artefacts, in addition to an overall view of the final product,
showing detail to support the awarding of marks.
COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC ASSESSMENT HEADINGS
Defining
Most of the candidates clearly stated the problem to be addressed but not all gave a concise Design Brief. The
degree to which candidates researched the design problem varied enormously. Candidates should be encouraged
to complete adequate and relevant research in order to form a suitable knowledge base before formulating the Brief.
Only then can the specifications be listed. These specifications must be relatively specific. Many candidates stated
generic specifications like “it must be safe, must not be expensive, etc.” This research does not refer to materials and
its properties. Most candidates included points of specification but of a generic nature which could be applied to any
product.

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Research
Often this research consisted simply of information on materials and constructions taken directly from textbook sources.
Information of this type is totally irrelevant at this stage of a design process and should be considered in the development
stage when ideas have been explored.
Candidates should do research into similar existing products as mentioned in the Design Brief and evaluate these
products regarding cost, material, etc. This section should give clear and specific requirements for the design outcome
and for the awarding of maximum marks.
Conceptualising
This is the part were most candidates lost valuable marks. Imaginative and innovative handling of good range of
concepts and ideas is of essence. This is where candidates can show evidence of genuine design creativity and
not copies from books. Some candidates included a wide range of different ideas enhanced by clearly annotated
sketches. Too often candidates presented a few formal drawings that showed too little design capabilities and tended to
follow a single concept. These ideas can be presented most successfully through sketches and candidates should be
encouraged to include everything that comes to mind. Annotations should include comments as to how an idea might
link to the specification.
Development
In this section of the folder the candidates should take the chosen idea and make further detailed decisions on form,
materials and construction methods to be used in the final product. Ideas should be fully developed with good attention
to detail. Candidates are expected to show deep insight and good command of related knowledge. In most cases a
notable improvement was observed, but in some cases candidates still found it difficult to apply, and in these cases the
final ideas were simply a repetition of one of the ideas recorded in the previous section.
In most cases the final drawings of the Design Solution were generally well-presented and gave sufficient information
with regards to the manufacturing of the product. However, working drawings still prove to be a major concern for most
centres.
Presentation
Candidates were expected to show refined graphical skills including fluent freehand and precise measured drawings.
Most centres could produce drawings with good command of rendering and other enhancement which is commendable.
Centres in the top band produced excellent communication skills and had their work well managed and attractively laid
out.
Product realization (Control; Technical; Product)
Candidates should be congratulated on the wide range of materials used for their products. Photographic evidence
(photographic gallery) showed that some candidates were able to work on their own and able to work at an acceptable
standard of construction and finish to the extent that the end product could be used. Sadly, some centres could not
provide sufficient photographic evidence to substantiate the credibility of the folders. Some photographic evidence
is just a mere posing activity and no real action is seen which made it difficult for the moderator to clearly distinguish
various safe approaches and processes from the photos.
Notably, photographic evidence showed some candidates operating power tools (such as angle grinders) without the
required protective clothing (leather gloves, eye protection), an unsafe practise that should be discouraged.
Testing and Evaluation
Most candidates included photographic evidence to show the testing of the product, which is commendable. They are,
however, encouraged to link the outcome of the original specifications and make objective judgements on the success
of their products. The section should also include suggestions for further modifications or possible future improvements.
Therefore centres are implored to ensure that specifications are fully evaluated and tested in this section, which will
guarantee maximum marks for the candidates.

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Conclusion
Even though it was the final coursework examination for NSSC/H it is clear that centres offering NSSC/H Design and
Technology for 2021 as a subject need to get a unified training to standardize the general understanding on the different
sub-topics for the design folders.

77
78
ECONOMICS
8337
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
The performance of learners varied widely. Learners who scored good marks showed sound knowledge and
understanding of the work which enabled them to develop good answers. They were able to discuss the negative and
positive sides required by the questions and could make a judged conclusion. Unfortunately, some learners lacked
the required understanding of the economic concepts asked and also misinterpreted questions. Some learners
displayed poor examination technique.
Key message
Instructions should be followed and tasks carried out according to the command words in questions.
1 (a) Most learners scored only a few marks here. They had to give reasons why there are high numbers
of people working in the informal sector. Learners did not give appropriate reasons and mainly
focused on lack of skills and education.
Answer
• High unemployment in country
• Low economic growth rate and few exports
• Lack of skills and qualifications
• Poor education system
• Only available job and need income (poverty)
• Preference (personal contact, outside, flexible hours etc.)
• Skills/services which is not catered for in formal sector e.g. kapana
• Less regulations and easy to start up Any five [5]
(b) This question was poorly answered. Learners had to refer to government intervention through
monetary policy, fiscal policy, supply side policy and foreign direct control. A development of how
these policy instruments would be used was required.
Answer
Fiscal policy (supply side)
• Reduce tax rates to increase spending and demand to stimulate business growth
• Increase government spending on infrastructure development
• More employment creates more spending and stimulates expansion
• Training programmes
• Quality of labour subsidy (3)
Monetary policy
• Lower interest rates on borrowing. People and firms borrow money to expand and create employment.
• Increased bank lending by lowering the repo rate of commercial banks (3)
Foreign direct investment
• Attract foreign investment to open up firms (incentives/ trust)
• Political stability (no corruption/ protection of foreigners/ low crime rate/labour unrest)
• Economic stability (economic growth/ low inflation)
• Increase export subsidies
• Protectionism – own industries, create employment (4) [10]
(c) Learners answered the question very well overall. Some learners are still not able to draw the
appropriate graph for perfect competition.
Answer
• Large amount of competitors
• Sells identical products/services
• Must accept market (ruling) price because of above (Price Takers) (3)

79
Long run
• More competitors lead to falling prices
• MR = MC = AR = AC = D
• Point of normal profit (3)
(4) [10]
2 (a) This identification and description of two types of ownership were well answered.
Answer
Sole trader
• One Owner
• Unlimited liability
Partnership
• 2-20 owners
• Unlimited liability
Close corporation
• 1-10 members
• Name ends with CC
• Limited liability
Private limited company
• 1-50 shareholders
• Limited liability
• Name ends with (Pty) Ltd (3 x 2) [6]
(b) Learners who understood what the question requested, gave good answers. They were expected
to say why micro businesses do not achieve internal economies of scale. Examples of how they do
not achieve internal economies of scale were required.
Answer
• Economies of scale are when firms grow in size and output, leading to falling average costs (2)
• Different types of economies of scale not achievable by micro firms:
• Purchasing economies of scale. Only large businesses will be able to buy in bulk and get discount on
products
• Marketing economies of scale. Micro firms will not have large advertising budgets to promote sales.
• Technical/production economies of scale. Micro firms will not have enough capital for mass production
and expensive machinery. Division of labour and specialisation will be difficult in these firms.
• Managerial economies of scale: due to micro firms not having large amounts of capital and profit, they
cannot appoint specialist managers to increase efficiency and output.
• Financial economies of scale. Micro firms will not have many assets to put up as collateral for large
loans and low interest rates.
• Risk bearing economies of scale: Micro firms are too small to spread the risks over a large number of
different firms or range of products. four x 2 [10]

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(c) Many learners did not know what the word "crucial" meant and misinterpreted the question.
Answer
• Create employment (labour intensive)
• Increase living standards of people (reduce poverty through income). Reduce social problems/reduce
government expenditure on unemployment benefit
• Flexible = adaptable to change in demand
• Innovation, competitiveness, entrepreneurship to help develop a country
• Small scale exporters contributing to BoP
• Contribute to output and economic growth
• Helps to equal the distribution of income through more women and unskilled people opening MSMEs
• Highly competitive market structure keeps prices low
• Open up in rural areas to support regional development
• Good working relationships (less employees) to reduce labour disputes – less industria action – which
influence output
• Contribute to taxes to government [9]
3 (a) Some learners did not answer this question due to lack of knowledge of internal and external growth.
However, good candidates answered this question good and scored good marks.
Answer
Internal expansion (1)
• by expanding mining operations to more areas/countries (1)
External expansion (1)
• Horizontal merging with other mining companies
• Vertical forward or backward mergers with owners of the resources or refineries/smelters
• Conglomerate merging with firms in different industries Any two [5]
(b) On average this question was well answered.

Answer
Disadvantages of nationalisation
• Being managed ineffectively and are inefficient due to protection from competition.
• When nationalised industries make operating losses, the government would simply cover those loses
with subsidies.
• The taxpayer would come to the rescue meant that the inefficient behaviour could continue and lead to
increased tax rates.
• Nationalised industries had limited scope to raise capital for long term investment and modernisation
because they would have to compete with other government spending departments, like education,
health and defence creating opportunity cost to government. (5/3/4)
Arguments for nationalisation
• Natural monopolies. There is no sense in having any competition. A private natural monopoly could
easily exploit its monopoly power and set higher prices to consumers. Government ownership of a
natural monopoly prevents this exploitation of monopoly power.
• Any profit from mines would go to government revenues and enable lower tax rates.
• A private firm would ignore the positive externalities and increase negative externalities such as
depleting of natural resources, pollution etc.
• Labour unions often favour nationalisation because they feel they may be better treated by the
government – rather than a profit maximising monopoly.
• Some industries require long-term investment to improve services over time. This long-term
investment may not be profitable in the short-term, so without government intervention, they may suffer
from lack of long-term investment.
• Government ownership can provide greater stability than free-market forces.
• Create employment
• Prevent job losses in declining industries (3/5/4)
Conclusion (2) [10]
(c) Many learners only put one side of the argument where both sides, the advantages and
disadvantages of multi-national enterprises (MNE) were required.
Answer
Benefits of multi-nationals on economy
• Employment creation
• Exports of minerals (positive influence on BoP)
• Use of idle natural resources and minerals
• Contribute to GDP and economic growth
• Development and sponsorships of rural areas/ improve living standards
• Corporation tax to government
81
• More indirect tax to government from spending of MNEs
• Infrastructure development – new skills/technology (5/3/4)
Disadvantages of MNEs on economy
• Employment creation may be for short-term and unskilled workers only
• Huge bargaining power with government on taxes, incentives etc (political influence)
• Do not follow labour laws
• More imports of machinery and heavy trucks (negative to BoP)
• Send profits back to home countries
• External costs such as depletion of resources, destruction of environments, different types of pollution
etc. (3/5/4)
Conclusion (2) [10]
4 (a) Well answered.

Answer
• Indirect tax
• Tax on spending/ buying or selling of products and services
• Added to the price of a product/increase price
• Burden is passed on in form of higher price
• % is proportional [5]
(b) Learners struggled with this question. A definition of the multiplier was required. They were expected
to explain that the increase in VAT could be a leakage. The higher price on consumer goods due
to tax will decrease MPC with a downward multiplying effect, influencing AD employment and the
national income.
Answer
Definition
• The multiplier process measures how national income will change (increase/decrease)
• due to an injection (investment/government spending/exports/consumer spending)
• or to a withdrawal (taxes/imports/savings) (3)
Analysis
• Increased VAT = Less money spent due to higher price (goods become unaffordable)
• Withdrawal from circular flow of income
• Multiplier effect will be lower
• National income will be negatively affected/decrease
• Higher VAT % will reduce consumer spending and this leads to an overall fall in AD.
• MPC + C - This means firms will experience a fall in demand and sell less goods.
• This will lead to some firms to retrench workers.
• Unemployment will lead to less spending and a reduced multiplier effect. (7) [10]
(c) This question was not well answered. Learners confused a budget deficit with a balance of
payments deficit and debated on how a balance of payment deficit would be influenced by
government intervention – this is incorrect.
Answer
Introduce a tighter fiscal policy (1)
• reduce government spending on
• public servants (reduce underemployment)
• public corporations/ SOEs by increasing efficiency and profitability
• government costs (travelling and budget overspending)
• reduce corruption and mismanagement of government funds (4)
Introduce an expansionary monetary policy (1)

• increase bank lending by lowering the repo rate of commercial banks
• lower interest rates to increase borrowing
• increased spending by consumers
• for firms to expand
• more employment created
• more direct tax on income and indirect on spending (3)
• Promote economic growth. If the economy grows, then the government will increase tax revenue,
without raising taxes (1)
• Open market transactions treasury bills
• Protectionism policies – import satisfaction [10]

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5 (a) Well answered.
Answer
• There is co-existence of public and private sectors. In public sector, industries like defence, power,
energy, basic industries etc., are set up. On the other hand, in private sector all the consumer goods
industries, agriculture, small-scale industries are developed. The government encourages both the
sectors to develop simultaneously.
• Freedom of choice of occupation.
• There will be more equal distribution of wealth and income. So that the profit and property may not
concentrate in a few pockets.
• Government always tries to promote economic development of the country. For this purpose, economic
planning is adopted.
• Under this system, price mechanism and regulated price operate simultaneously.
• In mixed economy system, there are both profit motive and social welfare.
• Government takes several measures to reduce the gap between rich and poor through progressive
taxation on income and wealth. The subsidies are given to the poor people and also job opportunities
are provided to them. Other steps like concessions, old age pension, free medical facilities and free
education are also taken to improve the standard of poor people.
• Government controls monopoly practices among the private entrepreneurs through effective legislative
measures. Government can also take over these services in the public interest. Any five [5]
(b) Some candidates could not give good answers on how the free market fails. E.g. monopolies,
externalities, public and merit goods.
Answer
Market Failure
• Lack of positive externalities – Goods/services which give benefit to a third party, e.g. less congestion
from cycling
• More negative externalities – Goods/services which impose cost on a third party, e.g. cancer from
passive smoking
• No merit goods – People underestimate the benefit of good, e.g. education
• Demerit goods produced – People underestimate the costs of good, e.g. smoking
• Lack of public goods and services – Goods which are non-rival and non-excludable and non-profitable –
e.g. police, national defence.
• Too much private monopoly power – when a firm controls the market and can set higher prices.
• Existence of inequality – unfair distribution of resources in free market
• Agriculture – Agriculture is often subject to market failure – due to volatile prices and externalities.
• Merit goods not adequately supplied. five x 2 [10]
(c) It was expected to argue on the advantages and disadvantages of the centrally planned economy.
Answer
Advantages of Centrally Planned Economy
• The government controls all aspects of production, there will be no chance of monopoly to occur,
which means that the gap between the rich and the poor will be reduced, as all government policies will
be designed to bring about social equality.
• It allows the government to monitor all aspects of economy e.g. supply, demand, prices and other
aspects surrounding goods and services. It can also indirectly keep a watch on any signs of inflation that
might occur.
• There will be no need to wait for private investments for particular projects to go underway, unlike in
other economic systems, such as capitalism. The government can start and end a project that the
country might require, such as infrastructures, health facilities and sanitation services. two x 2
Disadvantages of Centrally Planned Economy
• It is known to be inefficient in distributing resources. This economic system sees planners not being
able to accurately predict shortages, surpluses and consumer preferences, which entails that they
cannot also allocate resources efficiently. Create surpluses and shortages.
• It would go against some people’s rights as consumers.
• It suppresses economic freedom, because citizens have no incentive to take entrepreneurial risks or
innovate.
• No profit motive by considering decisions from entrepreneurs and transferring them to
the state. two x 2
Conclusion
Must only explain centrally planned economy and not market or mixed economy (2)
One-sided 5 maximum [10]

83
6 (a) (i) Calculation required – well answered.
Answer
94,88
x 2 601 584 = 2 468 382,8 or 2 468 383 [1]
100
(ii) This question was not very well answered. Learners could not give valid reasons why old people
are less educated than young people
Answer
Government policy
• Policy changed on enrolment age (compulsory at 7 years)
• Parents more informed and educated about importance of education
• Information programmes
• More pre-primary schools
• More schools and hostels to accommodate learners
• Income increased for families to afford schools Any four [4]
(b) Many learners did not support their answers with diagrams and could not explain that wages are
determined by the demand and supply of labour skills.
Answer
Demand for job that person (derived demand) (1)
Higher demand = higher wage (responsibility, experience, dangerous job (1)
Inelastic demand = higher wage (1)
(1)
(1)
Supply of workers to the job (1)

High supply = low wage (responsibility, years to qualify, dangerous, natural ability etc.) (1)
Inelastic supply = high wage (does not react to higher wage) (1)
(1)
(1)
NOT qualification and skills – it is from extract. [10]
(c) Poorly answered. Learners should draw the link between the derived demand for labour.
Answer
• Work is done much faster and workload is reduced (more work in less time)
• Less employees needed and helps to cut costs
• Increases efficiency of work (less waste and absenteeism)
• Reduces the mental stress of the employees (more motivated)
• The work is more accurate and persistence
• Creates skilled jobs and motivation
• Leads to flexible workers that can use technology everywhere
• Helps to do research to improve production and efficiency
• Less training costs
• Improves image of firm

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• Derived demand – use of technology in production increased, demanding more workers with
technological skills
• Productivity changed to more use of technology [10]

Learners should be taught to write full sentences and to elaborate on an economic statement made.
They should be taught how to interpret the command words of a question.
Learners should read questions carefully and apply their learned knowledge to the situation in the stem.

85
8337
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
The majority of answer scripts were of average and below average standard. Learners seemed to lack economic
(subject) knowledge.
There are still learners listing answers and not understanding/following command words in questions.
Many learners were not able to draw a demand and supply diagram. Some did not label it and some labelled the
curves the wrong way round.
Too many learners are still attempting the subject on Higher level and are doing poorly.
1 (a) (i) Few learners mentioned a public limited company.

Answer
Public limited company (listed on the JSE) [1]
(ii) This question was very poorly answered and learners scored low marks here. It seems as if
learners did not understand the stock exchange and its benefits to a company.
Answer
Benefits of stock exchange for company:
• Selling of shares to general public to borrow money on long term basis/increase capital
• Expansion of business operations
• World-wide recognition and good image (public awareness)
• Spreading risk over large amount of shareholders
• Indirect advertising of company
• Can use shares as security to obtain loans Any four [4]
(b) (i) This answer was well covered and most learners scored full marks.
Answer
• Price
• Taste
• Advertising
• Income/ living standards
• Population growth
• Price of substitute products e.g. fresh meat products two x 2 [4]
(ii) The majority of the learners did not shift the demand and the supply curves and thus got only 2
marks. The demand and supply diagram seemed to pose a huge problem to some learners. All
the learners added an explanation to the graph although this was not asked.
Answer
[5]

86
(c) This question posed a serious problem to most learners who could only write the definition
or the formula of XED. Learners were not able to apply XED to substitutes (competitors) and
complementary products.
Answer
• Definition = XED measures how demand for a product will respond to a change in the price of another
product
OR
Formula = % change in quantity demanded of product(brand) A ÷ by % change in the price of product
(brand) B. (1)
• Company has many competitors' / competing brands
• Fall in the price of competing brands (substitutes) = fall in demand for company’s products = Positive
answer (+) (2)
• Complementary = negative value. Fall in price of cold meat (polony) leads to increased demand for
bread (2)
• Lower demand leads to a fall in the market share unless other products made by company, might offset
the fall in demand for cold meat products (1)
• Ignorance of consumers and bad publicity might also influence the market share of competitive brands
negatively. (1) [7]
(d) It seems as if learners struggle to assess in their answers. Many learners merely listed the aims of
government but did not link these to the influence of the listeria outbreak. Most learners scored less
than 2 marks here.
Answer
• How many workers lost their jobs?
• How much government income/revenue was lost indirect and indirect taxes (company, consumers)?
• Was equal distribution of income affected by less government taxes = less spending on transfer
payments etc.?
• How was balance of payments stability affected by less cold meat exports and more cold meat imports?
• How much did company (cold meat production) contribute to GDP/economic growth?
• Did foreign investors withdraw money due to listeria outbreak?
• Is the MPC lower and what is influence on multiplier? [4]
2 (a) Nearly all learners scored 4 – 5 marks here.

Answer
• International crude oil price
• Transport costs
• Insurance costs
• Dealer and industry profit margins
• Taxes and levies
• Demand
• Supply
• Inflation rates
• Exchange rate Any five [5]
(b) (i) Most learners calculated the answer correctly.

Answer
Riyal 3,75 x US$0,54 per litre = Riyal 2,03 [1]
(ii) This question was answered correctly by most learners. However, very few indicated that it
was an increase/decrease.
Answer
0,08 x 100 = 7% (1) increase (1)
1,13
OR
0,08
1,121 x 100 = 76.6% (1) decrease (1) [2]

87
(c) The majority of learners scored at least half of the marks for this question.
Answer
• Natural oil resources available/ High supply of fuel (extracted in country/good infrastructure)
• Lower transport costs to fuel pumps and storage plants
• Low/no taxes and levies added to fuel price/free trade agreements
• Low demand for fuel (less vehicles)
• Low profit margins / state owned fuel pumps (filling stations)
• Price set by government (price control)
• Fuel subsidies
• Low inflation rate/cost of production
• Better exchange rates (appreciation/revaluation)
• Comparative advantage (lower OC)
• Absolute advantage (more efficient use of resources) Any six [6]
(d) This question was answered poorly by the majority of learners, because they were not able to apply
information from the extract in their answers. Very low marks were scored here.
Learners copied the part from the extract, but did not expand the information or discuss the points.
Answer
• Helps to increase government income (cover possible budget deficit and achieve objectives)
• Use money to maintain, repair and build new roads (road user charge)
• NEF levy to explore for oil in Namibia/fund energy projects
• MVA fund to help people who are in accidents with medical costs, disability etc.
• Fuel tax and customs and excise duties help to reduce the demand for fuel in Namibia to decrease fuel
imports/used to pay for fuel imports
• Service differential (reduce unfairness and availability)
• Subsidised fuel price to keep it affordable/same price in areas. Any seven [7]
(e) Most learners were able to give at least two reasons for state-regulated fuel prices.
Answer
• Affordable/prevent monopolies and high prices/everybody
• Necessity (transport industry)/inelastic demand
• No price discrimination in areas
• Keep prices (transport inflation) under control in all areas (taxis, busses, etc.)
• Controls amount of imports Any four [4]
3 (a) Learners should have given reasons for fresh water scarcity. Most of the learners got 3 marks here.
Answer
• Less than 1% of the planet’s total water resources are accessible as freshwater resources.
• World population is predicted to grow.
• Water usage on the increase due to industrialisation and development
• Water is a natural resource
• Weather catastrophes (climate changes) such as hurricanes, earth quakes, natural disasters, global
warming/drought.
• Water pollution
• Water wastage through poor maintenance and people not educated (water is not paid for by consumer)
Any five [5]
(b) (i) The majority of learners got the answer right.

Answer
Urban = 62% - Rural = 9%.
Difference = 53% Answer only [1]
(ii) Many learners struggled to read the answers from the graph and got zero marks.
Answer
36 + 66 OR 102% [1]

88
(iii) This question was answered poorly by most learners. They compared poor too rich in urban
areas instead of rich (urban) and poor (urban as the question asked. Many learners scored
maximum 2 marks here.
Answer
• More jobs available/more income/afford more water
• People more educated (hygiene)
• More development (businesses, factories, etc.)
• Distance between villages and cost to provide water
• Municipalities (local authority involvement in water provision)
• Poor people live in informal settlements in shacks, villages (rural areas) Any seven [7]
(c) The majority of learners got at least 4 out of 7 marks here.

Answer
• Developing countries have a high population growth rate/high birth/high death rates
• Lack of capital assets and projects in developing countries/technology
• Lack of education and skilled labour
• Self sustainable production and bartering
• Low life expectancy due to high death rates (poor health facilities)
• Corrupt and uninvolved governments (not held accountable)
• High unemployment rates
• Dependence on exports of primary products and primary sector
• Dependence on imports of manufactured products
• Low income per capita and low living standards (poor basic amenities)
• Strong cultural beliefs about women, amount of children, education etc.
• Inadequate Infrastructure Any seven [7]
(d) Many learners confused developing and developed countries. Instead of indicating why developed
countries would have more water, they explained why the developed countries would have less
(shortage) of fresh water.
Answer
• Better planning (sustainable use of water resources e.g. dams)
• Better and effective management of water resources and pollution
• More capital available for investments e.g. desalination plants, recycling
• More pressure on governments by consumers
• Low population growth rate Any four [4]

Teach learners to respond to command words and answer questions accordingly.
Set tests and question papers up to national standard. Do not copy and paste continuously from previous papers.
Use the examiner's reports to give feedback and raise the standard.
Source extracts from newspapers and internet sites. Adapt questions from previous question papers to new extracts.

89
90
ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE
8315
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
• Unfortunately, many comments in this report may seem critical: the objective, however, is to help teachers to lift
the standard of English for their candidates in this examination and to eradicate common errors. For several
years, too many candidates have been entered for Higher Level who are totally unequipped to handle the level
of English required. The consequences are twofold: trying to write this examination must have been extremely
destructive to candidates’ self esteem and confidence; secondly, this has put great strain and stress upon the
members of the marking team, as markers strive to find marks for candidates and have to try to understand poor
English, a time-consuming process.
• Poor Reading ability: Too many candidates demonstrated very poor reading ability in this examination. This
was proven in a variety of ways:
• an inability to follow simple instructions such as “Using your own words …” or “Do not include addresses”;
• a widespread inability to COPY a key word from the text correctly;
• a lack of understanding of comparatively simple English words like ‘hardly’;
• poor results on the Multiple-Choice section;
• an inability or failure even to read the entire passage carefully ONCE to find the answer to a question
requiring conclusions, which one would expect to find at the END of an article;
• a general inability to find a simple idea from the passage to reproduce carefully in the candidate’s own words;
• Question 2 excluded ‘crop yield’ as an answer and yet this was still offered by some candidates as worthy of
a mark in their answers.
• Insufficient exposure to and practice of higher-order thinking questions such as finding similarities and
differences. Far too many candidates struggled with this kind of question or other questions which required a
personal conclusion or inference.
• Poor language skills: Too many candidates fail to answer in full sentences and seem to expect credit for phrases
tossed on paper without any context or relation to the question - OR long screeds of material lifted verbatim from
the examination extracts.
• Presentation: Candidates are requested every year to answer in full sentences. Starting an answer with
‘Because’ usually means that the candidate leaves out the main clause and thus is not writing in full sentences but
is offering only an adverbial clause of reason. PLEASE DISCOURAGE CANDIDATES FROM STARTING THEIR
ANSWERS WITH ’BECAUSE’.
• Grammatical weaknesses
• Spelling and malapropism: ‘excess’ was commonly used incorrectly instead of ‘access’; ‘effect’ was commonly
used instead of ‘affect’; words such as environment, satellite, efficient, successful, similarity, photosynthesis
were commonly misspelled when correct spelling was available on the examination paper.
• Sentence structure: Far too many candidates are incapable of formulating answers in full sentences unless
they are simply copying out sections of the extracts. Much more training is needed to help candidates to
lay out their answers logically and clearly – and in their own words. Sadly, even those candidates who do
attempt their own words often lose marks because of poor expression which causes a change in meaning.
• Use of vague pronouns: To start an answer with a vague pronoun should be avoided: any pronoun must
expressly and clearly relate to a noun in the question. Most usage in 2020 was simply ungrammatical: ‘it’ and
‘they’ were used but did not refer to any noun in the question and so the answer was largely irrelevant to the
question.
• Lifting: This totally unacceptable practice is predominantly used by those candidates who do not have
confidence in their own thinking and/or writing abilities. Other reasons for lifting may include that candidates
have not been trained to think for themselves at all; candidates would be quite incapable of coping with
any degree course at university level because they are considerably below par in both understanding or
conveying ideas in English. It was pleasing to see that some teachers had followed the Report advice
of former years: some candidates did use quotation marks to indicate that they were quoting the writer as
support for their arguments. For several years this report has indicated that far too many candidates are
incorrectly entered at this level and would probably not be successful at Ordinary Level either: this is a
severe injustice to them.
• There is a wide division between the schools that prepare their candidates well and those who appear to offer
very little guidance or formal instruction at all.
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• Too many candidates displayed ignorance of the format of a formal letter, for example, or the formal style
which would be expected in such a letter. The stronger candidates and those who had been well prepared, still
managed to acquire marks in the top two tiers across the 3 parts of the examination.
Part 1
It is possible that too many candidates do not organise their time well and spend too much time on Part 1. This leaves
them short of time for Part 2, which is the REAL test of a candidate’s ability at Higher level. Too many candidates
actually write more on Part 1, worth 10 marks, than they do for Part 2, which is worth twice that number.
Candidates require training on time management.

Question 1
There were FOUR possible answers for 2 marks and a considerable number of candidates offered all four points: this
is unnecessary and time could have been better spent on earning marks elsewhere.
Explain how the first ‘Green Revolution’ helped to prevent widespread food shortages in the twentieth
century? [2]
a. Irrigation methods introduced and were more widely used. (1)
b. Seed development changed as seeds were hybridised/ changed to become stronger/ more productive. (1)
c. Developed nations assisted developing nations. (1)
d. Man-made fertilisers and pesticides were more readily available. (1)

Any TWO points for 2 marks.
Question 2
The question excluded ‘çrop yield’ as a possible answer and yet some candidates still offered this as a possible answer.
The word ‘hardly’ was widely misunderstood, which meant that marks were lost.
Apart from the increase in crop yield, briefly show two other advantageous results of Long’s research, using
tobacco plants. [2]
e. The modified seeds did not require more water. (1)
f. They needed very little additional nitrogen. (1) (Any TWO points)
g. The process involved few extra costs. (1)
h. Plants used light more efficiently. / Plants rid themselves of heat energy more efficiently. (1)
Question 3
• Some candidates managed to craft an answer without using the words ‘similarity’ or ‘differences’! The examiner
was expected to award marks on the examiner’s own inferential thinking of what the candidate had NOT clearly
specified! Some candidates could not spell these words correctly, even though they simply needed to be copied
from the examination question.
• Candidates struggled to find a relevant similarity, even though three ideas were offered on the Mark Scheme. A
superficial reading of the article misled candidates into expectations that ‘food shortage’ or ‘food crisis’ would earn
marks. Those candidates who had read the extract more carefully were aware that such an answer was overly
simplistic.
• In fact, food shortage or ‘food crisis’ were ideas that formed the basis of differences. Most candidates found it
difficult to form relevant differences: many forced an argument based on ideas not in the text. Others produced
invalid or irrelevant contrasts: the use of pesticides in the Green Revolution contrasts relevantly with the Witz
experiment with bio-control, using the zygo beetle today. However, contrasting irrigation with satellite data offers
no common basis for contrast.

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• No candidate can expect marks for an answer like this: ‘To prevent widespread food shortages’, with no further
context or explanation. Examiners do not award marks based upon their own inferences to fill in the gaps.
• PLEASE do NOT teach your candidates to use a table for this kind of answer. The Examiner’s Report has
requested this before and it has been explained that this format is used only for the guidance of the markers.
Candidates should answer in full sentences, with their ideas presented in logical succession.
Identify one similarity and two differences between the first ‘Green Revolution’ and the situation in the world
today. [3]
Similarities (ONE point needed)
i) Scientists realised that population increase would outstrip food resources. (1)
j) It was recognised that there was an urgent need to improve crop yields before 2050. (1)
k) Industrialised nations worked and are working to alleviate the suffering for the whole planet through
improvements in technology and science. (1)
Differences (TWO points needed)
l) The environment is different: since the first Green Revolution, carbon dioxide gas in the atmosphere
has increased by 25%.
• Solutions are different: pesticides were used in the Green Revolution; today an experiment with bio
control, the use of the zygo beetle, is being considered as an alternative.
• Hybridisation (joining strong plant strains together) was a contributing factor to success in the Green
Revolution; today scientists are actually modifying the DNA of plants as with the tobacco experiment.
• Changing views: in The Green Revolution it was believed that the rate of photosynthesis could not change;
today, Prof. Long’s experiment has proved that the rate can be improved thus improving the tobacco yield.
m) Better long-term planning: scientists started the Green Revolution initiative after the crisis had already
started; today scientists have 30 years to avert famine and starvation. (1)
Question 4
• Many candidates did not recognise that this was a two-part question and thus were deprived of marks.
The question demanded specific identification of the projects PLUS a reason in support of each case.
• Layout was poor with many answers, too. A list of successful projects, followed by a random group of reasons,
placed below, did not clearly indicate a specific reason for a specific project and, therefore, could not be awarded
marks. In addition, too few candidates offered clear answers in full sentences. Note form answers are risky
because there is a lack of explanation and substantive detail to qualify for any marks.
• Lifting in this answer was counter-productive: the Ethiopian experiment with satellite data, for example,
required the argument that the time lapse helped to avoid famine and loss of stock deaths. ‘Unusual spikes in
land temperature’ could not be accepted as a justifiable reason for the success of the project.
According to the writer, some projects to fight food shortages are hopeful. From information provided, which
three projects seem most successful? Give a reason for your choice in each case. [3]
n. Project Reason
Re-structuring of wheat genes in China crops have been made immune to
powdery mildew (1)
o. Project Reason
Research at King Abdullah University Tomatoes are immune to yellow leaf
curl virus (1)

p. Project Reason
Use of satellite data by US Geological Survey to detect increase
in land temperature Provided Ethiopian families several
weeks’ warning to make provision
before famine and animal deaths
occurred (1}
Added as a result of standardisation
q. The Green Revolution Reason: Strategies were devised to increase crop
yields./ More than a billion people were

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saved from starvation. [1]
OR
r. Professor Long’s Project Reason: Three different versions actually increased
crop yields for tobacco, as part of the
research to genetically engineer the
plant’s response to photosynthesis. [1]
** No marks for reason only.

** No marks for mention of project without a valid reason. [10]
Part 2
Multiple Choice
Candidates did not handle this section well this year and few obtained more than 3 for this section.
Only exceptional candidates gained full marks.
5 C [1]
6 B [1]
7 D [1]
8 D [1]
9 B [1]
10 C [1]
Question 11
• Only exceptional candidates recognised this phrase, ‘digital footprint’ as a metaphor and took the trouble to explain
the metaphorical comparison. Many obtained the marks from their general knowledge of computers and social
media. Many candidates did make a serious effort to answer the question, however, in their own words.
• Too many candidates, unfortunately, revealed their lack of knowledge of computer technology and could not answer
the question at all or simply lifted material at random from the passage.
Explain what the writer means in the reference to ‘your digital footprint’ in paragraph 6. [2]
(a) A footprint is evidence of the existence of a living thing. / My footprint proves I have been in a
certain place.[1]
(A reference to a mark or trail should also be considered in the context of a footprint)
(b) ‘digital’ refers to the use of an electronic system or a computer. [1]
(c) The writer is referring to any evidence of a user which is left on a computer as proof that he or she
has been active on the internet. [2]
(a + b OR c for 2 points)
Question 12
• Again, candidates experienced difficulty in identifying differences and could not always present logical differences
in which contrast stemmed from a common basis.
• There were common misinterpretations in this question: the neuroscientist passed the material to a marketing
company but the passage does not state, or even imply, that the information was sold on or that the motive
was profit; in addition, what the marketing company did with the information cannot be ascribed to the
neuroscientist so any attempt to do so did not earn any marks.
• As a generalisation, marks were lost on this question because many candidates did not bother to use their own
words to explain clearly and logically the differences. Weaker candidates chose instead to copy out swathes
of the passage in the vague hope of eliciting some marks through lifting.
• Candidates require training on how to present their explanations for this kind of question.
• Poor punctuation lost marks on this question: ‘friend’s data’ (one person according to use of the apostrophe)
was not accepted as an answer; ‘friends’ data’ did earn the mark.
• As with Question 3, presentation of an answer in table form should be avoided.

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Analyse two major differences between the activities of the neuroscientist and the British psychologist. [4]
d. Purpose: The neuroscientist used the data to compile a personality quiz app. /
His purpose was to include the information to serve his app for people to use. /
The neuroscientist also gathered up the data of all the friends of his subscribers.
e. Application: The neuroscientist passed on the data to a marketing company, which adopted it for a
commercial purpose. (1)
f. Outcome: The marketing company could create psychographic profiles for millions of voters./
The marketing company was ultimately denied access to the social network. (1)
g. Purpose: the British psychologist was involved in a theoretical exercise in a university./
His purpose was to make conclusions about the validity of personality analysis. (Either for 1 mark)
h. Application: The British psychologist only collected data to compare with Facebook ‘Likes’ statistics./
It was not used by a third party. (Either for 1 mark)
i. Outcome: The British psychologist claimed that he could determine aspects of personality from
users’ Likes. [1]
(Any for relevant points for 4 marks)
Question 13
• A deceptively simple question, which is presented every year, invariably reveals that 99% of candidates do not
understand the components of a sentence and cannot write one when asked to do so.
• Very few candidates earned any marks on this question. Far too many candidates completely ignored the
question instructions about use of own words and ONE sentence only. To lift the simple answer from the
passage was blatant for a candidate supposedly trained for this level of examination. Even worse were those
candidates who offered a paragraph comprising three or four sentences in order to answer the question.
• The simple answer pointedly emphasises the need in the English classroom for regular and ongoing practice
in paraphrase. The answer was the psychologist’s comment as follows: “I think that people probably make
political decisions in a way that is not so dissimilar to the way they make consumer decisions.” The English
was not difficult but did require careful reading and ‘transposition’ of ‘probably’ and removal of the double
negative (litotes) offered for emphasis, ‘not so dissimilar’.
In your own words, explain in one sentence why the British psychologist thinks that psychographics research
is appropriate for politics. [2]
(a) Consumer choices and political choices may be (b) made in the same way. (1)
Examples:
(1) The British psychologist thinks that consumer choices and political choices may be generated / created by
similar thinking and motivation.
(2) The British psychologist believes that there may be parallels between the ways people make purchasing
choices and make political choices.
* use of own words/proper sentence (1)
** No marks if the idea of possibility through the verb ‘may be’ is not rendered in the answer.
*** Check for lifting – no marks for lifting
Question 14
• This was another question which required higher-order thinking and was handled competently only by those
candidates who had been trained proficiently for the level required by this examination.
• Regrettably, many weaker candidates did not offer an answer for this question.
• Many candidates could offer only one or two reasons, whereas it was logical to assume that the mark allocation
would require three reasons.
• The word ‘worried’ was taken from the text and should have enabled some access to an answer. Examples
provided in the passage certainly indicated abuses which should alarm the reader as well. A good answer to
this question did require a good understanding of the article, which was not evident in most of the responses
to this question.
• Four options were originally on the Mark Scheme and 2 more were added at the standardisation procedure –
there were 6 options for 3 marks.
Why does the writer feel that the reader has some cause to be “worried” about the current access to people’s
personal data? [3]
(a) The use of such technology could be improved and used in the future to influence election
results. [1]
(b) People have no control over the use of such technology (inference). [1] OR

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Data has been collected and used without a person’s consent [1]
(c) The data is available for other organisations to use personality analysis for a commercial purpose.
/ People’s data is exploited for use by social networks. / The use of personal data to compile a
psychographic profile is actually an invasion of privacy. [1]
(d) It has been proven that some personality traits can be determined from personal data. [1]
Ideas added after standardisation
(e) Users have a sense of being watched or analysed from the use of their data. [1]
(f) Data can be used to create psychographic profiles which can then be used to influence users’
thinking and behaviour. [1]
(Any THREE ideas)
Question 15
• This was the most difficult question on the examination paper (along with Question 14) and was poorly answered,
if at all.
• Candidates who had been well trained, however, would have understood that conclusions begin to address the
answer suggests the real possibility that many did not even bother to read the entire extract OR did not understand
what they were reading. The fact that the title is formulated as a question also suggests that the writer would
present argument and then formulate an answer to the question at the end of the extract.
• The poor response suggested, in addition, that many candidates did not really understand the title: that the writer
was querying whether social media companies could manipulate users’ thinking about politics. Internet users,
by pressing the ‘Likes’ button, were unconsciously providing media providers with information about themselves.
Psychographics involved an analysis of this data to determine the most effective means of persuasion for these
users. Was the persuasion strong enough to influence a voting decision?
• Careful reading of the article and particularly of the ending, shows that the writer clearly summarises contributors’
views on whether elections as well as voting patterns can be influenced. The answer is – no, not yet. Most candidates
claimed that voters COULD be influenced and cited the marketing experiment on cosmetics – consumerism was
not connected to political viewpoints by the writer in the conclusion and so candidates were merely ‘clutching at
straws’ for this answer.
To what extent does the writer answer the question posed by the title? Support your conclusions by reference
to ideas in the article. [3]
(a) The writer refers to experts like the New York psychologist who doubts that psychographics could
influence voting patterns. / She claims there are different motivations to buy a product or cast a vote. [1]
(b) She claims that it is difficult to persuade people to vote: she claims that other factors, for example
rain, can reduce the number of votes cast on Election Day. [1]
(c) She claims that votes are based on ideology / She claims that it is hard to persuade people to vote
against their political values or beliefs. [1]
(d) The writer also quotes the British psychologist who doubts that the marketing company’s technology
is sufficiently developed to influence votes yet. [1]
(e) The writer quotes the British psychologist who believes that voters could become influenced if the
technology is refined /becomes more sophisticated in future. [1]
(f) The writer’s conclusions are that Likes cannot become votes at the moment but readers should be
aware of the possibility in the future. / The question is answered with a negative – but there is also a
warning that this could change in the future. [1]
[Any THREE ideas]
Idea added after standardisation
(g) The list of information which can be ascertained, such as ethnicity or sexual orientation, does not
include voting preferences. [1]
[20]
Part 3
Question 16 You are not alone

In general, examiners agreed that many candidates handled this question well. There was a personal response to the
topic which included solid argument and compassionate tone. Focus was kept on the three requirements of the question
and many candidates sincerely demonstrated their skills in English. Unfortunately, weaker candidates continued to lift,

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or simply copy out parts of the examination paper. This practice is completely unacceptable in Part 3, in which the focus
for marks is on the candidates’ writing ability. Any candidate who copied from the examination paper should not be
writing an examination at Higher Level.
Content
• Poor introductions: Too many candidates did not use the introduction to provide an overview of the purpose of
the letter by trying to answer the ‘journalist’s bag of questions’: who? what? where? when? why? and how? Some
candidates launched immediately into a lecture on loneliness and so ignored any reference to a specific student.
Candidates mentioned their own names (which is unnecessary) but did not mention the name of the student to be
mentored or the period of time the writer had tried to help OR the grade or class in which the lonely student had
been placed.
• Wrong slant: Those candidates who adopted the lecture approach had actually ignored the focus of the question
and had written off-topic. One candidate wrote to the Principal in the role of the mother of the lonely student.
Another common malpractice was to write on behalf of all lonely learners, instead of focusing the writer’s concern
upon ONE new student. The question asked for the writer to explain what he had learned about loneliness from his
observations of the new student: many candidates claimed that they were encouraged to research the topic in the
library or through Google and then expounded on their findings.
• Recommendations: Most candidates did offer recommendations of their own but it was insufficient to offer merely
one or two. Most of the suggestions in the examination article were inappropriate, or irrelevant, for the examination
question but weaker candidates merely copied these.
Content
• Introductory Paragraph: Stating the Purpose/ overview
a. Explanation of mentor duties and name of student.
b. Factual details: length of time at school / Grade /
c. Responsibility and concern to report behaviour which is worrying
a. Examples of behaviour linked to ideas in passage
d. Recent move to new school – “risk of loneliness is especially high during times of transition in our lives.
e. Complaints of being ignored / criticised / mocked – ‘status-conscious period’
f. Aggression to writer on the grounds of competition for attention from the opposite sex – ‘incredible level of
competition that comes from the primed reproductive system’.
g. Periods of gloom when old friends fail to sustain contact – ‘losing connection with groups we belonged to
before…’
h. Signs of depression, despite the writer’s efforts to help with the assimilation process – …higher levels of
inflammation, which in turn contributes to…depression.’/Making us more defensive, guarded, and prickly’
i. Undue sensitivity towards other’s behaviour and inter-action – ‘…lonely people responded faster to social
threats than other kinds of dangers’
j. Misinterpretation of facial expression and body language / suspicion ‘less inclined to interact with
others’
k. Poor sleep patterns: restless sleep because the world seems a threatening place/difficulty with
concentration in class
l. Exposure to violence as a teenager / possible physical abuse
m. Lonely parents
** Substantial examples are preferable to vague references: e.g. ‘Twice last week Mary attacked me verbally when
she heard that Hafeni Angula had invited me to a film show’ (see f)
Ideas which could qualify for ‘GI’ to a maximum of FOUR
* new learner is moody, irritable and angry OR cold and angry

* shyness is misinterpreted by writer
* single parent/ lack of parental support/ impoverished parents
* no bonding with other classmates
* ‘sitting alone in the corner of the classroom, stuffing his mouth with nuts, while shading in his Ant Project’.
(fine example of relevant factual detail from an early examination paper)
* pleading or feigning sickness to avoid attendance at school
• What has been learned about loneliness (basically the italicized ideas in 1.2.)
n. Moving location is very stressful and can cause loneliness.
o. Teenagers who are lonely are ultra-sensitive about recognition of social status.

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p. Failure with the opposite sex can cause loneliness.
q. Losing contact with previous social groups is a contributory factor.
r. Depression is dangerous / loneliness can cause this and other health problems
s. Every social situation at the school seems threatening
t. Sense of persecution / suspicious of all motives or approaches by others
u. Poor sleep habits can be a symptom and a cause.
• Recommendations (Indicate thus: R)

v. Suggest interview (and evaluation of) parents
w. Interviews by principal / school counsellor of learner
x. Invitation to join the Social Responsibility Club / volunteer work at Old Age Home
y. Opportunity for participation in a leadership course.
z. Evaluation by psychologist or other medical professionals
Ideas included after standardisation
aa. Team building activities/ self-help groups

bb. Trips and/or school cultural activities
** The question requests recommendations: this is the point of the letter. A strong candidate will offer
several suggestions.
Assessment
Ideas 15+ 14 13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Points 10 9 9 8 8 7 7 6 6 6 5 4 2 2 1
** Ideas should be distributed equally across the three specified bullet points and the introduction.
Language
• Style:
• Colloquialism: Informal language was used inappropriately: mom or mum; it turns out; to get through to him;
way more deeper; left him at his aunt’s place; comes up with; kids.
• Tone: The attitude of the writer, or tone, needed to involve a respectful attitude to the Principal, compassion
for the new student, and an earnest desire to be helpful. Examples of poor tone were as follows:
• ‘This…would beat sense into the kid’s brains…’ (a tyrannical and uncaring tone);
• ‘…a learner has been making it extremely difficult to co-operate with students…’ (a frustrated, annoyed, and
judgemental tone);
• ‘…get this student back on track…or even worse, he may not be here tomorrow.’ (a flippant tone about a
serious situation);
• ‘I want something to be done immediately…’ (rude and authoritative tone to the Principal!)
• ‘Try taking him to a psychologist…’ (flippant suggestion to the Principal also suggests a lack of respect
for the Principal).
• Structure:
• Paragraphing: Most candidates did paragraph appropriately; those that lifted tended not to bother with
paragraphing.
• Sentence structure: Letters were started by sentences without a subject: ‘Am writing this letter…’; sentences
were started with ‘because…’; some parts of a letter were offered in note form.
• Presentation of material: It would have been better to have presented the three requirements in the order
given in the question. Many candidates chose, instead, to start with the ‘lecture’ on loneliness first and then
treat the information on the student only half-way through the letter.
• Letter format: Many candidates did not offer a subject line immediately after the salutation. Many
subject lines were too long and some did not provide the writer’s purpose in writing the letter. The closing
courtesy was often very informal – and inappropriate.
• Grammar
• Spelling: Very few candidates could spell or refer to the correct ‘counsellor’, referring to ‘councillor’ instead.
‘Psychologist’ was often misspelled, too. Other common errors involved ‘leaners’ instead of ‘learners’;
‘stundents’ instead of ‘students’; ‘writters’ instead of ‘writers’.
• Punctuation: Many candidates need to be taught syllabication and the use of a hyphen to split a word
correctly at the end of a line.

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• Awkward expression: the word ‘ever’ was used instead of ‘always’; the phrase ‘every time’ was used
instead of ‘all the time’; ‘his/her’ was used all the time about the lonely student, as if the writer was not aware
of the gender.
Style (10 marks)

• Style: (3 marks) Formal English with a complete lack of colloquialism / No lifting from text / no verbosity or purple
prose (sensationalism) / using facts rather than displaying feelings
• Tone: (2 marks) Polite and objective / demonstration of respect for the authority of the Principal / a lack of sensational
emotion and an emphasis upon fact as a basis for argument / BUT a sense of genuine concern and responsibility
for the learner’s wellbeing
• Structure: (2 marks) Paragraphing must be very evident as a means of organizing the material. Ideas should be
linked logically and in a natural order of progression/ Use of letter heading and appropriate formal closure should
be evident.
• Grammar: (3 marks) Attention to sentence structure/ punctuation/ spelling. Familiarity with English verb tenses
and appropriate conjunction usage.
* Partial lifting: maximum of 1 mark for style / maximum of 1 mark for tone
** Mostly lifted: 0 marks for style / 0 marks for tone / 0 marks for grammar

• Use this report and this examination paper to do practice in class before the mock examinations. Use
the advice in this report to show your learners the common ways that marks are lost and help them to
formulate alternative approaches so that they gain marks instead of lose marks.
• Make paraphrase exercises a weekly feature of your English classes. Give your learners a short paragraph
and allow them to work through it in pairs or small groups. Provide them with a model answer which they should
keep in their notebooks with the original writing. You could vary this exercise by giving them a colloquial extract and
ask learners to change it into formal English. Learners might enjoy taking a piece of formal English and changing
it into teenage jargon or slang. The important lesson is that they keep every idea from the original. Two years of
practising this skill will achieve success.
• Summary work is one of the best ways to teach learners how to improve their linguistic skills, while at
the same time improving their skills of reading with understanding, selecting relevant information and
synthesizing it into a few words. Continue to make learners undertake O Level summaries as a regular
feature of English lessons and post the best examples on a promotion board in the classroom.
• Grammar practice: It is obvious that much more work must be undertaken in the classroom to familiarise learners
with sentence structure, commonly confused words, reported speech and punctuation. Much of the work covered
in the ‘O’ Level syllabus should be continued at AS Level.
• Informal reading: learners should be encouraged to take books and magazines out of the library to read
English in their own private time. This is the best way for learners to improve their vocabulary. Offer a prize
or reward to the learner who reads the most and can testify with understanding as to what he or she has
read. Ask learners to give short speeches on their reading to praise or criticise what they have read. The
same approach can be taken with newspapers: have a current affairs oral at the beginning of each lesson
in which a student explains (NOT reads verbatim) a recent piece of news and passes his or her opinion on
events. The original article can be posted on the classroom wall for all learners to read and comment upon.
• The Personal Dictionary: I strongly recommend that the practice of a personal dictionary should continue beyond
Ordinary Level. New words should be explained on the board and all learners should write these into their dictionary
notebooks. Learners are also free to include new words from their personal reading, too. Periodic tests might
encourage learners to learn some new words and use them in their own writing.
• Oral Presentations: Encourage your learners to do individual oral presentations to the class and hold these on
a daily basis. This will encourage them and build their confidence. These short presentations could be on a news
report (as already suggested), a new word that the learner thinks might be useful for everybody; a short biography of
a person who is admired, giving reasons for choice; even a short quiz to re-enforce a new grammatical construction.
• Grammatical constructions: After a new grammatical principle has been taught and practised, divide your
learners into groups and let them design a short 20-minute test. You will have to check the accuracy of the tests
and the mark schemes and you should award a prize or offer recognition to the group with the best test. Then allow
different groups to undertake the tests, which are also marked by the group that designed the test exercise. ‘The
best way to learn is to teach’ is a good adage.
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• Current Affairs: It is important for English teachers to keep up with current affairs and to encourage lively debate
in the classroom. Rural learners MUST be helped to learn more about advances in science and technology,
globalisation, social media, exploration of other planets and political speculation about global power shifts. Learners
should also learn more about their own country too: the loss of hardwood forest in the Caprivi, the practice of seal
culling in Namibia; pros and cons of hunting practices; communal versus commercial farming; the important of
conservation and of uplifting rural communities.
Examiner’s Final Comment

I do wish all Namibian English teachers every success with the new syllabus and the new examination.
The English teacher has such an important role in our society: as Part 3 clearly indicated, loneliness (and
chronic loneliness) is something well understood by many Namibian learners, who discussed with authority
the practice of self-harm, thoughts of suicide and the abusive role of some parents. The English teacher must
be an academic guide, psychological counsellor, current affairs instructor, motivational speaker, surrogate
parent and defender of the future. It can be a challenging but rewarding goal for all of us. Though perhaps
small consolation for you: every learner remembers his or her English teacher. These are a few of the reasons
why.

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Paper 2
General Comments
The same problems were again experienced. Most centres paid attention to suggestions made such as sentence
structures, fewer contractions and shorter essays. However, there were still quite a few candidates who wrote
excessively long essays, which usually leads to repetition and poor structure. Some essays were still too long, which
led to a mundane essay, a repetition of ideas and long incoherent sentences. Hence, a weak plot resulted in a poor
mark. In future candidates will be penalised for overlong essays, as it clearly ignores instructions. Many essays
were written with no sign of planning or editing. Candidates have to be encouraged to allow time for editing of their
essays. Emphasis should be put on legible writing of essays. Many candidates presented very sloppy pieces of writing
with no regard to neatness.
It is highly recommended that candidates with little general knowledge should avoid argumentative essays and opt
for narrative essays. Many candidates choose topics that are above their level of knowledge and can, therefore,
not produce good essays. Some candidates did not interpret the topics correctly. This is unacceptable on Higher
Level. Many candidates lacked imagination when they attempted narrative essays and consequently produced poor
pieces of writing. Candidates who enter for the Higher Level examination should have extensive knowledge of all
aspects of everyday life. It was evident that some candidates again in this examination prepared essays beforehand,
memorised them and tried to fit them in under a topic of their choice. Names of characters and places where things
were experienced, were changed, but the plots were the same. This is unacceptable and will not be tolerated in future.
Candidates who are guilty of such actions, will be penalised.
Some of the following issues are still of particular concern: starting sentences with conjunctions such as because;
incorrect punctuation, the use of contractions, for example aren’t. The use of colloquialism was still evident in many
essays. The obvious examples are guys, kids, gonna, stuff and alright. The use of like, instead of such as, ‘all he
ever wanted’ instead of ‘the only thing’; ‘due to’ instead of ‘because of’ still prevailed in most essays. Candidates
should avoid repeating the infinitive and their complements in verbs or expression for example; to be glad to do; to ask
somebody to do something, to go to call the police.
Many candidates still used direct speech in their essays; even in argumentative essays. This should be discouraged.
Candidates on this level still have a poor understanding of Word Formation. Adjectives were used instead of adverbs, for
example ‘ She acted consistent’ instead of ‘She acted consistently’. Obviously the candidates have not been coached
to avoid making mistakes such as the following: alot, inlove, infront, inturn, aswell, atleast, infact, asif, inaddition, didnot,
Iam, eventhough, oneday, inorder, donot, inspite, everytine, inbetween, ontop, incase, endup, eversince, inconclusion,
insuch, toget and inwhich. These were all given as one word instead of two separate words. I personally think was
used instead of I think. The use of “sms spelling” was very annoying and was used in excess this year.
Many candidates lacked the ability to develop ideas properly in order to write fully developed essays. They did not have
the ability to argue convincingly and they wrote about general concepts or ideas. They had a habit of listing of ideas.
A few arguments were sustained and convincing. Some candidates failed to focus on one specific plot; they included
many different ideas, which resulted in more than one plot and poor development. Furthermore, many candidates who
opted for the narrative essay took too long to get to the focus of the topic at hand. Some merely touched on it toward
the end and many struggled to conclude the essays convincingly. Many candidates had poor control over paragraph
sequencing, logical progression of ideas, paragraph structure and too many ideas were developed in one paragraph.
Unequal paragraphs led to incoherent and inconsistent writing.
It is of concern that many candidates are still entered on the wrong level. Teachers should please ensure that candidates
are enrolled according to their abilities and not just for prestige. This contributed to numerous weak essays, as many
candidates could not cope with the high expectations of Higher Level. Candidates should remember to indicate their
choice of topic to avoid confusion. It was clear that some teachers still do not pay attention to and apply suggestions
from the Examiner’s Report, since the same mistakes were made.
TOPIC 1
I always try to avoid visiting this place. Describe the place and the feelings it evokes in you.
Many candidates opted for this topic. The developments of the plots did not suit the topic. Many candidates failed to
link “avoid”, with negative feelings. It was clear that many candidates misunderstood the word “evoke”. This resulted in
forced plots and poor development. They were supposed to highlight and explain the reasons why they avoid visiting
this place. Most candidates chose places such as bars, hospitals and graveyards as places that should not be visited
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with little success, since plots were developed in mundane ways. A few candidates had excellent explanations of places
and emotions.
TOPIC 2:
Many people are not aware of the fact that technological inventions can endanger their privacy and inner peace.
What are your views?
This topic was relatively popular. Candidates gave extensive descriptions of technology instead of referring to the danger
it may pose to inner peace and privacy. Some candidates drew parallels between the negative and positive effects.
Successful candidates managed to present unique and convincing content. They could refer to specific inventions and
their negative effects on mankind.
TOPIC 3:
What a wonderful life-changing experience I had! Tell a story based on this statement.
This was a very popular topic with mixed success. The stronger candidates managed to construct a mature and
convincing narrative. The weaker candidates referred to many experiences, i.e. from birth to high school careers
instead of describing an event that changed their lives. Plots were weak, unimaginative and poorly developed. These
essays tended to be too long. Candidates were supposed to relate a LIFE-CHANGING experience and not just an
everyday incident.
TOPIC 4:
I am of the opinion that the unemployment problem in Namibia is due to a lack of work ethic, unrealistic expectation and
laziness. To what extend do you agree with the statement?
This was a popular topic. Very few candidates managed to argue against the argument. Candidates may have
disagreed with the topic. Most candidates who chose this topic presented mundane logic and reasoning. The successful
candidates could argue substantially and present a developed piece of writing. Some candidates even referred to ethic
as ethnic.
TOPIC 5:
Globally, discrimination against female athletes is still evident in all sports. What are your views?
A few candidates attempted this topic with limited success. It was clear that candidates lacked general knowledge
and could, therefore, not attempt this topic. Successful candidates could prove their arguments with convincing facts
and not general and vague ideas. Stronger candidates could even argue against the topic. In order for the plots to
be convincing, candidates should have provided sustained proof of this occurrence and not transformed discrimination
against female athletes into discrimination in general.
TOPIC 6:
I could not believe it when the helicopter passed above my head. How could they not see me? Continue the story.
Very popular topic with varied success. Most plots described candidates being stranded on an island. In some cases
plots from films were presented as original. Some candidates even claimed to be threatened by the helicopter. In
general plots were weak and unimaginative. Candidates should have written original and imaginative plots. Stronger
candidates did not choose this topic.
Positive suggestions to teachers .

Please concentrate on the following suggestions made every year. It is evident that some teachers still ignore the
suggestions made below. This is worrisome, since learners can really perform much better if the following suggestions
are implemented:
• Teachers should teach grammar and language as an integral component of English such as: Concord, Punctuation,
Vocabulary, Sentence structures and Idiomatic expressions. Learners should thoroughly study the meanings and
use of prefixes and suffixes. Learners should be taught proper planning. Teachers should learn to be aware of and
avoid colloquialism and slang, especially the use of kid, guys and a lot.
• Contemporary issues should be discussed and debated in class. Learners should do book reviews and should be
encouraged to read, which will help to expand their general knowledge as well as vocabulary. Teachers should offer
more lessons that involve challenging vocabulary activities as candidates are expected to use mature and effective
vocabulary on Higher Level.
• Teach learners correct paragraphing techniques, with one topic sentence, which is thoroughly developed and linked
to the next paragraph. In addition, candidates need to be taught how to use and develop an effective plot. Essays
need to be correctly structured, with only one main idea per paragraph. Good and effective introductions and

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conclusions should also be encouraged. The topic should not be repeated in the introduction.
• Argumentative essays require facts and should be convincing. Essays should also contain the reader’s thinking
and general knowledge. Candidates should be taught that a suitable introduction and conclusion are essential.
The introductions to the essay should be distinct and separate from the rest of the plot.
• It was evident that more candidates planned their essays before writing the final draft. Hence, those candidates
could write average to good essays, with a sufficient degree of depth of material. Candidates, who have not
planned, have submitted essays in a slovenly (untidy) manner. This was quite disturbing to the examiners. It is
clear that many candidates do not edit their work upon completion of the essay.
• Some candidates’ handwriting makes the task of the examiners very difficult.
• Numbers up to twenty should be written out in words. Numbers above twenty and dates should be written in
numerals. Most candidates did this the other way round!
• Candidates should be taught and guided to choose the correct type of topic in order to write proper essays.

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8315
Paper 3
General Comments
There is still far too much use of colloquial expressions and manners of spelling. Even though some of the setworks
use colloquialism, this does not entitle the candidates to use these expressions in their writing. Examples of this
were:”booze”, “Dad”, “ripped off”, “kids” and “gotten”. Furthermore, the use of the preposition as a prefix is becoming
widespread. Examples of this are “infront”, “aswell”. What is even more worrying, is that the teachers RARELY picked
up these errors when they marked the scripts.
The overriding impression received by the examiner is that both teachers and candidates are totally reliant on study
guides and downloaded notes for ideas, rather than having the courage to develop any personal ideas. Many teachers
also do not motivate the marks they awarded by giving a short statement. Furthermore, many teachers do not indicate
grammar, spelling or other errors. Expression is a vital part of the mark awarded. Many teachers purely give a mark
based on the content that the candidate has provided.
Most candidates did not struggle to understand the requirements set by the questions on the new literature topics. The
use of quotation continues to be a general problem in formulating a response. Candidates do not seem to be taught
that the use of a long quotation cannot be used in lieu of a properly formulated argument. Too many candidates do still
not make use of punctuation as an effective tool in presenting a succinct and meaningful argument.
The candidates in general still struggle to develop ideas fully that they use in answering the questions. Quotes are
used, but explained contextually. Many candidates struggled to link the material learned throughout the year to the
examination question.
Question 1
Most candidates offered a summary of the storyline and general observations of the two characters. In many cases, no
supporting evidence was given. Many candidates presented a mere retelling of the basic plot of the story, rather than a
detailed analysis, as was required by the question. Another common problem was the failure to support critical analysis
with evidence from the text. In many cases, very little actual analysis took place and the plot was just summarised.
Few candidates could focus on the character of the two women in the question but focused on the novel as a whole.
Question 2
Most candidates opted for this question, as the issue examined by it was so prominent in the novel. Few candidates
managed to suitably discuss the CHANGES in Seraki’s character. A disappointing trend was the tendency of most
candidates to regurgitate (often word for word) the contents of the given study guide and, thus, very few attempts were
made to alter the provided material into a suitable personal response.
Question 3
Only a handful of candidates managed to identify the “Men of Magnitude” as mentioned in the extract. In most cases,
the candidates did not manage to identify why the characters mentioned the Men of Magnitude that they chose. Few
responses went beyond a simple retelling of the two characters views. The best candidates managed to identify the
undertones in the relationship between Hally and Sam. Again, analysis usually degenerated into a retelling of the plot
in most cases.
Question 4
This was by far the more popular question on this particular setwork. Most responses were generally good, and
structure was handled well. The weaker candidates did not manage to go beyond a general political discussion of the
Apartheid era in South Africa, rather than the specific events that formed the basis of the theme of discrimination.
Section C
A notable trend is that the poetry section seems to be slightly neglected by the teachers, as the level of depth is not as
advanced as those of the other genres. It is not enough merely to state that figures of speech are present. These need
to be analysed and linked to the topics.

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Question 5
Very few candidates dealt effectively with the structure of the poem. Almost no effort was made to analyse how the
ideas required by the question were divided within the quatrains. Very few candidates managed to link the poem to
actual historical events that inspired the poem.
Question 6
The more successful candidates managed to note the poem was based on the Biafran war. However, they could not
do more than identify the figures of speech and could not successfully analyse their use, nor link the ideas to the topic.
Positive suggestions
• Teachers should know and be more familiar with the text, in order to teach it more successfully. Teachers should
teach beyond what is available in study guides.
• Learners need to be taught to plan their responses better. Very few candidates showed any evidence of appropriate
planning.
• Candidates should be taught to write their responses in more formal register and to strictly avoid the use of
colloquialism.
• Analysis of the topic is essential. Mere retelling of the plot is always heavily penalised.

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8315
Paper 4
General Comments
Teachers need to be intimately acquainted with the mark scheme, so that they realise the need to interrupt or re-direct
candidates, if they are merely summarising events or are off the topic. Teachers are also reminded that ALL THREE of
the genres need to be examined.
Too many teachers still follow a simple question and answer approach with the candidates, by allowing the candidates to
speak at length in response to the question posed, often with little to no relevance to the topic discussed in the literature
exam. Many examiners seem to draw up a list of stock questions, which are posed to all the candidates. Teachers
should draw a list of discussion topics unique to EACH candidate’s responses in the literature examination. The use
of broad open-ended questions is still too prevalent, e.g. “what is the play about?” Too many examiners allowed the
candidates to read their responses from the written examination, or from prepared notes. This practice disadvantages
the candidates severely.
Another unfortunate problem is the tendency of some examiners to ignore the suggested time frame for the interviews.
Many interviews were much too long, some even longer than 30 minutes. This annoying practice severely hampers
the moderation process and examiners are reminded that the suggested time limit is 15 minutes, not 35 minutes.
Examiners should be aware of the need to conduct an interview, or a conversation or an argument with the candidates,
in which the candidate plays an equal or even more dominant role than the teacher. It is only in such a situation that the
upper bands of the mark scheme may be awarded.
Many teachers are guilty of over-inflating the marks given to candidates and apparently do not make use of the marking
grid provided by the syllabus. In many cases, the marks awarded were vastly inflated beyond the skills identified in
the mark scheme. Teachers must note that this practice is detrimental to the marks of the entire centre and they are
reminded to stick more strictly to the suggestions of the mark scheme when awarding marks.
Questions 1-6
In general, most candidates responded with some success to the topics covered by the written examination. The issues
of the crocodile, dominance and family dynamics were generally discussed as much as they were written about in the
examination.
The poetry section was generally poorly answered, as the teachers do not seem to be placing the necessary focus
on this genre. Most interviews only spoke on this topic for about a minute to two minutes, which is insufficient time to
thoroughly examine the poetry and the issues required by the question.
Many teachers are blissfully UNAWARE of their OWN use of colloquial expressions! Thus, they are unable to critically
judge the language use of the candidates. There was widespread use of “kids”, “gonna”, “wanna” and other colloquial
language by the examiners, who are supposed to be guiding the candidates through a formal oral interview. Until this
matter is remedied, all judgements by some examiners on quality of language is suspect, as they are unaware that they
are also guilty of the misuse of colloquial language.
Positive Suggestions:
• Teachers must be familiar with both the marking grid and the individual candidate’s exams, by preparing for each
candidate on an individual basis. The Oral component should be taken far more seriously by the teachers. Pay
closer attention to the respective time allocations as identified in the syllabus. Be realistic when applying the
marking grid.
• Do not allow the candidates to have pre-prepared notes in the interview.
• Practice. The examination should not be the candidate’s first experience of an oral exercise based on the literature.
Do not ask questions that require only a simple reply. Remember that the purpose of the exercise is to test the
candidate’s knowledge of the literature and the examiner should, thus, avoid dominating the interview.

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FIRST LANGUAGE AFRIKAANS
8301
Paper 1
ALGEMENE KOMMENTAAR
Al hoe minder kandidate neem nog Eerste Taal Afrikaans op die Hoёrgraad wat verontrustend is. Kandidate word deur
skole aangeraai om eerder Eerste Taal Engels te neem wat baie nadelig vir ons taal en ook ons land is, want behalwe
dat die grootste deel van die bevolking dit wel nog praat, is dit boonop ook ’n akademiese taal.
AFDELING A
Vraag 1: Opsommming
By die (a) deel van die vraag is ’n opsomming van die voordele van jagplase gevra. Omdat ’n opsomming die laaste
paar jaar nie gevra is nie, het sommige kandidate dit soos ’n vergelyking met ooreenkomste probeer beantwoord. Dit
wys dudelik dat kandidate nie die vrae ordentlik lees nie. Heelwat kandidate het wel die opsomming geskryf en goeie
punte gekry.
By die (b) deel van die vraag is van kandidate verwag om verskille tussen wildplase en wildtuine uit te wys. Hoewel
hierdie vraag ’n klein bietjie moeiliker was, het sommige kandidate goeie punte gekry. Daar was egter weer ’n paar wat
die verskil tussen leesstuk 1 en leesstuk 2 aangedui het omdat hulle nie die vraag ordentlik gelees het nie.
Kandidate het nie punte vir die volgende stellings/vae stellings gekry nie:
Leesstuk 1 verwys na bedreigde spesies wat meer bewaar word op wildplase as in wildtuine.
Wldtuine se inkomste kom hoofsaaklik van buitelandse toeriste, waar wildplase nie afhanklik daarvan is nie.
Daar is meer plante en diere in wildtuine as op jagplase.

Wildtuine bied werksgeleenthede en wildplase nie.
Vraag 2: Toespraak
By hierdie vraag is van kandidate verwag om ’n toespraak te skryf oor die rol van wildplase en wildtuine in bewaring.
Sommige kandidate het net op jagplase gekonsentreer terwyl ’n paar ander feite genoem het wat nie oor die rol in
bewaring gaan nie.
Die volgende stellings het nie punte verdien nie:

Jagplase bevredig behoeftes (vaag!).
’n Mens kan wild in droё gebiede aanhou.

Dis onnodig om wild in te ent of te doseer.
Wildtuine kan ook werk skep vir mense.

Sommige kandidate het gesukkel om die relevante inligting uit die leesstukke te kry wat dan veroorsaak het dat hulle nie
goeie punte gekry het nie. Kandidate moes wys op die rol wat wildtuine en wildplase in bewaring speel. Die onderwerp
is positief. Kandidate kon die volgende feite noem:
Die bewaringsbasis word vergroot.

Skaars wildsoorte se getalle het toegeneem.
Dit verskaf ’n inkomste vir die land (bv. ekotoerisme, trofeejag).

Verbeter die lewensomstandighede van die plaaslike bevolkings.
Benut gedeeltes van die land wat nie geskik vir ander boerdery is nie (graan, groente ens.)
Kandidate moes ook van hulle eie idees bysit.
Kandidate het nie punte gekry vir die volgende feite nie:
Diere is ingeperk tydens droogtes.
Diere wat ontsnap word van kant gemaak, ens.

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Kandidate is ook hier gepenaliseer as hulle nie toespraakstyl gebruik het nie. Sommige begin met die aanhef, maar
skryf dan verder ’n “opstel” en spreek nie die gehoor genoeg aan nie.
Vraag 3: Tydskrifartikel
Van kandidate is verwag om ’n artikel te skryf oor etiket in die gebruik van sosiale media vandag. Sommige kandidate
het nie gerigte skryfwerk geskryf nie en nooit na die teks verwys nie en dan nie goeie punte gekry nie. Kandidate moes
ook hulle eie idees byvoeg.
Sommige kandidate het regtig baie oulike skryfstukkies geskryf omdat die gebruk van sosiale media baie populêr onder
jongmense is en hulle uit hulle ervaringswêreld kon skryf. Goeie eie insette is ook gelewer.
Wenke:
• Kanidate moet die teks meer integreer en nie klakkeloos uit die teks oorskryf nie.
• Begin elke vraag op ’n nuwe bladsy.
• Gee aandag aan onderwerpontleding en maak seker wat gevra word.
• Gee aandag aan woordorde en sinskonstruksie.
• Skryf getalle onder 20 uit.
Taal- en spelfoute:
• Verskil tussen “bevestig” en “gevestig”
• Gebruik van “als” i.p.v. “alles”
• “nommers van wild” i.p.v. getalle
• Gebruik van die woord “tuine” in die plek van wildtuine (nie dieselfde ding nie)
• “Namibiё” nie “Namibia” nie
• “alowel” i.p.v. alhoewel
• Gebruik van die woord “aksies” in die plek van dade.
• “hanteer” iemand met respek i.p.v. behandel iemand met respek
• deur “om” dit te doen ... in plaas van net deur dit te doen...
• “in” ’n negatiewe manier i.p.v. op ’n negatiewe manier
• “allerdaagse” i.p.v. alledaagse
• “rondom” mense i.p.v. tussen mense
• Verskil tussen “gebruikers” en “verbruikers”
• “Goeiemôre” is een woord.
• “toerisme” besoek die land i.p.v. toeriste
• “generasie” i.p.v. geslagte
• etiket se meervoud is nie “etikette” nie – bly etiket, habitat bly ook habitat
• “wat se” i.p.v. “watter”
• Wildplase word “bevestig” i.p.v. gevestig
• ‘n nuwe onding: “herstelling” i.p.v. herstel (ook “uitroeiing, verkoping, uitsterwing”)
Algemeen:
Oor die algemeen was die kandidate se werk op ’n redelike hoё standaard. Dankie aan al die eksaminatore wat so hard
gewerk het om hulle kandidate gereed te kry vir die eksamen.

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8301
Paper 2
ALGEMENE KOMMENTAAR
Al ses die onderwerpe wat aangebied is as keuse vir die beantwoording van die stelwerk, is deur die kandidate gekies.
Daar was onderwerpe wat gewilde keuses was en ook die minder gewilde keuses.
Wat beïndruk het, is dat daar ŉ daadwerklike positiewe verskil waargeneem is in die aanbieding van die stelwerkstukke
by sommige sentrums. Sommige candidate se werk het getuig van eenvoud wat dit ŉ voorreg gemaak het om te lees
en te beoordeel.
Dit is opvallend dat die versorging van die deurlopende skryfwerk by sekere sentrums ŉ prioriteit is.
Die nommer en die onderwerp moet altyd aangedui word op die antwoordstel.
Die aantal woorde moet altyd aan die einde van die stelwerkstuk aangedui word.
INDIVIDUELE ONDERWERPE
1 “Toerisme is n groot besigheid. Selfs wanneer daar probleme in ŉ land is, kan die toerismebedryf floreer.”
Bespreek.
Hierdie was ŉ gewilde onderwerp. Die kandidate het dit werlik bemeester om die waarde van toerisme vir ŉ land
uit te lig en te bespreek. Punte-toekenning het gewissel van gemiddeld tot goed.
2 “Oefening – in enige vorm - is goed vir die mens. Dit versterk die liggaam, beskerm die liggaam, verbeter
die liggaam se immuunstelsel en werk veroudering teen.” Bespreek.
Dit was n baie gewilde keuse en kandidate het sterk standpunte ingeneem. Baie interessante feite is bespreek.
Die punte-toekenning het gewissel van gemiddeld tot uitstekend.
3 “Misdaad, armoede en ongelykheid is realiteite van ons tyd – plaaslik en internasionaal, Ons moet mekaar
as medemense sien, waardeer en respekteer.” Bespreek.
Hierdie onderwerp was ook n gewilde keuse, Die kandidate se werk het in eensydige menings verval wat afbreek
gedoen het aan hulle skryfpogings. Die candidate het nie oor genoegsame kennis beskik nie. Die punte-toekenning
het gewissel van swak tot gemiddeld.
4 “Oseaanbesoedeling affekteer die ganse planeet. Die planne om die problem die hoof te bied, moet
vinniger geïmplemeenteer word,” Bespreek.
Dit was ŉ gewilde keuse. Die kandidate het uitstekende stelwerkstukke gelewer met relevante feite en voorbeelde.
Die feit dat hierdie onderwerp ŉ saak baie na aan hulle harte is, het duidelik navore gekom. Die punte-toekenning
het gewissel van goed tot uitstekend.
5 “Die invloed van tegnologie op die samelewering is nog altyd onderskat.” Bespreek.
By verre die gewildste keuse. Sommige van die kandidate het net die voordele en nadele bespreek en glad nie
die feit dat tegnologie onderskat word, bespreek nie. Die feite was relevant en punte toekenning het gewissel van
gemidddeld tot goed.
6 “Skep so werk vir jong mense.” Bespreek.

Die onderwerp was glad nie n gewilde keuse nie. Feitekennis het ontbreek. Punte-toekenning het gewissel van
swak tot gemiddeld.

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VOORSTELLE OM TE GEBRUIK:
Daar moet doodseker gemaak word van die feite, statistiek en persone wat aangehaal word. Eksaminatore kontroleer
wel die feite. Die feite wat verskaf word en die redenasies moet eg wees.
Name en vanne moet nie van mekaar geskei word nie.
Getalle van een tot tien moet uitgeskryf word. Daarna kan die syfer gebruik word.
Paragrafering is baie belangrik. Daar moet n daadwerklike poging aangewend word om dit in te oefen met die student.
Een sin, een paragraaf is nie korrek nie.
Die skryf van sinne verg inoefening. Sinne mag nie lank en lomp wees nie. Lang sinne skep ruimte vir taal- en spelfoute.
Daar moet in volsinne geskryf word en ŉ volsin het atyd ŉ werkwoord in.
Probeer om so min as moontlik aanhalingstekens te gebruik. Die gebruik van aanhalingstekens het ŉ gewoonte geword
in stelwerk. Die reëls oor al die leestekens en veral die aanhalingsteken, moet ingeoefen word. Hoe korter die sinne,
hoe effektiewer is die sinne.
Baie aandag moet aan die gebruik van die betreklike voornaamwoord gegee word.
Onvanpaste idiome kom voor in die stelwerk.
Werkwoorde in Afrikaans word aan die einde van die sin gebruik.
Ons gebruik die dubbele ontkenning in Afrikaans.
Anglisismes is steurend en selfs die gebruik van Engelse woorde.
Die korrekte spelling van woorde op hierdie vlak is noodsaaklik en die kandidate moet die erns hiervan besef.
Hier volg ŉ lys van algemene taal- en spelfoute:
meer geriefliker
disepliene
spuit (spyt )
krusis (krisis)
lui (ly)
tyd bestee en geld spandeer
mense word behandel, maar lewelose voorwerpe word hanteer.
vir seker en verseker
bevorder en gevorder
Baie dankie vir al u insette gelewer vir Eerste Taal Afrikaans HIGCSE. Dit is ŉ voorreg om te kan deel wees van so n
spesiale groep mense wat elke oomblik hulle beroep uitleef.
Sterkte en mooi wense vir 2021!

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8301
Paper 3
SKRIFTELIKE TAKE OOR DIE LITERÊRE TEKSTE
1 Keuse van tekste

Dit blyk dat die meeste sentrums al drie die genres behandel het. Wanneer verskillende gedigte behandel word,
moet daar nie net aan een of twee gedigte aandag gegee word nie en moet die taak as ’n literêre opstel aangebied.
Enkele sentrums se kandidate toon steeds nie ’n volwasse verantwoordbare begrip van die letterkunde nie, maar
gee slegs ’n weergawe van die inhoud of ’n opstapeling van literêre definisies of tegnieke in die taak.
2 Keuse van onderwerp

Onderwysers moet kandidate leiding gee in die keuse van onderwerpe. Die onderwerp moet nie ’n aankondiging
wees nie, maar bloot net ’n stelsin. Byvoorbeeld: Tjokkie as protangonis, i.p.v. Bespreek Tjokkie as protagonis.
Enkele voorbeelde van inlegkunde het nog voorgekom. Die onderwerpe moet hulle leen tot ’n literêre bespreking.
Vermy onderwerpe waarin kandidate die Christus en die Bybel kan bysleep.
’n Groter verskeidenheid van onderwerpe is aangebied. Enkele klein sentrums het egter dat kandidate oor
dieselfde temas skryf, veral in die Raka take. Let ook daarop dat sekere voorgeskrewe werke hulle ook makliker
leen tot ’n opstel wat hoofsaaklik inhoudelik is, bv. Fiela se kind. Kandidate vergeet dan dat dit ’n literêre opstel is
en konsentreer hoofsaaklik op die verhaal.
3 Aanhalings
Aanhalings moet sinvol wees en die argument ondersteun. Dit moet nie te lank of te kort wees nie. Dit mag ook
deel van die sin vorm. Kandidate ontvang punte vir sinvolle aanhalings. Die aanhaling moet verkieslik kursief
gedruk word en die bladsy of reёlnommer moet aangedui word.
4 Gebruik van literêre terminologie

Literêre tegnieke en aanbieding slegs sporadies. Kandidate ontvang punte vir die gebruik van literêre terminologie.
Dit moet egter deel vorm van die literêre opstel. Sommige kandidate het die manier om die letterkundige begrippe
sommer lukraak te gebruik. Kandidate sal byvoorbeeld in ’n opstel oor die uitbeelding van die vrou in gedigte ’n
paragraaf skryf wat handel oor alliterasie, beeldspraak, ens. sonder om dit in verband met die onderwerp te bring.
5 Meningsvorming
Van Hoёrgraad kandidate word verwag om ’n mening te kan weergee. Dit moet egter verband hou met die
onderwerp van die referaat. Wees versigtig vir Inlegkunde d.w.s. om iets in te lees in ’n verhaal/gedig wat nie daar
staan nie. Hierdie mening hoef nie noodwendig aan die einde van die opstel in ’n soort slotparagraaf gegee te word
nie, maar kan ook deurgaans in die opstel voorkom.
6 Bepunting
Kandidate ontvang punte in al vyf die kategorieё uit ’n totaal van 20 vir elke werkstuk. Die bepunting is as volg:
Begrip van teks /4
Begrip van taak /4
Ondersteunende aanhalings /4
Literêre terminologie /4
Mening /4
Oor die algemeen was werkstukke netjies geredigeer en versorg. Alle werkstukke moet netjies nagesien word deur
die onderwyser. Indien die werkstuk slordig is, kan u die kandidaat vra om dit oor te doen. Netjiese werk kan net
in hul guns tel.
Eksaminatore moet slegs die finale produk instuur vir moderering.
Met enkele uitsonderings was die assessering realisties en verantwoordbaar.
7 Voorblad
Voorblaaie was oor die algemeen baie netjies wat dit makliker maak vir die moderator. Punte moet verkieslik ook
op die voorblad aangedui word. Dui asseblief albei werkstukke se punte op die voorblad aan.

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8 Plagiaat
Kandidate word streng gepenaliseer vir plagiaat. Onderwysers moet ook asseblief by die nasien van werkstukke
aandui as leerlinge uit notas en die Internet oorgeskryf het.
9 Lengte
Die lengte van die werkstukke is 800 woorde (uitgesonder die kort aanhalings) en kandidate wat dit oorskry, sal
gepenaliseer word.
10 Getikte werkstukke
Kandidate moet verkieslik hulle werkstukke met die skriftipe (font) Arial 11 tik. Die meeste kandidate het baie
netjies en goedversorgde werkstukke ingedien. Dankie daarvoor.

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8301
Paper 4
MONDELINGE EKSAMINERING
Logistiek
Dit is belangrik dat die opnames duidelik hoorbaar is en verkieslik in ’n klankdigte plek afgeneem word. Eksaminatore
moet asseblief die CD’s toets voordat hulle dit vir moderering instuur en seker maak die regte hoeveelheid word
ingestuur. Daar is nog hoorbare steurnisse op sommige CD’s.
Opwarming
Dit is belangrik dat die kandidaat op sy gemak gestel word voordat die eksaminering begin. Eksaminatore het oor die
algemeen interessante opwarmingsonderhoude met kandidate gevoer.
Die onderhoud
Die onderwerp moet kortliks bekend gestel word. Hierdie is nie ’n spervuurafdeling nie, maar ’n literêre gesprek tussen
kandidaat en eksaminator om die voorgeskrewe werk dieper te verken. Die werkstuk moet as uitgangspunt dien. Die
eksaminator moet asseblief nie die onderwerp bekend stel en dan vir die kandidaat vra om dit te bespreek nie. Hier
word nie van die kandidaat verwag om ’n monoloog (of nog erger) die taak af te lees nie. Dis ’n literêre gesprek.
Vraagstelling
Die meeste eksaminatore was goed voorbereid. Sommige eksaminatore het in die gesprek vir kandidate vrae gevra wat
die inhoud paragraaf vir paragraaf dek. Dit is ’n duplisering van die taak en dien geen doel nie. Die vraagstelling moet
van so ’n aard wees dat dit aan jou goeie kandidate die geleentheid bied om verder daaroor uit te brei en te verdiep.
Kandidate wat nie literêre terme gemaklik gebruik nie, moet deur die vraagstelling gehelp word. Dit is ’n gesprek.
Ongemaklike stiltes kom voor wanneer die eksaminator nie goed voorbereid is nie. Soms word presies dieselfde vrae
aan al die kandidate van ’n sentrum gevra.
Bepunting
In enkele gevalle is die punte onreёlmatig hoog.

Lees asseblief ook verslae van vorige jare. Dankie vir die eksaminatore wat goeie werk gelewer het.

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FIRST LANGUAGE ENGLISH
8302
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
Seventeen full-time and three part-time centres registered for this examination. However, one full-time centre and two
part-time centres, all with one candidate each, did not send in examination scripts. The overall candidate performance
was similar to last year’s.
The presentation of the candidate’s work lacked sophistication. Each question should start on a new page and allow
the marker the space needed for writing the obtained marks as well as comments. Writing Part 1 and Part 2 with its
respective numbering always creates a good impression.
For Part 1, Question 1 it should be noted that candidates did not have to use the subsection denotation of (a) and
(b). Two paragraphs (one for Passage A and one for Passage B) are essential. Many candidates wrote a whole page
without paragraphing the two parts of the summary.
Question 2 called for a radio script, set out as a triologue. Even if candidates did not know the word “triologue”, the
instructions clearly spelt out that the answer is a discussion/conversation among three participants: the interviewer,
the space junk analyst and the researcher on plastic pollution of the oceans. The added concise instruction “As the
interviewer you will steer the discussion with your two studio guests from gloominess to a more positive outlook on the
various clean-up methods being developed.” left no doubt that this part was to be dealt with on its own and did not
require lengthy discussions on the impact of junk and plastic respectively, since it was the focus of Question 1. Once
again the candidates’ reading ability was tested as they were writing Paper 1 called Reading and Directed Writing for
which teachers have to prepare their candidates.
Part 2, Question 3 required an informative article. Most candidates supplied a main heading to draw the reader’s
attention. However, the subheading seldom summarised the content of the article in a nutshell. Most subheadings
were just another main heading. In the rush to complete the paper they also forgot to apply the correct register. As in
previous years many answers had not been reordered and consisted of hurriedly strung-together points with no logical
development.
The quality of language usage varied considerably. Sentence structure and complex as well as compound sentence
types together with the accompanying punctuation require urgent attention and practice. The plural form of “bacteria”
was unknown and often changed to “bacterias”. The difference between ‘effect’ and ‘affect’ was not understood.
Incorrect grammar and poor language usage cannot be disregarded as candidates are supposed to be in command of
First Language English Higher Level at this point of their school career.
PART 1
Question 1
Summarise the impact (a) junk has on space (Passage A) and
(b) plastic has on the ocean (Passage B).
The key word of the question is impact. Candidates, however, mistook the solutions as part of the answer.
The first relevant main point of Passage A in the summary is focused on the impact of 60 years of space exploration
filling Earth’s orbit with junk. The second point focuses on the defunct satellites left in Earth orbit. Points three to six
deal with the size of junk in space: they come in all shapes and sizes; 23 000 pieces larger than a baseball/167 million
smaller pieces; travelling at speeds of more than 28 000 km per hour; can cause immense damage when hitting/
colliding with another object. Point seven to nine list Earth orbit as a dangerous place; satellites need to perform
avoidance manoeuvers; even the ISS must be moved now and then while ten states that collisions can be dangerous.
Point eleven can be any of the three examples from the passage which shows how hazardous collisions can be. Point
twelve deals with smaller pieces of debris impossible to see and the last point for this passage is the bigger problem –
the Kessler syndrome.

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Passage B deals with the impact plastic has on the sea. The memo lists the following nine points: 13 million
tonnes of plastic enter the oceans globally; plastic debris results in about $13 billion a year in losses; including losses to
fisheries and tourism; cleaning beaches; plastic bottles will never disappear; they break down in microplastics; marine
animals feed on plastic; shellfish-eating people may be eating around 11 000 pieces of microplastic per year; scientists
increasingly find deposits of plastic at the bottom of the oceans; microbes might even break plastic down into ever
smaller particles which is impossible to detect.
One mark each for any of the above points up to a maximum of 15 and no more than 9 for either section are credited,
which leaves 6 marks for the other. 5 language marks are available for writing a summary. If the answer is
excessively long, not more than 1 mark can be allocated. It should be noted that for 3-5 marks to be allocated,
candidates need to reorder the content points and express them in their own words (without changing the meaning),
as well as adhere to the correct length. Narrative, descriptive and discursive styles do not suit the purpose of a concise
summary and cannot be awarded a language mark at all. Needless to say, the same goes for excessive lifting.
Question 1 requires a summary of the impact (a) junk has on space (Passage A) and (b) plastic has on the ocean
(Passage B). Hence two paragraphs have to be written, one each for each passage. As a summary is brief and its
style concise sentences from the passages cannot be quoted. It will negatively influence the candidate’s language
mark.
Question 2
You are a radio announcer dealing with the topic of waste and how we human beings do not seem to be able to clean
up our mess.
You have invited two scientists for a discussion on your programme, one of whom is an analyst of space junk; the other
a researcher on plastic pollution of the oceans.
As the interviewer you will steer the discussion with your two studio guests from gloominess to a more positive outlook
on the various clean-up methods being developed.
Write your answer in the form of a radio script, set out as a triologue. Begin with the following words:
Radio announcer: ……
Base the content of the discussion on both Passage A and Passage B.
You should write about 1½ - 2 pages in length, allowing for the size of your handwriting.
The instructions ask candidates to write a discussion/conversation among three participants: the interviewer, the space
junk analyst and the researcher on plastic pollution of the oceans. Some candidates gave the speakers interesting
names such as “Mr Atlantis” and “Mr Japie van Zyl”, while others chose “Mr Analyst” and “Mr Researcher”. Some
candidates did not seem to understand the format of a triologue is the usual dialogue form only with three speakers. The
correct format of a dialogue/triologue is the speakers’ names written against the left-hand margin followed by a colon
and the spoken words to the right of the colon. The colons should all be aligned one below the other followed by the
spoken words. The space below the speakers’ names remains empty while inverted commas are not used.
The topic is about waste and how we human beings do not seem to clean up our mess. The interviewer chose two very
specific scientists, which already directs the points of discussion. Many candidates seemed not to understand that there
should be no lengthy introductions (and greetings) since it would detract from the topic. Most triologues therefore had
lengthy and irrelevant monologues on the impact of space junk and plastic on space and the ocean respectively. Thus,
the main focus was often listed at the end of the conversation/discussion as an afterthought. Too often only one point on
each topic was mentioned, which did not suffice for a high content mark. Many candidates also used the inappropriate
statement “Thank you for having us” as part of their introductions.
There were many possible points candidates could have had the experts developed as part of a structured conversation
after the interviewer asked the relevant questions, eliciting interesting descriptions and explanations of the various
methods. Possible points that could have been covered by the space analyst were: US Space Surveillance Network
tracking objects floating in space; dodging oncoming debris by satellite operators; ISS crew prepared to evacuate
in case debris hits the station; the Space Debris Sensor sent to the ISS to monitor how much debris hits the ISS;
ensuring spacecraft have sufficient layers to prevent casualties in the event they are hit; satellite manufactures must
ensure burning up of satellites within 25 years of mission completion; using lasers on Earth to push debris back into the
atmosphere to burn it up; launching new spacecraft with nets or tethers onboard using them to snag dead satellites;
de-orbit measures on new satellites ensuring they are not stuck in space. Similarly, the ocean researcher could have
pointed out the following interesting methods: the “Ocean Clean-up” to trap plastic in huge barriers as it moves around
large circulating currents; Australian-designed “Seabins” to suck in floating waste around harbours; underwater drones
swallowing rubbish while keeping fish away with their sonic transmitter; bacteria biodegrading plastic by munching it;
changing plastic into more specialist products such as clothes; plastics being used as fuel. Many candidates developed
ideas that were not based on the passages such as “People should use less plastic to avoid plastic waste in the ocean.”
developing this idea which cannot be credited as this is a “Reading and Directed Writing” paper.

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Instructions clearly spelt out that the candidates have to base their ideas “on what they have read in both Passage
A and Passage B”, which eliminates the use of own, not text-based ideas. Many candidates developed ideas that
were not based on the passages such as “People should use less plastic to avoid plastic waste in the ocean.” However,
these are not based on the passages and therefore become irrelevant, revealing no understanding of the demands
made by Question 2 and cannot be credited. Moreover, lengthy discussions based on the impact of waste in space and
the ocean negate marks.
The candidate should be well aware that the interviewer has the demanding task of asking relevant questions,
eliciting balanced responses from both guests, keeping the discussion fluid. Too many responses relied heavily on
long monologues focusing on the impact of waste instead of ways to combat it. Proper development of points and
substantial content will fulfil the length requirement of 1½-2 pages. Apt vocabulary, concise expression, varied sentence
structure and a register revealing hope for cleaning up space and oceans should have been shown by the candidate.
A conversational style, allowing for interjections and even incomplete sentences would have reflected a thoughtful
response. Inappropriate expressions such as “Elaborate on your idea based on the topic of waste. ” instead of a
well formed question, as well as presenting the interviewer as the expert or stating the expert is from “gloominess”,
ignoring the capital letter, are examples of inappropriate language expressing a faulty register, as well as misreading
the question. Too many responses showed no register revealing hope for cleaning up space and oceans, and many
conversations were ended off abruptly. However, some candidates wrote innovative, interesting triologues.
Addendum D: Marking Grid for Directed Writing Tasks (Paper 1) of the NSSCH First Language English Higher Level
Syllabus was used in assessing Question 2.
PART 2
Question 3
You are a passionate user of your smartphone and depend on it for the social contacts in your life. So far you
have ignored all warnings from your parents and teachers about the overuse of your phone.
However, recently you have come across some articles airing views on the use of smartphones, some strikingly
similar to the warnings issued by the adult world around you. It made you think and wonder. You feel your
peers should also be aware of the points raised.
Write an informative article for your school magazine. Base the content of your article on the notes you took
of what seemed important to you while you were reading numerous articles.
As in previous years candidates again seem to have a reason for not performing well in Part 2, Question 3 as they
may have taken too long to figure out Question 2. This year in particular many candidates wrote incomplete, or very
short responses which reflected the candidates’ poor time management. A reason for the poor performance might be
the impact of the COVID 19 pandemic since very few Centres had time to write a full August exam – which allows
candidates the opportunity to practise time-management successfully. The two-and-a-half hours allowed for writing
Paper 1 should be divided up in three equal parts of 50 minutes each which was clearly lacking this year.
According to the 2019 Examiner’s Report, candidates should study both passages in preparation for the selection of
the summary points (Question 1) which takes about 20’ and writing the summary about 30’. Question 2 requires time to
look for points not used in the summary, as well as for careful planning of the answer in accordance with the instructions
given for the question (20’) before the written answer can follow (30’). This leaves 50’ for Question 3 to study the
instructions and the notes, as well as reordering the points of the notes before writing a well-structured article for a
school magazine. According to the hurried, incomplete articles without any reordering of the given notes candidates
are in urgent need of time management training. Teachers should set time aside for training candidates how to
complete a task in a specified time which might have been neglected this year.
The expected answer is an article for a school magazine which requires a main heading drawing the reader’s
attention and a subheading summarising the content of the article in a nutshell. Most candidates misunderstand
the purpose of a subheading and wrote another main heading
A brief introduction as to why the candidate is writing the article should explain a change in attitude to his/her cell phone
addiction. Well-structured paragraphs dealing with points selected from the notes according to the candidate’s choice,
order and development of the content will follow. The conclusion will certainly confirm or emphasise the candidate’s
change in attitude.
The notes should be studied carefully as they do not indicate the order/arrangement of points. Paragraph 2 and 6, for
example, could be grouped together as can the paragraphs dealing with media multitasking, as well as paragraphs 7
and 9. Simply listing items as given will drop the candidate into band three. Their articles should reflect a new order of
points expressed in fluent and concise language using varied sentence structure. As the article is written for the school
magazine the candidate should make clear that he wants his peers to understand what is happening to their brain and
behaviour with the overuse of their phones. He/she may even have undergone a drastic change in attitude to their
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phone and persuade their peers to follow suit. It is left to the candidate how the article is dealt with.
In order to convince an audience the register should be informal as the article addresses the candidate’s peers
and should make use of accurate facts. Inaccurate reading of the notes led to inaccurate and faulty statements.
Often too many vital points were omitted, e.g. the name of experts such as Lindsay Squeglia. Points were inaccurately
reported – researching 10 000 nine-to-ten-year-olds finding they use smartphones and social media over a timespan
of a decade, when the emphasis should have been how they use it. The quote of a professor from James Madison
University was changed to a general observation by all teachers. Furthermore, a great number of candidates used the
notes in exactly the same order it is presented in the paper, starting each paragraph with the sub-headings.
Question 3 provides the candidates with points, which means that own ideas are not called for. However, candidates
at times cited examples from their own life illustrating bad habits such as playing games on their smartphones, or
checking Instagram and Pinterest, instead of Facebook. Correct sentence structure was sorely missing too often.
Loosely strung together points without regrouping dropped the candidate into mark band 4 (or lower).
For marking this answer use Addendum D: Marking Grid for Directed Writing Tasks (Paper 1) of the NSSCH First
Language English Syllabus.

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8302
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
Thank you for all the hard work and effort put into teaching your candidates to write these challenging essays. Some
really delightful essays which were enjoyable to read were received.
Even though topics were often missed, a good number of interesting and detailed essays were received. It was clear
that candidates from some centres were really prepared well for this paper.
Generally, candidates attempted to develop their essays. Unfortunately, the responses lacked proper detail and
exemplification.
Another great concern is some candidates’ inability to express themselves properly. For the AS level next year, it is
advised that attention should be paid to this aspect of writing.
1 “Despite great progress in technology, many Namibians live below the breadline.” Give your views on how
inventions of science can be used to benefit all Namibians.
Many candidates struggled to discuss how technology can be used to benefit all Namibians. The strongest
candidates were able to link it to poverty.
2 The common goal of sport should be to unite people from every faith, nationality and culture. What is
your opinion?
Many really insightful responses were a delight to mark. Most candidates were able to link sport to uniting people
of faith, nationality and culture. However, some candidates struggled to exemplify and properly detail their
responses.
3 “Green cities” are a solution to our environmental problems on Earth. Discuss.

Candidates often responded argumentatively to this question, whereas this was not requested by the prompt.
Unfortunately, a number of candidates who attempted this question did not know what Green Cities are.
4 “Every obstacle is an opportunity waiting to reveal itself.” How far do you agree?
This proved to be a difficult question as the learners really struggled to write meaningful responses to this.
Once again, they were unable to exemplify and provide any detail which would have made for more insightful
responses.
5 “Virtual Reality is set to change the world.” Discuss.

On the one hand, candidates wrote really interesting and knowledgeable responses to this topic. On the
other hand, a number of candidates were unable to show that they understand what Virtual Reality is. Many
candidates merely discussed the use of technology and its benefits. Very few focused on how it will change the
world.
6 “Children today are more influenced by their peers than their parents, and it is causing a number of social
problems.” What is your opinion?
This was by far the most popular topic. However, it was mostly answered poorly. Most candidates merely
wandered off into general discussions which lacked the argumentative aspects as required by this question. Only
a few learners were able to provide detailed and convincing argumentations on this topic.
POSITIVE ADVICE TO TEACHERS

It is advised that candidates are taught extensive question analyses. Also, dissuade candidates from responding to
general topics which might lead to vague and generic responses.
In 2021, the first AS level candidates will be writing their examinations. They will be expected to respond to these
types of topics in great detail and at a level expected from a mother tongue speaker. Thus, candidates should be
taught to express themselves properly when they do English First Language AS level.
All the best on preparing your learners for the AS levels in 2021.

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8302
Paper 3
GENERAL COMMENTS
Fourteen full-time Centres and one part-time Centre entered candidates for these two school-based components. Two
further full-time Centres entered one candidate who was absent and two part-time Centres wrongly entered single
candidates. Some Centres which still participated in last year’s examination did not enter any candidates this year.
Similar to last year’s performance the standard of work was varied, revealing that teacher-examiners are unsure as to
the procedure and marking of assignments, as well as the conducting and assessment of oral conversations. It was
evident that the COVID 19 pandemic did not influence the quality and standard of the school-based components.
Similar to previous years, it seems that Examiners’ Reports are neither consulted nor heeded in order to improve a
Centre’s performance. Regrettably, this has a negative impact on the candidates’ marks.
Most Centres clipped the two assignments together and arranged them according to the order of names as spelt out
on the MS2 list. Thank you for making the task of the moderators so much easier.
Summary assessment forms require a double check to avoid adding errors. Asterisks indicating which candidates
had been included in the sample of recordings were missing on both forms. MS1 forms revealed transfer errors and
omission of lozenges.
CDs were mostly labelled correctly and candidate names and numbers corresponded with the respective recordings.
Greater care is required to select the sample to be sent in for moderation. It must include recordings, which are a
true representation of the achievement of the candidates in the respective Centres. If there are more than one teacher
examining candidates at a Centre, every teacher should send in one CD with five recordings each. These should reflect
the range of a good, middling and weak candidates, as well as two further recordings representative of that teacher’s
group. Never submit all the recordings of a Centre. The selection of samples should be done by the Centre.
The syllabus requirements which indicate that a candidate’s two submitted assignments should deal with the
compulsory poetry component, while the second one discusses either a prescribed drama or prose piece, had been
adhered to by most Centres. Only one Centre failed to adhere to the requirements.
Many recordings were a pleasure to listen to as candidates were fluent and in command of a wide vocabulary. Yet
language accuracy is lacking in speech as well as in the written assignments. Language usage, sound grammatical
structures, as well as varied sentence types have to form an integral part of teaching First Language English Higher
Level despite the extensive time consumed by the literature component.
For the drama section eight Centres chose Athol Fugard’s The Road to Mecca; two discussed John Kani’s Nothing but
the Truth and three chose Shakespeare’s Othello. Short stories were selected by three Centres. Neshani Andreas’s
The Purple Violet of Oshaantu were selected by six Centres, while Bessie Head’s Maru were successfully dealt with
by only two Centres. Thomas Hardy’s Far from the Madding Crowd received recognition by only the part-time Centre.
PAPER 3: LITERATURE ASSIGNMENTS

Topics for the assignments must be formulated clearly in a concise way. For instance, the topic “With reference to
any short stories of your choice discuss the overall theme” could be rephrased to “Discuss the presentation of a mother
figure in two short stories of your choice.” A topic should be set in such a way that even weaker candidates can attempt
to answer it. A vague topic such as “Creativity – a lonely place” set on the drama, The Road to Mecca, or “Discuss the
impact of war on society” encouraged personal essays, instead of a literary analysis of the text.
It is essential that titles are copied correctly and indicated in a sentence by writing them in inverted commas OR
underlining them OR italicising them, e.g. “Meeting Point” by Louis MacNeice, An Irish Airman Foresees His Death by
William Butler Yeats, Refugee Mother and Child by Chinua Achebe. Candidates must ensure they know the correct
spelling of the names of poets and authors. First-name basis of especially poets is unacceptable. Surnames are the
only option.
Please consult the 2018/2019 Examiner’s Report for the correct method to use when supporting points are
added to arguments in the assignments.
As has been pointed out previously, an assignment is a well-structured piece of continuous writing. It follows
that line-to-line analyses fall short of such a structure. An analysis of a poem should be divided into well-developed
paragraphs for the purpose of discussing the various aspects such as content, intention, tone, feeling, sensory imagery,
form, rhyme and rhythm by giving examples and explaining the effectiveness of images and figures of speech in the
context of the poem. Furthermore, if two poems or short stories are compared, candidates should first deal with
one poem/short story in its entirety before tackling the second one. Very few candidates could follow through their

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interpretation consistently without losing their thread and staying focused when discussing similar (or differing) aspects
of the poem in alternating order.
Assignments need to show signs of having been marked thoroughly regarding content and language usage.
Ticks only do not suffice. Comments are valuable and assist the moderator as to the marks the candidate has been
awarded. Having a stamp with all the relevant information made, allows for a much faster and far more accurate way of
recording and adding the marks gained in each category. It also obviates the ticking of attached copies of the marking
grids to assignments.
No assignment is complete without a word count with and without quotations. The syllabus requires an assignment
of 800 words for Higher Level, which means 597 and 714 words, for example, are too short and lacking in substance
and supporting evidence. A thousand words can still be accepted, but a length of 1233 words lacks concision and
focus. Unfortunately, a considerable number of candidates did not attach a “bibliography” or references consulted,
but considered mentioning only the prescribed works tackled in their assignments. This tactic, however, did not cover
up that they had, in fact, consulted sources on which they relied heavily for writing their assignments to the extent of
having committed plagiarism.
Figures of speech were not well known by candidates, and teachers did not offer clarity either. An irrelevant show of
figures of speech without contextualisation does not indicate any knowledge of them. A general statement such as
“Shakespeare uses similes and personification to describe love” or “The epigrammatic statement ‘She looked very
small’” carries no value unless the candidate shows understanding of what it means, how it has been used and the
effect it creates. Statements such as “The poem’s irregular structure illustrates the unthinkable circumstances in the
refugee camp” or “The repetition of the vowel sound e in Dulce et Decorum Est emphasises the propaganda which is
created” must be explained and developed. The different rhyme schemes identifying a Shakespearean sonnet and a
Petrarchan sonnet were discussed in the 2019 Examiner’s Report. However, candidates continued to confuse the two,
clearly showing their lack of understanding.
Sadly, teachers still accept the gross misinterpretation of the beautiful love poem Meeting point by Louis Mac Neice
despite notes in previous reports. The significance of the first two verses of the last two stanzas, emphasising how
much the two are in love unaffected by crashing markets, while the glow of her flicked-away ash takes them to tropical
forests in their dreams (imagination) for their future are entirely overlooked:
God and whatever means the Good

Be praised that time can stop like this, (stanza 7, ll.1-2)
as well as
Time was away and she was here

And life no longer what it was, (stanza 8, ll.1-2)
It is evident that teachers as well as students allow misinterpretations on the internet to influence their own judgements.
An Irish airman foresees his death was labelled ‘a hate poem’ while the statement “Those that I fight I do not hate” (line
3) was overlooked. Chinua Achebe’s poem Refugee Mother and Child was chosen often, but the image of “Madonna
and Child” was misinterpreted. The image is not “used to create a beautiful imagery of pure love between Mary and
Jesus”, but rather to emphasise that no image of “Madonna and Child” can surpass the image of love Achebe witnessed
this mother showing for her dying son.

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8302
Paper 4
PAPER 4: SPEAKING ON LITERATURE

It is important that recordings should take place in a quiet venue without disturbing background noise and ringing cell
phones. Warm-up sessions can put nervous candidates at ease, but must not be recorded. The entire recording
centres on the literary pieces studied, NOT on the future prospects of the candidate or the COVID 19 pandemic.
Some teachers still do not keep track of the duration of their oral discussions. The prescribed time per oral session is
set to a total of 15 minutes of which 9 min. are assigned to the poetry section and 6 min. to the other work the candidate
chose to do his/her assignment on.
As was the case last year, some candidates still seemed to have written out extensive notes, which were allowed into
the examination room. Those candidates who read sections of an assignment or prepared notes cannot score high
marks for the sub-category “Knowledge and Insight”. Instead, the two lowest mark bands will have to be applied.
The best practise to start the conversation is to ask a question based on the assignment of the candidate. Further
prepared questions will elicit longer responses from the candidate so that a conversation can develop. Any interesting
and/or significant point mentioned by a candidate should immediately be followed up by the teacher and developed into
a discussion in which the candidate “plays an equal part” Too many teachers still played the dominant role instead of
propelling the candidate into the higher categories of “Literary Discussion”.
It is obvious that not every candidate can respond with enthusiasm or creativity, therefore the role of the teacher can
never be underestimated. It is the duty of the teacher to ensure that each candidate receives a fair chance to relate his/
her knowledge. Thus, the straightforward question-answer technique - otherwise not to be recommended - may assist
such candidates. The teacher should also take care not to hammer these candidates on the names or descriptions of
literary devices, but rather subtly prompt them into discussing their understanding of the topic they chose.
Many imported suggestions were made in the 2019 Examiner’s Report, and teachers are urged to study it in earnest to
ensure each candidate is treated fairly.
To all the teachers who invested much valuable work during a very challenging year, THANK YOU! Best wishes
for the new and exciting curriculum.

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FIRST LANGUAGE GERMAN
8303
Paper 1
Allgemeine Anmerkungen
Wer korrigiert, der weiß das. Man hat es im Unterricht immer wieder angesprochen und doch ändert sich nichts. Das
Wort „es“ steht hier für alle denkbaren Fehler, vor allem aber für das Problem das/dass.
Rechtschreib-, Zeichensetzungs- und Grammatikfehler hielten sich in diesem Jahr überwiegend in Grenzen.
Konnektoren werden gelegentlich sinnentstellend verwendet (obwohl/weil).

Grundsätzliche Probleme mit der Sprachkompetenz gab es nicht. Allerdings werden englischsprachige Formulierungen
gerne 1: 1 übersetzt, etwa: „Ich willkomme euch.“
Daher wird man in einem Beruf auch nicht gut bezahlt, sondern der Beruf zahlt.
Ausdrucksprobleme sind eher schülertypisch. „ Mobber bleiben unerkannt. Mobbingopfer müssen mit deren Eltern
sprechen.“ Gemeint war vermutlich, dass sie mit ihren Eltern sprechen müssen.
Teil 1
Aufgabe 1
Ein Basissatz war in der Aufgabenstellung nicht gefordert, gehört aber zu jeder Zusammenfassung, da sonst die im
Indikativ wiedergegebene Meinung als die eigene gelten kann.
Mit zwei Ausnahmen wurden Basissätze geschrieben. Die Thematik wurde aber oft sehr ungenau erfasst.
Die meisten Schüler haben die zentralen Hauptaussagen relativ gut, z. T. auch sehr gut erfasst. In einem Fall wurde
bereits die eigene Meinung dargestellt.
Bei der Formulierung kann allenfalls die Übernehme von Teilen der vorgegebenen Sätze akzeptiert werden. Bei zwei
Arbeiten ist in diesem Jahr die Ausdrucksfähigkeit der Schüler besonders positiv aufgefallen.
Aufgabe 2
Positiv ist wieder aufgefallen ist, dass einige Schüler sich wohl intensiv mit dem Schreiben von Reden befasst haben
und darauf vorbereitet wurden. Diese Schüler haben verschieden rhetorische Mittel eingesetzt und auch den Slogan
geschickt in die Rede eingebaut.
In ein paar Arbeiten wurden überwiegend Text Gedanken aus der Vorlage wiedergegeben.
Die Mobbingopfer wurden dazu aufgefordert, sich zu wehren oder - und besser -, sich Hilfe zu suchen.
In anderen Reden standen die Mitwisser im Zentrum und wurden aufgefordert, es nicht beim Wissen zu lassen, sondern
Erwachsene oder die SMV anzusprechen.
Geschickt war die Aufforderung an Schüler der Klasse 9, doch einzugreifen, wenn auf dem Pausenhof die jüngeren
Schüler einen Mitschüler ärgern.
Teil 2
Auch hier zeigte sich das Problem, dass einige Schüler sehr nah an der Vorlage gearbeitet haben.
Text C soll Informationen bieten, die dann aber auf die eigene Situation in Namibia angewendet werden.
Von den Schülern ergänzt wurden gesellschaftlicher Druck im Hinblick auf Studium und Studienfach; Kosten für ein
Studium; Noten, die die Möglichkeiten der Wahl einschränken, aber auch die Angst, sich jetzt beruflich für ein Leben
lang festlegen zu müssen oder als Studienabbrecher zu „scheitern“.
Denkbar ist, dass mit der Aufgabenstellung ein wunder Punkt bei den Schülern getroffen wurde, nämlich die Ungewissheit
darüber, wie das Leben nach der Schule weitergeht.

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8303
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
Learners could again choose one from six topics. All topics were chosen. Topic 1 and 4 proved to be the most popular
ones, like the previous year, which means that the broad topics of nature and environment and technology are topics
which the learners feel most comfortable writing about.
This year, 22 learners wrote Paper 2 (these are 9 learners less than the previous year). One essay was once again
of exceptional quality; no essay was of a poor standard. Five learners did not write the number of words at the end of
their essays (which is 22% of this year’s group). It remains a clear instruction on the exam paper and the question is
repeated: are learners less and less able to follow instructions? If learners do not find the time to count the individual
words, they may estimate the number of words. Six learners did not attach their planning which is this year a negative
trend. All learners copied the topics with the respective numbers. Thank you for the positive continuity in this regard.
This results in a general improved quality of the essays.
All candidates wrote argumentative essays. This year however the formulation of the arguments was less cryptic. It
is said again that learners have good ideas, but struggle to put them into words. There seems to be no differentiation
between spoken and written language. The arguments presented fairly often lacked depth, which might have to do
with the fact that learners do not use a broader vocabulary and thus are not able to deepen their arguments. Learners
should be encouraged to read more. This year’s learners written work contained numerous arguments but were often
presented in a disorderly manner in spite the fact that the majority attached their planning. Learners should be taught
how to present their arguments, for example from strongest positive to least strong point of view, then the least negative,
ending with the strongest negative. Furthermore, should learners be encouraged to have a clear conclusion in their last
paragraph. The introductory paragraph is an introduction and NOT the conclusion.
The subject was written at the beginning of the second week of the examination session. Languages are practical
subjects and with all the other subjects being written in English, the later learners write German, the greater are the
chances of them demonstrating “weaker” language skills. This was to the advantage of the learners writing German
First Language.
The advice on the language skills for the 2017 paper seemed to be taken notice of. This is also applicable for 2019.
Learners made better use of the commas and generally wrote shorter sentences. Such positive changes should be
encouraged. In general, the paragraphs were also formed better. Learners however, created new words, because they
seemed to be reluctant to formulate their ideas clearer. This has to be said again for 2020. Steigerungsformen should be
practiced specifically. It is “umweltfreundlicher” and not “mehr umweltfreundlich”. When making use of Bindungsworte
from one paragraph to the next, there is no comma after for example “Erstens” or “Außerdem”. When making use of
English words like tablet, smartphone, laptop they need to be written with a capital letter in German. This year, learners
often wrote the adjectives with a capital letter and the noun then small. For next year, this type of grammar and spelling
exercise could receive more attention. This language skill still needs to get attention during school.
This year two learners’ handwriting was difficult to read. All the others were legible.
1 Wie abhängig ist der Mensch von Technik und Techoologie? Nehmen Sie hierzu Stellung.
Im Allgemeinen haben Schüler dieses Thema zufriedenstellend bearbeitet. Es wurden viele verschiedene
Argumente gebracht, die sich mit Technik im Unterricht befasst haben. Wünschenswert wäre es dieses Jahr
gewesen, wenn Schüler den Unterschied zwischen Technik und Technologie deutlicher herausgearbeitet hätten.
Es war das beliebteste Thema.
2 „Behindertensport bekommt zu wenig Anerkennung.“ Äußern Sie sich kritisch zu dieser Aussage.
Dieses Thema wurde gar nicht bearbeitet. Die Vermutung besteht, dass Schüler die Argumente zu diesem
Thema im Unterricht nicht behandelt haben.
3 Welches sind die größten Herausforderungen für Jugendliche heute? Setzen Sie sich
argumentativ mit dieser Frage auseinander.
Zwei Schüler haben sich mit diesem Thema befasst. Beide Aufsätze schnitten Punkte an, die sich spezifisch auf
das „Corona-Jahr“ bezogen: Schulabschluss, anschließende Arbeitssuche u. Ä. Beide Schüler haben Erfahrungen
der Großeltern mitgeteilt und somit den Unterschied zu heute und früher aufgewiesen. Das war sehr erfreulich.

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4 „Plastikmüll ist die größte Ursache der Umweltverschmutzung. „Wie stehen Sie zu dieser Behauptung?
Dies war das zweitbeliebteste Thema. Keiner der Schüler wusste, dass Plastik von Rohöl gemacht wird. Sprachlich
wurde dieses Thema am miesesten bearbeitet. Es sollte ein Blick auf die allgemeinen Kommentare geworfen
werden. Schüler scheinen oft zu bequem zu sein, längere, deutlichere Ausdrucksweisen zu verwenden. Dieses
Thema lieferte auch in diesem Jahr den schlechtesten Aufsatz.
5 Welche Rolle spielt Religion in Ihrem Leben? Nehmen Sie diese Frage kritisch unter die Lupe.
Zwei Schüller wagten sich an dieses Thema, wovon ein Aufsatz qualitativ schwächer ausfiel (dieser Schüler hatte
das Thema nicht abgeschrieben und keine Stoffsammlung angeheftet). Der andere Aufsatz war sprachlich und
argumentativ gut abgerundet.
6 „Das Buch ist ausgestorben. Als Sieger entpuppen sich PC-Spiele.“ Setzen Sie sich kritisch mit
dieser Behauptung auseinander.
Ein Schüler hat seinen Aufsatz zu diesem Thema geschrieben und lieferte den besten Aufsatz in diesem Jahr. Der
Sprachgebrauch hatte ein hohes Niveau und die Argumente wurden deutlich dargestellt.
General mistakes and recommendations for teachers

• Practice spelling of words that only require a “k” e.g. Produktion (not Producktion)
• Jahreszahlen are written without “in” e.g. 1928 passierte Folgendes (not in 1928 passierte Folgendes)
• Practise plural forms and general spelling: Busse vs Busen, Gasse vs. Gase etc., Atmosphäre (not Atmosphere),
möglicherweise (not möglicherweiße), Christentum (not Kristentum), während (not wärend), Fortschritt (not
Vortschritt), the difference between zu Hause und Zuhause, difference between riesiges System und Riesensystem,
Maschinen (not Maschienen), tun (not tuhen oder tuen), Millionen (= noun, not millionen), in unserer heutigen Zeit
(not in unserer heutigen Welt)

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8303
Paper 3
Literature
COMMENTS
Most centres presented a good range of texts and tasks within the capacity of the candidates and according to the
syllabus.
Quite a number of assignments produced good literary proficiency, depth and accuracy. The tasks were well-structured
and mostly written in an appropriate style.
Most candidates showed profound knowledge and good insight and understanding of the texts and tasks and supported
their statements and arguments by carefully chosen and meaningful quotations.
The assignments on poetry have improved and copying from the internet decreased as compared to previous years. All
candidates provided the texts of the poems they chose to interpret.
All candidates listed the complete sources used at the end of their tasks.
The language skills deteriorated in some centres. Accurate language usage is still important. Quite a few candidates
wrote in a inappropriate style.
Only a few assignments were properly marked by teachers and no recommendations and annotations were made.
The assessment of the tasks was mostly up to standard and only minor adjustments had to be made.
All administrative tasks were excellently done. This made the process of moderation so much easier.
Thank you for the good work.

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8303
Paper 4
Speaking on a Literary Topic
COMMENTS
The examination on Speaking on a Literary Topic went well. All examiners showed a positive attitude and thereby
created a beneficial atmosphere for the candidates.
The general performance was pleasing and the standard remains comparable to that of last year.
The candidates were mostly well prepared and the tasks set by centres were appropriate and within the capability of the
candidates. The questions asked were relevant and stimulating and most candidates responded very well.
Candidates used the ample space to develop coherent speaking. Some examiners, however were too helpful during
the examination. Please do not complete statement made by the candidates to clarify a matter. Spontaneous speaking
was encouraged and often natural conversations developed that demonstrated the abilities of the candidates.
The language skills remained more or less the same as last year. Only a few candidates had problems in conveying
their thoughts clearly.
All recordings were clear and audible. All centres adhered to the prescribed time for the oral examination.
The correct range of samples for moderation was sent in by all centres. There were no ranking faults and the assessments
were consistent and clear. Only minor adjustments had to be done.
The administrative tasks were carefully done and all lists were completed correctly.
Thank you for the good work and commitment.

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128
FIRST LANGUAGE OSHIKWANYAMA
8304
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
This question paper consists of three questions. These questions were fairly answered, since the majority of candidates
have slightly improved on how the questions should be answered. Most candidates had coped with the examination
standard in terms of improved analysing and creative skills. Therefore, candidates’ overall performance was satisfactory.
Although the questions were easy for candidates with good language proficiency, it proved to be difficult for candidates
with poor language proficiency. Clear evidence of preparation of examination techniques at some centres was observed.
However, some candidates lost marks as a result of inaccurate phonetic attempts.
Figurative language was applied incorrectly which resulted in meaningless content. The examination comprises of the
following components:
Content and structure of the candidates’ answers

The content and structure of the candidates’ answers in terms of the required standard was average. Some candidates
did not adhere to the required length and some copied the texts exactly as they are. Most candidates’ thinking capacity
is below higher level standard.
Style and Language usage

The language usage of some candidates is worrisome. Therefore, spelling, punctuation and sentence structure errors
were closely observed. Some candidates could not spell the following words correctly:
ehandjo instead of eyandjo
okuhandja instead of okuyandja
hadeka instead of yadeka
finaneke instead of fininike
epipi instead of epupi
omauhamba instead of omauyamba
nyanauka instead of nyonauka
yoo instead of yo
voo instead of vo
Furthermore, it is observed that some candidates are using some words from other Oshiwambo dialects instead of
Oshikwanyama words. (Ovakonakonwa vamwe ova longifa oitya imwe okudja meenyapilaka dOshiwambo, ponhele
yokulongifa oitya yOshikwanyama.)
Figurative languages was wrongly applied e.g. “Hamundja ya kula naxe, ombabi ya putuka naina ihai li oshivanda
shilula’ instead of ‘Hamundja ya kula naxe, ombabi ya putuka naina kai lya ukola wokoshivanda ulula” and “Omhuku i na
omushila ihai lungwina i na mwene instead of Omhuku i na mwene ihai lungwina omushila, E ku lombwele keshi woye’
/ ‘Inandi tya ouhamba wohamba nau aluke, ashike momufitu omu n’ ongwe’, instead of, ‘Ehe ku lombwele ke fi woye’ /
‘Momufitu omu n’ ongwe, ashike inandi tya oukongo wohamba nau aluke.’
Question 1
This question consisted of two texts about the way the children are nurtured by parents from two different set ups (in the
village and in town) (Outeku wanakanena nEfimano leenghulunghedi) Candidates were expected to give the differences
between the two texts on the ways the children are raised by parents from two different settings.
Most candidates scored average marks, because they lacked knowledge and understanding of giving contrasting
information that are found in the two texts. (Ovahongwa vahapu ova mona oitwa yopokati, osheshi kave na eshiivo
neudeko mokuyandja omayooloko taa hangwa mouleshwa ava vavali). Candidates were supposed to present clear
and matching differences from both texts.
Although some candidates answered this question fairly, some candidates did not provide the contrasting information
from the texts. Instead, they summarised each text separately. Some gave similarities, while some others wrote in a
prose form.

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Candidates were expected to give some of the following points:
• Elongelokumwe mouteku;
• Oikulya yokofikola;
• Okuya kofikola;
• Oilonga yovamati konima yofikola;
• Oilonga yomeumbo youkadona konima yofikola;
• Oxungi momaumbo;
• Oilonga yovahongwa yokofikola;
• Elongifo leengodi dopeke;
• Oku ka tala oilonga yovahongwa kofikola;
• Efimbo lokulya;
• Okuteleka;
Oshihopaenenwa:
Oilonga yovamati konima yofikola

Modoolopa ovamati ngeenge va dimbuka ohava ka fikama momapandavanda tava shili omakaya nokunwa oingangamifi,
omanga komukunda ovamati ove na oshinakuwanifwa shoku ka pitifa oimuna, va ka life noku i twala ketambi nokutala
ngeenge ongubu i na apa ya panhuka.
Question 2
This question was poorly answered. This question required candidates to imagine themselves as a principal of his/
her school and write a letter to the parents in which he/she advises them on how they should raise their children,
based on what he/she has observed at school in terms of learners’ behaviours. (Epulo eli ola li tali pula omuhongwa
ongomukulunhufikola pofikola a shangele onhumwafo kovadali nokovatekuli vovanafikola opo e va kunghilile noku va
pa omayele mawa nghene ve na okutekula ounona vavo, she likwatelela komalihumbato ovanafikola vaye.)
Candidates supposed to relate their ideas to the texts. Instead, most of them gave general advice which resulted in
most of them getting low marks.
Candidates were expected to include some of the following points:
Complaints
• oukolwe nelongifo loingangamifi / alcohol & drug use;
• oumbudi / theft;
• elongifo leengodi mofikola / use of cell phones;
• odino / disobedience;
• okuhawanifa po oifiilwalonga / incomplete school work.
Advice
• parents should not give too much money to children, because learners spend it on buying alcohol and drugs;
• parents must discourage children from going with cell phones to school;
• parents should teach their children to have respect and desist from stealing;
• parents should encourage children to complete their school work on time.
Question 3
Candidates were expected to write an article to the newspaper of their choice to express their dissatisfaction about
corruption in Namibia. Candidates should include the failed mitigations as well as their suggestions to contain / stop
corruption. (Ovahongwa ova li va teelelwa va nyolele oartikela kushimwe shomoifokundaneki yomoshilongo va holole
eudonai lavo kombinga yokulunga nokulitapula. Omuhongwa na holole eenghendabala da ningilwe osho yo omafaneko
kwaasho a diladila shi ningwe po, opo okulunga nokulitapula ku xulifwe po).
This question was answered poorly. Most candidates did not give failed mitigations and they also did not suggest new
ideas to stop corruption in the country. Instead, they only copied the prompts as they are in the question, which led
them to lose marks.
Candidates were supposed to include some of the following points:
• Eenghendabala / Mitigations
- Okangudu koACC / Anti-Corruption Commission (ACC);
- Ehololomadiladilo / Demonstration;
- Oonakudengela odi peisho va kufwa moilonga / the nefarious people were recalled / or dismissed from work.

130
• Omafaneko/ Suggestions to contain (stop) corruption
- Ovaleli nava kale ovalinekelwa/ leaders should be trustworthy;
- Ou ta monika ondjo na ye modolongo / the guilty one should be sent to prison;
- Oonakudengela odi peisho nava kufwe moilonga filufilu / the nefarious people should be dismissed from work
permanently.
Some candidates mixed Oshikwanyama words with those of European Languages such as:
change - shendja
friends - eefelende
family - eefamili
maar - maala
nog - noxo
weekends - eewikenda
This is not allowed. They should use the correct orthograph.
All language skills outlined in the syllabus should be covered effectively. In addition, teachers should distribute the
syllabi to the candidates. Candidates must be trained on examination technique aspects. Teachers should prepare
candidates regarding skills like paragraphing, punctuation, orthography and use figurative language effectively. It is
of utmost importance for all schools to promote reading culture amongst candidates. In conclusion, teachers should
discourage code-mixing amongst candidates, because it makes them lose marks.

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8304
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
There is a slight difference when compared to last year’s performance because most of the candidates did not understand
the argumentative questions which required candidates to address the two sides of a question. Most of the questions
were challenging and most candidates could not apply any analytical skills and as a result most of the candidates did
not perform well.
1 Ovanhu vamwe monena ove hole unene okulinomena omaliko vehe a na. Eshi wa tala ove li ngaho
mondjila? Most of the candidates opted for this question, however, they have failed to answer it correctly
because most of them only narrated a story of somebody boasting about somebody's wealth/ means
instead of giving specific challenges of somebody who always boasting for other people’s wealthy or
means. E.g. Expectations: They were expected to discuss specific challenges such as: Oupyakadi hau di
mokulinoma ngaashi:
• Outondwe;
• Okulikongela edina/efimano;
• Okuliimba omakwafo;
• Okulitula moupyakadi wokufya ohoni;
• Okehelineekelwa naikwao ihapu.
2 Oonaita yaNamupala (oiyuwo) oya li omukalo muwa wokulongekidila ovanyasha oku ka tunga omaumbo
nokutekula. Ove oto ti ngahelipi? A few candidates opted for this question and most of them answered it
correctly, because they elaborated more on the following:
• Describing what is ooNaita yaNamupala;
• Who are participating in this kind of activities;
• Why it is important for the youth to take part in this activity;
• It prepares them to became responsible adults;
• They will know their responsibilities in households;
• To know culture and their duties in the household;
• To create good relationship in the neighborhoods and communities;
• To know different types of values, customs and norms;
• Okutekulila ounona omufyuululwakalo.
The candidates who misinterpret the topic, they just narrated the celebration of the event, and give incorrect facts
like: Oonaita yaNamupala oudano ohau danaukwa kounona voumati noukadona momiti nopoipale, ile oudano
woyuunda yeengobe.
3 Eedula needula ovanhu ohava talele po eenhele di lili noku lili doifitukuti, va ondole omesho. Osha
pumbiwa ngaho oifitukuti i kale ya idililwa nokukaleka oushitwe? Almost all the candidates opted for
this question and they have attempt to answer it correctly because most of them understood it and gave
correct facts which were well thought off. Following facts were brought forward:
• To conserve the wild animals;
• Visitors/tourists visited the places where the wild animals are placed;
• Wild animals contribute directly or indirectly to the growth of economy in the country;
• Create job opportunities;
• Prevent the conflict between human beings and wild animals;
• Animals are needed to conserve the trees through exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Against: Free movement of human beings and wild animals.

Tourists will still contribute to the growth of the economy.
Job opportunities will always be there. etc.
There are some candidates who misunderstood the topic and wrote about the pets and livestocks.

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4 Ovanhu otava ka dula ngaho okulilandela oihauto konima yeedula omilongo mbali, eshi ya ninga ondilo
monena ngaha.
A few candidates opted for this question and most of them did not answer it well. Expectations:
• Money values will be higher at that time. Ongushu yoimaliwa tai kala i li pombada;
Employees will earn higher salaries / Oilonga opo i li yo ohai futu nawa;
• Will borrow money from the commercial banks/ Omukuli;
• Eengeshefa domalyenge/Chain marketing;
• Okufininikwa konghalo;
• Will afford if budget properly.
Candidates who are against

• Expensive life.
• Scarcity of job opportunities.
• Will opt to buy second hand cars.
• No increment of salaries.
• Will use the old methods of transporting goods. E.g., horses, donkey cars and bicycle etc.
• Commercial will be strictly to those who want borrow money. / Eembanga itadi ka yandja vali omikuli.
5 Oudano wowela ohau pendula omadiladilo omoule ovanyasha nohashi eta va diladile meendelelo
pamuvalu. Ove oto ti ngahelipi? Few candidates who opted for this question misinterpreted it.
• Use reasoning to problem solving;
• Able to create business plan;
• Develops perspective;
• Boosts planning skills;
• Increases intelligence.
NSSCH Examiners Report 2020 8304

• Social and relationship-building skills;
• Improve memories- thinking skills;
• Elevates creativity;
• Deepen focus.
Against: The candidates who do not support Oudano wowela should give the opposite of the above-mentioned
points.
6 Monena ovanhu vahapu ova efa po okulya ombelela moikulya yavo nova hala ashike okulya oikwambidi.
Eshi wa tala ove li mondjila? A few candidates opted for this question and they answered it fairly. Very few
candidates were able to give analytical facts and they able to pinpoint the advantage of eating vegetables
in your meal.
• Eating vegetables every day is important for health;
• Provide vitamins, minerals, nutrients and fibers;
• Lowering risks of cancer, heart disease, gout and diabetes;
• Help to neutralize harmful free radicals.
Against: The candidates who do not support the advantage of eating vegetables in your meal. They were
expected give the following points.
• Reduce hunger;
• Strong bones and muscles;
• Better iron absorption;
• Provide protein in the body.

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1 Teachers should teach candidates how to construct good essays from the instructions, especially the
two-sided question e.g., the topic and the argument made, should correspond.
2 Teachers should encourage candidates to write in third-person and discourage them from using first-and
second-person. e.g. (Ohandi ka, ove ngeenge owa tale etc)
3 Teachers should teach candidates to use correct tenses in their essays, e.g. Ovanyasha ngeenge tava
kufa ombinga mOonaita yaNamupala otava ka kala ...
The syllabus of Higher level did not stipulate the competency of teaching narrative essay; hence candidates
should avoid narrating the essays when they are answering the questions.
4 Teachers should teach candidates to write essays that meet the required length.
5 Teachers should encourage candidates to start every paragraph with a new idea.
6 Teachers should encourage candidates not to start every paragraph with conjunction words such as
ngeenge, ndele, molwaashi, shaashi …etc.

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8304
Paper 3
GENERAL COMMENTS
Most candidates performed better compared to the previous examination (2019). Most candidates totally failed to
answer questions 1, 3 and 6 as expected, however the candidates that answered questions 2, 4, 5 managed to score
better marks. Candidates scored low marks in some questions because they did not understand the questions. Short
questions from the poem were poorly answered compared to the longer question of the second poem. Some candidates
used the correct essay type format; however, some candidates are still struggling with the structure of writing essays.
Some essays were still written without paragraphs, introductions and conclusion. Some essays were too long.
1 (a) This question was answered well by most candidates, even though some failed to give the answer
in full, while few candidates failed to answer this question correctly. Candidates were supposed
to explain how the repetition of the word God “Kalunga” contribute to the meaning of the poem
and motivate their answer with evidence from the poem; instead candidates have just explained the
meaning of the title “Tu kwafa nolulyo lwoye” without motivating their answers with evidence from
the poem. Ovahongwa ova li va teelelwa va fatulule kutya eendululo oshitya Kalunga ola kwafela
ngahelipi omutevi a ude ko okatevo, tava koleke nomikweyovelishe tadi di mokatevo ndele tave di
yelifa. Ngaashi: Eendululo lokudenga omufindo koshitya Kalunga mostrofe keshe otashi udifa ko
omuleshi kutya omutevi ota pula ekwafo kuKalunga shaashi ove li moudjuu wonghalo yoita.
(b) Candidates were asked to explain how the poet shows that he/she was frustrated/deluded in the
poem and support their answers with evidence from the poem; instead most candidates just give the
feelings in general without motivating their answers. Ovahongwa nava tofe mo oiningwanima ivali
oyo tai ulike kutya omushangi okwa li a kenyanana, ta holola mostrofe apa ya dja noku i yelifa nawa.
Oshihopaenenwa ongaashi eshi sha dja mostrofe 2 nosho yo 3 momukweyovelishe 4 no- 1. Va
tinhe po omaliko etu va ye nao, Ohava xwike po omaumbo etu.
(c) Only few candidates managed to answer this question. Most candidates did not get this question
well. Candidates were supposed to identify imaginative/connotative language used in the poem to
display the content/theme/message of the poem and support their answers with references from the
poem and explain how language brought about the message of the poem; instead most candidates
just formulated their own sentences explaining the theme of the poem in details. Ovahongwa okwa
li va teelelwa va tofe mo elaka (mipopyofano) olo tali holola eudonai lomutevi molwonghalo omo ve
lihanga. Ngaashi: Eyelakanifo – ngomapolodi poshipale shoilya, a hala okuholola kutya ovatondi ava
ohava kufa po omaliko avo ndele tave ke a longifa ngoinima yavo vene.
(d) This question was answered well by most of the candidates. Candidates were supposed to explain
how the poet reveals the condition/situation/state of the people narrated in the poem and motivate their
answers with evidence from the poem; instead candidates just gave the general state of the people in
the poem without evidence from the poem. Ovahongwa okwa li va teelelwa va yandje onghalo omo
mwa li ovakwashiwana mokatevo, ndele tava koleke nomikweyovelishe tadi di mokatevo ndele tava
yelifa noitya yavo vene. Ngaashi: Onghalo yoita, eshi ta ti, “Oita i tu li pombada nopedu”. Naikwao
ihapu. Oitwa nai kolekwe nawa.
(e) Most candidates failed to answer this question correctly. Candidates were supposed to clearly state
how the poet reveals the relationship between the author and other people in the poem and motivate
their answers with evidence from the poem by briefly explain how this relationship is presented in the
poem. Ovahongwa okwa li va teelelwa va tofe onghalo oyo ya li pokati komutevi novanhu vamwe
mokatevo, tava koleke nomikweyovelishe tadi di mokatevo, ndele tava yelifa noitya yavo vene.
Ngaashi: Ovanhu ova twalwa oku inava hala, tashi tu hololele kutya opa li pe na oita pokati komutevi
novatondi eshi va kufwa peenhele davo keenghono.
2 This question was answered better by most of the candidates. Candidates were supposed to give the
message of the poem, identify the imaginative/connotative language used that tells the message of the
poem and motivate their answers using their own words; instead they gave their own understanding of the
poem. Ovahongwa okwa li va teelelwa va yandje etumwalaka lavo olo ve wete omutevi a nunhina ovaleshi
la yandjiwa mokatevo “Domupolo” ndele tava tofa mo yo elaka la longifwa komutevi, a ete etumwalaka eli

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pouyelele. Oshihopaenenwa: Oupenda: Etemo laNamene ihali lelwa (enhupeko).
3 This question was answered very well by most of the candidates. Candidates were able to present the
inspirational character traits of Kristine in the story “Olupafu la twa eisho” Ovahongwa okwa li va teelelwa
va yandje oiningwanima oyo tai ulike kutya omunyandi Kristine oku na enwefemo liwa mehokololo ndele
tava yelifa noitya yavo vene, tava kwatakanifa noiningwanima oyo tai ulike enwefemo liwa mehokololo
“Olupafu la twa eisho”. Ngaashi: Omushangi okwa holola oukwatya wokulididimika, omuhombolwa a
kale omulididimiki ngaashi Kristine a lundilwa kuinamweno kutya okwa popya omukifi womunaudu osho
yo a kala noku mu tukila moinamwenyo youmeumbo, ashike okwe lididimikila inamweno.
4 This question was answered by few candidates. Candidates were supposed to identify cultural practices
related to the events in the book “Wanashipolo a ya nomwenyo mofuka”, that displays that Kalambi is a
strong Headed/stubborn/persistent person, briefly explain these events how they linked with the theme of
stubbornness ; instead most candidates just gave the general traits of the character (Wanashipolo) that has
nothing to do with culture/traditional. Ovahongwa okwa li va teelelwa va tumbule oikwamufyuululwakalo
oyo tai ulike ouhamutwemukukutu waKalambi, ndele tava yelifa noitya yavo vene nghee omaukwatya oo
taa ulike ouhamutwemukukutu. Ngaashi: Okulondela oifitukuti, Kalambi a hangika keenghambakani a
londela oifitukuti ndele tadi mu pe omalombwelo ngaashi, ombelela inai pwa po ine i lya, ye ina hokolola
osho a mona. Molwouhamutwemukukutu waKalambi, ombelela oye lipwila po ine i makela, eshi a mona
kofifiya okwe ke shi hadauka koshiufanene shokooShefi.
5 This question was answered by most candidates. Candidates were supposed to show how the author of
the book “Omapumhumhu taa yolele oulipamwe” uses the character and behaviors of Lusia in the story to
promote hatred toward her traits, briefly explain how it influenced the readers by using evidence from the
book; instead some candidates just give the characteristics of Lusia without explaining how it influenced
the readers to hate Lusia. Ovahongwa okwa li va teelelwa va holole omaukwatya nomaliumbato aLusia,
a longifwa komushangi opo a hongaife ovaleshi ve mu tonde ndele tava fatulula kutya otaa hongaifa
ngahelipi ovaleshi. Ngaashi: Okunyamukula nai omushamane waye, Lusia a hauluka eumbo laye,
oushondolo, oumbudi, okweenda ovanhu koshi. Omuhongwa mokunyamukula kwaye na tofe ndele ta
koleke ye na holole omaliudo aye.
6 This question was answered poorly by most candidates. Candidates were supposed to show how the
author portrays changes in Malakia’s characteristics and behaviors in the book “Mushakati waNelao”
and briefly explain these changes using evidence from the book; instead most candidates just give the
characteristics of Malakia without indicating the changes that it portrays. Ovahongwa ova li va teelelwa
va yandje oiningwanima oyo tai ulike elunduluko longhalo moukwatya nomomaliumbato aMushakati ndele
tava yelifa nokuyandja oihopaenenwa tai di mokambo. Ngaashi: Omuputuki – a dja koufitangobe ndele
ta ka konga oilonga, Omunafaalama, a dja mokulonga meefaalama ndele ta shuna mofikola.
POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO THE TEACHERS:
The following elements should be taught at school:

• Teachers should teach candidates how to read and understand the question prior to answering, by analysing the
key words/main words in the question.
• Teachers should teach candidates the content of the prescribed books by making candidates analyse the book
during the lesson (individual/in groups).
• Teachers should teach candidates figurative language such as: Omayeletumbulo, Omipopyofano,
Oipopiwamayele nosho tuu.
Let’s us use this opportunity to thank all the teachers. We wish you all the best in teaching a Namibian child!

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8304
Paper 4
General Comments
It was observed that most centres have improved in conducting the oral assessments. Most examiners had conducted
oral as it was required. Accurate assessment was done by most examiners. The majority of candidates performed
well. At least all examination centres had managed to submit oral materials, such as the Checklist, Oral Assessment
Summary Forms (OASF), completed MS1 and CDs. This made the process of moderation so much easier. Thank you
for the job well done.

Quality of recordings
Most of the centres had submitted very clear recordings without disturbances. There were also a few centres that had
submitted blank discs.
Range of samples
A good range of samples were submitted by most centres. A few centres with more than ten candidates had submitted
only five, therefore these centres had failed to cover all range of abilities. In addition to that, a few centres with less than
ten candidates had failed to submit all candidates.
Examination techniques and assessment
The warm-up sessions were good at most centres, but some were still not related to educational matters. Questions that
invite personal responses such as family life or neighbourhood. should be avoided as they are likely to embarrass the
candidates and hinder them to express themselves. Oshihopaenenwa: Omapulo a pamba oinima tai shikula: Omukifi
wo-Corona, omadipaafano/omalidipao noiponga yoihauto, oipambele yeehombo, oikwangeleka osho yo okuponokela
omukonakonwa kondadalunde (ngaashi “Owu udite ngahelipi eshi wa tewatewa momuhandjo wofikola?”
Most examiners were able to conduct the interview with confidence. The questions put forward to the candidates were
well prepared and stimulating.
Most of the centres managed to assess candidates on two texts. However, a few examiners assessed only one text
book from one genre (Drama or Prose) and some of them failed to carry on a conversation with the candidates.
POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

The examiners are advised to listen to the CDs before submitting them for external moderation to avoid empty/
unrecorded CDs. CDs should be tested in a CD player or in a different computer.
Internal moderation should be done at the centres to avoid the following: Calculation or transfer mistakes and unshaded
lozenges. The range of samples should be selected, including all levels, for example 3 good, 4 average and 3 weak.
The candidates with the highest and lowest scores should also be recorded.
A centre with only 10 or less candidates, should record all candidates.
A centre with only one examiner with more than 10 candidates, should submit 10 recorded interviews.
If there is more than one examiner per centre, then there should be five recorded interviews per examiner as indicated
at the back of the Oral Assessment Summary Form (OASF).
All centres are advised to submit a sample covering a range level of abilities which includes the highest and the lowest.
For example 3 good, 4 middling and 3 lowest candidates.
Higher Level candidates should be tested on two texts from one genre (Circular: DNEA- 46/2013) Oshihopaenenwa:
Ngaashi epulo olo le lilongekidilwa komuhongwa moumbo vavali veshe limwe (Eedrama ile Eeprosa). Omukonakoni ta
pwilikine omukonakonwa eshi ta nyamukula moumbo vaye ve li vavali omo omukonakoni ta pula oelemente te i dalifa
momanyamukulo omukonakonwa. Konima omukonakonwa a nyamukula oelemente yaye oyo a pulwa ota teelelwa a
ye komesho nepulo laye. Osho tava ende nokuninga ngaha fiyo eenghundafana davo da fika pexulilo.
Examiners should try to familiarise themselves with and understand the use of the oral assessment grid in order to
allocate marks properly.
Omukonakoni keshe ota tuwa omukumo a leshe omufindahongo moshitukulwa shekonakono lopakanya, manga ina
hovela okukonakona ovahongwa vaye. Pofikola ngeenge ove li po ve dulife puumwe nave u kundafane pamwe.
It is advisable to check if all Oral Assessment materials have been submitted.

Internal moderation should be done at the centres to avoid addition- and transfer mistakes.

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FIRST LANGUAGE OSHINDONGA
8305
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
This question paper consists of three questions. These questions were fairly answered, since the majority of candidates
have slightly improved on how the question should be answered. Most candidates had coped with the examination
standard in terms of improved analysing and creative skills. Therefore, candidate’s overall performance was satisfactory.
Although the questions were easy for candidates with good language proficiency, it proved to be difficult for candidates
with poor language proficiency. Clear evidence of preparation of examination techniques at some centres was observed.
However, some candidates lost marks as a result of inaccurate phonetic attempts.
Figurative language was applied incorrectly which resulted in meaningless content. The examination comprises of the
following components:
Content and structure of the candidate’s answers

The content and structure of the candidates’ answers in terms of the required standard was average. Some candidates
did not adhere to the required length and some copied the texts exactly as they are. Most student’s thinking capacity
is below higher level standard.
Style and Language usage
Language usage for some candidate is worrisome. Therefore spelling, punctuation and sentence structure errors were
observed. Some candidates could not spell the following words correctly:
odholongo instead of ondholongo
eeshungi instead of oohungi
oyana yeni instead of aanona yeni
potsa instead of popya
estokumwe instead of etsokumwe
uupwakadhi intead of uupyakadhi
iilongo instead of iilonga
Furthermore, it is observed that some candidates are using some words from other Oshiwambo dialects instead of
Oshindonga words. (Aakonakonwa yamwe oya longitha iitya yimwe okuza moonyapilaka dhOshiwambo, peha
lyokulongitha iitya yOshindonga). Figurative language was wrongly applied e.g. ‘E ku lombwele ke shi gwoye’, instead
of: ‘Kee ku lombwele ke shi gwoye’ and Kanzi ilitha kakombo igalula, instead of kakombo ilitha kanzi igalula.
Question 1
This question consisted of two texts about the way children are nurtured by parents from two different set up. (in the
village and town) (Uuteku wongashingeyi nEsimano lyoonkuluhedhi). Candidates were expected to give the differences
between the two texts on the way children are raised by parents from two different settings.
Most candidates scored average marks, because they lacked knowledge and understanding of giving contrasting
information that are found in the two text. (Aalongwa oyendji oya mona iitsa yopokati oshoka kaye na ontseyo neuvoko
lyokugandja omayooloko muuleshwa mbuka uyali. Candidates were supposed to present clear and matching difference
from both texts).
Although some candidates answered this question fairly. Some candidates did not provide the contrasting information
from the texts, instead, they summarised each texts separately. Some gave similarities, while some others wrote in
prose form.

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Candidates suppose to give some of the following points
• Elongelokumwe muuteku;
• Iikulya yokoskola;
• Okuya koskola;
• Iilonga yomegumbo yaamati/ aakadhona konima yoskola;
• Ohungi momagumbo;
• Iilonga yaalonga yoskola;
• Elongitho lyoongodhi dhopeke;
• Oku ka tala iilonga yaalongwa koskola;
• Ethimbo lyokulya;
• Elongekidho lyiikulya.
Oshiholelwa
Iilonga yaamati konima yoskola
Mondoolopa aamati ngele ya zimbuka koskola oto adha ya thikama momapandaanda taa hili omakaya nokunwa
iingangamithi, omanga komukunda aamati ngele ya zimbuka koskola oye na oshinakugwanithwa ya piithe mo iimuna
ya ka lithe noku yi fala komeya nokutala enkolo ngele oli na mpa lya panuka.
Question 2
This question was poorly answered. This question required candidates to imagine themselves as a principal of his/her
school and write a letter to the parents in which she/he advises them on how they should raise their children, based on
what she/he has observed at school in terms of learners behaviours.
Aalongwa oya li ya tegelelwa ya nyolele aavali ontumwafo opo ye ya nkunkilile noku ya pa omayele omawanawa nkene
ye na okutekula uunona wawo shi ikwatelela komaihumbato gaanaskola. Candidates suppose to relate their ideas
to the text, instead most of them gave general advice which resulted in most of them getting low marks.
Candidates suppose to include some of the following points:

• Uukolwe nelongitho lyiingangamithi / alcohol and drugs use;
• Uumbudhi / theft;
• Elongitho lyoongodhi moskola/ use of cell phones;
• Odhino / disobidience;
• Okuhagwanithapo iithigilwalonga / incomplete school work.
ADVICE
• Parents should not give too much money to the children because they might use it to buy alcohol and drugs;
• Parents must discourage children from going with cell phone to school;
• Parents should teach their children to have respect and desist from stealing;
• Parents should encourage children to complete their school work on time.
Question 3
Candidates were expected to write an article to the newspaper of their choice to express their dissatisfaction about
corruption in Namibia. Candidates should include the failed mitigations as well as suggestions to contain/stop corruption.
(Alongwa oya li ya tegelelwa ya nyolele article kushimwe shomiifokundaneki moshilongo ya holole euvonayi lyawo
kombinga yokulunga nokwiitapula. Omulongwa na holole oonkambadhala dha ningilwe ye na gandje omathaneko
kwaashono a dhiladhila shi ningwe po, opo okulunga nokwiitapula ku hulithwe po.)
This question was answered poorly. Most candidates did not give failed mitigations and they did not also suggest new
ideas to stop corruption in the country. Instead, they only copied the prompts as they are in the question which led them
to lose marks. Candidates were supposed to include some of the following points
Oonkambadhala / mitigations
• Okangundu koACC/ Anti- Corruption Commission (ACC);
• Ehololomadhiladhilo/ Demonstration;
• Oonakudhengela ondhi peho naya kuthwe miilonga / anyone who is found to be corrupt, must be dismissed from
work.

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Omathaneko / suggestions to contain/stop corruption
• Aaleli naa kale aanashili/aainekelwa / leaders should be trustworthy;
• Ngu ta monika ondjo na ye mondholongo / the guilty one should be sent to prison;
• Nakudhengela ondhi peho nakuthwe miilonga thiluthilu / anyone who is found to be corrupt must be dismissed
from work permanently.
Some candidates mixed Oshindonga words with those of European languages such as:
Change - shendja
Friends - eefelende
Family - eefamili
Maar - maala
Nog - noho
Weekends - eewekenda
This is not allowed. Candidates should use the correct orthograph.
All language skills outlined in the syllabus should be covered effectively. In addition, teachers should distribute the
syllabi to the candidates. Candidates must be trained on examination technique aspects. Teachers should prepare
candidates regarding concepts like paragraphing, punctuation, orthography and use figurative language effectively. It
is of utmost importance for all schools to promote reading culture amongst candidates. In conclusion, teachers should
discourage code mixing amongst candidates, because it makes them lose marks.

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8305
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the paper is almost similar to that of 2019. In terms of performance, candidates struggled to fully
understand the argumentative questions in which they were expected to address the two sides, in some cases they did
not go or opt for one side.
1 Aantu yamwe monena oye hole unene okwiinomena omaliko kaaye ga na. Sho wa tala oye li tuu mondjila?
Close to 25% of candidates opted for this question. However, most of them misinterpreted / misunderstood it.
Whereby they either discussed/described individuals who boast about their parents’ wealth without stating why
they think it is not right or vice verse.
Possible correct answers supposed to be

Not right / against
• Bringing enemies closer e.g. thieves and robbers;
• Creating high expectations within people and later disappoint them;
• Preventing people from helping you since they believe you have everything;
• One day the boaster will be ashamed once his/her follow discover the true colour;
• Finally people will not trust him/her.
Right / for against

• One will be respected e.g. sit among the most important people at various events (though this can be for a
short period of time);
• Making a lot of friends especially the rich ones thinking that they are at the same category;
• Becoming very popular.
2 Ooniita yaNamupala (iiyugo) oya li omukalo omwaanawa okulongekidhila aagundjuka oku ka tunga
omagumbo nokutekula. Ngoye oto ti ngiini kushika?
Majority of learners who opted for answer this question misinterpreted the statement or have little / no right
information about iiyugo. Very little individuals could shed out the correct description of this activity and reason
on how helpful it is in preparing youths for the near future.
Instead of giving the following expected answers:

• Being good parents as they play the role of fathers and mothers with their own children in their houses;
• Learn various roles one plays as a mother or a father in a house;
• Being kind and tolerant to one another and so on.
• They described what (children and not youth) use to do while herding or during their free time under the trees
making temporally houses from wet sand/mud.
3 Oomvula noomvula aantu ohaya talele po omahala gi ili nogi ili giiyamakuti ya ondodhe omeho. Osha
pumbiwa ngaa iiyamakuti yi kale ye edhililwa nokukaleka po uunshitwe?
Above 60% of learners who opted for this question and most of them answered it correctly, because they elaborated
on these expectations:
For
• Creating job opportunity to local people, who can be recruited as cooks, cleaners or security guards.
• Community members generate income by selling local products or cultural items to tourists.
• The country earn foreign currency when tourists from other countries visit various countries.
• Reduction of unemployment rate in the country since some people can be recruited as tourist guiders.
• Reserve various animals and plant species for future generation and prevent them from getting extinct
(disappearing).

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Against
• Local people need food for free through hunting without restrictions;
• Let them stay in their natural habitat as God has created them;
• Poor people cannot afford to see them since they cannot pay the fees payable for entry;
• Let the people get used to seeing wild animals without hurting them since they can see them every time and
educate them about different ways to sustain them.
4 Aantu otaa ka vula ngaa okwiilandela iihauto konima yoomvula omilongo mbali sho ya ninga ondilo
monena ngeyi?
Majority of learners opted for this question in comparison to other questions. Those who opted for it poorly
answered, since they could not provide convincing reasons for why they were for or against.
For
• Establishment of small businesses to generate extra income;
• Will afford if budget properly;
• Bank loans
Against
• Countries economy is getting worse every time;
• Unemployment rate is increasing every day;
• Prices of vehicles are increasing so rapidly nowadays.
5 Uudhano wUuholo ohawu pendula omadhiladhilo gomuule gaagundjuka nohashi eta ya dhiladhile
meendelelo pamwalu. Ngoye oto ti ngiini?
This question was answered poorly by majority of learners who opted for it.
For
• Becoming a faster thinker;
• Ways of problem solving;
• Being co-operative;
• Being initiative by finding ways of multiplying your economy.
Against
• Hatred;
• Time wasting;
• Disagreements which can resulting fights;
• Laziness;
• Promoting theft.
Most candidates could not support their side cognitively but rather gave baseless points.
6 Monena aantu oyendji oya etha po okulya onyama miikulya yawo noya hala ashike okulya iikwamboga.
Sho wa tala oye li ngaa mondjila?
Majority of learners who opted for this question have answered it fairly.
For
• Rich in many nutrients;
• Quite important to pregnant women and unborn babies;
• Quite cheap and can be available for free locally especially during the rain season;
• Works as an immune booster.
Against
• The candidate is expected to encourage people to eat meat and not vegetable.

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• Teachers should encourage learners to construct their own topic from the instruction given and not to copy the
statement as it is.
• Teachers should encourage learners and teach them how to provide convincing reasons in terms of argumentative
essays for them to obtain good marks.
• Poor sentence constructions and paragraphing was observed during the marking session. Therefore, teachers are
advised to train learners on the best ways of writing good essays.
• The use of punctuations also need serious attention. Some learners are starting sentences with small letters (some
are using caps at the beginning of every word), some sentences can be as long as a paragraph.
• Learners should also be encouraged to use the third person always when writing essays.

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8305
Paper 3
GENERAL COMMENTS
Most candidates answered all questions, however, only some questions were answered satisfactorily. Candidates
scored low marks in some questions because they did not understand those questions. Short questions from the poem
were poorly answered compared to the longer questions of the second poem. Some candidates used the correct
essay type format; however, some essays were not written as required because they do not have the introduction, body
paragraphs and conclusion.
Some essays were too long. Some candidates simply listed facts without clarification and there is no evidence from the
literary book, e.g. Pandu a hoyitha mo epunda, Kanditengela okwa ningi keho nokokana.
Section A: Uutewo
1 Etumo lyAasoomi
(a) This question was answered correctly by many candidates, while few candidates failed to answer this
question correctly. Candidates were asked to explain what the poet is portraying with the use of the
phrase “molwawo mwa ninga oshigwana” by giving two points. However, many candidates managed
to answer this question correctly. Few failed to give correct answers, because instead of explaining
the meaning of the phrase used by the poet, they just copied verses straight from the poem without
giving clear explanation.
Aalongwa oya li ya tegelelwa ya gandje iitsa iyali mbyono tayi yelitha kutya omuteyi okwa li ta dhiladhila
shike sho ta ti, “molwawo mwa ninga oshigwana”. Oshiholelwa ngaashi ta ti: Aawambo oya tseya okulesha
nokunyola molwEtumo lyevangeli/molwAasoomi, okuza mooskola ya tungilwa.
(b) This question was about the victory in the work of Finish missionaries (Etumo lyAasoomi). Most
candidates answered this question well, but a few candidates failed to identify the effect of Etumo
lyAasoomi in their work, they only copied the content of the poem. For example, candidates identified
mercifulness God scriptures towards Aawambo, instead of identifying the effectiveness of Etumo
lyAasoomi. They ended up using the wrong verse in the poem. Aalongwa oya li ya tegelelwa ya gandje
iiholelwa ine yiitsa ya longithwa komuteyi opo a holole uupondoli wEtumo miilonga yalyo. Oshiholelwa:
Aasoomi oya tunga oongerki, shoka sha holoka mostrofe ontihetatu (8) momukweyovelise omutiyali (2).
(c) This question required candidates to identify how the poet used language to make the readers to
express happiness about this poem. They had to support their answers with references from the
poem. Very few candidates answered this question well, but most of the candidates misunderstood
it. They focused on the language usage e.g. “the poet used capital letters at the beginning of every
verse; the poet also used a full stop at the end of every stanza”.
Candidates were expected to answer as follows:
• Identify the verse that represents language usage (figurative speech);
• Clarify how such figurative speech made the reader to express his or her happiness about the poem.
Aalongwa oya li ya tegelelwa ya yamukule ngaashi tashi landula:
(i) Ine endela iipindi, ine ya ta shingitha; (1)
(ii) Elaka lyevangeli lye tu pendula tse Aawambo, lye tu kutha moomposi; (1)
(iii) Okwe ya e n’ oshipeko shoohapu dhaKalunga; (1)
(iv) Omanongelo twa dhikilwa (1)

[Omulongwa na tothe mo elaka, te li yelitha, ihe nali kale tali etele omuleshi omaiyuvo genyanyu]
(d) The question required candidates to clearly state how the poet used language and style to influence
readers to be interested in Etumo lyAasoomi. This was not answered well by the majority of the
candidates because they were not able to identify the figurative speech from the poem and failed to
clearly explain them as to why those figurative speech made the reader to be interested in the Etumo
lyAasoomi. Candidates were supposed to give the following answers:

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Oshiholelwa: - Osoomi oyo oshilongo, shi n’uushitwe wo opala/ ostrofe onti-2-3, Ano omuteyi ota holola kutya
Aasoomi oya thiga po oshilongo shawo oshiwanawa nuuyamba washo, opo ye ete evaangeli
kAawambo.
- Ya za mo ye n’oondjato, Dhomishangwa dhaKalunga. (1)
- Ine endeluushimba, ine ya kAaherero. (1)
- Ine endeliipindi; ine ya ta shingitha. (1)
[Omulongwa na holole nkene omuteyi a hinga okatewo, opo a nwethe mo omuleshi a pande
Etumo lyaasoomi.]
(e) This question was about which descriptions do they find more effective in this poem. This question
was not well answered because candidates failed to understand the question. Candidates were
expected to answer as follows:
Aalongwa oya li ya tegelelwa ya yelithe nkene omuteyi a longitha iitongononi mokatewo.
Oshiholelwa: - Tadhi hupitha oomwenyo, dhaambo ye dhi itaala; (1)
- Molwawo mwa ning’oshigwana, tashi longele Kalunga (1)
- Elaka etoye lyevangeli, olye tu pendula tse Aawambo (1)
[Omulongwa okwa tegelelwa a tothe mo iitongononi mokatewo, e te yi yelitha mekwatathano
netumwalaka lyokatewo.]
2 Eindilo lyomunangeshefa egoya

This was an essay-type question and candidates were expected to discuss how the poet used figurative language
to convey the message of the poem to the readers. These figurative languages should be linked to the message
of the poem “Eindilo lyomunangeshefa egoya”. The majority of candidates failed to correctly identify the figurative
language in the poem in connection with the message of the poem.
Aalongwa oya li ya tegeelelwa ya yelithe nokugandja elaka lya longithwa komuteyi, opo a gandje etumwalaka
okuza moshikalimo shokatewo. Moreover, majority of the candidates just summarised the content of the poem in
general instead of identifying the figurative language used and link them to the message of the poem.
This question was supposed to be answered as follows:
(i) Okwaainenepeka: Konofu mpeya ndi tunge omaalaka yomala ga londathana / Moombanga
adhihe mbaangela (einenepeko);
(ii) Okwaahalelathana uuwinayi: Pamifudho ya thuwithwe (enengeneko);
(iii) Okwaaiholamwene: Pwamwe no ningwa u pangele muuyuni mbu waa shi uuhupi (epingathano);
(iv) Eliko itali hupitha omuntu: Longa u ka pe mo Humbeyane. (oshilukadhina);
(v) Onkalo yokevi kayi shi yaaluhe: Enangeshefa uuzilo lye wu p’ omakondo (oshipopiwamayele);
(vi) Einenepeko otali fala moheli: Komalaka gomulilo a lathagulwa (entuupeko);
Section B: oprosa
3 Filemon Elifas ku Hans Daniel Namuhuja

Candidates were asked to discuss whether the author present the main character as an attractive or unattractive
character in the novel.
Very few candidates attempted this question and performed fairly. Instead of highlighting the work that made
Filemon Elifas to be attractive or unattractive, candidates just stated the general feelings toward Filemon Elifas as
mentioned in the book. Candidates were expected to answer as follows:
Omulongwa okwa tegelelwa a gandje nenge a holole kutya omolwashike ta ti Filemon Elifas okwa li a pandika
nenge ina pandika mehokololo.
Ina pandika
• Aakwashigwana ya li yu uvitile Shuumbwa nayi sho a yi nokafuko komatelekela.
• Shuumbwa sho a kandoma noshihauto, omutiligane gumwe okwa ti, ando okwa landulile Uushona Shiimi.
• Shuumbwa a dhipagwa kuwalye sho a li ta zi koshituthi kaandjaNambahu.

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A pandika
• Shuumbwa a langekwa, opo a ninge omukwaniilwa gwaNdonga.
• Shuumbwa i ithanwa komatelekela kaandjaNambahu.
• Shuumbwa a langekwa kAatiligane, oshoka oye wete kutya otaya ka longela kumwe.
[Omulongwa na popile ashike ombinga yimwe]
4 Yokomutunda ya theta kuHelena Kangalange

This question required candidates to discuss how the author of the book Yokomutunda ya theta effectively
conveyed the moral messages in the novel to the readers. This question was well answered by most candidates
as they were able to write an essay and support their answers with references from the prose. However, a few
candidates discussed more than one character, i.e Tashiya and Taati instead of discussing only the main character.
Candidates were expected to answer as outlined below.
• Okupopya oshili opo u kwathelwe. Tashiya a holola oshili yaashono tashi shunitha eilongo lye pevi, sho a
pulwa kuJeff Putukeni yaShigwedha;
• Okugalikanena aavali yetu uuna ye li momapuko. Hol. Yina yaTashiya okwa li a kolwa ndele te mu
galikanene;
• Tashiya ta tekula Lihongeni;
• Tashiya a etha po uukuume wawo naKamory.
[Omulongwa okwa tegelelwa a gandje yimwe yomwaambika, ye te yi kalele po.]
Section C: OODRAMA
5 Okanona mondhikwa yemwanka kuAngula T Ndjembo

This question expected candidates to discuss how the author of the drama Okanona mondhikwa yemwanka
described the foolishness of Pandu yaMuhongi in the book. Candidates were expected to state and described the
events that indicate the foolishness of Pandu. For example, Pandu sho a hoyo mo epunda e te li ekele komututu
gwokandjugo. Majority of candidates answered this question very well, however, few candidates were describing
events in general without considering untruthful of Pandu as indicated in the book.
Oshiholelwa: - Pandu a ya na Nekwaya kOshomeya ina tseyithila aavali;

- Pandu hi iyaka moskola ta yi kuNekwaya;
- Pandu i itaale a hekwe kookuume ke a kuthe mo epunda;
- Pandu a tindi omakumagidho gaPena kombinga yaNekwaya;
[Omulongwa okwa tegelelwa a gandje iiningwanima ya hololwa mokambo tayi holola uudhudhu
waPandu. Iiningwanima nayi tothwe mo mokambo, e tayi kolekwa.]
6 Keho nokokana kuAngula T Ndjembo

This question required candidates to discuss how the author clarified clearly the massage of the book Keho
nokokana. Most candidates attempted to answer this question. However, some candidates failed to outline the
message. Candidates were expected to answer as follows:
- Aantu ya konakone nokupulidha omaukwatya, omanga inaya ninga omatokolo;
- Okutaamba/ okupulakena omakumagidho gooyakwetu;
- Okupula omayele kaakuluntu.
[Omulongwa okwa tegelelwa a yelithe nkene a etelwa puuyelele etumwalaka lyehokololo Keho nokokana]
POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO THE TEACHERS

Candidates should be encouraged to read the questions carefully and try to understand what is expected of them by
identifying the key words.
Teachers should teach candidates the use of figurative speech in context. Coach them to differentiate between
figurative speech and punctuation.
Candidates should be taught about different types of feelings so that they are able to identify them and be able to link
them to the corresponding verses in the poem.
Teachers should teach candidates how to answer the essay-type questions according to the marking grid. They
should also provide candidates with the marking grid, which should be explained to them thoroughly.
Teachers should encourage candidates to avoid using offensive and sensitive words in their essays. They rather use
euphemisms instead.
Teachers should motivate candidates to read the novels prescribed for a specific year.
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8305
Paper 4
GENERAL COMMENTS
It was observed that most centres have improved in conducting the oral assessments. Most examiners had conducted
oral as it was required. Accurate assessment was done by most examiners. The majority of candidates performed
well. At least all examination centres had managed to submit oral materials, such as the Checklist, Oral Assessment
Summary Forms (OASF), completed MS1 and CDs. This made the process of moderation so much easier. Thank you
for the job well done.
Quality of recordings
Most of the centres had submitted very clear recordings without disturbances. There were also a few centres that had
submitted blank discs.
Range of samples
A good range of samples were submitted by most centres. A few centres with more than ten candidates had submitted
only five, therefore these centres had failed to cover all range of abilities. In addition to that, a few centres with less than
ten candidates had failed to submit all candidates.
Examination techniques and assessment

The warm-up sessions were good at most centres, but some were still not related to educational matters. Questions
that invite personal responses such as family life or neighbourhood, should be avoided as they are likely to embarrass
the candidates and hinder them to express themselves. Oshiholelwa: Omapulo ga pamba iinima tayi landula:
Omukithi gwoCorona, omadhipagathano/omaidhipago niiponga yiihauto, iipambele yoondjokana, iikwangeleka osho
wo okuponokela omukonakonwa kondadalunde (ngaashi “Ou uvite ngiini sho wa tidhwa momuhandjo gwosikola?”
Most examiners were able to conduct the interview with confidence. The questions put forward to the candidates were
well prepared and stimulating.
Most of the centres managed to assess candidates on two texts. However, few examiners assessed only one text book
from one genre (Drama or Prose) and some of them failed to carry on a conversation with the candidates.
POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

The examiners are advised to listen to the CDs before submitting them for external moderation to avoid sending empty/
unrecorded CDs. CDs should be tested in a CD player or in another different computer.
Internal moderation should be done at the centres to avoid the following: Calculation or transfer mistakes and unshaded
lozenges. The range of samples should be selected, including all levels, for example 3 good, 4 average and 3 weak.
The candidates with the highest and lowest scores should also be recorded.
A centre with only 10 or less candidates, should record all candidates.
A centre with only one examiner with more than 10 candidates, should submit 10 recorded interviews.
If there is more than one examiner per centre, then there should be five recorded interviews per examiner as indicated
at the back of the Oral Assessment Summary Form (OASF).
All centres are advised to submit a sample covering a range level of abilities which includes the highest and the lowest.
For example 3 good, 4 middling and 3 lowest candidates.
Higher Level candidates should be tested on two texts from one genre (Circular: DNEA- 46/2013) Oshiholelwa: Ngaashi
epulo ndyo li ilongekidhilwa komulongwa muumbo uyali woludhi lumwe (Oodrama nenge Ooprosa). Omukonakoni ta
pulakenene omukonakonwa sho ta yamukula muumbo we u li uyali moka omukonakoni ta pula ooelemente te yi valitha
momayakulo gomukonakonwa. Konima omukonakonwa a yamukula oelemente ye ndjo a pulwa, ota tegelelwa a ye
komeho nepulo lye. Osho taya ende nokuninga ngaaka sigo oonkundathana dhawo dhe ya pehulilo.
Examiners should try to familiarise themselves with and understand the use of the oral assessment grid in order to
Omukonakoni kehe ota tsuwa omukumo a leshe omusindalongo moshitopolwa shekonakono lyopakana, manga ina
hovela okukonakona aalongwa ye. Posikola ngele oye li po ye vule pu gumwe, naye gu kundathane pamwe.
It is advisable to check if all Oral Assessment materials have been submitted.
Internal moderation should be done at the centres to avoid addition- and transfer mistakes.

148
FIRST LANGUAGE RUKWANGALI
8306
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
The question paper was poorly answered compared to the previous year. Most candidates did not know how to write an
article. The instructions on the front page of the examinations answer books already require candidates to start every
question on a new page. Numerous candidates did not leave a space for an examiner to write marks or comments.
Some candidates left the last question because of time. There have been no improvement on points listed in the 2019
examiners' report.
Common mistakes:
- Kutyira - kutjira
- Hwililira - hulilira
- Lyelyi - lyeli
- Owu - ou
- Nalyolyina - nalyolina
- Kufafasa - kuhafesa
- Rungana - rugana
- Ohu - ou
- Kufura - kuvhura
- Yihepya - yihepwa
- Kapic - kapisi
- Vhuka - vyuka
- Vanetu - vanavetu
- Rereso - ndereso
- Zinwawo - zinyawo
- Mukurona sure - mukuronasure
- Nkenyeyi - nkenye eyi
- Enye - nye
- Nalyolina - nalyo lina
- Mazuvha - mazuva
- Nse - nsene
- Mara - morwa
- Nsakoposa - nsako zoposa
- Woowu - wou
- Nayimwesi - nayimwe si
- Hararasi - harara si
- Ngura-ngura - ngurangura
- Nge - ngwendi
- Nondja - nondya
- Yimaliwa - yimaliva
- Ntanintani - ntaantani
- Ekonomi- yikwaeparu
- Kansela - mukuronagendesi mukundahorowero
- Kutanteka - kusanseka
- Nkenyeyi - nkenye eyi
- Nelizuvo - nelizuvho
- Mukurona sure - mukuronasure
- Kusimitira - kusimwitira
- Kuntekaasi - kutanta asi
- Nepange - nepangwe
- Kuravagwiramo - kuravangwidamo
- Saura - swaura

149
1 (a) You have read the two passages 1-2 to summarize the differences of how the modern way to rise a
child and the importance of sticking to culture. Most of the candidates did well in this question, they
were able to write the differences. Few of them summarized it without based on the way they care
about the children. Some candidates wrote prose summary.
There is some concern still to be addressed in this question. Most candidates select the correct
answers, but answers were not supported with factual points. It is not enough to say passage 1 was
about modern cares for a kid and passage 2 was about culture. Candidates should use the key words
in the question to relate their answers with it, and that is the supporting points from the two passages.
It does not matter whether the question is to differentiate/contrast or to compare, the answer should
be in narrative form. Some candidates copied from the two passages without connecting the ideas or
sometimes using unrelated points.
Malimbururo gamwe gomalisigo gaga gana ku kwama ko:
Sireswa 1 Sireswa 2
1. Elizuvho neruganeno Vakurona kuza kosure va ka Sitambo sokuronga vanona
kumwe vyukilire varongi, kuretesa ngava sirugana vanamukunda
maukaro gomadona. navenye.
2. Yirugana ya tumbukira Kukoka makanya nokukoka Ku ka lisa nongombe
vamati pokupwaga kosure epangwe nokuwapekanongumbu nsene
dina zonauka/panuka.
3. Sinyanga Ku tara TV malikwamo ga ko Vakurona kukara novena
pwa hana ekeverero vawo posinyanga konyima
lyovakurona. zonomurarero va va ronge
kulimburukwa.
Omu ngano yimona vhura murongwa kutjanga malimbururo gendi gomalisigo aga vana hara natjanga.
(b) You are the principal to one of the public school. You have seen many different ways of how certain
parent/ guardian cares about their kids at your school. Write an official letter to the parents/ guardians
to address them with your ideas on how to take care of a child.
Few candidates answer this question correctly. These few candidates were able to quote, comment
and give their own opinions and they didn’t experience any problem of writing a formal letter. Many
candidates misunderstood the question simply, because a letter was directed to parents/ guardians
than most of them thought maybe the letter was informal. Most candidates wrote an informal letter
instead of a formal letter.
Malimbururo gendi mu kare eyi:
2. Mbapira zopaveta
Murongwa kuna kumundindira a tjange mbapira zopaveta.
Ngomukuronasure kuna kumundindira a tjange mbapira kovareti novareli a gave magano omu nava
vhura kurera vana vawo.
Yikaramonomutungo
• Mbarekeso - vakurona vekuto
• Etwaromo - murongwa a tumbure sitambo esi ana kutjangera ozo mbilive.
• Murongwa montjimantjima zendi a ture mo eyi:
Masivano
• Vakurona ku gava yimaliwa yoyinzi kovarongwa.
• Vanona kapisi va wize nonofunguna dokomawoko kosure.
• Yimaliwa kuvhura ku dipaga meho zendi.
• Kapi tava rugana nelituromo, morwa nkenye eyi ana hara kuyigwana.
Magano/masivano
• Vanona kuva pa yimaliwa, nsene hepero.
• Kapisi kuva ronga va hare yimaliwa pomapupi gounona.
150
• Vana hepa kuvakorangeda valironge unene yipo vaka kare vantu vana fumadeke komeho.
• Muna hepa kuva pa nokonda asi morwasinke nomudilira kuvapa yimaliwa nkenye apa, ntani
kuvatantera asi mulyo unene asi kapisi nkenye yimwe kuyigwana kovakurona.
Ehageso: murongwa a likide asi ana ya siki kehagero zeyi ana tjanga.
(magano gomurongwa kugatarurura)
3 This question was about a student at a certain university to write an article to a certain newspaper whereby
a writer is expected to air the concern about unfair practice and what procedures to be follow in order to
stop it. Few candidates did well in this question. Most of them wrote a report instead of an article and a
few of them didn’t finish due to time.
NOMENA: sitjangwa (article) aso kukara ko ketameko siparatjangwa monondanda dononene, ano nsene
dononunu kutendako. Ku kwame nye etwaromo, ntjimantjima ntani ehageso oku naku ka kara edina
lyomugavimbudi ntani mazuva, ndi ruha oro runa tjanga oso sitjangwa.
Sihonena: mugavimbudi hausiku ndi vagavirunyengenyo: vanasure

15.12.20. 15.12.20
Yimwe yokuvhura ku kwama apa nolimburura sitjangwa:

• kudivisa muresi kuhamena udigu una kara momukunda gwawo. Kuvhura a hagese etwaromo lyendi
nepuro lyo rotolika.
• ntjimantjima muna hepa kuhamesera mo eyi yina kukwamako: sopomuhowo eeruganeso mepuko
yiweka yonokampani dopaumwene neyi yepangero. Notendeli neyirugana kuyigava kovaholi
novanekoro. Notendeli depangero kudi tura ndiro yipo di wapere vanekoro novaholi.
Manangwiro
• Munzoni vana hepa kumu tengeka.
• Vana hepa kuvaninka vafute eyi vavaka.
• Epangero ndi nokampani dopaumwene da kona kutara asi vantu vana kara poyirugana yeyi yavatumbukira
ndi asi eyi va diva.
It is clear that candidates will benefit from integrated grammar teaching, concord, agreement and sentence structures
seem to be a problematic for many of the them.
Teachers should teach candidates the differences and how to write them according to the question. Let them know that
it is not a must to write both similarities and differences, advice the candidates that a setter might choose to set one and
leave another one.
Teach candidates the different between a formal and an informal letter.
Teacher must make sure they teach the difference between an article and a report.
Teachers must make sure to cover the whole syllabus, and they must teach all the skills required in the syllabus. Some
of the candidates still lack knowledge on grammar. Teachers should ensure that grammar is attended well. Examiners
report must reach all grades were they are offering Rukwangali so that this mistakes are taught at all the grades, by
doing so it will help both teachers and candidates to iron this grammar issues at the early stage.

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8306
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the candidates work in relation to the previous year did not change because the standard of the question
paper is of the same difficulty. Candidates misinterpreted some questions and these resulted in some of them scoring
low marks because they were off topics. There were also some questions that candidates could not cope with due to
scientific and technological terms. There were also some deep vocabulary terms used e.g. “rudivharwa” in question 2
caused many confusion and candidates misinterpreted the question the way they understood it (vambukuhu,vakwangali,
vakwangombe, vakwankora) candidates misinterpreted the word to group clan instead of writing gender education.
Some candidates narrated stories instead of writing an argumentative or discursive essays. The use of punctuation
marks, paragraphing and correct capital letters is still a great concern among the candidates. However, like previous
years, a great number of candidates did well on certain questions like question 1, 3 and 6.
1 ‘Vantu ava va kara nonotatu kapi va fumadeka marutu gawo.” Magano musinke ono kara nago kositurwapo oso?
Quite a number of candidates chose this question and they did well.
Sinsi sovarongwa ava va horowora epuro eli nawo vamwe va rugana sili nawa. Ava vakwatesa ko nava va patanesa
ko navenye kwa gava malimbururo ngwendi gaga ga kere pomemo. Nokonda dawo kwa kere dina kwata moyitji,
kwa likida ediwo lyenene kuhamena notatu eyi adi gava komarutu govantu ngwendi mauvera ngwendi kankera
zosipapa, kudira kugwana yirugana, kurugana yiruganadona ngwendi widi, ukakorora ntani kudira kulifumadeka
marutu gawo ngwendi vakadona ngoso. Wokudira kukwatesa ko malimbururo ngwendi gaga: notatu kapi adi tanta
yuma ntani hena marudi gamwe kulifaneka notatu kwa kara monompo dawo. Vamwe kuyirugana tupu kulihafesa
nye kapi ayi tanta asi valinyenga vene. Yitwa kwayi geve mokulikida murongwa nsene ana hamene koruha rumwe
ntani nonokonda ngodo dina kara keguru.
2 ‘Erongo kuhamena rudivharwa li vareke kembo.’ To kwatesa ko siturwapo oso ndi?

Few candidates chose this question which most did not do well.
Varongwa ava va gusa epuro kapi va zuvha rudivharwa eyi azi tanta. Awo kwa tjanga kuhamena marudi ngwendi
Vakwangali, Vakwankora neyi ava rugana momarudi gawo. Epuro eli kwa reta maudigu gomanene morwa varongwa
kapi va vhulire kuzuvha nkango ezi rudivharwa ntani nolyo erongo asi erongo musinke. Varongwa vamwe va
hetekerere ko kulimburura nawa omu va geve erongo ngwendi lyovamati novakadona kuhamena yirugana eyi y
ava tumbukira, omu va hwa kufumadeka vakurona monkarapamwe nokulikunga ngoso, kudiva ntundiliro zawo.
Epuro eli kwa litarurura unene omu twa vhura kutara nawa malimbururo govarongwa aga ga hamena ko ngwendi
erongo kuhamena yininke ngwendi yirugana yovamati novakadona, erongo kuhamena nsene vana kuru nayimwe
ngoso nampili kuna tjanga kuhamena marudi ngwendi Vakwankora ngo.ngo kwa va pa yitwa.
3 Eruganeso unene eraka lyoRuingilisa kuna kudonganesa maraka gomvharerwa. Magano musinke ono
kara ko nago?
Quite a number of candidates selected this question. They understood the topic and gave good responses.
Varongwa va likida ediwo lyenene kosiparatjangwa esi. Navenye ava va kwatesa ko nava va patanesa ko kwa gava
malimbururo googo ga kara pomemo. Varongwa va gava malimbururo ngwendi gaga asi, Ruingilisa yilyo eraka
lyomulyo eli ava uyunga vantu mouzuni, monomberewa ntani yilyo ava lirongo monosure yiyo lina kudonganesa
maraka peke. Vakurona kapi vana kumona hena mulyo momaraka gawo yiyo vana kukorangeda vana vawo va
ruganese unene Ruingilisa. Epuro eli kwa li limburura nawa varongwa. Nampili ngoso po ve li varongwa vamwe
va zapuka mepuro yiyo va tjanga kuhamena mulyo gosirongwa esi Ruingilisa ano vamwe kuhamena vantu omu
vana pempuka komaraka gawo.
4 ‘Kutara novidiyo danyanya kuninkisa vantu va ka rugane nyanya.’ To kwatesa ko ndi to lilimbi nositurwapo oso?
Few candidates chose this question, and those that did some did not do well.
Varongwa ava va gusa epuro eli wokukwatesa ko nava wokupatanesa vamwe kwa tjanga nawa, ano malimbururo
gawo galiza naga gopomemo omu nawo va tumbagura yininke ngwendi yoyo keguru. Va vhura nawo kulikida
maruha gawo aga va hamena ngwandi kukwatesa ko ndi kupatanesa ko. Ko ve li hena vamwe va simwitira

152
kuhamena novideo edi va tara omu adi gave nyanya kovantu.
5 ‘Etjingiso yikwamarovhu konoTV, koradio ntani monosaitunga yiyo yina kugwederera ko keruganeso
epuko marovhu monomukunda’. Magano musinke ono kara nago kositurwapo oso?
Varongwa ava va tjanga epuro eli va hetekera ko nawo kukwatesa ko nokupatanesa ko kumwe nonokonda ngodo
keguru. Matjingiso asi kuhengaika vantu va ka rande nampili kapi kava kara negano lyokuranda marovhu apa ana
ga mona gana gurumuka tava gogomoka vaka rande. Vanasure kuhena kosure vaka rande marovhu. Varugani
kufaura koyirugana morwa marovhu. Po ve li varongwa va pempuka kosiparatjangwa yiyo va tjanga kuhamena
udona womarovhu neyi aga rugana vantu.
6 Pwantani vantu kuna kugwanekera momarupe gokulisiga-siga sivhulise kugwanekera pamundinda. Ngapi
omu ono kukwatesa ko siturwapo esi?
Most candidates chose this question, some manage to do well and some did not do well.
Varongwa ava va limburura epuro eli nawo va hetekera ko kugava malimbururo ngogo keguru. Po ve li va pempuka
kepuro yiyo va tjanga kuhetakanesa magwanekero ganare naga gantani ntani maudona aga gana kutunda
momagwanekero gantani eyi kwa ninkisa va dire kulimburura nawa epuro eli morwa kwa demenena kusimwitira
yihorokwa yanare.

• Teachers carry on with your good and hard work.
• Paper 2 covers only two kinds of essays argumentative and discursive essay, avoid or discourage narrative essays
as this is causing most candidates to poorly answer questions.
• Candidates should be prepared well following the syllabus. Candidates must explore more on issues happening
around the globe. Do not forget to train or drill candidates on the structure of an essay (intro, body and conclusion).
Candidates should also be allowed to do more on grammar, punctuation marks and paragraphing.

153
8306
Paper 3
GENERAL COMMENTS
• The standard of candidates for this year is quite better.
• It is of the same difficulty, although question one was challenging for the candidates.
• The quality of questions are the same as for last year.
• The instructions were clearly articulated, although there were few candidates who misinterpreted the questions.
Question 1
The whole question one was difficult for the candidates. It was tantamount to few candidates opted for this question.
Candidates who opted for this question did not do well.
(a) This part question expected candidates to give: Elizuvho eli lyapindura esingonono lyomparukiso
zoMpuku momuresi ntani nokugava konda asi morwasinke. The candidates summarised stanza
one instead of first, to say or to express their feelings whether it was sad or happy and motivate their
answers. No mark was awarded for this.
The correct answers were: Kuna hafa, kuna guu ndi kuna kureta nkenda, morwa mpuku azo kuparuka
membo lyomugara-gara ntani kuvhura kufa membo lyomugara gonkorwe.
(b) The question was omu ga ruganesa mutangi eraka a tunture nokuhetakanesa mambo gena gavali
age a tumbure yininke yine. Candidates did not answer it correctly. Instead of giving the figure of
speech first, they just started to write a summary from stanza two to the last stanza but they suppose
just to give four poetic devices and elaborate them.
The correct answers were:
• Etantururohagaro – lyomugara-gara
• Mbuyungoseweko – mwendi kulitwira ndumbo
• Entupeko – mwina nzara tazi nyoka
• Etemwininohagaro – tii titi titi ti
(c) Candidates did not answer this part question correctly, some repeated stanza two some gave a
summary of stanza two. Only few candidates who gave the correct answers. Elizuvho lyomutangi
kuhamena sidira nokutumbura yininke yitatu:
Correct answers were: Sidira kudimba nehafo, kudimba si hafese vanona, mokudimba tasi ligusa ruhepo.
(d) Malizuvho govaresi kuhamena elikwatakano lyovantu nefuma momutango mokutumbura yininke ntambali
Candidates experienced difficulties in answering this part question, some just summarised the poem,
whereas some picked information from stanza five and six only.
Correct answers were:
• Pokatji kefuma nomuntu ukaro woudona wa kara po.
• Efuma kuna kububura ukarodona wovantu.
• Efuma lina nongonona nondungedona dovantu.
• Elikwatakanodona kuna kudirura efuma pouturo walyo.
• Efuma lina fu nomuga.
(e) Omu mutangi ga ruganesa nkumbu zakakuru, yipo a gavese ko elizuvho lyendi kovaresi, a tumbure
yininke yine: some candidates narrated the last stanza.
Correct answers were:
• Mutangi kwa didilika magano gakakuru.
• Kakuru kwa gava erongo kovaresi kuhamena udona woyikorwesa.
• Varesi va kona kutunda moupika woyikorwesa.
Question 2
This question was the favourite to most candidates. The question expected the candidates to say how the poet used
his frustration towards the people who could not accept his behaviour and what he does and how he expressed his
disappointment.

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Most candidates answered this question very well. They gave a summary that other people do not accept what the poet
does and his behaviour pin point attitudes and deeds, there were a few candidates who gave a summary of the poem
without giving their evidence to support their answers.
Correct answers were: Mutangi kapi ana diva eyi na rugana vakwawo yipo va yi tambure, mutangi ana zumbanesa
ruhafo yimo tupu ana piyaganenemo, yiyo nye ana limbilirwa, ngamoomu yina kara momutango: ni nongope asi evaya,
ni limume asi mumbudi, ano ukaro ou wa limbinge ngwendi moomu wa tangana nge wemeguru.
Question 3
This question expected candidates to compare Neweyu and Kamakoli’s leadership style.
This question was answered by most candidates. Candidates praise more of Kamakoli’s leadership style in comparison
to Neweyu’s leadership style
The correct answers were: Kamakoli kwa kere mulyo kupitakana Neweyu, morwa age kwa kere foromani gomukondi.
Age kwa kere mugwanekedisi govantu, kapisi ngwendi Neweyu muzonaguli.
Few candidates compared the two leadership style, for example Kamakoli naNeweyu navenye kwa kere nompitisili
donongwa.
Question 4
Most of the candidates opted for this question answered it correctly. The question was about the impact of the hearing
to the Rudiva and Kanyondo’s residents.
The correct answers were: Hompa Mwazona nosigendo sendi kwa li katukilire ko a ya pangure edipago lyaSihetekera
saKulisuka. Eyi kuna kulikida asi nkarapamwe zaKayondo naRudiva rambangako nahompa gwawo ya va gumine,
morwa navenye kwa ya pongere pompanguro. Mauyungo gehandu ga tundire mombunga ga tembe wonkwaMuzuguma
nonkwaRugambonkuru kuna kutuntura elizuvho lyokukora komutjima eli va kare nalyo vantu, morwa va divire nawa-
nawa asi yiwo vadipagi vaSihetekera.
However there were few candidates who just narrated the whole novel from the introduction of the novel to the death
of Sihetekera. (Sihetekera kwa hehere Sirenga, tava likwara noku kara membo lyomugara. Vagara kwa mu zuvhilire
mfundu.
Question 5
How the author used the play to convey his feelings about the idea of inheriting kingship?
Most of the candidates opted for this question and they answered it correctly.
The correct answers were: Mutjangi kwa tuntura unankondo wompo mezimo lyouhompa kuhamena ngendeseso
zoupingwa mokuruganesa sidanwa esi. Upingwa wouhompa mokuka gendesa sirongo ntudi mwene ana fu/dogoroka.
Worudi rouhompa yiwo wokutokora asi yilye na pitisira sirongo, mutjangi kuna kulikida mosidanwa esi asi etokoro
lyokupinga uhompa kuretesa po nomfa ngamoomu ga fire nyaNankero namunwendi Mukoya ezuva limwe.
Few candidates did not answer it well, because they narrated the whole book.
Question 6
How Ruwota people’s behaviour affected Kotokeni negatively?
A lot of candidates opted for this question and they answered it very well.
Correct answers were: Mukaro govantu wopoRuwota gwaninkisire Kotokeni va mu ture mompanguro nounona-nona
va mu pangure. Maukaro ogo gadonganesere elirongo lyaKotokeni, morwa nkenye apa oguhwe ngava mu sikura va
ka mu hare mokondwarongero. Ukaro wovaRuwota wa tjidisire Kotokeni pomukunda eyi ya reterere ozina maliverero.
Vakurona vaKotokeni unene po ozina noguhwe ngava litangwisa membo, morwa varuwota ngava va ninki asi seke va
mu twara.
Few candidates did not answer well, because they narrated the whole book.
POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS
• An appreciation to all the teachers who taught and prepared the candidates very well. However, teachers are urged
to put more emphasis on the marking grid, questioning techniques and completion of the books.
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8306
Paper 4
GENERAL COMMENTS
- Most centres had improved when conducting the Oral Assessment Examination.
- The Oral Assessment materials for example Checklists, Oral Assessment Summary Form, completed MS1 and
CDs were well managed by the majority of the centres.
- Most of the centres had mastered the required skills of Oral Assessment by assessing candidates fairly.
- Most of the centres submitted very clear recordings, examiners and candidates could be heard well.
- Most centres submitted a wide range of sample, while a few centres failed to select the required sample for
example: three (3) good, four (4) average and three (3) weak.
- Examiners deserve to be congratulated on a job well done.

- Most centres chose prose rather than poetry and drama. However candidates’ performances are better this year
compared to the previous years.
- The questions posed to candidates in all three genres have improved from more content-related questions to more
open-ended questions.
- Teachers also graded candidates fairly and consistently.
Poetry
At most centres only a few candidates opted for this genre. Some examiners read stanzas, then the examiners
posed questions on these stanzas. However, in most cases questions were content questions instead of open-ended
questions. (Sihonena: Tumbura eyi ngaruganesa ogu nganga nsene ta hakura?) Moreover, the candidates opted for
this genre performed relatively poorly compared to the other candidates who opted for other genres.
Prose
• Most candidates opted for this genre. This may be due to the prescribed books which are easy to be understood
or maybe teachers focused on this genre more than the other two genres.
• Many candidates who chose this genre performed relatively well.
Drama
• A handful of candidates opted for this genre and performed relatively poorly.
• Some examiners confused candidates, instead of asking about Kotokeni they asked about Kandjimi for example:
(Ngano nyove wa kere Kandjimi ngano yinke wa rugeneko apa ga kusansekerere hekuroge Haimbili asi to lisa
nongombe kapi to zi kosure?) This caused the candidates to answer incorrectly or keep quiet.
• Another confusion was like this: Vana vaMungunda vangapi va kere, va tumbura madina gawo) some candidates
mentioned Kandjimi only and some included Nankero, Mukoya and Sivhute. Such questions could be avoided at
all cost as they lead to confusion.
• However, some examiners asked good questions in this genre for example; (Ngano nyove wa kere Koto vana
kusilika kuza kosure, ngano yinke wa rugene?) these are good questions because they put candidates in a situation
to express their views.

• It is advisable for examiners to coach candidates in all genres and encourage them to give reasonably extended
responses.
• The Oral Examination is a conversation between two people not an interview. The examiners are advised to
generate questions from the candidates’ responses as follow up questions.
• Examiners should try to familiarise themselves with and understand the use of Oral Assessment grid in order to
• Internal moderation should be done at the centres to avoid addition and transfer mistakes of marks from the Oral
Assessment Summary Form to MS1 and unshaded lozenges.
• The examiners are advised to listen to the CDs, before submitting them for external moderation to avoid empty,
unrecorded CDs, poor sound quality or submitting an unwanted sample.
• The range of sample should be selected to include all levels' abilities for example; three (3) good, four (4) average
and three (3) weak candidates. The candidates with the highest and lowest marks should be recorded and send
as samples.

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• A centre with only ten (10) or less candidates should all be recorded.
• A centre with only one examiner should submit the recordings of ten (10) candidates. If there is more than one
examiner per centre, then they should be five (5) recorded candidates per examiner.
• Higher Level candidates should be tested on two (2) texts or books from the same genre.
• Your hard work is appreciated, thank you!

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FIRST LANGUAGE SILOZI
8307
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
The overall performance and achievement of the candidates varied from very good to average to poor. The overall
performance of the candidates compared to that of last year is the same. Most of the candidates attempted to answer
all questions. It was noted that few candidates did not read the instructions as prerequisite of the question.
Question 1
Some candidates were able to answer question 1 even though some did not meet the expected standard. Some of
the candidates were able to extract differences and match correct relevant information quite well from passage 1 and
2. Some of the candidates answered this question in a summary form. The question required matching of Contrasting
information in passage 1 and 2. Some of the candidates re- wrote long statements from the two texts without matching
relevant information. Some of the candidates wrote incomplete phrases without full meaning of the statement and this
made them not to score marks.
Some of the spelling errors noted was as follows:

• Zezicwalo it should be zecwalo
• Hazitokwahali it should be halitokwahali
• Kuyeza it should bekueza
• Maikuto yahae it should be maikuto ahae
• Alina it should be halina
The overall language usage and structure of the candidates were correct.
Question 2
Most of the candidates answered this question well. This question required candidates to write a formal letter. It was
noticed that some of the candidates used informal language to address the parents. For example some wrote like this
To.. (Ku) no proper salutation like.. (Shwangwe) at the end some wrote from – your child (Mwanaa mina) instead of
(Yamitompa) and full name.
Proper paragraphing should be a clearly addressed and drilled.
Question 3
Few of the candidates seemed to be able to write an article well; most of the candidates got confused with a report.
Most of the candidates did not address the article to the Editor (Muhatisi) and the format of an article was not properly
correct.
Most of the candidates could not meet the length required to write an article. Most of the candidates misunderstood the
meaning of corruption in private companies and Government. Most candidates could not write an introduction, body
and conclusion of an article.
Foremost, I would like to thank all teachers for their effort for preparing candidates for their achievement done during a
challenging year 2020 COVID- 19.
Teachers are encouraged to pin point to candidates all types of shorter pieces and their format including length, e.g.,
letters, articles, reports act.
Teachers are encouraged to promote reading and writing culture to schools that will ultimately improve candidates`
skills.
Teachers are encouraged to do a lot of revision using previous question papers to master all competencies.
To eliminate the problem of lifting, teachers should spend much more time on paraphrases to give candidates the
confidence to render ideas in their own words. Much work should be done to familiarise candidates with current affairs
and encourage discussion of controversial topics to broaden candidates with world views.

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8307
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
The general performance of the candidates this year compared to last year was different. Though the standard of
the question paper was of the same level of difficulty as the previous years, some candidates did not understand the
questions well and interpreted them in different ways than what was expected e.g. question 4, "Batu basikai bana ni
buzibelo famibili yabona kono habana buinyazo kasamulaho".
There is still a challenge in some candidates when writing an argumentative essay, they do not indicate whether they
agree or disagree. Some candidates did not write the required number of words of 500 - 700 but limit themselves
to 1 page or half a page. There is still challenges on orthography, sentence construction, paragraphing and use of
punctuation marks.
Puzo 1
Puzo neili; sizwale sakubulelisana kalipangaliko zeipitezi. Sesibonahala kuba nto yabutokwa kufita kuambolisana
kakutalimana. "Wena ulumelelana cwañi ni taba ye?
Baituti bene baketile puzo ye neba lalabile hande kakulumela kuli kiniti sizwale sakubulelisana kalipangaliko zeipitezi
zecwale ka mihala yamwamazoho, mazimumwangala wayatesi ni zeñwi zeñata kizabutokwa kufita kubuelisana
kakutalimana kakuli liñusa lelibulelwa lifita kakuankufa koliya, mi sesitokwahala sazibiwa isali kanako kufita kuzamaya
kamautu, kuñola liñolo kulumela kumuamuheli, yeo itisa kuli litaba zetokwahala kuutwiwa liliyehe kwakufita. Taba
yakusebelisa lipangaliko neba ihatelela hahulu baituti kuli ibisa lika bunolo ni kuitahanela kakuya kalifasi fose lizamaela
Puzo 2
Puzo neili: Kuzuma isi kamulao kutisa kusabisa kokupahami mwa Namibia. Kukaeziwa cwañi kufelisa butata boo?
Buñata bwabaituti baalabile puzo ye, mi nebaialaba hande. Neba itatulula kakubonisa zibo yasika seba ziba ili sesi
ezahala mwanaha kapa mani lilalanda mobapila.
Likolo la mishitu ni pabalelo yaza naheñi. Batu baba sika lumelelwa kuzuma seli babañata hahulu, kueza kuli
lifolofolo kele lifela, ili nto yetisa kuli bapoti bapalelwe kupotela naha kamulelo wakuto siya lukau mwanaha. Nebafa
ni tatululo yakuli muuso ubee lifolofolo mwamakwaka, kuluta batu zapabalelo yalifolofolo, kubea lifolofolo zecwale ka
litou, bosembele, linali linombolo ni limaka zekatusa babanona zanaheñi kuziba kabubebe kuli folofolo yecwana kele
itakalalwa ni kubulaiwa. Kulenga baba fumaneha inge bazuma isi kamulao mwatolongo lilimo zeñata hamohocwalo ni
kubalifisa masheleñi amañata.
Puzo 3
Puzo neili: "Kubuha maswaniso abubangoki famazimumwangala kutiseza batu kuitenga mwalika zemaswe." Kana
walumela kapa haulumeli?
Buñata bwabaituti bakonile kualaba puzo ye mi neba, alaba kukulumela kuli kubuha maswaniso abubangoki sihulu
kubabanca kubatiseza butata mwabupilo bwabona sina zecwale kakububa zalindwa, kusomana, kunatana, kunwa.
Neba ñola kakutiiseza kakulumela kuli haiba mutu inge atokomela kubuha zabubangoki famaizimumwangala
uka itututa ni kukala kueza likezo zabonanga kapa kubuha kamulelo wakuli mwendi kizende kona hali buhiswa,
mafelelezo mutu yani ukala kuba mulwani, lisholi, muitamaeli, mubiteleli, mubulai. Neba bahatelela kuli haiba batu
inge baitenga mwabubangoki bobucwalo mafelelezo bakona kutamiwa kapa kubulaiwa ni bona, taba yekatisa kuli
mabasi abona akene mwabutata.
Puzo 4
Puzo neili: "Batu basikai babana ni buzibelo famibili yabona kono habana buinyazo kasamulaho." Puzo ye hakuna
baituti baba iketile, ne i bonahala butata kubona mi nebasika, utwisisa. Puzo neitokwa kuli baituti babulelele kakulumela
kapa kuhanyeza kuamana ni lika zebaipeya famibili zecwale kakuikea maswaniso (tatoo) zecwale kalinoha, pilu mabizo
abona, tubanzez litau ni cwalocwalo mi neba lukela kutalusa kakuhanyeza haiba batu babacwalo bayoinyazanga kapa
habayo inyazanga kwamafelelezo.

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Puzo 5
Puzo neili: "Tekinoloji ni sibaka kokupangiwa lika zamifutafuta ki zabutokwa kono njimo yalico iswanela kuba nto yapili
kwamuuso. Baituti babañwi baba ketile puzo ye neba lika kuialaba hande kakuñola maneku kaufela kuli Teckinoloji ni
njimo yalico kaufela ki zabutokwa kakuli lisebelisana hamoho. Puzo neitokwa kuli haiba baituti balumela sitatimende
mo sifezwi kapa bafe maikuto abona kamo babonela. Ne ba kona kuñola kuli Tekinoloji ni sibaka kokupangiwa
lika zamifutafuta, mi nebakona kufa mitala yalika zepangilwe fatekinoloji zecwale kalimota, matilakita, mapulanta,
mahabesita, kiza butokwa ni zona kakuli lisebeliswa kwanjimo kuli ihule. Nebakona kuñola kakukopanya tekinoloji ni
njimo hazili zabutokwa hamoho. Nebakona kuñola kakueleza muuso kuluta sicaba kulima lico zeñata kakusebelisa
zatekinoloji kuli bafumane kutulo yeñata luli kufepa naha.
Puzo 6
Puzo neili: "Fundoto yabucwala mwamifuta yamihala yehasanya mañusa itisize kuli lino zekola litise mipilelo yemaswe
mahalaa batu. Kana walumelelana ni taba ye?
Baituti basikai babaalabile puzo ye, ba bakonile kulumelelana ni sitatimende sakuli kufundota bucwala kawayalesi,
mazimumwangala, mihala yamwamazoho, kompyuta, mañusa a imelu kona zetisa kuli batu bacince mipilelo, kamabaka
akuli zebonwa fakufundota batu balinga kuba zabutokwa. Batatuluzi ni kuli batu hase ba boni fundoto yeo baitenga
mwakunwa macwala mi mafelelezo manyalo, sikolo kwabaituti, bupilo mwamahae, makete amubili zafokolo mi naha
itala bayafi babasina buiscwalo sakata.
POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS FOR TEACHERS

• Maticele balute baituti kusebelisa hande maswayo akubala kamo kuswanelela.
• Maticele balute baituti kuli toho yalikande ni buitukiso bwateni kona mutomo walikande kaufela.
• Baituti balutiwe kuñola lifiha
• Baituti balutiwe muñolelo wa 3 (Orthography 3)
• Maticele basusueze baituti kuñola likande labutelele bobuswanela (500 - 700)
• Maticele basusueze baituti kusebelisa puo ya Silozi isi kukopanya mwateñi lipuo kapa mishobo yemiñwi.
• Maticele balute baituti kuyemela neku iliñwi haiba baketile likande lelikanana kapa kulumelelana.
• Baituti balutwe kuñola manzwi a Silozi isi kuipangela kamutala
- zezikula - zekula
- haiva - haiba
- kamapili - kapili
- matata - butata
- kamabomo - kabomu
- ahulu - hahulu
- muso - muuso
- zezituna - zetuna

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8307
Paper 3
GENERAL COMMENTS
The overall performance of the candidates was good because candidates attempted to answer all questions. Teachers
are complimented for their efforts of preparing candidates for this examinations, however, the use of idiomatic expressions
and proverbs needs to be practised both in written and speaking activities. Some candidates did not meet the required
length of their answers, they made them either too long or too short.
KALULO A: MIKANGA
1 (a) Sibabule simwalikubo: R.M. Mbala

Some candidates did not interpret the question correctly. The question was: Kakuya Kamuñoli kituto mañi
yalufa kakuñola mukanga wo.
Baituti neba alaba kuli: Ndombe usinya ngweshi libizo kwalitapi zeñwi.
Kalabo yelukile neli:
Mukanga ufitisa maikuto akuli kuna ni batu babañwi ba balata hahulu kubulela litaba zababañwi ni kusiya
zabona.
(b) The question was: Ki liñusa mañi lalika kufitisa muñoli kumubali mwatimana yabune?
Candidates gave the correct answer as required.
E.g. - Bataluhanye bupilo bwa Ndombe ni Ngweshi
- Ndombe ni ngweshi kaufelaa zona ki lisinyi kakuli lica litapi zeñwi.
- Lizazi lakatulo mulimu ukato liatula kamafosisa aswana
(c) The question was: Muñoli usebelisa cwañi puo kakufitisa kusalumelelana mwahalaa ndome ni ngweshi?
Baituti nebaalaba kuli: Puo yesebelisizwe ki papiso ni makabisapuo.
Kalabo yelukile:
- Ngweshi na bilaela kamulikanaahae yana mushinya libizo kuti waikuhumusa.
- Ngweshi upila mwamezi amande.
- Ndombe ibulela feela zaNgweshi kwalitapi zeñwi kuti lisabe Ngweshi ki sibulai / sila.
- Ngweshi waikuhumusa kakuli upila mwamezi a matelele.
(d) The question was: Muñoli ufitisa liñusa mañi kumubali hasebelisa mashitanguti atatama:
- Masipa asitongwani
- Uni tapela ni kuni kusululela
- Bulumba bwahao
- Businyi bwahao ibe bwahao
- Ni mina litapi muapuhe kapai kuzwa cwale.
Most candidates answered this question very well e.g.

- Kuhapeleza mutu litaba zabuhata
- Kutameleza mutu mafosisa esi ahae
- Businyi bwahao
- Yomuñwi ni yomuñwi alikalabele kamafosisa ahae.
- Litapi lizibe niti cwale.
Some candidates who did not answer it well gave the following answers.
kmt - kuipa musula
- kuitamba masipa asitongwani
(e) The question was: Ki kamukwa ufi wo muñoli wamukanga nalika kuba ni susuezo yamaikuto
kumubali? Ufe mitala yemilalu ni maikuto kamomuñoli wamukanga mwa na beela kapa kusebelisa
puo kalikalabo zahao.

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Most candidates did not answer this question well. They just copied from the poem.
Kmt:
- Ndombe na sinya Ngweshi libizo kwalitapi zeñwi kuli ki sibulai mi limusabe.
- Ndombe ni yena ki sibulai uca litapi zeñwi.
- Ngweshi yaikuhumusa kakuli ipila mwamezi amatelele.
Likalabo zelukile:
- Kumaswe hahulu kubulela mafosisa ababañwi.
- Batu babañwi ba lata hahulu kubulela mafosisa ababañwi kusiya abone.
- Hakuna mutu yasina mafosisa mwabupilo.
- Kikokunde kubulelela mutu mafosisa ahae kwandaa kumuseba.
- Lusebo lutisa lifapano/likolofalo
- Lusebo lutisa litoyo mwamabasi
- Batu bakakuzekisa kwakuta.
2 Za lyambezi: M. M Muyoba
Simkata
The question was:

Kamaikuto ahao muñoli ukona kucinca cwañi maikuto amubali kakusebelisa puo yamwamukanga. Ufe kalabo
yahao kabutungi kuzwelela kazo balile mwamukanga.
Ñola manzwi amwahalaa 350 - 500 [20]

Most candidates who opted for this question answered it very well.
Likalabo
- Muñoli ufitisa maikuto kwa batu babañwi mwabupilo bwa babana ni buzwa.
- Kuna ni bashemi babana ni buzwa babasiria zebakona kuikezeza.
- Nako yakulima haifita baikulisa
- Babañwi bashemi baya kwakupota nako yakulima.
- Hakukutuzwi bashemi bao ba fola
- Bakala kukupa lico mi bana babona bashwa tala.
- Batu bababuzwa baswaniswa ni baituti babasatokomeli sikolo.
- Babanwi baituti habaya kwalikolo bona baya mwamakululu.
- Baituti bao basinya maluo abatu.
- Nako yalitatubo ba siyala kakuli habasika itukiseza.
Yeki mitala feela likalabo zelukile libonelwe. [20]
Very few candidates did not answer this question very well.
Baituti neba bapisa mukanga waSimikala ni mikanga muungumani ni wakampolwe yetalusa zandivala.
- Neba talusa zamanyando a ndiala ili kusa balibabalela.
- Lindiyala lisebeliswa hahulu
- Lindiyala lifiwe liswanelo zazona ni cc.
- Babañwi baituti nebañola zanyunywani yeo simikata [20]
KALULO B: MAKANDE
3 Lika liwanyambwanaleka: C. Achebe

The question was:
Kamaikuto ahao utaluse kuamana kamo muñoli naboniseza makeke kumusalaa Okonkwo wabubeli, kakushwelwa
ki bana, U tiiseze kalabo yahao kuzwelela kazo balile mwalikande.
Ñola manzwi amwahalaa 350 - 500. [20]

Few candidates opted for this question of this question of which some did not answer it well.

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Neba alaba kuli:
- Okonkwo nasalati musalaa hae.
- Neba kandeka zaEzma hangiwa ki Chielo.
- Batatubiwa neba kopanya mabizo kakusazamaelela ni likezahalo zemwalikande.
Likalabo zelukile neli zetatama:

- Musalaa Okonkwo (Ekwefi) na utwisa butuku kabana bahae bene batimela.
- Ekwefi naikutwa buinosi mwahalaa basali ba Okonkwo.
- Ekwefi na ikutwanga bumaswe ni maswabi nako yeo mikiti yakupuzo yakupepwa kwabona.
- Hane babina naikutwa bumaswe ni kuhupula bana bahae ba sipulo sahae.
- Na sinyehezwi masheleñi amañata kubata liñaka kuli azibe senesica bana bahae.
- Na utwile hahulu butuku kalifu lamwana ahae yana pazauzwi ki sitondo ni kuyomuyumbela kwa mushitu walilumba
ni cc.
4 Bupilo kaswalala: B.N. Kasale

Mukwa wamueñi waInduna Sitenda u bonahalisizwe cwañi mwalikande ni mikwa womouzwafiselize maikuito
asicaba

Candidates who opted for this question answered it very well.
Likalabo zelukile:
- Mueñi wabo Induna Sitenda ili Sitwala Ndekandeka utisize kuli boInduna ni sicaba sabona ba toyane.
- Sitwala Ndeka Ndeka utisize bunjebwe mwasibaka saboInduna Sitenda.
- Ku lyanganisa boinduna kakuba pufelelela kubafa limpo.
- Bo Induna bafetuhela bana babona kakuhana kuutwa linonge zabona kuamana ni nyandiso yasicaba sabona.
- Bana babo Induna ba fiwa milao yeo nebaswanela kulatelela kasamulaho akumufa maino.
- Sitwala Ndekandeka ahanisa sicaba se kuikola sifumu sabona.
- Akala kucinca libyana zamwasintolo sahae ni likomu zabona ni cc. [20]
KALULO C: LIPAPALI
5 Mulena Mulemwa ni muoli Nakamwi: V.S. Sazita

The question was:
Kamaikuto ahao, sicaba nesiikutwa cwañi kamupilelo wamuoli Nakamwi wobonisizwe mwapapali, mi mabaka ki
afi? Ufe likalabo zahao kuzwelela kuzeoubalile mwapapali.
Few candidates did not answer this question well.
Baituti neba alaba kuli:

- Mulena mulemwa nasalati musalaahae kakuli na mutimile sibaka sakuya habo.
- Muoli Nakamwi na shwisa makeke kakuli liswanelo zahae nelisa kutekiwi.
- Muoli Nakamwi nasina butata ni lubasi lwa mulena mulemwa ni cc.
Likalabo zelukile neli ze:

- Sicaba nesukutwa bumaswe kalikezo zaMuoli Nakamwi.
- Muoli na sika kuteka muuhahae hanakupa sibaka sakuyo potela makwenyanaa hae.
- Na sebelisa manzwi amaszwe ku muuna hae kmt unja tuwe, Hani koni kukombwa kuwena.
- Na shubula makwenyanaahae bo kabunda bao nebasina mafosisa.
- Hayofita habo mwanahae ayo kula kakuloyiwa ki ndatahe.
- Nabi kalanga naisizwe kwaliñaka ndatahe asazibi.
- Mulena Mulemwa nailo shubula makwenanaa hae bakeñisa makulano amwanaa hae.
- Mulena Mulemwa naizo bulaya makwenyanaa hae bekeñisa kuloya mwanaa hae.
Kalabo ube manzwi amwahalaa 350 - 500 [20]

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6 Sinkatana: S.M. Mofokeng
Few candidates did not answer this question well.
Baituti neba alaba kuli:

- Baituti neba kusufaza buka kaufela kmt: Sinkatana na ina ni bomahe sibatana hasitomiza batu kaufela mwahae.
- Baituti babañwi nebasa talusi litaba zeo Bulani na nyaza kakamaiso yaMulena.j
- Baituti babañwi nebasa talusi zalifu laMulena sinkatana ni cc.
Most candidates who opted for this question answered it very well.
Likalabo zelukile:
- Bulani na tabela kuba mueteleli wasicaba sahabo.
- Bulani na shwela sinkatana muna.
- Bulani nabonisize kusatabela litumbo zenefiwa kusinkatana famukiti wakumubeya fabulena.
- Bulani nafapani ni Masilo ni Maswabi kakulumba Sinkatana kuamana ni buitomboli bwakulukulula sicaba.
- Bulani na susuelizwe ki musalaa hae yana toyani ni boma Litaulani.
- Musalaa Bulani na ziba kuli Bulani ki lipyeha hana kuhana.
- Bulani akala kushonga batu kuli puso yaSinkatana neli yebusula kwalifosi.
- Na hapeleza Sinkatana kuli unyanya batu.
- Sinkatana na bulailwe ki Bulani kono hakuna koto yanafilwe.
Kalabo ibe mwahalaa 350 - 500 [20]

• Teachers are encouraged to teach all prescribed books e.g. poem, prose and drama especially the prose Lika
liwanyambwanaleka.
• Teachers are encouraged to remind candidates to consider marks when answering short questions.
• Teachers should encourage candidates to write 350 - 500 words for essay questions to avoid loss of marks.
• Teachers should encourage candidates to use orthography for correct writing of words and language usage.

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8307
Paper 4
GENERAL COMMENTS
• Most centres improved with the conducting of the Oral Assessment. Only a few did not do well.
• Most centres developed spontaneous conversations, enabling the candidates to respond at length.
• Most centres submitted a wide range of samples.
• Administration of the Oral Assessment was done well by most centres.
COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS.
POETRY
Most centres assessed candidates in poetry as expected, However, some examiners did not have a lengthy conversation
with the candidates as to avoid monologues. Therefore, candidates were only asked one or two questions.
PROSE
Most centres, examiners assessed candidates in this genre. For instance, “Bupilo Kaswalala” and “Lika Liwa
Nyambwanaleka” were assessed. Only a few centres assessed candidates in one book from this genre, e.g. “Bupilo
Kaswalala” only. Relevant and stimulating questions were asked by the examiners and candidates responded well.
DRAMA
All centres examined this genre. Examiners conducted the interviews with confidence and the questions were
stimulating enough to elicit desired answers. The questions posed by examiners brought out the communicative skills
of the candidates.

• Examiners should make thorough preparations before conducting the interviews.
• Higher Level candidates should be examined on the two texts from the same genre.
• Centres with 10 or less candidates should record all candidates.
• Internal moderation should be done at the centres to avoid mistakes.
• Moderator’s reports should be read by examiners to avoid repetition of the same mistakes.
• Examiners are advised to assess from the books (poems) that came in the mock examination paper for that year,
especially in poetry.

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GERMAN FOREIGN LANGUAGE
8317
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
The level of difficulty of the question paper was similar to those in previous years, I did however, notice a slight increase
in spelling mistakes. It seems to me that this could be due to the fact that candidates did not spent the whole year at
school because of the Covid-19 pandemic, where this would have been pointed out and corrected by teachers.
Lifting from the question paper without manipulation of the language remained a problem, although in Teil 1 and Teil 3
it stated clearly in eigenen Worten.

ERSTER TEIL
Erste Aufgabe
The purpose of the exercise is to read the text carefully and answer the questions using own words.
1 Man kann kontrollieren, wie viel Geld man ausgibt.

Candidates need to be made aware how to change nouns into verbs for instance and practise how to manipulate
the language and not merely lift.
2 Sachen, die nicht billig sind. Dinge für sein Motorad.

He did not buy his motorbike but things for the motorbike.
3 Er muss genug Geld auf dem Konto haven, sonst akzeptiert die Maschine seine Bezahlung nicht.
Again, candidates need to practice to change the words and not just lift.
4 Er könnte sein Geld verlieren, wenn er die Karte verliert, wird diese ersetzt.
This question was well answered by most candidates.
5 Lena hat gelernt, dass es besser ist, bar zu zahlen.

Candidates had no problem with this question.
6 Lena tut nur so viel Geld in ihre Geldbörse, wie sie ausgeben will.
A number of candidates lifted.
7 Mit der EC-Karte kann man nur soviel ausgeben, wie auf dem Konto ist, mit der Kreditkarte kann man
mehr ausgeben, als man hat.
Some candidates stated that there is a limit for the credit card but no limit for the EC card. This is not the case.
8 Spedition-This was a problem for some candidates.

Budget Surprisingly a number of candidates did not find this word for ‘Haushaltsplan’.
Grenze
9 richtig
falsch Candidates coped well with this question.

167
Zweite Aufgabe
The purpose of the exercise is to read the texts carefully and answer the questions using own words.
10 Reinhard Mey, er selbst.

Well answered.
11 Er singt über Problme, die bekannt sind und dass man frei sein will.
Unfortunately, many candidates just lifted the answer from the reading passage without using their own words or
manipulating the given words.
12 Sie nennen sich Singer-Songwriter, weil das schöner klingt.

This question was not formulated correctly so many candidates just lifted.
13 Er singt von einem, der verabredet ist, aber vorher noch die Welt retten will.
Some candidates lifted the answer.
14 Er wurde vom Gothe Insitutu dorthin geschickt, um zu zeigen, wie schön die deutsche Sprache sein kann.
This question was well answered.
15 erfolgreich Some candidates used bekannt, which is not correct.

populär
Szene
witzig
Generation
16 falsch
richtig
richtig
richtig
falsch
Candidates had no difficulties answered this question.
ZWEITER TEIL
17 The purpose of the exercise is to read the test and write a letter to their penfriend, telling him or her what
they do in their free time.
Most candidates answered this question very well and wrote interesting texts about their activities. Unfortunately,
some copied parts of the given text resulting in making a number of spelling and grammar mistakes. Candidates
need to be made aware that they have to read the instructions carefully. In a letter to a friend you do not use “Sehr
geehrte/Sie/Ihre” and do not end off with “Mit freundlichen Grüßen”. An official address is also not used.
Common mistakes were: Ich und meine Freunde. In German you would say ‚Meine Freunde und ich.‘ Wir gehen
ins Disco = in die Disco. Haufen instead of viele is colloquial. Essen bei einem Restaurant = in einem Restaurant.
bischen = bisschen
DRITTER TEIL
18 The purpose of the exercise is to read the test and write a summary in using own words.
Any five of the following:
• Schüler bleiben auch am Nachmittag in der Schule.
• Manchmal gibt es nachmittags Unterricht und andere Aktivitäten.
• Schüler/Schülerinnen bekommen dort auch ein Mittagessen.
• Sie können auch Nachhilfe bekommen.
• In einem Internat schlafen die Schüler auch.
• Manche meinen, der Einfluss der Schule ist zu groß.
• Das Verhältnis zwischen Kindern und Eltern ist nicht mehr so eng.
• Die Schüler/Schülerinnen arbeiten zu viel.

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It was very encouraging to see that the summary was written in the present tense. It was pleasing to observe that
candidates summarised one paragraph after the other, thus maintaining the structure. Most candidates understood the
text well.
Common mistakes were: da werden sie mit Hausaufgaben geholfen, mehr stark
VIERTER TEIL
19 The purpose of the exercise is to write a composition either (a) Wie kann ich meine Umwelt besser
schützen? (b) Du sitzt am Schreibtisch, um deine Hausaufgaben zu erledigen. Plötzlich hörst du eine Stimme...
25 candidates chose topic (a). 32 chose (b).
Punctuation, particularly the use of commas, needs to be practised particularly in clauses starting with dass.
Common mistakes: mit keiner instead of ohne; order instead of oder; als instead of wenn; nur instead of erst; kucke
= gucke.
FÜNFTER TEIL
20 The purpose of this exercise is to choose the correct word out of three. Most candidates answered this correctly.
a. letzten
b. Studie
c. woher
d. bedeuten
e. verbreiteten
f. man (A number of candidates had a problem with this question and chose Mann)
g. verschiedene
h. waren
i. zusammen
j. einen
k. Herkunft (Some canidates chose Zukunft, obviously not being familiar with the word.)
l. besondere
m. Raum (Some candidates chose Zelle.)
n. die
o. kamen
p. Werke
q. Des (Some candidates had a problem here) (It was evident that the “laut” was not known to all.)
r. genauso
s. ihren
t. laut This meaning of laut was not known to all.

The examiner would like to congratulate teachers on preparing their candidates well for the examination. The most
important suggestion is to practise answering questions without lifting. This can be done by showing candidates that
pronouns can be used instead of nouns, use of synonyms must be practised, changing nouns to verbs and vice versa.
Candidates must read the instructions very carefully and be made aware of the fact, that they need to page through the
entire question paper so as not to miss anything.
Punctuation needs to be practised, in particular the use of commas.
The structure of the paper is always the same (Erster bis Fünfter Teil), candidates can however, answer in a different
order.

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8317
Paper 2
Examination Report of 2020
Of the 57 candidates who sat for the examination 56 answered Question 2 (Lutz van Dijk: Von Skinheads keine Spur),
1 attempted Question 3 (Gedichte) and not a single candidate wrote to Question 1 (Bertolt Brecht: Das Leben des
Galilei). All candidates answered only one question as it was required in the question paper.
All candidates presented at least 1 to 1½ pages of written text, some managed as many as 3 pages.
In the Literature Paper for the subject Foreign Language German Higher Level it is expected from candidates to
demonstrate their acquired knowledge and understanding of the different genres - Prose, Drama and Poetry -, to
critique and review texts and to form and develop own ideas and opinions on aspects of the read literature texts. In
order to allow candidates to answer the literature questions with confidence, they should have mastered the appropriate
technical or specialised vocabulary for literature critique. The examiner noticed with appreciation that some candidates
were able to use the correct terms.
Some candidates excelled in the questions on "Von Skinheads keine Spur" and it was a pleasure reading their answers
as they showed that they are capable of discussing literature themes in a coherent structure as well as giving an own
opinion. Most candidates were well prepared and even the weaker candidates understood the intentions of the writers
and could provide analysis of plots and characters, but they had problems in expressing themselves in German and
made far too many language mistakes.
All candidates structured their essays according to the three/two tasks given under each question and thus avoided
writing a general essay on the text. Unfortunately two candidates copied the text in the question paper instead of putting
it into the context of the novel. As has been mentioned in previous reports, they should guard against writing a summary
of the whole novel/play and concentrate on the most important events just before and after the extract in section a)
of questions 1 and 2. In some scripts, however, there was repetition of points previously made in the answer, which
indicated that these candidates had not planned their answers properly.
The three questions on prose, drama and poetry did not deviate in lay out and standard from those posed in previous
years. Teachers and candidates should be familiar with the examination paper for literature in the subject Foreign
Language German on Higher Level.
All teachers must be commended on a job well done as at the end it depends on every candidate whether he/she shows
the expected commitment to prepare adequately for the examination. The candidates, with a few exceptions, were able
to prove that they actually had read and studied the prescribed literature texts.

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8317
Paper 3
GENERAL COMMENTS
Overall, the moderator was pleased with the general performance by the examiners during the interviews. Furthermore,
it was noticed with appreciation that the examiners entered a wide range of abilities, from the candidates who were very
fluent down to those who found it more difficult to express themselves in a foreign language. Candidates covered a
wide range of topics, most interlocutors were well prepared for the interviews and posed some challenging questions
resulting in stimulating conversation which were a pleasure to listen to. Many candidates succeeded in presenting
topics of high intellectual quality and of a high language standard.
The quality of the recordings of most of the centres was of a high standard thus making the task of the moderator so
much easier. On two recordings however, candidates were indistinct, making it very difficult for the moderator to listen
to the interviews.
It was noted with concern that the marks allocated to the candidates by some examiners were often too high. Examiners
should please familiarise themselves with the content of the Marking Grid for Task 1 Reading Text and Conversation as
well as Task 2 Topic Conversation before the examination as to be prepared to allocate marks to the candidates with
confidence, especially for pronunciation/intonation, accuracy as well as content and presentation.
COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL TASKS
1 Short Warm-up Session, Reading Text and Conversation:

The warm-up session should really be very short as no marks are awarded. It serves to calm the nerves of the
candidate and to let her/him feel comfortable.
The candidate should be requested to read the text aloud for approximately 1 to 2 minutes. Thereafter, the
candidate should be asked to summarise the text, being guided by the four questions below the reading text. It
was noticed with appreciation that examiners did not read the questions to the candidates or let the candidates
read the questions. It allowed the candidates to show their ability in expressing themselves in German by using
their own formulations.
Presentation of Topic
The examiner should ask the candidate for the title of his/her topic and then allow the candidate to present his/her
prepared topic. Please see to it that the candidate's presentation does not develop into a monologue as his/her
presentation should not be longer than 3 minutes, allowing the examiner to give a confident mark for the content of
the presentation. On the other hand, the examiner should not interrupt the candidate while presenting his/her topic
for approximately 2 to 3 minutes. The examiner should then start a conversation in order to prove, explore, ask for
explanations, descriptions, etc. in order to extend and stimulate the candidate to give him/her the opportunity to show
his/her language abilities. It is highly important that examiners give the candidate the opportunity to use a variety
of tenses as candidates who do not show that they are able to convey present, past and future meaning cannot be
awarded a mark of four and above. Some examiners do not take this into consideration and tend to award marks of
four and above without giving candidates the opportunity to demonstrate their ability to convey past, present and future
meaning.

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172
GEOGRAPHY
8330
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
• Many candidates did not follow the instructions on the cover page.
• Many candidates struggled with questions that required comparisons. Teach candidates how to answer these
questions.
• Candidates did not know all the work in the syllabus.
• Candidates often only read sections of questions, in stead of whole questions. They could therefore not score
marks in those questions.
• Candidates did not know how to respond to the different command words in the questions, e.g. Analyse, discuss,
etc.
• When questions required candidates to give examples, they failed to do so and therefore did not score marks.
• Candidates could not identify and describe patterns and trends.
1 This was the most popular question.
(a) (i) Well answered by most candidates.

Expected answers:
Plate boundaries
Plate movements
Fault zones
Geologically unstable areas
Transverse / constructive / destructive max 2
(ii) Well answered. Most candidates scored full marks in this question.
Expected answers:
Dwellings / homes / buildings destroyed
Injuries / deaths
Communications breaking out cut
Fires breaking out
(b) (i) Well answered. Most candidates could give reasons why some earthquakes cause more loss of
life than others.
Expected answers:
Strength / magnitude / intensity
Density of population
Preparedness / prediction
Infrastructure / speed of relief
Availability of food
Availability of medical supplies / help
Duration / aftershock
After-effects max 1 (e.g. fires/floods/secondary effects)
Strength of buildings / earthquake-proved buildings
Time / season
Depth of focus / distance from epicentre
(ii) Poorly answered. Many candidates failed to develop the information on the diagram. Many just
defined the word ‘severe’.
Expected answers:
Does not only depend on strength
e.g. Mexico vs. Iran (example must show contrasts)
Depends on other factors – density of population
Death toll
More economically developed countries (MEDCs) - Less economically developed countries (LEDCs)
173
(c) Moderately answered.
Many candidates failed to note that the emphasis of the question was on the problems faced by rescue
personnel. Many candidates scored 2 to 3 marks, however, scoring full credit was not common.
Expected answers:
Difficult to reach areas / people
Transport disrupted / roads / railways / ports / airports damaged / blocked / traffic jams / bridges destroyed
max 2
Telephone lines down / difficult to find people or communicate / fires break out, etc.
Water pipes fractured / difficult to put out fires, etc.
Need of / difficult to get heavy lifting equipment
Shortages of fuel
Power outages
Setting up structures to handle / treat injured people
(d) Well answered.

A few candidates gave detailed recommendations as to how buildings could be reinforced or made stronger.
Many others just gave general statements.
Expected answers:
Buildings ‒ materials and design/earthquake-proof buildings
Forecasting
Warning the public
Evacuation procedures
Precautions against secondary effects
Earthquake drills / earthquake kits
Rescue services
Relief funds
2 This was the least popular question.
(a) Poorly answered.

Most candidates could not describe the physical features of the river shown on the photograph. Most
learners identified common features, which were not visible in the photograph.
Expected answers:
Small volume of water
Large boulders in riverbed
Open / V-shaped valley
It has a steep-sided valley
It has a bare rock-sided valley with no vegetation
Smooth / rounded rocks
(b) Poorly answered.

Most candidates misinterpreted the question and wrote 'impact of floods on people' which was not required.
Some gave detailed answers or explained the methods of erosion but could not explain how they affected
the river valley. Some responses included attrition, which did not answer this question.
Expected answers:
Increased volume of water increases load carried / size of load
Greater vertical erosion deepens valley
Greater lateral erosion cuts away outer bends because of faster current / widens valley
Undercutting causes bank collapse and forms a cliff
(c) Poorly answered.

Expected answers:
Clearance of vegetation / forest for agriculture / forestry / firewood from steeply sloping land can lead to
erosion caused by heavy relief rainfall / snowmelt
Loss of forest reduces binding effect on soil, no protection by canopy interception
Accept similar valid detail related to other studied examples

174
Guidelines:
Removal of vegetation exposes topsoil: agriculture / forestry / firewood Max 2

When it rains, erosion occurs (1) sand is deposited in riverbed / riverbed raised (1)/
Normal rainfall leads to flooding (1) e.g. Nile/Ugab
Removal of vegetation – roots removed, more run-off (1)
Urban areas / concrete surfaces – less infiltration, more run-off (1)
(d) Poorly answered.

Largely disappointing responses were given but few full answers. Many candidates simply wrote what they
know about plate movements, but not the formation of fold mountains. The majority wrote about ‘subduction’
and ‘plate uplift’ instead of sediments.
Expected answers:
Compression (1) of sediments (1) in deep sea trenches (1), uplift (1) brought about by convergence of plates
(1) Indian and Eurasian (1) in recent geological past (1).
(e) Poorly answered:

Candidates were not clear on the meaning of the word ‘drought’ (a prolonged period of time without any rain
/ a prolonged period of time with below average rainfall).
Expected answers:
Humans do not implement water policies for sustainable water use – especially during drought periods
Policies may include changes in water rights and access as well as control of water pollution
Agriculture, forestry and leisure, hydropower all depend on regional ecosystems – how land is managed can
affect how drought hits. Increasing fertiliser use and growing more crops using infiltration could lead to drier
soils during the growing periods.
Other discussions could include:

Water abstractions
Reservoir building
Deforestation
Water transfers, etc.
This could influence - hydrological processes
Evaporation / evapotranspiration,
The rate of soil infiltration,
Surface run-off and
Storage of water
This answer should show how people influence drought – making the drought more severe, etc. as well as
why.
3 This question was generally well answered.
(a) (i) Well answered. Many candidates were able to identify the dam and year with the least storage
capacity correctly.
Expected answers:
Voëlvlei 2015
(ii) Fairly answered. Candidates could not give a correct trend of how the dam storage capacity
varied over the 6 year period. Most candidates used the wrong units when giving the storage
capacity in ‘megalitres’ instead of percentages.
Expected answers:
Rise 2010 to 2011 (14%)
Fall 2011 to 2012 (7.1%)
Rise 2012 to 2014 (11.2%)
Decrease 2014 to 2015 (51.8%)
Decrease steep/large 2013 to 2014 (43.2%)
Further fall 2014 to 2015 (8.6%)
Fluctuations
Use of data max.1

175
(iii) Well answered. Most candidates could correctly suggest reasons why low storage capacity
was recorded as ‘due to drought’.
Expected answers:
Hot summer
Below average rainfall
High evaporation
Limited run-off
High demand / consumption
Lowering water table / more absorbed
Drought
(b) (i) Well answered, although some candidates referred to Ruacana waterfall instead of the Hydro-
electrical power scheme. Many candidates could not state in which country Ruacana is located.
Name of HEP scheme plus country.
(ii) Fairly answered. Candidates who chose the Three Gorges Dam tended to gain higher marks
compared to those who opted for a broader approach of an HEP scheme. Candidates benefitted
in this case by choosing a local example, although they had little in-depth knowledge of the scheme.
Expected answers:
Conditions might vary according to scheme chosen by candidate. Extract answers from the following:
Heavy rain
Rain evenly distributed / all year round
Gorge/easily dammed valley/steep-sided valley
From lake / reservoir
Rock for dam
Large head of water / steep slopes
High volume of water / perennial river
Lack of other fuels in the area
Development of industry in area/demand for HEP
Low population density
Impermeability / solid bedrock
(c) Well answered. Candidates could correctly describe the different uses of HEP schemes, although most
scored 3 out of 4 for mentioning ‘power’ as an answer.
Expected answers:
Water for industry, max.1 (water for power = 0)
Domestic water
Irrigation / water for farming
Fishing
Tourism / recreation / water sports
Water transport
Control of flooding
Water sharing schemes
(d) Poorly answered. Most candidates only scored one mark. Most candidates wrote about the physical
factors limiting HEP Schemes’ location.
Expected answers:
Lack / limited demand
Limited industries and services
Lack / limited capital
Isolated sources/distances from markets
Transport of electricity is limited
Presence of other fuels / sources of energy/non-renewable energy available
Limited investment/economic growth
4 This was a fairly popular question.
(a) Fairly answered. Candidates only lifted geothermal energy from extract, but could not explain in
detail how this renewable energy source produced electricity.
Expected answer:
Use of geothermal heat in heating water; producing steam to drive turbines
176
(b) (i) Poorly answered. This proved to be more difficult than expected with few candidates able to gain
2 marks out of 3. Most candidates correctly identified the rainforest as an attraction but could not
identify the other two.
Expected answers:
Rainforest
Unique wildlife
Volcanoes National Park
(ii) Poorly answered. Global warming responses were generally popular.
Expected answers:
Removal of forest may cause:
Loss of habitat for some species which may affect food chain
Loss of protection of soil leading to erosion
Disruption of balance within ecosystems
(iii) Poorly answered. Marks were only scored for 'extinction of species' and 'global warming'.
Expected answers:
Extinction of species locally
Severe soil erosion, flash flooding, gullying of hillsides
Degeneration of area
Possible change of climate locally through loss of transpiration
Change in global climate through change in CO²/O³ balance / global warming / ozone depletion
Flash floods / gullying of hillsides
Credit reasoned argument of variety of points and good examples.
(c) Poorly answered. The majority of the candidates were against the argument but could not give
reasons or correct reasons. A few candidates did not indicate whether they agreed / disagreed.
Few candidates also opted for neutral.
Expected answers:
Could be either Yes or No (No mark). Marks for quality of argument.
In favour:
Creates jobs in areas where there are few jobs and little potential
Brings income
Improves communications / local infrastructure
Improves local amenities / creates facilities/services for tourists
Better than deforestation, which may destroy livelihoods in the long term
Against:
Difficult to control tourism (why?) – usually organised from outside region and conservation not a priority
Profits not always ploughed back into local area, people or environment
Multinational tourist companies do not always employ many locals
Some areas too precious to risk exploitation
(e) (i) Poorly answered. Few candidates scored marks for correctly stating that the Greenhouse
Effect is brought about by ‘greenhouse gases’.
Expected answers:
Should relate to raising of air temperatures by Greenhouse Effect brought about by increasing content
of CO² and other greenhouse gases in atmosphere
(ii) Fairly answered. The majority of candidates correctly named deforestation as a cause of the
greenhouse effect. The majority mentioned emission of gases from industries, car exhausts,
etc., but could not show an in-depth knowledge about ‘combustion’ of fossil fuels.
Expected answers:
Deforestation
Increased burning of fossil fuels in factories / power stations / motor vehicles

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(iii) Fairly answered. Most scored 4 out of 6 marks. Generally the responses were well developed.
Some candidates confused Global Warming with ozone depletion.
Expected answers:
Rises in temperatures may cause rises in sea levels caused by melting ice caps, resulting in coastal
flooding (many world cities are ports) Loss of much agricultural land (e.g. SE Asian deltas)
Melting ice caps also lead to increased temperatures especially at high latitudes
Changing climatic patterns – not just warmer but local changes in rainfall – implications for farming in all
regions
Points to consider when discussing this topic in class:

• Extreme weather
• Glacier retreat / early snowmelt – dramatic water shortages
• Sea-level rising – flooding of coastal area
• Drought (severe) – increased severity and frequency
• Increased risk of wild fires – Australia / South Africa
• Increased evaporation and surface drying – 10% moisture increase for 1% temperature increase
• Heat waves / droughts / cyclones / blizzards / rainstorms all increase
• Declines in Arctic sea ice – decrease in animal species – extinction
• Oceans acidifying – decrease in marine life
• Oceans warming – changing species, water temperatures, etc.
• Climate variability – Dry regions will become drier and wet regions wetter
• Pressure on fresh water supplies increases
• Food production not secure
• Affects human health
• Contributes to desertification – enlarging dry areas even more
• Land degradation – difficult primary activities, etc.
• Changing precipitation patterns – changes in amount, intensity, frequency and types of precipitation
• Reduction in rainfall in sub-tropics / increases in sub-polar and some equatorial regions
• More very hot days and fewer very cold days
• Increase in extreme events threatens development because economic growth is negatively
affected.
• Contributes to population migration – induced mostly by flooding / agricultural failures
• Contributes to changes in flora / fauna
• Disruptions of habitats – plant and animal species extinctions
• Increases in air pollution affects peoples health negatively
• New pests and diseases – affect farmers
• Heat waves / heavy rainfall / increased flooding – destroys agriculture and fisheries
5 This question was the second most popular choice.
(a) (i) Well answered. The majority of candidates scored full marks.
Expected answers:
Asia
1800
(ii) Well answered.
Expected answer:
8/9%
(iii) Fairly answered. Generally candidates interpreted that Africa’s population increased, while
Europe’s decreased. A few candidates were able to give correct data from 1900 – 2050.
Expected answers:
Africa increased (12%) / Europe decreased (18%)
Africa 8/9 to 12/13 to 20/21 %
Europe 24/25 to 11/12 to 6/7 %
(iv) Fairly answered. A few candidates were able to identify the factors for population growth. The
majority of candidates were able to offer valid reasons for higher birth rates in Africa. The majority
commented on the influence of sedentary lifestyles, stress, over-eating and obesity, or effects
such as cancer, etc. Clearly most had been told reasons for high death rates in LEDCs and
assumed that Europe was part of this group.

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Expected answers:
Declining death rate in Africa + reason
High birth rate in Africa + reason
Declining birth rate in Europe + reason
Reasons for change in death rate and birth rate in each
Res 1 = Africa
Res 1 = Europe
Max 2 = reasons
(b) (i) Poorly answered. Generally poor definition of an ageing population.

Most candidates confused the concept with retirement at 60, which is based on the Namibian situation
instead of the MEDC population.
Expected answer:
Definition: where older people/ (65+) make up a larger proportion/percentage of the population than
normal.
(ii) Poorly answered. Some candidates wrote that ageing population may lead to overpopulation.
The majority scored 2 marks for reduction in economy and provision of pensions. The majority
however stated that the adult group will pay ‘less tax’.
Expected answers:
Many older people above retired age (65+)
Small number below working age (0 – 14)
Equal numbers of working people in each age group
(iii) Well answered.
Expected answers:
High dependency ratio of old people
High spending on older people
For pensions, care homes, social services (max. 1) / medical care
Increases in taxation
Raising of retirement age / longer working life
Lack of workers
Lack of vibrant / skilled workers
Reduction in economic growth / strain on economy
Need to import foreign workers
Less attractive to foreign investment
(c) Fairly answered. The majority of the candidates listed the answers. Education was a popular
response, but was not developed in detail. The majority answered ʻused contraceptivesʼ in general.
A few mentioned that MEDCs have a cure for HIV/AIDS which is not true. Some referred to diseases,
e.g. malaria and wrote vaccinations and use of antibiotics.
Expected answers:
Wealth – therefore money to tackle problem
Good medical facilities / enough doctors
Latest drugs available
Open access to medicine / doctors
Good health education system
Educated population / awareness
Good communication systems / awareness campaigns
Traditional / cultural practices
Level of female emancipation
Number of migrant workers
Government policies
Accept rich / poor country approach but no credit for obverse comments.

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6 (a) (i) Fairly answered. The interpretation of a population pyramid is satisfactory.
Candidates were able to correctly compare the structures of the two settlements.
Expected answers:
Greater numbers / percentages in rural areas
Rural areas have a greater dependent population
Rural areas have more children / wider base to pyramid
Rural areas have more people over 60 years / old
Higher proportion of young adults in urban areas
Adults form higher proportion of population in urban area
Allow alternative statements
(ii) Fairly answered. The majority of the candidates gave reasons for rural-urban migration / push
and pull factors and scored 2 out of 4 marks.
Expected answers:
Pull / push factors to 2 marks
More live in rural areas – farming
More live in rural areas because of villages
Drift of young adults to town / rural to urban migration / urbanisation
Young / old left in rural areas
Fewer children in urban areas because more people use birth control
Fewer children in rural areas – tradition / culture
(iii) Fairly answered. Many candidates only scored a mark for 'food shortages'.
Expected answers:
Lack of young adult workers
Large dependent population
Cost of medical facilities
Cost of / need for more schools
Food shortages
Underemployment / businesses / services close down
Limited / lack of food production
Lack of water / inadequate water provision
Limited (municipal) services
(b) (i) Well answered.

Expected answers:
Housing-low in Central Business District CBD / increases to suburbs
Shops / offices – highest in CBD / decreases outwards
Manufacturing – highest in inner city / low in CBD / higher in outer suburbs
(ii) Poorly answered. Candidates show little in-depth knowledge of various land uses in an urban area.
Expected answers:
Reasons
Housing
Cheaper land in suburbs
High cost of land in CBD
Room for expansion in suburbs
Competition with other land users in CBD
Shops / offices better able to pay high rents
Suburbs away from congestion
Suburbs away from pollution res. 1
Shops / Offices
CBD communications centre (for shoppers / workforce) / highest variety / number of shops
Need for central position / accessibility
Sphere of influence ‒ whole town and beyond res. 1

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Manufacturing
Historical reasons for manufacturing in inner city / older industries max 1
Newer industries in suburbs
Industrial estates / zones in suburbs
Near labour force in suburbs
Away from congestion of CBD
CBD land price too high
Congestion in CBD / makes transport difficult res. 1
One (1) mark for CBD, one (1) mark for inner city and one (1) mark for outer suburbs.
(c) Poorly answered. Many candidates found this question difficult. Answers demonstrated limited
knowledge. Few scored a mark for ‘accessibility’, different land values and infrastructure
requirements. Most candidates could not develop their points.
Expected answers:
Differences in cost of land / rent
Accessibility
Infrastructure requirements – roads, power, etc. for industry
Historical development
Development of public transport
Increased ownership of cars
Modern planning to separate areas
Political influences
POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS:
1 It is apparent that some centres enrol all their candidates on Higher Level. Teachers should note that
candidates have different capabilities and should advise them to choose the appropriate level.
2 Part-time centres should teach their candidates to read the instructions on the question paper. Rubric
errors were predominant at these centres.
3 Teachers should emphasise and make sure that candidates are familiar with command words used, and
that they know how to respond to these in the correct way to score marks. Many candidates struggled
when questions required comparisons to be made. Candidates should be taught to use words ending in
’er’, such as ʻmore/lessʼ, ʻbetter /worseʼ, ʻhigher/lowerʼ, ʻfaster/slowerʼ, or the words ‘whereas’ or ‘than’ in
such answers to achieve comparative.
5 Candidates should be taught to identify trends and patterns.
6 Local Case Studies used were particularly pleasing, e.g. Ruacana Hydro-Electric Power Scheme.
7 Teachers should emphasise a blend of case studies to broaden the candidates’ knowledge on the
subject matter. All questions that required examples were poorly answered, except for the one on the
HEP scheme.

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8330
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
• Many candidates did not follow the instructions on the cover page.
• Many candidates struggled with questions that required comparisons. Teach candidates how to answer these
questions.
• Candidates did not know all the work in the syllabus.
• Candidates often only read sections of questions, in stead of whole questions, instead of whole questions. They
could therefore not score marks in those questions.
• Candidates did not know how to respond to the different command words in the questions.
• When questions required candidates to give examples, they failed to do so and therefore did not score marks.
• Candidates could not identify and describe patterns and trends.
1 (a) (i) Fairly answered, but learners failed to explain the distribution of vegetation zones in relation to
'temperature changes with height' to earn full marks.
Take Note:
Map of rainfall distribution explains distribution in part, but reference to temperature changes with height
is essential for a full answer.
The description of the vegetation zone distribution required more than the repetition of the information
given in Fig. 1. There should be a balance between description and reasons 4/4 3/5/ 5/3.
Expected answers:
0 – 2200 SE – 3000 NW – savannah, warmer, at lower altitudes, more rainfall - 750 – 1499 mm – over
2500 mm
3100 m NW – 3100 m SW – forest/ lower altitudes, warmer, more rainfall of over 1500 – 2499 mm
From 3200 m – 3600 is heathland zone, ‒ tolerant to night frost, with lower temperatures
Soil barren/infertile soil/slightly longer growing season – permafrost
From 3700 – 4400 m alpine ‒ no trees, short grasses due to lower temperatures during winter/snow
periods
During summer, snow melt produces moisture for grasses and flowering plants
Shorter growing season

From 4400 – 5000 m rainfall lower – 750 mm
Due to higher altitudes and lower temperatures, lichens only survive in rocks and ice – top soil permanently
frozen
Description on altitude/meters above sea level/amount of rainfall stated in Fig. 1) – rainfall for
Savannah and Forest
NB: Rain plays no role in the heartland, Alpine and Lichen zones
(ii) Poorly answered, candidates could not suggest why the forest zone extends broader lower
down the mountain in the south and south-east. Candidates were supposed to indicate that
this was due to higher (more) rainfall.
A simple explanation in terms of prevailing winds from SE/wind from sea/Indian Ocean, therefore much
more rainfall to SE of mountains than to the N and NW where there is a rain shadow.
Warm, moist air rising – orographic/relief rainfall

Air descends on leeward side ‒ wind dry, evaporation faster since air is descending

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(b) Poorly answered. Candidates could not highlight the present day human activities and their influences
on the natural vegetation of the Savannah grasslands. Most candidates only gave human activities.
ʻOvergrazingʼ alone was rejected as an answer, since the ʻovergrazingʼ was not specified. Few
candidates scored marks for stating that ‘trees are being cut down for building materials’.
Expected answers:
Increased population – more land needed for settlement
More food needed – more land needs to be cleared
Leading to total loss of grassland
People’s traditional ways of living/building materials
Removal of trees resulting in deforestation
Normal herders with many cattle
Reduction of natural grass species
Regrowth of grass only in seasons with sufficient rainfall
Irrigation in times of insufficient rainfall
Increased salinity of soil resulting in loss of vegetation
Planting of traditional food products with limited money and machinery/subsistence/ monoculture
Ineffective fertilisation, resulting in loss of land/applying fertiliser in wet season
Nomadic farming in grassland areas – slash and burn – removal of vegetation, leaving behind poor soil
The soil incapable of sustaining new grass and tree growth
NB: Only human activities without influences = Max 2 marks
(c) Poorly answered. Candidates were expected to suggest sustainable methods that would allow
people to continue using the natural environment for economic activities without damaging it. A
few candidates scored marks for suggesting agro-forestry, eco-tourism and the use of renewable
rather than non-renewable energy sources, etc. Candidates were expected to suggest solutions
(sustainable) with reference to: mining, industry, urbanisation, agriculture, tourism.
Expected answers:
Agricultural practices such as burning/slash and burn and over-grazing combined with to natural causes has
led to the Destruction of natural grassland and
Encroachment of semi-desert and desert – farming practices.
Credit examples of areas affected, e.g., Sahel. (Max 2)
Could also refer to development of

Mining – low impact mining technology, rehabilitation of mining sites, re-using of mining waste
Industry ‒ replace heavy industries with high-tech industries, use brown-belt areas, use renewable energy,
use scrubbers
Urbanisation – use aspect when building (warmer/colder slopes), create greenbelt sites, encourage public
transport, electric/hybrid cars, fast trains
Agriculture use of fertilisers and chemicals, organic, intercropping, mixed cropping, integrated pest
management, biological pest control the planting of different species.
Agroforestry
Tourism – eco-tourism
2 (a) (i) Poorly answered. Most candidates identified the feature as a cliff/cliff face.
The majority of the candidates scored 0 marks.
Expected answers:
- Back scar, free face.
(ii) Poorly answered. Candidates identified the feature as a land mass.
Expected answers:
- Slumped mass, toe, lobe
(iii) Poorly answered. A few candidates scored a mark for identifying it as a landslide/rotational slide.
Expected answers:
- Slump, rotational slide, landslide.

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(b) Fairly answered. Most candidates were able to describe that the lobe generally will become steeper.
However, candidates were expected to describe the effects of mass movement on the slope shape.
Expected answers:
A variety of points could be made ‒ the following should therefore not be too prescriptive:
There is a complete change with a steepening of the slope to create the back scar. A shallowing of the angle
in the slumped mass and an extension of the slope at the base could result from sheer strength being reduced
or sheer stress being increased. Much could be expressed in an accurate diagram.
Generally steep; back scar – steep; gradual – slumped mass; extension more gradual at base
(c) Poorly answered.

Expected answers:
The main explanation will probably be in terms of increase in moisture producing greater weight and, hopefully,
increased lubrication or decreased strength along a slip plane or failure surface. Undercutting by the sea is
another possibility. For good marks there should be good understanding of the processes.
No marks for trees
Increased moisture
Increased weight
Increased lubrication/decreased strength
Under-cutting by sea (base)
Mass unsupported/collapse
Slope failure
(d) Well answered. Candidates were able to describe how vegetation is adapted to survive in hot and
arid environments. Marks were awarded for vegetation features listed and for how plants use those
features to survive in hot, arid areas.
Expected answers:
Grasses, cacti, thorny trees and bushes.

Candidates were not expected to name the species (though credit if they do). They should be able to
explain the adaptions of phreatophytes (e.g. grasses and perhaps bushes) with their long root systems.
Cacti show water retention qualities as well as xerophytic adaptions of leaves and thorns, etc. Better
answers may also refer to the development of seeds that can withstand long periods of dormancy and the
alkaline toxins found in some plants and stems.
Examples:
Plants generally are drought resistant – No marks
Roots: taproots/bulbous roots/adventitious or shallow – absorb water Max 2
Leaves: small/shiny/fleshy/thorn-like/etc. – retain water Max 2
Grasses: Grow quickly – rain/flower/produce seeds
During winter ‒ wither and die / seeds lie dormant until next rain
Toxins in some plants and stems – protect against animal onslaught

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(e) Poorly answered. Candidates struggled to interpret the question. They were expected to make
references to named areas of (a) an arid or (b) semi-arid environment. Candidates could not establish
the challenges such areas are faced with, in general, or in relation to the examples they provided.
Candidates were expected to evaluate the successes of the attempted solutions to the problems identified in
such areas.
Expected answers:
The problems stem mainly from the climate in both environments.
Insufficient/ unreliable/low rainfall

Extended droughts are followed on occasions by excessive rainfall.
Sparse vegetation (for grazing)
Soils lacking structure/ low in nutrients.
In the semi-arid case, better soils may have suffered desertification from a history of overgrazing/ over-
cropping/ deforestation for fuel, or
Salt encrustation from inappropriate/widespread irrigation methods.
In both environments the traditional ‘sustainable management’ has been nomadic pastoralism. However,
today, but ʻsustainable managementʼ has to meet rising population pressures.
Large resources of fossil water may exist at depth/ as may mineral wealth, but environmental problems
(extreme hot or cold) have acted against their exploitation.
In many cases development is hindered by a lack of organised government controls/ resources.

Economic and social problems should not be overstated, but deserve mention when solutions are discussed.
The second demand to evaluate solutions should be firmly based on specific examples and not on
generalisations of improbable or unfeasible scenarios.
Well-presented and evaluated cases may come from MEDCs such as Israel and some Gulf States with highly
sophisticated irrigation systems. Desalinisation of sea water, etc.
In much of Africa and other LEDC, solutions may depend on basic changes to practices such as paddocking
of livestock/rotational grazing, crop rotation, introduction of drip irrigation from rainwater harvesting,
deepening of wells to tap fossil water.
Ecotourism may feature, including that related to game reserves, but sustainable management should
always be considered in the evaluation.
Problems presented should be accurately covered. Attempted solutions should be suggested and
evaluated. At least one well-developed example must be provided.
3 (a) Poorly answered. Most candidates failed to give the correct answers and examples.
Most gave attempts by government to encourage farming instead of manufacturing industries. Similarly,
they failed to link answers on manufacturing industries to LEDCs.
Expected answers:
Provision of grants/loans/subsidies
Provision of suitable sites/premises/industrial estates
Provision of infrastructure
Provision of technical facilities, technical location
Tax concessions to new or overseas companies
Customs unions
Tariffs against imported goods
Freeport facilities
Invite/encourage specialised professionals to provide training inside country
Encourage further studies with local/technical training
Reserve 2 marks for good use of examples/ e.g. Namibians to attend South African Technical Institutions.

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(b) Poorly answered.
Expected answers:
Low purchasing power/low exchange rates/cannot buy due to lower monetary value of currencies
Lack of capital for infrastructure, power, transport
Poorly or unskilled labour/ managerial skills
Lack of technology/machines/computers/ technical skills/training
Lack of marketing ‘muscle’/marketing ability
Reserve 2 marks for good use of examples.

Question asks ‘explain how’ so look for reasoning for good marks.
(c) Fairly answered. Most candidates did not use the diagram to answer the question, hence failed
to apply answers to the given situation. Some gave general hazards caused by the production of
energy instead of answers relatively to alternative fuels and refineries.
Expected answers:
Problems can be dealt with together
Oil industries have environmental problems/air pollution from burning of waste gases leaking wells may
cause water pollution dumping of waste materials causes’ water pollution
Danger of explosions in refinery, blow-outs – both human/environmental effects
Export of oil by sea or pipeline/transporting by oil tankers/ships – oil spills/run risk of leaking – effects on
marine life, birds, mangrove swamps
Hazards incurred to workers on offshore wells/deaths/injuries (e.g. fires)
Look for reasoned discussions and good but not exhaustive range of problems.
Guidelines:
• Pipelines – Alaska, difficult to lay – permafrost/frozen ground
• Pipelines difficult to maintain – disputes/weather conditions
• Pipelines under the sea – environmental problems
• Air pollution – burning of waste
• Water pollution – gases from oil wells leaking/dumping of waste
• Explosions from oil refineries/oil rigs – environmental hazards
• Oil leaks from ships/pipelines – water pollution – marine animals
• Oil rigs and offshore workers endangered / fires/ rough seas
(d) Fairly answered. A few candidates gave the correct limitations of generating electricity from
alternative sources, however, most could not distinguish between alternative and non-alternative
energy sources.
Expected answers:
Newer energy sources cannot yet meet demands
Some in early stages of development
Limited technology
Expense of development
HEP/Solar limited by siting factors/wind also present some problems
Tidal confined to coastal areas
Geothermal to volcanic regions
Problems with transmission
Much of industry/transport geared to using fossil fuels
Nuclear waste a problem

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4 (a) Fairly answered. Most of the candidates managed to explain why Northern Nigeria had water supply
problems using the information on the diagram. However, candidates gave general reasons for water
supply problems that could not be linked to or derived from the diagram, e.g., no money to build dams/
no money to import water from nearby countries.
Expected answers:
Note that the answer is not entirely based on the diagrammatic material provided.
Expect reference to a variety of comments on rainfall such as
Total annual rainfall
Amount of rain
Seasonal nature of rainfall
Unreliability of rainfall
Varying annual totals
Reference should also be made to high temperatures exacerbated by drying winds causing high evaporation.
Comments may also be made on the nature of the land surface.
(b) (i) Well answered. Candidates could identify the correct sources of water from the diagram.
Expected answers:
Main comments should be about the contrast between surface and underground supply with details
from the resource.
Guidelines:
• North – less surface water/south – more surface water
• North – more ground water/south very – little/no ground water
• Rivers – from south drain to north
• North – only boreholes and wells
• South – only dams
• Largest dam – Tega dam
(ii) Fairly answered. Candidates managed to give advantages and disadvantages of water sources
(dam, borehole, wells). However, some candidates gave general statements without specifying
which sources the advantages were referring to.
Expected answers:
Advantages and disadvantages will include:
Comments on cost, (building dams costs more than drilling boreholes)
Cleanliness, (dams pollute more, boreholes cleaner)
Salinity, (borehole water much saltier)
Evaporation, (more evaporation from dams than boreholes)
Seepage (occurs more in dams than boreholes)
Problem of land flooding
Water in boreholes can be exhausted, not likely to happen with dams
Rivers and the dams into which they run can be polluted

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(c) (i) Fairly answered. Most candidates managed to name barriers to increasing renewable sources
of energy in LEDCs, however some candidates gave statements that could not be associated
with LEDCs.
Examples of poor answers:
• LEDCs don’t receive enough rainfall
• LEDCs don’t receive enough sunshine
• There are poor people in LEDCs
Expected answers:
Setting up costs are high
Electricity grid – needs expanding
Needs continuous sun
Needs to be in areas with prevailing winds
Needs running rivers
Countries do not always have the money / the technology available / technical knowledge / skills/
training
Ignorance
Many developing countries involved in wars
Corrupt governments
Natural disasters (tsunamis, earthquakes - HEP)
(ii) Fairly answered. Most candidates managed to score some marks. Candidates gave short
statements without outlining the main environmental problems caused.
Expected answers:
No marks for agreeing or disagreeing but arguments should correlate with agreements or
disagreements:
Take into consideration facts like:

Increased temperature/warmer
Increased carbon dioxide increased in greenhouse gases
Global warming
Flooding‒ice caps melting/lower lying areas/coastal areas
Increased flooding in other areas/inland
Growing seasonal changes/longer/more intense
Industrial pollution in rivers and lakes
Increased acid rain
Consequences of acid rain
Ozone layer – explanation
Lower pH in rivers and lakes affects animals
Makes soil more acidic – affects vegetation growth

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5 This question was poorly answered. Candidates had no idea of the content of the topic, therefore,
misread questions.
(a) (i) Poorly answered. Candidates did not describe the differences between the two areas.
Candidates had to compare the characteristics for Area X with that of Area Y. Candidates only
described one of the two areas.
Incorrect answers:
• Area X substandard cheap material used
• Area Y more open spaces between buildings
• Reference to the colour of the houses
• Reference to the age to the houses
• Reference to the amount of cars in the streets
Expected answers:
Area X - mixture of material used
- unplanned
- population pressure on land
- intensive use of space / land
- semi – permanent housing, ability of residents to pay,
- possibly more social problems
- more overcrowding/lack of privacy
- unfinished Informal housing
Area Y - more uniform in building set-up/similar buildings

- permanent housing
- very dense
- planned
- properly finished
- formal housing
- less intense use of space / land
(ii) Poorly answered. Candidates did not read the question properly. They needed to compare the
two areas.
Incorrect answers:
Area X poor, unemployed people
Area Y richer, higher income people
Reference to government not supplying services in the area.
Expected answers:
Population pressure on land/demand for housing exceeds supply
Intensive use of land/many houses crowded into small areas.
Residents not able to pay (X) / Residents able to pay (Y)
Close to areas of work / informal jobs (X) / paid jobs/possible transport availability (Y)
Age of housing (X older/Y newer) dev.
Developers clearing slums to build new housing in X
(iii) Fairly answered. Candidates could, in general, refer to problems in the area.
Incorrect answers:
Traffic congestion
Fewer municipal services available
Reference to pollution
Unemployment
Expected answers:
Possible social problems / or examples: crime / prostitution/ drugs (max. 2)
Both areas overcrowded / area X more/Y less crowded
Both areas lack of privacy/less so in Y
Area X – health problems
Area Y – far from work – transport problems/ X closer

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(b) (i) Poorly answered. Candidates did not use examples as required by question.
Candidates referred to the characteristics instead of the problems.
In order to attain marks candidates had to give examples. No examples, no marks.
Candidates also neglected to mention the differences. These societies have different people with
different characteristics.
Answers should include reference to particular examples which might be rewarded.
Expected answers:
Characteristics
Different races
Different Language / difficult to understands communicate
Different Tribes / Traditions / Ethnicities
Different Religions
Different colours
Government policies (South Africa / Namibia)
Social status (rich vs. poor)
Different cultures
Historical backgrounds / different places
Problems
No respect for other religions/ cultures
Misunderstandings lead to conflict
Fanaticism creates conflict
Racism leads to intolerance and misunderstandings/killings
Religions are stereotyped – this creates clashes
5 characteristics + 2 problems
Problems will depend on the examples selected, as will the possible solutions.
No examples no marks.
(ii) Poorly answered.
Candidates did not provide relevant solutions.
Incorrect answers:
Solutions should depend on problem stated / described
Develop new types of ethnic nationality – cross – racial marriages
Develop new types of fundamentalism -
Economic development in neglected groups
Government policies
Law against xenophobia/killings
Education/talks/radio discussions on tolerance
6 (a) Answered fairly well. Candidates did not read the questions, which stated that the pyramid shows
internal migrant populations. Candidates referred to each age group stating the percentages
shown. Candidates must learn to respond to the command words in the questions.
Expected answers:
The imbalance of male and female numbers
Concentration of migrants in the working age group
Especially ages 20-39.
Small numbers of children reflect separation of families with migrants
Largely confined to young men either unmarried
Leaving wife and children behind - married
Migration not attractive to older age groups

190
(b) (i) Answered well. Candidates could discuss factors that attract people to the city.
Candidates had to give both push and pull factors. Many only focused on one of the two.
Common incorrect answers:

Better municipal services
To be closer to family and friends
Better shops/ services
Medical care
Candidates had to indicate an improvement. Some only stated 'medical, education, living standard', etc.
without the improvement.
Expected answers:
Concentration should be on pull factors rather than push factors.
Suggestion such as employment opportunities
Better living standards
More exciting social life would be relevant/entertainment
Tertiary education/better schools
Better medical facilities
better salaries
It is imperative that candidates show an improvement in lives of migrants to score marks.

If only push factors are mentioned = max. 3
No mark for example of place.
(ii) Answered well. Candidates could describe the problems.

Traffic congestion
Spread of diseases
Housing shortages
Water shortages
Candidates had to emphasise increased or limited.

Expected answers:
Credit example to max. 1
Variety of problems largely concerned with:
Over-population/over-crowding
Unemployment
Shanty towns/informal settlements (increase)
Lack of services and facilities/pressure on services (water, electricity, hospitals, schools, etc.)
Low health standards
Development of crime/prostitution/social problems
Limited/lack of income
Increased pollution/air/water/environmental
Overcrowded schools/hospitals
Housing shortages
Traffic congestion/ taking longer to drive shorter distances

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(c) Poorly answered. Candidates did not read the question carefully. Candidates did not comprehend
that the area was overpopulated and therefore, people migrated out of the city, causing a decrease in
population.
Area became overpopulated/overcrowded
Problems associated with overcrowded area
Food shortages
Area underdeveloped
More job opportunities
Higher birth rates
Many candidates did not give examples as required, therefore, scored no marks.
Expected answers:
Expect reference to be made to:
Decentralisation - moving of industries/shops closing
Agricultural production dropping
Birth rate decreasing
Lack of/less development
Reference to an ageing population and a very high dependency ratio/more aged people than economically
active people
Less agriculture relief to exhausted soil
Reduction in unemployment
Specialisation in farming – change from subsistence to cash crops
Relief in services to be provided
Answer must be linked to example.
7 (a) (i) Very poorly answered. Candidates did not know how to determine the minutes and seconds.
They also omitted the longitude and latitude.
Expected answer:
27°00ʹ29-31ʺS, 29°52ʹ9-11ʺE
1 mark = latitude
1 mark = longitude
1 mark = E and S
(ii) Fairly answered. Many candidates could work out the horizontal difference but struggled with
vertical height calculation and converting it into a ratio format.
Expected answer.
Vertical Height = 1721-1685 = 36 m
Horizontal Distance = 148mm × 0.05km = 7400m
Gradient = HD/VH = 36/7400
= 1 : 206
(b) (i) Poorly answered. Candidates did not know how to read the map.
Expected answer:
Orchards/vineyards/cultivation/irrigation farming
(ii) Well answered by most candidates.
Expected answers:
Irrigation (windmills/reservoirs/furrows/silos)
Flat land suitable for growing vines/fruit trees/crops
Roads for transporting fruit/produce to market
Perennial rivers/perennial water (irrigation)

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(c) Poorly answered. Candidates must use concepts like: on, away from, along, mostly, etc.
Many candidates confused the area with the town.
Expected answers:
Mostly dispersed
Mostly along other roads
Away from non-perennial rivers
Away from non-perennial water
Mostly on cultivated land
Away from sand excavation area
On lower lying land
On gentle sloping land
Away from perennial river
(d) Poorly answered. The question required candidates to indicate to what extent relief and drainage
influenced the distribution of cultivated land. They used common knowledge and only a very small
number attained marks. All map work answers must be obtained from the map. Marks will not be
awarded for general knowledge.
Expected answers:
Relief has a greater influence than drainage
Most of the area is on lower lying land – overall cultivation
Most of the area is gently sloped – overall cultivation
In some areas (central) the land is slightly higher/steeper – no/very little cultivation
Drainage appears not to have any/very little influence on cultivation

Cultivated areas are not close to perennial water/rivers
Cultivated areas are not close to non-perennial waters/rivers
Cultivated areas are not close to marsh and vlei areas
(e) Poorly answered. Candidates did not read the question carefully or did not comprehend the question.
No roads
No railways
No mining
Few services
Reference to the pollution impact of industries on cultivated land (general knowledge)
Candidates did not take into account that the area has roads and electricity, these are simply not enough to
encourage industrial development.
Expected answers:
Area mostly composed of farming areas/farms
Workers could live on farmland away from towns
Farms appear to be relatively large, e.g. Daggakraal, Vlakplaats
A few silos – linked to farming
Although there are roads and railways – no indication of industrial development
Development could have been influenced by the power line but it runs close to larger farms
The town of Amersfoort is relatively small/few people/few possible workers
Few arterial routes
Railway lines not extensive enough
Mining on a small scale

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1 It became apparent that some centres enrol all their candidates on Higher Level. Teachers should note
that candidates have different capabilities and should differentiate between candidates and recommend
to them that they choose the correct level.
2 Part-time centres should coach their candidates to read the instructions on the question paper. Rubric
errors were predominantly from these centres.
3 Teachers should make sure that candidates are familiar with command words used, and should teach
them to respond to these in the correct way to score marks. Many candidates struggled with questions
which required comparisons to be made. Candidates should be taught to use words ending in ’er’, or the
words ‘whereas’ or ‘than’ in such answers to achieve comparisons.
4 Candidates should be taught to identify trends and patterns.
5 Teachers should expose candidates to a blend of case studies, emphasing the importance of varied
case studies to broaden their knowledge on all subject matter. All the questions that required examples
to be cited were poorly answered.

194
8330
Paper 3
GENERAL COMMENTS
Overall the candidates’ performance was poorer than in the previous year. The majority of candidates scored below
average, in the range of 15 - 25 marks out of a total of 60 marks.
Candidates generally coped well with questions set on knowledge with understanding and analysis of geographical data/
information. However, most of the candidates misinterpreted several questions and could not relate to the command
words/terms. These command words are used in questions specifically because they relate directly to the assessment
objectives. It is evident that the majority of the candidates experienced problems with questions set on the methodology
of geographical enquiry. Skills and techniques to conduct traffic counts and observations on land-use were found to
be challenging.
The following common errors displayed by the candidates contributed greatly to the candidates poor performance.
• Inability by many candidates to make comparative analyse of shopping centres with regard to size, range of
services and accessibility.
• Limited knowledge to describe and explain appropriate methods for the collection of data including, for example,
instructions to recorders relating to the collection of data for a traffic count.
• The inability to use illustrative techniques to present data in different types of graphs e.g. divided bar graphs.
• The inability to determine the inter-relationships of physical occurrences such as pebble sizes and shapes along
coastal areas
• Inadequate knowledge of the methodology needed to measure and calculate cliff height.
1 (a) (i) Not well answered by most of the candidates, since most were only able to score 4 marks.
Some candidates failed to make specific reference to the quantity and the location of the
services in relation to the main roads and the Central Business District (CBD).
Expected answers:
Department stores
• Fewer
• In CBD
• Around major road junction
• In centre of CBD
Banks
• Mainly (five) in CBD
• Other three along main roads
• In suburbs
Shoe shops
• All in CBD
• Spread out within CBD
• Five along the main north-south road
(ii) Not well answered. Most of the candidates were only able to score 1 or 2 marks, providing
descriptive answers instead of reasons for the differences and similarities for the location of the
respective services.
Expected answers:
Similarities
• All/ mostly in the CBD – need for accessibility
• Large sphere of influence
• Costliest land in the centre of the CBD – other services could not afford this location
Differences
• Few department stores – need large sphere of influence
• Department stores at centre of CBD – need for central/focus point
• Banks lower order services than other two

195
• Three banks located outside CBD along main roads – accessibility
• Banks in suburbs – large number live there
• Banks in suburban shopping areas
(b) (i) Most of the candidates were able to obtain 4 out of 6 marks. Some candidates failed to follow
the instructions to plot the data on the graph as X and Y, instead dots were used.
Correct plotting of the graph:
(ii) Most candidates could only obtain 1 out of 2 marks by identifying the higher order service
correctly. Most candidates could not provide a sufficient reason for the selected service choice.
Expected answers:
• Fewer ‒ need a larger sphere of influence
• Shoe shops – infrequently used – specialised goods
• Banks are frequently used – convenience
(c) Many candidates were only able to obtain 1 out of the 2 marks. Most candidates interpreted the radial
graphs incorrectly by not making use of the key provided. Some candidates did not use comparative
terms to describe the differences of the shopping journeys between the two towns.
Expected answers:
• Town M – larger sphere of influence
• Longer journey to town M
• Town M journeys to the east limited by the coastline
• Some competition/overlap
• Town M larger number of smaller settlements/ M = 11 smaller settlements and N = 10 smaller
settlements
(d) Well answered by most of the candidates. Many candidates could suggest appropriate reasons.
Expected answers:
• Maybe larger town – more choices
• More variety
• Higher order goods
• Combined shopping with other reasons for visiting town
• Cost of items purchased

196
2 (a) (i) Most candidates do not possess the knowledge to describe and explain appropriate methods
for the collection of data. The candidates could not answer the question correctly by referring
to the three main roads (I, II and III) in Town M (Fig. 1A) to explain the selection of collection
points for the traffic count. General descriptive answers were provided e.g. next to the main
road / at traffic lights.
Expected answers:
• Near junctions of main roads in CBD
• But away from crossroads – confusing traffic patterns
• Edges of CBD
• Spaced along roads to town boundary
• Especially near junction with feeder roads
• Safety considerations
(ii) Most candidates were only able to obtain 1 out of 2 possible marks. Most candidates could
answer the question correctly by stating the instructions recorders would need (relating to the
group tasks, location and time slots) to collect the data.
Expected answers:
• Selection of weekdays
• Times – rush hours and other times
• Locations for students along the roads
• Student groupings
(iii) Well answered by most candidates. Many candidates could score 4 and more marks by
describing the correct sections needed for a recording sheet/tally sheet.
Expected answers:
• Position of count
• Date
• Time/duration – 30 minutes
• Traffic types – trucks & others (e.g. cars, motorbikes, vans, buses)
• Traffic going into town
• Traffic going out of town
• Tally system for recording
(iv) Average performance by most of the candidates, as the candidates could only obtain 2 out of a
possible 4 marks. Many candidates described the calculation of the data and the use of graphs
to present the data. However, most of them were not able to analyse the data and to draw
conclusions from the data collection.
Expected answers:
• Work out totals, averages
• Use diagrams for comparisons e.g. pie charts, line graphs, bar graphs, flow lines
• Compare rush hour traffic with other times
• Compare movement of trucks at rush hour and other times
• Test results against hypotheses
(b) Poorly answered by the majority of the candidates as many candidates could not give an example of
a divided bar graph based on the instructions requested. Most candidates drew a simple bar graph
with no appropriate scale and without a key which specified the types of traffic.
Requirements for the divided bar graph:
Show definition of divided bar graph
Scale
Key
Trucks and others
Into and out of town
Different times

197
3 (a) Average performance by most candidates by labelling 3 to 4 correct features of the cliff and the
coastline. Some candidates incorrectly labelled other aspects such as the waves or the vegetation.
Expected answers:
• Steep cliff
• Notch
• Wave cut platform
• Bedding in cliff face
• Thicker beds alternate with thinner beds
• Overhang beds
• Joints
• Cliff fall
• Large rocks accumulated at the base of cliff/ scree
• Beach material at base
• Smaller beach material / pebbles/ away from base of cliff
• Cave
(b) Poorly answered. Many candidates were only able to score one mark by indicating the instruments
needed to measure the cliff height. Most candidates were not able to describe the calculation needed
to determine the cliff height.
Expected answers:
• Chain / measuring tape
• Clinometer
• Measure distance from cliff to observation point on beach and read the angle on clinometer
• Cliff height = distance x tan (angle)
• + Height of person using instrument from ground
(c) (i) Well answered by most candidates, although some were not able to describe the pebble size
and shape changes across the beach by using both Fig. 4A and Fig. 4B.
Expected answer:
• Average pebble lengths increase towards cliff
• Roundness increases towards the see
(ii) Poorly answered. Many candidates provided descriptive answers instead of providing reasons
for the changes in pebble size and shape between the beach and the cliff.
Expected answers:
• More attrition of beach material nearer to the sea
• Upper part of beach probably not covered by high tide
• New material at top of beach from cliff erosion

• Based on the responses of most candidates, it is evident that candidates are only taught the theoretical methodologies
of the prescribed fieldwork exercises. They are given very few source-based worksheets or activities. Therefore,
teachers are advised to expose candidates as much as possible to real fieldwork exercises or simulation sheets /
practical sheets,supplemented by audio-visual material. This will greatly improve candidates' grasp of methodologies
used for particular field work exercises.
• Teachers should not only rely on past examination question papers for assessment and revision purposes. Teachers
can use past examination data, tables, diagrams, etc. to create their own unique worksheets, and practice-based
sources to enhance their teaching.
• Teachers should get candidates to practise the skills of describing data and identifying patterns and trends, instead
of allowing them to describe the data piece by piece (lifting). If regularly exposed to such exercises, candidates will
soon develop the skills to analyse data from tables, graphs and diagrams sufficiently to meet the requirements of
examination questions.
• Teachers are advised to illustrate to their candidates, how to identify the command words in each question, as to
relate to assessment objectives required in the questions.

198
HISTORY
8331
Paper 1
General comments
Good answers were able to demonstrate sound factual knowledge of both International relations and the history of
Southern Africa and Namibia for which they had been prepared. However, a small number of candidates wrote very
lengthy answers to part (a) Questions, which resulted in them having insufficient time to fully develop their answers to
part (c) Questions.
SECTION A: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS, 1919 - 1939.
1 (a) Poorly answered, most candidates concentrated on the Treaty of Versailles and misunderstood the question.
Describe how the Peace Treaties at the end of the First World War changed the balance of power in Europe.
Level 1: General answer

Many countries had been involved in the war. [1-2]
Level 2: Specific answers

It caused the breakup of the Austro-Hungarian Empire and Ottoman Empire. These empires had
ruled many different national groups and these different national groups demanded independence.
This was a growth of the nationalism.
The growth in nationalism was also seen in the African and Asian colonies. People from the
colonies had fought in the war but they began protesting colonial rule. Some countries gained
democratic government.
NB: One mark per valid point starting at 2 marks. Each point to be awarded an extra mark [2-6]
(b) Fairly answered, most candidates were able to identify the reasons but few managed to explain.
Explain why the French and British people demanded a harsh treaty for Germany.

They felt Germany deserved to be treated harsh.
Level 2: Identifies reasons

Germany was responsible for the war. [2-4]
Level 3: Explain one or more reasons

The people of Britain and France felt that Germany was responsible for the war and should be
punished. They felt that Germany should pay for all the damage and destruction caused by the
war. The economies and industries were in a bad state, particularly Britain and France. Millions
of young men on both sides had died, ordinary civilians had faced food shortages and villages and
towns in large areas of Belgium and France had been completely destroyed.
Their purpose was to ensure that Germany would never again threaten the peace of Europe.
One explanation L3/5-6
Two explanations L3/7
Three explanations L3/8
Four explanations L3/9 [5-9]
(c) Fairly answered, the majority of candidates were able to reach maximum identification level. But
only few could explain.
‘President Woodrow Wilson was satisfied with the terms of the Treaty of Versailles’. How far do you agree
with the statement?

He was satisfied [1]

199
Level 2: Identifies relevant facts for one side
League of Nations was established in the 1920.
Some countries in Europe got their independence. [2-3]
Level 3: Identifies relevant facts for both sides

Germany was punished harsh and forced to pay reparation.
Not all of his fourteen Points adopted. [4]
Level 4: Explains reasons for one side

Woodrow Wilson was satisfied by the Treaty of Versailles because he wanted to build a better and
more peaceful world, therefore his idea of setting up an international organization the League of
Nations was accepted and it was established in January 1920. Alsace-Lorraine was returned back
to France and some nationalities got their independence from empires. [5-7]
Level 5: Explains reasons for both sides

Level 4 + Woodrow Wilson did not get all of his fourteen points adopted. He wanted Germany
to be punished but did not want to make Germany to pay for damages because he knew that if
Germany was treated harshly, it would recover and seek revenge some days. But Clemenceau
was determined to break down Germany’s power and to guarantee the future security of France.
The other thing was that one of his fourteen points which was all the countries should be free to
navigate the sea was not supported. [7-9]
Level 6: Level 5 + a valid conclusion. [10]
2 (a) Fairly answered, most candidates could identify ways but mixed them with the aims of the League
of Nations.
Describe ways in which the League of Nations hoped to prevent future wars from taking place. [6]

To fight
By discussing [1-2]

The League of Nations gave all members equal voting rights to ensure that all received the same
treatment. The League of Nations tried to maintain peace settlements to discourage aggressors.
They publicly condemned aggressors in order to discourage them. They promoted collective security
to unite all members to work together. They imposed economic sanctions on aggressors by asking
all member states to impose sanction on the aggressor to weaken it economically. They organized
the Disarmament Conference to encourage countries to disarm to make the world a better place to
promote peace and security.
One mark per valid point starting at 2 marks. Each point to be awarded an extra mark [2-6]
(b) It was well answered as most candidates could explain why the Super Powers did not join the League
of Nations.
Explain why Russia, Germany and USA did not join the League of Nations when it was formed in 1920.

They were not ready. [1]

Russia and Germany were not invited.
USA refused to join. [2-4]
Level 3: Explains one or more reasons.

The USA never joined. It adopted the policy of Isolation. When president Woodrow went back
after the Treaty of Versailles, the senate members rejected American involvement in European
affairs. Germany was not invited to the establishment of the League since she was a defeated
country and was regarded as a cause of the WWI. Russia was not invited because of the
communism system the country used and it was in the middle of civil war, when the Bolsheviks
came to power the attention was on the reorganization of the country.

200
(c) It was fairly answered as the majority were able to identify both sides but very few managed to explain.
‘The policy of appeasement was more important than Hitler’s foreign policy in bringing about the outbreak of
war in 1939.’ How far do you agree with this statement. Explain your answer [10]

Agree/disagree. [1]
Level 2: Identifies relevant facts one side

It gave courage to Adolf Hitler
It showed that the leading figures (Britain and France) were scared of Hitler [2-3]
Level 3: Identifies relevant facts for both sides

Hitler’s foreign policy found its basis in humiliating Versailles Treaty.
Hitler made his promise to rearm with the aim to regain and restore lost pride which, led to war. [4]
Level 4: Explains reasons for one side

A consequence of this aggressiveness on Hitler’s part was the appeasement policy of Chamberlain
who had aimed to prevent war at all costs by giving in to Hitler’s ‘reasonable’ demands. This however,
gave Hitler more appetite to demand more and more land. At Munich he promised that Sudetenland
was his last claim, but just few months later he claimed Bohemia and Moravia and then demanded
a last claim over Poland. If Britain and France had taken a stronger stance against his claim in the
first place, he would have been stopped in his tracks [5-7]

Hitler’s foreign policy found its basis in the humiliating Versailles Treaty. The resentment caused by
this Treaty never really faded away. Germans felt betrayed by the Weimar Government that signed
the Treaty, the deviation of the Treaty from Wilson’s Fourteen Points (Peace without victory), the
reduction of land, resources and population and the depletion of the army (which was a symbol of
pride and unity).
Hitler made his promise to destroy Versailles and to rearm Germany with the aim to regain and
restore lost pride. To this outbreak of the war as his thirst for territorial claims could not be quenched.
The Rhineland (1936), Austria, the Sudetenland and the attack on Poland all contributed to the
outbreak of the war. [7-9]
Level 6: Level 5 + a valid conclusion [10]
3 (a) Fairly answered, commonly candidates mentioned about preventing communist and testing weapons
but fairly described other reasons why they got involved.
Describe the involvement of Italy and Germany in the Spanish Civil War?

To help. [1-2]

Mussolini and Hitler saw the war in Spain as an opportunity to test their new weapons and military
tactics so they continued to help the Nationalities. Both Mussolini and Hitler sent soldiers to fight
for Nationalists. They all sent warplanes to bomb cities held by the Republicans. German air craft
bombed and machine gunned Guernica from five in the afternoon until a quarter to eight in the
evening.
One mark per valid point starting at 2 marks
Each point to be awarded an extra mark. [2-6]
(b) It was poorly answered, even though few candidates opted for this question and very few managed
to get maximum identifications.
Explain why France and Britain did not act when Germany invaded Rhineland in 1936.

201
They did not want. [1]

France relied on the Maginot line
France government was in political chaos
Britain believed Rhineland was part of Germany
They were still remembering the horror of the WWI. [2-4]

France relied most of all on the Maginot Line a massive concrete of underground forts and tunnels
that stretched along the whole length of its frontier with Germany. Because of this it had prepared no
plans for an advance into Germany. British were still remembered with horror the huge loss of life on
the battlefields of the WWI. So they were determining to avoid another war.
(c) Poorly answered, candidates misunderstood the question as they described the Manchurian and
Abyssinian crisises.
‘The failure of the League of Nations over Abyssinia was more important than its failure over Manchuria.’
How far do you agree with this statement? Explain your answer. [10]

Agree/Disagree [1]
Level 2: Identifies relevant facts on one side

It was clear that Britain and France were not willing to act against the Superpowers in the league.
It weakened the league tremendously when it came to light that Hoare (Britain) and Laval (France)
signed a clandestine agreement. [2-3]
Level 3: Identifies relevant facts on both sides

It led to an alliance between Hitler and Japan, which ultimately caused war.
When Japan invaded Manchuria it proved that the League couldn’t take military action.
It paved a way when Japan invaded Manchuria in 1931 for other aggressive countries to disobey
the League of Nations. [4]
Level 4: Explains one side

When Italy invaded Ethiopia in 1935, Britain and France again allowed it to happen. They reluctantly,
after a long period of time, pointed to Italy as the aggressor. It however, came to light that Hoare
(Britain) and Laval (France) signed a clandestine agreement where large portions of land were given
to Mussolini. It was clear that Britain and France were not willing to act against the superpowers in
the League and it weakened it tremendously. [5-7]
Level 5: Explains both sides

When Japan invaded Manchuria in 1931, Britain and France were reluctant to act. They did not want
to lose a powerful ally in the East and downplayed the significance of the invasion as too far to affect
Europe. This led to aggressiveness and an alliance between Hitler and Japan, which ultimately
caused the war. [7-9]

202
4 (a) Fairly answered, most candidates scored average marks.
Describe the differences over politics and economics between the USA and the USSR.

They differ. [1-2]

The USA was a democracy. Its government was chosen in free democratic elections. It was
capitalist, business and property were privately owned. American believed that other countries
should be run in American way.
Russia was a communist state. It was one party dictatorship. Elections were held but all
candidates belonged to the Communist Party. The rights of individuals were seen as less important
than the good of society as a whole. Individual’s lives were tightly controlled.
One mark per valid point starting at 2 marks.
A developed point to be awarded 2 marks
(b) Poorly answered, most of the candidates confused the disagreements at the Potsdam conference
with other Cold War events such as Yalta and Cuban missile crisis.
Explain why the USA and the USSR disagreed more at the Potsdam conference than at the Yalta
conference.

They have different political ideologies. [1]

Stalin demanded more reparations which the USA (Truman) disagreed
The Western suspicions about Soviet intentions in Eastern Europe increased.
Truman did not tell Stalin that the USA intended to drop an atomic bomb on Japan.
Western Allies concerned because USSR wanted Poland’s western frontier moved
into Germany. [2-4]
Level 3: Explains one or more reasons

Western suspicions about Soviet intention in Eastern Europe increased because in March Stalin
had invited non-communist polish leaders to Moscow and then imprisoned them. Secondly far
more Germany were to be expelled from Eastern Europe than the Western Allies (USA) had
expected. On the other hand Stalin got angry as to the motives why the USA did not tell Stalin they
intended to drop an atomic bomb on Japan.
(c) Poorly answered as most candidates failed to identify reasons on both sides.
‘The main reason why Khrushchev put missiles in Cuba was to defend Cuba from the USA’. How far do you
agree with this statement? Explain.

Agree/Disagree [1]
Level 2: Identifies relevant reasons on one side

To bargain with Cuba
To test the USA
To trap USA [2-3]
Level 3: Identifies relevant reasons on both sides

To defend Cuba
To strengthen Cuba [4]

203
Level 4: Explain reasons for one side
Khrushchev of Russia wanted the missiles as a bargaining counter, if he had missiles in Cuba he
could agree to remove them in return for some American concession. In the strained atmosphere
of cold war politics the missiles were designed to see how strong the American really were,
whether they would back off or face up. [5-7]

The missiles were genuinely meant to defend Cuba from USA because it was immediately after the
Bay of Pigs incident where America was defeated. USSR tried to strengthen Cuba so that it can
defend itself from USA attack. [7-9]
SECTION B: THE HISTORY OF SOUTHERN AFRICA AND NAMIBIA
PART 1
NAMIBIAN HISTORY
5 (a) It was well answered as most candidates scored average marks.

Describe the German colonisation of South West Africa.

The Germans entered SWA [1-2]

The first step towards German colonization of the region came because of the activities of trader
Adolf Lüderitz. He established a trading post at Angra Pequena now Lüderitz. Lüderitz bought land
from the Nama chief Joseph Fredricks. Bismarck the Chancellor of German claimed the area and
the region became known as German South West Africa. The first European settlement was on
Herero lands.
(b) Fairly answered, most candidates could identify the reasons but very few managed to explain.
Explain why Europeans settled in South West Africa? Explain your answer.

To colonise the Namibians [1]

They settled because of natural resources such as diamond.
For enough land and space for settlement [2-4]

When the first European came to Namibia they explored and find plenty of natural resources they
decided to settle and let the others to come and settle so that they could exploit. Large herds
of cattle owned by the Namas and Hereros in the central part of Namibia made them to be quiet
interested with the purpose of benefiting.
(c) Fairly answered, although most candidates only identified but failed to explain their roles.
‘Kaptein Hendrik Witbooi contributed more towards the war of National Resistance than Chief Maharero’.
How far do you agree?

Agree/Disagree [1]

204
He refused to sign the Protection Treaties with the Germans and convince other leaders not to
cooperate with foreigners
He wanted other traditional leaders not to give up their land to whites. [2-3]

Chief Maharero initial refused to sign the protection treaty with Germans
He commanded his people to be against the Germany colonial rule. [4]
Level 4: Explain reasons on one side

Kaptein Hendrik Witbooi took up arms to fight against the Germany colonial rule.
He refused to sign the protection treaties until such a time he was forced to sign.
He encouraged other leaders to resist and warned them not to give land to any of the whites. [5-7]
Level 5: Explains reasons on both sides

Level 4 + Chief Maharero had contributed to the war of national resistance although he signed the
protection treaty with Germans he also declared it as illegal, because he realised they had been
losing their land and a lot of cattle. He mobilised his men to fight against the Germans. [7-9]
6 (a) Poorly answered, most candidates could not describe the First Tier government.
Briefly describe the First Tier government during the 1980s.

It was operating during the 1980s [1-2]

The first tier was the government structure before independence. It consisted of National Assembly,
The administrator general and government departments and Executive Council. The National
Assembly could make laws for Namibia, but the South African Administrator general in Namibia
had the right to vote, the administrator General dealt with different aspects of government work.
Executive Council consisted of 12 members from different population groups and was a body similar
to a cabinet consisting of ministers.
Each point to be awarded an extra mark [2-6]
(b) Poorly answered, most candidates could not identify reasons why Swapo rejected the Turnhalle conference.
Explain why SWAPO rejected the Turnhalle Conference.

Turnhalle conference was not accepted. [1]

The conference did not represent all the Namibians
It was dominated by the whites
It did not meet the criteria of the resolution 385 [2-4]

SWAPO rejected the Turnhalle Conference because it was not truly representative of the Namibian
people; the delegates were not elected by the people of Namibia but were nominated by the South
African authorities. The white National Party in Namibia organised the conference under the
supervision of the South African authorities.

205
(c) Poorly answered, as most candidates could identify one side but not explain the reasons further.
‘The Organisation of African Unity was more effective than the United Nations in assisting the Namibian
people during the liberation struggle.’ To what extent do you agree with this statement? Explain your
answer

OAU assisted most. [1]

OAU assisted SWAPO during the liberation struggle
It rejected the Turnhalle conference. [2-3]

UN helped Namibians during the liberation struggle by supporting SWAPO.
It passed different resolutions [4]
Level 4: Explains facts on one side

OAU through Liberation Committee gave aid and encouraged the liberation movement (SWAPO) to
fight against South African rule in Namibia.
It rejected the rights of the Turnhalle Conference to make decisions affecting Namibians’s future
outright. [5-7]
Level 5: Explains facts on both sides

L4 + UN condemned the presence of South African government in Namibia and passed resolutions
that forced South Africa to withdraw from Namibia. Resolutions 385 and 435 were passed in 1976
and 1978 to call for free and fair elections to be held in Namibia under UN supervision. It supported
liberation struggle of the Namibians. [7-9]
PART 2
SOUTHERN AFRICAN HISTORY
7 (a) It was poorly answered, most candidates confused the Population registration Act with other Apartheid
laws, few candidates could mention the classification of races.
Describe the Population Registration Act of 1950.

It was apartheid law. [1-2]

This required every person in South Africa to be classified into one of four main racial groups:
natives which later changed to Bantu and then to black, European which later changed to White
and Colored or Indian which later changed to Asian.
(b) Fairly answered, most candidates could identify the reasons but failed to explain them.
Explain why black South Africans opposed apartheid system.

They did not like it. [1-2]

Because of the repressive policies
They had no freedom of speech neither of movement [2-4]

206
The repressive policies such as the Native Passes and Documents Act of 1952, Group Area Act of
1950, Bantu Education, etc, brought together the African National Congress to oppose the apartheid
system. The black South Africans rights were denied. They were not allowed to move without a
passbook. If they failed to provide it once it was asked, one could be sent to prison.
(c) Poorly answered, the majority of the candidates could not explain but identify only.
‘The Youth of South Africa played a more important role than women in bringing apartheid to an end.’ How
far do you agree with the statement? Explain your answer.

Agree/Disagree. [1]

The youth of South Africa demonstrated against Afrikaans in the black secondary schools. They
were totally against Bantu Education. Their uprisings rekindled mass resistance. [2-3]

Women marched in August 1956 against apartheid laws.
Another demonstration by women against pass law took place in 1960. [4]

In August 1956, 20000 women arrived in Pretoria from all over South Africa, they carried written
petition against the proposed of new pass law. They delivered it to the office of the Prime Minister
Strijidom. It led to many women arrested. In 1960, a new campaign was announced against the
Pass Law. This action led to the wave of protest demonstrations in the country. It also caused
worldwide anger and opposition to the apartheid system. [5-7]
Level 5: Explains facts on both sides

L4 + In 1976 June, large crowd of young students and supporters gathered for a protest march
against Afrikaans as an official language in black schools. This led to arrests and killings of many
people. It led to internal resistance as well as International opposition to apartheid. [7-9]
8 (a) Fairly answered, although they mixed the role played by Nelson Mandela during the liberation struggle
and after independence.
Describe the role played by Nelson Mandela during South African liberation struggle.

He fought for independence. [1-2]

Nelson Mandela played a role in establishing ANC, the political party which resisted the apartheid
law in South Africa. Together with other politicians in SA, Nelson Mandela was arrested after the
Women March in August 1956.
(b) Poorly answered, most candidates could not provide the successes of the Defiance Campaign.
Explain the successes of the Defiance Campaign of 1950.

It was a successful campaign. [1]

207
Level 2: Identifies relevant facts
It gave the ANC new image
It drew world attention to the NP government
It brought more women into the freedom movement
It led to further interracial cooperation against apartheid inside South Africa [2-4]

The Defiance campaign demonstrated the willingness of the ANC to take positive and more militant
action against unjust government policies. This gave ANC a new image especially among the
urban working class. It drew world attention to the National Party Government’s oppression of
the black majority in South Africa. Apartheid was debated in the United Nations and the General
Assembly voted to set up a UN Commission on the Racial situation in South Africa
(c) Poorly answered, most candidates could not identify and explain both sides.
‘The apartheid government established proper infrastructure for all South Africans.’ How far do you agree
with the statement. Explain your answer.

Agree/Disagree [1]

Roads were constructed
Buildings were built [2-3]

The infrastructure was not enough
Few houses were constructed [4]

Industrialisation changed the way of life. The government tried to establish proper infrastructure
such as roads to transport goods to the markets and ports. Houses for the workers were also built
to stay. This kind of infrastructure is being used today. [5-7]
Level 5: Explains fats on both sides

L4 + The infrastructure of the urban areas was already inadequate and racially biased. It could not
cope with many people moving to the cities. Very few houses were built and caused shortage of
accommodation in the cities. [7-9]
Level 6: Level 5 plus a valid conclusion [10]

• Encourage candidates to pay careful attention to the wording of questions and noting key words during the
examination.
• Avoiding lengthy narratives and having a focus on explanation, evaluation and analysis is also vital.

208
8331
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
Generally, the question paper was fair. Most candidates still opted for Germany. It is advisable to discourage candidates
to deviate to the other options because they are ill prepared in most cases. Most candidates managed to score
better marks in the following questions 1, 5 and 7. Most candidates still struggle with the evaluation questions.
Teachers/Tutors must address the following: choices must be made where needed, e.g. trust and not trust/agree and
disagree, etc. Candidates must not use words in the sources to make valid inferences or assertions. They can use
similar words/synonyms from their own understanding. When they make inferences, assertions and purposes, it
must be accompanied by support from the source(s).
The new tendency for students is to copy the whole source as support. In future they will be heavily penalised. Support
from the source(s) must fit the valid inference(s)/assertion(s)and purpose(s) otherwise it won’t count. Contextual
knowledge must receive a lot of attention, candidates cannot distinguish between Depth Study Germany History
and the foreign policy of Hitler. Most candidates showed that they lack contextual knowledge and this is very
worrying. Cross-reference is forever improving but the teacher/tutor must also emphasize on the linking statement,
in other words after copying correctly from another source, they need to explain briefly in one short sentence how do
these sources link. Testing of Reliability must receive a lot of attention, if you do not know reach out to others who
knows. In testing of reliability, the following four elements must be addressed: the author, the date, the audience
and the purpose. The comparison question is still very problematic. Candidates must not use the sources in isolation.
The idea is that the candidate must look at the similarities and differences between the sources. When they point out
the similarities and differences, they must give inferences in their own words, which must be different from the words
in the sources. They must use support from both sources. With the last question: They must make a choice and copy
directly from the sources. Only one No and one Yes per source. No paraphrasing is allowed. When it comes to a
cartoon/picture/photograph: the candidate must have a choice+ a valid inference+ support. The last two bonus marks
still require that they do the Testing of Reliability which is a must for higher level.
Positives: There is more candidates than in the past who could reach a purpose. Most candidates' attempts on doing
the testing of reliability was successful. Consult previous examiners reports, the latest NAMCOL examination booklets
to improve the skills of your candidates and to stay on par with the constant changes.
Avoid: Paraphrasing or copying the whole source, other Depth Studies, grouping of sources without support and a
linking statement when doing cross-reference, using the introduction for contextual knowledge.
DEPTH STUDY A: AFRICA AND WESTERN IMPERIALISM
How successful was the independence agenda and resistance in Africa after 1945?
1 Study Source A.
What can you learn from this source? Use the source to explain your answer. [7]
Level 1: No valid inferences made/misinterpretation/Copying [1]
Level 2: Valid inference(s) but no support from the source

Valid inferences include: To criticise French rule [2-3]
Level 3: One valid inference supported from the source

e.g. ‘You can tell from this source that the FLN criticize French rule in Algeria because it says
“Colonialisms tottering.” [4-5]
Level 4: More than one valid inference supported from the source. [6-7]
2 Study Sources B and C.

How similar are these two sources? Use the sources and your knowledge to explain your answer. [8]
Level 1: Writes about one or both sources but fails to compare them [1]

209
Level 2: Compares the provenance of the two sources [2-3]
Level 3: Compares the sources for surface agreements OR disagreements

Award 5 marks for comparisons supported from the sources. e.g. ‘These sources agree that Algerians
must rule themselves.’ These sources agree that there were people who opposed de Gaulle. Source
B shows that De Gaulle wanted Algeria to be independent but in Source C he wanted Algeria to destroy
itself. [4-5]
Level 4: Compares the sources for surface agreements AND disagreements

Award 7 marks for comparisons that support at least an agreement or disagreement from the sources.
[6-7]
Level 5: Compares the points of view of the two authors

These two sources have different points of view – Source B is pro-De Gaulle and while Source C
appears to be criticizing De Gaulle’s methods/policies [8]
3 Study Source D.
Why was this source published in Algeria in 1961? Use the source and your knowledge to explain your answer.
[8]
Level 1: Describes the source [1]
Level 2: Uses contextual knowledge to give the reason (for publication) without using the source and its message
e.g. To cry for independence. [2]
Level 3: Infers a valid message(s) of the source and gives this as the reason (publication). The message(s) is/are
not supported from the source.
e.g. To cry for independence in a civilised manner. [3]
Level 4: Infers a valid message(s) of the source and gives this as the reason (for publication). The message(s) is/
are supported from the source or from contextual knowledge.
e.g. To show people opposed fascism. [4-5]
OR
Infers a valid purpose, but this is not supported
e.g. ‘To show people wanted a non-violent Algeria.
NB: Purpose must have an intended impact of attitude or action.
Level 5: Infers a valid purpose, supported from either the source or from contextual knowledge
NB: Purpose must have an intended impact of attitude or action. [6-7]
Level 6: Infers a valid purpose, supported from both the source and from contextual knowledge. [8]
4 Study Sources E and F.

Does Source E make Source F surprising? Use the sources and your knowledge to explain your answer. [8]
Level 1: Unsupported assertions [1]
Level 2: Undeveloped use of provenance of sources

e.g. ‘Source E does not make Source F surprising because it comes from a different date and so has
nothing to do with it.’ [2-3]
Level 3: Answers that use cross reference to other sources or to contextual knowledge to explain whether
Source F is surprising – no relevant use of Source E
Answers might explain how the French army did commit atrocities like this (as in G) and so this source
is not surprising. [4]
Level 4: Compares what the sources say and uses this as reason for surprise
Answers might compare the French promising reforms in E with its brutal behavior in F. [5-6]

210
Level 5: Compares what the sources say but also evaluates one source to explain surprise/no surprise
Answers might suggest that de Gaulle said what he did because he wanted to win votes in the election,
or that the actions of the army in F are not surprising because many in the French army opposed de
Gaulle’s policies. [7-8]
Level 6: Compares what the sources say but also evaluates both sources to explain surprise/no surprise [9]
5 Study Source G.
What is the message of this source? Use the source and your knowledge to explain your answer. [8]
Level 1: Surface description [1]
Level 2: Valid sub-message(s) – not supported from the source

e.g. ‘there are rebels or rebels will be caught.’ [2-3]
Level 3: Valid sub-message(s) – supported from the source [4-5]
Level 4: Main message of the cartoon – not supported from the source
‘Algerians should support the French or should inform on the rebels.’ [6-7]
Level 5: Main message of the cartoon – supported from the source [8]
6 Study Source H.
Do you trust this source? Use the sources and your knowledge to explain your answer [8]
Level 2: Undeveloped use of provenance

e.g. ‘It is British and therefore cannot be trusted.’ [2]
Level 3: Explains how its one-sided message/language (must give examples) means it is biased and cannot be
trusted. [3-5]
Level 4: Checks the claims made in the source using cross-reference or contextual knowledge [6-7]
Level 5: Uses provenance, content of source and contextual knowledge to test its reliability. [8]
7 Study all the sources.

‘Algerian independence was brought about by the actions of Algerian nationalists.’ How far do you support this
statement? Use the source to explain your answer [12]
Level 1: No valid sources used / copying of sources / general answer [1-3]
Level 2: Use source(s) to agree OR disagree with the statement [4-6]
Level 3: Use source(s) to agree AND disagree with the statement [7-10]
Note:
• Up to 2 bonus marks may be awarded for evaluation of the reliability of sources (no more than 1 mark per
source) [12]
• Sources used must be referred to by letter, provenance or by direct quote from the sources

211
DEPTH STUDY B: GERMANY BETWEEN THE WARS, 1918-1945
To what extent was Hitler’s popularity due to economic policies?
1 Study Source A.
Most candidates did well in answering this question, they were able to make a valid inference. A few candidates
were able to provide the correct contextual knowledge but most candidates were more successful to use cross-
reference instead.
What can you learn from this source? Use the source to explain your answer. [7]
Level 1: No valid inferences made / misinterpretation / copying [1]
Level 2: Valid inference(s) but no support from the source

Valid inferences include: ‘Hitler was a hero/he gave them hope/liberator/champion/good Samaritan/friend
in need/knight in shining armour/he indoctrinate/brainwash the Germans/Hitler was adoured/praised/
worshipped/respected/job creation/control people / encourage people/happy/excited about Hitler [2-3]
Level 3: Valid inference(s) supported from the source

e.g. ‘You can tell from this source that the Nazis Hitler indoctrinated the people (audience) during their
rallies.
1 VI+ Sup= L3/4
2 VI+ Sup= L3/5 [4-5]
Level 4: More than two valid inference supported from the source OR as level 3 + contextual knowledge/AND
Cross-Reference [6-7]
L4 VI+ Sup+ CK/CR= L4/6
L4 VI+ Sup+ CK+ CR= L4/7
Contextual knowledge
Economic policies focus on autarky, the autobahns, creating employment.
The Nuremburg rallies.
Goebbels propaganda to let Hitler look good
Cross-Reference with other sources
Source B:
She gazed sternly at the two workers and said ‘You should be grateful that you have work and thank the Fuhrer for
getting rid of unemployment.’
The woman replied ‘People have hope. They are off the streets. In three years Hitler has achieved miracles, and from
year to year things are getting better.
Source C:
Under the whip of dictatorship, economic activity has greatly increased.
Source D:
German workers! Three months of Nazi Government has already proved to you that Adolf Hitler is your friend! He
struggles for your liberty and gives you bread! We will not let you alone until you give us you support. We know that
without the German worker there is no German nation. We do not want to destroy your unions. We shall build up
even further the protection of workers ’rights! Workers and peasants, together with the professions and skilled labour-
Forward with Hitler for Germany!
Source E:
Youth serves the Fuhrer
Source F:
Hitler is building. Help him. Buy German goods.
Source H
The German economy is no longer a pile of ruins, no longer a playground for foreign speculators who get fat while our
people, starving and desperate, tears itself apart in senseless civil war. No! Today the German economy is a fruitful field

212
for cooperative labour, honest work, and honestly earned success. We owe these successes to Adolf Hitler’s leadership.
We began with nothing but our labour and our confidence in him. We have accomplished more under three years of his
leadership than we could have dared to hope. There are still large economic challenges before us. We will overcome
them if the entire German people remains united in will, strong indeed, firm in discipline, and loyal to the Fuhrer.
NB: KEEP IN MIND WITH CROSS-REFERENCE YOU CANNOT ONLY COPY THE RELEVANT PARTS TO LINK
SOURCES. YOU NEED TO GIVE A BRIEF STATEMENT ON HOW THEY LINK.
NB: The quotes from the sources does not need to be the whole source, only the relevant part/sentence.
Markers must keep in mind when a whole source is relevant then any part of that source can be use.
Marking grid
MI: Misinterpretation
VI: Valid Inference(s)
Sup: Support from source
CK: Contextual Knowledge
CR: Cross- Reference
PARA: Paraphrasing
2 Study Sources B and C.

Most candidates struggled to answer this question. They could not identify what was believable and not believable.
It’s again a reminder that as teachers we need to work hard on reliability questions and make sure the best
candidates do higher level and not just anybody who believe in the myth that higher level is easier.
Does source B mean that you cannot believe Source C? Use the sources and your knowledge to explain your
answer. [8]
Level 1: Unsupported assertions/no choice/choice only [1]
Level 2: Undeveloped use of provenance of sources

e.g. ‘Source B mean that one cannot believe Source C because it comes from a different date and so
has nothing to do with it.’ [2]
Source C can be believed – no relevant use of Source B. [3-4]
Level 4: Compares what the sources say and finds agreements/disagreements as (with/without support) [5-6]
Level 5: Compares what the sources say and find agreements and disagreements [7]
Level 6: Compares what the sources say but also evaluates one source to explain if C can be believed [8]
Believe/Similarities Not believe/Differences

• Both sources refer to the jobs created by • Source B refers to the incentives/rewards/luxury
the Nazis treatment under the Nazis while Source C refer to the
abuse of workers
• Both sources refer to the abuse workers
had to face • Source B refers to the benefit of not working while
Source C refers to the crooking of workers in order to
• Both sources refer to the improvements/
make Germany’s army strong
praise under the Nazi regime
Focus on the poor circumstances the workers had to face
Strength Through Joy Programme providing incentives for obeying/hard workers e.g. free holidays
Testing of Reliability
Consider the following for testing the reliability of the source:
Author: From where/the origin of the source/reasons why (purpose) author published the source.
Date: When it was published by then and why (purpose)?
Audience: For whom it was meant and why (purpose)?

213
Marking grid
Symbol Meaning
B: Believe
NB: Not believe
WC: Wrong choice
Sim: Similaritie(s)
Diff: Difference(s)
TR: Testing of Reliability
PARA: Paraphrasing
3 Study Source D.
Most candidates struggled to answer this question. It was a bit better than the previous question. Still a lot of
candidates failed to make a choice. Most candidates’ contextual knowledge was not up to standard. The use of
cross-reference was much better.
Do you trust this source? Use the source and your knowledge to explain your answer. [8]
Level 1: No choice/choice only [1]
Level 2: Undeveloped use of provenance [2]
Level 3: Explains how its one-sided message/language (must give examples) means it is biased and cannot be
trusted. [3-5]
Level 4: Checks the claims made in the source using cross-reference or contextual knowledge [6-7]
Level 5: Uses provenance, content of source and contextual knowledge to test its reliability [8]
Trust Not Trust

• Genuine attempt to try to join the Nazis • Trying to brainwash people to support the Nazis
• Acknowledge the importance of workers • The Nazis think the workers owe them their
support
• Promise a better future
• Propaganda to put Hitler in a good light
• Importance to support Hitler to make
Germany great • Trying to deceive people
• Tactic aggressive and intimidating to win • Intimidating people to join the Nazis
people over
• Marketing Hitler as the right person to
improve life in Germany
Contextual knowledge:
Propaganda
Conscription
Cross-Reference:
Sources A, F and H
NB: KEEP IN MIND WITH CROSS-REFERENCE YOU CANNOT ONLY COPY THE RELEVANT PARTS TO LINK
SOURCES. YOU NEED TO GIVE A BRIEF STATEMENT ON HOW THEY LINK.
NB: The quotes from the sources does not need to be the whole source, only the relevant part/sentence.
Markers must keep in mind when a whole source is relevant then any part of that source can be use.
Testing of Reliability
Consider the following for testing the reliability of the source:

214
Author: From where/the origin of the source/reasons why (purpose) author published the source.
Date: When it was published by then and why (purpose)?
Audience: For whom it was meant and why (purpose)?
Marking Grid
CR: Cross- Reference
PARA: Paraphrasing
Prov Provenance
TR Testing of Reliability
T Trust
NT Not Trust
VA Valid Assertions
4 Study Sources E and F.

The candidates struggled to interpret and compare the two pictorial sources. Many tried to give the messages of
the sources instead of comparing the sources. Most candidates misinterpreted the sources.
How similar are these two sources? Use the source and your knowledge to explain your answer. [8]

Award 5 marks for comparisons supported from the sources
e.g. ‘These sources agree that there were people who supported the Nazis.’; ‘These sources agree that
Hitler was a strong man. Source E shows that the youth supported Hitler while Source D states that he
needed everybody’s support. [4-5]
Level 4: Compares the sources for surface agreements AND disagreements

Award 7 marks for comparisons that support at least an agreement from the sources. [6-7]

These two sources have different points of view – Source E is pro-Nazi while Source F shows that not
all people bought into Hitler’s ideas yet. [8]
Marking grid
Symbol Meaning
MI Misinterpretation
Prov Provenance
Para Paraphrasing
C Choice
VI Valid Inference
Sup Support
Iso Isolation
Sim Similarity
Diff Difference

215
5 Study Source G.
The question was answered moderately. Most candidates answered the question based on one side and
provided valid assertions.
Are you surprised by this source? Use the source and your knowledge to explain your answer [8]
Level 1: Misinterpretation/general/copying/ no choice/choice only [1]
Level 2: Answers based on undeveloped use of provenance alone – no use of source content
e.g. Not surprised that the police are making reports, this is what the Nazi police did.
OR
Unsupported assertion(s) [2-3]
Surprise Not Surprise

• People suffered more when they have no jobs • Germany was ruled by a dictator
• People could share their misdemeanor with the • Hitler save money for rearmament
police which could have repercussion for them in
• Nazis exploit workers
near future
• Workers were anonymous
• Many instances people glorify Hitler now the
criticise the circumstances during his rule • People wanted the situation to improve
Level 3: Answers based on use of provenance and content of source together

e.g. Surprised that the police would admit this is going on OR Not surprised because the police would
be worried by this behaviour and would want to report it.
OR
Valid assertion(s) supported [4-5]
Level 4: Uses contextual knowledge of conditions in Germany at the time to explain surprise/no surprise OR
cross-reference [6-7]
Contextual knowledge:
Autarky
Rearmament
Autobahn
Cross-Reference
Source B
Source C
Level 5: Uses contextual knowledge of the role of the police in Nazi Germany/nature of Nazi control to explain not
surprised that they reported this kind of behaviour. [8]

216
Marking grid
Symbol Meaning
Prov: Provenance
Para: Paraphrasing
C: Choice
S: Surprise
NS: Not Surprise
VA: Valid Assertion
ISO: Isolation
Sup: Support
CR: Cross-Reference
LS: Linking Statement
NLS: No Linking Statement
TR: Testing of Reliability
P: Purpose
NC: No choice
WC: Wrong choice
6 Study Source H.
Most candidates struggled to answer this question mostly due to their lack of contextual knowledge. The bright side
of the coin was that a reasonable number of candidates could spot the use of propaganda in the source.
Why was this source distributed around Germany in 1936? Use the source and your knowledge to explain your
answer. [8]
Level 1: Describe the source [1]
e.g. To win people over to support his ideas [2]
Level 3: Infers a valid message(s) of the source and gives this as the reason (publication). The message(s) is/
are not supported from the source.
e.g. To win people over to strengthen his position. [3]
Level 4: Infers a valid message(s) of the source and gives this as the reason (for publication). The message(s) is/
are supported from the source or from contextual knowledge
It was published to obtain more supporters for Hitler. [4-5]
OR
Level 4: Infers a valid purpose, but this is not supported

e.g. It was published to hail Hitler as a Hero
NB Purpose must have an intended impact of attitude or action. [4]
Level 5: Infers a valid purpose, supported from either the source or from contextual knowledge
NB Purpose must have an intended impact of attitude or action. [6-7]
Level 6: Infers a valid purpose, supported from both the source and from contextual knowledge. [8]
Parliamentary elections were held in Germany on 29 March 1936. They took the form of a single-question referendum,
asking voters whether they approved of the military occupation of the Rhineland and a single party list for the new
Reichstag composed exclusively of Nazis and nominally independent 'guests' of the party. Like previous votes in the
Nazi era, it was rigged, with a claimed turnout of 99% and 98.8% voting in favour. In a publicity stunt, a number of voters
were packed aboard the airships Graf Zeppelin and Hindenburg, which flew above the Rhineland as those aboard cast
their ballots.
Electoral slip from the constituency of Upper Bavaria -Swabia, Hitler's home constituency, with seven prearranged
candidates. Voters only had to accept or dismiss this option, as no other lists were available.

217
This was the first German election held after enactment of the 1935 Nuremberg Laws, which had removed citizenship
rights (including the right to vote) from Jews and other ethnic minorities. In the previous elections and referenda under
Nazi rule, Jews, Poles and other ethnic minorities had been allowed to vote without much interference, and even
tacitly encouraged to vote against the Nazis (especially in districts that were known to have large populations of ethnic
minorities). On 7 March 1936, Jews and Gypsies lost their right to vote. Their removal from the electoral process
accounted for much of the large drop in invalid and negative votes, which fell from over five million in 1934 to barely half
a million in 1936. The Nazis also lowered the voting age, in large part so as to ensure that the electorate was about
the same size as in 1934 but also to exploit the relatively enthusiastic support of younger Germans for the Nazi regime.
The new Reichstag convened for formulary procedures on 30 January 1937 to re-elect its Presidium and Hermann
Göring as President of the Reichstag.
Marking grid
Symbol Meaning
P: Purpose(s)
CR: Cross-Reference
LS: Linking Statement
NLS: No Linking Statement
PARA: Paraphrasing
7 Study all the sources

The question was answered reasonably well. A few candidates answered by copying the sources but most
candidates who went of the rail paraphrased the sources. Most candidates could reach the last level but only a
few could score the two bonus marks.
‘Hitler was popular because of economic policies.’ How far do the sources support this statement? Use the
sources to explain your answer. [12]
Level 1: No choice made/choice made but no source reference/copying source(s)/only contextual knowledge/
misinterpretation/grouping of source(s)/paraphrasing [1-3]
Level 2: Support OR reject statement with valid support from the source(s)
(One-sided) [4-6]
• 1 Yes or 1 No = L2/4
• 2 Yes or 2 No = L2/5
• 3 Yes or 3 No = L2/6
Level 3: Support AND reject the statement with valid support from the source(s) (both sides) [7-10]
• 1 Yes and 1 No = L3/7
• 2 Yes and 1 No = L3/8
• 2 Yes and 2 No = L3/9
• 2 Yes and 3 No OR 3 Yes and 3 No = L3/10
• NOTE: Up to 2 bonus marks may be awarded for evaluation of the reliability of sources (no more than 1
mark per source) [12]
TR-Example:
• One source = [1]
• Two sources = [2] maximum mark for TR awarded = 2 marks

218
Source A
No: There was perfect order and discipline. It was nearly 3 pm.
No: A message went through the crowd ‘The Fuhrer is coming!’
No: There stood Hitler in a simple black coat and he looked over the crowd, waiting- a forest of swastika flags were
raised up, the joy of this moment was reflected through a roaring chanting ‘Sieg Heil’, over and over again.
Yes: When the speech was over, there was roaring enthusiasm and applause.
No: When the speech was over, there was roaring enthusiasm and applause.
Yes: How many look up to him with touching faith as their savior, their deliverer from unbearable hardship?
No: How many look up to him with touching faith as their savior, their deliverer from unbearable hardship?
Yes: He rescues the farmer, the worker, the unemployed and raises them back into the German nation.
Source B
No: Two autobahn workers were grumbling about the back-breaking work, poor housing and bad food they had to
put up with.
Yes: She gazed sternly at the two workers and said ‘You should be grateful that you have work and thank the Fuhrer
for getting rid of unemployment.’
No: The older of the two said ‘Listen here, we work outside in all kinds of weather.
No: Our pay has been reduced and we have to pay for a straw mattress in draughty wooden barracks.’
Yes: The woman replied ‘People have hope. They are off the streets.
Yes: In three years Hitler has achieved miracles, and from year to year things are getting better.
Source C
Yes: Under the whip of dictatorship, economic activity has greatly increased.
No: Under the whip of dictatorship, economic activity has greatly increased.
No: Workers are exploited by longer working hours.
No: Wages are kept down while taxes are raised.
No: As long as the German people are prepared to put up with their living standards being held at the lowest levels,
the Nazis can continue to squeeze 12-13 billion Reichmarks from the national income for rearmament.
Source D
Yes: German workers! Three months of Nazi Government has already proved to you that Adolf Hitler is your friend!
Yes: He struggles for your liberty and gives you bread!
No: He struggles for your liberty and gives you bread!
No: We will not let you alone until you give us you support.
No: We know that without the German worker there is no German nation.
No: We do not want to destroy your unions.
No: We shall build up even further the protection of workers ’rights!
Yes: Workers and peasants, together with the professions and skilled labour- Forward with Hitler for Germany!
No: Workers and peasants, together with the professions and skilled labour- Forward with Hitler for Germany!
Source E
NB: Choice, Valid Inference and Support (Surface detail)
Example: Choice – Support or Reject the statement: No

• VI = This is a Nazi propaganda poster promoting Hitler like a god that the youth looked up to.
Surface detail = Youth serves the Fuhrer. All ten-year olds in the Hitler Youth.
Source F
NB: Choice, Valid Inference and Support (Surface detail)
Example: Choice – Support or Reject the statement: Yes

• VI = The source portrays Hitler as the one who is improving Germany’s economic status
Surface detail = Hitler is building. Help him. Buy German goods.
Source G
No: For the most part the workers complain about insufficient wages.
No: They are not enough for food, clothing and accommodation.
No: Investigations have established that the same poor mood and complaints are to be found among workers on
the other construction sites.

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Source H
Yes: The German economy is no longer a pile of ruins, no longer a playground for foreign speculators who get fat
while our people, starving and desperate, tears itself apart in senseless civil war.
Yes: No! Today the German economy is a fruitful field for cooperative labour, honest work, and honestly earned
success.
Yes: We owe these successes to Adolf Hitler’s leadership.
Yes: We began with nothing but our labour and our confidence in him.
Yes: We have accomplished more under three years of his leadership than we could have dared to hope.
No: There are still large economic challenges before us.
No: We will overcome them if the entire German people remains united in will, strong indeed, firm in discipline,
and loyal to the Fuhrer.
TESTING OF RELIABILITY OF ANY TWO SOURCES OF YOUR CHOICE FOR THE BONUS MARKS
Marking grid
Y Yes/Support
N No/Not Support
TR+1 1 bonus mark for testing of reliability (correct)
TR+2 2 bonus marks for two testing of reliabilities (correct)
C Choice
DEPTH STUDY C: THE UNITED STATES 1919-74

Did the New Deal bring prosperity for the Americans?
1 Study Source A.
What can you learn from this source? Use the source and your knowledge to explain your answer. [7]
Level 1: No valid inferences made / misinterpretation / copying [1]
Level 2: Valid inference(s) but no support from the source.

Valid inferences include: People are lazy. Demanded from the government. [2-3]
Level 3: One valid inference supported from the source

e.g. ‘You can tell from this source that the people did nothing much to help themselves because it says:
The towns goods citizens did nothing. [4-5]
Level 4: More than one valid inference supported from the source [6-7]
2 Study Source B and C.

How far do these two sources agree? Use the source and your knowledge to explain your answer [8]

Award 5 marks for comparisons supported from the sources.
e.g. ‘These sources agree that some people were opposed the New Deal.’ ‘These sources agree that
there were people who opposed the spending. Source B shows that some people was more positive
towards the New Deal. [4-5]
Level 4: Compares the sources for surface agreements AND disagreements.

Award 7 marks for comparisons that support at least an agreement or disagreement from the sources.
[6-7]

These two sources have different points of view – Source B is anti-New Deal and criticizing Roosevelt
while Source C appears to be criticizing the New deal as revolutionary. [8]

220
3 Study Source D.
What is the message of this source? Use the source and your knowledge to explain your answer. [8]
Level 1: Surface description [1]
Level 2: Valid sub-message(s) – not supported from the source [2-3]

e.g. ‘Overspending’
Level 3: Valid sub-message(s) – supported from the source [4-5]
Level 4: Main message of the cartoon – not supported from the source
Too much money spend on the New Deal projects [6-7]
Level 5: Main message of the cartoon – supported form the source [8]
4 Study source E.
How useful is this source as evidence about the New Deal? Use the source and your knowledge to explain your
answer. [8]
Level 1: Explains it is useful because of its surface information – must say what this is. [1-2]
Level 2: Explains it is useful because of its provenance (undeveloped), e.g. It was produced at the time. [3]
Level 3: Explains how it is useful evidence about common criticisms of the New Deal at the time – must be
explained [4-5]
Level 4: Contextual knowledge used to explain why it is not useful

Because many people welcomed the New Deal/the New Deal helped many people – must be explained
[7]
Level 5: Combines Levels 3 and 4 [8]
5 Study Sources F and G.

Does Source F make Source G surprising? Use the sources and your knowledge to explain your answer. [9]
Level 2: Undeveloped use of provenance of sources [2-3]
Source G is surprising – no relevant use of Source F [4]
Level 4: Compares what the sources say and uses this as reason for surprise [5-6]
Level 5: Compares what the sources say but also evaluates one source to explain surprise/no surprise [7-8]
Level 6: Compares what the sources say but also evaluates both sources to explain surprise/no surprise [9]
6 Study Source H.
Why did Hoover publish his memoirs? Use the source and your knowledge to explain your answer [8]
Level 1: Describes the source [1]
e.g. To defend himself [2]

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Level 3: Infers a valid message(s) of the source and gives this as the reason (for publication). The message(s)
is/are not supported from the source.
e.g. to defend himself by criticizing Roosevelt. [3]
Level 4: Infers a valid message(s) of the source and gives this as the reason (for publication). The messages(s)
is/are supported from the source or from contextual knowledge.
e.g. It was published to that the New Deal was dictatorial. [4-5]
OR
Infers a valid purpose, but this is not supported
e.g. It was published to show Roosevelt failed the Americans. [4]
Level 5: Infers a valid purpose, supported from either the source or from contextual knowledge [6-7]
Level 6: Infers a valid purpose, supported from both the source and contextual knowledge [8]
7 Study all the sources.

‘The New Deal did not work properly.’ How far do the sources support this statement? Use the sources to explain
your answer. [12]
Level 1: No valid sources used / copying of sources / general answer [1-3]
Level 2: Use source(s) to agree OR disagree with the statement [4-6]
Level 3: Use source(s) to agree AND disagree with the statement [7-10]
Note:
• Up to 2 bonus marks may be awarded for evaluation of the reliability of sources (no more than 1 mark per source)
[12]

222
MATHEMATICS
8323
Paper 1
KEY MESSAGE
Candidates who displayed good algebraic skills coped well with this paper. Continuous revision of part 1 of the syllabus
must be done throughout their grade 12 year. An alarming number of candidates are not up to standard for Paper 1’s
work: specifically the algebraic execution of the work! Several candidates achieved marks below 20 and they would
have been much better off taking Extended Level.
Candidates must be informed that if the question requires to show something the conclusion must be stated again.
1. GENERAL COMMENTS:
The standard of work in this examination was once again good for the able candidates, but the weaker candidates’ work
are not well executed. In general the work was done neatly and clearly. It seems that writing on the exam paper is to
the advantage of the candidates. The marks ranged from 0 to 80.
The majority of candidates showed their working. Working can score marks, even if a final answer was wrong.
The algebraic work was very poor for learners at this level. It was also worrying that some candidates did not know
the basic formulae, specially for trigonometry, mensuration and coordinate geometry. Marks are only awarded for
substitution into correct formulae, not for writing down the formulae.
Many candidates did not adhere to the correct rounding as specified in the questions.
2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS:
Question 1
Answered quite well.
Question 2
Many candidates did not give the ratio in the simplest form.
Question 3
Candidates were able to do part (a) , but struggled to execute (b) correctly.

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Question 4
It was astonishing how badly the expansion of the brackets were executed and many candidates tried to solve h.
Question 5
For the longest time the denominator should be the smallest, but candidates took the larger limit. In general well
answered.
Question 6
The able candidates answered it very well.
Question 7
Moderately answered.
Question 8
Candidates answered (a) and (b) mostly correct but struggled with (c).
Question 9
Candidates thought the ball had to reach the flag, instead of following the instruction: same distance from A and B.

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Question 10
Extremely well answered.
Question 11
(a) It is alarming that learners do not get the correct half of a vector and do not draw a diagram to see the
direction of the vector.
(b) Candidates do not know what means!
Question 12
Moderately answered.
Question 13
Candidates struggle with similarity converting from height to volume.
(32( executed it wrongly!

3
Those that did use

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Question 14
Poorly answered, specially (c).
Question 15
Poorly answered.
Candidates do not know that the highest frequency density gives the modal interval and not the highest frequency if
unequal intervals are given.
Question 16
x+y+25
Moderately answered. = 27 was a common wrong attempt.
2
Question 17
Candidates do not know their formulas.

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Question 18
It is worrying that candidates of this level do not know their formulas.
The execution of the rules with the calculator was poorly done.
Question 19
Moderately answered. Candidates did not adhere to the instruction to give the answer as ax + by + c = 0.
Question 20
(a) was poorly done, but (b) was done better since it was a single transformation.
Question 21
Although this topic is also dealt with in Paper 2, many candidates did not know how to find the deceleration and
distance under the graph.
(b) A common wrong answer seen was 5 because candidates worked out the area of the triangle seen.
(c) The conversion from 10 m/s to km/h was poorly done.

227
Question 22
The cosine-rule was not used correctly and a = c was not implemented.
A poorly answered question.

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8323
Paper 2
The paper was of a similar standard to that of previous years. The marks ranged between 0 and 117. It was still noticed
that a significant number of the candidates who entered on Higher Level should rather have entered on Ordinary Level.
Overall the presentation of the papers was of a high standard this year. Candidates must make sure to delete work
that they do not want to be marked at the specific question. It was occasionally seen that a candidates approached a
problem in two or three different ways, without deleting any of the work.
Most candidates could deal correctly with the rounding instructions. It should be noted that an answer of 12.8942… may
not be rounded to 13, as it is not correct to 3 s.f. It is always advisable to write answers to more than 3 s.f., i.e. 12.894…,
before they are rounded. Candidates should be encouraged only to round their final answer. This prevents the loss of
accuracy caused by premature rounding, especially in the Trigonometry questions.
It was noted that some candidates used calculators that can differentiate and integrate. Candidates who use
these calculators, must be taught to show all the steps of their working. They may not just write down solutions
and expect to gain full marks.
Most candidates took care to show their working, which allows them to gain marks for correct methods even when their
answers are wrong. However, candidates should be encouraged to show complete methods, especially when they are
asked to prove a quoted answer.
It was noted this year that many students who attempted to use the quadratic formula, did not quote is properly. In many
cases, the divisor line was not long enough. It must be clear that the formula is used as and not just as .
Comments on specific questions:
Question 1
Most candidates make a good start to the paper with this question. Very few mistakes were seen. In part (a), the
occasional candidate had difficulty with the conclusion. In general, most candidates realised that it is a factor because
the remainder is zero.
In part (b), it was seen that a whole centre lost marks at times. Students that use synthetic division, must be taught to
divide the answer (4x2 + 2x + 2) by 2 from the 2 in front of the (2x – 1) in the divisor.
The minority of candidates lost any marks in part (c).
Question 2
The general rule for examination writing is to leave expressions with negative indices in that form. Many mistakes
were seen when candidates attempted to convert perfectly correct solutions to answers with positive exponents. The
occasional + c was seen from candidates who could not distinguish between differentiation and integration.
(a) It was shocking to see how many candidates on this level could not convert to .
Final answers were often wrongly left as . This is seen as double fractions as the numerator is a
decimal as well.

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(b) It was surprising that this question was answered better than the question in part (a). Once again,
mistakes were made when candidates attempted to rewrite perfectly correct solutions to solutions
with positive exponents.
Question 3
The majority of candidates gained 3 marks for this question. Although there was a typing mistake in the question,
the majority of candidates started off correctly. As in previous years, it was clear that candidates could not deal with
the solving of quadratic inequalities properly. They showed no method when they attempted to solve the inequality
c2 + 10c + 9 < 0. The most acceptable method would have been to sketch a parabola and do the reading from the
parabola.
Question 4
The fact that f(– 2) = 0 was given, seemed to confuse some candidates. They did not realize that the information was
actually given to assist them to sketch the graph in part (b).
(a) Many candidates wrongly attempted to calculate the x-intercepts and not the turning points. In this
case, one of the requested turning points was on the x-axis. Candidates accidentally came up with
one correct solution from totally wrong working. Fortunately, many of the candidates knew their
theory and could find the solutions without difficulty. The occasional rounding error was seen in the
calculation of the y-intercept of x = − .
(b) It should be emphasized once again, that candidates must be taught basic shapes of graphs. They
must not be encouraged to use tables to draw basic graphs like this one. It often distorts the basic
shape if tables are used. A curve was expected, so no straight lines should have been used. Many
candidates did not even realize that this was a cubic graph and the attempted to draw parabolas.
(c) It was noted sadly how many candidates did not know that the second derivative equals to zero will
give the x-value of the point of inflection. Coordinates were not asked. Many candidates wrongly
wrote the final answer as and had to be penalised.

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Question 5
(a) In general, this question was answered very well by most candidates. Occasionally it was seen that
candidates wrongly equated the two expressions. Some did not know the Remainder- and Factor
theorems and wrongly attempted to solve the problem by division methods.
(b) It was often wrongly seen that candidates differentiated the expression with their correct values form
part (a). Many candidates divided correctly and came to ∆ = (–3)2 – 4(2)(4), which is not enough for
the conclusion. ∆ = – 23 had to be seen before the conclusion could be made. As in most explanation
questions, many candidates could not word their conclusion properly.
Question 6
Many candidates still do not get the hang of a function question like this one. They totally fail to realise that the
maximum value of the parabola is the highest value of the range. Many candidates did not realize that we are working
with the same parabola in part (a) and part (b). By changing the domain, a function was created.
(a) (i) The majority of the candidates could do this question comfortably. It was occasionally seen that
B was quoted as 3 after perfectly correct working. C was most common wrong answer. This
resulted from the candidates who did not master completing of the square properly.
(ii) It must be stated, once again, that candidates should be taught the theory of the parabola and
not to use tables to get the required range. The maximum (highest value of the range) is the
turning point of the parabola and the lowest value is at one of the two given boundaries. It was
also noted that many candidates did not know (apply) the knowledge of the parabola in complete
square form.
(iii) Once again, the impression was created that candidates did not really know what the question
asked them to do. Mostly they just guessed yes or no at random. The reasoning was also done
very poorly. The safest answer in a question like this is just to say that “Not one to one”. The
question refers to the inverse. No reason that was valid for f(x) was marked correct, except if the
candidate specifically mentioned f(x).

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(b) The minority of the candidates faired well in this part of the question, for the same reasons that was
mentioned in part (a) already.
Question 7
In general, this question was not that much different from any previously asked vector questions, but candidates seemed
to struggle with the 3-dimensional vectors.
(a) Very few candidates even succeeded in finding a vector in terms of i, j and k. It was also disturbing
to see how many candidates could not work out the magnitude of a vector.
(b) Once again, candidates really struggled with this question. They did not realize that they needed
to work out vector CA in order to calculate the correct angle. It was also often wrongly seen that
vector EC was used and not vector CE. The question just requested the candidates to think a little bit
outside the box and stop short of working the angle out. In general, the impression was created that
candidates relied to heavily on their calculators and could not apply their basic theory properly.
Question 8
(a) Most candidates realized that y = 0. Mostly they failed to convert e3x = 2 to 3x = ln 2 correctly. It should
be noted that coordinates were asked. Candidates were expected to give the final answer as a
coordinate. Many candidates wrongly thought that 0.23 is correct to 3 significant figures, not realizing
that the first significant figure is the 2 in this case.
(b) In general, this question was not answered well. Candidates struggled with the differentiation of e3x − 2
and that resulted in the loss of most marks in this question.
(c) Most candidates could quote the correct formula, but very bad Mathematics was seen in this question.
Most candidates failed to expand the brackets correctly. After the expansion very wrong integration
was seen. Some candidates unsuccessfully tried to use a chain rule for the integration. It should be
noted that candidates are expected to show the substitution of the boundaries. This may not just
be typed into a calculator. In a paper like this one (and also the AS papers that will follow next year)
the application of the theory is tested and candidates are requested to show all their working and not
to rely on a calculator to do parts of the Algebra for them.
It was also occasionally seen that candidates attempted to rotate two figures. Since this is a rotation of 360°
about the x-axis, it is not necessary to break it up in parts for the integration.

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Question 9
Many candidates did not realise that the reference to the rate of change means that they needed to work with the
derivative. It should be noted that the solutions to part (a) and part (b) were exact and it was disappointing to see how
many candidates rounded these exact answers correct to 3 significant figures.
(a) Very few candidates lost marks in this question.
(b) The candidates who realized that the rate of decrease refers to the derivative had very little difficulty
in answering this question.
(c) The minority of candidates realized that the needed to use as a rate of decrease. The candidates
who failed to use , resulted in . It was shocking to see that candidates on this level did not
realize that x2 cannot be negative and just rooted the positive answer.

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Question 10
(a) Many candidates struggled to identify the correct region to work in. If it is one region, it is advisable
to work with a double inequality and not with two separate inequalities. Most candidates using this
method, spoiled the final answer by failing to write the solution as a single inequality.
(b) (i) Candidates who got this question wrong, clearly did not study the theory of the salient point
(vertex) of an absolute value graph.
(ii) In general candidates faired well in this question. It was surprizing to see how many candidates
needed to draw a diagram first before they could find the two x-intercepts.
Question 11
(a) This question was answered surprisingly well. The occasional candidate failed to multiply the
expression by – 2. Once again, candidates often spoiled a perfectly correct answer of 6(5 – 2x) – 4 in
an attempt to write it with positive indices.
(b) Very few of the candidates could answer this question successfully. Firstly, they did not realize that 2p
is a constant and should not be integrated. Secondly, the minority of the candidates realized that the
integral results in ln(x – 2). Many candidates already rounded when they substituted the boundaries,
instead of just sticking with the exact values of 2p ln 2 – 2p ln 1 = 18. The final answer of 12.984255…
could not be rounded to 13 as a final answer, as 13.0 is the correct answer to 3 s.f. It should be noted,
however, that candidates can be awarded full marks if the answer was seen more accurately before
a rounding mistake happened.
Question 12
(a) This part of the question was not answered well at all. The minority of the candidates scored full
marks in this question. Candidates could not deal with the exactly 70 days after it was measured first.
The candidates who used a = 40, should have used n as 70 and those who used a as 40.3, should
have used n as 69.
(b) The majority of the candidates did not read the question first. They just saw the sigma notation and
presumed that they need to work out the sum. Very few candidates realized that the number of terms
is given by 40 – 5 + 1 (Top – bottom + 1).

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Question 13
(a) Sadly, it was only occasionally seen that candidates realised that amplitude refers to a height and
cannot be negative. The negative sign is an indication of a reflection in the x-axis.
(b) Many candidates realised that 3 complete curves can be completed in 360°, but they failed to calculate
the numerical value of the period of the graph.
(c) From this question, it was clear that candidates did not study the transformations of the graphs. They
did not know the significance of the + 4 in the original graph.
Question 14
(a) This question was answered very well by the majority of the candidates. It was occasionally seen that
wrong identities were quoted. Some candidates who failed to work with both sides, wrongly tried to
just separate as two separate terms.
(b) If the boundaries are given in terms of π, candidates should realize that they are working with radians.
I once again (especially with AS level ahead of us), encourage teachers to teach candidates to use
the calculators in radians and degrees to the candidates. Many candidates lost their final mark and
at times 2 marks, because they worked in degrees first and then rounded prematurely. The degrees
answer must be kept at least to 4 or 5 decimal places before the conversion is done. If the exact
values in degrees were used to convert the angles to radians, no π’s would be seen in the calculator
display, as the answers are all irrational. Exact answer in terms of π in this question resulted from
premature rounding and was mostly not correct.
(c) This question was answered quite well, except for the few candidates who used wrong identities.
Most candidates could comfortably solve the equation. Some then struggled to find the two solutions
in the given interval. Candidates did not realize that they only needed to work in the third and fourth
quadrants. Many candidates also wrongly presumed that tan x (like sin x and cos x) cannot be equal
to – 2. Candidates who tried to rewrite the equation to sin x and cos x, mostly got themselves into an
algebraic tangle after the initial statement.

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Question 15
In general, this question provided the majority of candidates with difficulty. They did not realize that part (a) only wanted
them to show that 2x + 1 > 0 AND x – 1 > 0. In part (b), it was shocking to see that candidates could not even apply the
rules of logarithms properly. Another big issue that came up, was the mistakes candidates made with the inequalities
when they attempted to use cross multiplication. It was very often wrongly seen that was wrongly expanded
to 10(x – 1) ≥ 2x + 1 instead of the correct 2x + 1 ≥ 10(x – 1). It some centres all the candidates made this mistake.
Teachers must please take care in the teaching of cross multiplication. Keep the numerator of the LHS on the LHS and
the numerator of RHS on the RHS. In addition, it was very seldomly seen that candidates realized that they needed to
find the combined solution of part (a) and part (b) as a final answer.

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Question 16
Many candidates were totally confused where to use what part of their theory. They could not distinguish if they needed
to integrate or differentiate. Candidates also wrongly attempted to use Physics formulas that is not applicable to this
problem.
(a) (i) Most candidates succeeded to achieve this mark.
(ii) Most of the candidates who realised that they need to integrate, forgot to add the + c and then to
conclude that c = 0.
(b) Candidates did not realise that the velocity is equal to zero.
(c) Candidates were only expected to substitute their answer to part (b) into the formula generated in
part (a)(ii).
(d) It was often wrongly seen here that candidates used the formula to find the time value that
had to be substitute into the speed formula. It should be noted that this formula may only be used if
there is no acceleration or deceleration.

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238
PHYSICAL SCIENCE
8322
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
Candidates found this paper very difficult and left numerous parts blank. The paper had questions that were very
challenging. This was meant to sort stronger candidates from weaker ones, while other questions were simple to
provide the weaker students opportunities to score some marks. Unfortunately, the majority of the weaker candidates
failed to benefit from this. For instance, the 2 marks in question 3d were meant to be available to all candidates but only
a few got full marks.
The quality of the language used in the scripts was uncharacteristically poor this year and significant marks were lost due
to carelessness with spellings, language or symbols. Carelessness with calculations was no better; many candidates
rounded off their answers early and some failed to correctly copy calculator displays. A substantial proportion of the
candidature struggled to use their own calculators, with some adding instead of multiplying and vice versa or multiplying
by 2 instead of squaring.
A large section of candidature struggled with the command words used in questions, in particular the terms define
and explain. The term define requires candidates to provide a formal statement or a very accurate paraphrasing of
that statement. Only few students attempted to give definitions but some made serious language errors. As a case in
point, a fuel was defined as any substance that can be heated (instead of burnt) to produce heat. Most candidates gave
descriptions rather than definitions. The term ‘explain’ requires candidates to proffer reasons. Again, candidates gave
just descriptions which could only be credited a single mark.
An unusually high number of candidates were careless with the spellings of chemical substances, for instance potassium
manganate (VII) and bromine, and their symbols. This is despite the existence of a Periodic Table in the paper.
Some candidates did not correctly use subscripts or capital letters in chemical formulae or coefficients in chemical
equations. Candidates lose marks if elements are spelt incorrectly or chemical symbols and formulae are wrongly
written.
Similarly, some candidates were careless with the symbols of physical quantities and their units. The importance of
correct symbols as well as the unit should be impressed on the candidates. For instance, an examiner cannot be
expected to award marks for a particle instead of α-particle.
Some candidates wrote long winding responses, which, unfortunately, were awash with contradictory statements and
could not score marks for these answers. Simple succinct sentences are appropriate and bullet points permissible. In
addition, candidates should carefully read their answers to make sure they make the intended sense.
Question 1
(a) Well answered. However some candidates misread the question and gave the formula of calcium
iodide instead. Some candidates were careless with the chemical symbols; giving the formula as
CSI, using capital S instead of lower cases.
(b) Candidates gave very simplistic comparisons of the electronegativity, such as "Iodine is more
electronegative than Caesium", which was obviously deemed inadequate to explain electron transfer.
(i) Poorly answered. Only a few candidates knew the types of intermolecular forces involved and
to spell them correctly. Even metallic was too difficult for some candidates.
(ii) Poorly answered. Candidates did not recognise that they were required to explain why the
melting point of iodine is that high. Instead, they gave very simple answers, such as "Iodine is
a solid at room temperature" or "iodine has strong intermolecular forces" which were obviously
insufficient.

239
(d) Well answered. However, some candidates’ descriptions of the free electrons lacked the scientific
accuracy required to score the marks, alluding, for instance, that electrons in the outer-shell were free
to move. A small number of the candidature had the misconception that electrons are the ones that
become free to conduct electricity when a solid ionic compound is dissolved in water or is molten.
Mark scheme/expected answers
(a) CsI
(b) Ionic bonding, because there is a very high electronegativity difference between iodine and caesium,
resulting in electron transfer / caesium loses one electron and iodine gains one electron.
(c) (i) Iodine – London Forces/ Van der Waals forces

Caesium – Metallic Bonding
(ii) High molar mass
(d) Caesium has delocalised electrons (that can move)

In solid caesium iodide the ions are strongly held in the crystals lattice, but became free to move when
dissolved in water or the solid melted.
Question 2
(a) (i) Well answered, save few spelling errors.
(ii) Poorly answered. Most learners could not define and tried to describe terminal velocity, leaving
out some essential elements to get full credit.
(b) (i) Poorly answered. A significant proportion of the candidates were not aware the formula
distance = speed x time, cannot be used for accelerating objects.
(d) (ii) Poorly answered. A number of candidates struggled to find an appropriate scale. Others tried
to draw a line of best fit or used a ruler to connect the plots instead of drawing a smooth curve.
Some candidates did not recognise this part question was a mere continuation of the question
and could not draw a graph.
(a) (i) Constant
(ii) A constant speed that a freely falling object reaches when air resistance equals weight.
(b) (i) Distance = area under the graph

(ii)
Suitable scale
Correct shape of curve
Curve passing through point (1.5, 9)

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Question 3
(a) Well answered. Some candidates defined a fuel as any substance that can be heated (instead of
burnt). It was a very common error.
(b) (i) Poorly answered. Many candidates did not know the product of combustion of hydrogen or could
not write the correct chemical formula for water. Some learners were careless in writing chemical
formulae, particularly the use of subscripts and coefficient. State symbols were given as superscripts.
(ii) Well answered.
(c) Poorly answered. Most students described exothermic reactions and failed to give reasons why the
combustion of hydrogen is exothermic.
(d) Poorly answered. A significant proportion of the candidature forgot to square the second term. A lot
of learners could not use their calculators correctly.
(a) Combustible material that is burnt to produce (heat / thermal / light) energy.
(b) (i) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(I) correct formulae, correct balancing and correct states
(c) The only product of combustion of hydrogen is water, which is not a pollutant.
(d) energy is given out,

Energy needed to break bonds, is less than energy given out when new bonds form.
(e) E = mc2
= 2.0 x 10-20 x (3.0 x 108)2
= 1.8 x 10-3 J
Question 4
(a) Well answered.
(b) Poorly answered. Many candidates made spelling errors for elements. For instance, chlorine was
spelt chroline.
(c) Poorly answered. The few candidates who recognised the method required to prepare the salt were
not very accurate in their descriptions to get full marks. They didn’t recognise that the barium chloride
or nitrate had to be in solution. Some expressions used were inaccurate; the most common was:
"filter the solution formed".
(d) Poorly answered. Carelessness with formulae was prevalent. Most candidates rounded off their
answers prematurely, while some failed to copy calculator displays correctly.
(a) Insoluble.
(b) For MgSO4 - MgO/Mg/ MgCO3/ Mg(OH)2/Mg(HCO3)2

For BaSO4 - Ba(NO3)2, BaCl2
(c) Mix dilute sulphuric acid and Barium chloride solution

Filter
Wash with deionised water, and dry.

241
(d) n = cv
= 0.5 x 75 x 10-3
= 0.0375
m (BaSO4) = n x Mr
= 0.0375 x 233
= 0.87375g
Question 5
(a) Poorly answered. Only a few candidates showed understanding of key concepts.
(b) Poorly answered. While some candidates correctly calculated the temperature difference in degrees
Celsius, they went on to add 273 to the difference making the answer wrong. In (ii), learners did
not realise that they could convert volume to mass and use Q = mc∆T. In (iv), learners attempted to
calculate the mass of the water heated and not the fuel. They misunderstood the entire question.
Mark scheme/ expected answers
(a) (i) 1. Higher temperature

2. Low pressure
(ii) Under high pressure/particles are too close intermolecular forces exist/ particles occupy volume
collisions are not elastic.
(b) (i) 100°C – 25°C = 75K
(ii) Q = mc∆ T
= 650 x 4.2 x 75
= 204 750 J (or 204.75 kJ)
(iii) Water has a density of 1 g/cm3.
204.75
(iv) Moles of butane required =
2877.5
= 0.07115551694 moles
Mass of butane = n x Mr
= 0.07115551694 x 58 ()
= 4.12g
Question 6
(a) Poorly answered. Many candidates were careless in the use of scientific language, picking atoms in
place of elements or molecules in place of compounds.
(b) Only a few candidates gave a satisfactory explanation. The majority of the candidature simply gave
a generalised description of fractional distillation, with little to no links with crude oil.
(c) Poorly answered. Many candidates did not know the use of bitumen.
(d) (i) Well answered. A few candidates made spelling errors, such as crackling, clacking and craking.
(ii) Well answered. However, some students elected to give the names as well and unfortunately for
some the names were incorrect.
(iii) well answered. Most candidates correctly described the results but made spelling errors for
bromine or potassium. A few candidates struggled with the colour of bromine water or of potassium .

242
(a) Two or more substances not chemically combined.
(b) The components of crude oil have different boiling points, because of differences in Mr values/ chain lengths.
(c) Make roads
(d) (i) Cracking
(ii) C2H4; C6H14 or C2H6 ; C6H12 or C4H8 ; C4H10 or C3H8 ; C5H10 or C3H6 ; C5H12
(e) Test: Pass each gas through bromine water / Mix each hydrocarbon with bromine water/ aqueous
potassium manganate (VII).
Result with alkane: no change
Result with alkane: bromine water is decolourised.
Question 7
(a) Poorly answered. Many candidates were careless in their answers and used ‘a’ in place of ‘α’ or b
instead of β. Marks could not be awarded.
(b) (i) Well answered.
(ii) Poorly answered. Many candidates could not give reasons and described the results as given in
the table. A misconception that the count obtained with, for instance, the paper absorber present
was due to α-particles, was rife. Only a few candidates correctly stated that the decrease in
count with the paper absorber showed that α-particles were present.
(c) (i) Well answered. The common error, however, is that most learners gave descriptions that were
not clearly enough to be credited. Most of these candidates described a helium atom.
(ii) Well answered.
(a) Breakdown of unstable nuclides, with the release of radiation and particles.
(i) Background radiation
(ii) Yes it is accurate

α particles are not released because there’s a significant decrease in count when a paper absorb
is used
Particles are not emitted because there is no significant change in count when an Al absorber is
used.
γ rays are emitted because there’s a significant decrease in count when a Pb absorber is used.
(c) (i) Helium nucleus produced by radioactive decay
(ii) Z decreases by 2 units/ loses two protons

A decreases by 4 units/ loses two neutrons/ loses 4 nucleons.

243
3 POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS
• Teachers, including those who teach lower grades, are encouraged to teach learners scientific language and
emphasise it to the learners the importance of correct spellings, grammar and symbols. Teachers should be
aware that they are content and language teachers.
• Teachers are advised to cover all the objectives in the syllabus.
• Teachers should encourage the learners to write legibly and present their calculations clearly and neatly.
• Teachers should discourage learners from rounding early. Part answers may be given as fractions to avoid
rounding.
• Teachers should discuss the terms used in science exams. A glossary of terms is provided in the syllabus on
page 55.

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8322
Paper 2
1. Key messages
• In calculations, candidates should be reminded to set out and explain their working correctly. If no working is shown
it is not possible for credit to be awarded for any correct calculations even when the final answer is incorrect.
• When answering questions requiring a description or explanation, candidates should make sure their answers are
clear and precise.
• It is important that candidates read the questions carefully in order to understand exactly what is being asked.
• Candidates should use the marks at the end of a question as a guide to the form and content of their answers.
• Candidates must not give more than one answer to a question if only one is asked for. If more than the required
number of answers is given, only the first required answers are marked.
2. General Comments
Often candidates were able to apply their knowledge and understanding to fairly standard situations. More successful
candidates were able to think through the possibilities and apply their knowledge when the question asked for suggestions
to explain new situations. Less successful candidates had difficulty in applying their knowledge to new situations, did
not show the stages in their working and did not think through their answers before writing.
Many candidates performed well on this paper. They often demonstrated a thorough understanding and recall of a large
proportion of what they had been taught, read the questions with great care, and carefully planned their approach before
beginning to write. In other cases, candidates did not read the questions carefully enough or in questions requiring
explanations and descriptions, the required points were not given in a logical order. Candidates should avoid explaining
the same point in different ways to ensure they do not contradict themselves.
Many candidates had difficulty in calculating numerical values. Frequently, the method and substitution were correct but
the final answer demonstrated a lack of calculator skills. Candidates should be encouraged to consider whether any
answer is physically reasonable, rather than just accepting a calculator answer as being correct.
Simple errors, such as failing to convert units to base units before using them to calculate quantities in derived units and
wrong symbols for physical quantities were common.
For many candidates two topics in particular proved challenging. In Question 3, few candidates correctly did the
calculations which expected candidates to apply knowledge of mechanical energy. In Question 6, understanding of
the concept of capacitors was weak. Candidates seemed unfamiliar with the uses of capacitors and a very simple
calculation.
2. Comments on Individual Questions
SECTION A
Question 1:
Candidates struggled with the drawing of the diffraction pattern of water waves through a wide gap. Many did draw
semicircular waves, which gained no credit.
The calculation was successfully carried out by most candidates. However, quite a few candidates could not change the
subject of the original wave equation correctly.

245
Wide gap − small diffraction effect
Question 2:
The majority of candidates gained full credit for part (a) and (b).
Many candidates did not appreciate that this is a dative covalent bond and did not give enough detail
(N-atom donates the electrons) to score 2 marks.
Question 3:
This question was only accessible to the better candidate.
The energy conversion was poorly answered.
The calculation of the potential energy at point A was well answered.
The layout of working for many candidates was clear and organised. However, there were many others who did not
write down the equations they were using, which led to confusion on their part and the loss of possible partial credit for
their working out.
A significant number of students failed to recognise that the energy at point B is equal to the energy at point A.
The calculation of the speed when reaching point C was a multi-stage calculation which was well answered by stronger
candidates. Those candidates who wrote out the two equations and set out their work systematically were most likely
to gain full credit.

246
Question 4:
Candidates were familiar with what an equilibrium is, although many gave answers which were too vague to acquire
credit. Examples of loose wording include ‘forward reaction equals backward reaction’ (no mention of rate) and
‘concentrations of reactants and products are the same’, when what should have been written was ‘concentrations of
reactants and products remain the same’ or ‘concentrations of reactants and products remain constant’.
Candidates are advised to think carefully before putting pen to paper for this type of question. The candidates’ wording
was not always easy to understand and often contradictory, for example ‘the equilibrium shifts towards the reactants’
followed by ‘the equilibrium shifts to the right-hand side’. Many irrelevant comments about rate change were seen.
Candidates should be aware that there is no such thing as an ‘endothermic side’ to a reaction; there is, however, an
endothermic direction.
In the calculation candidates failed to show the concentration using square brackets and many did not calculate the
concentrations before substituting into the Kc expression.
Question 5:
This question was found to be demanding by the majority of candidates.
Convection and conduction was mixed up a lot. Most candidates failed to give three pieces of information for each part,
which was clearly stated in the question.

247
Question 6:
The function of a capacitor and simple calculations regarding a capacitor proved to be challenging to most learners.
Question 7:
Generally well answered. As this is a compulsory part of the syllabus that must asked, it must be stressed to candidates
that answers must be very specific to score marks. The words kill or destroy are not accepted as they are too vague.

248
SECTION B
PHYSICS SECTION
Physics is a precise science. Candidates at this level should choose key words with care when writing any explanation.
Definitions and principles should be learnt in the detail stated in the learning outcomes in the syllabus.
Question 8:
(a) Candidates did not clearly compare the same property for solids and liquids.
Where latent heat had to be explained, candidates wrongly stated that bonds need to be broken.
Candidates failed to understand the significance of collisions in the Brownian motions.
Most candidates gained credit for stating that the molecules hit the walls more often but few gained full credit
for completing their explanation e.g. by stating that there was a greater force or rate of change of momentum
per unit area of the walls.
(b) Candidates should be reminded that a formula is a relationship between physical quantities.
Where the experiment of momentum conservation had to be described, quite a few candidates
described Hooke’s Law, moments or the pendulum, which resulted in no credit.

249
Question 9:
(a) Poorly answered. It is clear that the electrical resistance is not fully understood.
(b) Candidates failed to recognize that the internal resistance is responsible for the power loss and
therefore energy loss. Most candidates therefore used the wrong formula (Ohm’s Law) to calculate
the current in the cables.
(c) The meaning of the photoelectric effect was answered well. The calculations though were only
accessible to the better candidate.

250
CHEMISTRY SECTION
Question 10:
(a) Generally well answered.
(b) Better performing candidates correctly described the substitution reaction with all required fine detail. Only a
small minority of candidates realised that there is an attraction between a nucleophile and an electrophile.
Part (ii) was well answered.
(c) Parts (i) and (ii) were answered well. In part (iii) many candidates wrongly stated that iron does not
form an oxide layer.

251
Question 11:
(a) Part (i) and (ii) was poorly answered.

Candidates wrongly stated that nitrogen is stable. (All bonds are stable!) The minority correctly referred to
the triple bond.
Candidates need to read questions with care – some candidates ignored to name the example of the main
source of oxides of nitrogen.
Eutrophication was answered well.
(b) Poorly answered and only accessible to the better candidate. Candidates should be reminded that
if observations are asked it either will refer to a colour change or bubbles. When a colour change is
observed both the colour before and after should be stated.
(c) Candidates have to refer to the specific chemicals mentioned when these are mentioned in the
introductory sentence.
Better performing candidates included the following key points:
1 Increasing the temperature gives the particles more energy, this results in them moving faster.
2 As a result of moving faster the particles have more collisions per second. (Note: the reference to
time or frequency is essential).
3 As the particles have more energy, a bigger proportion of particles have energy greater than the
activation energy and so a greater percentage of collisions are successful.

252
8322
Paper 3
General Comments
This practical component of the syllabus aimed to assess the learners’ ability of independently following a set of
instructions for carrying out an experiment within in a familiar context and topic, one question for Physics and one
question for Chemistry. Learners in general well performed the Physics experiment and struggled with the one for
Chemistry. The purpose of the practical notes was not well understood. This data sheet must be fully integrated in the
teaching and learning as well as the practicing of these real practical tests of cations, anions and gases. The practical
notes attached to the practical test are there to standardize the observation and its description. That means when
teachers teach this topic they have to perform the described identification tests together with learners. Jointly they need
to observe and read the corresponding text to really understand the correct description of the test and the test result.
It is mandatory for learners who are provided with such a data sheet to use it as it is. That means, the descriptions
of a test result, may not be paraphrased or described differently, than as provided on the Chemistry Practical Notes.
Learners seemed not to have been taught this way of using the data sheet to their benefit and contributed to their overall
low achievement in this question.
This means for subjects like sciences, Physical Science, Physics and Chemistry or Biology it is essential that every
learner should be given the opportunity throughout the two years (and even before their senior secondary grades) to
do practical work. Only exposure to practical work done by learners themselves, individually or in very small groups
of only two learners or three at the most will be enabling them to reach the required competencies. They need to be
fully familiarised with all the apparatus and the nature of the experiments in which these instruments and apparatus are
used and for what purpose. Only this will enable them to handle information which they collect, analyse and synthesis
conclusions in the given problem setting. Therefore it needs to be stressed that the way the questions starts or that
introduction at the beginning needs to be fully understood; in terms of what the investigation is about or what the set
problem intends to solve before they even start answering any questions.
Comments on specific questions

In order to investigate the relationship between the load attached to a spring learner had to set up the apparatus as
the diagram indicated. They needed to be able to obtain measurements of the spring’s length, originally without mass
attached and then the total length with mass attached. These measurements had to be recorded in the table. Some
learners included the original length in the table and then struggled to fit the six more values. Many of them were
unclear about what the length of the extended spring was and what the extension was. It is mandatory for the teacher
to teach the proper contextual terminology to avoid confusion. In addition to this is the understanding and knowledge
of what SI units are. Many learners gave measurments in centi metres of mili metres instead of metres. Most learner
correctly converted the grams into kilograms and could determine the corresponding force using = 9.8 N/kg.
The understanding of the restoring of the shape of the spring to its initial length after the experiment as a sign of being
elastic and not having reach the elastic limit yet was not well articulated by many learners, in line with the data they
obtained.
The plotting of the graph was well done except for a few who did not adhere to the instructions as provided. Many also
struggled to pick the line of best fit being in conflict with the “forced” line through the origin. The conclusion about the
relation ship had to make sense with the outcome depicted by the graph. Below you find in detail the criterial that were
used to award the marks.

253
Question 1
Sample results for (c) to (i) could have been as shown in the table below:
L0 = 0.021 m

254
Question 2

255

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REPUBLIC OF NAMIBIA

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, ARTS AND CULTURE

DIRECTORATE OF NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS AND ASSESSMENT

REPORT ON THE EXAMINATIONS

AFRIKAANS SECOND LANGUAGE

ART AND DESIGN

DESIGN AND TECHOLOGY

ENGLISH SECOND LANGUAGE

FIRST LANGUAGE AFRIKAANS

FIRST LANGUAGE ENGLISH

FIRST LANGUAGE GERMAN