ETHIOPOAN SECONDARY SCHOOL LEAVING CERTIFICATE

EXAMINATION (ESSLCE)
BIOLOGY TIKIMT 2014/15 (OCTOBER 2022)

GRADE 9th
UNIT ONE
1. The institute of biodiversity conservation is one of the biological research institutes of Ethiopia attempting to
conserve the genetic resources of the country. As such, the institute’s major research efforts focus on all of the
following EXCEPT?
A. Soil conservation C. Plant conservation

B. Animal conservation D. Micro-organisms conservation

UNIT TWO
1. The importance of stains in microscopic investigations is explained by their effect in

A. Increasing magnification power C. Decreasing air bubbles

B. Creating contrasts D. Increasing resolution

2. Suppose three potato cylinders were kept in 25%, 15% and 5% sucrose solution respectively and a fourth cylinder
was placed in distilled water. Which of the cylinders will be more flaccid? The cylinder in

A. distilled water B. 15% solution C. 25% solution D. 5% solution

3. Consider the following table which shows a result of an experiment where red blood cells were placed in three
different solutions X, Y and Z.
Solutions Changes Observed on RBCs
X Shrink
Y Burst
Z No change

The three different solutions in which the blood cells were placed in order of X, Y, Z were

A. Isotonic, hypertonic, hypotonic C. Hypertonic, hypotonic, isotonic

B. Hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic D. Hypotonic, isotonic, hypertonic

UNIT THREE

1. One of the following problems can occur if the liver does NOT properly carry out its digestive functions.

A. Incomplete digestion of polysaccharides C. Partial absorption of fats

B. Partial absorption of digested foods D. Increased alkalinity of the intestine

2. Which of the following is the correct order of food substance, enzyme and breakdown product of the digestive
Process in the stomach respectively?

A. Fat, trypsin glycerol C. Starch, lipase, glucose

B. Lipid, amylase, fatty acid D. Protein, pepsin, amino acid

3. Four students wanted to conduct chemical tests on unknown food particles and used the following chemicals

and materials.

Student A: Test tubes and biuret solution

Student B: Test tubes, ethanol, water, filter paper

Student C: Test tubes, benedict’s solution, water bath

Student D: Test tubes and iodine solution

Which of the above students planed a test for lipids?

A. Student D B. Student B C. Student C D. Student A

4. During gas exchange between the alveoli and blood capillaries, oxygen is absorbed by the blood while carbon
dioxide is removed. This opposite direction of gas exchange occurs due to

A. Difference in the molecule size of oxygen and carbon dioxide

B. Thicker layer of the capillaries

C. Difference in the concentration gradient of oxygen and carbon dioxide

D. Thin small surface area of the alveoli

5. Assume you are trying to demonstrate breathing movements using artificial lung and you pulled down the rubbed
sheet. This action of pulling represents which step of the actual breathing process?

A. Exhalation and contraction of the diaphragm C. Inhalation and relaxation of the diaphragm

B. Inhalation and contraction of the diaphragm D. Exhalation and relaxation of the diaphragm

6. Identify the correct statement about the effect of exercise on breathing rate

A.The tidal volume of air at rest is greater than the tidal volume of air during exercise

B. Fast and deep breathing are the result of demanding less oxygen

C. Exercise and getting fit makes the lungs efficient

D. The vital capacity of the lungs decrease during heavy exercise

7. The following is a list of functions of the components of blood

1. Transport of oxygen

2. Fight against disease

3. Cause blood clotting

Which one of the following is a correct order of blood components responsible for the above functions
respectively?

A. Red blood cells, platelets, white blood cells C. Platelets, white blood cells, red blood cells

B. White blood cells, platelets, red blood cells D. Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets

8. What is the cause of the back flow of blood into the atria from the ventricles? It could be damage of the

A. Valves B. Pulmonary vein C. Aorta D. Pulmonary artery

9. The capillaries are blood vessels that have thin wall and large surface area since their function is

A. transport of oxygenated blood C. Exchange of substances

B. to return blood to the heart D. transport of deoxygenated blood

 UNIT FOUR
1. Why are vaccines important? Because they help to

A. heal wounds C. trigger the immune system

B. kill pathogens D. prevent functional disease

2. Which one of the following diseases increases the likelihood of contrasting HIV?

A. Tuberculosis B. Gonorrhoea C. Syphilis D. Chancroid

3. Even though pasteurization is a technique used to heat milk, beer and other foods, it cannot preserve food
unspoiled for years because it

A. cannot kill pathogenic microorganisms

B. reduces the nutritional content of the food

C. uses mild temperature that kills most but not all bacteria

D. is conducted in containers that are not properly sealed

UNIT FIVE
1. Which one of the following statements is correct about the binomial nomenclature?

A. The genus name is written in full while the species name is abbreviated
B. The first letter of genus name is capitalized while the species name is written in small letter
C. The genus name is written in English while the species name is written in Latin
D. Both genus and species names are capitalized and italicized when printed
2. Mosses are grouped under division bryophyte because they
A. lack true root system and vascular tissue
B. are evergreen and photosynthesizes all year round
C. have true leaves, stems and roots
D. have flat and broad leaves
3. In kingdom animalia, which phylum poisons its prey by tentacles that contain stinging cells?
A. Coelenterata B. Nematoda C. Annelida D. Porifera

UNIT SIX
1. Which one of the following is an adaptation to reduce water loss in plants?
A. Leaves covered with waxy cuticle C. Thin broad leaves
B. Large and wide stomata D. a single layered epidermis in leaves
2. Why are arctic animals such as seals, walruses and whales large in body size? To
A. reduce heat loss C. move in the water bodies easily
B. increase their surface area D. capture their prey without challenges
3. If you are asked to draw a pyramid of biomass of an aquatic habitat that contains zooplanktons, herrings,
sea lions and phytoplankton. Which organisms should be placed at the top of the pyramid?

A. Herrings B. Phytoplankton C. Sea lions D. Zooplankton

 GRADE 10th
UNIT ONE
1. During baking of injera, the CO2 produced by yeast is used to
A. bake injera with low temperature C. kill contaminants that spoil injera
B. increase the shelf life of injera D. give injera its typical texture

UNIT THREE
1. The nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another by a neurotransmitter at the
A. Synapse B. Axon C. Myelin sheath D. Cell body

2. What happens if the axon is stimulated? Formation of

A. negative charge inside the axon C. positive charge outside of the axon
B. positive charge inside the axon D. negative charge in both sides of the axon
3. Assume you wanted to demonstrate a simple reflex action using the knee jerk reflex. You asked a friend
to sit with one leg crossed over the other. Which one of the following indicates the correct demonstration?

A. Pulling down your friend’s leg that is followed by downward movement

B. Hitting your friend on the toes followed by sudden upward movement of the leg
C. Bending up your friend’s leg followed by downward movement of the leg
D. Hitting your friend below the knee cap followed by a sudden upward movement
4. During image formation, light is refracted twice before it is focused on the retina. This phenomenon
happens at the

A. Lens and vitreous humour C. Iris and lens

B. Cornea and lens D. Aqueous humour and lens
5. Three students designed the following experiment settings to understand the actual taste of a food.
Student 1: Blind folded two students, one of them tightly holding the nose while the other without
holding the nose and tasting the food

Student 2: Blind folded one student and the other left with open eyes, both holding their nose tightly
while tasting the food

Student 3: None of the participants blind folded and only one of them holding her nose tightly while
tasting the food

Student 4: None of the participants blind folded and both of them taste the food without holding the
nose

Which student designed the most appropriate experiment?

A. Student 4 B. Student 1 C. Student 3 D. Student 2
6. Short sightedness is corrected by a concave lens because the problem arises due to a
A. Weak eye lens that converges light slightly C. Powerful eye lens that diverges light
B. Strong eye lens that converges light too soon D. Weak eye lens that diverges light
7. This item is based on the following diagram of human ear

F
What is the name of the human ear part represented by letter ”F” in the above diagram?
A. Cochlea B. Utriculus C. Semicircular canal D. Sacculus
8. Secretions of endocrine glands require receptors on cell membrane to be picked by their targets while
exocrine secretions do not. This is because

A. Exocrine glands secrete hormone directly to the blood stream

B. Endocrine glands are ductless
C. Exocrine glands are controlled by the nervous system
D. Endocrine glands produce protein-based hormones
9. A patient exhibited symptoms of weight loss, sweating and irritability he doctor suspected an endocrine
malfunction that can be related to the

A. Gonads B. Pancreas C. Adrenal gland D. Thyroid gland

10. Breakdown of the thick spongy wall of the uterus at the end of the menstrual cycle is associated with
the
A. formation of the corpus luteum C. decrease in progesterone and oestrogen concentration
B. maturation of the follicle D. increase in oestrogen and progesterone concentration
11. Which one of the following is a behavioural method of temperature regulation in homoiotherms?
A. Piloceration B. Licking C. vasodilation D. Aestivation
12. What will happen if the water content of the blood is too high?
A. The second coiled tubule of the kidney becomes more permeable
B. Antidiuretic hormone secretion decreases
C. Osmoreceptors stimulate pituitary gland to release ADH
D. The kidney reabsorbs more water back into the blood
13. The first incubation period of HIV is characterized by duration of
A. 2-3 years for the progress of infection to AIDS
B. 2 weeks to produce enough antibodies
C. 20 years before all the symptoms appear in well-nourished people
D. 3-12 weeks when mild symptoms are manifested

UNIT FOUR
1. The movement of water from the roots up to the top leaves of tall trees is carried out by
A. the low cohesive and adhesive forces of water in the xylem
B. active transport in the roots and osmosis in the leaves
C. loss of water by transpiration and its replacement by osmosis
D. active transport in both the roots and leaves
2. Which one of the following may NOT be regulated by a plant hormone?
A. Cell elongation B. Fruit ripening C. Seed dispersal D. Cell division
3. Bushing of a plant results from
A. removal of the inhibitory effect of auxin
B. decreased production of auxin by side shoots
C. increased production of auxin by the main shoot
D. cancellation of the positive effect of apical dominance

UNIT FIVE
1. Actions such as protection of individual species, reduction of pollution, and reduction of deforestation
can collectively be taken as methods of

A. Biodiversity conservation C. Fighting soil erosion

B. Fighting global warming D. Agricultural expansion
2. Which one of the following plants is NOT endemic to Ethiopia?
A. Mango B. Zigba C. Noug D. Enset
3. Which of the following national parks is characterized by the presence of wildlife such as elephant, lion,
cheetah and giraffe?

A. Simien mountains national park C. Bale mountains national park

B. Awash national park D. Mago national park
 GRADE 11th
UNIT ONE
1. From the following options, which one contains the steps of writing a scientific report in the correct order?

A. Title -> Hypothesis --> Procedure --> Prediction --> Results -> Conclusion -> Evaluation --> Acknowledgement

B. Title --> Hypothesis --> Prediction -> Evaluation -> Results --> Procedure -> Conclusion --> Acknowledgement

C. Title --> Hypothesis --> Prediction -> Procedure --> Results -> Conclusion -> Evaluation –> Acknowledgement

D. Title --> Prediction --> Hypothesis --> Procedure --> Evaluation --> Conclusion -->Result -> Acknowledgement

2. What type of force is responsible if a stool solution is placed in a centrifuge, spins the tube at high speed and the
solid particles are forced to settle down at the bottom?

A. Gravitational force B. Centripetal force C. Adhesive force D. Cohesive force

3. Ten percent of attendants of a wedding ceremony were sick just after having lunch at the ceremony. What should a
student do first to prove scientifically that the sickness was actually linked to the food eaten at the ceremony. She
should

A. Take food sample to a laboratory and analyse the presence of toxins

B. Ask herself why ten percent of the attendants were sicked

C. Give drugs to the sick individuals before they contaminate others

D. Take stool sample for the sick individuals and analyse the presence of toxins

UNIT TWO
1. Which one of the following importance of water is directly related with its ideal viscosity?

A. Transport medium C. habitat for aquatic habitats

B. Reactant in photosynthesis D. Reaction medium

2. Which property of water prevents ponds from drying during the long dry season? High

A. surface tension B. transparent ability C. viscosity property D. latent heat of vaporization

3. When three fatty acid molecules and a glycerol molecule undergo condensation reaction, they form

A. Phosphate bond and phospholipid C. Peptide bond and protein

B. Glycosidic bond and polysaccharide D. Ester bond and triglyceride

4. In water, phospholipids become organized into a bilayer. In this configuration, which part of the bilayer faces
towards the water?

A. Fatty acid tail B. Hydrocarbon tail C. Phosphate head D. Glycerol head

UNIT THREE
1. Consider the following reaction

Reactant A + Reactant B + Enzyme Intermediate Product AB + Enzyme?

At which point are the chemical bonds weakened? At the

A. Product AB B. Reactant B C. Intermediate D. Reactant A

2. How do enzymes bind and act on their substrates? By using the

A. induced-fit model and providing extra energy for the substrate

B. lock-and-key model and reducing energy for the substrate

C. induced-fit model and putting the substrates under tension

D. lock-and-key model and changing themselves into products

3. Which one of the following is correct about the action of apoenzymes and coenzymes?

A. Coenzymes bind with enzymes to give catalytic activity

B. Apoenzymes bind with enzymes to give catalytic activity

C. Both apoenzymes and coenzymes combine with cofactors to form a non-active enzyme

D. Coenzymes bind with cofactors to form an active enzyme

4. Niacin is used to make the coenzyme

A. FAD B. NAD C. AMP D. ADP

5. The following are reaction types catalysed by different classes of enzymes.

1. Transfering hydrogen and oxygen atoms

2. Changing of the molecular form of the substrate

3. Joining of two molecules by the formation of new bonds

Which classes of enzyme catalyse the above reactions according to their consecutive order?

A. Oxidoreductases, hydrolases, lyases C. Transferases, hydrolases, lyases

B. Transferases, isomerases, ligases D. Oxidoreductases, isomerases, ligases

UNIT FOUR
1. The cell theory states that cells

A. contain different organelles with no specialization

B. come from pre-existing cells by division

C. have basically different composition

D. come from non-living objects

2. The following table compares prokaryotes and eukaryotes

Feature Prokaryotes Eukaryotes

DNA X Linear
Mitochondria Absent Y
Ribosomes Present (70S) Z
Cell membrane Present Present

In the above table X, Y, and Z can be respectively stated as

A. Circular, present, present (70S) C. Linear, present, present (70S)

B. Linear, present, present (80S) D. Circular, present, present (80S)

3. Which one of the following is NOT the function of the plasma membrane in eukaryotic cells?

A. Isolating the cell from the external environment

B. Transferring chemical energy from carbohydrate to ATP

C. Responding to external signals

D. Exchanging materials and information

4. Which one of the following is correct with respect to the structural components of the plasma membrane?

A. Integral proteins are found inserted in the lipid bilayer

B. peripheral proteins are located outside the lipid bilayer

C. Glycoproteins are found on the cytoplasmic side of the cell membrane

D. Channel proteins cover the outer layer of the lipid bilayer

UNIT FIVE
1. What triggers fermentation during exercise?

A. Presence of excess glucose C. Over activity of respiratory enzymes

B. Shortage of oxygen D. Production of ATP beyond the cells demand

2. Which of the following processes explains lactate production during anaerobic respiration in animal cells?

A. Decarboxylation of pyruvate C. Oxidation of pyruvate

B. Phosphorylation of pyruvate D. Reduction of pyruvate

3. Which one of the following descriptions holds true for the link reaction of a respiration?

A. Pyruvate reacts with coenzyme A to form acetyl coenzyme A

B. Glucose is converted to pyruvate through a chain of reactions

C. Hydrogen ions and ATP are synthesized

D. Reduced NA and reduced FAD are produced

4. The hydrogen ions that used to turn the rotor of ATP synthase come from

A. Oxidation of NADH and FADH2 C. Phosphorylation of ADP

B. Hydrolysis of ATP D. Reduction of NADH and FADH2

5. In the tropical regions, where there is higher temperature, which one of the following is most likely to take place
in the C3 plant’s? Rubisco binds with

A. H2O to produce TP C. O2 to produce GP and phosphoglycolate

B. CO2 to produce glucose and water D. GP to produce lipid

6. During the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis

A. GP is reduced to TP by reduced NADP C. Glucose is directly produced from GP

B. RuBP reacts with CO2 to directly from TP D. Some of the GP is used to regenerate RuBP
7. How many turns of the light independent reaction cycle are required to make one molecule of triose phosphate?

A. 2 B. 6 C. 4 D. 3

8. This item is based on the diagram of a chloroplast given below

In the above diagram of the chloroplast, what are the sites of the light-dependent and light-independent reactions
of photosynthesis respectively?

A.4 and 3 B. 2 and 1 C. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 2

9. The suitability of the structural arrangement of a chloroplast in relation to its function can be indicated by the fact
that

A. carotenoids are used as a reaction center from which electrons are excited

B. all pigments are floating around the solution of the stroma

C. the different pigments absorb the same wavelength of light

D. all pigments in the photosystem are linked to the electron transport chain

10. Which one of the following events occurs during the day time in the CAM photosynthetic pathway?

A. CO2 reacts with malate C. The stomata open to allow CO2

B. Oxaloacetate is formed D. CO2 enters into Calvin cycle

 GRADE 12th
UNIT ONE
1. Bacterial cell wall is unique due to its

A. Selective permeability C. Mechanical support

B. Chemical composition D. Freely permeability

2. Which genus of bacteria oxidizes hydrogen sulphide to sulphate and makes sulphate ions available to be taken by
plant roots from the soil?

A. Thiobacillus B. Azotobacter C. Desulphovibrio D. Klebsiella

3. Which one of the following disease is caused by food poisoning bacteria?

A. Pneumonia B. Candidiasis C. Salmonellosis D. Tuberculosis

4. Unlike free living cells, viruses are completely

A. Harmful to a living cell C. Parasitic to a living cell
B. Pathogenic to a living cell D. Mutual to a living cell
5. Which of the following diseases is caused by a DNA virus

A. Swine flu B. Cold core C. AIDS D. Corona

6. Which one of the following is correct concerning the reproductive cycles of viruses?
A. Both lytic and lysogenic life cycles undergo the same life cycle but ending with different results
B. In lytic life cycle, viruses are released without killing the host cell
C. Both lytic and lysogenic life cycles release new viruses without the genetic alteration of the host cell
D. In lysogenic life cycle the DNA of the virus integrates with the host cell’s DNA

UNIT TWO
1. Which stage of the nitrogen cycle needs the role of Rhizobium?

A. Decomposition B. Nitrogen fixation C. Denitrification D. Nitrification

2. Currently, natural resources are being depleted at increasing rate and waste materials are accumulated and
discharged freely into water bodies. What is the best strategy to overcome these problems?

A. Fossilization B. Decomposition C. Recycling D. Succession

3. A key aspect in the process of recovery of an ecosystem through succession is that

A. Higher organisms colonize the new environment first

B. Pioneer species always make the environment better

C. A climax community of lichens and mosses is established at the end

D. Pioneer species always tend to be lower animals

4. What are the common plants of the boreal forest?

A. Mosses B. Conifers C. Deciduous trees D. Epiphytes

5. A more comprehensive definition of biodiversity can be given as the

A. richness, ecological and genetic variability of species

B. number of individuals of a species in a given area

C. diversity of plants and animals in a given area

D. number of individuals of a given animal species

6. At which stage of the population growth curve is the rate of natality and the rate of mortality are expected to be
equal?

A. Stationery phase B. Log phase C. Decline phase D. Lag phase

7. Identify the correct statement about intra-specific competition? It is a competition

A. that leads to local extinction of the species

B. of two species inhabiting the same ecological area

C. for all types of requirements

D. between individuals with different adaptation

UNIT THREE
1. A colour blind daughter can be born when the
A. mother is colour blind and the father is normal
B. father is normal and the mother is carrier
C. father is colour blind and the mother is normal
D. mother is carrier and the father is colour blind
2. A farmer cut off several regions of a stem near to the buds of a plant. He removed some of the leaves
and dipped the cuts end in some hormones rooting powder and planted the cuttings in compost. He
kept the cuttings well watered and within a few weeks they developed their own root system and became
new independent plants. Which one of the following is correct about this experiment? The new plants
are most probably
A. phenotypically and genotypically different from the parent plant and from each other
B. genetically and phenotypically identical to the parent plant and to each other
C. phenotypically identical but genetically different from each other
D. genotypically identical but phenotypically different from the parent
3. During DNA replication
A. the parent DNA will become different from the daughter DNA
B. DNA polymerase assembles new nucleotides into a new strand
C. the base sequence in the new DNA will be slightly changed from the parent DNA
D. DNA helicase transports nucleotides that are used to build the new DNA
4. With four different bases to work with, there are 64 possible triplet codes, but only 20 amino acids are
used to make all the different proteins. This is because the DNA code is
A. semi conservative code C. degenerate code
B. universal code D. non-overlapping code
5. If mRNA brings the code “UGA” into the ribosome
A. tRNA will bring “UGA” anticodon
B. translation ceases and protein synthesis terminates
C. ribosome will initiate protein synthesis
D. tRNA will bring the amino acid methionine
6. Assume you wanted to demonstrate compatibility of blood groups. You took four test tubes labelled O,
A, B, and AB based on the blood group that each test tube contains. Then you added unknown blood
sample into each test tube and no agglutination was observed in each test tube. From this, you can
conclude that the unknown blood sample was

A. blood group B C. blood group O

B. blood group AB D. blood group A
7. Which type of chromosome mutation causes leukemia?
A. Insertion B. Duplication C. Deletion D. Inversion
8. Why Drosophila melanogaster are considered ideal for genetic experiments? Because they
A. have the highest number of chromosomes C. breed and keeps in large numbers easily
B. contain chromosomes with several genes D. complete their life cycle within one month
9. Which one of the following statements best describes the mechanisms by which meiosis brings about
variation? Variation in meiosis is because of

A. independent assortment and crossing over

B. frequent spontaneous mutations
C. variations in the content of the cytoplasm between the cells
D. reduction division that leads to haploid cell formation

UNIT FOUR
1. Which theory of the origin of life states that life has no beginning or ending?
A. Eternity theory B. Special creationism C. Biochemical theory D. Cosmozoan theory
2. Which one of the following is the Neo-Darwinism idea of evolution? Evolutionary changes occur due to
A. natural selection through genetics and behaviour C. inheritance of acquired characteristics
B. competitions between living organism’s D. use and dis use of anatomical structures
3. Which one of the following is paleontological evidence of evolution?
A. The presence of homologous structures in living organisms
B. Similarities in the development of embryos in different organisms
C. Traces of organisms from the remote past
D. Similarities in the DNA base sequences of different organisms
4. A finch with an average length beak was not able to obtain insects out of the cracks in the bark of trees
as well as with a longer beak. It was also not able to crush seeds as well as one with a shorter beak over
time, those with the longer beaks and those with the shorter beaks increased in numbers, while those
with average length beaks decreased in number. Which type of selection has been operated in this
scenario?

A. Behavioural B. Disruptive C. Directional D. Stabilising

5. What is the significance of Australopithecus afarensis in the study of human evolution? To confirm
A. evolution of bipedalism before large brains
B. divergent evolution of Homo erectus from homo habilus
C. true common ancestor of chimpanzees and humans
D. convergent evolution of Homo neanderthalensis and Homo erectus

UNIT FIVE
1. Instinctive behaviour
A. may be modified by new experiences C. develops through trial and error
B. is common to all members of species D. varies from individual to individual
2. Which one of the following statements is an example of latent learning?
A. The random movement of woodlice in response to changes in light intensity and humidity
B. Female baboon turns its buttock toward the dominant male to signify readiness to mate
C. Knowledge of mice about the immediate environment of its burrow may help it escape from predator
D. Foraging bees returning from successful trip dance on the honey comb to recruit others to harvest a new
3. Consider the following statements
I. Genetically determined and common to all members of a species
II. The behaviour may be modified by new experiences
III. Behaviour is fully functional at the first attempt
IV. Generally there is no modification of the behaviour
Which numbers describe innate and learned behaviours?
A. Innate III, IV and Learned I, II C. Innate I, III, IV and Learned II
B. Innate I, II and Learned III, IV D. Innate II, III, IV and Leaned I
4. Which one of the following is an example of social behaviour?
A. Exaggeration of size by fluffing up of feathers C. Singing of frogs on spring nights
B. Caring for offspring that are not one’s own D. Making a territory with urine

Mohammed S.
May 25/2023G.C