The Potter's Freedom by James R. White
The Potter's Freedom by James R. White
The Potter's Freedom by James R. White
Preface
Foreword
Introduction
1. The Vital Issue
2. Determinately Knowing
3. The Inabilities of Man
4. The Will of Man
5. Unconditional Election a Necessity
6. CBF’s “Big Three” Verses
7. Jesus Teaches “Extreme Calvinism”
8. Unconditional Election
9. Responding to CBF on Romans 9
10. The Perfect Work of Calvary
11. Particular Redemption
12. Irresistable Grace is Resurrection Power
13. Irresistable Grace
14. The Potter’s Freedom Defended
Scripture Index
Appendices:
Dr. Geisler’s Class Project Reviewed and Refuted
Two Controversial Texts
Preface by Phillip R. Johnson
Poor Representation
CBF takes no pains to accurately or adequately represent the
Reformed position that it so strongly denounces. While some
mention is made of a small number of Reformed works, even
these are normally quoted in such a brief fashion as to make
their citation less than useful. A person reading CBF would
see a straw-man view of the reality, not the real thing.
Of course, immediately someone will say, “That’s what
everyone says.” Possibly so: however, through the text of this
work we will document the repeated instances where CBF,
even while admitting what Reformed writers assert, rejects this
and substitutes a more easily defeated enemy. For example,
CBF will cite Reformed writers speaking of the human will,
but, on the same page, will insist that it is their view that the
will is “destroyed.” All through the book the Reformed view
of God’s sovereign regeneration of the sinner, where God
graciously grants spiritual life, faith, and repentance to a
person who was spiritually dead, condemned, and incapable of
doing anything pleasing in God’s sight, is inaccurately
portrayed as “force” and “coercion,” all in an attempt to make
Calvinism look like something it is not. Such inaccuracies
only add to the confusion produced by the redefinition of
terms.
Most frustrating to the Reformed believer who has provided
a reasoned and Scripturally-based defense of his or her beliefs
is the utter lack of serious interaction on the part of CBF with
such works. There is simply no attempt to interact on a
meaningful level with the many Reformed works that provide
in-depth, serious biblical exegesis and argumentation in
defense of the Reformed position. While some works, such as
Owen’s The Death of Death in the Death of Christ and Piper’s
The Justification of God, are mentioned, and even cited, the
responses are so surface-level that they amount to nothing
more than a dismissal, not a rebuttal. And even here, the
Reformed material is handled in such a cavalier manner as to
make even the effort of citing it worthless. This is clearly seen
in the way in which CBF will quote as little as a single
sentence, and on the basis of this, accuse Reformed writers of
“changing” Scripture. For example, Dr. Geisler “quotes” from
John Owen and writes:
Arguably, the best defense of extreme Calvinism on
limited atonement comes from John Owen. His
response to this passage is a shocking retranslation to:
“God so loved his elect throughout the world, that he
gave His Son with this intention, that by him believers
might be saved”! This needs no response, simply a
sober reminder that God repeatedly exhorts us not to
add to or subtract from His words (Deut. 4:2; Prov.
30:6; Rev. 22:18-19).29
This citation is from page 214 of Owen’s work. Was this great
Christian scholar suggesting that we should “retranslate” John
3:16? Is this a fair representation of Owen’s position? Not in
the slightest. This citation comes toward the end of a lengthy
discussion of the passage (a discussion, I note, that is
significantly longer and in more depth than any discussion of
any passage in all of CBF). There is no attempt whatsoever on
the part of CBF to address the actual argument and the
reasoning set forth. Here, in context, is what Owen said:
First, If this word whosoever be distributive, then it
is restrictive of the love of God to some, and not to
others,—to one part of the distribution, and not the
other. And if it do not restrain the love of God,
intending the salvation of some, then it is not
distributive of the fore-mentioned object of it; and if it
do restrain it, then all are not intended in the love
which moved God to give his Son. Secondly, I deny
that the word here is distributive of the object of God’s
love, but only declarative of his end and aim in giving
Christ in the pursuit of that love,—to wit, that all
believers might be saved. So that the sense is, “God so
loved his elect throughout the world, that he gave his
Son with this intention, that by him believers might be
saved.” And this is all that is by any (besides a few
worthless cavils) objected from this place to disprove
our interpretation….30
As anyone reading the passage in context can see, to charge
Owen with alteration of the Word of God is quite simply
ridiculous. He not only specifically says, “the sense is…” (a
phrase that would have to be cited on the basis of mere
honesty if CBF is serious in accusing Owen of “adding” to the
Word of God), but it is painfully obvious that Owen is
interpreting the passage in the light of the preceding ten pages
of argumentation he had provided. One cannot avoid noting
that aside from this allegedly “sober reminder” offered by
Geisler, there is not a single word of meaningful
argumentation or refutation provided.
The same thing is true of CBF’s treatment of John Piper’s
The Justification of God. While CBF acknowledges the
existence of the work, and recognizes the high place it holds in
the thinking of Reformed exegetes and apologists, there is
almost nothing in it that smacks of the first attempt to
seriously respond to the conclusions so soberly and
masterfully presented by Piper. For example, Piper spends
many pages (pp. 56-73) fairly, carefully, and most importantly,
exegetically examining the issue of whether Romans 9 is
addressing individuals and their personal salvation, or merely
addressing nations. In so doing he provides forty-one
footnotes, addresses numerous issues regarding both the
Hebrew and Septuagint texts, and cites many (in full contexts)
who present a viewpoint other than his own. His conclusion,
then, is exegetical in nature. Note his words:
The interpretation which tries to restrict this
predestination or unconditional election to nations
rather than individuals or to historical tasks rather than
eternal destinies must ignore or distort the problem
posed in Rom. 9:1-5, the individualism of 9:6b, the
vocabulary and logical structure of 9:6b-8, the closely
analogous texts elsewhere in Paul, and the
implications of 9:14-23. The position is exegetically
untenable.31
What is truly amazing is that there is not the first attempt to
deal with anything presented by Piper in this section on the
part of CBF. The only citation of this section by CBF reads,
Even Piper, who holds that the Romans passage is
speaking of individual election to eternal salvation
admits of modern scholars that “the list of those who
see no individual predestination to eternal life or death
is impressive.”32
The footnote goes on to cite Piper’s quotation of those who
disagree with his position, but the entire book never once
attempts to deal with Piper’s refutation of the viewpoints he
cites! And, to be fair, Dr. Geisler should have likewise cited,
from the same page, this statement, “The list of modern
scholars on the other side is just as impressive.” To cite only
this passage, and ignore the exegesis that follows that utterly
undermines Geisler’s position, is simply unacceptable. This is
only exacerbated by the fact that on page 83 of CBF Piper is
again cited and said to be mistaken in his view of God’s
eternal predestination of Jacob and Esau, but nowhere is an
attempt made to even begin to interact with the pages and
pages of exegetical argumentation provided by Piper in
support of his position. While Geisler is content to simply cite
secondary sources regarding Romans 9, Piper does original
exegetical work. It is not sufficient response on Geisler’s part
to simply allege an error while ignoring the counter-evidence.
R.K. Wright experienced a very similar situation that he
relates concerning his studies at Trinity Evangelical Divinity
School under Clark Pinnock in the early 1970s. Pinnock
directed him to Arminian writers for “balance” in his research.
Wright comments:
This material only confirmed my suspicion that
Arminian writers had no understanding of the
questions I was struggling with and showed no
willingness to interact seriously with Calvinist
exegesis. In fact, they wrote as if they were in a
historical vacuum. Apart from a passing nod toward
Calvin or a reference to Augustine, they wrote as if no
Calvinist had ever dealt with these issues in detail
before. They made no attempt, for example, to answer
the meticulous demonstration by John Gill that the
Arminian exegesis of key passages (such as 2 Pet 3:9
and 2 Tim 2:4-6 [sic: 1 Tim 2:4-6]) is fallacious. I did
not see then, and do not see now, why Gill should be
treated with contempt simply because he is so detailed
and writes in the labored and finicky style so common
to the 1700s. Pinnock made derogatory remarks about
Gill, but showed no concern to answer Gill’s
painstaking treatment of Matthew 23:37, which I
raised as an example of a solid Calvinist response to
careless Arminian exegesis.33
The parallels to CBF are striking. CBF offers no substantial
refutation of Reformed exegesis. Indeed, if all one read was
CBF, one would not be aware that there was substantial
Reformed exegetical defense of the Calvinistic position. In the
same way, Geisler’s work makes no attempt to respond to
Gill’s comments on Matthew 23:37 despite the fact that he
makes use of the passage eleven times in CBF. The Arminian
understanding is assumed but nowhere defended. It seems,
then, that CBF falls into the same category of Arminian
writings as those examined by Dr. Wright.
Knowingly Predetermining?
The third source of confusion comes from Dr. Geisler’s
rather unique, yet, I believe, completely unworkable concept
of God’s foreknowledge and man’s “free will.” The concept is
confusing because it allows Dr. Geisler to use mutually
exclusive terms in the same sentence as if they actually “fit”
together. In reality, as we will see, the terms have been
redefined from their historical or biblical usages to allow them
to “fit” together, but without a knowledge of the background
of Geisler’s position, most will not see how the position
simply does not survive examination. What is most troubling
is the only conclusion that can be drawn from an analysis of
the position espoused in CBF: there is no positive, free decree
of God that determines what takes place in this, God’s
creation. We will carefully unpack all of this particular aspect
of CBF in chapter two.
Poor Exegesis
The Reformed position is nothing if not rich in the most in-
depth exegetical work of generations of men who have labored
diligently at the task of fairly and honestly dealing with the
Scriptures in their original tongues. Calvinists are known for
writing entire books on short passages of Scripture, and
preaching entire series of sermons on just a few verses. The
Reformed person is exhorted to handle the text of Scripture
with great care and concern to listen to the words of Scripture
in their own context, constantly seeking to draw out from
Scripture its meaning rather than pressing onto Scripture a
meaning that is not a part of the original context. Even
Calvin’s detractors are forced to admit the value of his
commentaries on the Bible even to this day.
But exegesis is not the forte of CBF. Very few passages are
addressed in a truly exegetical fashion, and in most cases,
mere assertion takes the place of meaningful consideration of
the important elements of the task of biblical interpretation.
Unfortunately, CBF provides far more examples of eisegesis
than it does of exegesis. Since this book will focus upon a
biblical defense of the Reformed position, example after
example will be offered in the text itself. But just one brief
citation that is related to John 6, mentioned above: In
mustering a few citations in defense of the idea that anyone
can believe and that true, saving faith is not a gift from God,
Geisler cites John 3:16 and 18, and then writes, “And,
‘Whoever comes to me I will never drive away’ (John 6:37).”
Even a cursory glance at the text reveals that this partial
citation is the second half of a full sentence; that there is no
indefinite relative pronoun here (“whoever”), but instead it
literally reads, “and the one coming.” The sentence defines
who this “coming” one is: “All that the Father gives Me will
come to Me.” The one coming to Christ in John 6:37b is the
one of the entire body of the elect given by the Father to the
Son in 6:37a. The text literally contradicts Geisler’s thesis, yet,
by not taking it in its own context, the verse is cited to present
the exact opposite of its intended meaning. This kind of
eisegetical procedure marks the entirety of CBF.
The Format
In past days it was common for theologians to write
volumes in response to someone else. They did so expecting
that their audience had read and assimilated the information in
their opponent’s work. Publishers are hesitant to present such
works today, preferring merely a “positive presentation” rather
than a direct response.
The Reformed tradition is rich in honest dialogue and
debate. Those who love truth will not be offended by honest,
direct refutation and interaction. The “politically correct”
culture we live in should not be allowed to silence meaningful
theological debate. Dr. Geisler himself has written:
Third, what about those who insist that drawing lines
will divide Christians? In response it must be lovingly
but firmly maintained that it is better to be divided by
truth than to be united by error. There is an unhealthy
tendency in evangelical Christianity to hide under the
banner of Christian charity while sacrificing doctrinal
purity.34
In the spirit of these words I offer a rebuttal of Dr. Geisler’s
work. This is not meant to be a presentation of the Reformed
view so ably accomplished by others: my positive presentation
will be limited to establishing facts that are not in evidence
from a reading of CBF. Instead, I will be demonstrating that
the biblical argumentation provided by Norman Geisler is in
error. It is my hope that the reader will be edified by the
consistent focus upon biblical exegesis, for this is, truly, the
heart and soul of Reformed theology.
Notes
1 Norman Geisler, Chosen but Free (Bethany House, 1999),
p. 100.
2 Ibid., p. 131.
3 p. 132.
4 p. 134.
5 Ibid.
6 p. 135.
7 Ibid.
8 Ibid.
9 p. 136.
10 pp. 136-137.
11 p. 21
12 p. 28.
13 p. 35.
14 p. 82.
15 p. 85.
16 p. 86.
17 p. 205.
18 p. 242.
19 Specifically, I had asserted, in response to his claim that
Calvin did not embrace particular redemption (limited
atonement), that there are a number of excellent works on
the subject that come to the opposite conclusion. I had also
objected to his use of the phrase “extreme Calvinist.”
20 There are a number of Calvin’s works that are useful here,
including, of course, his Institutes of the Christian Religion
as well as his Concerning the Eternal Predestination of
God.
21 Many of Edwards’ sermons are focused upon this doctrine.
See The Works of Jonathan Edwards (Banner of Truth,
1984).
22 Turretin is not easy reading, but incredibly thorough. See
his Institutes of Elenctic Theology (Presbyterian and
Reformed, 1992).
23 See The Works of Benjamin B. Warfield (Baker Book
House, 1981), Volume 5, “Calvin and Calvinism.”
24 Edwin Palmer, The Five Points of Calvinism (Baker Book
House, 1972).
25 Dr. Sproul’s works are especially important as they figure
prominently in this work, since Dr. Geisler especially
focuses on him and cites from his works in Chosen But
Free. See Chosen by God (Tyndale House Publishers,
1986) and Willing to Believe (Baker Book House, 1997).
26 Most importantly is Piper’s tremendous exegesis of
Romans 9 found in The Justification of God (Baker Book
House, 1993).
27 James White, God’s Sovereign Grace (Crowne
Publications, 1991) and Drawn by the Father (Crowne
Publications, 1991).
28 And many in a tremendous way. For example, I heartily
recommend his work with Nix, A General Introduction to
the Bible (Moody Press, 1986).
29 Chosen But Free, p. 193.
30 John Owen, The Death of Death in the Death of Christ
(The Banner of Truth Trust, 1985), p. 214.
31 John Piper, The Justification of God (Grand Rapids: Baker
Book House, 1993), p. 73.
32 Chosen But Free, p. 82, footnote 7.
33 R.K. Wright, No Place For Sovereignty: What’s Wrong
with Freewill Theism (InterVarsity Press, 1996), pp. 38-39.
34 Norman Geisler, The Battle for the Resurrection (Thomas
Nelson Publishers, 1992), p. 171.
Chapter 1
A Necessary Definition
What are the “doctrines of grace,” and why do they matter?
Such is like asking, “What does the Bible teach about the very
heart of the gospel, and does it matter one way or the other?”
The doctrines of grace are the biblical teachings that define the
goal and means of God’s perfect work of redemption. They
tell us that God is the one who saves, for His own glory, and
freely. And they tell us that He does so only through Christ,
only on the basis of His grace, only with the perfection that
marks everything the Father, Son, and Spirit do. The doctrines
of grace separate the Christian faith from the works-based
religions of men. They direct us away from ourselves and
solely to God’s grace and mercy. They destroy pride, instill
humility, and exalt God. And that’s why so many invest so
much time in the vain attempt to undermine their truth. The
religions of men maintain authority over their followers by 1)
limiting God’s power, 2) exalting man’s abilities, and 3)
“channeling” God’s power through their own structures. A
perfect salvation that is freely bestowed by God for His own
glory is not a “system” that can be controlled by a religious
body or group. And even more importantly, such a system is
destructive of any sense of pride in the creature man, and if
there is anything man’s religions must safeguard, it is man’s
“self-esteem.”
In our modern setting the debate is normally framed by the
famous “Five Points of Calvinism.” These have historically
been defined as follows:
T = Total Depravity: Man is dead in sin, completely and
radically impacted by the Fall, the enemy of God, incapable of
saving himself. This does not mean that man is as evil as he
could be. Nor does it mean that the image of God is destroyed,
or that the will is done away with. Instead, it refers to the all
pervasiveness of the effects of sin, and the fact that man is,
outside of Christ, the enemy of God.
U = Unconditional Election: God elects a specific people
unto Himself without reference to anything they do. This
means the basis of God’s choice of the elect is solely within
Himself: His grace, His mercy, His will. It is not man’s
actions, works, or even foreseen faith, that “draws” God’s
choice. God’s election is unconditional and final.
L = Limited Atonement: Since it is God’s purpose to save
a special people for Himself, and He has chosen to do so only
through the perfect sacrifice of Jesus Christ, Christ came to
give His life “a ransom for many” so as to “save His people
from their sins” (Matthew 1:21). The intention of Christ in His
cross-work was to save His people specifically. Therefore,
Christ’s sacrifice is perfect and complete, for it actually
accomplishes perfect redemption.
I = Irresistible Grace: This is the belief that God is able to
raise the spiritually dead sinner to life. This is an act of
efficient grace. When God chooses to bring one of His elect to
spiritual life, it is an act similar to when Jesus raised Lazarus
from the dead: just as Lazarus was incapable of resisting the
power of Christ in raising him from the dead, so too the dead
sinner is incapable of resisting the power of God that raises
him to spiritual life. This is not to say that men have not
resisted God’s grace. This doctrine speaks specifically to the
grace that brings regeneration, not to individual acts of sin
committed by believers or unbelievers.
P = Perseverance of the Saints: Some prefer saying “the
preservation of the saints” to emphasize that this is the work of
God: others use the phrase “eternal security” to emphasize the
impossibility of God’s perfect work of salvation being undone.
But whatever one calls it, it is the belief that when Christ saves
one of His elect, He will not fail to keep that saved person
throughout life and bring them safely into His presence. It is,
in short, the belief that Christ is able to save perfectly.
Historically, the debate goes back long before the
Reformation, however. One can trace the argument back
through the centuries, through men such as Gottschalk of
Orbais, all the way back to Augustine and Pelagius in the fifth
century. But really the issue can be found clearly addressed in
the New Testament itself, so we should not be surprised that it
remains an ever-new issue with each generation that comes
along. Sin causes man to constantly seek to insert himself into
the work of God in salvation, so every generation has to be
reminded of their complete dependence upon Him and of His
perfect freedom.
That is one reason why I do not believe the common “five
points” listed above is enough for today. There is a sixth point,
one that lies at the head of the list, that must be firmly
proclaimed and defended today: the freedom of God. While it
may have been taken for granted a few centuries ago, today it
is surely a belief under fire. But since it lies at the very heart of
the debate, we need to begin with a discussion of what it
means.
No man can boast before God. God has chosen the weak
things, the base things, the foolish things, so that He might
destroy the wisdom of the wise. It is by “His doing” that any
person is in Christ. It is not by His doing and our doing, a
cooperative effort, but by His alone. Now, one might object to
the use of the term “alone,” but the passage bears this out.
Christ has become to us everything we need: wisdom,
righteousness, sanctification and redemption. None of this
comes from ourselves. None of this is dependent upon us. The
result, Paul says, is that if anyone is to boast, he can boast
solely in the Lord.
The Christian heart is glad to confess, “Salvation is of the
Lord.” All of it. In completeness. In perfection. The God who
decrees all things saves perfectly. Salvation is a divine act, a
divine work. It is centered upon God, not upon man. It is
God’s glory, not man’s, that is at stake. The God-centeredness
of the gospel is what makes the biblical teaching so
fundamentally different than all the religions of men.
Many, including Dr. Geisler, speak of the sovereignty of
God. But what do they mean? Dr. Geisler’s position is unusual
—almost unique. Since he claims it is in harmony with a
“moderate Calvinistic” view, we need to understand his
presentation and how it differs from the historic Reformed
position.
Notes
1 13th August 1554, Letters of St. Ignatius of Loyola, p. 345
as cited in Hans Hillerbrand, ed., The Reformation (Grand
Rapids: Baker, 1987), pp. 446-447.
2 Martin Luther, The Bondage of the Will, Henry Cole,
trans., (Baker, 1976), p. 390.
3 Ibid., pp.390-391.
4 Martin Luther, On the Bondage of the Will: A New
Translation of De Servo Arbitrio (1525) Martin Luther’s
Reply to Erasmus of Rotterdam, trans. J.I. Packer and O.R.
Johnston (Fleming H. Revell Company, 1957), p. 319.
5 “Divine Sovereignty,” a sermon delivered May 4, 1856.
Chapter 2
Determinately Knowing
Walvoord: A Tribute
In 1982, Moody Press published a tribute to Dallas
Seminary professor John Walvoord.4 Dr. Geisler wrote an
essay for this work titled “God, Evil and Dispensations”
(pages 95-112). We here begin to pick up the outline of the
position that comes to full expression philosophically in CBF
and that explains the biblical exegesis and theology that is
presented therein. Most importantly, we here encounter the
phrase “determinately foreknew” which becomes central to the
understanding of Geisler’s position:
Finally, since God knows the end from the beginning
(Isa. 46:10), He determinately foreknew (cf. Acts
2:23) that He would bring a greater good out of evil,
namely, the redemption of all who will believe. In
short, what brings glory to God also brings good to
mankind. Good and glory cannot be separated. God is
interested in bringing good to men—the greatest good
possible.5
Throughout Dr. Geisler’s discussions of “determination” one
will find a constant emphasis upon God’s knowledge. We will
see how vital this is below. For now, since God knows, then
He “determinately foreknew.”
God will achieve the greatest number in heaven that
He possibly can. He does not love just some men; He
loves all and will do everything within His loving
power to save all He can….
When the statement is made that God will achieve
the greatest good “possible,” it does not mean the
greatest number of people will be saved that is
logically possible (that would be 100 percent). What is
meant by that statement is that God will save the
greatest number of people that is actually achievable
without violating their free choice. A loving God will
not force anyone against their will to love Him or to
worship Him. Forced love is not love; forced worship
is not worship. Heaven will not be composed of
robots. God is not a kind of “Cosmic B. F. Skinner”
who believes in manipulating people into certain
behavior patterns which are pleasing to Himself. God
does not, as Skinner wishes, go “beyond freedom and
dignity.” In short, God will not save people at all cost
—not if it is at the cost of their freedom and dignity—
for that would mean at the cost of their humanity. God
will not dehumanize in order to save. To dehumanize
is to de-create, since that is what God created—a
human….God is love, and love works persuasively but
not coercively. Those whom God can lovingly
persuade have been foreordained to eternal life. Those
whom He cannot, are destined in accordance with
their own choice to eternal destruction (2 Thess. 1:7-9,
Rev. 20:11-15).6
Here in brief scope is a summary of what Dr. Geisler will say
in full in CBF: God will save as many as possible, but He will
do so not on the basis of a positive decree of personal election
(i.e., God elects a particular people) but instead will make
salvation available but leave it to man’s “free will.” Geisler’s
concept of “freedom” insists that man, to be man, must be
absolutely free. To violate man’s “freedom” is to
“dehumanize” or “decreate” man, and this cost is too high. It
should be noted that these sentiments are not Calvinistic: no
Calvinist believes God “dehumanizes” when He regenerates;
no Calvinist speaks of God as merely “persuading” the elect,
nor do they speak of God “coercing” the elect (neither term,
logically, can be attached to the concept of regeneration, which
is being raised from spiritual death to spiritual life). These are
Arminian descriptions, not Calvinistic ones.
Four Views
Three years after the publication of the Walvoord tribute
InterVarsity Press released Predestination & Free Will, edited
by David and Randall Basinger. Here John Feinberg, Norman
Geisler, Bruce Reichenbach, and Clark Pinnock contributed
essays which were then reviewed by the other three writers.
The focus is directly on the very issue at hand, that being the
relationship between God’s sovereignty, knowledge, and the
will of man. One will find that this essay is repeated,
sometimes almost verbatim, throughout CBF, so it’s
importance in grasping Geisler’s most recent presentation is
clear.
Fundamentally, Dr. Geisler presents a concept of God’s
predetermination that he asserts is “according to” not
“contrary to” foreknowledge. Here are his words:
Perhaps God’s predetermination is neither based on
his foreknowledge of human free choices nor done in
spite of it. The Scriptures, for example, declare that we
are “chosen according to the foreknowledge of God”
(1 Pet 1:2). That is to say, there is no chronological or
logical priority of election and foreknowledge. As a
simple Being, all of God’s attributes are one with his
indivisible essence. Hence, both foreknowledge and
predetermination are one in God. Thus whatever God
knows, he determines. And whatever he determines,
he knows.7
Right here we run directly into the most problematic element
of Geisler’s paradigm: “there is no chronological or logical
priority of election and foreknowledge.” That means that in his
system one cannot ask the question that has been asked by
generations of theologians before him: it has always been
recognized that God either bases His election and decrees on
what he foresees in the free actions of creatures, or, His decree
and election determines what takes place in time. In the first
scenario, the creatures are by default the sovereigns of the
universe, since their wills and actions are ultimate; God
becomes a mere servant of the creature, reacting rather than
reigning. In the second, God is absolutely free and man, the
creature, acts in accordance with his created nature. But
Geisler (it seems) attempts to chart a different course, in
essence saying that one cannot ask which one gives rise,
logically, to the other.
Geisler bases this assertion on the statement that “all of
God’s attributes are one with his indivisible essence. Hence,
both foreknowledge and predetermination are one in God.” It
is somewhat startling that generations of Christian theologians
could have missed such a simple truth and as a result have
needlessly argued over this issue for centuries. But does the
simplicity of the Being of God necessitate that there really is
no logical relationship between foreknowledge and
predetermination?
It is at this very point that Geisler’s thesis is subject to
devastating criticism. John Feinberg was quite right to
respond:
But, granting God such knowledge does not mean
that he does not know the logical sequence and
relations among the items that he knows. Moreover,
granting that God foreordains all things
simultaneously does not mean that there is no logical
order in what he foreordains. For example, God
always knew that Christ would be born and would also
die. But he also understood that logically (as well as
chronologically) one of those events had to precede
the other. That does not mean that God knew one of
those events before he knew the other. It only means
that in knowing both simultaneously, he knows the
logical and chronological relation between the two
events.8
Indeed, one can point to the fact that God is fully just and fully
merciful. Yet, even these two aspects of God’s character bear a
logical relationship to the other: one cannot define mercy
without logical reference to justice. Hence, the mere assertion
that God’s Being is simple and one does not logically entail
accepting the idea that there is no logical relationship between
God’s act of decreeing, His election, His foreordination, and
his knowledge of future events. We must agree with Feinberg
when he summarizes the question Geisler (and everyone else)
must answer: “does God foreknow because he foreordains or
does he foreordain because he foreknows?”9 The fact is we
will see that Dr. Geisler does take a de facto position on this
topic.
Geisler continues:
More properly, we should speak of God as knowingly
determining and determinately knowing from all
eternity everything that happens, including all free
acts…. In other words, all aspects of the eternal
purpose of God are equally timeless. For if God is an
eternal and simple Being then his thoughts must be
coordinate and unified.
Whatever he forechooses cannot be based on what
he foreknows. Nor can what he foreknows be based on
what he forechose.10 Both must be simultaneous and
coordinate acts of God. Thus God knowingly
determined and determinately knew from all eternity
everything that would come to pass, including all free
acts. Hence, they are truly free actions, and God
determined they would be such. God then is totally
sovereign in the sense of actually determining what
occurs, and yet humans are completely free and
responsible for what they choose.11
It is very difficult to understand these words, given that they
are based upon the assertion that there is no logical priority of
foreordination to foreknowledge, for they are “one.” But given
that in point of fact there is no reason to accept this assertion,
we are still left with the classical conundrum of how God can
be sovereign over all things on one hand, and man “completely
free” on the other. Using phrases like “determinately knowing”
or “knowingly determining” does not in reality solve the
problem, it only confuses it.
At this point it is good to note that there is a real danger in
misunderstanding the use of the term “predetermined” or just
“determined.” Most people upon reading this term think of a
positive, volitional action on the part of God: i.e., in the sense
of decreeing that something is going happen, such as the
crucifixion of Christ (Acts 4:28) which took place, we are told,
as God’s power and will had decided beforehand. Most people
understand these terms to speak to something active on the
part of God. But we will see this is not Geisler’s meaning.
When he speaks of “knowingly determining,” the active
element is gone. “Determined” here refers to the passive
recognition of the actions of free men, not the sovereign decree
that the action would take place through the instrumentality of
creatures.
In other words, what Geisler means is that God
“determines” what will take place through His perfect
knowledge. It would be like my saying that “I determined the
water in the pool was very cold by putting my toe in the
water.” “Determined” here is passive: I did not make the water
hot or cold, I just passively took in knowledge that it was, in
fact, cold. We could contrast this with my saying, “I installed a
heating system in my pool, and determined the temperature
would stay at 76 degrees.” Here, “determined” is active
because I am actually making the water a particular
temperature. When Geisler speaks of God “determining”
things he is saying that since God has perfect, complete, and
instantaneous knowledge of all events, past, present, and
future, then He determines those actions—but this is solely in
the passive sense. The grand issue of whether God actively
decrees whatsoever comes to pass is, in fact, directly denied.
In this sense, Geisler’s position, despite all the theological
terminology and discussion of sovereignty, is very much the
same as the Arminian who says that God merely looks into the
future and elects on the basis of what He sees. While Geisler
repeats his assertion that one cannot logically determine the
relationship between foreknowledge and predetermination, his
constant emphasis upon the absolute freedom of the creature
betrays the reality of his system. This comes out with clarity in
these words:
This being the case, there is no problem of how an
act can be truly free if God has determined in advance
what will take place. God’s foreknowledge is not
foreordaining anything which will later occur to him.
All of time is present to God’s mind from all eternity.
God does not really foreknow it; he simply knows it in
his eternal presence. Hence, God is not foreordaining
from his vantage point, but simply ordaining what
humans are doing freely. God sees what we are freely
doing. And what he sees, he knows. And what he
knows, he determines. So God determinately knows
and knowingly determines what we are freely
deciding.12
It is important to follow this closely: God simply “knows” all
of time and the free choices of humans that take place within
time. God is not determining this actively, but passively. And
this comes out in the final sentences: humans are “doing”
things “freely.” God “sees” what they are “freely doing.” What
God sees, He must know, and what He knows, He knows
perfectly. Now here is the key: “And what he knows, he
determines.” Knowing the free actions of men results in his
“determining” those actions: passively, of course, not actively.
This then is the meaning of “knowingly determining” what
humans are “freely deciding.”
What is really being said here needs to be kept in mind: the
decisions or “decreeing” that takes place is done by man. God
perfectly knows what man does, and passively “determines” it
simultaneously as He knows it (in Geisler’s view). But there is
one major problem here: who is actually deciding what takes
place in time? Feinberg saw this in reviewing Geisler’s
position and asked the question this way: “Does the agent act
because of causal factors which decisively incline the will or
does he act without any factors decisively inclining the will?”
In plain language, do men do what they do because God has
decreed all things (including the actions of men) or do men act
autonomously, and God simply has perfect knowledge of the
results? It seems Dr. Geisler’s position leads inevitably to the
latter: that in the final analysis, man is the one that actively,
willfully, freely determines what takes place in the human
realm. God’s “sovereignty,” if we can use the term, is limited
to giving the gift of freedom:
God is the cause of the fact of freedom, and humans
are the cause of the acts of freedom. God made the
agent, but the agents cause the actions. God gives
people power (of free choice), but they exercise it
without coercion. Thus God is responsible for
bestowing freedom, but humans are responsible for
behaving with it. (p. 79)
God’s “responsibility” is limited to giving men freedom:
nowhere in these discussions do we see any emphasis at all
upon God’s freedom. While it is definitional in Geisler’s view
that man be free, it does not seemingly follow that when it
comes to actions in time, it is definitional that God be free as
well.
Open Theism
These issues were again addressed in the context of a
critique of “open theism” in Dr. Geisler’s 1997 Bethany House
Publication, Creating God in the Image of Man? This is most
significant in light of the fact that if anywhere the freedom of
God, His sovereign decree, and His active and free
determination of events in time will be confessed by Dr.
Geisler, it would have to be here. Open theism is specifically
designed to undercut and deny the sovereignty of God and the
idea that He is accomplishing a specific, freely chosen purpose
in this world. While Dr. Geisler identifies it as at least a
“theistic” system, I would assert open theism is fundamentally
incompatible with Christian theism, and is hence opposed to
Christian truth. It is in the context of defining the Christian
position that Dr. Geisler again makes clear his opposition to
the Reformed position and Reformed theology:
In brief, God can know a “must be” through a “may
be” but not a “can’t be.” Therefore, an omniscient
being (God) knows all future contingents as
necessarily true. This he can do because God knows
necessarily that what will be must be. That is, if it will
and God knows it, then what God knows about what
will be must be true. An omniscient mind cannot be
wrong about what it knows. Therefore the statement
“Everything known by God must necessarily be” is
true if it refers to the statement of the truth of God’s
knowledge, but it is false if it refers to the necessity of
the contingent events. This view of God’s
foreknowledge and free will is compatible with both
classical Arminianism and moderate Calvinism.13
This is consistent with what has come before: there is passive
yet perfect knowing of future contingencies but the active
determination of what takes place in time remains within the
purview of the creature, not the Creator. This is confirmed a
little later:
Actually, God knew from eternity who would repent.
And God’s will includes intermediate causes such as
human free choice. So God knows what the
intermediate causes will choose to do. And God’s will
is in accord with his unchangeable knowledge.
Therefore, God’s will never changes, since he wills
what he knows will happen. That is to say, what is
willed by conditional necessity does not violate human
freedom, since what is willed is conditioned on their
freely choosing it. God wills the salvation of men only
conditionally. Therefore, God’s will to salvation does
not violate human free choice; it utilizes it. Both
classical Arminians and moderate Calvinists agree.
Among evangelicals, only extreme Calvinists demur.14
Not only does Dr. Geisler here admit that his view is in
harmony with the Arminian view15 and contradictory to the
historic Reformed position, but he in essence undermines his
own previous assertion that predetermination and
foreknowledge are “one” and indistinguishable by saying that
“what is willed is conditioned on (my emphasis) their freely
choosing it.” It is almost frightening to consider that here
God’s will is said to be “in accord with his unchangeable
knowledge,” and that his will never changes “since he wills
what he knows will happen.” It is vital to see this: men act
freely, autonomously, while God’s will is defined by His
knowledge of what takes place in time. Truly this makes man
the determiner and God the “perfect knower.” Yet, the only
positive, free, active will in all of this is man’s, not God’s. At
its root, this in no way differs from the Arminian viewpoint
that God elects on the basis of what he foresees.
A Flawed Foundation
CBF operates on the assertion that God’s knowledge and
God’s predetermination (taken passively) are identical, and
that in reality there is no positive, active, sovereign decree of
God that gives form and shape to time and history. This
viewpoint plays upon the term “determination” and the
possibility of taking the word actively or passively. God’s
“determination” of events becomes passive, yet, despite this,
the author connects this passive determination of events in
time with the term “sovereignty” which truly admits of no
such “passive” concept. The result is a tremendously
confusing presentation that seems to promote both the idea that
God is absolutely sovereign and man is absolutely free. But in
reality, the position presents a God who is limited to having a
perfect knowledge of free events; the extent of His sovereign
actions is in granting freedom: He does not control what His
creatures do with that freedom, but only knows the results
perfectly. This system is driven primarily by philosophical
concerns, not by biblical exegesis, as we shall see when we
examine the biblical argumentation presented in CBF. Charles
Hodge expressed it well:
Who would wish to see the reins of universal empire
fall from the hands of infinite wisdom and love, to be
seized by chance or fate? Who would not rather be
governed by a Father than by a tornado? If God cannot
effectually control the acts of free agents there can be
no prophecy, no prayer, no thanksgiving, no promises,
no security of salvation, no certainty whether in the
end God or Satan is to be triumphant, whether heaven
or hell is to be the consummation. Give us certainty—
the secure conviction that a sparrow cannot fall, or a
sinner move a finger, but as God permits and ordains.
We must have either God or Satan to rule. And if God
has a providence He must be able to render the free
acts of his creatures certain; and therefore certainty
must be consistent with liberty.31
This is the view that then logically gives rise to a rejection
of every element of the Reformed faith.32 It should be noted
that this is not a Calvinistic view of God’s absolute freedom
and sovereignty. This is not a view that could be called
moderately Calvinistic, weakly Calvinistic, or even remotely
Calvinistic. And if one rejects the Reformed view at its root, it
should not be surprising that the rest of the system likewise
suffers at Dr. Geisler’s hands. One is not a Potter who has no
role in determining the shape, function, and destiny of the
pots.
Notes
1 We do not here speak of foreknowledge in the sense of the
verbal concept “to foreknow,” which in the Bible is not a
matter of merely knowing future facts, but of personally
entering into relationship with someone. See the
discussion in chapter seven.
2 Geisler laid out his view most fully in Basinger &
Basinger, 61-88; major elements of this essay appear in
various parts of CBF.
3 Conspicuously absent is the emphasis upon the absolute
freedom of God.
4 Donald Campbell, ed., Walvoord: A Tribute (Moody Press,
1982).
5 Ibid., p. 102.
6 Ibid., pp. 102-103.
7 Basinger & Basinger, p. 70.
8 Ibid., p. 86.
9 Ibid., p. 88.
10 This is a particularly troubling statement, for if God’s
knowledge of future events is not based upon his sovereign
decree, then the events that take place in time find their
origin and source in something other than God’s infinitely
wise will.
11 Ibid., pp. 70-71.
12 Ibid., p. 73.
13 Norman Geisler, Creating God in the Image of Man?
(Bethany House Publishers, 1997), p. 38.
14 Ibid., p. 43.
15 See the discussion of his use of “moderate Calvinist” in the
Introduction and throughout this work. Note as well the
direct assertion that God’s election is conditional: a direct
denial of the Reformed belief in unconditional election.
Geisler will, in CBF, attempt to present a new definition of
“unconditional election” so that his denial of it can adopt
the same name.
16 Geisler, Chosen But Free, p. 15.
17 Ibid., p. 13.
18 Ibid., p. 18.
19 Ibid. p. 42.
20 Ibid., p. 43
21 Ibid.
22 Ibid., p. 45.
23 Ibid., p. 46.
24 Ibid., pp. 52-53.
25 Ibid., p. 54.
26 Ibid, pp. 46-47.
27 That is, the Greek term πρóλνωσις is used in Scripture
regarding God’s gracious choice to enter into relationship
with His people. See the discussion in chapter 7 and in
God’s Sovereign Grace, pp. 117-122.
28 Ibid., p. 47
29 R.C. Sproul, Willing to Believe, 1997, pp. 65-66.
30 CBF, p. 178.
31 Charles Hodge, Systematic Theology, II:301-302.
32 The sole exception being the perseverance of the saints,
though, even here, the basis of that perseverance is
substantially different.
Chapter 3
Charles Haddon Spurgeon once said, “As the salt flavors every
drop in the Atlantic, so does sin affect every atom of our
nature. It is so sadly there, so abundantly there, that if you
cannot detect it, you are deceived.”1 The great works of
Christians down through the centuries are filled with the same
testimony: man is the slave of sin, utterly undone outside of
Christ. Even those whose theology did not measure up to the
biblical standard could not help, in their prayers, to confess
what they knew to be true: the fallen sons of Adam are dead in
sin, incapable of even the first move toward God. Even more,
they are filled with the effect of depravity and alienation from
God: enmity and hatred toward His holy standards. This was a
common element of Spurgeon’s preaching:
Now, the calling of the Holy Spirit is without any
regard to any merit in us. If this day the Holy Spirit
shall call out of this congregation a hundred men, and
bring them out of their estate of sin into a state of
righteousness, you shall bring these hundred men, and
let them march in review, and if you could read their
hearts, you would be compelled to say, “I see no
reason why the Spirit of God should have operated
upon these. I see nothing whatever that could have
merited such grace as this—nothing that could have
caused the operations and motions of the Spirit to
work in these men.” For, look ye here. By nature, men
are said to be dead in sin. If the Holy Spirit quickens,
it cannot be because of any power in the dead men, or
any merit in them, for they are dead, corrupt and
rotten in the grave of their sin. If then, the Holy Spirit
says, “Come forth and live,” it is not because of
anything in the dry bones, it must be for some reason
in His own mind, but not in us. Therefore, know ye
this, men and brethren, that we all stand upon a level.
We have none of us anything that can recommend us
to God; and if the Spirit shall choose to operate in our
hearts unto salvation, He must be moved to do it by
His own supreme love, for He cannot be moved to do
it by any good will, good desire, or good deed, that
dwells in us by nature.2
The “flip-side” of divine freedom is the fact that man, the great
image-bearer of God, is a fallen creature, a slave to sin,
spiritually dead, incapable of doing what is pleasing to God.
Just as the great freedom of the Potter offends rebellious pots,
so too does the Bible’s teaching on the inabilities of man due
to sin. The fallen sons and daughters of Adam are most adept
at finding ways to promote creaturely freedom at the cost of
God’s freedom, while at the same time promoting the
servitude of God to the whims and will of man. It would be
humorous if it were not so serious: the pots gathering together
and assuring each other that the Potter either doesn’t exist, or,
at worst, will sit idly by while they take control and “run the
show” themselves. Yet this is the impact of sin upon the
thinking of man. Man suppresses the truth of his createdness
and invariably attempts to find a means to “control” God. One
wisely put it this way:
Again, it is certain that man never achieves a clear
knowledge of himself unless he has first looked upon
God’s face, and then descends from contemplating
him to scrutinize himself….So it happens in
estimating our spiritual goods. As long as we do not
look beyond the earth, being quite content with our
own righteousness, wisdom, and virtue, we flatter
ourselves most sweetly, and fancy ourselves all but
demigods. Suppose we but once begin to raise our
thoughts to God, and to ponder his nature, and how
completely perfect are his righteousness, wisdom, and
power—the straightedge to which we must be shaped.
Then, what masquerading earlier as righteousness was
pleasing in us will soon grow filthy in its consummate
wickedness. What wonderfully impressed us under the
name of wisdom will stink in its very foolishness.
What wore the face of power will prove itself the most
miserable weakness. That is, what in us seems
perfection itself corresponds ill to the purity of God.3
Truly recognizing one’s spiritual state is a gift of grace.
Outside of God opening the eyes of the heart man thinks
himself wonderfully pure, or at least acceptable in God’s sight.
That is why the unregenerate person cannot understand the
urgency of the gospel message: until they see the depth of their
sin and the holiness of God, they find no reason to seek
remedy for their condition.
Man’s religions consistently promote the myth of man’s
autonomy: his absolute freedom to act outside of any eternal
decree of God. “Man is the master of his destiny” seems to be
the watchword of the religions of men, and even of many in
Christendom today. How many times have you heard a
preacher say, “In the matter of election, God has cast his vote
for you, Satan has cast his against you, and now the final vote
is up to you”? Such an assertion not only makes man’s choice
equal with God’s, but it likewise places the final decision for
what takes place in time squarely in the hands of man, not of
God.
A Definition
What do Reformed Christians believe concerning the will of
man? The reader of CBF would have to conclude that true
Calvinists believe man’s will is “destroyed” and done away
with, resulting in nothing more than an automaton, a robot.
But this is not the case at all. Chapter 9 of the London Baptist
Confession (1689)4 is succinct and clear:
Dead In Sin
Reformed authors frequently point to the biblical teaching
that man is “dead in sin” as substantiation of their belief that
God must be absolutely sovereign and salvation must be
completely of free grace and not a synergistic cooperation
between God and man since man is not capable of
“cooperating” anymore than a corpse is able to help in its own
resurrection. Because of this, CBF invests a great deal of effort
in the attempt to redefine “spiritual death” so that it is no
longer incompatible with “free choice” and human autonomy.
We have already seen that CBF indicates that God’s creation
of the “list” of the elect is based, in some way, upon the
actions of men. Therefore, CBF must find a way for man to be
active even though spiritually dead. Even though dead, man
must be able to do “vertical” or spiritual good. Geisler rightly
defines the Calvinistic view at one point:
But they are incapable of any “vertical” or spiritual
good and, according to extreme Calvinism, they are
totally incapable of initiating, attaining, or ever
receiving the gift of salvation without the grace of
God.27
As a result, CBF sees the result of believing in this “extreme”
view of total depravity:
Extreme Calvinists believe that a totally depraved
person is spiritually dead. By “spiritual death” they
mean the elimination of all human ability to
understand or respond to God, not just a separation
from God. Further, the effects of sin are intensive
(destroying the ability to receive salvation), not
extensive (corrupting the ability to receive salvation).
It must immediately be said that it is not the Reformed
position that spiritual death means “the elimination of all
human ability to understand or respond to God.” Unregenerate
man is fully capable of understanding the facts of the gospel:
he is simply incapable, due to his corruption and enmity, to
submit himself to that gospel. And he surely responds to God
every day: negatively, in rebellion and self-serving sinfulness.
The Reformed assertion is that man cannot understand and
embrace the gospel nor respond in faith and repentance
toward Christ without God first freeing him from sin and
giving him spiritual life (regeneration).
So how does Dr. Geisler respond to the clear assertion of
Scripture that man is, indeed, dead in sin? Here is his response
to Ephesians 2:1 and the Reformed interpretation of it:
This extreme Calvinistic interpretation of what is
meant by spiritual “death” is questionable. First of all,
spiritual “death” in the Bible is a strong expression
meaning that fallen beings are totally separated from
God, not completely obliterated by Him. As Isaiah put
it, “your iniquities have separated you from your
God” (Isa. 59:2). In brief, it does not mean a total
destruction of all ability to hear and respond to God,
but a complete separation of the whole person from
God.28
Each assertion in this response is flawed. First, Geisler
misrepresents the Reformed position by contrasting “total
separation from God” with the strange idea of being
“completely obliterated by Him.” Where do Reformed writers
say spiritual death involves “complete obliteration” by God?
Being dead in sin does refer to separation from godly life; such
is a partial truth. But obviously Paul intends something more
than “separation” when he contrasts the horrific state of the
“spiritually dead” with the glorious position of the person who
is alive in Christ. The very use of the imagery of resurrection
shows us this. But no one asserts this means “total
obliteration.” What is “obliterated” is the ability of man to
subject himself to the law of God, not the man himself.
Next, we are not told how the true statement found in Isaiah
59:2 is relevant to the conclusion that follows its presentation.
Isaiah 59 is cited by Paul in Romans 3:15f as evidence of the
universal sinfulness of man. But how does the single assertion
that sin brings separation a basis for saying that this is all it
brings?
Finally, if a person experiences complete separation from
God, does it not follow that one is separated from the only
source of goodness, light, and truth? Are we to believe that
such a person who is totally separated from God can come up
with righteous desires, love for truth, repentance toward God,
etc., simply from themselves? Geisler goes on:
Second, even though they are spiritually “dead,” the
unsaved persons can perceive the truth of God. In
Romans, Paul declares emphatically that God’s truth is
“clearly seen” by them so that they are “without
excuse” (1:20).29
Again, no Reformed exegete would say otherwise. But Dr.
Geisler confuses the contexts of Romans 1 and Ephesians 2.
Romans 1 is referring to the truth of the existence of God that
is revealed through creation itself and is known by all men
(Romans 1:18-23). Paul is not addressing the truth of the
gospel message in Romans 1. So while the unsaved man
knows the truth of God’s existence, this is clearly not the same
thing as asserting that he is able to embrace and obey the
gospel. The two concepts are completely distinct, and no effort
is made by CBF to connect the two. So far, no commentary
has been offered by Dr. Geisler on the actual text of Ephesians
2:1. But we press on:
In short, depravity involves the corruption of life
but not its destruction. The image of God in fallen
humans is effaced but not erased. Even unsaved
people are said to be in God’s image (Gen. 9:6). The
image is marred by not eradicated by sin (cf. James
3:9).30
This is reiteration, not exegesis. This is what Dr. Geisler
believes, and even though it again misrepresents the Reformed
position (i.e., the assertion that the Calvinist believes the
image of God is “eradicated”), it does not provide any kind of
positive evidence or discussion of the meaning of Ephesians 2
and the phrase “dead in sin.” Calvinists often refer to “radical
corruption” as a synonym for “total depravity.” Surely man is
corrupted in the fall. But the issue is, what does it mean that
he is “dead in sin” as described in Ephesians 2:1? Quite
simply, Geisler doesn’t deal with the passage. Instead, the
misrepresentation of the Reformed position is pressed forward:
Fourth, if spiritually “dead” amounts to a kind of
spiritual annihilation, rather than separation, then the
“second death” (Rev. 20:10) would be eternal
annihilation, too—a doctrine rejected by extreme
Calvinists.31
It is difficult to know how to respond to this kind of
argumentation, as it is based upon such obvious errors. First, it
is Dr. Geisler’s assertion that Calvinists equate being dead in
sin with annihilation: it is not the assertion of Calvinists.
Hence, the proffered argument has no merit even if one were
to buy the idea that the term “dead” must mean exactly the
same thing in all contexts (something no sound exegete would
affirm anyway). Geisler’s attempted response to the passage
ends with no exegetical content, but only a repeat of the
primary assumptions of his entire system:
A spiritually dead person, then, is in need of
spiritual life from God. But he does exist, and he can
know and choose. His faculties that make up the
image of God are not absent, they are simply
incapable of initiating or attaining their own salvation.
Like a drowning person, a fallen person can reach out
and accept the lifeline even though he cannot make it
to safety on his own.32
First, this is surely the Arminian position. The analogy of the
drowning person is semi-Pelagian/Arminian. What it surely is
not is Calvinistic. But what does it mean to say that a
spiritually dead person, while dead, can still “reach out and
accept the lifeline”? How can that be? Dead men do not reach
out for anything.
Colossians 2:12-13 likewise teaches the truth that man is
dead in sin outside of Christ. CBF provides a two sentence
response to this passage:
Finally, in the parallel passage (Col. 2:12-13) Paul
speaks of those “dead in your sins and in the
uncircumcision of your sinful nature” being able to
believe. For he said, “you have been raised with him
through your faith in the power of God.”33
This is all that is said. The analogy of baptism that is used in
2:11-12 precedes Paul’s use of the word “dead,” which instead
is again connected with “being made alive” by Christ.
Seemingly the assertion being made is the person who has
faith in the power of God is an unregenerate, spiritually dead
person. How this is proven from the text, or why we should
believe this in light of Paul’s statement in Romans 8:8, is not
explained. In short, CBF’s theology simply cannot provide a
coherent explanation of Ephesians 2:1/Colossians 2:13, and
none is offered. Instead, the response offered is nothing but a
mixture of straw man arguments against Calvinism with the
simple reiteration of the Arminian mantra of free-willism.
Notice the amazing use of the phrase “so dead” in the
following citation based upon the presentation of the Puritan
writer William Ames:
What is more, according to Ames, God determines
to save whomever He wishes regardless of whether
they choose to believe or not. In fact, God gives the
faith to believe to whomever He wills. Without this
God-given faith they could not and would not believe.
In fact, fallen human beings are so dead in sin that
God must first regenerate them before they can even
believe. Dead men do not believe anything; they are
dead!34
Are there degrees of “deadness,” so that one can be dead, yet
not so dead as to require spiritual life before believing? If men
are dead in sin at all, it follows that they must have spiritual
life restored to them before they can do spiritually good things.
The only error in the above presentation is that Ames does not
say “dead men do not believe anything.” Spiritually dead men
believe all sorts of things: just not those things that are
pleasing to God.
A Tremendous Inconsistency
Before examining specific Scriptural passages cited in CBF
regarding total depravity a tremendous example of
inconsistency in the presentation of the work should be noted.
Responding to Arminians who say that if you chose to get
“into” salvation you can surely choose to get “out” of it, CBF
makes the following amazing statements:
First of all, this rationale is not biblically based; it is
speculative and should be treated as such.
The same can be said for the vast majority of CBF’s assertions
about the will of man and any number of other arguments.
Second, it is not logically necessary to accept this
reasoning, even on a purely rational basis. Some
decisions in life are one-way with no possibility of
reversing them: suicide, for example. Saying “oops”
after jumping off a cliff will not reverse the
consequences of the decision.
Quite true, but such seems to prove far more than Dr. Geisler
would like: committing a single act of sin makes one a sinner
and places one under the power of death and condemnation.
While Geisler insists that one chooses to remain a slave of sin,
and can, at any time, simply choose by the exercise of free
choice to become a believer and cease being a slave, here he
argues that once you accept Christ the decision is inalterable
and there is no escaping the consequences. Logically his
position is inconsistent at best.
Third, by this same logic the Arminian would have
to argue that we can be lost even after we get to
heaven. Otherwise, he would have to deny we are free
in heaven. But if we are still free in heaven and yet
cannot be lost, then why is it logically impossible for
us to be free on earth and yet never lose our salvation?
In both cases the biblical answer is that God’s
omnipotent power is able to keep us from falling—in
accordance with our free choice.35
First, CBF does not offer us an explanation of how we can be
“free” in heaven and yet not able to fall. Given the very
definition of freedom found throughout CBF it would have to
follow of necessity that the redeemed human being in glory
would have to be able to commit an act of sin or else be
“dehumanized.” Evidently, the ability to sin is not
constitutional or definitional of true humanity. So this response
fails in all three attempts (showing that Geisler’s acceptance of
“eternal security” is inconsistent with his emphasis upon
human ability and free will). But what is even more troubling
to the careful reader is this: the final statement promotes the
idea that even the eternal state of the redeemed, while
supported by “God’s omnipotent power,” is still a function of
that power working “in accordance with our free choice.” The
centrality—indeed, supremacy—of man’s freedom over God’s
in this viewpoint is an amazing thing to ponder.
Numerous passages of Scripture are cited in the text of
CBF. We now turn to an examination of the exegesis offered
in support of the “moderate Calvinist” position (i.e.,
Arminianism).
John 12:39-40
For this reason they could not believe, for Isaiah said
again, “HE HAS BLINDED THEIR EYES AND HE HARDENED
THEIR HEART, SO THAT THEY WOULD NOT SEE WITH THEIR
EYES AND PERCEIVE WITH THEIR HEART, AND BE
CONVERTED AND I HEAL THEM.”
I Corinthians 2:14
Paul spoke of the spiritual inabilities of the natural
(unregenerate) man when he wrote to the Corinthians:
But a natural man does not accept the things of the
Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; and
he cannot understand them, because they are
spiritually appraised.
Let’s briefly note some exegetical points about the passage: it
is clearly two parallel statements, which could be put this way:
But a natural man
does not accept the things of the Spirit of God,
for they are foolishness to him;
and he cannot understand them, because they are
spiritually appraised.
The first line identifies the subject. The next two clauses are
parallel assertions containing first an inability of the natural
man followed by an explanation of why this is so. Therefore,
the meaning of “does not accept” and “cannot understand” are
parallel to one another and must be interpreted in light of the
other. Likewise, the foolishness of the things of the Spirit of
God is due to the fact that they are spiritually appraised, and
the natural man is not a spiritual man.
CBF presents this passage and asserts that it “is used by
extreme Calvinists to support the idea that unregenerate
persons cannot even understand the Gospel or any spiritual
truths of Scripture.”39 The term “understand” should be taken
as it is used in this passage: the natural man cannot accept and
embrace spiritual things because he himself is not spiritually
alive. He may well completely understand the proclamation of
the gospel itself: but until spiritual life is given to him, the
words are empty. Geisler comments:
This interpretation, however, fails to take note that
the word “receiveth” (Greek: dekomai) means “to
welcome.” It simply affirms that while he does
perceive the truth (Rom. 1:20), he does not receive it.
There is no welcome in his heart for what he knows in
his head. He has the truth, but he is holding it down or
suppressing it (Rom. 1:18). It makes no sense to say
that an unsaved person cannot understand the gospel
before he is saved. On the contrary, the entire New
Testament implies that he cannot be saved unless he
understands and believes the gospel.40
The Greek term δέχομαι can mean “welcome,” but as we
noted, its meaning here should be paralleled with “spiritual
understanding.” There is no exegetical or contextual reason to
bring in Romans 1:20, for the two contexts are addressing
different things. As we have noted, Romans 1 is speaking of
general revelation in creation itself, not the “spiritual things”
of the gospel that Paul is addressing when speaking to the
Corinthians.
Next, we note that CBF’s attempted exegesis focuses upon
one phrase while ignoring how that line relates to the rest of
the sentence. Why no discussion of the things of the Spirit
being “foolishness” to the natural man? If the natural man has
the ability to embrace these things and believe them, as Geisler
asserts, would it not be incumbent upon him to explain how
what was once foolishness becomes wisdom without
regeneration taking place first? Why no discussion of the
inability of man to “know” or “understand” them, as the text
plainly asserts? Why no response to the fact that the things of
the Spirit are “spiritually appraised” by spiritual men but not
by the natural man, who lacks the ability to do so? Is it
because the Arminian position must hold to the idea that the
unregenerate man can, to some extent, know, understand,
appreciate, and in fact, accept, spiritual things so that the
spiritually dead rebel can then cause his own regeneration by
exercising true saving faith that is pleasing to God? Such
seems to be the case. Geisler continues:
Total depravity is to be understood in an extensive,
rather than an intensive manner. That is, sin extends to
the whole person, “spirit, soul and body” (1 Thess.
5:23), not just to part of the person. However, if
depravity has destroyed man’s ability to know good
from evil and to choose the good over the evil, then it
would have destroyed man’s ability to sin. If total
depravity were to be true in this intensive (read:
extreme Calvinist) sense, it would destroy man’s
ability to be depraved at all. For a being with no moral
faculties and no moral abilities is not a moral being at
all; instead, it is amoral, and no moral expectation can
be held over it.41
We see again the error of CBF’s entire understanding of the
position it seeks to deny. No one asserts total depravity has
destroyed man’s ability to know good from evil. This is yet
another straw man. There is a world of difference between
saying a man is enslaved to sin so that it is the constant desire
of his or her heart to be in rebellion against God and to serve
self rather than God, and saying man no longer knows good
from evil. Hence, the assertion that this representation of
“intensive” depravity is the Reformed viewpoint is simply a
basic error of understanding. And once more, we see that this
paragraph has little, if any, connection with the Scriptural
passage it is allegedly responding to (1 Corinthians 2:14).
John 8:34-48
We noted the witness of John 8:31-34 in the previous
chapter. These words of the Lord introduce a discussion that
includes clear teaching on the sovereignty of God in salvation.
For example:
“Why do you not understand what I am saying? It is
because you cannot hear My word. You are of your
father the devil, and you want to do the desires of your
father” (8:43-44), and “He who is of God hears the
words of God; for this reason you do not hear them,
because you are not of God” (8:48).
Again the Reformed and biblical view of man is presented
with force: Jesus teaches that the Jews cannot (there’s that
word of inability again) hear His word and do not understand
what He is saying. He is not saying they are confused: He is
saying they lack the spiritual ability to appraise spiritual truths.
Their nature is fleshly, natural, and in fact, demonic, in that
they desire to do the desires of their father, the devil. Then, a
few verses later, the Lord speaks words that are normally
turned completely upside down by Arminian interpreters.
Jesus explains why these men do not “hear” His words. Now
obviously, they could hear Him just fine. He was not speaking
too softly to be heard. But they could not hear with
understanding nor acceptance. The one who is “of God” hears
His words: the one who is not does not. Jesus specifically says
these Jews are not “of God,” or as the NIV puts it, do not
“belong to God.” While Arminians would say “If you act upon
what you hear you will become one that belongs to God,”
Jesus says just the opposite: until one “belongs to God” one
will not “hear” the words of Jesus. As in John 6 we see that
something must happen before a person can “hear” or believe
in Christ: and that is the work of God in regenerating the
natural man and bringing him to spiritual life.
CBF completely ignores John 8:48, not mentioning it, or its
witness to the Reformed proclamation. But a brief response is
offered to John 8:44, though again without accurately
representing the Calvinistic position. Here is the assertion:
From this text extreme Calvinists conclude that
fallen humans cannot avoid sinning because they are
by nature “the children of the devil” (1 John 3:10)
who have “been taken captive by him to do his will”
(2 Tim. 2:25-26 NKJV).42
Actually, the Calvinistic use of the passage is that man does
the desires of his heart, and until a heart is renewed, those
desires are not pleasing to God. An unregenerate man can
choose not to commit a particular act of sin: what he cannot do
is choose to do that which is spiritually pleasing to God.
Geisler comments:
But it does not follow that we have no free choice in
the matter. Jesus said, “I tell you the truth, everyone
who sins is a slave to sin’ ” (John 8:34). In fact, in the
very text cited to support the extreme Calvinist view,
note that it says, “ ‘You want [will] to carry out your
father’s [the devil’s] desire’ ” (John 8:44). It is by their
choice that they follow the devil.
But surely the text teaches exactly what Dr. Geisler is denying!
Of course they want to do the will of their father, that’s the
whole point. They always want to do this! That’s total
depravity and enslavement to sin. What they are not able to do
is will to do the will of God the Father, that which is holy and
just and right (Romans 8:7-8). “Everyone who sins is a slave
to sin” means all are slaves to sin since all sin! It is a
continuation of the straw-man argumentation that marks CBF
to say that the Reformed do not say that man chooses to sin.
Man always chooses to sin: our assertion is that one cannot
choose to do what is holy and righteous before God unless he
or she is given a new nature in regeneration.
Romans 3:10-11
In the previous chapter we noted the testimony of Romans
3:10-18 to the utter and universal depravity of man. We noted
especially the words of verse 11, where we are told that there
is none who understands and none who seeks for God. These
words have to be explained by the Arminian who seeks to
promote the theory of free-will. If there is “no God-seeker”
(the literal rendering of the passage), the assertion that men
seek after God and choose to believe and repent outside of the
work of God’s sovereign grace is refuted. Does Geisler offer
an exegetical response? Let’s see:
The moderate Calvinist (and Arminian) has no
problem with such a rendering of these verses. It is
God who initiates salvation.… We seek Him, then,
only because He has first sought us. However, as a
result of the convicting work of the Holy Spirit on the
whole “world” (John 16:8) and “the goodness of God”
(Rom. 2:4 NKJV), some people are moved to repent.
Likewise, as a result of God’s grace some seek Him.43
One cannot help but find somewhat humorous the conjunction
of the “moderate Calvinist” and Arminian, since, in reality,
they hold to the same fundamental beliefs, as we have seen
proven repeatedly already. But no one can find the attempted
response worthwhile. Yes, God initiates salvation: and that
perfectly. God initiates the salvation of His elect. It seems the
idea being promoted here is that God’s prevenient grace moves
some, but not all. We will see the error of this view as we
move shortly to the discussion of God’s unconditional election
of a specific people in Christ.
Romans 8:7-8
The final passage we will examine is the strident claim by
Paul that the person who is still in the flesh is unable to submit
himself to the law of God and cannot please God. It is my
position that this text is completely opposed to the central
assertion that is made in CBF regarding the “freedom” of the
fallen man. Dr. Geisler offers a single paragraph in response.
Is the response based upon the text? Is it exegetical in content?
Or philosophical and a-contextual? Here it is:
It is true that we are sinners by nature, but that old
nature does not make sin necessary any more than a
new nature makes good acts necessary. The old nature
only makes sin inevitable, not unavoidable. Since we
are free, sin is not necessary. Again, as Augustine said,
we are born with the propensity to sin, not the
necessity to sin. If sin were necessary, then we would
not be responsible for it…, which the Bible declares
we are (Rom. 3:19). Furthermore, Paul makes it clear
in this section of Romans that our enslavement to sin
is our free choice. He wrote, “Don’t you know that
when you offer yourselves to someone to obey him as
slaves, you are slaves to the one whom you obey—
whether you are slaves to sin, which leads to death, or
to obedience, which leads to righteousness?” (Rom.
6:16). We are born with a bent to sin, but we still have
a choice whether we will be its slave.44
This is the kind of response provided to the vast majority of
biblical argumentation in CBF: there is no exegesis of the text
here. There are philosophical assertions, linguistic distinctions,
and citations of foreign contexts, but the text is not touched.
The point of the passage is that men cannot will to do what is
pleasing to God. It seems Dr. Geisler believes in the ability to
perform neutral actions: actions that are neither good nor bad.
But that point aside, does any of this respond to what Paul
actually says? In no way. Look again at the text:
“the mind set on the flesh is hostile toward God.…”
It does not say “the mind set on the flesh is sometimes hostile,
sometimes friendly, sometimes neutral, all depending on its
own free choice.” If there is constant hostility between the
unregenerate human and the holy God (as there of necessity
must be as long as the sin issue is unresolved, the very wrath
of God abides upon the sinner, and that sinner remains in
active rebellion against God) how can it be that the sinner can
“choose” to do what is good and right in God’s sight?
“for it does not subject itself to the law of God…”
This is a statement of fact untouched by CBF in its attempted
response. There is nothing more pleasing to God than
submission to His law: but the fleshly mind is in rebellion, not
subjection, to God’s law. And we note that such things as
repentance and faith are surely a part of subjection to God’s
law: but Paul says the fleshly mind does not subject itself to
that law.
“for it is not even able to do so.”
This is an absolutely crucial statement that is lost in CBF’s
response. While Geisler takes as a presupposition “we are
free,” the text speaks of the inability of fallen man. The fleshly
mind lacks the ability to subject itself to the holy law of God.
The Greek is not ambiguous or difficult: οὐδὲ γὰρ δύναται is
literally translated “for it is not even able,” the NASB
providing the assumed phrase to do so. The issue is not
whether a person can choose to commit a heinous sin or a less
heinous sin: everyone agrees that no man has been as bad as he
could be. The issue is plainly stated by the text: is fallen man
free to do what is pleasing to God outside of regeneration? The
answer is an unequivocal “no.” Yet Geisler’s entire system is
based upon the absolute necessity of affirming the opposite.
But Paul nails the coffin closed on free willism:
“and those who are in the flesh cannot please God.”
Paul does not say “those who are in the flesh at times do things
that are displeasing to God, but at other times do things that
are pleasing to Him.” He does not teach that “men are free to
believe in Christ at any time” for obviously, such an action is
well-pleasing to God. How can a person in the flesh do such
things as repent, believe, turn from sin, embrace holiness, etc.,
when they are still in the flesh? Unregenerate man lacks the
ability to please God. Something must happen first: he has to
be translated from the realm of the flesh to that of the spirit.
He must be raised to spiritual life so that he can do what is
pleasing to God: repent and believe in Christ.
CBF does make reference to a previous context, Romans
6:16, where Paul is speaking to regenerate men about the
struggle that is theirs in this life, and how they must serve
Christ in their bodies (rather than sin). But this is manifestly a
different topic than that which Paul is addressing in Romans
8:7-8.
Notes
1 Robert Reymond in his A New Systematic Theology of the
Christian Faith (Thomas Nelson, 1998) writes, “The
Reformers of the sixteenth century… rejected the
synergistic stance of Roman Catholic soteriology and
returned to the earlier best insights of the later Augustine
and to the inspired insights of Paul in his letters to the
Romans and the Galatians” (p. 469).
2 CBF, p. 95.
3 Ibid., p. 22.
4 Ibid., p. 21.
5 Institutes I:XV-XVIII.
6 Francis Turretin, Institutes of Elenctic Theology
(Presbyterian and Reformed, 1992), I:659-682.
7 See especially the discussion found in his Systematic
Theology, Part II, Ch. IX
8 R.K. McGregor Wright, No Place For Sovereignty
(InterVarsity Press, 1996), pp. 177-203.
9 Robert L. Reymond, A New Systematic Theology of the
Christian Faith (Thomas Nelson, 1998), pp. 346-378,
453-458.
10 Specifically, 85, 199.
11 Ibid, p. 132.
12 Wright, pp. 40-41.
13 Wright, p. 46.
14 CBF, p. 29.
15 Ibid., p. 32.
16 Ibid., p. 33.
17 Ibid. p. 32.
18 Ibid., p. 116.
19 Ibid.
20 Indeed, the statement quoted above, aside from redefining
total depravity, continues the misunderstanding of the
Reformed belief, for Calvinists surely do believe that
unsaved people can and do understand the truth of the
Gospel, and they universally reject it outside of the divine
act of regeneration. The difference between the Arminian
and the Calvinist is that the Arminian can speak of the
Spirit of God working in the heart but failing to bring
about salvation while the Calvinist has no such concept. If
the Spirit of God works in the heart of the elect individual
to bring about spiritual life and faith, He will not fail in His
work. As we will see later, Dr. Geisler vehemently denies
that the Spirit of God can infallibly bring spiritual life (i.e.,
irresistible grace), and since we have already seen that he
asserts that God will save as many as He can, it follows
without question that his is the Arminian, not the
Calvinistic, viewpoint.
21 Ibid. p. 57.
22 Ibid., p. 34.
23 Donald Campbell, ed., Walvoord: A Tribute (Moody Press,
1982). p. 103.
24 One cannot help but notice this phrase for it seems to
indicate clearly that Dr. Geisler separates himself from the
“radical reformation” view espoused by Luther and Calvin.
There is likewise a clear categorical error in such an
assertion: Arminians may well share the common error of
detracting from God’s freedom and asserting creaturely
autonomy with many previous religious movements, but
that does not make everyone else an “Arminian.” Semi-
Pelagianism might be a better term to use for the view that
mixes sovereign grace and human ability, ultimately
making grace dependent upon man’s will for its efficacious
power (something Dr. Geisler plainly states as we have
seen). But we can only again express amazement that
Geisler would even desire to be called a “moderate
Calvinist” when he separates himself so strongly from
Calvin and Calvinism as a whole on such fundamental
issues.
25 CBF, p. 53.
26 Provided in chapter 2 and taken from Geisler’s article in
the Walvoord tribute, pp. 102-103.
27 CBF, p. 56.
28 Ibid., p. 57.
29 Ibid., pp. 57-58.
30 Ibid., p. 58.
31 Ibid.
32 Ibid., p. 58.
33 Ibid.
34 Ibid., p. 47.
35 Ibid., pp. 122-123.
36 Ibid., p. 35.
37 Beyond this, John 8 teaches the same concept of man’s
inability in 8:43ff.
38 Should anyone be offended at the charge of eisegesis, it
should be pointed out that Dr. Geisler often made this
assertion (we believe wrongly) in CBF. For example, in
footnote 15 on page 28 he writes, “It is painful to watch
extreme Calvinists go through these exegetical contortions
to make a text say what their preconceived theology
mandates that it must say.” It is the conviction of this
writer, and many others who have reviewed this work, that
the “exegetical contortions” are found in the pages of CBF,
not in the pages of the works of such fine expositors as
Owen, Piper, Gerstner or Sproul.
39 Ibid., p. 60.
40 Ibid., pp. 60-61.
41 Ibid., p. 61.
42 Ibid., p. 62.
43 Ibid., p. 66.
44 Ibid., p. 65.
Chapter 5
Matthew 23:37
CBF offers no in-depth exegesis of this passage. Instead, we
are given two sentences that summarize Geisler’s
interpretation of it:
Also, Matthew 23:37 affirms emphatically that
Jesus desired to bring the Jews who rejected Him into
the fold but could not because they would not. He
cried, “O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, you who kill the
prophets and stone those sent to you, how often I have
longed to gather your children together, as a hen
gathers her chicks under her wings, but you were not
willing.” God’s grace is not irresistible on those who
are unwilling.3
We first note that “irresistible grace” is a reference to God’s
sovereign regeneration of His elect: any other use of the phrase
is in error. Hence, it would seem to be that Dr. Geisler is
promoting the following ideas regarding this text: 1) that Jesus
wanted to save the Jews to whom (or about whom) He was
speaking in this passage; 2) That though this was Christ’s
desire He could not fulfill His desire; 3) Christ could not bring
these Jews into the fold because they “would not.” The
conclusion then is, God’s grace is dependent upon the will of
man. If a man is willing, God’s grace will prevail. But grace
cannot change the will of man.
Of course, these are assertions that are not given with any
interpretational foundation. No exegesis is offered, just
conclusions. How Dr. Geisler arrived at these conclusions, we
are not told. Later we are informed that it is the “plain
meaning” of the text, and are asked rhetorically, “What could
be more clear: God wanted all of them, even the unrepentant,
to be saved.”4
This verse is then used in conjunction with 1 Timothy 2:4
and 2 Peter 3:9 as evidence that it is God’s desire to save every
single man, woman and child on earth. But is that what this
passage is teaching? Let’s provide an exegetical interpretation
of the passage and compare it with the presentation in CBF.
The first fact to ascertain in examining any passage of
Scripture is its context. This passage comes in the midst of the
proclamation of judgment upon the leaders of the Jews.
Matthew 23 contains the strongest denunciations of the scribes
and Pharisees in all of the Gospels.
Who, then, is “Jerusalem”? It is assumed by Arminian
writers that “Jerusalem” represents individual Jews who are,
therefore, capable of resisting the work and will of Christ. But
upon what warrant do we leap from “Jerusalem” to “individual
Jews”? The context would not lead us to conclude that this is
to be taken in a universal sense. Jesus is condemning the
Jewish leaders, and it is to them that He refers here. This is
clearly seen in that:
1 It is to the leaders that God sent prophets;
2 It was the Jewish leaders who killed the prophets and
those sent to them;
3 Jesus speaks of “your children,” differentiating those to
whom He is speaking from those that the Lord desired to
gather together.
4 The context refers to the Jewish leaders, scribes and
Pharisees.
A vitally important point to make here is that the ones the
Lord desired to gather are not the ones who “were not
willing”! Jesus speaks to the leaders about their children that
they, the leaders, would not allow Him to “gather.” Jesus was
not seeking to gather the leaders, but their children. This one
consideration alone renders the passage useless for the
Arminian seeking to establish freewillism. The “children” of
the leaders would be Jews who were hindered by the Jewish
leaders from hearing Christ. The “you would not” then is
referring to the same men indicated by the context: the Jewish
leaders who “were unwilling” to allow those under their
authority to hear the proclamation of the Christ. This verse,
then, is speaking to the same issues raised earlier in Matthew
23:13:
But woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites,
because you shut off the kingdom of heaven from
people; for you do not enter in yourselves, nor do you
allow those who are entering to go in.
John Gill added this insight:
That the persons whom Christ would have gathered
are not represented as being unwilling to be gathered;
but their rulers were not willing that they should. The
opposition and resistance to the will of Christ, were
not made by the people, but by their governors. The
common people seemed inclined to attend the ministry
of Christ, as appears from the vast crowds which, at
different times and places, followed him; but the chief
priests and rulers did all they could to hinder the
collection of them to him; and their belief in him as
the Messiah, by traducing his character, miracles, and
doctrines, and by passing an act that whosoever
confessed him should be put out of the synagogue; so
that the obvious meaning of the text is the same with
that of verse 13…and consequently is no proof of
men’s resisting the operations of the Spirit and grace
of God, but of obstructions and discouragements
thrown in the way of attendance on the external
ministry of the word.5
So we can now plainly see that CBF has absolutely no basis
for its assertion that it is the “plain meaning” of the text that
God wanted “all of them, even the unrepentant, to be saved.”
One of the three primary passages used in CBF is seen, then,
to have no connection with the application made of it over and
over again in the text. We turn now to the second.
1 Timothy 2:4
The key to this passage, again, is the context:
First of all, then, I urge that entreaties and prayers,
petitions and thanksgivings, be made on behalf of all
men, for kings and all who are in authority, so that we
may lead a tranquil and quiet life in all godliness and
dignity. This is good and acceptable in the sight of
God our Savior, who desires all men to be saved and
to come to the knowledge of the truth. For there is one
God, and one mediator also between God and men,
the man Christ Jesus, who gave Himself as a ransom
for all, the testimony given at the proper time.
The first appearance of the phrase “all men” comes at the end
of verse 1, and its meaning is unambiguous. Paul is not
instructing Timothy to initiate never-ending prayer meetings
where the Ephesian phone book would be opened and every
single person listed therein would become the object of prayer.
The very next phrase of the sentence explains Paul’s meaning:
“for kings and all who are in authority.” Why would Paul have
to give such instructions?
We must remember that the early Christians were a
persecuted people, and normally the persecution came from
those in positions of power and authority. It is easy to
understand why there would have to be apostolic
commandments given to pray for the very ones who were
using their power and authority to persecute these Christians.
Who are kings and all who are in authority? They are kinds
of men, classes of men. Paul often spoke of “all men” in this
fashion. For example, in Titus chapter 2, when Paul speaks of
the grace of God which brings salvation appearing to “all
men” (Titus 2:11), he clearly means all kinds of men, for the
context, both before and after, speaks of kinds of men. In the
previous verses Paul addresses such groups as older men (v.
2), older women (v. 3), younger women (v. 4), young men (v.
6), bondslaves (v. 9-10), and rulers and authorities (3:1). No
one would suggest that in fact Paul is speaking of every single
older man, older woman, etc.; he speaks of kinds of people
within a particular group, that being the fellowship of the
Church. Likewise, “rulers” and “authorities” are obviously
generic classifications that everyone would understand needs
to be applied to specific locations in specific times.
The same kind of usage (all kinds of men being in view) is
found elsewhere in Paul, such as Titus 3:2:
to malign no one, to be peaceable, gentle, showing
every consideration for all men.
This should be connected to the fact that in the very
commissioning of Paul, this phrase is used in a way that
cannot be made universal in scope:
For you will be a witness for Him to all men of what
you have seen and heard (Acts 22:15).
Of course, Paul would not think that these words meant that he
would witness of Christ to every single individual human
being on the planet. Instead, he would have surely understood
this to mean all kinds and races of men. Likewise, the
allegation against Paul was that he preached “to all men
everywhere” against the Jews and the Law and the Temple
(Acts 21:28). Paul speaks of kinds of people in other places as
well:
A renewal in which there is no distinction between
Greek and Jew, circumcised and uncircumcised,
barbarian, Scythian, slave and freeman, but Christ is
all, and in all (Colossians 3:11).
There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave
nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you
are all one in Christ Jesus (Galatians 3:28).
So it is perfectly consistent with the immediate and broader
context of Paul’s writings to recognize this use of “all men” in
a generic fashion.
Returning to 1 Timothy 2, Paul then states that such prayers
for all kinds of men is good and acceptable “in the sight of
God our Savior, who desires all men to be saved and to come
to the knowledge of the truth.” If we are consistent with the
preceding context we will see “all men” here in the same
manner as “all men” of the preceding verses: all kinds of men,
whether rulers or kings (yes, God even saves people who used
to persecute Christians, a fact Paul knew all too well). But
there is much more reason to understand Paul’s statement in
this way.
Almost invariably, proponents of Arminianism isolate this
passage from the two verses that follow. This must happen of
necessity for the questions that can be asked of the non-
Reformed position based upon verses 5 and 6 are weighty
indeed. Verse 5 begins with the word “for,” indicating the
connection between the statement made in 3-4 and the
explanation in 5-6. Why should Christians pray that all men,
including kings and rulers, be saved and come to a knowledge
of the truth? Because there is only one way of salvation, and
without a knowledge of that truth, no man can be saved. Paul
says, “there is one God, and one mediator between God and
men, the man Christ Jesus, who gave Himself a ransom for
all.” This immediately takes us into the meat of the discussion
of the atonement, but for now just a few points should be
made.
First, if one takes “all men” in verse 4 to mean “all men
individually,” does it not follow that Christ of necessity must
be mediator for all men as well? If one says, “Yes, Christ
mediates for every single human being,” does it not follow that
Christ fails as mediator every time a person negates His work
by their all-powerful act of free will? One could hope that no
biblical scholar would ever promote such an idea, for anyone
familiar with the relationship between atonement, mediation
and intercession in the book of Hebrews knows well that to
make such an assertion puts the entire argument of Hebrews 7-
10 on its head. For the moment, we simply point out that it is
far more consistent with biblical theology to recognize that
Christ mediates in behalf of the elect and perfectly saves them
than it is to assert that Christ mediates for all (but fails to save
all).
The second point is closely related to the first: the ransom
that Christ gives in His self-sacrifice is either a saving ransom
or a non-saving one. If it is actual and really made in behalf of
all men, then inevitably all men would be saved. But we again
see that it is far more consistent to recognize that the same
meaning for “all men” and “all” flows through the entire
passage, and when we look at the inarguably clear statements
of Scripture regarding the actual intention and result of
Christ’s cross-work, we will see that there is no other
consistent means of interpreting these words in 1 Timothy.
It is tremendously disappointing, then, to turn to the pages
of CBF and examine the assertions made about this passage.
Dr. Geisler is fully aware of the Reformed exegesis of both 1
Timothy 2:4 and 2 Peter 3:9 (seen below). It would be
incumbent then upon him to provide as meaningful and
thorough a discussion of the passage as has been provided by
Reformed writers in the past. Instead, we find him providing
responses based upon types of argumentation that are simply
below a scholar of his experience.
The first form of argumentation is found in the repetition of
the phrase “the plain meaning.” Rather than providing
contextual, grammatical, exegetical responses to the arguments
set forth above, CBF chooses to simply mock the Reformed
position and quote Charles Spurgeon (who did not take the
Reformed view of the passage). We are told,
From the time of the later Augustine this text has
been manhandled by extreme Calvinists.6
This is Geisler’s way of admitting that Augustine held the
same view as we have presented above. But to accuse
someone of “manhandling” a text requires more than brute
assertion. And what evidence is given? A quotation of a
sermon by Spurgeon. No response is provided to the
contextual arguments, the parallel uses elsewhere, the
consistency of the passage. Even Spurgeon’s argumentation is
uncharacteristically shallow.
Some attempt is made to deal with 1 Timothy 2:6 and its
reference to a ransom for “all men.” Geisler writes,
Of this and like passages John Owen offers the
dubious view that “all” does not mean “all” here. His
tactic is to divert the issue to other passages where
“all” does not mean the whole human race.7
When Dr. Geisler refers to other passages that are not at all
related to the context, does he see this as a “tactic” in his own
writing? Owen was establishing the fact that “all” is often used
in senses that are not universalistic, and that in fact, it is the
Arminian who must provide a solid ground upon which to
argue that it should be taken that way in any given context.
Geisler is the one diverting the weight of Owen’s exegesis
when he writes, “But here the category and context is the
whole human race, for the use of ‘all’ as an object of God’s
love and redemption is used generically, not geographically.”
To which we simply respond, “Why do you say this?” This is
an unfounded assertion, not an argument of fact. If CBF were
to attempt to offer some kind of meaningful response to the
extensive argumentation found in Owen’s work at this point
(the single chapter to which Geisler refers in Owen’s book
comprises thirteen pages of small type containing numerous
references to the original languages) we might have some
basis upon which to accept these assertions. But we are left
with none. Instead, we read the following:
First, he could have used the word “some,” if he
had chosen to do so, but he did not. Second, his
reference to “men” in verse 5 is clearly generic—
meaning all men, since it is used as the other pole
from God that the Mediator, Christ, brings together.
But generic usages of “all” in a redemptive context are
usually, if not always, of the entire human race. Third,
the desire for “all men” to be saved is parallel with
that same desire expressed in other passages (2 Peter
3:9). Finally, the Bible tells us elsewhere that what
hinders His desire from being fulfilled is not the
universal scope of His love (John 3:16) but the willing
rejection of some creatures—“you were not willing”
(Matt. 23:37).8
In reply: first, the argument “he could have used such and such
a term” is the weakest that can be offered. Jehovah’s Witnesses
often say “John could have said ‘The Word eternally existed in
the beginning’ if that is what he wanted to communicate.” The
issue is not what a writer might have written, but, what does it
mean in the context as written? Second, we have already seen
that the consistent meaning of “all men” is “all kinds of men”
from the context. We are given no citations, quotations, or
references to substantiate the assertion that “generic usages of
‘all’ in a redemptive context are usually, if not always, of the
entire human race.” Third, as we will see immediately below,
2 Peter 3:9 is misused by Dr. Geisler with regularity. And
finally, as we saw above, Matthew 23:37 does not support
CBF’s use of it here (or anywhere else). We are again left with
the assertion that God’s grace, God’s purpose, and God’s love
is set at naught by the almighty will of the fallen creature.
2 Peter 3:9
This is surely the most popular passage cited (almost never
with any reference to the context) to “prove” that God could
not possibly desire to save a specific people but instead desires
to save every single individual person, thereby denying
election and predestination. The text seems inarguably clear.
But it is always good to see a text in its own context:
Know this first of all, that in the last days mockers
will come with their mocking, following after their
own lusts, and saying, “Where is the promise of His
coming? For ever since the fathers fell asleep, all
continues just as it was from the beginning of
creation.” For when they maintain this, it escapes their
notice that by the word of God the heavens existed
long ago and the earth was formed out of water and by
water, through which the world at that time was
destroyed, being flooded with water. But by His word
the present heavens and earth are being reserved for
fire, kept for the day of judgment and destruction of
ungodly men. But do not let this one fact escape your
notice, beloved, that with the Lord one day is like a
thousand years, and a thousand years like one day. The
Lord is not slow about His promise, as some count
slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing for
any to perish but for all to come to repentance. But the
day of the Lord will come like a thief, in which the
heavens will pass away with a roar and the elements
will be destroyed with intense heat, and the earth and
its works will be burned up. Since all these things are
to be destroyed in this way, what sort of people ought
you to be in holy conduct and godliness, looking for
and hastening the coming of the day of God, because
of which the heavens will be destroyed by burning,
and the elements will melt with intense heat! But
according to His promise we are looking for new
heavens and a new earth, in which righteousness
dwells.
Immediately one sees that unlike such passages as Ephesians
1, Romans 8-9, or John 6, this passage is not speaking about
salvation as its topic. The reference to “coming to repentance”
in 3:9 is made in passing. The topic is the coming of Christ. In
the last days mockers will question the validity of His promise.
Peter is explaining the reason why the coming of Christ has
been delayed as long as it has. The day of the Lord, he says,
will come like a thief, and it will come at God’s own time.
But the next thing that stands out upon the reading of the
passage is the clear identification of the audience to which
Peter is speaking. When speaking of the mockers he refers to
them in the third person, as “them.” But everywhere else he
speaks directly to his audience as the “beloved” and “you.” He
speaks of how his audience should behave “in holy conduct
and godliness,” and says that they look for the day of the Lord.
He includes himself in this group in verse 13, where “we are
looking for a new heavens and a new earth.” This is vitally
important, for the assumption made by the Arminian is that
when verse 9 says the Lord is “patient toward you” that this
“you” refers to everyone. Likewise, then, when it says “not
wishing for any to perish” but “all to come to repentance,” it is
assumed that the “any” and “all” refers to anyone at all of the
human race. Yet, the context indicates that the audience is
quite specific. In any other passage of Scripture the interpreter
would realize that we must decide who the “you” refers to and
use this to limit the “any” and “all” of verse 9. For some
reason, that simple and fundamental necessity is overlooked
when this passage is cited.
2 Peter 1:1-3 tells us the specific identity of the audience to
which Peter is writing:
Simon Peter, a bond-servant and apostle of Jesus
Christ, to those who have received a faith of the same
kind as ours, by the righteousness of our God and
Savior, Jesus Christ: Grace and peace be multiplied to
you in the knowledge of God and of Jesus our Lord;
seeing that His divine power has granted to us
everything pertaining to life and godliness, through
the true knowledge of Him who called us by His own
glory and excellence.
Peter writes to a specific group, not to all of mankind. “To
those who have received a faith of the same kind as ours.”
This not only refers to faith as a gift, as we will see in a later
chapter, but it surely limits the context to the saved, for they
have received this faith “by the righteousness of our God and
Savior, Jesus Christ” (emphasis added). There is nothing in
chapter three that indicates a change in audience, and much to
tell us the audience remains exactly the same.
Since this is so, it becomes quite clear that the Arminian is
badly misusing this passage by ignoring what Peter is really
saying. The patience of the Lord is displayed toward His elect
people (the “you” of verse 9). Therefore, the “not wishing any
to perish” must be limited to the same group already in view:
the elect. In the same way, the “all to come to repentance”
must be the very same group. In essence Peter is saying the
coming of the Lord has been delayed so that all the elect of
God can be gathered in. Any modern Christian lives and
knows Christ solely because God’s purpose has been to gather
in His elect down through the ages to this present day. There is
no reason to expand the context of the passage into a universal
proclamation of a desire on God’s part that every single person
come to repentance. Instead, it is clearly His plan and His will
that all the elect come to repentance, and they most assuredly
will do so.
Dr. Geisler is well aware of this interpretation. But he uses
the same kinds of erroneous forms of argumentation in
response to this exegesis of the text so as to avoid its force that
we saw with reference to 1 Timothy 2:4. Again the assertion is
made that CBF’s interpretation is the “plain meaning” of the
text. He writes,
And contrary to the unreasonable view of the
extreme Calvinists, this does not mean “all classes of
men,” namely, the elect from all nations. Words have
limits to their meaning by context. And when “any,”
“all men,” and the “whole world” (1 John 2:2) are
taken to mean only “some” (unless used as figures of
speech), then language has lost its meaning.9
We are not told how it is “unreasonable” to recognize the
contextual clues we noted above. Words do have limits to their
meaning by context, and we have demonstrated that the
context clearly tells us who the “you” and “any” and “all” of 2
Peter 3:9 is.
But most disturbing is the response offered by Geisler to the
exegesis we offered above. Here are his words:
Others offer an even less plausible suggestion: that
“God does not will that any of us (the elect) perish.”
As a firm believer in inerrancy, R.C. Sproul is aware
of how dangerous it is to change the Word of God.
God the Holy Spirit was surely capable of using the
word “some” instead of “all.” But He did not.
Furthermore, the “any” and “all” are called to repent.
Also, the “all” who need to repent cannot mean the
“beloved,” (vv. 1, 8), since they were already saved
and in no need of repenting. In addition, this would
mean that God is not calling on the non-elect to
repent, which is clearly opposed to other Scriptures
where “he commands all people everywhere to repent”
(Acts 17:30). “All people everywhere” does not mean
“some people everywhere” or “some people
somewhere.” The text speaks for itself.10
Amazingly, the argument begins with the accusation that
recognizing the use of “all” in the sense of “all kinds” is an
implicit denial of inerrancy and runs the danger of changing
the Word of God! Such an accusation is simply without merit.
Saying, “Well, God could have said ‘some’ if that is what he
meant” is a tremendously weak argument, normally reserved
for use when no exegetical argument can be presented. The
fact is that CBF does not even attempt to offer a response to
the arguments drawn from the text itself. There is no
discussion of the grammar, pronouns, or anything else relevant
to the passage, in CBF. Just assertions. Peter limited his use of
“all” and “any” to a specific audience, “you.” This is a fact of
the text utterly ignored by CBF.
Next, it is asserted that the “any” and “all” are “called to
repent.” Actually, the text says that God wills (βουλóμενóς)
for the “all” to come to repentance, and of course, this is quite
true. And since God grants repentance (2 Tim. 2:24-25), God’s
purpose will be accomplished, and is accomplished in the
elect. They all, as a group, do repent. Why anyone would wish
to say “It is God’s will that every single individual repent, but,
alas, His will is constantly thwarted and refuted by the will of
the creature” is hard to say.11 CBF misses the point when it
asserts that this cannot be the “beloved” because they have
already repented. The point of the passage is that God will
bring the elect to repentance throughout the time period prior
to the parousia, the coming of Christ. At the point of Peter’s
writing, the repentance of every single individual reading this
book was yet future.
Next Dr. Geisler confuses the prescriptive will of God found
in His law, which commands all men everywhere to repent,
with the gift of repentance given to the elect in regeneration. It
does not follow that if it is God’s will to bring the elect to
repentance that the law does not command repentance of
everyone. This is a common error in Arminian argumentation.
Dr. Geisler is right about one thing: the text speaks for itself.
But when we actually exegete the text, what it says is the
opposite of what the Arminian assumes it says.
The person inclined to accept the thesis of CBF should
consider this issue well: it is an understatement to say that Dr.
Geisler relies upon Matthew 23:37, 1 Timothy 2:4, and 2 Peter
3:9 as his key Scriptural passages. If, in fact, one can present
an interpretation of each that is at least as valid, if not much
more so, than his own, does it not follow that the vast majority
of the biblical response provided in CBF becomes suspect?
Notes
1 For example, pp. 79, 95, 199-200, 233.
2 Chosen But Free, p. 60.
3 Ibid., p. 95.
4 Ibid., p. 200.
5 John Gill, The Cause of God and Truth (The Baptist
Standard Bearer, 1992), p. 29.
6 Chosen But Free, p. 201.
7 Ibid., p. 202.
8 Ibid., pp. 202-203.
9 Ibid., p. 199.
10 Ibid., pp. 199-200.
11 We do not here refer to the revealed will of God found in
His law which commands all men everywhere to repent:
we speak of His saving will that all the elect come to
repentance, and His ability to perform that will.
Chapter 7
John 6:37-40
All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the
one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out. For
I have come down from heaven, not to do My own
will, but the will of Him who sent Me. This is the will
of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me
I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day. For this is
the will of My Father, that everyone who beholds the
Son and believes in Him will have eternal life, and I
Myself will raise him up on the last day. (John 6:37-
40)
Despite the richness of this passage, an honest effort will be
made to be brief in providing commentary.2 The setting is
important: Jesus speaks to the crowds gathered in the
synagogue at Capernaum. They have followed Him there after
the feeding of the five thousand the day before. They are
seeking more miracles, and more food. Jesus does not pander
to their “felt needs,” but goes directly to the real issue: who He
is and how He is central to God’s work of redemption. He
identifies Himself as the “Bread of life” (v. 35), the source of
all spiritual nourishment. In our modern setting we might not
feel the force of His words as they must have felt them that
morning. “Who is this man to speak this way of Himself?”
they must have thought. Not even the greatest prophets of
Israel had directed people to faith in themselves! Not even an
Abraham or an Isaiah would claim to have come down from
heaven, nor would they ever say “the one coming to Me will
never hunger and the one believing in Me will never thirst.”
We must attempt to feel the sharp impact of these words just as
they were spoken.
The blessed Lord was quite blunt with His audience. He
knew they did not possess real faith. “But I said to you that
you have seen Me, and yet do not believe” (v. 36). They had
seen Him with their eyes, but unless physical sight is joined
with spiritual enlightenment, it profits nothing. Often the
importance of this statement is overlooked. Verse 36 is a
turning point in the chapter. Jesus now explains their unbelief.
How is it that these men could stand before the very Son of
God, the Word made flesh, and not believe? Anyone who does
not take seriously the deadness of man in sin should
contemplate this scene. The very Creator in human form
stands before men who are schooled in the Scriptures and
points to their unbelief. He then explains the why, and yet so
few today will listen and believe.
“All that the Father gives Me will come to Me.” These are
the first words to come from the Lord in explanation of man’s
unbelief. We dare not engage in hopscotch across this text and
ignore the very order of teaching He provides. The first
assertion is one of complete divine sovereignty. Every word
speaks volumes.
“All that the Father gives Me.” The Father gives someone to
Christ. The elect are viewed as a single whole,3 given by the
Father to the Son.4 The Father has the right to give a people to
the Son. He is the sovereign King, and this is a divine
transaction.
All that are given by the Father to the Son come to the Son.
Not some, not most, but all.
All those given by the Father to the Son will come to the
Son. It is vital to see the truth that is communicated by this
phrase: the giving by the Father to the Son precedes and
determines the coming of the person to Christ. The action of
giving by the Father comes before the action of coming to
Christ by the individual. And since all of those so given
infallibly come, we have here both unconditional election as
well as irresistible grace, and that in the space of nine words!
It becomes an obvious exercise in eisegesis to say, “Well, what
the Lord really means is that all that the Father has seen will
believe in Christ will come to Christ.” That is a meaningless
statement. Since the action of coming is dependent upon the
action of giving, we can see that it is simply not exegetically
possible to say that we cannot determine the relationship
between the two actions. God’s giving results in man’s
coming. Salvation is of the Lord.
But note as well that it is to the Son that they come. They do
not come to a religious system. They are coming to Christ.
This is a personal relationship, personal faith, and, given that
the ones who come are described throughout the passage by
the present tense participle, it is not just a coming that happens
once. This is an on-going faith, an on-going looking to Christ
as the source of spiritual life. The men to whom the Lord was
speaking had “come” to Him for a season: they would soon
walk away and follow Him no more. The true believer is
coming to Christ, always. This is the nature of saving faith.
“And the one who comes to Me I will never cast out.” The
true believer, the one “coming” to the Son, has this promise of
the Lord: using the strongest form of denial possible,5 Jesus
affirms the eternal security of the believer. Jesus is the one
who gives life and raises His own up at the last day. He
promises that there is no possibility whatsoever that any one
who is coming to Him in true faith could ever find Him
unwilling to save. But this tremendous promise is the second
half of a sentence. It is based upon the truth that was first
proclaimed. This promise is to those who are given by the
Father to the Son and to no one else. Of course, we will see in
verse 44 that no one but those who are so given will be coming
to Christ in faith anyway: but there are surely those who, like
many in that audience in Capernaum, are willing to follow for
a while, willing to believe for a season. This promise is not
theirs.
The promise to the elect, however, could not be more
precious. Since Christ is able to save perfectly (He is not
dependent upon man’s will, man’s cooperation), His promise
means the elect cannot ever be lost. Since He will not cast out,
and there is no power greater than His own, the one who
comes to Christ will find Him an all-sufficient and perfect
Savior. This is the only basis of “eternal security” or the
perseverance of the saints: they look to a perfect Savior who is
able to save. It is Christ’s ability to save that means the
redeemed cannot be lost. If it were, in fact, a synergistic
relationship, there could never be any ground for absolute
confidence and security.
Many stop at verse 37 and miss the tremendous revelation
we are privileged to receive in the following verses. Why will
Christ never cast out those who come to Him? Verse 38 begins
with a connective that indicates a continuation of the thought:
verses 38 and 39 explain verse 37. Christ keeps all those who
come to Him for He is fulfilling the will of the Father. “I have
come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will
of Him who sent Me.” The divine Messiah always does the
will of the Father. The preceding chapter in John’s Gospel had
made this very clear. There is perfect harmony between the
work of the Father and the Son.
And what is the will of the Father for the Son? In simple
terms, it is the Father’s will that the Son save perfectly. “This
is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given
Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day.” It is vital to
remember that this continues the explanation of why He does
not cast out the one coming to Him. We must see this for some
might be tempted to say that the Father has entrusted all things
into the hands of the Son, and that this passage is saying
nothing more than the Son will act properly in regards to what
the Father has given Him. But the context is clear: v. 37 speaks
of the Father “giving” the elect to the Son, and v. 39 continues
the same thought. Those who are given infallibly come to the
Son in v. 37, and it is these same ones, the elect,6 who are
raised up at the last day. Resurrection is the work of Christ,
and in this passage, is paralleled with the giving of eternal life
(see v. 40). Christ gives eternal life to all those who are given
to Him and who, as a result, come to Him.
We must ask the Arminian who promotes the idea that a
truly saved person can be lost: does this not mean that Christ
can fail to do the will of the Father? If the will of the Father
for the Son is that He lose none of those that are given to Him,
does it not follow inexorably that Christ is able to accomplish
the Father’s will? And does this not force us to believe that the
Son is able to save without introducing the will of man as the
final authority in the matter? Can any synergist (one who
teaches, as Dr. Geisler does, that God’s grace works
“synergistically” and that man’s free will is a vitally important
part of the salvation process, and that no man is saved unless
that man wills it) believe these words? Can one who says that
God tries to save as many as “possible” but cannot save any
man without that man’s cooperation fully believe what this
verse teaches? It is not the Father’s will that Christ try to save
but that He save a particular people perfectly. He is to lose
nothing of all that He is given. How can this be if, in fact, the
final decision lies with man, not with God? It is the Father’s
will that results in the resurrection to life of any individual.
This is election in the strongest terms, and it is taught with
clarity in the reddest letters in Scripture.
Verse 39 begins with “This is the will of Him who sent Me,”
and verse 40 does the same, “For this is the will of My
Father.” But in verse 39 we have the will of the Father for the
Son. Now we have the will of the Father for the elect. “That
everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him will have
eternal life, and I Myself will raise him up on the last day.”
Amazingly, many wrench this verse out of its context,
misunderstand the reference to “every one who beholds…
every one who believes in Him,” and say, “See, no divine
election here! Any one can do this.” But it is obvious, when
the text is allowed to stand as a whole, that this is not the
intention of the passage. Who is the one “beholding” the Son
and “believing” in Him? Both these terms are present
participles, referring to on-going action, just as we saw in “the
one coming” to Christ in verse 37. Jesus raises up on the last
day all those who are given to Him (v. 39) and all those who
are looking and believing in Him (v. 40). Are we to believe
these are different groups? Of course not. Jesus only raises one
group to eternal life. But since this is so, does it not follow that
all those given to Him will look to Him and believe in Him?
Most assuredly. Saving faith, then, is exercised by all of those
given to the Son by the Father (one of the reasons why, as we
will see, the Bible affirms clearly that saving faith is a gift of
God).
John 6:41-45
Therefore the Jews were grumbling about Him,
because He said, “I am the bread that came down out
of heaven.” They were saying, “Is not this Jesus, the
son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know?
How does He now say, ‘I have come down out of
heaven’?” Jesus answered and said to them, “Do not
grumble among yourselves. No one can come to Me
unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will
raise him up on the last day. It is written in the
prophets, ‘AND THEY SHALL ALL BE TAUGHT OF GOD.’
Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father,
comes to Me.
The Jews were grumbling by this point in the dissertation.
They rejected His claim to divine origin, assuming instead that
He was but a mere man, the son of Joseph. Jesus is not turned
from His presentation by their meandering thoughts and
confusion. He instructs them to stop grumbling (v. 43) and
then explains their persistent unbelief.
“No one can come to Me.” Literally Jesus says, “No man is
able to come to Me.” These are words of incapacity and they
are placed in a universal context. All men share this in
common: they lack the ability to come to Christ in and of
themselves. Shared inability due to a shared fallen nature. This
is Paul’s “dead in sin” (Eph. 2:1) and “unable to please God”
(Rom. 8:8). It is the Reformed doctrine of total depravity:
man’s inability taught by the Lord who knows the hearts of all
men. If the text ended here there would be no hope, no good
news. But it doesn’t stop there.
“No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me
draws him.” The good news is that there is an “unless” in John
6:44, just as there is a “But God” in Ephesians 2:4. In both
instances it is not the free will of man that comes to the rescue,
but the free will of God. All men would be left in the hopeless
position of “unable to come” unless God acts, and He does by
drawing men unto Christ. Outside of this divine enablement
(cf. 6:65) no man can come to Christ. No man can “will” to
come to Christ outside of this divine drawing.
Of course, the immediate response of many is, “Yes indeed,
God must provide some kind of prevenient grace, some kind
of drawing, before any man can choose to believe.” But is this
what the text is saying? Remember that these words come
immediately after the assertion that all that the Father gives the
Son will come to the Son (v. 37). Reformed scholars assert that
the ones who are drawn are the ones who are given by the
Father to the Son: i.e., the elect. They point to the immediate
context which identifies those who come to Christ as the elect.
But the rest of verse 44 explains why it must be so: “and I will
raise him up on the last day.” Who does Jesus raise up on the
last day? Verse 39 says He raises all those given to Him by the
Father; verse 40 says He raises all who are looking and
believing in Him; verse 44 says He raises all those who are
drawn by the Father. The identity of those raised on the last
day to eternal life is absolutely co-extensive with the identity
of those who are drawn! If a person is drawn, he will also be
raised up to eternal life. Obviously, then, it cannot be asserted
that Christ, in this context, is saying that the Father is drawing
every single individual human being, for 1) the context limits
this to those given by the Father to the Son, 2) this passage is
still explaining the unbelief of the Jews, which would make no
sense if in fact the Father were drawing these unbelievers to
Jesus, and 3) if that were so, universalism would be the result,
for all who are drawn are likewise raised up at the last day.
John Calvin is admitted, even by his foes, to have been a
tremendous exegete of Scripture. Fair and insightful, Calvin’s
commentaries continue to this day to have great usefulness and
benefit to the student of Scripture. Here are his comments on
John 6:44:
To come to Christ being here used metaphorically for
believing, the Evangelist, in order to carry out the
metaphor in the apposite clause, says that those
persons are drawn whose understandings God
enlightens, and whose hearts he bends and forms to
the obedience of Christ. The statement amounts to
this, that we ought not to wonder if many refuse to
embrace the Gospel; because no man will ever of
himself be able to come to Christ, but God must first
approach him by his Spirit; and hence it follows that
all are not drawn, but that God bestows this grace on
those whom he has elected. True, indeed, as to the
kind of drawing, it is not violent, so as to compel men
by external force; but still it is a powerful impulse of
the Holy Spirit, which makes men willing who
formerly were unwilling and reluctant. It is a false and
profane assertion, therefore, that none are drawn but
those who are willing to be drawn, as if man made
himself obedient to God by his own efforts; for the
willingness with which men follow God is what they
already have from himself, who has formed their
hearts to obey him.7
Jesus continues this thought in verse 45, drawing from a
prophecy of Isaiah, and says, “Everyone who has heard and
learned from the Father, comes to Me.” To hear and learn from
the Father is paralleled with being drawn in verse 44. Jesus
would later use the same kind of terminology when He taught
that only those who “belong to God” can hear His words (John
8:47).
In sum, then, Jesus surely taught the absolute sovereignty of
God, the inabilities of man, the unconditional election of a
people unto salvation, the efficient grace of God that infallibly
brings salvation to the elect, and the final perseverance of
those elect into eternal life. It is one of the key texts supportive
of the Reformed position identified as “extreme Calvinism” in
CBF.
CBF’s Response
As with all the other key passages (Romans 8, 9, Ephesians
1, and John 6), CBF offers no contextually-based, careful
exegesis of the passage. We saw in the introduction that John
6:37, while cited, is never discussed. Nothing is said about its
witness to unconditional election or irresistible grace. It is,
simply, ignored. The book’s cover claims to present a
definitive study of the issue of divine sovereignty and free
will. Such would require extensive work on these key
passages. None is offered, and what is offered is not exegetical
in nature.
Only three arguments are provided in the book in response
to John 6:44, and one to John 6:45. Given that the relationship
to the rest of the passage is not even noted, it is not surprising
that the passages are not exegeted contextually. In fact, little is
said about the actual words of the texts. Instead, the plain
meaning is explained away by reference to other passages. We
begin with John 6:44:
Second, John 12:32 makes it plain that the word
“draw” cannot mean “irresistible grace” on the elect
for one simple reason: Jesus said, “ ‘But I, when I am
lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to myself’ ”
(John 12:32). No true Calvinist believes that all men
will be saved.8
This is the most common response: rather than following the
course of the sermon delivered by Jesus, Arminians
immediately abandon John 6 and cite John 12:32. The
meaning of “draw,” fully discernable from the text of John 6,
is read back from an assumed meaning in John 12. This is a
faulty method of exegesis on many fronts. But even here, the
Arminian’s attempt fails, for John 12:32 does not teach
universalism anymore than John 6:44 does. Note the context
of the passage:
Now there were some Greeks among those who were
going up to worship at the feast; these then came to
Philip, who was from Bethsaida of Galilee, and began
to ask him, saying, “Sir, we wish to see Jesus.” Philip
came and told Andrew; Andrew and Philip came and
told Jesus. (John 12:20-22)
John 12 narrates the final events of Jesus’ public ministry.
After this particular incident the Lord will go into a period of
private ministry to His disciples right before He goes to the
cross. The final words of the Lord’s public teaching are
prompted by the arrival of Greeks who are seeking Jesus. This
important turn of events prompts the teaching that follows.
Jesus is now being sought by non-Jews, Gentiles. It is when
Jesus is informed of this that He says, “The hour has come for
the Son of Man to be glorified.”
This then is the context that leads us to Jesus’ words in
verse 32:
“Now My soul has become troubled; and what shall I
say, ‘Father, save Me from this hour’? But for this
purpose I came to this hour. Father, glorify Your
name.” Then a voice came out of heaven: “I have both
glorified it, and will glorify it again.” So the crowd of
people who stood by and heard it were saying that it
had thundered; others were saying, “An angel has
spoken to Him.” Jesus answered and said, “This voice
has not come for My sake, but for your sakes. Now
judgment is upon this world; now the ruler of this
world will be cast out. And I, if I am lifted up from the
earth, will draw all men to Myself.” But He was
saying this to indicate the kind of death by which He
was to die. (John 12:27-33)
There are two keys to understanding why the Arminian
understanding of this passage is utterly untenable: the first we
have seen in the fact that what prompted these words was the
coming of Gentiles seeking after Jesus. Reformed exegetes
believe that “all men” refers to Jews and Gentiles, not to every
individual person, and the context points this direction. But
even more devastating to the Arminian understanding is a
simple question: does the cross draw every single individual
man? Is that what the Bible really teaches about the cross?
Surely not! The cross is foolishness to Gentiles and a
stumbling block to Jews, as Paul taught:
For indeed Jews ask for signs and Greeks search for
wisdom; but we preach Christ crucified, to Jews a
stumbling block and to Gentiles foolishness, but to
those who are the called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ
the power of God and the wisdom of God. (1
Corinthians 1:22-24)
Paul knew this truth just as Jesus taught it: “to those who are
the called, both Jews and Greeks.…” To whom is Christ the
power and wisdom of God? To “the called.” What is the
preaching of the cross to those who are not called? Something
that draws them, or repels them? The answer is obvious. The
cross of Christ is foolishness to the world. These
considerations, along with the immediate context of the
Gentiles seeking Christ, make it clear that Jesus was saying
that if He is lifted up in crucifixion, He will draw all men,
Jews and Gentiles, to Himself. This is the same as saying that
He has sheep not of this fold (John 10:16), the Gentiles, who
become one body in Christ (Ephesians 2:13-16).
Finally, if we read this errant interpretation of John 12:32
back into John 6:44 (and to do so would require some kind of
demonstration that the simple word “draw” must have the
exact same meaning and objects in both contexts, something
CBF does not even attempt to prove) we do exactly as Geisler
asserts: create universalism, but not because the Reformed
view is in error. We have already seen that all who are drawn
are also raised up. Rather than using this argument to
overthrow the plain meaning of 6:44, CBF should see that the
group that is being drawn is not every single individual but the
elect (as indicated by the context), and that the result is indeed
the Reformed view of irresistible grace!
Third, the word “all” cannot mean only some men in
John 12:32. Earlier (John 2:24-25) when Jesus said He
knew “all” men sin, it was clear that He was not just
speaking of the elect. Why then should “all” mean
“some” in John 12:32? If He meant “some,” He could
easily have said so.9
Again, this kind of argumentation is completely fallacious.
First, John says Jesus “knew all men,” not that “all men sin.”
This is a simple misreading of the text. Secondly, CBF makes
no attempt to prove that the phrase “all men” in John 2:24 is to
be understood as synonymous with the use in John 12:32.
Jesus, as God, would “know all men” but it does not follow
that this means the Father must draw all men to Christ nor that
Christ must draw all men to Himself by His death. To know
and to draw are obviously completely different actions. Jesus
knew as a function of deity: the Father chooses to draw as a
function of His freedom. To connect John 2 with John 12 so as
to interpret John 6 should immediately cause any careful
student of the Bible to recognize that we here encounter a
glowing example of eisegesis that comes from an
unwillingness to accept what the text itself teaches. Further,
asking why Jesus said “all” begs the question: if the Reformed
exegete is right and Jesus means “all kinds of men” as in Jews
and Gentiles, and expected to be understood in that context,
why would he then say “some kinds of men”? That would
mean Jesus is excluding some kinds of men, which He does
not. As the heavenly song rightly says of the Lamb,
And they sang a new song, saying, “Worthy are You to
take the book and to break its seals; for You were
slain, and purchased for God with Your blood men
from every tribe and tongue and people and nation.
You have made them to be a kingdom and priests to
our God; and they will reign upon the earth.”
(Revelation 5:9-10)
Christ redeems by His death men from every tribe, tongue,
people, and nation, not some tribes, tongues, peoples and
nations. Hence, the argument has no merit when urged against
the Reformed position.
Thus far then we have seen only an attempt to insert a
foreign meaning into the text on the basis of unsubstantiated
connections with two foreign contexts (John 2 and John 12).
This should be sufficient to warn us that John 6:44 is not being
handled properly. But one last comment is left to be examined
on John 6:44:
Finally, their being drawn by God was conditioned
on their faith. The context of their being “drawn”
(6:37) was “he who believes” (6:35) or “everyone who
believes in Him” (6:40). Those who believe are
enabled by God to be drawn to Him. Jesus adds, “This
is why I told you that no one can come to me unless
the Father has enabled him’ ” (John 6:65). A little later
He says, “ ‘If anyone chooses to do God’s will, he will
find out whether my teaching comes from God or
whether I speak on my own’” (John 7:17). From this it
is evident that their understanding of Jesus’ teaching
and being drawn to the Father resulted from their own
free choice.
As we will see with Romans 9:16, it is simply amazing that a
passage that is so directly contradictory to the Arminian theory
of free will can be turned into an affirmation of “free choice.”
Of all the statements in CBF we admit that this one is the most
difficult to understand, for it has the least connection to the
subject it is allegedly addressing. Remember that this verse
begins with the phrase, “No man is able to come to Me,” and
yet the first line of response is, “Finally, their being drawn by
God was conditioned on their faith.” This unfounded assertion
has no connection to the text whatsoever, and the attempt to
prove it only compounds the eisegetical error. Given that this
is such a vital passage and the response so indicative of the
inability of Arminian writers to handle it, we will point out
each error as it is presented:
The context of their being “drawn” (6:37) was “he
who believes” (6:35) or “everyone who believes in
Him” (6:40).
Actually, the word “drawn” does not appear in 6:37; instead,
that verse (which received no response in CBF) says the Father
gives a people to the Son, and as a result, those people
infallibly, without fail, come to the Son. This verse definitely
provides an important element of the context: one ignored by
CBF. Next we are told that this context is “he who believes”
(6:35) or “everyone who believes in Him” (6:40). We have
seen that those who believe do so, in this text, because the
Father gives them to the Son. We also have seen that Jesus is
explaining why these men do not believe (6:36) These
contextual elements are ignored by CBF. Instead, the over-
riding assumption of human free will is inserted into the
passage without the first attempt to provide a foundation for so
doing. But this is followed with the most amazing statement in
all of CBF:
Those who believe are enabled by God to be drawn
to Him.
To be honest, this sentence makes no sense. It sounds like it is
saying that being “drawn” to God is not salvific: that is, it is
more like “drawing nearer to God” in devotion or some such
thing. In any case, the meaning surely has nothing whatsoever
to do with the text: obviously, coming to Christ is believing in
Him: they are synonymous in John. So, this passage is not
saying that God “draws” believers into a closer relationship
with Christ. Instead, it is saying that no man is able to come to
Christ in faith unless drawn by the Father, and that all who are
drawn are raised up, for all that the Father gives the Son will
come to the Son in saving faith. This coming is obviously the
act of saving faith, for Jesus says that the one who comes to
Him He will not cast out.
Further, it must be pointed out that there is nothing in the
passage about faith coming before the drawing: the drawing
results in faith. There is nothing in the text about God enabling
men to be drawn. God draws, period. We cannot help but point
out how completely backwards this interpretation is from the
actual text. But we go on:
Jesus adds, “This is why I told you that no one can
come to me unless the Father has enabled him’ ” (John
6:65).
This is actually a restatement of 6:44 with the change of
“enabled” (NASB: “granted him”) for “drawn.” In both cases
the exact same truth is being presented. What is missing in the
citation is the fact that Jesus “was saying” this, using the
imperfect tense, indicating that He was repeating this. The
disciples are walking away, and Jesus explains the mass
defection and unbelief in the same way as before: no one can
come to me unless the Father grants it to him. And we have
already seen the Father grants this to the elect of God alone.
A little later He says, “ ‘If anyone chooses to do God’s
will, he will find out whether my teaching comes from
God or whether I speak on my own’” (John 7:17).
The context of John 7 is completely different, and no attempt
is made to explain why the two verses are relevant to each
other. But this aside, it is evident that the idea is that sinners
can freely “choose” to do God’s will. And just who will
choose to do this? Those who are given by the Father to the
Son. Those who are not of the elect do not even hear His
words, let alone seek to do God’s will (John 8:47). Finally,
From this it is evident that their understanding of
Jesus’ teaching and being drawn to the Father resulted
from their own free choice.
We have no idea how this statement can be logically
connected, even through the most tortuous line of reasoning,
with the text that is being examined. How one goes from “no
man is able” to “resulted from their own free choice” we
honestly cannot say. We cannot even figure out who is being
referred to by the phrase “their understanding.” Is this in
reference to John 6 or John 7? “Understanding teaching” and
“being drawn” are two completely different things from two
completely different contexts, yet they are thrown together in a
confusing conclusion that screams the word “eisegesis.”
CBF fails completely to provide an answer to this glorious
passage that teaches sovereign grace with grand simplicity.
And given the misuse of other passages already cited
(Matthew 23:37, 1 Timothy 2:4, 2 Peter 3:9), it can truly be
said that CBF has no exegetical basis upon which to stand.
Notes
1 Chosen But Free, p. 47.
2 The reader is directed to my brief work, Drawn by the
Father (Crowne Publications, 1991) for a fuller exegesis
of this tremendous passage.
3 The neuter form π ν is used when the entire group is in
view; when each individual person comes into view with
reference to their response of faith the masculine participle
ἐρχóμενος is used, showing the personal element of faith.
4 Two tenses are used by the Lord in this passage: here the
present tense is used, “all the Father gives (δíδωσιν)
Me.…” In verse 39, however, the perfect tense is used,
“all that He has given (δέδωκεν)Me.…”
5 Here the aorist subjunctive of strong denial, οὐ μὴ ἐκβάλω
ἒξω, “I will never cast out.” The idea is the emphatic
denial of the possibility of a future event.
6 Jesus uses the neuter π ν again to refer to the elect as an
entire group, though the fact that this group is made up of
individuals is seen in their being raised to life and in their
individually coming to Him.
7 John Calvin, Commentary on the Gospel of John, The
Comprehensive John Calvin Collection (Ages Digital
Library, 1998)
8 Chosen But Free, p. 93.
9 Ibid.
Chapter 8
Unconditional Election
John 1:12-13
But as many as received Him, to them He gave the
right to become children of God, even to those who
believe in His name, who were born, not of blood nor
of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of
God.
In the midst of introducing the Word at the beginning of his
Gospel, John cannot help but speak of the work of the Word in
redemption. He speaks of the rejection of some (1:11) and
contrasts this with the acceptance of others. It is to these, and
these alone, that the right to become children of God is given.
Specifically, those who believe in His name. Then John makes
a statement about the identity and nature of those who believe.
He speaks of the “birth” of believers and specifically denies
certain assertions about their birth. They were not born of
blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man. How
are we to understand these statements? First, to say they were
not born of blood means that the birth spoken of (the new birth
as we see in John 3) is not limited to a certain people or race (a
necessary statement in light of some of John’s day who saw
salvation as race-dependent). Next, “nor of the will of the flesh
nor the will of man” probably refer to the same thing,
encompassing fully by double reference the idea of human
will. Divine birth can have only one origin: God. It is not a
matter of human will, human decision. As Calvin commented
on the passage:
The will of the flesh and the will of man appear to
me to mean the same thing; for I see no reason why
flesh should be supposed to signify woman, as
Augustine and many others explain it. On the contrary,
the Evangelist repeats the same thing in a variety of
words, in order to explain it more fully, and impress it
more deeply on the minds of men. Though he refers
directly to the Jews, who gloried in the flesh, yet from
this passage a general doctrine may be obtained: that
our being reckoned the sons of God does not belong to
our nature, and does not proceed from us, but because
God begat us WILLINGLY (James 1:18), that is, from
undeserved love. Hence it follows, first, that faith does
not proceed from ourselves, but is the fruit of spiritual
regeneration; for the Evangelist affirms that no man
can believe, unless he be begotten of God; and
therefore faith is a heavenly gift. It follows, secondly,
that faith is not bare or cold knowledge, since no man
can believe who has not been renewed by the Spirit of
God.7
Spurgeon, as only he could, put the passage in a context that
speaks volumes:
Now what is your grace in your heart? Did it spring
from the strength of nature? If so, it is but Ishmael, it
will be rejected, it is but the bondwoman’s child, and
will be cast out; but if your piety is the pure gift of
God, an Isaac born when human nature was incapable
of anything that was good, and when your depravity
could produce nothing that was acceptable in the sight
of God; if it has been granted to you according to the
power of the Holy Ghost, then is it such as shall surely
bring you to heaven. The children of God, then, are
heirs of promise, not heirs by merit, not heirs by their
own will, not heirs by human power. Just in this
manner does John describe believers as “born, not of
blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of
man, but of God.” John 1:13. Here are sharp
distinctions. My soul, canst thou bear them? While
listening to them, dost thou feel no rebellion, but
rather feel a humble desire to sit down at Jesus’ feet
and hopefully say, “I trust I also am a child of the
promise”? Ah! then is it well with thee.8
Dr. Geisler properly understands, and rejects, the Reformed
view of the passage:
According to the extreme Calvinist’s interpretation
of this passage, the new birth does not result from any
human decision or free choice—it is from God.9
Here is the attempted response:
There are at least two serious mistakes in such an
interpretation of this text. First, verse 12 makes it plain
that the means by which this new birth is obtained is
by “all who receive him [Christ].” This involves an act
of free will. Second, this passage is simply denying
that there is any other source of the new birth other
than God Himself. It is not “of” (Greek: ek, out of),
human sources, whether parents, husband, or
ourselves. No one can save us but God. God is the
source by which the new birth is given (v. 13), but free
will is the means by which it is “received” (v. 12). It is
“by” grace but “through” (Greek: dia) faith that we are
saved (Eph. 2:8).
Let’s examine these two “serious mistakes.”
First, Dr. Geisler, throughout the book, fails to recognize
that Reformed Christians believe that men believe and choose.
It is the order of events that is in dispute. Every Christian has
chosen Christ, believed in Christ, embraced Christ, and even
more, continues to do so. The question is not “must a person
believe,” but can a person believe while a slave to sin?
Further, whose decision comes first: the decision of God to
free the enslaved, dead sinner and give him the ability to
believe, or the freechoice decision of the sinner that then
makes him or her one of the elect?
Dr. Geisler claims, but does not substantiate, that it is the act
of belief that brings spiritual life. As we will see when we
examine regeneration and the gift of faith, this is nothing more
than an assertion that is contradictory to biblical teaching
(especially to John’s writings). If CBF is correct, where is the
connection drawn between the will of man in belief in verse 12
and the spiritual birth of verse 13? Is not birth logically prior
to action? Even though the passage itself says “not of the will
of man,” Geisler can say, “this involves an act of free will.”
Belief is a free-will act, but being born again is not?
But the objection does raise an interesting issue: does the
text itself indicate a relationship between believing and the
new birth? There are certainly some points that Dr. Geisler
would have to consider to make his assertions carry weight:
1) John, as is his custom, refers to Christians as “the
believing ones” (τȎις πιστεύουσιν). English translations
normally miss this important element of John’s gospel (the
contrast between true, saving faith, which is almost always
expressed through the use of the present tense indicating an
on-going, living faith, versus false faith which is almost
always placed in the aorist tense, making no statement about
its consistency or vitality). It is literally, “even to those who
are believing in His name” or “the believing ones (who
believe) in His name.” The term “believing” is a present
participle.
2) The verb “born” (ἐγεννήθησαν) is in the aorist passive
form. In its context it is plainly said to be an act of God. All
human agency is denied.
3) It follows, then, that verse 13 is a description of “the
believing ones” of verse 12. Nothing is said in the text that the
new birth is “received” by an “act of free will.” In fact, the
exact opposite is stated clearly, “the ones born not of the will
of man.…” It is an amazing example of how preconceived
notions can be read into a text that CBF can say the text makes
the new birth dependent upon an act of “free will” when the
text says the opposite.
The second “error” alleged by Dr. Geisler in the Reformed
interpretation of John 1:12-13 is his assertion that this passage
is “simply denying” that there is any other source of the new
birth other than God. He then asserts that “God is the source
by which the new birth is given (v. 13), but free will is the
means by which it is “received” (v. 12).” The same objection
applies here that was stated above: if a person can have saving
faith without the new birth, then what does the new birth
accomplish? Evidently one does not need the new birth to
obey God’s commands or have saving faith. We certainly
agree with Dr. Geisler that this passage denies, in the strongest
terms, that man is born again through any human means
whatsoever. But there are two problems with Geisler’s
assertion: first, it is not the new birth that is “received” in 1:12,
as he says: it is Christ that is received. If he wishes to say the
two are the same thing, we need more than the mere assertion
of the idea. Second, the idea that the use of the preposition
“ek” somehow limits this to saying God is the “source,” but
we are the agent, is in error. The Greek term “ek” often refers
to direct agency, and surely this is the meaning here. We are
caused to be born by God. The text nowhere even remotely
suggests that John is here speaking of “sources” and not the
actual action itself. The fact that he speaks of the “will of a
man” makes it very clear that he is going far beyond merely
saying “God is the source of the new birth” to saying God is
the one who causes the new birth in contrast to any action of
the will of man.
Hence we see that CBF fails to substantiate its charge of
error against the Reformed interpretation, and instead ends up
making the text say the opposite of its actual intention. We will
see this happen again in the next chapter when we examine
Romans 9:16.
Acts 13:46-48
Paul and Barnabas spoke out boldly and said, “It was
necessary that the word of God be spoken to you first;
since you repudiate it and judge yourselves unworthy
of eternal life, behold, we are turning to the Gentiles.
For so the Lord has commanded us, ‘I HAVE PLACED
YOU AS A LIGHT FOR THE GENTILES, THAT YOU MAY BRING
SALVATION TO THE END OF THE EARTH.’” When the
Gentiles heard this, they began rejoicing and
glorifying the word of the Lord; and as many as had
been appointed to eternal life believed.
This passage is not cited in CBF as one that is used by
“extreme Calvinists” and hence requires a response. Instead, it
is listed as a passage that allegedly shows “Salvation: both
ordained to it and persuaded into it.” This idea is based upon
citing Acts 13:48 and then noting that just a few verses later
(Acts 14:1) the disciples spoke “in such a manner” that large
people believed. We would hope that it is not being suggested
that the quality of the apostles’ speech is being credited with
the faith of the multitude: men are not converted by words of
wisdom or the persuasive abilities of any man. Men are
converted when God changes their hearts and draws them unto
Christ.
But Dr. Geisler then adds the following paragraph:
Some moderate Calvinists, like J. O. Buswell, deny
this is a reference to predestination. He wrote,
“Actually the words of Acts 13:48-49 do not
necessarily have any reference whatever to the
doctrine of God’s eternal decree of election.” The
passive participle tetagmenoi may simply mean
‘ready,’ and we might well read, ‘as many as were
prepared for eternal life, believed.’ ” He adds,
“Commenting on this word, Alford says, ‘The
meaning of this word must be determined by the
context. The Jews had judged themselves unworthy of
eternal life (v. 46); the Gentiles, “as many as were
disposed to eternal life,” believed.…To find in this
text preordination to life asserted, is to force both the
word and the context to a meaning which they do not
contain.’ ” 10
We commend Dr. Geisler for his very conditional presentation
of this argument. It is clear that he is well aware that this
viewpoint has a mountain of argumentation going against it.
First and foremost is the fact that the passage is not translated
as “made ready” or “were disposed to” in any of the major
modern Bible translations:
and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed.
(KJV, 1611)
and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed.
(ASV, 1901).
And as many as had been appointed to eternal life
believed. (NKJV, 1982)
and all who were appointed for eternal life believed.
(NIV, 1984)
and as many as had been destined for eternal life
became believers. (NRSV, 1989)
and as many as had been appointed to eternal life
believed. (NASB Update, 1995)
and all who were appointed to eternal life became
believers. (NLT, 1996)
and all who had been appointed for eternal life
believed. (NET, 1998)
Some have gone so far as to suggest that the participle
τεταγμένοι be translated in the middle voice, “considered
themselves worthy,” and the above assertions seem to parallel
that thought, at least in the results.
But what motivates such interpretation? Surely there is
nothing in the text to do so. Luke uses this verb, in the passive,
to clearly mean “appoint” elsewhere. For example:
“And I said, ‘What shall I do, Lord?’ And the Lord
said to me, ‘Get up and go on into Damascus, and
there you will be told of all that has been appointed
(τέτακταί) for you to do.’ (Acts 22:10)
No one would suggest that we should understand this to mean
“you will be told of all that you have appointed yourself to do”
or “all you have judged yourself worthy of doing.” The same
is true in Acts 28:23, where they “set a day” for Paul’s hearing,
again using the passive form of the same verb. Paul was not
“disposed toward” a date, he was appointed a date.11
But there is a grammatical reason why the normal
translation and understanding of this passage should be
accepted (along with the resultant meaning). The term
“appointed” here is found in what is called a periphrastic
construction. A periphrastic construction involves the use of a
participle with a form of the Greek verb of being, είμί. By
combining different tenses of both elements, a particular result
is achieved. In this case, Luke uses the imperfect form of eimi
together with the perfect passive participle. The result is that
the phrase must be translated as a “pluperfect.”12
A pluperfect sense speaks of a completed action in the past,
but unlike the perfect tense, the pluperfect does not contain the
idea of a continuation of the past action into the present time.
Therefore, the meaning of “appointed” refers to a past action.
How can this be if, in fact, we are to understand this as an
attitude in the Gentiles who have just heard that the gospel is
coming to them? Obviously, to take it in the sense suggested
by Buswell or Alford is to understand this action as something
that takes place at the very point where the Apostles quote
from Isaiah and proclaim that the Gentiles can receive the
blessings of the gospel. Luke writes, “When the Gentiles heard
this, they began rejoicing and glorifying the word of the
Lord.” How can we think that prior to this they had somehow
judged themselves worthy of eternal life? Instead, the most
natural way to take the text is to see this as Luke’s explanation
of why some who heard believed while others did not: the
difference was not that some were better or more “disposed”
toward the gospel than others (the very idea of someone being
disposed toward the gospel is utterly contrary to Paul’s
teaching in Romans 8:7-8): the difference is that some were
appointed to eternal life as part of the eternal decree of God,
and others were not.
The same is true today. The person who proclaims the
gospel with purity and power can trust that God will save His
elect. Likewise, we know that others will laugh and mock no
matter how clearly or forcefully we present the truth.
In reality the only reason people suggest that the term be
taken in such an unusual manner is because they do not wish
to accept the teaching of the passage, for it makes it very clear
that it is not our presentation, not our skills, not our preaching
that brings men to repentance (all can be used by God, but all
can likewise come to naught): as many as were appointed by
the Lord believed, for faith is, as we will prove later in this
work, the divine gift of God given to His elect people.
Matthew 11:25-27
At that time Jesus said, “I praise You, Father, Lord of
heaven and earth, that You have hidden these things
from the wise and intelligent and have revealed them
to infants. Yes, Father, for this way was well-pleasing
in Your sight. All things have been handed over to Me
by My Father; and no one knows the Son except the
Father; nor does anyone know the Father except the
Son, and anyone to whom the Son wills to reveal
Him.”
This section of Scripture comes right after an announcement of
judgment upon the cities in which Jesus had worked mighty
miracles and yet there was no repentance. In what must strike
the Arminian ear in a most unusual way, Jesus responds to this
wholesale rejection by thousands of individuals He allegedly
was doing all He could to save by praising His Father that He
(the Father) had in fact hidden these things from the wise and
prudent and revealed them to babes! He affirms that this is
God’s plan and it is pleasing in God’s sight. This provides the
preceding context for the key verse, 11:27.
Jesus affirms His own deity in this passage of Scripture and
His unique role as the only revealer of the Father (John 1:18).
Not only have all things been entrusted to the Son (no mere
creature could be given “all things”), but the Person of the Son
is so great, so magnificent that only the infinite Person of the
Father can know Him truly. There is a reciprocal truth: to
perfectly reveal the Father requires a perfect, infinite Person:
the Son. Jesus is the revealer of the Father. He is the only one
capable of so doing. And, He does so not because He must do
so but because He chooses to do so.
Who then can know the Father? Every single person who
chooses to do so by an act of free will, as CBF suggests? No,
this revelation is specific for it is by Christ and in Christ alone.
It is to the elect, chosen in Him before time began, that Christ
makes the wonderful revelation of the Father. Christ chooses
to make this revelation. He is the one who is free.
The verses that follow are often used to attempt to
overthrow the specificity of Christ’s revelation of the Father.
“Come to Me, all who are weary and heavy laden, and I will
give you rest” the Lord says. “See,” the Arminian says, “this is
a general call to all people, not just the elect.” A general call it
is, but who is it that knows they are weary and heavy laden? Is
the unregenerate man, who is at enmity with God, dead in sin,
going to be seeking rest by coming to Christ? While the lost
seek their rest in the world’s pleasures or religions, the elect
seek it in the only place it can be found: in Christ.
CBF seeks to explain Matthew 11:27 as follows:
God chooses only to reveal Himself personally to the
willing. Jesus said, “ ‘If anyone chooses to do God’s
will, he will find out whether my teaching comes from
God or whether I speak on my own’ ” (John 7:17). It
is noteworthy also that it does not say that Jesus
wishes only to reveal the Father to some. Indeed, God
desires all to be saved (Matt. 23:37, 2 Peter 3:9).13
We have already seen that Dr. Geisler’s use of Matthew 23:37
and 2 Peter 3:9 is in error. Further, we should note that
elsewhere in his book Dr. Geisler criticizes Reformed exegetes
for citing passages “from another book, in another context,”14
yet, this is exactly what he does here. Next, is it Geisler’s
position that it is the Son’s desire to reveal the Father to every
single individual on earth? Then does it not follow that Christ
has failed in this task, if, indeed, this is a salvific revelation of
the Father?
Very little in CBF’s response actually addresses the passage.
The assertion that God chooses only to reveal Himself to the
willing is based upon the errant interpretation of Matthew
23:37. John 7:17 is a completely different context and has
nothing to do with Matthew 11. That passage does not posit a
free will in man, but simply states that anyone who is willing
will know the truth of Christ’s teaching. And who knows this
but the redeemed? Does not every Christian desire to know of
the truthfulness of Christ’s teaching? This is descriptive of the
believer, not prescriptive of how one becomes a believer.
John 5:21
For just as the Father raises the dead and gives them
life, even so the Son also gives life to whom He
wishes.
This passage is very similar to Matthew 11:27. The deity of
Christ is plainly implied in grand terms, for only God is able to
give life, and this ability is the Son’s as well. He is able to
“give life to whom He wishes.” Literally the text says, “He
enlivens whom He wishes.” The verb (ζῳοποιε ) is active.
This is something the Son does, and the objects of the active
verb are human beings raised to spiritual life. It is a free act of
the will of the Son that brings life. The Arminian would have
to limit this to saying that Christ freely wills to save based
upon the action of faith in man. Again the object of God’s
choice would be a plan, not a person. But this is not what the
text says. Christ gives life to whom He wills (θέλει), not to
those who first will it thus allowing Him to save.
Commentators recognize that this passage speaks of God as
the source of both physical life as well as spiritual life. The
words spoken are true both of the raising to physical life in the
resurrection as well as the giving of spiritual life in
regeneration. This may be indicated by the use of two verbs in
5:21, “to raise up” (the normal term for raising the dead) and
“to make alive.” A diverse body of exegetes confirm this dual
application of the words of Jesus in 5:21, such as Leon
Morris,15 B.F. Westcott,16 William Hendrikson,17 J.H.
Bernard,18 Henry Alford,19 not to mention the great body of
older Puritan and Reformed exegetes (Spurgeon included),
going back to Calvin’s assertion. That there is spiritual life in
view is Calvin’s position. He wrote, “Again, he does not speak
of this life as bestowed indiscriminately on all; for he says that
he giveth life to whom he will; by which he means that he
especially confers this grace on none but certain men, that is,
on the elect.”20 We can go all the way back to Augustine in
A.D. 415 who commented on this passage,
Our Lord, for instance, raised Lazarus; He
unquestionably was able to do so. But inasmuch as He
did not raise up Judas, must we therefore contend that
He was unable to do so? He certainly was able, but He
would not. For if He had been willing, He could have
effected this too. For the Son quickeneth whomsoever
He will.21
So how does CBF handle this passage? Interestingly, it does so
in the context of denying particular redemption, not
unconditional election. As we will see when we discuss the
atoning work of Christ, the vast majority of Arminian
objections to particular redemption are actually confused
objections to unconditional election. The same is true here.
CBF notes that this passage is sometimes used by Reformed
writers “in an attempt to prove limited atonement whereby
Christ gives spiritual life only to the elect.”22 But this is
clearly an objection against the sovereignty of God in saving
only the elect, not to the belief that it was Christ’s intention to
save the elect perfectly in His death. We note the reasoning
provided by CBF:
First of all, if this interpretation were true it would
contradict the clear teaching of other texts in John
(John 3:16) and elsewhere (1 John 2:2, 2 Peter 2:1).
We are left to assume CBF’s interpretation of these passages.
In essence, it is being said “it can’t be saying Christ gives life
only to the elect since we already believe these other verses
teach differently.”
John 3:16 is cited by CBF over and over again as indication
that there is no particularity to God’s work of salvation. The
idea that the term “world” could possibly mean anything other
than every single individual (despite the fact that all serious
exegetes recognize a wide variety of uses of this term in the
New Testament and especially in John’s writings, for example,
John 17:9 and 1 John 2:15) is simply dismissed by CBF on
numerous occasions. Furthermore, the common misconception
that John 3:16 uses an indefinite phrase, “whosoever,” is
presented as evidence against the particularity of God’s work
of redemption. However, anyone familiar with the text as it
was written knows that the literal rendering of the passage is
“in order that every one believing in him should not perish but
have eternal life.” The verse teaches that the giving of the Son
guarantees the salvation of all the believing ones. Sound
exegetical practice requires us to then ask, “Does Jesus speak
to who will, and who will not, believe?” The answer is yes, He
does, in such passages as John 6:37-45.
We will look at the other passages under the topic of the
atonement. Geisler continues:
Second, the use of “just as” in this text indicates the
Son is doing the same thing as the Father, and the
Father “raises the dead.” So it is not a reference to
salvation but to resurrection of the dead. Finally, the
resurrection in this very chapter of John refers to “all
who are in the graves” (5:28), both saved and unsaved
(v. 29). Hence, the resurrection life given is not
limited to the elect: both saved and unsaved are
resurrected.
The attempt to limit this passage to merely the resurrection of
the dead leads to a tremendous problem for CBF. Are we to
believe, then, that John 5:24 does not refer to salvation? This
passage is closer in context than verses 28-29, cited by
Geisler:
Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears My word, and
believes Him who sent Me, has eternal life, and does
not come into judgment, but has passed out of death
into life.
Is it not the common view of Protestant exegetes in general
that the use of the present tense “has eternal life” in 5:24
means we have this life now as a present possession? While
5:24 is not referenced in CBF, Dr. Geisler sees it as a reference
to salvation (not just resurrection) in his Baker Encyclopedia
of Christian Apologetics,23 so if he is consistent, surely the
attempt to say that Christ refers here only to physical
resurrection must be rejected in light of the proximity of verse
24.
But more importantly, CBF’s assertion empties the passage
of any meaning. What does it mean that Christ “gives life to
whom He wishes” when this simply means that Christ engages
in the work of resurrection? Will not all be resurrected, some
to a resurrection of life and others to a resurrection of
judgment? How is the freedom of Christ to be expressed here?
But it is just this divine freedom, so clearly stated in John
5:21, that is denied by CBF. To safeguard the freedom of man,
the freedom of Christ must be limited so that He does not give
spiritual life to those whom He wills, but instead is limited to
engaging in the resurrection of the dead prior to judgment
only. This is obviously an artificial and erroneous view of the
passage.
Romans 8:28-30
And we know that God causes all things to work
together for good to those who love God, to those who
are called according to His purpose. For those whom
He foreknew, He also predestined to become
conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would
be the firstborn among many brethren; and these
whom He predestined, He also called; and these whom
He called, He also justified; and these whom He
justified, He also glorified.
Few texts of Scripture are so clear, so forceful, in asserting the
absolute freedom of God in saving His elect people than these.
Every attempt to undermine their testimony truly rings hollow.
Simple fairness drives the mind to recognize that these verses
speak of God’s work, not man’s. God saves, from beginning to
end.
Providing an exegesis of this text would be superfluous, as
so many fine examples exist. The reader is directed to the
work of John Murray, The Epistle to the Romans24 for an
example of the ease with which the Reformed exegete can
work with this text by simply allowing it to speak for itself.
We are truly on “home court” in Romans 8 and 9.
How does CBF attempt to defuse this keystone of the
Reformed faith? One should not be surprised that a slight
variant of the classic Arminian approach is utilized. In
essence, the effort (which, outside of Romans 9, receives the
longest block of text in the book, almost a full three pages)
provides not a scintilla of exegetical comment on verse 28.
The attempted response to verse 29 focuses upon denying that
“foreknown” carries the concept of “fore-loved” or “chosen.”
But the entire effort is summarized in these words:
For the question still remains as to whether God
ordained an act of free choice as a means of receiving
His unconditional grace.25
We have now seen this tactic repeated many times: did God
ordain people to salvation or a plan? We have seen over and
over that the direct object of the words used to describe God’s
work is personal. People are predestined, people are chosen
before the world begins, not acts, not plans, not possibilities.
This remains the central error of CBF’s argumentation: the
unbiblical replacement of the personal element of the electing
grace of God with a philosophically derived, eisegetically
inserted idea of God’s ordination of a plan that is dependent
upon the actions of man for fruition and success.
In verse 28 Paul identifies those who love God as those who
“are called according to His purpose.” The word “His” is
provided for clarity, for it is literally, “called according to
purpose.” We have seen the call and purpose of God extolled
in Ephesians 1. Throughout the passage God is active, calling,
predestining, justifying, glorifying. Man is the object of
redemption (praise God!), but man in no way rules over it,
determines its success, adds to its work, or intrudes on God’s
glory.
If a man or woman truly loves God (not a god of their own
making or their own image, but the true God of the Bible,
including all those truths of His being and character that are
the most reprehensible to the natural man), that person has
been called by God in accordance with His purpose. Indeed,
true love for the true God is one of the surest signs of
regeneration and redemption.
CBF does not interact with the text of Romans 8:28.
Instead, it immediately devolves into the assertion that election
and predestination are “in accordance with” foreknowledge.
We have already seen what this means and the fact that
Geisler’s position, while denying election based on
foreknowledge presents election in accordance with
foreknowledge. But to substantiate this position he must
believe that “to foreknow” in 8:29 has the same meaning as
the philosophical use of the term. If we find that in this
passage foreknowledge does not refer to God’s perfect
knowledge of the events of the future, including the free acts
of human beings, then it can be said that CBF offers no
response to this passage at all. Geisler realizes this, for he
accurately describes the Reformed understanding:
Many extreme Calvinists take “foreknown” to refer
to the fact that God foreloved. In this case, to
foreknow and to choose or elect would be the same
thing. They cite other passages in attempts to support
this (e.g., Deut. 7:7-8; Jer. 1:5; Amos 3:2; Matt. 7:22-
23). If so, then God’s foreknowledge would not have
any reference to foreknowing how the elect would
respond.26
The key is found in the final phrase: for CBF’s position to hold
it must be proven that “foreknown” in this passage cannot, and
does not, mean anything that would conflict with the idea of
God knowing the free acts of men.
Without repeating work that has been done elsewhere,27 let
us summarize the position of Reformed exegetes on the
meaning of “foreknow.”
1 The primary passages that should inform our understanding
of the term are those that have God as the subject of the
verbal form, as here. Obviously, passages that have humans
as the subject would differ, substantially, in their meaning,
for God’s knowledge is vastly different than man’s.
2 The verb προγινώσκω is used three times in the New
Testament with God as the subject: Romans 8:29, Romans
11:2, and 1 Peter 1:20.
3 The key issue (normally unaddressed by Arminian writers)
lies in the objects of God’s action of “foreknowing.” What,
or who, is “foreknown” by God? In Romans 8:29 the direct
object of the verb is a pronoun that refers back to the elect
of verse 28. In Romans 11:2 the object is “His people.” And
in 1 Peter 1:20 the object is Christ.
4 Every time God is portrayed as “foreknowing” the object of
the verb is personal.
5 Therefore, to say that God foreknows acts, faith, behavior,
choices, etc. is to assume something about the term that is
not witnessed in the biblical text. God foreknows persons
not things.
6 This New Testament usage then decides for us which
elements of the Old Testament stream most informs these
passages. That is, the Hebrew term yada ( ) is used in
many different ways. Is there a discernable usage in the Old
Testament that comes through to the New Testament that
would see this as an action that has only persons as its
object? The answer is a definite yes. Here are some of the
key passages where the very same element of personal
choice and knowledge is a part of God’s “knowing” in the
Old Testament:
Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, And
before you were born I consecrated you; I have
appointed you a prophet to the nations. (Jeremiah 1:5)
Here God’s knowledge of Jeremiah is clearly personal. It is
paralleled with the term “consecrated” and “appointed,”
pointing us toward the element of “choice.” This knowledge of
Jeremiah is not limited to time. In some manner, God “knew”
Jeremiah before Jeremiah came into existence.
The LORD said to Moses, “I will also do this thing of
which you have spoken; for you have found favor in
My sight and I have known you by name.” (Exodus
33:17)
This tremendous passage (which Paul draws upon in Romans
9) reveals the very personal aspect of God’s “knowing” of an
individual. Obviously the Lord is not revealing to Moses, “I
know your name!” This “knowing” is intimate, personal, and
is connected with the fact that Moses “found favor” in the
sight of God. This is a gracious knowing, a gracious choosing
of Moses to receive the benefits of God’s mercy.
You only have I chosen among all the families of the
earth;
Therefore I will punish you for all your iniquities.”
(Amos 3:2)
Here the NASB actually translates yada as “chosen,” so
strongly is this element found in the context of this passage.
Literally it says, “You (speaking of Israel) only have I
known.…” Obviously God is not denying knowledge of the
mere existence of other nations and peoples. There is a special
element to this “knowing,” an element of gracious choice.
Indeed, so personal and intimate can be the use of yada that it
is said in Genesis 4:1 that when Adam “knew” his wife, the
result was a child.
Therefore, the use of the verbal concept of “foreknowing” in
the New Testament, together with these testimonies from the
Old Testament, are more than sufficient basis for asserting that
when Paul says “and those whom He foreknew” Paul is
speaking about an action on God’s part that is just as solitary,
just as God-centered, and just as personal as every other action
in the string: God foreknows (chooses to enter into
relationship with); God predestines; God calls; God justifies;
God glorifies. From first to last it is God who is active, God
who accomplishes all these things. It is the burden of the
Arminian to break this “golden chain of redemption,” prove to
us that God’s foreknowing is a mere passive gathering of
infallible knowledge of the future actions of free creatures, and
establish that this passage is not telling us that all of salvation,
from initiation to accomplishment, is the work of God for His
own glory.
CBF attempts to maintain its Arminian viewpoint by
stating:
First, even if this is true, it is irrelevant, since
extreme Calvinists believe in God’s infallible
foreknowledge (cf., Isa. 46:10) regardless of what
these verses teach. And if God does foreknow
infallibly, then He would still foreknow what people
would freely believe, and He would still have to
decide whether He would have to force them to
believe in Him or else elect those He knew could be
persuaded to freely accept His grace.
We have seen this quotation before, and it again establishes the
non-Reformed character of CBF. The passage is filled with
errors. It does not use “foreknow” in the sense we have just
established. It speaks of God deciding to “force” people to
believe (rather than the Reformed position that speaks of
God’s gracious deliverance of them from sin, the renewing of
their heart, the granting of spiritual life, the giving of the gifts
of faith and repentance). And it again shows its fully Arminian
view of salvation by making God’s act of predestination
dependent upon the pliability of men, those who “could be
persuaded to freely accept His grace.” Rather than a grace that
changes dead sinners, we have a grace that requires the free
will of man for its effectiveness.
Then Dr. Geisler attempts to dissuade his readers from
understanding “foreknow” as we have presented it above. But
his argumentation is seriously deficient. In fact, he engages in
the very activity he (errantly) accuses Reformed writers of
doing when they seek to establish that such words as “all” and
“world” can have specific meanings in specific contexts. He
establishes that “to know” can be used with no personal
element (i.e., to know simple facts). No one disputes the
assertion. No one has said “The Greek word ginosko always
has this one meaning.” The assertion is that when it is used of
God in particular contexts in the Old Testament it carries this
meaning, and that in every usage in the New Testament it does
so. Next, he establishes that ginosko “usually” does not mean
“choose.” Again, this is a point not in dispute (though an entire
paragraph is dedicated to the demonstration). Finally he proves
that even the specific verb, proginosko, is used “in reference to
advanced knowledge of events.” Unfortunately he errs and
gives only references that have men as the subject of the verb,
not the ones that have God as the subject. Yet, after all these
irrelevant or errant efforts, CBF concludes, “Thus, the extreme
Calvinist’s equating of foreknowing and foreloving does not
follow.” This is then followed by even more argumentation
that is again irrelevant to the actual issue:
Finally, the word “chosen” by God is used of persons
who are not the elect. Judas, for example, was
“chosen” by Christ but not one of the elect: “Jesus
replied, ‘Have I not chosen you, the Twelve? Yet one
of you is a devil!’ ” (John 6:70). Israel was chosen as a
nation, but not every individual in Israel will be
saved.28
Of course the word “chosen” is used in more than one way. No
one is arguing that “chosen” always has the same meaning.
Instead, the issue is, does “chosen” mean elect in the context
of the passages that we have examined? And the answer to that
has already been seen: it does.
There remains one key passage that, due to its importance
and the length of the attempted response by CBF, deserves its
own chapter. That is Paul’s teaching found in Romans chapter
9.
Notes
1 Chosen But Free, pp. 67-68.
2 Ibid., p. 69.
3 Ibid., p. 70.
4 Ibid., p. 68.
5 Ibid., p. 179.
6 As with all else we have seen, we must insist that it is not
the mere opportunity of being saved, or receiving an
inheritance if we will do certain things (whether those be
“good works in a state of grace” or the mere free choice
act of faith) that is in view here. There is all the difference
in the world between an actual work that brings glory to
God and a potential work that can be set at naught by the
supreme will of the creature.
7 John Calvin, Commentary on the Gospel According to
John (Baker Book House, 1984), p. 43.
8 “A Strong Consolation” preached 9/26/1869, The Charles
H. Spurgeon Library CD ROM (Ages Digital Library,
1998).
9 Chosen But Free, p. 58
10 Ibid., p. 41.
11 See also Romans 13:1 where the same kind of term is used
to clearly mean “appointed.”
12 For a summary of periphrastic translations, see William
Mounce, Basics of Biblical Greek (Zondervan, 1993), pp.
276-277 and Daniel Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the
Basics (Zondervan, 1996), pp. 647-649.
13 Chosen But Free, p. 72.
14 Ibid., p. 193.
15 Leon Morris, The Gospel According to John (Eerdmans,
1971), pp. 314-315. Morris actually asserts that the primary
application of Jesus’ words in 5:21 is in reference to the
giving of life in the current time period, with the later
resurrection being only in the background.
16 Brooke Foss Westcott, The Gospel According to John
(Baker Book House, 1980), p. 191.
17 William Hendriksen, New Testament Commentary:
Exposition of the Gospel According to John (Baker Book
House, 1953), p. 199.
18 J.H. Bernard, A Critical and Exegetical Commentary on
the Gospel According to St. John (T&T Clark, 1985), p.
241.
19 Henry Alford, The New Testament for English Readers Vol.
II (Baker Book House, 1983), p. 507. It should be noted
that Alford denies that the “whom He wills” involves any
particularity, though Alford provides no sound reasoning as
to why this is.
20 John Calvin, Commentary on the Gospel of John, (Baker
Book House, 1984), p. 200.
21 Augustine, On Nature and Grace, 2:8.
22 Chosen But Free, p. 78.
23 Norman Geisler, Baker Encyclopedia of Christian
Apologetics (Baker Book House, 1999), pp. 361, 491.
24 John Murray, The Epistle to the Romans (Eerdmans, 1997),
pp. 314-321.
25 Chosen But Free, p. 71.
26 Ibid., p. 69.
27 I have addressed the meaning of πρoγινώσκω elsewhere.
See God’s Sovereign Grace: A Biblical Examination of
Calvinism (Crowne, 1990), pp. 117-122. For the truly
brave at heart who wish exhaustive discussions, few are
better than Francis Turretin, Institutes of Elenctic Theology
(Presbyterian and Reformed, 1992), Volume I, p. 355 and
following.
28 Ibid., pp. 70-71.
Chapter 9
The promises remain valid since they were only the possession
of the “children of promise” from the beginning. Two truths
immediately come to our attention: first, God determined who
was, and who was not, a child of promise. This is all God’s
work. Secondly, Paul is speaking of the salvation of
individuals. When he says that not all who are descended from
Israel are truly children of promise, who is he referring to? Is
he not speaking of persons within the body of the nation of
Israel? Who are these children of promise if not people?
Remember the accusation to which he responds: “Look, Paul!
Your gospel teaches that these Jewish opponents of yours who
oppose Christ and His gospel will be accursed! You nullify the
word of God!” But Paul’s response is, “No, I do not, for
simply being a physical descendant of Israel does not make
you a true Israelite. God has always had an elect people that
He chooses and it is not an external matter, based upon race or
nationality.” And it is this last point that Paul takes up
beginning in verse 9. But the key is this: Paul is not talking
about nations and he is talking about God’s sovereign election
in salvation, for it was God’s right and freedom to limit His
promises to the children of promise, and not to anyone else.
God has always worked this way, Paul teaches. Salvation
has always been under His control. God has never been forced
to act upon the dictates of human choice or decision. He
demonstrates this from Israel’s own history:
And not only this, but there was Rebekah also, when
she had conceived twins by one man, our father Isaac;
for though the twins were not yet born and had not
done anything good or bad, so that God’s purpose
according to His choice would stand, not because of
works but because of Him who calls, it was said to
her, “THE OLDER WILL SERVE THE YOUNGER.” Just as it is
written, “JACOB I LOVED, BUT ESAU I HATED.” (Romans
9:10-13)
The declaration of “God’s purpose according to His choice”
(or “election”) is the keystone of this section. Everything
points to this one assertion. The pronouncement by God that
the older would serve the younger was made on the basis of a
choice by God (dare we say a “free choice”?) that was made
before their birth and before they could “do” anything good or
bad. Paul’s emphasis is upon the independence and freedom of
God’s choice. There was nothing in the twins that determined
the choice (which is the point of stating that the
pronouncement was made before the twins had done “anything
good or bad”). Just so that this would not be missed, Paul
clarifies and emphasizes his concern: “not because of works
but because of Him who calls.” Literally the text reads “from
works.…from the One calling,” again making the same point:
the ground of choice, the source of election, is solely in God,
not in man. John Piper gave excellent insight into this passage
when he wrote,
First, with the use of the preposition ἐξ Paul makes
explicit that God’s decision to treat Esau and Jacob
differently is not merely prior to their good or evil
deeds but is also completely independent of them.
God’s electing purpose (Rom 9:11c) and his concrete
prediction (9:12c) are in no way based on the
distinctives Esau and Jacob have by birth or by action.
This rules out the notion of the early Greek and Latin
commentators that election is based on God’s
foreknowledge of men’s good works. Second, Rom
9:12b enlarges on 9:11b by going beyond the negation
of human distinctives as the ground for God’s
predestining of Esau and Jacob. It makes the positive
affirmation that the true ground of this election is God
himself, “the one who calls.” The intended force of the
phrase “not from works but from the one who calls” is
felt most strongly when one contrasts it with the
similar Pauline phrase “not from works but from
faith.” In Paul’s thinking the latter phrase describes the
event of justification (Rom 9:32; Gal 2:16), never the
event of election or predestination. Paul never grounds
the “electing purpose of God” in man’s faith. The
counterpart to works in conjunction with election (as
opposed to justification) is always God’s own call
(Rom 9:12b) or his own grace (Rom 11:6). The
predestination and call of God precede justification
(Rom 8:29f) and have no ground in any human act,
not even faith. This is why Paul explicitly says in Rom
9:16 that God’s bestowal of mercy on whomever he
wills is based neither on human willing (which would
include faith) nor on human running (which would
include all activity).1
This is likewise the implication of verse 13, where God speaks
of His choice of Jacob over Esau. Much is made of the terms
“loved” and “hated” here, and we will see how these terms are
to be applied when responding to CBF’s commentary.
The immediate response that is offered to the assertion of
the Potter’s freedom to do with His creation as He sees fit is,
“But, doesn’t that make God unjust?” Paul had “heard it all
before” and was ready with a response:
What shall we say then? There is no injustice with
God, is there? May it never be! For He says to Moses,
“I WILL HAVE MERCY ON WHOM I HAVE MERCY, AND I WILL
HAVE COMPASSION ON WHOM I HAVE COMPASSION.” So
then it does not depend on the man who wills or the
man who runs, but on God who has mercy. (Romans
9:14-16)
Paul is ready with an Old Testament example to buttress his
arguments: Exodus 33. This tremendous passage contains
themes that find their full expression only in the New
Testament’s full revelation of the doctrines of God’s free and
sovereign grace. God showed mercy and compassion to
Moses, choosing to reveal His glory as an act of grace. We
must understand, in light of the prevailing attitude of the world
around us, that God’s mercy, if it is to be mercy at all, must be
free. Literally the text speaks of “mercying” and
“compassioning,” again verbs of action that find their subject
in God and their object in those chosen by His decision. It
does not say, “I will have mercy on those who fulfill the
conditions I have laid down as the prerequisite of my plan of
salvation.” Both the “source” of compassion and mercy and
the individual application find their ultimate ground only in
the free choice of God, not of man.
This divine truth, so offensive to the natural man, could not
find a clearer proclamation than Romans 9:16. We truly must
ask, if this passage does not deny to the will of man the all-
powerful position of final say in whether the entire work of the
Triune God in salvation will succeed or fail, what passage
possibly could? What stronger terms could be employed? The
verse begins, “so then,” drawing from the assertion of God that
mercy and compassion are His to freely give. Next comes the
negative particle, “not,” which negates everything that follows
in the clause. Two human activities are listed: willing and
literally “running,” or striving. Human choice and human
action. Paul puts it bluntly: it is not “of the one willing” nor is
it “of the one running.” Paul uses two singular present active
participles. The fact that they are singular shows us again the
personal nature of the passage. The interpretation that
attempts to limit Romans 9 to “nations” cannot begin to
explain how nations “will” or “run.” In contrast to these Paul
uses a present active participle to describe God’s act of
“mercying,” showing mercy. Man may strive through his will
and his endeavors, but God must show mercy.
Lest someone think, “Well, yes, God shows mercy and
initiates salvation, and only then does the will of man freely
embrace it,” as is argued constantly in CBF, Paul closes the
door by giving as his own interpretation of his argument the
example of Pharaoh:
For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, “FOR THIS VERY
PURPOSE I RAISED YOU UP, TO DEMONSTRATE MY POWER IN
YOU, AND THAT MY NAME MIGHT BE PROCLAIMED
THROUGHOUT THE WHOLE EARTH.” So then He has
mercy on whom He desires, and He hardens whom He
desires. (Romans 9:17-18)
The example of Pharaoh was well known to any person
familiar with the Old Testament. God destroyed the Egyptian
nation by plagues so as to demonstrate His might and power in
the earth, and key to this demonstration was the hardening of
Pharaoh’s heart. Before Moses had met with Pharaoh the first
time God told him:
When you go back to Egypt see that you perform
before Pharaoh all the wonders which I have put in
your power; but I will harden his heart so that he will
not let the people go. (Exodus 4:21)
It was God’s intention to bring His wrath upon the Egyptians.
God’s actions were not “forced” by the stubborn will of the
Egyptian leader. God said He would harden Pharaoh’s heart,
and He did. Listen to the impudent response of this pagan
idolater to the command of Moses:
And afterward Moses and Aaron came and said to
Pharaoh, “Thus says the LORD, the God of Israel, ‘Let
My people go that they may celebrate a feast to Me in
the wilderness.’” But Pharaoh said, “Who is the LORD
that I should obey His voice to let Israel go? I do not
know the LORD, and besides, I will not let Israel go.”
(Exodus 5:1-2)
Is this not what God said He would do? Will someone suggest
that Pharaoh’s heart is “soft” here? No indeed, and Moses well
knew that God was behind this for when the Pharaoh then
increased the work load of the Israelites, Moses complained to
God in Exodus 5:22. Why complain to God if, in fact, God had
nothing to do with it and it was all just a matter of the
Pharaoh’s “free will choice”?
This provides the background of Paul’s citation of Exodus
9:16. The portion of truth that here stings the pride of man is
this: it is more important that God’s name be magnified and
His power made known than it is any single man get to “do his
own thing.” Pharaoh was surely never forced to do anything
sinful (indeed, God probably kept him from committing many
a sinful deed). He acted on the desires of his wicked heart at
all times. But he is but a pot, a creature, not the Potter. He was
formed and made and brought into existence to serve the
Potter’s purposes, not his own. He is but a servant, one chosen,
in fact, for destruction. His destruction, and the process that
led up to it (including all the plagues upon Egypt), were part of
God’s plan. There is simply no other way to understand these
words.
Paul then combines the fact that God showed undeserved
compassion and mercy to Moses (Exodus 33) with God’s
hardening of Pharaoh’s heart (Exodus 5) and concludes that
whether one is “mercied” or “hardened” is completely,
inalterably, and utterly up to God. The verbs here are active:
God performs these actions. He “mercies” whom He wills and
He hardens whom He wills. The parallel between “mercy” and
“hardening” is inarguable. We may like the “mercying” part
more than the hardening, but they are both equally a part of
the same truth. Reject one and you reject them both. There is
no such thing as preaching God’s mercy without preaching
God’s judgment, at least according to Scripture.
The passage reaches a crescendo in these final verses:
You will say to me then, “Why does He still find
fault? For who resists His will?” On the contrary, who
are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing
molded will not say to the molder, “Why did you
make me like this,” will it? (Romans 9:19-20)
Paul well knew the objections man presents to the words he
had just penned. If God has mercy solely based upon His good
pleasure, and if God hardens Pharaoh on the same basis, all to
His own glory and honor, how can God hold men accountable
for their actions, for who resists His will? Paul’s response is
swift and devastating: Yes indeed God holds man accountable,
and He can do so because He is the Potter, the one who molds
and creates, while man is but the “thing molded.” For a pot to
question the Potter is absurd: for man to answer back to God is
equally absurd. These words cannot be understood separately
from the fundamental understanding of the freedom of the
Sovereign Creator and the ontological creatureliness of man
that removes from him any ground of complaint against God.
Though already devastatingly clear, Paul makes sure there is
no doubt left as to his point:
Or does not the potter have a right over the clay, to
make from the same lump one vessel for honorable
use and another for common use? What if God,
although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to
make His power known, endured with much patience
vessels of wrath prepared for destruction? And He did
so to make known the riches of His glory upon vessels
of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory,
even us, whom He also called, not from among Jews
only, but also from among Gentiles. (Romans 9:21-24)
The Potter’s freedom pulses through these words, flowing
inexorably into the sea of sovereignty, rushing any would-be
proponent of free will out of its path. God has the perfect right
to do with His creation (including men) as He wishes, just as
the Potter has utter sovereignty over the clay. Just as God had
demonstrated His wrath and power by wasting idolatrous
Egypt, so too He demonstrates His wrath upon “vessels of
wrath prepared for destruction.” Are these nations? Classes?
No, these are sinners upon whom God’s wrath comes. They
are said to have been specifically “prepared for destruction.”
That is their purpose.
Why are there vessels prepared for destruction? Because
God is free. Think about it: there are only three logical
possibilities here.2 Either 1) all “vessels” are prepared for
glory (universalism); 2) all “vessels” are prepared for
destruction; or 3) some vessels are prepared for glory and
some are prepared for destruction and it is the Potter who
decides which are which. Why is there no fourth option, one in
which the pots prepare themselves based upon their own
choice? Because pots don’t have such a capacity! Pots are
pots! Since God wishes to make known the “riches of His
grace” to His elect people (the vessels prepared of mercy),
there must be vessels prepared for destruction. There is no
demonstration of mercy and grace where there is no justice.
The vessels of wrath, remember, like being vessels of wrath,
would never choose to be anything else, and they detest the
vessels that receive mercy. Indeed, during the writing of this
book I encountered an unbeliever who, upon hearing me
mention the wrath of God, mocked and said, “Ah, yes, the
wrath of God! I LIKE IT!” This is the attitude of the vessel of
wrath prepared for destruction.
God’s wonderful grace will be praised throughout eternity
because of the great contrast between the vessels of wrath and
the vessels of mercy. Why? Because the only difference
between the vessels of wrath and the vessels of mercy is the
sovereign grace of God that changes the heart of the rebel
sinner and turns him from being a God-hater into a God-lover.
This is why there is no basis for man’s boasting, ever.
Given how clear and forceful this passage is, how can the
Arminian escape its force? Dr. Geisler relies upon the standard
Arminian explanations as he attempts to defuse this
thoroughly Reformed proclamation in Romans 9.
Limited Atonement
It’s the favorite target of Arminian preachers. “Calvinists
are so far off that they preach that Christ’s death is limited!
They don’t even believe Christ died for sinners, but just for
them!” I have honestly seen this kind of rhetoric on the
Internet and in self-published books from fundamentalists. Yet,
almost never do we read a full, honest, biblically-based
discussion of the real issues. Most of the time both sides will
toss out passages that speak either of Christ dying for “all
men” (resulting in the inevitable discussion of the meaning of
“all” in various contexts), or of Christ dying for a specific
people (resulting in a discussion of whether that group is fixed
by God’s decree or determined by the free act of faith). While
both topics are important (and we have already seen that God
does have a specific elect people that He intends to save), they
skirt around the main issue. We do not determine the intention
and result of the atonement by reasoning from such premises.
There are direct, clear, compelling passages of Scripture that
tell us what the intention and result of the atonement is, and to
these we must look for our foundational understanding of the
atoning work of Christ.
What does “limited atonement” mean? When a Calvinist
uses the term, it means “Christ’s intention in His death was the
perfect and substitutionary atonement of all of His elect.” The
scope of His work is in perfect harmony with His intention,
which is the salvation of His elect people who are entrusted to
Him. It makes no sense for Christ to offer atonement for those
the Father does not entrust to Him for salvation. Obviously, a
person who does not believe the Father entrusts a particular
people (the elect) to the Son has no reason to believe in
particular redemption. But since it is His intention to save all
those given to Him by the Father (John 6:37-39), He bears
their iniquities in His body on the tree in their place. B.B.
Warfield is correct when he asserts that the substitutionary
aspect of the work of Christ on the cross is “as precious to the
Calvinist as is his particularism, and for the safeguard of
which, indeed, much of his zeal for particularism is due.”1
A common, but not fully Reformed, assertion is that Christ’s
death was sufficient to save every single human being, but
efficient to save only the elect. While the statement carries
truth, it misses the most important issue: whether it was
Christ’s intention to make full and complete atonement for
every single individual (making salvation theoretically
possible but not actual) or whether it was His intention to
make full atonement for all those given to Him by the Father
(the elect). Both “sides” can use the statement: the Arminian
can say it is true since the “elect” is determined not by God’s
choice, but by man’s. Therefore this saying, popular since the
scholastic period of church history, really says nothing to the
point of debate.
Particular Redemption
John 17:9
We saw in the previous chapter that the Lord Jesus in His
High Priestly prayer immediately before His sacrifice on
Calvary prayed for those whom the Father had given Him. He
specifically differentiated between the objects of His prayer
and “the world.” This distinction, introduced in a particularly
poignant salvific context, causes Arminian exegetes no end of
trouble.
Several important things should be noted in response
to this. First, the fact that Christ only prayed for the
elect in this passage does not in itself prove that He
never prayed for the non-elect at any time. If, as
extreme Calvinists admit, Jesus as a man could have
had negative answers to His prayers, then He could
have prayed for some people who were not elect, even
if it is not recorded in Scripture. Many things Jesus did
are not recorded (cf. John 21:25).18
Such a response completely misses the reason the passage is
cited by Reformed exegetes. The context of John 17:9 is the
Lord’s High Priestly prayer. It is pure misdirection to even
introduce the idea of prayers receiving negative answers: is it
CBF’s assertion that the Father will give a negative answer to
the Son’s intercession for His people? We would surely hope
not, for such would be as unbiblical a position to take as could
be imagined! But the explanation continues to miss the mark:
Second, Christ prayed for non-elect persons. His
prayer, “ ‘Father, forgive them for they know not what
they do’ ” (Luke 23:34 KJV) undoubtedly included
people who were not elect.19
Given that Dr. Geisler posits that it is certain that Calvin did
not believe in particular redemption, his words might carry
some weight here:
If any one think that this does not agree well with
Peter’s sentiment, which I have just now quoted, the
answer is easy. For when Christ was moved by a
feeling of compassion to ask forgiveness from God for
his persecutors, this did not hinder him from
acquiescing in the righteous judgment of God, which
he knew to be ordained for reprobate and obstinate
men. Thus when Christ saw that both the Jewish
people and the soldiers raged against him with blind
fury, though their ignorance was not excusable, he had
pity on them, and presented himself as their
intercessor. Yet knowing that God would be an
avenger, he left to him the exercise of judgment
against the desperate. In this manner ought believers
also to restrain their feelings in enduring distresses, so
as to desire the salvation of their persecutors, and yet
to rest assured that their life is under the protection of
God, and, relying on this consolation, that the
licentiousness of wicked men will not in the end
remain unpunished, not to faint under the burden of
the cross.20
Then note these words that are added:
It is probable, however, that Christ did not pray for
all indiscriminately, but only for the wretched
multitude, who were carried away by inconsiderate
zeal, and not by premeditated wickedness. For since
the scribes and priests were persons in regard to whom
no ground was left for hope, it would have been in
vain for him to pray for them. Nor can it be doubted
that this prayer was heard by the heavenly Father, and
that this was the cause why many of the people
afterwards drank by faith the blood which they had
shed.21
CBF continues,
Further, Jesus indirectly prayed for the world by
asking us to “‘pray the Lord of the harvest to send out
laborers into His harvest’” (Luke 10:2 KJV), yet
knowing that not all would be saved (Matt. 13:28-30).
In fact, He wept for unbelievers (Matt. 23:37) and
prayed that unbelievers would be saved (John
11:42).22
God has ordained the means as well as the ends: the prayer of
Luke 10:2 is that the Lord would send out workers into the
harvest. To confuse this with a prayer by our High Priest in
behalf of the world in general is to stretch a passage far
beyond the breaking point. We have seen the error of this use
of Matthew 23:37, and John 11:42 speaks of the Lord praying
to the Father with reference to being “heard” by the Father so
that people would believe. Obviously, this has nothing to do
with Jesus praying for unbelievers, since, of course, that would
require the assumption that none of those gathered around
were of the elect.
Third, even if Jesus had not prayed for the non-elect,
still other passages of the New Testament reveal that
the apostle Paul did, and he exhorts us to do the
same.23
Of course, there is a vast difference between Paul and the Lord
Jesus: Paul is not our High Priest. Paul is not our Intercessor.
Paul does not have supernatural knowledge concerning the
identity of the elect. Of course Paul prays in a way different
than the incarnate Lord! The fact remains that when praying as
our High Priest specifically about the salvation of the elect
Christ excludes those who are not His. CBF has failed to
provide a reason to reject the Reformed understanding of this
passage. So why does CBF miss the important elements of
passages such as this? The concluding comment on John 17:9
reveals the reason: “The important thing is that Jesus wanted
everyone to be His children (Matthew 23:37; 1 Tim. 2:4-6; 2
Peter 3:9).”
John 1:29
The next day he saw Jesus coming to him and said,
“Behold, the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of
the world!” (John 1:29)
CBF presents this passage as a proof-text for universal
atonement by saying:
In light of the context and other uses of the word
“world” in John’s gospel, it is evident that the word
“world” here does not mean “the church” or “the
elect” but all fallen human beings.32
To which we reply that if the Lamb of God takes away the sin
of every single individual then that sin is gone and can no
longer be held against anyone. Obviously, given the teaching
of the Bible regarding how Christ takes away sin (by bearing it
in His body on the tree) we cannot help but point to the fact
that John uses the term “world” in many different ways. It
cannot be assumed that “world” means the same thing in every
context. In John “world” is used of those for whom Christ
does not pray (John 17:9), so obviously its meaning here
cannot simply be assumed. We will address this usage of
“world” as it is found in the more famous passage relevant to
this issue, 1 John 2:2.
I John 2:2
The final passage33 we will examine is the most often cited
by proponents of a universal, non-specific atonement.
My little children, I am writing these things to you so
that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an
Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous;
and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not
for ours only, but also for those of the whole world. (1
John 2:1-2)
The understanding presented by the Arminian is as follows:
Christ is the propitiation for the sins of all Christians, and not
for Christians only, but also for every single person in all
places and at all times. The Reformed understanding is that
Jesus Christ is the propitiation for the sins of all the Christians
to which John was writing, and not only them, but for all
Christians throughout the world, Jew and Gentile, at all times
and in all places.
If there was not so much emotional energy involved in the
debate the means of determining which interpretation is the
proper one would be agreed to by all: the meaning of
“propitiation” would be examined. The meaning of
“Advocate” would be deduced. And then John’s writings
would be studied to see how he uses the phrase “the whole
world” and what other phrases/descriptions could be paralleled
with it. For example, such a study would find the following
passage, also from the pen of John, relevant:
And they sang a new song, saying, “Worthy are You to
take the book and to break its seals; for You were
slain, and purchased for God with Your blood men
from every tribe and tongue and people and nation.
You have made them to be a kingdom and priests to
our God; and they will reign upon the earth.”
(Revelation 5:9-10)
Such a passage is relevant for it 1) speaks of Christ’s death and
His blood; 2) speaks of Christ’s “purchasing” men for God; 3)
presents a specific description of the extent of this work of
redemption, that being “men from every tribe and tongue and
people and nation.” We suggest that this passage, then, sheds
significant light upon 1 John 2:2, for it is obvious that the
passage in Revelation is not saying that Christ purchased every
man from every tribe, tongue, people and nation. Yet,
obviously, this is a parallel concept to “the world” in 1 John
2:2. Similarly we can find yet another passage in John’s
writings that provides parallel information:
But one of them, Caiaphas, who was high priest that
year, said to them, “You know nothing at all, nor do
you take into account that it is expedient for you that
one man die for the people, and that the whole nation
not perish.” Now he did not say this on his own
initiative, but being high priest that year, he
prophesied that Jesus was going to die for the nation,
and not for the nation only, but in order that He might
also gather together into one the children of God who
are scattered abroad. (John 11:49-52)
Again we note the exegetical relevance: 1) the death of Christ
is in the context; 2) the object of the death of Christ is
discussed and identified; 3) a generic term “people” is more
closely identified as “the children of God who are scattered
abroad.” Clearly the point of the passage is that Christ dies
with a specific purpose in mind, so that He might gather
together into one the children of God who are scattered
abroad. Nothing is said about making them “savable.” His
death enables Him to gather them together in one (fulfilling
John 6:38-39). And we likewise see the direct relevance to 1
John 2:2 and the meaning of “the whole world.”
How does CBF rebut the Reformed position? Let’s examine
the attempt:
The groundless claim of extreme Calvinists is that
“world” here refers to “Christian world” namely, to
the elect. The later St. Augustine said John here
“means ‘of the world,’ all the faithful scattered
throughout the whole earth.” This is such an obvious
case of eisegesis (reading into the text) that it does not
deserve an extensive treatment.34
The fact that Dr. Geisler either is unaware of the comments we
just provided (which are found in any number of Reformed
works on the subject) or chooses to ignore them does not make
the claim, drawn from honest and contextual exegesis of the
text, “groundless.” And given the large number of examples of
eisegesis we have identified thus far in CBF, we believe this
accusation is more than premature and unfair. He continues:
One needs only to make a study of the generic use of
the word “world” (cosmos) in John’s writings to
confirm that he speaks here of the fallen, sinful world
(cf. John 1:10-11; 3:19).
We are not told why these passages are exegetically relevant
outside of the appearance of the word “world.” Why should
we accept the claim that, for example, John 3:19 is somehow
relevant to the meaning of the word “world” at 1 John 2:2?
Indeed, that passage says light has come “into the world.”
Does that mean “every single individual living on planet
earth” or “this worldly system”? We are given no substantial
arguments upon which to decide.
In fact, John defines his use of the term “world” only
a few verses later. In the same chapter, he claims
Christ’s death is a satisfaction for the “whole world.”
He says, “Do not love the world or anything in the
world. If anyone loves the world, the love of the
Father is not in him. For everything in the world—the
cravings of sinful man, the lusts of his eyes and the
boasting of what he has and does—comes not from
the Father but from the world” (2:15-16). This is
clearly a description of the fallen, sinful world that
includes the non-elect—for whom Christ died (v. 2).35
We must respectfully point out that this is a tremendous
example of misinterpretation of a passage. Nowhere in 1 John
chapter 2 do we have John teaching that “Christ’s death is a
satisfaction for the whole world.” The passage cited tells us
not to love the world! Does Dr. Geisler not see the result of his
assertion? If this use of “world” is to be taken in the extensive,
universal sense of every single individual, this passage now
tells us not to love all men! Is this what he seriously wishes to
suggest? We would hope not. When the passage says that these
evil impulses come not from the Father but from the world, the
antithesis points to the world as the present evil system not the
universal population of mankind. We here have a classic
example of what Dr. Geisler accuses the Reformed of:
eisegesis, reading into the passage a meaning that it could
never have borne when first written.
Ephesians 2:8-9
Despite the richness of the testimony of Scripture seen
above, many focus almost solely upon the citation of
Ephesians 2:8-9 when it comes to the debate between
Arminians and Calvinists. And while the teaching of this verse
is important, it is surely not the main basis upon which the
truth of the divine nature of saving faith is to be based. The
blessed words are well known:
For by grace you have been saved through faith; and
that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; not as a
result of works, so that no one may boast. For we are
His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good
works, which God prepared beforehand so that we
would walk in them. (Ephesians 2:8-10)
This passage cuts the ground out from underneath every and
all systems of works-salvation, any teaching that tells us that
our performances, our works, our efforts, are necessary to
bring salvation. And it is an empty cavil to say that Paul
speaks here only of the bare provision of the possibility of
salvation. He says his readers have been saved by grace
through faith, not “made savable.” They have already entered
into the state of salvation and continue therein. The means of
their salvation is said to be grace, free grace. They have been
saved through faith.
To this point all is agreed, at least on basic issues. The
debate begins with the next phrase, “and that not of
yourselves, it is the gift of God.” The basic issue is, “to what
does the word ‘that’ refer?” The Greek term is το το, the
neuter singular demonstrative pronoun. The basic rule of
thumb is to look for a singular neuter noun in the immediate
context as the antecedent of the pronoun. Yet, there are no
neuter singular nouns in the first phrase of Ephesians 2:8.
“Grace” is feminine singular; “have been saved” is a
masculine participle; “faith” is feminine singular. So to what
does το το refer?
The simple answer is: the entirety of the phrase “for by
grace you have been saved by faith.” It is good Greek
grammar to use a neuter pronoun to “wrap up” a phrase or a
series of thoughts into a single whole. Paul’s point is that the
entirety of the work of salvation does not find its basis in men
but in God: true salvation is the gift of God, not the work of
man. All of it is free, all of it is divine, not human.
So what of the claim that Ephesians 2:8 teaches that faith is
a gift of God? It is common for Arminians to triumphantly
point out that since “faith” is feminine and “that” is neuter, it
cannot be that faith is a gift. But this is only partially true. The
Arminian would have to admit that the grace mentioned in 2:8
is a gift: yet, it is feminine singular as well, which, if we
follow their reasoning, would mean that grace is not a gift
anymore than faith is. Such argumentation is too shallow to
allow a meaningful conclusion to be drawn.
There is no reason, contextual or grammatical, to accept the
fact that two of the three substantival2 elements (grace and
salvation) are a “gift,” while the third, faith, is a strictly human
contribution. Paul’s entire theology, including the fact that he
specifically refers to faith as something that is “granted” to us
(Philippians 1:29), would indicate that all three elements
together constitute a singular gift of God, for surely grace is
His to freely give; salvation is His to freely give, and likewise,
saving faith is the gift of God given to His elect.
A Sobering Thought
Half a century ago, J.I. Packer and O.R. Johnston wrote a
tremendous introduction to Martin Luther’s Bondage of the
Will. These words are even more vital today than they were
when they were penned:
These things need to be pondered by Protestants
today. With what right may we call ourselves children
of the Reformation? Much modern Protestantism
would be neither owned nor even recognized by the
pioneer Reformers. The Bondage of the Will fairly sets
before us what they believed about the salvation of
lost mankind. In the light of it, we are forced to ask
whether Protestant Christendom has not tragically sold
its birthright between Luther’s day and our own. Has
not Protestantism today become more Erasmian than
Lutheran?…Have we not grown used to an Erasmian
brand of teaching from our pulpits—a message that
rests on the same shallow synergistic conceptions
which Luther refuted, picturing God and man
approaching each other almost on equal terms, each
having his own contribution to make to man’s
salvation and each depending on the dutiful co-
operation of the other for the attainment of that end?—
as if God exists for man’s convenience, rather than
man for God’s glory? Is it not true, conversely, that it
is rare to-day to hear proclaimed the diagnosis of our
predicament which Luther—and Scripture—put
forward: that man is hopeless and helpless in sin, fast
bound in Satan’s slavery, at enmity with God, blind
and dead to the things of the Spirit? And hence, how
rarely do we hear faith spoken of as Scripture depicts
it—as it is expressed in the cry of self-committal with
which the contrite heart, humbled to see its need and
made conscious of its own utter helplessness even to
trust, casts itself in the God-given confidence of self-
despair upon the mercy of Christ Jesus—‘Lord, I
believe; help Thou my unbelief!’ Can we deny the
essential rightness of Luther’s exegesis of the texts?
And if not, dare we ignore the implication of his
exposition?3
And so we must now provide a biblically-based response to
the strong, at times strident denial of the sovereign work of
God in the regeneration of His elect found in CBF. This
doctrine is especially pernicious in the view of Dr. Geisler, as
is the idea that saving faith is a gift of God. But what do the
Scriptures say? Let’s see.
Notes
1 C.H. Spurgeon, “Salvation as it is Now Received”
Preached June 23, 1872, The C.H. Spurgeon Collection
(Ages Digital Library, 1998), 700.
2 Taking the participle σεσῴσµένοι in the sense of a
substantive referring to salvation as a whole.
3 Martin Luther, The Bondage of the Will, translated by J.I.
Packer & O.R. Johnston, (Fleming H. Revel, 1957), pp.
59-60.
Chapter 13
Irresistible Grace
Redefinition of Terms
Despite CBF’s strong dislike of irresistible grace, the work
attempts to redefine the phrase so that the “moderate
Calvinist” moniker can be maintained. To do this it is said that
“Thus, grace is only irresistible to the willing, not to the
unwilling.”15 Of course, if someone is “willing” the term
“irresistible” no longer has meaning. Why even combine these
terms in a meaningless fashion such as this? The Reformed
say this grace is irresistible because man is dead in sin and
God is the sovereign Creator: the Arminian says man is alive
and able to put up a fight and God’s grace cannot change him
without his assistance. How is this conflict of beliefs aided by
redefining the term irresistible and stripping it of all
theological meaning? Geisler is saying God’s grace is
dependent upon free will just as the Arminian is. Why not just
admit this and move on? Instead, this meaningless statement
becomes an interpretive device used to overthrow any biblical
evidence to the contrary. For example, even when faced with
the overwhelming statement of Romans 9:21, “Or does not the
potter have a right over the clay, to make from the same lump
one vessel for honorable use and another for common use?” he
writes,
Irresistible grace operates the way falling in love
does. If one willingly responds to the love of another,
eventually they reach a point where that love is
overwhelming. But that is the way they willed it to be.
Even if Paul agreed with the objector that God’s work
is irresistible, it would not support the hard line of
extreme Calvinism, since God uses irresistible saving
grace only on the willing, not the unwilling.
We have seen no substantiation of this theological maxim
outside of mere assertion, yet, it enters into the very
interpretation of the passage and becomes the determining
factor in how it is to be understood! He goes on,
Finally, even if one could show that God is working
here (1) irresistibly, (2) on individuals, (3) for eternal
salvation—all of which are doubtful—it would not
follow necessarily that He works irresistibly on the
unwilling. Indeed, as we have seen, God does not
force free creatures to love Him. Forced love is both
morally and logically absurd.16
In reality our exegesis of Romans 9 showed that Paul is
speaking of God’s utter freedom to sovereignly choose
individuals for eternal salvation, all to his glory. None of this
is doubtful (CBF surely gave us no substantial counter-
exegesis). But despite working with a text that shouts the
freedom of God and the creatureliness of man, the
commentary concludes with yet another assertion of the
existence of “free creatures” and their abilities.
Is Faith a Gift?
It is an intramural debate among those opposed to
extreme Calvinism whether faith is a gift or not. The
Bible is seriously lacking in any verses demonstrating
that faith is a gift. But if it is a gift, then it is one
offered to all and can be freely accepted or rejected.19
Along with his attack upon irresistible grace comes not only
an in-text denial of the gift of divine faith, but an entire
appendix as well. We are told that the Bible is “seriously
lacking” in “any” verses demonstrating that faith is a gift. Yet,
it takes an entire appendix to respond to at least some of them,
and a number we have already presented are completely
ignored by CBF.
Ephesians 2:8-9
Regarding faith being a gift at Ephesians 2:8-9, CBF notes,
Zealous defender of extreme Calvinism R.C. Sproul
is so confident that this is what the text means that he
triumphantly concludes: “This passage should seal the
matter forever. The faith by which we are saved is a
gift of God. But even John Calvin said of this text that
“he does not mean that faith is the gift of God, but that
salvation is given to us by God, or, that we obtain it by
the gift of God.”21
Did John Calvin agree with Norman Geisler’s assertions here?
The short citation provided might give that idea, but it would
be a mistake to think so. Here is the full context, by which a
person can judge for themselves how Calvin interpreted the
passage:
Ought we not then to be silent about free-will, and
good intentions, and fancied preparations, and merits,
and satisfactions? There is none of these which does
not claim a share of praise in the salvation of men; so
that the praise of grace would not, as Paul shews,
remain undiminished. When, on the part of man, the
act of receiving salvation is made to consist in faith
alone, all other means, on which men are accustomed
to rely, are discarded. Faith, then, brings a man empty
to God, that he may be filled with the blessings of
Christ. And so he adds, not of yourselves; that
claiming nothing for themselves, they may
acknowledge God alone as the author of their
salvation.… This passage affords an easy refutation of
the idle cavil by which Papists attempt to evade the
argument, that we are justified without works. Paul,
they tell us, is speaking about ceremonies. But the
present question is not confined to one class of works.
Nothing can be more clear than this. The whole
righteousness of man, which consists in works, — nay,
the whole man, and everything that he can call his
own, is set aside. We must attend to the contrast
between God and Man, between grace and works.
Why should God be contrasted with man, if the
controversy related to nothing more than ceremonies?
Papists themselves are compelled to own that Paul
ascribes to the grace of God the whole glory of our
salvation, but endeavor to do away with this admission
by another contrivance. This mode of expression, they
tell us, is employed, because God bestows the first
grace. It is really foolish to imagine that they can
succeed in this way, since Paul excludes man and his
utmost ability,—not only from the commencement,
but throughout,—from the whole work of obtaining
salvation.
But it is still more absurd to overlook the apostle’s
inference, lest any man should boast. Some room must
always remain for man’s boasting, so long as,
independently of grace, merits are of any avail. Paul’s
doctrine is overthrown, unless the whole praise is
rendered to God alone and to his mercy. And here we
must advert to a very common error in the
interpretation of this passage. Many persons restrict
the word gift to faith alone. But Paul is only repeating
in other words the former sentiment. His meaning is,
not that faith is the gift of God, but that salvation is
given to us by God, or, that we obtain it by the gift of
God.22
As the reader can see, if just the preceding two sentences had
been quoted, the real meaning would be seen. Specifically,
Calvin is refuting those who say that the term “gift” is to be
restricted to faith alone. This is not the Reformed view, as was
seen in the previous chapter. To cite Calvin as if he would
agree with the denial that faith is a gift in this passage is to
completely misrepresent these words of the Genevan
Reformer. Instead, make special note of two of the phrases
provided by Calvin in response to Rome’s claims: “nay, the
whole man, and everything that he can call his own, is set
aside. We must attend to the contrast between God and Man,
between grace and works;” and “since Paul excludes man and
his utmost ability, — not only from the commencement, but
throughout, — from the whole work of obtaining salvation.”
We suggest that the person who honestly wishes to know
where Calvin would stand on the debate today would find
these to be the key affirmations, for if Geisler’s position is
correct, and “anyone can believe,” then Calvin’s entire
position is overthrown. Would not such a faith be something
the man could “call his own”? Calvin says it is set aside.
Would this not be part of man’s “utmost ability” especially at
the very “commencement” of salvation”? Paul excludes it
from the whole work of obtaining salvation, Calvin teaches.
There is, in fact, very little in “moderate Calvinism” that
Calvin would ever call his own.23
Philippians 1:29
We presented this passage in the previous chapter as clear
evidence of the nature of faith as a gift from God. CBF
attempts to argue otherwise:
There are several indications here that Paul had no
such thing in mind. First, the point is simply that God
has not only provided us with the opportunity to trust
Him but also to suffer for Him. The word “granted”
(Greek: echaristhe) means “grace” or “favor.” That is,
both the opportunity to suffer for Him and to believe
on Him are favors with which God has graced us.24
We must again object to the retranslation of the passage
without the slightest foundation being provided. How does
“granted to you to believe in Him” become “granted to you the
opportunity to believe in Him”? And are we really to believe
that Paul was teaching the Philippians that God had granted
them the opportunity to suffer? Such is pure eisegesis. “To
believe” and “to suffer” are perfectly parallel in the passage: if
the one is a matter of a mere opportunity to believe based upon
our own free will actions, does it not follow that the suffering
is likewise to be viewed as something we can choose, or not
choose, to endure? No, the “simple meaning” of the passage is
that God has granted faith to his elect people and that those
people well know the path to glory: it is the path of suffering,
trod by their Savior.
Further, Paul is not speaking here of initial faith that
brings salvation but of the daily faith and daily
suffering of someone who is already Christian.
We are not told how Dr. Geisler proves this from the text, but
again, if this is so, it means that unregenerate men can exercise
saving faith that brings forgiveness of sins without receiving
this faith as a gift from God, but, the regenerate man for some
reason is not as capable of producing daily faith! Are we to
believe that the faith that accepts the promises of Christ unto
salvation is somehow “easier” than the faith the Christian
needs for every day living? Surely not!
Finally, it is noteworthy that both the suffering and
the believing are presented as things that we are to do.
He says it is granted for “you” to do this. It was not
something God did for them. Both were simply an
opportunity God gave them to use “on the behalf of
Christ” by their free choice.
Here in three sentences we have both straw-man
argumentation and eisegesis. First, the Reformed does not
argue that we do not exercise faith. Instead, it is argued that we
are not capable of exercising saving faith until enabled by God
(John 6:65). That ability is a gift from God given to His elect
as part of the work of regeneration. So, to say “It was not
something God did for them” is to completely misrepresent the
debate. Finally, while the text says God granted them “to
believe” and “to suffer,” CBF must change this to “the
opportunity to exercise your free will in faith” and “to choose
to suffer.”
1 Corinthians 12:8-9
For to one is given the word of wisdom through the
Spirit, and to another the word of knowledge
according to the same Spirit; to another faith by the
same Spirit, and to another gifts of healing by the one
Spirit, (1 Corinthians 12:8-9)
This passage plainly says that faith is a gift given by the Spirit.
How does CBF respond?
To be sure, faith is referred to here as a gift from
God. However, Paul is not talking about faith given to
unbelievers by which they can be saved. Rather, it is
speaking of a special gift of faith given to some
believers by which they can serve. One can plainly see
the difference by looking at the context.25
We have only one question to ask in response: if the
unregenerate, spiritually dead, slave-to-sin natural man outside
of Christ is capable of saving faith, why would a regenerate,
born again, freed-from-sin spiritual man in Christ need a gift of
faith?
Acts 5:31
He is the one whom God exalted to His right hand as a
Prince and a Savior, to grant repentance to Israel, and
forgiveness of sins. (Acts 5:31)
This passage is cited as evidence that God “grants” repentance
on the basis of the work of Christ. CBF responds:
If this is so, then all Israel must have been saved,
since both were given “to Israel.”26
This is obviously untrue. The point of the passage is not the
definition or extent of the term “Israel,” but the fact that
repentance and forgiveness are both gifts (over against the
Arminian contention that repentance is something
unregenerate man is able to do on his own). What is not
addressed is the obvious question: why would Christ have to
grant what is, in the Arminian view, an inherent ability that all
men already have? The response continues:
This clearly does not mean that all Gentiles will be
saved but that all have the opportunity to be saved.
Likewise, it means that all have the God-given
opportunity to repent (cf. 2 Peter 3:9)
Second, the opportunity to repent is a gift of God. He
graciously allows us the opportunity to turn from our
sins, but we must do the repenting. God is not going to
repent for us. Repentance is an act of our will
supported and encouraged by His grace.
Where did the term “opportunity” come from in the text of
Acts 5:31? It does not appear. So upon what exegetical basis
are we to determine that “grant repentance” actually means
“grant opportunities for repentance”? What is granted in the
text? Repentance itself. Since Dr. Geisler chides Reformed
writers for allegedly changing Scripture when they paraphrase
something, why does he here provide a paraphrase that
actually changes the meaning of the text?
Next, if Jesus merely grants the opportunity to repent, may
we ask why He does not grant this to every single individual?
Indeed, it cannot be said that every single Jew who has ever
lived has heard the gospel, hence, even if we take the passage
in this a-contextual manner, it leaves us with a contradiction,
for it then pictures the exalted Christ granting “opportunities”
of repentance to only some.
Next, no one is arguing that God repents for us. This is
straw-man argumentation. The question is, can the
unregenerate man who is still in the flesh repent so as to please
God? Paul said no (Romans 8:7-8). So does this passage not
refer to the ability to repent as “repentance”? Surely it does.
So, Acts 5:31 teaches us that since Christ is now exalted He,
graciously, grants repentance and forgiveness of sins. Both are
divine gifts for which we must be eternally grateful. Geisler
concludes,
Further, if repentance is a gift, then it is a gift in the
same sense that forgiveness is a gift. But forgiveness
was obtained by Jesus on the Cross for “everyone who
believes” (Acts 13:38-39), not just for the elect.
Hence, by the same logic, all men must have been
given saving faith—a conclusion emphatically
rejected by extreme Calvinists.
We have seen how the biblical doctrines of God’s sovereignty,
man’s deadness in sin, God’s unconditional election, etc., all
stand together. We can likewise see how the strong
commitment to the free will of man on the part of CBF
determines every interpretation of every verse that is raised
against the idea. We have seen in the words of Jesus that all
who are given to Him by the Father will come to Him in faith
(John 6:37). Hence, “everyone who believes” is a phrase that
must consistently be seen as coextensive with the elect. But
none of this is even slightly relevant to what would have to be
shown to deflect this passage: that repentance (not the mere
opportunity) is not a gift given by the exalted Christ.
Acts 16:14
What of the Lord’s opening of Lydia’s heart to respond to
the things spoken by the Apostles in Acts 16:14?
Moderate Calvinists do not deny that God moves
upon the hearts of unbelievers to persuade and prompt
them to exercise faith in Christ. They only deny that
God does this coercively by irresistible grace and that
He only does it on some persons (the elect). The Holy
Spirit is convicting “the world [all men, not just some;
cf. John 3:16-18; 1 John 2:15-17] of sin, righteousness
and judgment” (John 16:8). And God does not force
anyone to believe in Him (Matt. 23:37).27
First, where does the text speak of “moving upon the hearts of
unbelievers to persuade and prompt them to exercise faith in
Christ”? The text says the Lord opened the heart of Lydia “to
respond to” the gospel message. There is nothing about
persuading or prompting here (i.e., no exegetical response is
offered). Secondly, if this opening of the heart was not done on
specific persons (Lydia), why, then, were not all who heard
converted? Was Lydia “better” or more “spiritual” than the
others? Why did the Holy Spirit succeed in persuading her, but
not everyone else? Next, upon what basis does Dr. Geisler
confuse conviction of the entire world with regeneration of the
elect? Are the two the same thing? Surely not. It is the
Reformed contention that the Holy Spirit regenerates the elect
at the very time the Father has decreed. That surely involves
conviction of sin, but it is not limited to it. Finally, we have
seen the misuse of Matthew 23:37 with tremendous frequency
in CBF, so we only note again that since CBF assumes one
particular interpretation of this passage but does not prove that
interpretation nor defend it against the objections we have
raised, the entirety of the work suffers greatly.
2 Peter 1:1
We cited 2 Peter 1:1 in presenting our belief in the divine
nature of saving faith. Dr. Geisler says of this passage,
Peter claims only that they have “received” or
“obtained” (NKJV) their faith, but does not inform us
as to exactly how they got it. Using such a vague,
undefined statement as this to support their belief only
demonstrates how desperate the extreme Calvinists are
to find support of this unscriptural dogma.28
The only “desperation” here is on the part of someone
attempting to find some substance in CBF’s attempts at
exegesis. The text describes the faith these Christians have as
something they “received” or “were given.” The Greek term is
defined by one lexical source as “what comes to one, always
apart from one’s own efforts”29 and by another as “to receive,
with the implication that the process is related somehow to
divine will or favor.”30 So the text makes explicit reference to
a faith given by divine favor to all Christians. If this is not
relevant to the topic at hand, what possibly could be? Claiming
Calvinists are “desperate” while 1) ignoring such passages as 1
John 5:1 and 2) providing non-substantive responses to
passages such as this, is hardly helpful.
In Conclusion
Finally, on page 189 we find a major title which reads,
“Saving Faith is Something All Can Exercise.” This is
followed by:
Nowhere does the Bible teach that saving faith is a
special gift of God only to a select few. Further,
everywhere the Bible assumes that anyone who wills
to be saved can exercise saving faith. Every passage
where the Scriptures call upon unbelievers to believe
or repent to be saved implies this truth.
This truly does summarize the main problem with CBF: we
have now seen that the attempted response to the biblical
teaching that saving faith is a gift of God given to his elect
involves 1) skipping over certain passages such as 1 John 5:1
and Hebrews 12:2, and 2) providing non-substantive responses
to passages such as 2 Peter 1:1 and Philippians 1:29. So we are
left with unfounded “implications” rather than direct biblical
teaching. And these implications all come from the same
source: the over-riding belief in creaturely freedom, a freedom
that, sadly, is more important than the confession of the
Potter’s freedom to do with His creation as He sees fit, all to
His glory and honor.
Notes
1 Specifically the phrase used was, “God is not a divine
rapist” in reference to a denial of “irresistible force.”
David Basinger & Randall Basinger, Predestination &
Free Will (InterVarsity Press, 1985), p. 69.
2 Chosen But Free, p. 47.
3 We simply point out that many Augustine scholars do not
make the connection, and such great Protestant scholars as
B.B. Warfield viewed the Reformation as simply the
victory of Augustine’s doctrine of grace over Augustine’s
doctrine of the church, leading one to recognize that the
Donatist controversy informed Augustine’s view of
ecclesiology while the Pelagian controversy informed his
view of grace.
4 Chosen But Free, p. 48.
5 Ibid., p. 66.
6 Ibid., p. 49.
7 Ibid.
8 Ibid., p. 85.
9 Ibid., p. 86.
10 Ibid., p. 49.
11 Predestination & Free Will, David Basinger & Randall
Basinger, ed., (InterVarsity Press, 1985), pp. 69-70.
12 C. Samuel Storms, Chosen for Life: An Introductory Guide
to the Doctrine of Divine Election (Baker Book House,
1987), p. 126.
13 Ibid., p. 128.
14 Ibid., p. 130.
15 Chosen But Free, p. 89.
16 Ibid., p. 90.
17 Ibid., pp. 96-97
18 Ibid., p. 97.
19 Ibid., p. 35.
20 Ibid., p. 60.
21 Ibid., p. 182.
22 John Calvin, Commentary on the Epistle to the Ephesians,
in The Comprehensive John Calvin Collection (Ages
Digital Library, 1998).
23 Besides this, Calvin elsewhere teaches the very thing CBF
denies. When refuting the teachings of the Council of Trent
on justification Calvin, as the other Reformers, emphasized
the foundational difference between Rome and the Bible by
pointing to this very truth: that faith is a gift of God. He
wrote, “What they say of faith might perhaps hold true,
were faith itself, which puts us in possession of
righteousness, our own. But seeing that it too is the free
gift of God, the exception which they introduce is
superfluous.” John Calvin, Acts of the Council of Trent
With the Antidote, in The Comprehensive John Calvin
Collection.
24 Chosen But Free, p. 183.
25 Ibid., p. 185.
26 Ibid., p. 185.
27 Ibid., p. 186.
28 Chosen But Free, pp. 187-188.
29 Analytical Lexicon to the Greek New Testament, 1994,
Timothy and Barbara Friberg, found in BibleWorks 4.0,
Hermeneutika Software, 1998.
30 Louw-Nida Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament
Based on Semantic Domains, 2nd Edition, Edited by J. P.
Louw and E. A. Nida, (United Bible Societes,1988), found
in BibleWorks 4.0, Hermeneutika Software, 1998.
Chapter 14
What Now?
Chosen But Free presents what it calls a “balanced view” of
divine election. We have seen that it does nothing of the sort. It
presents Arminianism under the guise of “moderate
Calvinism.” The majority of its argumentation is aimed
directly at simple Reformed theology, and its arguments
against Arminianism are actually arguments against process
theology and open theism. It can’t argue against Arminianism
since that is its core profession.
We have proven in this work that the redefinition of terms
inherent in CBF’s presentation must be rejected. The attempt
to turn Arminianism into Calvinism involves using words in a
manner that is utterly self-contradictory, such as speaking of
men who are not “so dead” that they cannot respond, or of
believing in “irresistible grace on the willing.” Further, we
have seen the arbitrary nature of the assertion that Calvin did
not believe in limited atonement, and hence all true Calvinists
are “extreme Calvinists.” The entire framework of the book
has been removed by simple factual investigation and
argumentation.
But the single most important issue that we wish to
communicate to the reader is this: CBF’s attempts to defend
Arminianism through the use of Scripture fail, consistently. On
an exegetical basis CBF does not pass the most cursory
examination, let alone an in-depth critique. The reader has
seen examples of eisegesis in every single chapter of CBF.
Surely the strength of Reformed theology is its biblical basis,
and the weakness of Arminian theology is its philosophical
basis. The Reformed position begins with Scriptural truths.
The Arminian position begins with philosophical necessities,
and we have seen, over and over again, the result of forcing
philosophical presuppositions into the text of Scripture. When
one can turn Romans 9:16 and John 6:44 into affirmations of
“free will,” obviously the text itself is not driving the
interpretation.
A person who believes in sola scriptura (Scripture alone is
the final and only infallible rule of faith for the Church) and in
tota Scriptura (one must believe all of Scripture, not just parts)
must wrestle with the issues raised in this book. A person who
cannot provide a contextually-based, fair and honest
interpretation of such passages as John 6:37-45, Romans 8:28-
9:23, or Ephesians 1:3-11, must face this fact and be willing to
abandon long-held and maybe even cherished traditions. We
firmly believe that only the Spirit of God can give to a person
the heart-felt desire to be in subjection to all the Word teaches.
The Potter’s freedom is precious to the Christian, for it is
the very basis of salvation itself. Our sovereign Creator is free
to be the good, holy, merciful, loving God that He is. It is our
prayer that the reader of this book will know this truth not just
in the mind, but most importantly, in the heart.
Notes
1 Chosen But Free, p. 131.
2 Ibid.
3 Ibid., p. 133.
4 Ibid., p. 133.
5 Ibid., p. 134.
6 Ibid., p. 135.
7 Ibid.
Scripture Index
Genesis
Genesis 6:5 79
Genesis 8:21 79
Genesis 50:19-21 48
Exodus
Exodus 221
10:1,20,27
Deuteronomy
Deuteronomy 221
1:38
Deuteronomy 221
3:28
Deuteronomy 4:2 22
Joshua
Judges
Psalms
Psalm 33:8-11 42
Psalm 51:5 80
Psalm 58:3 80
Proverbs
Proverbs 21:1 43
Proverbs 30:6 22
Isaiah
Isaiah 10:12-17 47
Isaiah 10:5-7 46
Isaiah 14:27 42
Isaiah 29:16 44
Isaiah 41:21-23 42
Isaiah 45:1 63
Isaiah 45:9 44
Isaiah 46:9-10 42
Isaiah 64:8 45
Jeremiah
Jeremiah 13:23 80
Jeremiah 17:9 80
Jeremiah 18 225
Jeremiah 18:4-6 43
Ezekiel
Ezekiel 11:19 70
Daniel
Daniel 2 15, 63
Daniel 4:34-35 43
Daniel 4:35 68
Amos
Jonah
Jonah 2:9 50
Malachi
Malachi 1:2-3 215, 216
Matthew
Matthew 23 137
Matthew 23:37 25, 97, 98, 135, 136, 144, 145, 150, 169, 191, 264, 265, 323, 324
Mark
Mark 8:31 48
Luke
Luke 9:22 48
John
John 2 166
John 2:2 194
John 3 182
John 3:18 28
John 6:43-44 85
John 6:44 27, 73, 97, 157, 160, 161, 162, 163, 164, 166, 168, 240, 337
John 11 107
John 11:43 69
Acts 2:23 54
Acts 4:27-30 49
Acts 4:28 58
Romans
Romans 1:21-25 81
Romans 3:11 64
Romans 8 162
Romans 8:5-9 96
Romans 8:6-8 84
Romans 9:16 129, 166, 171, 186, 209, 210, 215, 219, 222, 225, 337
Romans 10:13 27
1 Corinthians
1 Corinthians 164
1:22-24
1 Corinthians 320
12:8-9
2 Corinthians
2 Corinthians 86
2:16
Galatians
Ephesians
Ephesians 1:4 63, 129, 131, 171, 172, 176, 177, 180, 222, 267, 269
Ephesians 2:1-2 83
Ephesians 2:3 81
Philippians
Colossians
1 Thessalonians
1 Thessalonians 110
5:23
2 Thessalonians
2 Thessalonians 291
1:3
2 Thessalonians 55
1:7-9
1 Timothy
1 Timothy 2:4 135, 136, 137, 139, 143, 148, 150, 169, 257, 259
2 Timothy
Titus
Hebrews
James
1 Peter
2 Peter
2 Peter 3:9 25, 135, 136, 137, 143, 144, 145, 146, 147, 148, 150, 169, 191, 222,
257, 265, 321
1 John
1 John 2:2 148, 193, 257, 261, 262, 271, 274, 275, 276
Revelation
Revelation 20:11- 55
15
Revelation 22:18- 22
19
Dr. Geisler’s Class Project Reviewed and
Refuted
This work has been blessed of God over the past eight years. It
has challenged, and enlightened, many who struggled to work
through the issues surrounding God’s kingly freedom and
man’s responsibility in the gospel of Jesus Christ. The initial
range of discussion was fixed by the claims and arguments of
Norman Geisler’s Chosen But Free, but that work opened the
door to a full presentation of the doctrines of God’s sovereign
grace. It was the biblical nature of those doctrines that has
been used to bring many to an understanding, appreciation,
and love, of these truths.
Two texts that were not discussed in the first edition of this
book will be examined, albeit briefly, in this addition to the
original text of The Potter’s Freedom. The first was noted on
page 282, where I referred the reader to lengthy, full
discussions of 2 Peter 2:1 in the following words:
2 Peter 2:1ff, discussed on pp. 195-197, is fully
discussed in both John Owen’s The Death of Death in
the Death of Christ and more importantly in Gary
Long’s Definite Atonement (Backus Books, 1977). Dr.
Geisler’s entire discussion of the meaning of ἀγοράζω
and δεσπóτἣ is answered in full by Long’s book,
written twenty-two years prior. This is noteworthy, for
Geisler’s discussion ends with, “In view of this New
Testament usage, the burden of proof rests on the
extreme Calvinists to prove that Peter is using this
term in any other than a redemptive sense here.” Long
provided the evidence in full.
One will note that this endnote provides a criticism of
Geisler, for his comments on the passage showed no
familiarity with these pre-existing works. The reader has two
rather lengthy discussions to pursue in light of this endnote.
But, despite this, Dr. Geisler’s 2nd edition contains the
following wording:
[The Potter’s Freedom] contends that a “mere
presentation” of my view is not sufficient (29), yet it
sometimes does the same for its view and at times
even no presentation at all, such as an explanation of
one of the most difficult verses for extreme Calvinists,
2 Peter 2:1 (251). (CBF 258)
We note in the following appendix that the first claim is
utterly without foundation and out of context. We add in
passing that once again the authors show a deep unfamiliarity
with the text they are pretending to review, for they do not
even note the above cited reference. But in any case, though
the exegesis of the dozens of key texts presented in TPF was
ignored by Geisler’s response, we will gladly address 2 Peter
2:1 as well.
The second text is never mentioned by CBF, so why include
it here? Mainly because this work has come to have a role that
I did not originally foresee: as an introduction to Reformed
theology, it would be useful to address the most common text I
have heard cited to me that was not itself raised by Dr. Geisler,
that being 1 Timothy 4:10.
There is a danger, of course, in addressing texts in this
fashion. In the body of this work I have attempted to address
texts in the broad context of the great themes of atonement, or
sin, or God’s sovereignty. This helps to reinforce the
consistency and harmony of God’s revelation. Addressing
these texts alone is not my preferred way of approaching
exegesis. But hopefully the example of contextual exegesis
provided earlier in the body of this work will provide a
counter-balance to these isolated discussions.
The Savior of All People, But in Particular, of Believers
For it is for this we labor and strive, because we have
fixed our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of
all men, especially of believers. (NASB)
For to this end we toil and strive, because we have our
hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of all
people, especially of those who believe. (ESV)
This particular section of Paul’s epistle to Timothy contains
a number of exhortations, and there is not a single, over-
arching contextual argument being pursued. As such, each
segment of the text has to be carefully examined and we must
take care not to force the text into a foreign context simply
because it is possible to do so. The greatest danger present
when examining texts that are brief and without a specific
discursive context is found in reading a particular context into
the text that fundamentally alters a particular writer’s over-all
message. The Arminian who begins with a universal assertion
of the abilities and capacities of man (over against the teaching
of Paul we have established earlier in reference to man’s
inabilities that flow from his fallen state) can easily find in
such isolated texts a breeding ground for prooftexting.
The first observation to be offered is that unlike the texts we
have examined before, where we have a specific discourse on
a particular subject, this passage mentions the role of God as
Savior “in passing.” No explanation is provided, and the
reader is to understand these words in light of a pre-existing,
shared belief. Further, the topic of the text is not the how and
why of salvation at all. It is not a specifically soteriological
context, but is instead speaking of how Christians are to
behave, to live in this world, and what we are to be striving
for. The statement is a brief comment, made in passing. As
such, sound exegetical practice would require caution in
pressing this text into service as a foundational prooftext for
either side.
Next, we note that the passage is liable to abuse by
universalists who, overthrowing Paul’s plain teaching
elsewhere, would insist that God is the Savior of each and
every individual. These would see the “all men” or “all
people” extensively, i.e., each and every individual, and they
would see “Savior” in its fullest possible application. This
would put this passing statement in direct contradiction to
many other clear statements by Paul, but such is the tactic of
the universalist.
The Arminian, however, introduces an interesting concept
of potentiality in his reading of this text. God is Savior
potentially, becoming Savior in truth upon the act of human
faith. The Arminian joins the universalist in seeing “all
people” extensively, each and every individual, and as a result,
assumes that if God is Savior of each individual, at least in
potentiality, that the atonement of Christ must be potential in
nature as well. Those who reject a substitutionary/penal
viewpoint of the atonement would likewise point to such a
reading, just as the historic Arminians did, who likewise
rejected the Reformed view of substitutionary atonement.
The Reformed interpreter recognizes that here, as in so
many other places, reading “all people” extensively is far more
indicative of modern Western thinking than it is New
Testament thinking. Instead, recognizing the theme in Paul’s
epistles to Timothy that militates against the Jewish
exclusivists (those who would limit God’s blessings to those in
the covenant, those bearing the covenant signs), they would
argue that “all people” points us to Jews and Gentiles, or, to
use more specific biblical language, “men from every tribe,
tongue, people and nation” (Revelation 5:9). Hence the
comment is an assertion of God’s Saviorhood of Jews and
Gentiles, over against the Jewish exclusivists, and is not a
commentary on the extent of the atonement, intention of the
atonement, etc. and etc.
Most of the controversy has centered around the proper
translation of the Greek term malista (μάλιστα), rendered in
most translations as “especially.” George W. Knight III helps
us to understand the issues relating to the translation of the
term and its meaning:
The assumption of the previous clause is now made
explicit: we hope in the living God as the one őς ἐ στιν
σωτὴρ πάντων ἀνθρώπων. Although the phrase σωτὴρ
πάντων ἀνθρώπων occurs only here in the NT, the
concept has been set forth earlier in 1 Timothy in
nearly identical words (2:3, 4; see the notes there,
especially on πάντες ἂνθρωποι). Here, as in 2:1–7, the
phrase πάντες ἂνθρωποι designates “all sorts of
people.” σωτήρ means “Savior” in the soteriological
sense that it has elsewhere in 1 Timothy and the PE
(PE 10x: 1 Tim. 1:1; 2:3; 4:10; Tit. 1:3, 4; 2:10, 13;
3:4, 6; 2 Tim. 1:10). The focus on the promise of
ζωῆς, τῆς νῦν καὶ τ ς μελλούσης, and on a hope set
upon θεῷ ζῶντι, demands that understanding of
σωτήρ here. But to understand σωτὴρ πάντων
ἀνθρώπων in the sense that all people are actually and
surely saved would be contrary to Paul’s teaching
elsewhere since Paul clearly regards some people as
bearing God’s retribution and punishment in the
penalty of eternal destruction (cf., e.g., 2 Thes. 1:7–
10; 1 Thes. 1:10). Thus another understanding has
been suggested in connection with πάντων and that is
that σωτήρ is used in the broadest sense as Preserver
and Giver of life for all people and then, in addition to
that, as Savior in the spiritual sense for believers. This
is certainly possible, and appeal could be made to 6:13
(cf. Acts 14:15–17; 17:24–28). But a better solution
may be had by an alternate understanding of μάλιστα.
The phrase μάλιστα πιστῶν contains the one
qualification that Paul and the NT always posit for
receiving God’s salvation, i.e., “trust” in God as the
only Savior. Absolute πιστῶν, as used here and
elsewhere in the NT, refers to those who believe in
Christ, i.e., Christian believers (BAGD s.v. 2; e.g.,
Acts 16:1; 2 Cor. 6:15; 1 Tim. 5:16; 6:2a, b; cf. τῶν
πιστῶν in 1 Tim. 4:12; thus five of the seven plural
occurrences of πιστός in the PE have the meaning
“believers,” i.e., 1 Tim. 4:3, 10, 12; 6:2 [2x]).
μάλιστα** (NT 12x, Pl. 8x, PE 5x: Acts 20:38; 25:26;
26:3; Gal. 6:10; Phil. 4:22; 1 Tim. 4:10; 5:8, 17; Tit.
1:10; 2 Tim. 4:13; Phm. 16; 2 Pet. 2:10) has usually
been rendered “especially” and regarded as in some
way distinguishing that which follows it from that
which goes before it. Skeat (“Especially the
Parchments”) argues persuasively that μάλιστα in
some cases (2 Tim. 4:13; Tit. 1:10, 11; and here)
should be understood as providing a further definition
or identification of that which precedes it and thus
renders it by such words as “that is.” He cites several
examples from papyrus letters that would seem to
require this sense and that would in their particular
cases rule out the otherwise legitimate alternate sense.
If his proposal is correct here, which seems most
likely, then the phrase μάλιστα πιστῶν should be
rendered “that is, believers.” This understanding is
also in line with Paul’s assertion that all sorts and
conditions of people are in Christ (even at times using
πάντες) and with his insistence in those contexts that
all such are in Christ and have salvation by faith (cf.,
e.g., Gal. 3:26–28).1
In other words, if μάλιστα is functioning in the same fashion
as it does in particular secular documents of the time (as noted
by Skeat, the long time Keeper of Manuscripts at the British
Museum and expert on ancient papyri manuscripts), then it
would be identifying the “all men” for whom God is Savior by
the normative Pauline term “those who believe.” This would
mean that all who believe, Jew or Gentile, find God as Savior,
which fits very well with Paul’s concern about the Judaizers
who would limit God’s salvific grace to those who bear the
covenant signs. This same thought is brought out by William
Mounce in his commentary on the same passage:
(2) Those who hold to the doctrine of particular
(limited) atonement often understand πάντων
ἀνθρώπων, “all people,” as “all kinds” or “all groups,”
interpreting the verse as reflecting the growth of the
church from Judaism to the Gentile world. God’s
salvation includes not only Jews but also Gentiles, i.e.,
all groups of people. (3) Skeat translates μάλιστα as
“to be precise,” “namely,” here and in 2 Tim 4:13 and
Titus 1:10, based on the word’s use in the papyri; the
second phrase is understood as repeating and filling
out the first: “who is the savior of all people, that is,
all who believe” (JTS n.s. 30 [1979] 174–75; followed
by Marshall, “Universal Grace,” 55). (4) Calvin and
others hold that Paul is speaking not of salvation but
of common grace, God’s care for all people (cf. Ps
145:9; Matt 5:45; Acts 14:16–17). In a discussion of
these four interpretations, Baugh shows from
inscriptional evidence from Ephesus that the dead
emperors were viewed as gods and saviors because
they cared for Ephesus and Asia Minor (see excursus
on 1 Tim 1:1): “Taken in this light, 1 Tim 4:10 is
revealed to be a polemical aside aimed at the false
veneration of men who were no longer living, yet who
were publically honored as gods and saviors upon the
Ephesian inscriptions” (WTJ 54 [1992] 338; cf. also
Spicq, 1:368, 510; Grudem, Systematic Theology, 662,
who defines σωτήρ as “one who preserves people’s
lives and rescues them from danger” [599 n. 38]). (5)
There is no fifth option of universalism; the
soteriology of the PE is fully Pauline (see Comment on
1 Tim 2:3–5).2
That this is not merely the attempt of “Calvinists” to “get
around” the “plain meaning” of the text is seen by the adoption
of the same understanding by Marshall and Towner, neither of
whom could be identified as Reformed:
Adoption of the traditional translation of μάλιστα (Tit
1.10 note) as ‘especially’ (so most scholars) leads to
some strained exegesis. The usual solution is to
distinguish between the ‘all’ to whom salvation is
offered and the believers who accept the offer
(Dornier, 81). Kelly, 102f., distinguishes between
believers who have assurance of salvation and others
who may obtain salvation. Easton, 146, is forced to
regard the phrase as addition to original formula (like
Phil 2.8b in the opinion of some scholars). These
problems disappear if we accept the other possible
translation, ‘to be precise, namely, I
mean’(Skeat:1979, 173-7). ‘All’ is thus limited here to
believers,’ (Knight, 203; cf. Ger. Erst recht, Jeremias,
32; Holtz, 98), but the universal emphasis remains: all
people are potentially believers.3
So it would seem that there is solid and accepted grounds
for understanding this text as fitting into Paul’s polemic
against the Judaizers and their limitation of salvation to the
Jews, and that “all men” is once again a reference to Jew and
Gentiles, specifically, those who believe. This would then
make the sentiment expressed here parallel to what we saw in
John 3:16: no one, ever, anywhere, Jew or Gentile, bond or
free, male or female, who truly trusts in Christ, will ever find
God to be anything other than a gracious and powerful Savior.
2 Peter 2:1 and the False Teachers
But false prophets also arose among the people, just as
there will also be false teachers among you, who will
secretly introduce destructive heresies, even denying
the Master who bought them, bringing swift
destruction upon themselves.
Or email us at:
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