CPC Mock 7-A
CPC Mock 7-A
CPC Mock 7-A
4. Which of the following terms does NOT describe a receptor of the body?
D. endoreceptor
8. The term that defines the relaxation phase of the heartbeat is:
C. diastole
13. The act of turning upward, such as the hand turned palm upward:
A. supination
14. The middle layer of the skin, also known as the corium or true skin, is the:
C. dermis.
16. Which of the following is NOT a covering of the chamber walls of the heart?
C. pericardium
17. Three-week-old female with obstructive apnea.
A. P28.3
21. A lethargic patient attempted suicide, admitted with vomiting and severe cramping ingested
five tablets of Tylenol with codeine and half a bottle of whiskey.
C. T40.3X2A, T39.1X2A, T51.0X2A, R53.83, R11.10, R10.9
26. Mr. Hallberger is 62 and has multiple problems. I am examining him in the intensive critical
care unit. I understand he has fluid overload with acute renal failure and was started on
ultrafiltration by the nephrologist on duty. He has an abnormal chest x-ray. He has preexisting
type II diabetes mellitus and sepsis. We are left with a patient now who is still sedated and on a
ventilator because of respiratory failure. Code the diagnoses only.
D. A41.9, R65.20, J96.00, E11.21, N17.9, E87.70
28. A patient with chronic lumbar pain previously purchased a TENS and now needs replacement
batteries.
D. A4630
29. Which HCPCS modifier indicates the great toe of the right foot?
D. T5
30. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is issued a medically necessary
nebulizer with a compressor and humidifier for extensive use with oxygen delivery.
A. E0570, E0550
37. This document is a notification in advance of services that Medicare probably will not pay for
and the estimated cost to the patient.
C. Advanced Beneficiary Notice
38. Specific coding guidelines in the CPT manual are located in:
C. the beginning of each section.
39. Which punctuation mark between codes in the index of the CPT manual indicates a range of
codes is available?
D. hyphen
40. The term that indicates this is the type of code for which the full code description can be
known only if the common part of the code (the description preceding the semicolon) of a
preceding entry is referenced:
B. indented
42. When you see the symbol ►◄ next to a code in the CPT manual, you know that:
B. the code contains new or revised text
43. Which of the following is most accurately about the designation ―(Separate procedure).‖ The
procedure is:
D. All of the above
49. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes would be used to code a split-thickness skin graft, both
thighs to the abdomen, measuring 45 × 21 cm performed on a patient who has third-degree burns
of the abdomen. Documentation stated 20% of the body surface was burned, with 9% third
degree. The patient also sustained second-degree burns of the lower back.
B. 15100, 15101 × 9, T31.20, T21.32XA, T21.24XA
50. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes would be used to report a massive debridement of an open
anterior abdominal wound, including subcutaneous tissue and muscle?
D. 11043, S31.133A
51. The patient is brought to surgery for repair of an accidentally inflicted open wound of the left
thigh, the total extent measuring approximately 40 × 35 cm.
DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: The legs were prepped with Betadine scrub and solution and
then draped in a routine sterile fashion. Split-thickness skin grafts measuring about a 10,000th
inch thick were taken from both thighs, meshed with a 3:1 ratio mesher, and stapled to the
wounds. The donor sites were dressed with scarlet red, and the recipient sites were dressed with
Xeroform, Kerlix fluffs, and Kerlix roll, and a few ABD pads were used for absorption.
Estimated blood loss was negligible. The patient tolerated the procedure well and left surgery in
good condition.
D. 15100, 15101 × 13, S71.109A, X58.XXXA
52. What CPT and ICD-9-CM codes would be used to code the destruction of a malignant lesion
on the female genitalia measuring 1.6 cm using cryosurgery?
A. 17272, C51.9
53. What code(s) is used by the radiologist when performing preoperative placement of a needle
localization wire of a single lesion of the breast using stereotatic guidance? The patient was
diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the upper outer quadrant of the right breast, primary site.
B. 19283
54. Carl Ostrick, a 21-year-old male, slipped on a patch of ice on his sidewalk while shoveling
snow. When he fell, his left hand was wedged under his body and his carpometacarpal joint was
dislocated. After manipulating the joint back into normal alignment, the surgeon fixed the
dislocation by placing a wire through the skin at the tip of the finger and on through the
carpometacarpal joint to maintain alignment.
D. 26676-LT, S63.055A, W18.40XA
55. John, an 84-year-old male, tripped while on his morning walk. He stated he was thinking
about something else when he inadvertently tripped over the sidewalk curb and fell to his knees.
X-ray indicated a fracture of his right patella. With the patient under general anesthesia, the area
was opened and extensively irrigated. The left aspect of the patella was severely fragmented, and
a portion of the patella was subsequently removed. The remaining patella fractures were wired.
The surrounding tissue was repaired, thoroughly irrigated, and closed in the usual manner.
A. 27524-RT, S82.041A, W10.1XXA
56. Maryann received a blow to her right tibial shaft while moving a large stuffed chair up a flight
of stairs when the person in front of the chair slipped and released his hold on the chair. The full
weight of the chair was pushed against her; when she was unable to hold the chair in place, both
she and the chair fell to the landing a dozen steps below. The chair tipped on its side and landed
on her tibia. On x-ray, the right tibia shaft was fractured in three places. Screws and pins were
placed through the skin to secure the fracture sites.
C. 27756-RT, S82.264A, W10.8XXA
57. Darin was a passenger in an automobile rollover accident and was not wearing a seat belt at
the time. He was thrown from the automobile and was pinned under the rear of the overturned
vehicle. He sustained craniofacial separation, Le Forte III fracture, that required complicated
internal and external fixation using an open approach to repair the extensive damage. A halo
device was used to hold the head immobile.
B. 21435
58. Libby was thrown from a horse while riding in the ditch; a truck that honked the horn as it
passed her startled her horse. The horse reared up, and Libby was thrown to the ground. Her left
tibia was fractured and required insertion of multiple pins to stabilize the defect area. A
Monticelli multiplane external fixation system was then attached to the pins. Code the placement
of the fixation device and diagnosis only.
B. 20692-LT, S82.202A, V80.010A
59. A small incision was made over the left proximal tibia, and a traction pin was inserted
through the bone to the opposite side. Weights were then affixed to the pins to stabilize the closed
tibial fracture temporarily until fracture repair could be performed. Assign codes for the physician
service.
A. 20650-LT, S82.102A
60. Mary tells her physician that she has been having pain in her left wrist for several weeks. The
physician examines the area and palpates a ganglion cyst of the tendon sheath. He marks the
injection sites, sterilizes the area, and injects corticosteroid into two areas.
D. 20612-LT, 20612-59-LT, M67.432
61. The physician applies a Minerva-type fiberglass body cast from the hips to the shoulders and
to the head. Before application, a stockinette is stretched over the patient's torso, and further
padding of the bony areas with felt padding was done. The patient was diagnosed with Morquio-
Brailsford kyphosis. Assign codes for the physician service only.
A. 29040, E76.219, M40.13
66. OPERATIVE REPORT: The patient is in for a bone marrow biopsy. The patient was
sterilized by standard procedure. Bone marrow core biopsies were obtained from the left posterior
iliac crest with minimal discomfort. At the end of the procedure, the patient denied discomfort,
without evidence of complications. The patient has diffuse, malignant lymphoma. Assign codes
for the physician service only.
B. 38221, C83.50
67. What CPT and ICD-9-CM codes report a percutaneous insertion of a dual-chamber
pacemaker by means of the subclavian vein? The diagnosis was sick sinus syndrome, tachy-
brady.
C. 33208, I49.5
68. Patient is a 40-year-old male who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. He is having some
pulmonary insufficiency.
PROCEDURE: Bronchoscope was inserted through the accessory point on the end of the ET tube
and was then advanced through the ET tube. The ET tube came pretty close down to the carina.
We selectively intubated the right mainstem bronchus with the bronchoscope. There were some
secretions here, and these were aspirated. We then advanced this selectively into first the lower
and then the middle and upper lobes. Secretions were present, more so in the middle and lower
lobes. No mucous plug was identified. We then went into the left mainstem and looked at the
upper and lower lobes. There was really not much in the way of secretions present. We did inject
some saline and aspirated this out. We then removed the bronchoscope and put the patient back
on the supplemental O2. We waited a few minutes. The oxygen level actually stayed pretty good
during this time. We then reinserted the bronchoscope and went down to the right side again. We
aspirated out all secretions and made sure everything was clear. We then removed the
bronchoscope and pulled back on the ET tube about 1.5 cm. We then again placed the patient on
supplemental oxygenation.
FINDINGS: No mucous plug was identified. Secretions were found mainly in the right lung and
were aspirated. The left side looked pretty clear.
D. 31645-RT, J98.4, Y38.2
69. This 52-year-old male has undergone several attempts at extubation, all of which failed. He
also has morbid obesity and significant subcutaneous fat in his neck. The patient is now in for a
flap tracheostomy and cervical lipectomy. The cervical lipectomy is necessary for adequate
exposure and access to the trachea and also to secure tracheotomy tube placement. Assign code(s)
for the physician service only.
A. 31610, 15839-51
70. This patient returns to the operating room for placement of an additional chest tube for an
anterior pneumothorax due to a contusion lung injury. The same physician had just placed a chest
tube 4 days earlier.
A. 32551, S27.0XXA
73. Connie was brought to the operating room for a sliding hiatal hernia, and transthoracic repair
was performed.
A. 43334, K44.9
74. What CPT code would you use if the physician performs a pyloroplasty and vagotomy in the
same surgical session?
D. 43640
77. This patient is brought back to the operating room during the postoperative period by the
same physician to repair an esophagogastrostomy leak, transthoracic approach, done 2 days ago.
The patient is status post esophagectomy for cancer. Code the procedure and the diagnosis for the
complication.
D. 43415-78, K94.39, C15.9
78. The physician is using an abdominal approach to perform a proctopexy combined with a
sigmoid resection; the patient was diagnosed with colon cancer, primary site sigmoid flexure of
the colon.
C. 45550, C18.7, C79.9
80. This 70-year-old male is brought to the operating room for a biopsy of the pancreas. A wedge
biopsy is taken and sent to pathology. The report comes back immediately indicating that primary
malignant cells were present in the specimen. The decision was made to perform a total
pancreatectomy. Code the operative procedure(s) and diagnosis only.
C. 48155, 48100-51, C25.9
81. The patient was taken to the operating room for a repair of a strangulated inguinal hernia.
This hernia was previously repaired 4 months ago.
A. 49521, K40.40
82. This 43-year-old female comes in with a peritonsillar abscess. The patient is brought to same-
day surgery and given general anesthetic. On examination of the peritonsillar abscess, an incision
was made and fluid was drained. The area was examined again, saline was applied, and then the
area was packed with gauze. The patient tolerated the procedure well.
B. 42700, J36
83. What code would you use to report a rigid proctosigmoidoscopy with removal of two non
adenomatous polyps of the rectum by snare technique?
D. 45315, K62.1
86. This patient is a 42-year-old female who has been having prolonged and heavy bleeding
during menstruation.
SURGICAL FINDINGS: On pelvic exam under anesthesia, the uterus was normal size and firm.
The examination revealed no masses. She had a few small endometrial polyps in the lower uterine
segment.
DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: After induction of general anesthesia, the patient was placed
in the dorsolithotomy position, after which the perineum and vagina were prepped, the bladder
straight catheterized, and the patient draped. After bimanual exam was performed, a weighted
speculum was placed in the vagina and the anterior lip of the cervix was grasped with a single
toothed tenaculum. An endocervical curettage was then done with a Kevorkian curet. The uterus
was then sounded to 8.5 cm. The endocervical canal was dilated to 7 mm with Hegar dilators. A
5.5-mm Olympus hysteroscope was introduced using a distention medium. The cavity was
systematically inspected, and the preceding findings noted. The hysteroscope was withdrawn and
the cervix further dilated to 10 mm. Polyp forceps was introduced, and a few small polyps were
removed. These were sent separately. Sharp endometrial curettage was then done. The
hysteroscope was then reinserted, and the polyps had essentially been removed. The patient
tolerated the procedure well and returned to the recovery room in stable condition. Pathology
confirmed benign endometrial polyps.
B. 58558, N92.0, N84.0
87. This patient is 35 years old at 36 weeks' gestation. She presented in spontaneous labor.
Because of her prior cesarean section, she is taken to the operating room to have a repeat lower-
segment transverse cesarean section performed. The patient also desires sterilization, and so a
bilateral tubal ligation will also be performed. A single, liveborn infant was the outcome of the
delivery.
D. 59514, 58611
89. This 41-year-old female presented with a right labial lesion. A biopsy was taken, and the
results were reported as VIN III, cannot rule out invasion. The decision was therefore made to
proceed with wide local excision of the right vulva.
PROCEDURE: The patient was taken to the operating room, and general anesthesia was
administered. The patient was then prepped and draped in the usual manner in lithotomy position,
and the bladder was emptied with a straight catheter. The vulva was then inspected. On the right
labium minora at approximately the 11 o'clock position, there was a multifocal lesion. A marking
pen was then used to mark out an elliptical incision, leaving a 1-cm border on all sides. The skin
ellipse was then excised using a knife. Bleeders were cauterized with electrocautery. A running
locked suture of 2-0 Vicryl was then placed in the deeper tissue. The skin was finally
reapproximated with 4-0 Vicryl in an interrupted fashion. Good hemostasis was thereby achieved.
The patient tolerated this procedure well. There were no complications.
C. 56620, D07.1
90. This 1-year-old boy has a midshaft hypospadias with a very mild degree of chordee. He also
has a persistent right hydrocele. The surgeon brought the boy to surgery to perform a right
hydrocele repair and one-stage repair of hypospadias with preputial onlay flap.
C. 54324, 55060-51, Q54.9, N43.3, Q54.4
91. The pediatric physician takes this newborn male to the nursery to perform a clamp
circumcision with ring block.
D. 54150, Z41.2
92. This gentleman has worsening bilateral hydronephrosis. He did not have much of
a post void residual on bladder scan. He is taken to the operating room to have a bilateral
cystoscopy and retrograde pyelogram. The results come back as gross prostatic hyperplasia.
C. 52005-50, N40.0
93. This 32-year-old female presents with an ectopic pregnancy. The physician elects to remove
the entire fallopian tube with the products of conception laparoscopically.
B. 59151, O00.90
94. Left frontal ventricular puncture for implanting catheter, layered repair of 8-cm scalp
laceration, and repair of multiple facial and eyelid lacerations with an approximate total length of
12 cm. Assign code(s) for the physician service only.
B. 61107, 12034-51, 12015-51
95. Marginal laceration involving the left lower eyelid and laceration of the left upper eyelid
involving the tarsus. Both required full-thickness repair. Also, there were multiple stellate
lacerations above the left eye, totaling 24.2 cm and requiring full-thickness layered repair. Assign
code(s) for the physician service only.
C. 67935-E2, 67935-E1-51, 12056-51
99. This patient came in with an obstructed ventriculoperitoneal shunt. The procedure performed
was to be a revision of shunt. After inspecting the shunt system, the entire cerebrospinal fluid
shunt system was removed and a similar replacement shunt system was placed. Patient has
normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH).
B. 62258, T85.09XD, G91.2
100. This patient is in for a recurrent herniated disc at L5-S1 on the left. The procedure performed
is a repeat laminotomy and foraminotomy at the L5-S1 interspace.
D. 63042-LT, M51.27
101. What CPT and ICD-9-CM codes would you assign to report the removal of 30% of the left
thyroid lobe, with isthmusectomy? The diagnosis was benign growth of the thyroid.
A. 60210, D34
103. This 66-year-old male has been diagnosed with a senile cataract of the posterior
extracapsular and is scheduled for a cataract extraction by phacoemulsification of the right eye.
The physician has taken the patient to the operating room to perform a posterior extracapsular
cataract extraction with IOL placement, diffuse of the right eye.
B. 66984-RT, H25.041
104. Bill, a retired U.S. Air Force pilot, was on observation status 12 hours to assess the outcome
of a fall from the back of a parked pickup truck into a gravel pit.
History of Present Illness: The patient is a 42-year-old gentleman who works at the local garden
shop. He explained that yesterday he fell from his pickup truck as he was loading gravel for a
landscaping project. He lost his footing when attempting to climb from the pickup bed and fell
approximately 4 feet and landed on a rock that was protruding from the ground 4 inches, striking
his head on the rock. He did not lose consciousness, but was dizzy. He subsequently developed a
throbbing headache (8/10) and swelling at the point of impact. The duration of the dizziness was
approximately 10 minutes. The headache persisted for 26 hours after the fall. He did take
ibuprofen without significant improvement in the pain level. Review of Systems: Constitutional,
eyes, ears, nose, throat, lungs, cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, skin, neurologic, lymphatic, and
immunologic negative except for HPI statements. PFSH: He is married and has 2 children. He has
been working at the garden shop for 4 years. He currently smokes one pack of cigarettes a day
and has smoked for 10 years. His father died of heart disease when he was 52. He has one brother
with ankylosing spondylitis and one sister who is healthy as far as he knows. His mother died
when he was 14 years old. He is currently on no prescribed medications. A comprehensive exam
is documented and rendered. The medical decision making is of low complexity.
The physician discharged Bill from observation that same day after 10 hours, after determining
that no further monitoring of his condition was necessary. The physician provided a detailed
examination and indicated that the medical decision making was of a low complexity.
B. 99234, W17.89XA, R42, R51, Z04.3
105. Dr. Martin admits a 65-year-old female patient to the hospital to rule out acute pericarditis
following a severe viral infection. The patient has complained of
retrosternal, sharp, intermittent pain of 2 days' duration that is reduced by sitting up and leaning
forward, accompanied by tachypnea. ROS: She does not currently have chest pain but is
complaining of shortness of breath. She states that her legs and feet have been swollen of late.
She reports no change in her vision or her hearing, and she has not had a rash. No dyspnea stated.
PFSH: She states that she has had and echocardiogram in the past when she complained of chest
tightness and her family physician gave her some medication, but she is not certain what it was.
She has three adult children, all healthy. Her husband is deceased. She does not smoke or
consume alcohol. Her father died at age 69 from congestive heart failure and her mother died of
influenza at 70. Refer to the admission form for a list of current medications. The examination
was detailed. The medical decision making was of high complexity.
D. 99221, R07.2, R06.82, Z82.49
107. Dr. Black admits a patient with an 8-day history of a low-grade fever, tachycardia,
tachypnea, and radiologic evidence of basal consolidation of the lung and limited pleural effusion
on the left side, per patient as seen at outside clinic several days prior. The patient has also been
experiencing swelling of the extremities. The pulse is rapid and thready, as checked by patient on
her own during the past couple days. A complete ROS of constitutional factors, ophthalmologic,
otolaryngologic, cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, musculoskeletal,
integumentary, neurologic, psychiatric, endocrine, hematologic, lymphatic, allergic, and
immunologic was performed and negative except for the symptoms described above. Past history
includes tachycardia and pneumonia. Family history includes heart disease, hypertension and
high cholesterol in both parents. The patient drinks only occasionally and quit smoking four years
ago. The comprehensive examination was performed and diminished bowel sounds were noted.
The physician orders laboratory tests and radiographic studies, including a follow-up chest x-ray
as he considers the extensive diagnostic options and the medical decision making complexity is
high for this patient.
D. 99223, J18.1, J90
108. Dr. Stephanopolis makes subsequent hospital visits to Salanda Ortez, who has been in the
hospital for primary viral pneumonia. She was experiencing severe dyspnea, rales, fever, and
chest pain for over a week. The patient states that this morning she had nausea and her heart was
racing while she was experiencing some dyspnea and SOB. The chest radiography showed patchy
bilateral infiltrates and basilar streaking. Sputum microbiology was positive for a secondary
bacterial pneumonia. An expanded problem-focused physical examination was performed. The
medical decision making was moderate. The patient was given intravenous antibiotic as treatment
for the bacterial pneumonia.
109. A 57-year-old male was sent by his family physician to a urologist for an office consultation
due to hematuria. The patient has had bright red blood in his urine sporadically for the past 3
weeks. His family physician gave him a dose of antibiotic therapy for urinary tract infection;
however, the symptom still persists. The patient states that he does experience some lower back
discomfort when urinating, with no fever, chills or nausea. The patient is currently taking Lotrel
10/20 for his hypertension which is stable at this time and has allergies to Sulfa. The urologist
performs a detailed history and physical examination. The urologist recommends a cystoscopy to
be scheduled for the following day and discusses the procedure and risks with the patient. The
urologist also contacted the family physician with the recommendations and is requested to
proceed with the cystoscopy and any further follow-up required. The medical decision making is
of moderate complexity. A report was sent to attending physician. Report only the office service.
B. 99244-57, 52000, R33, M54.9
110. A neurological consultation in the emergency department of the local hospital is requested
by the ED physician for a 25-year-old male with suspected closed
head trauma. The neurologist saw the patient in the ED. The patient had a loss of consciousness
this morning after receiving a blow to the head in a basketball game. He presents to the
emergency department with a headache, dizziness, and confusion. During the course of the
history, the patient relates that he has been very irritable, confused, and has had a bit of nausea
since the incident. All other systems reviewed and are negative: Constitutional, ophthalmologic,
otolaryngologic, cardiovascular, respiratory, genitourinary, musculoskeletal, integumentary,
psychiatric, endocrine, hematologic, lymphatic, allergic, and immunologic. The patients states
that he does have a history of headaches and that both parents have hypertension, also a
grandfather with heart disease. He also states that he does drink beer on the weekends and does
not smoke. Physical examination reveals the patient to be unsteady and exhibiting difficulty in
concentration when stating months in reverse. The pupils dilate unequally. The physician
continues with a complete comprehensive examination involving an extensive review of
neurological function. The neurologist orders a stat CT and MRI. The physician suspects a
subdural hematoma or an epidural hematoma and the medical decision-making complexity is
high. The neurologist admits the patient to the hospital. Assign codes for the neurologist's
services only.
D. 99245, R41.0, R42, R51
112. A 56-year-old established male patient presents to his family physician for a preventive
checkup at the local outpatient clinic. The physician conducts a multi- system history and
physical examination, and the checkup takes 45 minutes.
D. 99396
113. Karra Hendricks, a 37-year-old female, is an established patient who presents to the office
with right lower quadrant abdominal pain with fever. The patient states she has had the pain for 3
days. She has taken Tylenol for her fever with some relief. The patient does have occasional
diarrhea and headaches. She smokes approximately 5-10 cigarettes a day and drinks socially. The
physician performs a problem focused examination. The medical decision making is noted to be
of a moderate complexity.
B. 99213, R50.9,R10.31
114. If the anesthesia service were provided to a patient who had severe systemic disease, what
would the physical status modifier be?
C. P3
115. What qualifying circumstances code would be used to identify the administration of
anesthesia that is complicated by an emergency condition?
D. 99140
116. Anesthesia service includes the following care:
B. Preoperative, intraoperative, postoperative
118. Which HCPCS modifier indicates an anesthesia service in which the anesthesiologist
medically directs one CRNA?
B. QY
122. This 69-year-old female is in for a magnetic resonance examination of the brain because of
new seizure activity. After imaging without contrast, contrast was administered and further
sequences were performed. Examination results indicated no apparent neoplasm or vascular
malformation.
C. 70553-26, R56.9
123. This patient undergoes a gallbladder sonogram due to epigastric pain. The report indicates
that the visualized portions of the liver are normal. No free fluid noted within Morison's pouch.
The gallbladder is identified and is empty. No evidence of wall thickening or surrounding fluid is
seen. There is no ductal dilatation. The common hepatic duct and common bile duct measure 0.4
and 0.8 cm, respectively. The common bile duct measurement is at the upper limits of normal.
B. 76705-26, R10.13
127. Report both the technical and professional components of the following service: This 68-
year-old male is seen in Radiation Oncology Department for prostate cancer. The oncologist
performs a complex clinical treatment planning, dosimetry calculation, complex isodose plan;
treatment devices include blocks, special shields, wedges, and treatment management. The patient
had 5 days of radiation treatments for 2 weeks, a total of 10 days of treatment.
C. 77263, 77300, 77307, 77334, 77427 × 2, C61
130. This patient is suffering from primary lung cancer and is in for a follow-up CT scan of the
thorax with contrast material. Code the physician component only.
C. 71260-26, C34.90
133. This patient is in for a kidney biopsy (50200) because a mass was identified by ultrasound.
The specimen is sent to pathology for gross and microscopic examination. Report the technical
and professional components for this service. The results were inconclusive.
D. 88305, N28.9
134. This 69-year-old female presents to the laboratory after her physician ordered quantitative
and qualitative assays for troponin to assist in the diagnosis of her chief complaint of acute onset
of chest pain.
C. 84484, 84512, R07.9
136. This 34-year-old established female patient is in for her yearly physical and lab. The
physician orders a comprehensive metabolic panel, hemogram automated and manual differential
WBC count (CBC), and a thyroid-stimulating hormone. Code the lab only.
D. 80050
137. This is a patient with atrial fibrillation who comes to the clinic laboratory routinely for a
quantitative digoxin level.
C. 80162, Z51.81, Z79.899, I48.91
138. This patient presented to the laboratory yesterday for a creatine measurement. The results
came back at higher than normal levels; therefore, the patient was asked to return to the
laboratory today for a repeat creatine test before the nephrologist is consulted. Report the second
day of test only.
D. 82540, R79.89
141. DIALYSIS INPATIENT NOTE: This 24-year-old male patient is on continuous ambulatory
peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) using 1.5%. He drains more than 600 mL. He is tolerating dialysis
well. He continues to have some abdominal pain, but his abdomen is not distended. He has some
diarrhea. His abdomen does not look like acute abdomen. His vitals, other than blood pressure in
the 190s over 100s, are fine. He is afebrile.
At this time, I will continue with 1.5% dialysate. I gave him labetalol IV for blood pressure.
Because of diarrhea, I am going to check stool for white cells, culture. Next we will see what the
primary physician says today. His HIDA scan was normal. The patient suffers from ESRD and
has had 6 encounters this month. Code the month of service.
C. 90960, N17.2, R19.5
142. INDICATION: Pulmonary hypertension with newly diagnosed acute myocardial infarction.
PROCEDURE PERFORMED: Insertion of Swan-Ganz catheter.
DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: The right internal jugular and subclavian area was prepped
with antiseptic solution. Sterile drapes were applied. Under usual sterile precautions, the right
internal jugular vein was cannulated. A 9-French introducer was inserted, and a 7-French Swan-
Ganz catheter was inserted without difficulty. Right atrial pressures were 2 to 3, right ventricular
pressures 24/0, and pulmonary artery 26/9 with a wedge pressure of 5. This is a Trendelenburg
position. The patient tolerated the procedure well.
D. 93503, I21.9
144. A patient presents for a pleural cavity chemotherapy session with 10 mg doxorubicin HCl
that requires a thoracentesis to be performed.
C. 96440, J9000
145. What CPT code would be used to report a home visit for a respiratory patient to care for the
mechanical ventilation?
B. 99504
146. What CPT code would be used to code the technical aspect of an evaluation of swallowing
by video recording using a flexible fiberoptic endoscope?
B. 92612
147. Which code would be used to report an EEG (electroencephalogram) provided during
carotid surgery?
D. 95955
148. This 40-year-old patient who is a type II diabetic is seen in an inpatient setting for
psychotherapy. The doctor spends 50 minutes face to face with the patient.
B. 90834
150. The patient presented for a spontaneous nystagmus test that included gaze, fixation, and
recording and used vertical electrodes. Assign code(s) for the physician service only.
D. 92541, 92547