E-Learning Keys

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KYC / AML-CFT & Compliance (L0921)

What is the third Stage of Money Laundering after first two stages of Placement and Layering? A
A) Integration
B) Smurfing
C) Colliding
D) Laundering
What are the three stages of Money Laundering’ Please name the stages from stage one to three? A
A) Placement followed by Layering & Integration.
B) Layering followed by Placement & Integration.
C) Integration followed by Placement & Layering.
D) Integration followed by Layering & Placement.
What is the process of introducing illicit funds into the financial system is called? A
A) Placement of funds
B) Siphoning of funds
C) Layering of funds
D) Integration of funds
What is meant by 'Placement' process in Money Laundering Process? C
A) Placing reliance on fraudulent means to do business.
B) Placing the amount of illegal money from one account to another through transfer entries.
C) Physical disposal of illegal cash or property by infusing them into the financial system
D) Placement of criminals in Money Laundry Process
What is meant by 'Integration' process in Money Laundering Process? B
A) Integration of different criminal activities for Money Laundering.
B) Criminally derived assets which have been placed and layered are routed back to legitimate economy .
C) Integration of different criminal groups for Money Laundering.
D) Integrated efforts and activities of Money Launderers for successfully carrying out the TBML.
What is meant by Placement of Money in respect to Money Laundering? C
A) Placement represents the movement of 'proceeds of crime/ funds' through the financial system.
B) Placement represents the layering of 'proceeds of crime/ funds' through various accounts.
C) Placement represents the initial entry of 'proceeds of crime/ funds' into the financial system.
D) Placement represents the placement of laundered funds back into the legitimate economy.
What is meant by 'Layering' process in Money Laundering Process? A
A) Separation of illicit proceeds from their original sources and beyond the grasp of local law enforcement
agencies by layering of financial transactions with the intention to conceal the origin of the proceeds.
B) Integrated efforts and activities of Money Launderers for depositing of proceeds of crime into financial system.
C) Layering of different criminal activities for Money Laundering
D) Creating layers of Cash for easily counting the money by Money Launderers
If cash is deposited in an account beyond the reporting threshold limit, what is the obligation upon a Bank under D
Prevention of Money Laundering Act-2002?
A) Reporting of transaction under Counterfeit Currency Report (CCR) to FIU-IND.
B) Reporting of transaction under Cross-border Wire-Transaction Report (CBWTR) to FIU-IND.
C) Reporting of transaction under Non-profit Organisation's Transaction Report (NTR) to FIU-IND.
D) Reporting of transaction under Cash Transaction Report (CTR) to FIU-IND.
Which transactions are reported under CTR? B
A) All cash transactions of the value of rupees ten lakhs or its equivalent in foreign currency.
B) All cash transactions of the value of more than rupees ten lakhs or its equivalent in foreign currency.
C) All cash transactions of the value of rupees ten lakhs and more or its equivalent in foreign currency.
D) All cash transactions of the value of USD one million or its equivalent in Indian currency.
Which of the following reports, Bank is not obliged to submit to Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU- IND) under D
PMLA-2002?
A) Cash Transactions Reports (CTRs)
B) Counterfeit Currency Reports (CCRs)
C) Non Profit Organisations Transactions Report (NTRs)
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D) Action Taken Reports (ATRs)

What is the prescribed periodicity of reporting eligible transactions under CCR? C
A) The eligible transactions under CCR are to be reported on monthly basis by 5th day of the succeeding month.
B) The eligible transactions under CCR are to be reported on quarterly basis by 5th day of the succeeding month
at the end of respective quarter i.e. by 5th July, 5th Oct, 5th Jan and 5th of April month.
C) The eligible transactions under CCR are to be reported on monthly basis by 15th day of the succeeding month.
D) The eligible transactions under CCR are to be reported on quarterly basis by 15th day of the succeeding month
Which transactions are reported under CCR? A
A) All cash transactions where forged or counterfeit currency notes or bank notes have been used as genuine or
where any forgery of a valuable security or a document has taken place facilitating the transactions.
B) All cash transactions of the value of more than rupees ten lakhs where forged or counterfeit currency notes or
bank notes have been used as genuine or where any forgery of a valuable security or a document has taken place
facilitating the transactions.
C) All cash transactions of the value of rupees ten lakhs where forged or counterfeit currency notes or banknotes
have been used as genuine or where any forgery of a valuable security or a document has taken place facilitating
the transactions.
D) All cash transactions of the value of USD one million where forged or counterfeit currency notes or banknotes
have been used as genuine or where any forgery of a valuable security or a document has taken place facilitating
the transactions.
What is the prescribed periodicity of reporting eligible transactions under NTR? A
A) The eligible transactions under NTR are to be reported on monthly basis by 15th day of the succeeding month.
B) The eligible transactions under NTR are to be reported on quarterly basis by 15th day of the succeeding month
C) The eligible transactions under NTR are to be reported on monthly basis by 5th day of the succeeding month.
D) The eligible transactions under NTR are to be reported on quarterly basis by 5th day of the succeeding month
Which transactions are reported under STR? A
A) All suspicious transactions whether or not made in cash.
B) All suspicious transactions made in cash of the value more than ten lakh rupees or equivalent foreign currency.
C) All suspicious transactions involving receipts whether or not made in cash.
D) All suspicious transactions involving payments/ transfers made in cash
Typically, when should a financial institution file an STR? B
A) When a customer attempts to deposits a counterfeit Indian currency note in his account.
B) Whenever a transaction, whether made in cash or not, of unusual or suspicious nature is detected.
C) When a customer deposits more than Rs ten lac in single transaction.
D) When a customer withdraws more than Rs ten lac in single transaction
What is the prescribed periodicity of reporting eligible transactions under STR? C
A) The eligible transactions under STR are to be reported on as and when detected basis within 15 working days
on being satisfied that the transaction is suspicious.
B) The eligible transactions under STR are to be reported on quarterly basis by 5th day of the succeeding month
C) The eligible transactions under STR are to be reported on as and when detected basis within 7 working days
on being satisfied that the transaction is suspicious.
D) The eligible transactions under STR are to be reported on quarterly basis by 15th day of the succeeding month
What is True about 'System generated STRs'? A
A) System Generated STRs are escalated based on alerts triggered by AML software system.
B) System Generated Alerts along with STRs are generated by Core Banking System during End of Day activities.
C) System Generated Alerts are generated by staff through Core Banking System.
D) Subjective STRs are escalated based on alerts or information received from Branches/staff/media reports etc.
Suspicious Transactions Reports (STRs) can be classified into two following broad categories that is_______________, A
based on the source of the alert which resulted in escalating such STRs
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A) System Generated STRs & Subjective STRs

B) Internal STRs & External STRs
C) Customer related STRs & Non-customer related STRs
D) Employee Initiated STRs & Customer initiated STRs
How many types of STRs are there? A
A) System Generated STRs and Subjective STRs
B) Confirmed STRs and Un-confirmed STRs
C) Fresh STRs and Stale STRs
D) Genuine STRs & False STRs
What is True about 'Subjective STRs'? B
A) Subjective STRs are escalated, subject-wise, based on alerts triggered by AML software system.
B) Subjective STRs are escalated based on alerts or information received from Branches/staff/media reports/law
enforcement agencies etc.
C) Subjective Alerts along with STRs are generated, subject-wise by Core Banking System during End of Day
activities.
D) Subjective STRs are not reported to FIU-IND, due to their subjective nature.
To facilitate proper monitoring of transactions by Money Laundering Reporting Officers (MLROs), as per reporting B
structure that has been put in place, who is designated as Dy MLRO?
A) All Branch Heads Region Heads and CPC Heads
B) Dy. General Manager (Business & Operations)
C) Dy. General Manager & CFO
D) Dy. General Manager & CCO
Who are called ‘Money Mules’? C
A) A person who works hard like a ‘Mule’ (an animal) to earn money
B) Mule is an animal, being used for carrying money on it's back in hilly areas.
C) A person who allows his accounts to be used for money laundering purposes.
D) A person who uses other person's account/s for money laundering purposes
AGM Regions/Branch Heads / Heads of the CPCs- are responsible for reporting of suspicious transactions passing A
through their units. What is the designated role of AGM Regions/Branch Heads / Heads of the CPCs asper the
'AML/CFT STRUCTURE in our BANK'?
A) Assistant MLROs
B) Dy. MLROs
C) MLROs) Money Laundry Reporting Officers)
D) Designated Directors for their respective offices.
Who is designated as PRINCIPAL OFFICER as per the 'AML/CFT STRUCTURE in our BANK? A
A) G.M. (AML-CFT)
B) G.M. Network
C) C.G.M
D) M.D.(SARC)
What is full form of FIU-IND? A
A) Financial Intelligence Unit-India
B) Florida International University- India
C) Fair Intelligence Unit-India
D) First Intelligence Unit-India
Who are nominated as MLROs at Circle level as per the 'AML/CFT STRUCTURE in our BANK' ? A
A) DGMs & CFOs
B) GM (AML-CFT)
C) GM (Network)
D) DGM (CDO)
There is a need for preventing terrorists and other criminals from having unfettered access to wire transfers.' Why? D
A) Wire transfer is a rapid and secure method for transferring value from one location to another.
B) Wire transfers, do not involve actual movement of currency.
C) Wire transfer is an instantaneous mode for transfer of funds from one location to another.
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D) All of the above options are correct

Why to prevent terrorists and other criminals from having unfettered access to wire transfers? D
A) Due to the potential terrorist financing threat posed by small wire transfers.
B) Bank and LEAs should be in a position to trace all wire transfers up to the remitter level.
C) There exists a potential terrorist financing risk through wire transfers, as happened in the 9/11 incident.
D) All of the above options are correct.
What is the role of a Professional Money Launderer (PML)? D
A) Professional Money Launderers (PMLs) provide money laundering services, for a fee, to criminals and/ or
organised crime groups (OCGs).
B) The main purpose of PMLs remains to facilitate money laundering.
C) PMLs provide their services to all potential clients who approach them, without differentiation between various
fund originating criminal activities.
Why NGOs and Non-profit organizations are considered as a significant risk for terrorist financing, as well as A
corruption and money laundering?
A) They have access to significant funding sources, often have a presence worldwide, and, in some jurisdictions,
are subject to little regulation.
B) The accounts of NGOs/ NPOs can not be considered more vulnerable and prone to money laundering and
terror financing in comparison to accounts of other entities/ individuals
C) The accounts of NGOs/ NPOs are as much vulnerable and prone to money laundering and terror financing as
accounts of other entities/ individuals
D) None of the options is correct
RBI through its Master Directions- Know Your Customer (KYC) Direction, 2016, has directed that all Regulated D
Entities (RE) to maintain all necessary records of transactions between the RE and the customer, both domestic
and international, for at least ?????. from the date of transaction.
A) Two years
B) Eight years
C) Ten years
D) Five years
What is the prescribed periodicity of reporting eligible transactions under CTR? A
A) The eligible transactions under CTR are to be reported on monthly basis by 15th day of the succeeding month.
B) The eligible transactions under CTR are to be reported on quarterly basis by 15th day of the succeeding month
C) The eligible transactions under CTR are to be reported on monthly basis by 5th day of the succeeding month.
D) The eligible transactions under CTR are to be reported on quarterly basis by 5th day of the succeeding month
at the end of respective quarter i.e. by 5th July, 5th Oct, 5th Jan and 5th of April month
Why accounts of NGOs/ NPOs are considered more vulnerable and prone to money laundering and terror D
financing?
A) It is due to the receipt of funds in the form of subscription, donation or gifts by these entities from various
open sources/ persons.
B) It is due to possibility of intermingling of genuine funds with proceeds of crime are not very remote in such
NPOs/NGOs.
C) it is due to the fact that ?Donors? can often make contributions to NGOs/ NPOs anonymously, providing a
convenient vehicle to launder funds or move money across borders.
What is the purpose of using Money Mules in the process of Money Laundering? A
A) When caught the money mules are liable to face likely legal action for being part of a fraud/ offence of money
laundering, instead of the real culprits/ money launderers.
B) Money mules are invariable needed to complete the process of money laundering.
C) Money mules are inseparable from the process of money laundering.
D) Money mules are trained to avoid action against them under PML Act -2002
For Risk management, Bank has adopted a _____________as per RBI Guidelines? B
A) Customer Based Approach
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B) Risk Based Approach

C) KYC Based Approach
D) Application Based Approach
What is the periodicity of Customer Risk Categorisation (CRC) for low risk individuals and entities? D
A) Every 2 Years
B) Every 8 Years
C) Every 5 years
D) Every 10 Years
What is the periodicity of Customer Risk Categorisation (CRC) for Medium risk individuals and entities? B
A) Every 2 Years
B) Every 8 Years
C) Every 5 years
D) Every 10 Years
What is the periodicity of Customer Risk Categorisation (CRC) for High risk individuals and entities? A
A) Every 2 Years
B) Every 8 Years
C) Every 5 years
D) Every 10 Years
Government of India has set up a Central Know Your Customer Registry (CKYCR) for storage of data and allotment A
of a uniform KYC number (CKYC Identifier) to the customer of Regulated Entities (REs).
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Who reports the prescribed transactions to FIU-IND on behalf of the bank? A
A) Principal Officer
B) MLRO
C) Dy MLRO
D) Assistant MLRO
The dedicated AML-CFT department of our Bank is situated in ______city? D
A) Mumbai
B) Delhi
C) Chennai
D) Jaipur
Over-invoicing (Short shipping) is one of the techniques of Money Laundering through Trade transactions. In this D
technique the price of the good or service is misrepresented in the invoice by exporter/ seller, by way of
A) decreasing the price below the 'fair market' price.
B) Exporter receives less fund or value from the importer.
C) None of the above is correct.
D) increasing the price above the 'fair market' price
MHA has advised ______________ to attend the complaints escalated thorough above modes on 24 by 7 basis to C
provide swift resolution and to curb the movement of funds immediately.
A) Reserve Bank of India
B) State Bank of India
C) all the Banks/Financial Institutions
D) None of the options is correct.
Can insurance company be also used for money laundering purposes? B
A) Banks, (not Insurance companies), can be used for money laundering purposes.
B) Insurance company can also be definitely used for money laundering purposes.
C) The data is not sufficient to reach to any conclusion.
What is the designated role of DGM (B&O) as per the 'AML/CFT STRUCTURE in our BANK'? B
A) Assistant MLROs
B) Dy. MLROs
C) MLROs (Money Laundry Reporting Officers)
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D) Designated Directors
Some of the Customer categories may carry more than the ordinary risk of money laundering and terrorist D
financing and therefore warrant a better understanding and closer scrutiny by the operating staff at all levels. Out
of the list given below, which Customer category does not fall under this category?
A) Multi-Level Marketing (?MLM?) Companies.
B) Relatives of Politically Exposed Persons.
C) Politically Exposed Persons (PEPs).
D) Account of NGOs promoted by UNO or its agencies.
List of Banned organisations is circulated to Banks by ________. B
A) SBI
B) RBI
C) CBI
D) All of the above
Customer risk categorization (CRC) is carried out by AML-CFT Department at pre-defined periodicity. Which of C
the following option regarding periodicity is not correct?
A) CRC is done, daily for the incremental accounts/customers.
B) CRC is done weekly for the incremental accounts/customers.
C) CRC is done at half-yearly intervals typically as on 31st March and 30th September every year or in between if
the need arises.
D) Review of customer risk categorization (CRC) of customers should be carried out at a periodicity of not less
than once in six months.
Each Business Group/Circle/SBU designates an official to ensures proper implementation of KYC/AML/CFT Policy B
in the Group/Circle/SBU and to report to the Principal Officer (AML-CFT). What is the designation of such
designated official?
A) Money Laundering Officer (MLO)
B) Money Laundering Reporting Officer (MLRO)
C) Dy. Money Laundering Officer (DyMLO)
D) Officer for Money Laundering (OML)
Which of the following is not correct regarding Shell Companies? B
A) Shell companies normally have no physical presence, mostly these companies exist only on paper and do not
carry out any businesses of their own.
B) Bank should open accounts of Shell Companies / firms only after obtaining the desired documents.
C) Shell companies are used as popular vehicles to access the international financial system.
D) Under no circumstances accounts of Shell Companies / firms should be opened in Bank’s books.
RFIs related to terror financing, which is odd one? B
A) Sending or receiving funds through international remittances from and/or to locations of specific concern
B) Favourable Media coverage of an account holder’s activities
C) Large number of cash transactions in the account
D) Accounts of charitable organisation linked to domestic/ cross border transactions
Why 'Wire transfer' is considered the most preferred route for transfer of funds across the globe? D
A) Wire transfers, do not involve actual movement of currency.
B) Wire transfer is an instantaneous mode for transfer of funds from one location to another.
C) Wire transfer is a rapid and secure method for transferring value from one location to another.
Terrorist organizations also use charitable operations as covert fundraising operations to gather funds from D
supporters overseas'. Which of the following can be treated as a Red-flag to identify suspicious NGOs/ NPOs?
A) NGOs/ NPOs that conduct wire transfers to countries where they have no operations.
B) NGOs/ NPOs that operate in high-risk countries.
C) NGOs/ NPOs with a vague description of their purpose and services.
What is full form of CFT? B
A) Combating the financing of terrorists
B) Combating the financing of terrorism
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C) Countering the financing of terrorism

D) None of the above
What is a Shell company? C
A) A company dealing in sea-shells.
B) A company registered on Shell Island.
C) Shell companies normally have no physical presence, have hidden owners, and sometimes project the image
of being a real, normal business entity
D) All of the options are correct.
Which international agency sets standards and guidelines to combat money laundering to be followed by its C
member jurisdictions?
A) FIU
B) EGMONT GROUP
C) FATF
D) FSRB
For funding the 9/11 attack, the funds had been deposited into U.S. accounts, primarily through wire transfers'. D
Why this mode of 'wire transfer' was preferred by financers of terrorism for moving funds?
A) Wire transfer is an instantaneous mode for transfer of funds from one location to another.
B) Wire transfer is a rapid and secure method for transferring value from one location to another.
C) Wire transfers, do not involve actual movement of currency.
Which of the following is true regarding Shell Companies? D
A) Shell companies normally have no physical presence.
B) Mostly Shell companies exist only on paper
C) Shell companies usually conduct no business themselves.
Is there any Penalty for any deficiency in filing the mandatory reports by reporting entities to FIU-IND? A
A) Any deficiency in filing the mandatory reports by reporting entities will attract minimum penalty of Rs.10,000/-
which may go to Rs.1,00,000/- per instance per day.
B) Any deficiency in filing the mandatory reports by reporting entities will attract maximum penalty of Rs.10,000/-
per instance per day.
C) Any deficiency in filing the mandatory reports by reporting entities will attract minimum penalty of
Rs.1,00,000/-per instance per day with cap of Rs 10,00,000/-.
D) The FIU_IND can not impose penalty on Reporting Entities.
________________________ has launched a national helpline number 155260 and rolled out B
https://cybercrime.gov.inportal for reporting the financial cybercrime frauds by the victims.
A) Ministry of Cyber Crime (MCC)
B) Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
C) Reserve Bank of India
D) State Bank of India
Which is correct about the Egmont Group? A
A) It is a united body of Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) of different countries.
B) It is an association of thirteen global banks.
C) The Group is also known as Wolsberg Group.
Which of the following is a Red-flag for identification of a Shell company? D
A) Nominal paid up capital/ authorized capital.
B) No / nominal statutory payments like GST etc.
C) Stock in trade is minimum or zero.
As per the RBI guidelines, what is the Periodicity of review of Customer Risk Categorisation (CRC)? C
A) Review of risk categorization of customers should be carried out at a periodicity of not less than once in a year.
B) Review of risk categorization of customers should be carried out at a periodicity of not less than once in three
months.
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C) Review of risk categorization of customers should be carried out at a periodicity of not less than once in six
months.
D) Review of risk categorization of customers should be carried out only if there is a change in a customer’s
profile.
What is the prescribed periodicity of reporting eligible transactions under CBWTR? C
A) The eligible transactions under CBWTR are to be reported on monthly basis by 5th day of the succeeding
month.
B) The eligible transactions under CBWTR are to be reported on quarterly basis by 5th day of the succeeding
month at the end of respective quarter i.e. by 5th July, 5th Oct, 5th Jan and 5th of April month. C) The eligible
transactions under CBWTR are to be reported on monthly basis by 15th day of the succeeding month.
D) The eligible transactions under CBWTR are to be reported on quarterly basis by 15th day of the succeeding
month at the end of respective quarter i.e. by 15th July, 15th Oct, 15th Jan and 15th of April month.
What is Trade Based Money Laundering or TBML? B
A) TBML is the process of soliciting, collecting or providing the funds for activities related to terrorism.
B) TBML is the process of disguising the proceeds of crime and moving value using trade transactions to legitimize
their illicit origins.
C) TBML is the process of money laundering through Identity theft.
D) TBML is the legitimate process/ business of money laundering.
What type of business model is used by Professional Money Launderers (PMLs)? D
A) PMLs can be operating in the capacity of individuals.
B) PMLs can be operating in the capacity of groups.
C) PMLs can be operating in the capacity of well organised institutions having a clear structure and hierarchy in-
place.
What is the threshold limit of depositing cash in an account, for the reporting purpose? B
A) All cash transactions of the value of rupees ten lakhs or its equivalent in foreign currency.
B) All cash transactions of the value of more than rupees ten lakhs or its equivalent in foreign currency.
C) All cash transactions of the value of rupees ten lakhs and more or its equivalent in foreign currency.
D) All cash transactions of the value of USD one million or its equivalent in Indian currency.
Which of the following Due Diligence (TDD) measures should be applied by branches in respect of Non Profit D
Organisations (NPOs)?
A) NPO customers operating/ transacting majorly in high-risk areas/locations may require further Transaction
Due Diligence (TDD) to check whether transactions in the account are in tune with the declared activity/ business
of the customer.
B) In case of remittances favouring NGOs/ NPOs the extant FCRA provisions, bank's instructions and SOPs must
be adhered to, before affording credits.
C) If any suspicious transactions patterns from AML/ CFT angle are observed, the branch should advise the
controllers and the AML/ CFT cell Jaipur through one-page subjective STR for further reporting to FIU-IND.?
Why account of a shell company should not be opened/maintained by a Bank? A
A) Shell Companies may be used by criminals for laundering ill-gotten money, evading taxes and perpetuating
fraud.
B) Banks do not get substantial business from Shell companies.
C) Shell companies do not apply for loans and advances, hence are not viable option for interest and other income
for Banks.
D) Shell companies do not have any director on their board, hence it is risky proposition to open an account ofa
shell company.
Under-invoicing (Over-shipping) is one of the techniques of Money Laundering through Trade transactions. In B
this technique the price of the good or service is misrepresented in the invoice by exporter/ seller, by way of
A) increasing the price above the 'fair market' price.
B) decreasing the price below the 'fair market' price.
C) Exporter receives less fund or value from the importer.
D) None of the above is correct.
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All transactions passing through the domestic branches are processed by AML / CFT Cell using ___________software B
to generate alerts on prima facie Suspicious transactions based on thresholds fixed by the Bank for such filtration.
A) Special Anti Money Laundering Software
B) AMLOCK Software
C) Sensitive Activity Reporting Software
What is full form of FATF? B
A) Fair Action Task Force
B) Financial Action Task Force
C) Front Action Task Force
D) Full Action Task Force
RFIs related to terror financing, which is odd one? B
A) Sending or receiving funds through international remittances from and/or to locations of specific concern
B) Favourable Media coverage of an account holder’s activities
C) Large number of cash transactions in the account
D) Accounts of charitable organisation linked to domestic/ cross border transactions
PML Act 2002 prescribes that the records of documents evidencing identity of its clients and beneficial owners D
shall be maintained for a period of ??????.. from the date of cessation of business relationship between a client
and the reporting entity.
A) Two years
B) Eight years
C) Ten years
D) Five years
As per Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules-2005 what does a ‘Suspicious D
Transaction’ mean ?
A) A transaction which gives rise to a reasonable ground of suspicion that it may involve the proceeds of crime
B) A transaction which appears to be made in circumstances of unusual or unjustified complexity
C) A transaction which gives rise to a reasonable ground of suspicion that it may involve financing of the activities
relating to terrorism.
D) All of the Above
To facilitate proper monitoring of transactions by Money Laundering Reporting Officers (MLROs), as per reporting A
structure that has been put in place, who is designated as Assistant MLRO?
A) All Branch Heads Region Heads and CPC Heads
B) Dy. General Manager (Business & Operations)
C) Dy. General Manager & CFO
D) Dy. General Manager & CCO
To retain customer confidence and comply with the MHA guidelines, _____________ at LHO level have been made C
operational to ensure focused monitoring.
A) Crime Cells
B) Cyber cafes
C) Cyber Cells
How to prevent terrorists and other criminals from having unfettered access to wire transfers? D
A) This can be achieved if basic information on the originator of wire transfers is captured.
B) This can be achieved if basic information on the originator of wire transfers is immediately available to
appropriate law enforcement and/ or prosecutorial authorities in order to assist them in detecting, investigating,
prosecuting terrorists or other criminals, and tracing their assets.
C) The originator information can also be put to use by the beneficiary bank to facilitate identification and
reporting of suspicious transactions to FIU-IND.
Name Screening reduces the risk of misuse of Bank?s channels and facilities by unscrupulous elements for Money B
Laundering and or Terrorist Financing, by filtering out persons of criminal and dubious background at the on-
boarding stage itself.
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A) FALSE
B) TRUE
What is the threshold limit of transactions to be reported under Cross-Border Wire Transfer Report? A
A) Transactions of the value of more than Rs Five lakh or its equivalent in foreign currency
B) Transactions of the value of more than USD five lac or its equivalent in foreign currency
C) Transactions of the value of more than Ten lakh rupees or its equivalent in foreign currency
D) Transactions of the value of more than USD one million or its equivalent in foreign currency
How can the operations in the accounts of money mules be minimised in banks? B
A) The operations of such mule accounts can be minimised by identifying and educating money mules.
B) The operations of such mule accounts can be minimised by following the guidelines on opening of accounts
and monitoring of transactions.
C) The operations of such mule accounts can not be minimised as they have deep penetration in the banking
system.
D) It is not obligatory on banks to identify money mules or minimise such transactions.
Our bank has set up Cyber Cells at _____________ to provide 24 by 7 resolution of the complaints escalated to the B
Bank through the Cyber Crime Portal.
A) RBOs
B) LHOs
C) AOs
D) Branches
Why accounts of NGOs & NPOs are classified in 'High Risk' category? A
A) Accounts of NGOs/ NPOs are considered more vulnerable and prone to money laundering and terror financing.
B) Accounts of NGOs/ NPOs are considered to be controlled and operated by imaginary persons.
C) Accounts of NGOs/ NPOs are considered as Shell entities.
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KYC / AML-CFT & Compliance (L0929)

Bank observes ______________ every year as AML/ CFT Awareness Day. D
A) 1st November
B) 1st July
C) 1st August
D) 2nd November
Bank observes ______________ every year as KYC Compliance and Fraud Prevention Day so that KYC/AML/CFT C
compliance related issues are kept in focus on an ongoing basis.
A) 1st November
B) 1st July
C) 1st August
D) 2nd November
Which of the following is NOT one of the key elements of the KYC/AML/CFT Policy of the Bank? D
A) Customer Acceptance Policy
B) Customer Identification Procedures
C) Risk Management
D) Customer Maintenance
Which one of the following options is not the purpose of name screening? C
A) To ensure that the Financial Institution does not on-board any person or entity whose identity matches with
any person or entity in the Negative Lists.
B) To weed out those persons or entities already on board, and whose name subsequently figures in any of the
Negative Lists.
C) To avoid the risk of financing an entity which is having a dubious reputation of non-repayments to its creditors.
D) To reduces the risk of misuse of its channels and facilities by unscrupulous elements for Money Laundering
and/ or Terrorist Financing
It is very difficult to substantiate suspicious transactions without the correct details of ‘income’ / ‘annual turnover’ A
etc. in CBS. Do You agree with this statement?
A) Yes
B) No, as it is the end use of funds which decides whether a transaction is suspicious or not.
It is very difficult to substantiate suspicious transactions without the correct details of ‘occupation’ / ‘activity’ in A
CBS. Do You agree with this statement?
A) Yes
B) No, as suspicious transactions are already identified by AMLOCK software.
What is NOT true regarding KYC-AML-CFT guidelines issued by RBI? B
A) It prevents banks/FIs from being used, intentionally or unintentionally, by criminal elements for money
laundering or terrorist financing activities.
B) It prevents banks/FIs from lending, funds to borrowers who can not provide proper KYC documents.
C) RBI has mandated the banks for having a board-approved KYC policy.
D) The KYC policy should have four key elements
Who should ensure compliance with the KYC guidelines at the time of on-boarding of a customer? A
A) The officer-in-charge vested with the authority to open the account, should ensure compliance with the KYC
guidelines.
B) The Branch manager should ensure that all aspects of KYC guidelines are complied with.
C) The Service manager should ensure that all aspects of KYC guidelines are complied with.
D) Business Correspondents (BCs) & Business Facilitators (BFs) who open the account, should ensure compliance
with the KYC guidelines.
Staff should not provide advice or other assistance to individuals who are indulging in _______________________ . A
A) money laundering activities
B) account opening activities
C) demat account opening activities
D) None of the above options is correct
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The AML-CFT Cell has been regularly sending ‘Caution Mails’ and ‘EDD request’ to branches through DGM & CFO C
(MLRO) and AGM (S&I) of the Circle for up-dation of the required records in ____________, so that correct and
timely reporting is done to FIU-IND.
A) Return mail
B) Account Opening Form
C) CBS
D) LCPC
What are the stipulated monthly and annual limits on aggregate of transactions and balance requirements in D
Small accounts?
A) The aggregate of all credits in a financial year not to exceed rupees fifty thousand, the aggregate of all
withdrawals and transfers in a month not to exceed rupees ten thousand and the balance at any point of time
not to exceed rupees one lakh.
B) The aggregate of all credits in a financial year not to exceed rupees ten thousand, the aggregate of all
withdrawals and transfers in a month not to exceed rupees five thousand and the balance at any point of time
not to exceed rupees fifty thousand.
C) The aggregate of all credits in a financial year not to exceed rupees fifty thousand, the aggregate of all
withdrawals and transfers in a month not to exceed rupees twenty-five thousand and the balance at any point of
time not to exceed rupees one lakh.
D) The aggregate of all credits in a financial year not to exceed rupees one lakh, the aggregate of all withdrawals
and transfers in a month not to exceed rupees ten thousand and the balance at any point of time not to exceed
rupees fifty thousand
What is the maximum period for which a small account can remain operational, without production of any of D
OVD?
A) For a period of twelve months from date of opening of account or creation of CIF, whichever is earlier.
B) For a period of thirty-six months from the date of opening of account or creation of CIF, whichever is earlier.
C) For a period of eighteen months from the date of opening of account or creation of CIF, whichever is earlier.
D) For a period of twenty-four months from the date of opening of account or creation of CIF, whichever is earlier.
KYC updation should be done at least once in __________ in case of low risk category customers. D
A) two years
B) five years
C) seven years
D) ten years
KYC updation should be done at least once in _________ in case of medium risk category customers. C
A) two years
B) five years
C) eight years
D) ten years
KYC updation should be done at least once in __________ in case of high risk category customers. A
A) two years
B) five years
C) eight years
D) ten years
Which of the following documents are not required by the bank for opening an account of a company? A
A) Utility bills such as electricity, water, landline telephone bills, etc. as a proof of address.
B) Certificate of incorporation, Memorandum of Association
C) Permanent Account Number of the company.
D) Articles of Association
Which of the following documents are NOT required by the bank for opening an account of a Trust? D
A) Registration certificate and Trust deed
B) Permanent Account Number or Form No.60 of the trust
C) Documents relating to beneficial owner, managers, officers or employees, as the case may be, holding an
attorney to transact on its behalf.
D) Memorandum and Articles of Association
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Which of the following documents are not required by the bank for opening an account of a Partnership Firm? A
A) Certificate of incorporation, Memorandum and Articles of Association
B) Registration certificate/ Partnership deed
C) Permanent Account Number of the partnership firm
D) Documents relating to beneficial owner, managers, officers or employees, as the case may be, holding an
attorney to transact on behalf of the firm
Which of the following documents are not required by the bank for opening an account of an unincorporated D
association or a body of individuals?
A) Resolution of the managing body of such association or body of individuals. Power of attorney granted to
transact on its behalf.
B) Permanent Account Number or Form No. 60 of the unincorporated association or a body of individuals.
C) Documents relating to beneficial owner, managers, officers or employees, as the case may be, holding an
attorney to transact on its behalf.
D) Registration certificate and Trust deed
What is the major risk of non-compliance with the KYC Policy? C
A) Customer Risk
B) Supervisory Risk
C) Compliance and Legal Risk.
KYC is carried out to identify and verify the profile and identity of the __________ A
A) customer
B) bank official
C) managers
D) none of the above
Reserve Bank of India has allowed Banks and other Regulated Entities to use the Video-CIP functionality for D
undertaking CDD for onboarding of-
A) New individual customers
B) Proprietor of a proprietorship firm
C) Authorized signatories and Beneficial Owners (BOs) in Legal Entity accounts.
Branches/ Operating Units, being the first line of defence, are responsible for capturing the correct and accurate B
data in _________________.
A) Driving license
B) Customer Information File (CIF)
C) Aadhaar card
D) Voter ID card
A well-designed KYC Policy complements the AML/ CFT systems deployed in a bank. Which one of the of the B
following is not true/ correct?
A) It prevents on-boarding of persons who carry a dubious background. and who may be a potential threat to
the institution from the perspective of money laundering and financing of terrorism.
B) It prevents the bank from lending to the persons with poor financials and saves the precious capital of bank.
C) It helps in better understanding of customers and analysing the risk that they pose to the Bank and society at
large.
D) It provides the AML/ CFT cell with an accurate profile of the customers enabling a meaningful monitoring of
transaction patterns and better decision-making regarding reporting of a suspicious transaction.
Can a Current account be opened in such situation where it is not possible for the proprietor to furnish more C
than one document in the name of the firm?
A) It is a mandatory requirement to provide at least two documents in the name of the firm to open an account,
hence no discretion allowed to any functionary.
B) If dealing officer is satisfied, he/she can allow to furnish, only one document in the name of the firm, at the
time of onboarding, if the proprietor is already known to bank.
C) If Bank is satisfied, branch can accept only one document in the name of the firm subject to ‘Contact point
verification’.
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D) If branch head is satisfied, he/she can allow to furnish, only one document in the name of the firm, at the time
of onboarding.
In case an OVD, other than Aadhar number, submitted by a person for opening an account, does not have current D
address, can a Branch open an account in such case?
A) Account cannot be opened until current address is updated in the OVD provided by the customer.
B) Account can be opened with the address mentioned in the OVD, without bothering for current address.
C) Account can be opened by obtaining a self-declaration from the customer regarding current address
D) Account can be opened by obtaining certain prescribed documents known as ‘deemed OVDs’ for the limited
purpose of proof of current address.
Where the OVD furnished by the customer does not have an updated address, the bank can accept a utility bill, A
as deemed OVD, for the limited purpose of proof of address. Which of the following option is correct in respect
of a Utility Bill?
A) Utility bill which is not more than two months old of any service provider (electricity, telephone, post-paid
mobile phone, piped gas, water bill) can be accepted.
B) Utility bill which is not more than three months old of any service provider (electricity, telephone, post-paid
C) Utility bill which is not more than one month old of any service provider (electricity, telephone, post-paid
D) Utility bill which is not more than one year old of any service provider (electricity, telephone, post-paid mobile
phone, piped gas, water bill) can be accepted.
Which of the following document can NOT be accepted by a bank, in case, an officially valid document (OVD), D
that is Passport, Driving license, Voter Identity card, Proof of possession of Aadhar, NREGA Job card, Letter from
National Population Register, provided for opening of an account, does not have current address?
A) Utility Bill not older than two months.
B) Municipal Tax or Property Tax Receipt.
C) Pension Payment order or Family Pension order, if it contains current address.
D) A self-declaration regarding current address.
Which of the following document can be accepted by a bank, where Aadhaar letter/ card, voluntarily submitted D
by a person for opening an account, does not have current address?
A) Municipal Tax or Property Tax Receipt.
B) Utility Bill not older than two months.
An account which has been opened using Deemed OVD, for the limited purpose of current address, within what A
period the customer will provide the OVD updated with current address?
A) Three months
B) Six months
C) Nine months
D) Tweleve months
Within what period, the customer shall submit OVD with current address from the date of submitting ‘deemed B
OVD’ for the limited purpose of proof of current address, at the time of account opening?
A) Within two months from the date of submitting the OVD.
B) Within three months from the date of submitting the OVD.
C) Within one month from the date of submitting the OVD
D) There is no such time limit for submitting the OVD with current address, once the account has been opened
For updation of KYC, in case of a non-individual entity, if there is no change in the KYC information bank B
shall,__________________ from the customer in this regard.
A) obtain fresh KYC documents
B) obtain a self-declaration
C) any one officially valid document (OVD)
D) undertake the KYC process equivalent to that applicable for on-boarding a new Non-individual customer.
For updation of KYC, in case of an individual, if there is no change in the KYC information, __________________ from B
the customer in this regard shall be obtained.
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A) an Aadhar Card
B) a self-declaration
C) Any officaily valid document (OVD)
D) Aadhar Card & Permanent Account Number (PAN)/ equivalent e-documents/ or Form 60
Beneficial Owner means an individual who ultimately owns or controls a client of a reporting entity or the person A
on whose behalf a transaction is being conducted and includes a person who exercises ultimate effective control
over a juridical person.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
The branches need to examine the control structure of the entity before onboarding and identify the C
___________,who is the beneficial owner.
A) person
B) legal person
C) natural person
D) None of the above options is correct.
Which of the following statement is correct regarding identification of beneficial owner in case of a company? D
A) Beneficial Owner has Controlling ownership interest ownership of/entitlement to more than 25 per cent of the
shares or capital or profits of the company.?
B) ‘Control’ includes the right to appoint majority of the directors or to control the management or policy
decisions including by virtue of their shareholding or management rights or shareholders agreements or voting
agreements.
C) Where the customer or the owner of the controlling interest is a company listed on a stock exchange, or is a
subsidiary of such a company, it is not necessary to identify and verify the identity of any shareholder or beneficial
owner of such companies.
D) All the statements are correct.
Which of the following statement is correct regarding the identification of a beneficial owner, where the customer A
is a trust?
A) Where the customer is a trust, the identification of beneficial owner(s) shall include identification of the author
of the trust, the trustee, the beneficiaries with 15% or more interest in the trust and any other natural person
exercising ultimate effective control over the trust through a chain of control or ownership.
B) Where the customer is a trust, the identification of beneficial owner(s) shall include identification of the author
of the trust, the trustee, the beneficiaries with?25% or more interest in the trust and any other natural person
C) Where the customer is a trust, the identification of beneficial owner(s) shall include identification of the author
of the trust, the trustee, the beneficiaries with more than 25% interest in the trust and any other natural person
D) Where the customer is a trust, the identification of beneficial owner(s) shall include identification of the author
of the trust, the trustee, the beneficiaries with more than 15% interest in the trust and any other natural person
In the event of an existing customer or the beneficial owner of an existing account, subsequently becoming a A
Politically exposed Person (PEP), will the branches take enhanced due diligence measures for such account?
A) Yes branches should take enhanced due diligence measures for such accounts.
B) No branches should not take enhanced due diligence measures for such accounts.
C) An account can not be subjected to EDD in case the status of account holder or beneficial owner gets changed.
D) Once an account has been opened in normal category it can not be subjected to enhanced monitoring
Which one of the following is not an Officially Valid Document? (OVD)? B
A) Passport
B) Permanent Account Number (PAN)
C) Driving Licence
D) Proof of possession of Aadhaar number
Which one of the following is not an Officially Valid Document? (OVD)? B
A) Passport
B) Aadhaar number/ card
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C) Driving Licence
D) Proof of possession of Aadhaar number
While onboarding a customer, if Aadhar number has been voluntarily provided as proof of identity and address, D
which of the following OVD is to be obtained in addition to the Aadhar letter/card, as Aadhar letter/card is not
included in the list of OVDs?
A) Passport with current address.
B) Driving License with current address
C) Proof of Possession of Aadhar where offline verification of Aadhar can be undertaken.
D) No need to obtain any other OVD, where Aadhar number has been provided by the customer for as proof of
identity and address
Which one of the following is not an Officially Valid Document? (OVD)? C
A) The Voter's Identity Card issued by the Election Commission of India,
B) Job card issued by NREGA duly signed by an officer of the State Government.
C) Landline Telephone Bill
D) Letter issued by the National Population Register containing details of name and address.
Branches should gather sufficient information on Politically exposed Persons (PEPs), if sufficient information C
regarding a PEP and sources of funds are not available with bank, what will be adverse effect?
A) The PEP will not be able to do transactions in the account.
B) Only a Small account can be opened for a PEP.
C) The detection of suspicious transactions may become challenging
D) All the above options are correct.
Live location of the customer (Geotagging) is to be captured during Video CIP, to ensure that customer is A
physically present in _________________________ .
A) India
B) his/ her home
C) his/ her office
Which of the following documents shall NOT be ?deemed to be OVD? for the limited purpose of proof of current D
address?
A) Pension or family pension payment orders (PPOs) issued to retired employees by Government Departments
or Public-Sector Undertakings.
B) Property or Municipal tax receipt
C) Utility bill which is not more than two months old of any service provider
D) Offer letter issued by the employer which contains current address of the customer.
Which of the following set of two documents, is NOT the correct set of documents, which can be accepted at the C
time of onboarding, for CDD of a proprietorship concern?
A) License/ certificate of practice issued in the name of the proprietary concern by any professional body
incorporated under a statute & License issued by the municipal authorities under Shop and Establishment Act in
the name of the firm.
B) Sales tax/ income tax returns & CST/VAT/ GST certificate in the name of the firm.
C) IEC (Importer Exporter Code) issued to the proprietary concern by the office of DGFT & Rent deed executed
in the name of the proprietor.
D) Complete Income Tax Return in the name of the sole proprietor where the firm's income is reflected & Utility
bills such as electricity, water, landline telephone bills, etc.
Is conversion of existing accounts opened in non-face to face mode to normal allowed through Video-CIP? B
A) No, Video-CIP is available only for onboarding of a new individual customer.
B) Yes, conversion of existing accounts opened in non-face to face mode is allowed by RBI.
The information collected from the customer at the time of opening the account will be treated confidential A
and______________________ for cross-selling, without the express permission of the customer.
A) can not be used or divulged.
B) can be used or divulged.
C) can be used or divulged for cross selling of products.
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What is V-CIP in respect of KYC? B

A) Video Based Country Identity Programme
B) Video Based Customer Identification Procedure
C) Video Based Customer Information Policy
D) Video Based Company Identity Practice
As per RBI guidelines in respect of Video-CIP, the process will be a operated by a specially trained A
_________________for performing the V-CIP.
A) bank official
B) Business Correspondent (BC) official
C) outsourced technical official
In our Bank which number is used as UCIC? C
A) Unique Account number of customer
B) Unique Aadhar number of customer
C) Customer Information File (CIF)
D) Unique Customer Identification Code
Accounts opened on the basis of V-CIP or Video KYC are to be treated as _____________ . A
A) face to face
B) non face to face
Services of Business Correspondents (BCs) may be used for aiding the Video-CIP at ________________ end. B
A) bank
B) customer
Ms. Zia a Non-account holder has approached your branch to remit USD 200 to a foreign country as a fee for C
some application. The service Manager asks for identity documents from him, which she resists stating that she
is simply sending a fee, and she is not opening an account. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) There is no need for verification of the identity of Ms. Zia as the amount being remitted is very small.
B) The permission of the branch head is required to undertake this transaction without obtaining identity
documents.
C) It is necessary to verify the identity of the walk-in customers for all international money transfer operations,
irrespective of amount.
D) There is no need for verification of the identity of Ms. Zia as the amount being remitted is below Rs 20000.
A customer has submitted Aadhar number voluntarily, wants to provide current address different from the D
address contained in Aadhaar records, which of the following document will be obtained as a proof of current
address?
A) Letter from employer confirming his current address.
B) Rent deed/ agreement duly executed with the landlord.
C) Identity card issued by the employer which is a listed company.
D) Simply a self-declaration regarding current address may be obtained.
Which of the following document can be accepted by a bank, where Aadhaar letter/ card, voluntarily submitted D
by a person for opening an account, does not have current address?
A) Municipal Tax or Property Tax Receipt.
B) Utility Bill not older than two months.
Ongoing due diligence in respect of customers is ensured by way of ___________________ . B
A) customer due diligence
B) monitoring of transactions
C) enhanced due diligence
Can Aadhaar letter/card be accepted as an identity document to open an account from a customer? Which of C
the following statement is correct?
A) Supreme Court has categorically stated that Aadhar number cannot be accepted as an identity document to
open an account with a Regulated Entity (RE).
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B) Aadhar is not included in the list of Officially Valid Documents, hence cannot be accepted as an identity
document to open an account with a Regulated Entity (RE).
C) In case an individual voluntarily provides the Aadhaar number, it can be accepted as an identity document to
open an account with a Regulated Entity (RE).
D) Aadhar data base does not have the required information for opening an account hence in any case, it cannot
be accepted as an identity document to open an account with a Regulated Entity (RE).
Banks should have a policy duly approved ___________, for approving 'correspondent banking relationships'. B
A) by the vertical head
B) by the Board of the Bank
C) by the head of Business Unit
The Bank has put in place a suitable _____________ process to ensure that no person or entity opens an account C
with the Bank/Branch whose identity matches with any person or entity in the banned list circulated by RBI.
A) Customer Screening
B) List Screening
C) Name Screening
D) Negative Screening
Staff should not provide advice or other assistance to individuals who are indulging in _______________________ . A
A) money laundering activities
B) account opening activities
C) demat account opening activities
Small Account means a savings account in a banking company where: D
A) the balance at any point of time does not exceed rupees fifty thousand
B) the aggregate of all credits in a financial year does not exceed rupees one lac
C) the aggregate of all withdrawals and transfers in a month does not exceed rupees ten thousand
D) all of the above
Who has specified Know Your Customer Standards to be followed by banks? C
A) Government of India
B) State Bank of India
D) Private Banks
Ms C has instructed to transfer her account from branch 'A' to branch 'B'. The account is fully KYC compliant A
account. The officer at branch 'B' has asked her to submit the identity documents afresh, which she resisted. What
are the instructions regarding this?
A) If KYC verification has already been done for the concerned account and the same is not due for periodic
updation, the KYC verification done by 'A' branch will be valid for transfer of account to 'B' branch.
B) Even if KYC verification has already been done for an account, the KYC verification done by 'A' branch will not
be valid for transfer of account to 'B' branch.
C) If KYC verification has already been done for the concerned account and the same is not due for periodic
updation, the KYC verification done by 'A' branch will be valid for transfer of account to 'B' branch only if CIF is
also being transferred.
D) It is the discretion of the branch 'B' to accept or not, the KYC verification already done for the concerned
account by 'A' branch.
If the branch has doubt about authenticity / veracity or the adequacy of the previously obtained customer A
identification data, what is the periodicity for review of profile of Customer?
A) Whenever the branch has doubt about authenticity / veracity or the adequacy of the previously obtained
customer identification data.
B) Every 2 years for High Risk customers
C) Every 5 years for Medium Risk customers
D) Every 8 years for Low Risk customers
The core function of identifying and reporting of suspicious transaction by AML-CFT cell is delayed due to gaps D
in the information regarding –
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A) ‘occupation’ of the customer

B) ‘activity’ of the customer
C) ‘income’ / ‘annual turnover’ of the individual/ entity
Can a branch allow crediting foreign remittance in a 'small account'? B
A) If the sum of foreign remittance is quite small, Bank can allow to credit the amount in a small account, provided
the stipulated monthly and annual limits on aggregate of transactions and balance requirements are not
breached.
B) Foreign remittance can not be allowed to be credited into the account unless the identity of the customer is
fully established through the production of an OVD and PAN/ Form 60.
C) As the customer has already applied for an OVD, looking to his genuine intention to obtain an OVD, dealing
officer can allow to credit the foreign remittance in his account.
D) Foreign remittance is allowed to be credited into the account by RBI, provided the stipulated monthly and
annual limits on aggregate of transactions and balance requirements in such accounts are not breached.
Which of the following document, issued in the name of the firm, can NOT be accepted for CDD exercise in C
respect of the proprietorship concern?
A) Registration certificate (in the case of a registered concern).
B) Certificate of practice issued in the name of the proprietary concern by any professional body incorporated
under a statute.
C) Lease agreement entered with the lessor, in the name of the firm, which is duly notarized and stamped.
D) Utility bills such as electricity, water and landline telephone bills in the name of the proprietary concern.
All accounts opened through Video -CIP are made operational only after being subject to ____________________, to C
ensure the integrity of process.
A) Risk focused Internal Audit
B) RADAR
C) concurrent audit
D) Risk focused online Audit
As per RBI Guidelines on dealing in Virtual Currencies (VC) in India, which of the following statement is correct C
asper Customer Acceptance Policy (CAP)?
A) As per RBI Guidelines, Bank shall not deal in Virtual Currencies (VC) but can provide services for facilitating any
person or entity in dealing with or settling VCs.
B) After liberalisation Banks are allowed to deal in any currency including Virtual Currencies (VC).
C) As per RBI Guidelines, Bank shall not deal in Virtual Currencies (VC) or provide services for facilitating any
person or entity in dealing with or settling VCs.
D) As per RBI Guidelines, Banks are allowed to deal in few selective Virtual Currencies (VC) or provide services for
facilitating any person or entity in dealing with or settling VCs.
If minor is less than __________ of age, ID proof of the person who will operate the account is obtained. D
A) 12 years
B) 15 years
C) 18 years
D) 10 years
Will the small accounts also be subjected to transaction monitoring mechanism, and if there is any suspicion of C
money laundering or financing of terrorism activities or other high-risk scenarios attached to the transactions in
the account, what action will be taken by Bank/branch?
A) Looking to large number of small accounts in the Bank, small accounts have been kept out of purview for
transaction monitoring, as such no action is warranted on the part of bank/branch.
B) The transactions in the accounts are monitored and when there is suspicion of money laundering or financing
of terrorism activities or other high-risk scenarios, the bank/ branch issues a warning to the account holder to
desist from routing such transactions through the small account.
C) The transactions in the accounts are monitored and when there is suspicion of money laundering or financing
of terrorism activities or other high-risk scenarios, the bank/ branch asks the customer to establish identity
through production of any of the OVDs.
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D) The transactions in the accounts are not monitored as there is no chance of suspicion of money laundering or
financing of terrorism activities or other high-risk scenarios in such small accounts, as such no action is warranted
on the part of bank/ branch.
The KYC policy includes four key elements. Which of the following is the correct set of these four elements? A
A) Customer Acceptance Policy, Risk Management, Customer Identification Procedures (CIP), Monitoring of
Transactions.
B) Customer Acceptance Policy, Risk Categorisation, Customer Identification Procedures (CIP), Monitoring of
Transactions.
C) Customer Acceptance Policy, Risk Management, Customer Due Diligence, Monitoring of Transactions.
D) Customer Acceptance Policy, Risk Categorisation, Customer Due Diligence, Monitoring of Transactions
The Customer Acceptance Policy (CAP) section of the Bank’s KYC Policy, lays down the criteria for acceptance of C
a person as a customer of the bank. Which of the following statement is not correct in respect of CAP?
A) No account is opened in anonymous or fictitious/ benami name.
B) No account is opened where the Branch/ Business unit is unable to apply appropriate CDD measures, either
due to non-cooperation of the customer or non-reliability of the documents/ information furnished by the
customer.
C) An account may be opened in anonymous or fictitious/ benami name but it must be ensured that identity of
customer does not match with any person or entity whose name appears in the sanction’s lists circulated by RBI.
D) It should be ensured that identity of customer does not match with any person or entity whose name appears
in the sanction’s lists circulated by Reserve Bank of India.
In case an OVD, other than Aadhar card, furnished by the customer does not have updated address, which of the A
following documents shall be ‘deemed to be OVD’ for the limited purpose of proof of current address?
A) Utility bill which is not more than two months old of any service provider (electricity, telephone, post-paid
mobile phone, piped gas, water bill);
B) Rent agreement executed with the Landlord.
C) EPF number provided by employer
D) Lease deed in respect of accommodation provided by any employer
What can be the solution to such situation where Aadhaar letter/card, submitted by a person for opening an D
account, does not have current address?
A) Account cannot be opened until current address is updated in Aadhar database.
B) Account can be opened with the address mentioned in the Aadhar letter, without bothering for current address.
C) Account can be opened only at the city/ town mentioned in Aadhar card.
D) Account can be opened by obtaining a self-declaration from the customer regarding current address.
What is expected from branches while opening accounts of Politically exposed Persons (PEPs)? D
A) Branches should gather sufficient information on any person/ customer of PEP category.
B) Branches should verify the identity of the PEP and seek information about the sources of funds before
accepting the PEP as a customer.
C) Accounts of PEPs should be subjected to enhanced monitoring on an ongoing basis.
D) All the above options are correct.
Who is a ?Non face to face? customer for bank? B
A) A customer who executes all his transactions through Net-Banking and rarely visits his home branch.
B) A customer with whom the Branch or any branch official has no direct interaction at the time of opening of
account.
C) When a customer is a legal person.
D) A customer entering branch premises with face covered with mask
Why are accounts of Politically exposed Persons (PEPs) and their relatives categorised in High Risk? D
A) PEPs enjoy special status politically, within their country of origin, and also diplomatically in the country where
they are acting.
B) Traditionally a certain amount of confidentiality/ discretion is provided by financial institutions, to the financial
activities carried out by PEPs.
C) In case a PEP receives illegitimate gratification, he/ she may try to launder illegitimate funds through accounts
maintained with banks using his clout.
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D) For all these reasons stated in these options, accounts of PEPs and for the same reason accounts of relatives/
associates of PEPs are categorised in High Risk Category.
Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD) is required to be exercised in respect of what type of customers- D
A) Politically exposed Persons (PEPs)
B) Relatives and associates of PEPs
C) All customers categorized under high risk
D) All of the Above
Who are considered as Politically exposed Persons (PEPs)? D
A) Politically exposed persons are only those individuals who are or have been entrusted in past with prominent
public function in a foreign country.
B) Politically exposed persons are only those individuals who are senior politicians, senior government/judicial/
military officers, senior executives of state-owned corporations.
C) Politically exposed persons are only those individuals who are important political party officials.
D) Politically exposed persons are all those individuals who are or have been entrusted in past with prominent
public function in a foreign country, e.g., Heads of States or of Governments, senior politicians, senior
government/judicial/ military officers, senior executives of state-owned corporations, important political party
officials, etc.
A small account can remain operational initially for a period of twelve months which can be extended for a further B
period of twelve months ?. What are the conditions that are to be fulfilled for such extension?
A) Provided the account holder has crossed the stipulated monthly and annual limits on aggregate of transactions
and balance requirements in such account during the period of first twelve months.
B) Provided the account holder applies for any of the OVDs and furnishes evidence of having applied for any of
the OVDs during the period of first twelve months of the opening of the said account.
C) Provided the account holder applies at the Home Branch at the end of period of twelve years giving sufficient
reasons for not having been able to apply for any of the OVDs.
D) Provided the account holder applies for any of the OVDs and furnishes the evidence of having applied for any
of the OVDs, at the end of period of twenty-four months from the date of opening of the said account.
For opening an account in the name of a sole proprietary firm, CDD of the individual (proprietor) is carried out. D
In addition to this, the bank should obtain two documents or the equivalent documents thereof as proof of
business/activity in the name of the proprietary firm. Which of the following documents will NOT be accepted for
the purpose, in the name of the firm?
A) CST/VAT/ GST certificate (provisional/final) in the name of the firm.
B) IEC (Importer Exporter Code) issued to the proprietary concern by the office of DGFT or Licence/certificate of
practice issued in the name of the proprietary concern by any professional body incorporated under a statute.
C) Utility bills such as electricity, water, landline telephone bills, etc in the name of the firm.
D) Duly notarised, Lease or Rent agreement in the name of the firm.
Branches may exercise enhanced due diligence at the time of opening accounts by intermediaries such as C
guardians of estates, executors, administrators, assignees, receivers etc.
A) customer due diligence
B) normal due diligence
C) enhanced due diligence
D) None of the above options is correct
Central KYC Records Registry assigns a unique number or code after filing of Customer?s KYC data to every B
customer which is known as ?Know Your Client (KYC) Identifier?
A) False
B) TRUE
What is meant by ?Contact Point Verification? in respect of CDD of a Proprietorship concern? C
A) Obtaining introduction from another firm preferably dealing in the same business, in case the firm is not able
to provide two documents in the name of the firm at the time of onboarding.
B) Obtaining names of two references with address and contact numbers, in case the firm is not able to provide
two documents in the name of the firm at the time of onboarding.
C) Collecting such information as would be required to establish the existence of such firm, and physically
verifying the address and activity of the firm at the time of onboarding.
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D) Collecting such information as would be required to establish the existence and activity of the firm, in case the
firm is not able to provide two documents in the name of the firm at the time of onboarding.
While opening current account of a proprietorship firm, is it necessary to ask for two documents in the name of C
the firm, especially when the proprietor has already submitted PAN number and Aadhar number to the
satisfaction of the bank?
A) If the proprietor has already submitted PAN number and Aadhar number and the same have been verified to
the satisfaction of the bank, there is no need to ask for any document in the name of firm.
B) The proprietorship firm and the proprietor are one and the same persons for taxation and other legal purposes,
hence customer due diligence undertaken for the proprietor is sufficient, no need to ask for any document in the
name of firm.
C) Customer due diligence exercise, at the time of onboarding, is not complete unless it is undertaken for the
proprietor as well as the proprietorship firm.
D) It is discretion of the dealing officer, he can waive the requirement of obtention of any document in the name
of the firm, in case the proprietor is already having his satisfactorily conducted individual account with the bank.
If minor is less than __________ of age, ID proof of the person who will operate the account is obtained. D
A) 12 years
B) 15 years
C) 18 years
D) 10 years
The Prevention of Money Laundering Act and Rules notified thereunder impose certain obligation on all D
Reporting Entities (REs) to _______________________ .
A) verify identity of clients
B) maintain records
C) and furnish information in prescribed form to Financial Intelligence Unit - India (FIU-IND)
What is the act of 'Tipping Off' ? A
A) The act of letting the customers know, that their transactions/accounts are under suspicion and may be subject
to reporting, is referred to as tipping off.
B) The act of giving money as tip/incentive to money mules.
C) The act of collecting information on suspected Transactions.
D) None of the Above
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IS & Cyber Security (L0922)

What is anti-malware? C
A) A bigger and more dangerous virus
B) Software used to duplicate viruses
C) Computer software used to prevent, detect and remove malicious software
D) A biological agent that reproduces itself inside the cells of living things
Social Engineering is B
A) Hacking the system by exploiting technical vulnerabilities of the network
B) Attacking or penetrating a system by employing confidence tricks on users, rather than by means of a
technical attack.
C) Attack on the Social Networking sites
D) None of these
Which kind of malware restricts users from accessing their system or certain critical files, until a demanded sumis B
paid?
A) Trojan Horse
B) Ransomware
C) Worm
D) Adware
Which of the following is not recommended as per Bank`s password security policy? B
A) Password should be changed at least once in 90 days.
B) Password should be kept in written copy to remember.
C) Users should ensure that nobody is watching when they are entering password into the system.
D) Strong password should be used with combination of special characters, numbers and alphabets.
As per Bank's Cyber Crisis Management Plan what is the definition of cyber space C
A) The interaction of people, software and services on the Bank’s Intranet by means of technology devices and
networks connected to it
B) The interaction of people, software and services on the Internet by means of technology devices and networks
connected to it
C) The interaction of people, software and services on the Intranet and Internet by means of technology devices
and networks connected to it
D) Cyber space not defined by Bank's Cyber Crisis Management Plan
Which of the following is not best practice when we speak about endpoint security C
A) Desktop should be in Active Directory
B) Desktop should have NAC implemented
C) Desktop may have unapproved software running (in contingencies)
D) Desktop must have updated Anti-virus software
Emails that are -------- should be used for critical transactions requiring legal authentication of sender. A
A) Digitally signed
B) Encrypted
C) Hashed
D) None of these are true.
What type of social engineering is this? You receive an E-mail from some unknown person claiming to be C
representative of your bank and asking for your account number and password so that they can fix your account.
A) Shoulder Surfing
B) Mountaineering
C) Phishing
D) Trekking
Clear desk and clear screen policy reduce the risks of D
A) unauthorized access, loss of and damage to information during and outside normal working hours
B) unauthorized access, loss of and damage to information during working hours only
C) ensure protection of unauthorized access to sensitive data.
D) both 1 & 3
What is Spyware? D
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A) Spyware is a type of malware installed on computers that collects information about users without their
knowledge
B) The presence of spyware is typically hidden from the user and can be difficult to detect
C) Spyware programs lurk on your computer to steal important information, like your passwords and loginsand
other personal identification information and then send it off to someone else
D) All options are correct
As per Bank's Cyber Crisis Management Plan what is the definition of cyber space C
A) The interaction of people, software and services on the Bank’s Intranet by means of technology devices and
networks connected to it
B) The interaction of people, software and services on the Internet by means of technology devices andnetworks
connected to it
C) The interaction of people, software and services on the Intranet and Internet by means of technologydevices
and networks connected to it
D) Cyber space not defined by Bank's Cyber Crisis Management Plan
An effective data protection strategy can helps in preventing D
A) data loss
B) data errors
C) data corruption
D) both 1&3
As per Limitation on Personal Data Collection and Use which of the following statement is NOT correct B
A) The consent of the individuals needs to be obtained before collection and storing of data related to them
B) Organisation need to provide monetary compensation to the individuals whose personal data has been
captured
C) The information gathered should be on need-based
D) The data collected should be used for the legitimate purpose for which it was agreed upon
Which of the following is an addition in CIA security triad? B
A) Non-Repetition
B) Non-Repudiation
C) Repudiation
D) Replication
Which standard of BIS dealt with Data Privacy Principles A
A) IS 17428
B) IS 14728
C) BIS not dealt with Data Privacy Principles
D) IS 41728
Which of the following is not an example of social engineering? C
A) Dumpster diving
B) Shoulder surfing
C) Carding
D) Spear phishing
IT Act of India applicable to A
A) whole of India (including the State of Jammu & Kashmir)
B) whole of India (excluding the State of Jammu & Kashmir)
C) It is exclusive for BFSI sector
As a safety precaution, all mails and files received from external sources should be opened and read. A
A) No, mails from only known and trusted sources should be selected.
B) Yes, if you have the time
C) Yes, it is mandatory
D) No, all mails should be downloaded before reading
Which is a special form of attack using which hackers' exploit human psychology? C
A) Cross Site Scripting
B) Insecure network
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C) Social Engineering
D) Reverse Engineering
While leaving for the day the users should D
A) Save the ongoing work in their desktop
B) Close all the applications in the desktop
C) Shut down the desktop
D) Save the ongoing work, Close all the applications and Shut down the desktop
As per Bank's Information classification policy Manuals, SOP documents should be categorised as D
A) Public
B) Secret
C) Confidential
D) Internal
Which of the following is NOT correct, if you have to share your mobile handset or send it for maintenance D
A) Clear the browsing history
B) Do not allow others to access your mobile phones before logging out from sites
C) Remove the temporary files and the cache file from your handset
D) Do not share your mobile handset at any cost
Loss of portable device should be reported immediately to ______ C
A) The Local Police.
B) To the Appropriate Authority.
C) To Both local police and to the appropriate authority.
D) No need to report to anyone.
What is APT? C
A) Advanced personal Threat
B) Advanced personal Test
C) Advanced Persistent Threat
D) Alive personal Threat
Which of the following is not a common source of precursor or indicator? D
A) Alerts: from intrusion detection and prevention system, SIEM, anti-virus etc.
B) Publicly available information: information on new vulnerabilities and exploits
C) People: internal (e.g. users, system administrators, network administrators, security staff and external
users)
D) Authorized access on server
Which form of social engineering targets specific organization or group? C
A) Vishing
B) Phishing
C) Spear Phishing
D) Pharming
Ensuring the accessibility of the data required to perform business even when this data is lost or damaged, is B
known as
A) Data Availability
B) Data Archival
C) Data leak prevention
Which section of IT Act covers Identity Theft? B
A) Section 65A
B) Section 66C
C) Section 62
D) Section 70
Which of the following policy tells that "Users should archive important emails for record purposes in their device B
or other media"
A) Microsoft email policy
B) Policy Regarding Usage of Communication Media
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C) Cyber policy
D) No policy speaks about email related aspects
As per Bank's Information classification policy Customer Information will be classified as D
A) Internal
B) Public
C) Secret
D) Confidential
The organisation must take into consideration of various factors while developing the privacy policy of the C
organisation regarding the data collected or processed. Which one of the following need not be considered?
A) Jurisdiction
B) Statutory obligations,
C) GDPR
D) Business requirements
Whether Branches/offices of the bank are allowed to connect their intranet systems directly to the internet B
through a modem or through wi-fi?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Yes, but only on 2 days in a week.
D) Yes, but only on Sundays
"Data must be adequate, relevant and limited to what is necessary in relation to the purposes for which they are B
processed.” - Which GDPR principle will suggest this?
A) Storage limitation
B) Data minimisation
C) Purpose limitation
D) Accuracy
Which section of IT act provides Indian CERT ? In to serve as national agency for performing functions for cyber A
security incidents?
A) Section 70B
B) Section 67
C) Section 65
D) Section 72
In which year Indian Data Protection law enacted C
A) 2021
B) 2019
C) Not yet enacted
D) 2008
Whether a user should disrupt the auto virus scan on their desktop? B
A) Yes
B) No
C) Yes, if it slows down system performance and inform System Official
D) Yes, on vendors recommendation
In the event of a stolen or lost official laptop/device, the concerned staff should C
A) File a complaint with the police
B) Notify his /her manager immediately.
C) Both 1 &2
D) No immediate action required
As per Indian IT act punishment for dishonestly receives or retains any stolen device shall be A
A) Maximum three years imprisonment or maximum fine of rupees one lakh or with both.
B) Maximum two years imprisonment or maximum fine of rupees one lakh or with both.
C) Either two years imprisonment or maximum fine of rupees one lakh
D) It is not an offence as per said IT Act
which of the following defines "who has access to data" B
A) Data Protection
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B) Data Privacy
C) Data authentication
D) DLP
Which of the following is not the objective of DLP system C
A) Personal Information Protection
B) Data Visibility
C) Storing of sensitive data in encrypted format
D) Intellectual Property Protection
Key Influencer(s) for Information Security D
A) Increase in financial data losses including card data
B) Unauthorized access to bank’s network and systems
C) Loss of personally identifiable information etc.
D) All the above
Personal data must be accurate and kept up to date. It’s important that old data must be securely disposed of A
immediately - Which GDPR principle will suggest this?
A) Accuracy
C) Accountability
D) Storage limitation
Bureau of India Standards (BIS) introduced data privacy assurance standard in the year C
A) 2020
B) 2019
C) 2021
D) There is no such standard
"Organisations must have a specific and legitimate reason for collecting and processing personal information"- C
Which GDPR principle suggests this?
A) Accuracy
C) Purpose limitation
D) Accountability
Section 66B of the IT Act relates to A
A) Stolen device
B) Data theft
C) Intellectual property theft
D) there is no such section in IT Act
Whether Branches/offices of the Bank can connect directly to internet by connecting modem to the systems B
connected to intranet?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Yes, but only on 2 days in a week.
D) Yes, but only on Sundays
Data protection strategy of an organisation will ensure D
A) data collection
B) data storing
C) data handling
D) All the above
Whether users can share the folders in their desktop with other users in the Bank's network C
A) Yes
B) No
C) Yes, if specifically, authorized
D) There is no specific instruction from the Bank
Which of the following is an example of a 'phishing' attack? D
A) Sending someone an email that contains a malicious link that is disguised to look like an email from
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someone the person knows

B) Creating a fake website that looks nearly identical to a real website in order to trick users into entering their
login information
C) Sending someone a text message that contains a malicious link that is disguised to look like a notification
that the person has won a contest
D) All of these are phishing attacks
Which of the following is related to password cracking D
A) APT
B) MITM
C) DOS
D) Brute Force
General Data Protection Regulation law was passed in the year C
A) 2008
B) 2019
C) 2018
D) 1998
IT Act was enacted to provide legal recognition for B
A) Physical bank transactions
B) e-commerce transactions
C) Stock market operations only
D) Financial transactions only
To whom user should report the virus detected and not cleaned by antivirus? C
A) Colleague
B) Keep with yourself
C) Authorized contact persons
D) Vendor
Which section of IT Act provides Indian CERT-In to serve as a national agency for performing functions for A
cybersecurity incidents?
A) Section 70B
B) Section 67
C) Section 65
D) Section 72
Integrity aims B
A) to ensure the protection of the secrecy of data, objects, or resources
B) to protect the reliability, uniformity and correctness of information
C) authorized subjects are granted uninterrupted access to objects
D) assurance to the recipient that the creator or sender cannot deny the validity of ownership of the
communication
What is the penalty for breach of Confidentiality and Privacy as per the Indian IT act? C
A) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to 2 years.
B) Fine which may extend to 1 lakh rupees
C) Fine which may extend to 1 lakh rupees and Imprisonment for a term which may extend to 2 years.
D) None
Choose odd one, if we speak about losses due to cyber attacks C
A) Reputational Loss
B) Financial Loss
C) loss of human intelligence
D) Loss of critical data
Which of the following is not a major challenge faced by banks to strengthen cyber security posture? D
A) Strict Compliance Regulations
B) Third Party Risk
C) Evolving Cyber Threat Landscape
D) More resources are required
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User should mark the email as ------------ in the subject line of the email containing secret or confidential B
information.
A) Secret
B) Confidential
C) Secret and Confidential.
D) Private and Confidential.
As per Bank's Information classification policy employee contact details should be categorised as B
A) Public
B) Internal
C) Confidential
D) Secret
A prominent data protection and privacy law of European Union is B
A) General Data Protection Rules
B) General Data Protection Regulation
C) General Data Privacy Regulation
When a cyber incident is not considered Cyber Crisis for organization? D
A) The IT resource is threatened or attacked or compromised.
B) The IT resource is accessed/monitored/modified without authorisation.
C) The IT resource is used in a manner inconsistent with the established organization/regulatory policy
resulting in a real or possible loss of confidentiality, integrity or availability of the IT resource or information
D) Employee personal mail account is hacked
What is penalty for breach of Confidentiality and Privacy as per IT act? C
A) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to 2 years.
B) Fine which may extend to 1 lakh rupees
C) Fine which may extend to 1 lakh rupees and Imprisonment for a term which may extend to 2 years.
D) None
Which kind of malware is a software that restricts users from accessing their system or certain files until aransom B
is paid?
A) Trojan Horse
B) Ransomware
C) Worm
D) Adware
What does the "https://" at the beginning of a URL denote, as opposed to "http://" (without the 's')? B
A) That the site has special high definition
B) That information entered into the site is encrypted
C) That the site is the newest version available
D) That the site is not accessible to certain computers
Which of the following statements is True? D
A) Users may enter the password into the system while other staff members watching .
B) Users may ask others (including customers and colleagues) for their passwords for ease of operation.
C) User may keep a written copy (in paper or electronic form) of password in easily locatable places for easy
remembering.
D) Users should not share their passwords with anyone including colleagues and IT staff.
Goal of Integrity is: B
A) to ensure the protection of the secrecy of data, objects, or resources
B) to protect the reliability, uniformity and correctness of information
C) authorized subjects are granted uninterrupted access to objects
D) assurance to the recipient that the creator or sender cannot deny the validity of ownership of the
communication
Which of the following is a proper use of email? A
A) Never email personal information
B) Send out pricelists for your home-based business products
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C) Forward inspirational and humorous emails to your co-workers to brighten their day
D) Send an email to all your friends and co-workers to advertise a job opening in your area
Which section in IT Act deals with obscenity as offence in electronic form? D
A) Section 62
B) Section 65
C) Section 72
D) Section 67
Which of the below is an addition in CIA security triad? B
A) Non-Repetition
B) Non-Repudiation
C) Repudiation
D) Replication
Which is the most appropriate method to prevent unauthorized access to your desktop if you are leaving your A
work station for a short duration?
A) Lock the desktop using Windows key + L
B) Cover the workstation with some object
C) Lock the system with iron chain and lock
D) Shut down the desktop
What is an antivirus? C
A) A bigger and more dangerous virus
B) Software used to duplicate viruses
C) Computer software used to prevent, detect and remove malicious software
D) A biological agent that reproduces itself inside the cells of living things
Which of the below is not best practice for desktops? C
A) Desktop should be in Active Directory
B) Desktop should have NAC implemented
C) Desktop may have unapproved software running
D) Desktop must have updated Anti-virus software
Which of the following attacks is conducted by targeting user`s password? D
A) APT
B) MITM
C) DOS
D) Brute Force
Which of the following is NOT correct about PIN D
A) Avoid choosing PIN that are obvious, that is birthdays , telephone numbers, part of account numbers etc
B) Always choose unique PIN numbers and destroy the PIN mailer after memorizing or changing the PIN after
first usage
C) Do not disclose your ATM PIN to anybody, not even to a Bank employee.
D) Your PIN should be 6-digit number
If the personal data is no longer needed for which it was attained, it should be deleted or destroyed unless there D
isa reason for retaining it. Which GDPR principle will suggest this?
A) Data minimisation
B) Purpose limitation
C) Accountability
D) Storage limitation
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Sustainability (L0923)
The ______ oversees the Bank's overall Environmental and Social performance. B
A) Chairman
B) DMD (HR) & CDO
C) MD (R&DB)
D) CGM, HR
The Bank's __________ reviews the activities undertaken by Bank under CSR policy D
A) MD
B) DMD(HR) & CDO
C) Chairman
D) Corporate Social Responsibility Committee
Across the Bank, risks are monitored and reviewed by ______________ D
A) MD
B) DMD(HR) & CDO
C) Chairman
D) Executive Committee and Risk Management Committee of the Board
Sustainability and Business Responsibility Policy envisages putting in place a set of guidelines governing A
mechanism and structure of Bank’s Sustainability and Business Responsibility framework. The policy has been
approved by which authority?
A) Bank’s Central Board
B) Executive Committee of Central Board
C) Corporate Centre Sustainability Committee
D) Corporate Centre Credit Committee
The _______ is responsible for executing the Bank's Sustainability and Business Responsibility D
A) Committee on Sustainability
B) Board of the Bank
C) Chairman
D) Corporate Centre Sustainability Committee(CCSC)
When did SDGs come in to effect ? B
A) 1st January, 2015
B) 1st January, 2016
C) 1st January, 2017
D) 1st January,2018
Wants are ___ but the needs are ____ B
A) limited , unlimited
B) unlimited, limited
C) limited, limited
D) unlimited, unlimited
The Score achieved under SDG by each member country is shown between_____ A
A) 0 to 100
B) 0 to 50
C) 20 to 100
D) 0 to 1000
Social Accounting helps to measure _________ C
A) organization's profits alone
B) organization's loss alone
C) impact of organization's activities on its stakeholders
D) burden on stakeholders
Social Accounting aims at _________ B
A) deception
B) transparency
C) negative impact
D) manipulation
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Social accounting facilitates transparency for ________ D

A) Society
B) Politics
C) Customers
D) Both 1 & 3
Which of the following action by Government will NOT help in achieving Sustainable Development Goals ? D
A) Opening of Jan Dhan Account
B) Mid-Day Meal Programme
C) Job creation through MGNREGA
D) Chaar-Dham Yatra Scheme
Business should _____________ & ______ human rights B
A) harm & harass
B) respect & promote
C) try & err
D) disrespect & demote
Business should promote _____ growth and equitable development A
A) inclusive
B) exclusive
C) both 1 & 2
By using our right to vote and selecting a leader, which of the SDGs will be achieved ? D
A) SDG-17- Revitalise the Global partnership for sustainable development.
B) SDG-11- Sustainable Cities and Communities
C) SDG-10- Reduce inequality within and among country
D) SDG-16- Promote just, peaceful and inclusive society
which of the following product has been designed by SBI has in partnership of World Bank and UN Women? B
A) Shri Shakti Loan
B) Stree Shakti Entrepreneur Loan
C) Stree Shakti help loan
D) Stree power loan
Which of the following products of our bank is not mapped with Sustainable Development Goals? D
A) SBI e Mudra
B) E-Rickshaw Scheme
C) Home Loan
D) Pension Loan
The Economic pillar of Sustainability involves in C
A) investment in power
B) investment in profits
C) investment in technology
D) investment in passion
Earth Hour is a worldwide movement organized by the World Wide Fund (WWF) encouraging individuals, D
communities, and businesses to turn off non-essential electric lights, for one hour, from 8:30 pm to 9:30 p.m. On
which Saturday of March it is held?
A) First Saturday
B) Second Saturday
C) Third Saturday
D) Last Saturday
The Human Development Index recognized the fact that the progress was not on __________ alone but also on______ D
A) political power, Human power
B) Human development, Economic development
C) Human power, Political power
D) Economic development, Human development
The Environmental pillar of Sustainability maintains the balance of _______ C
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A) People, profit & power

B) power systems
C) ecosystems
D) All the above
The Environmental pillar of Sustainability reduces________ on the environment B
A) luxury
B) burden
C) happiness
D) love
The annual Business Responsibility Report is prepared based on __________ A
A) 9 principles of NVG
B) 11 principles of NVG
C) 15 principles of NVG
D) 12 principles of NVG
CSR is based on the compliance of regulations of C
A) Banking Act
B) Industries Act
C) Companies Act
D) Properties Act
___ is the Social focus area in implementing Sustainability in Bank A
A) Promoting Human rights
B) Promoting gender inequality
C) Promoting stereotypes
D) Promoting inhuman rights
___ is the Social focus area in implementing Sustainability in Bank B
A) Promoting gender inequality
B) Promoting Ethical business practices
C) Promoting inhuman rights
D) Promoting stereotypes
CSR is _____ in nature whereas Sustainability has ______ B
A) primary, short term goals
B) short term, Long term goals
C) long term, short term
D) Both 1 & 3
Sustainability operates on A
A) 3 pillars
B) 4 pillars
C) 6 pillars
D) 12 pillars
The pillar/s of Sustainability are D
A) Social
B) Environmental
C) Economic
D) All the above
The companies realized that value creation is based on A
A) 6 capitals
B) 8 capitals
C) 10 capitals
D) 12 capitals
If any State or UT is categorised as "Front Runner " then the score under SDG India Index obtained by them is in A
between _____
A) 65-99
B) 0-49
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C) 50-64
D) 100
Bank has established a Trust - "SBI Children Welfare Fund" in 1983. Who funds this trust ? C
A) By recovering one day's salary in a year from employees
B) Out of net profits of SBI
C) By voluntary contribution from the staff
D) Out of dividend paid to the Government
Our Bank has established which of the following Funds using voluntary contribution from Bank’s staff to support A
welfare of underprivileged and orphaned children?
A) SBI Children’s Welfare Fund
B) SBI Green Fund
C) SBI COVID Relief Fund
D) SBI Child Care Fund
Which of the following is NOT true about SDGs? D
A) The SDGs are urgent call to be achieved by developed as well as developing countries.
B) The SDGs had been adopted by all 193 UNGA countries
C) The SDGs are the goals set to be achieved by 2030
D) The SDGs are legally binding international treaty.
The policy against Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace act is introduced in C
A) 2014
B) 2012
C) 2013
D) 2010
____ mandated the listed companies to prepare annual Business Responsibility Report C
A) IRDAI
B) PFRDA
C) SEBI
D) LIC
On the basis of SDG India Index, States and UTs are categorised under how many categories ? C
A) 6
B) 3
C) 4
D) 8
___ is not the Environmental focus area in implementing Sustainability in Bank C
A) Solar ATMS
B) LED lighting
C) increase in carbon footprint
D) waste management
___ is not the Environmental focus area in implementing Sustainability in Bank D
A) Solar ATMS
B) LED lighting
C) Reducing water consumption
D) increase in paper consumption
What is SDG-4 ? B
A) Education to All
B) Quality Education
C) Right to education
D) Girl child education
For achieving Sustainable Development Goal-1, that is "end poverty from all its forms", what are we expected to B
do?
A) Consume less
B) Donate what we don?t use to others who can use
C) Share earnings
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D) Never demand for extra

CSR & Sustainability are ___ but not ___- A
A) related, interchangeable
B) interchangeable, related
C) unrelated, interchangeable
D) interchangeable, unrelated
Sustainability is a global initiative and involves ___________ D
A) only head of the organization
B) Heads of the verticals
C) Heads of the circles
D) every stakeholder of the organization
The 2030 agenda for Sustainable Development was adopted by all members of ____ A
A) United Nation General Assembly
B) World Bank
C) International Monetary Fund
D) International Court of Justice
For achieving Sustainable Development ,______ Sustainable Development Goals are set. C
A) 15
B) 16
C) 17
D) 18
Business should be conducted with integrity which is _________ C
A) Ethical
B) Transparent
C) both 1 & 2
Whistle Blower policy is governed by directives of A
A) RBI U/S 35A of BR ACT
B) RBI U/S 36A of BR ACT
C) RBI U/S 39A of BR ACT
D) RBI U/S 45A of BR ACT
The Bank's framework is developed to make Sustainability a part of organization's _________ A
A) journey and growth
B) profits
C) sales
D) business
________ helpline offers consular support D
A) sahajeevini
B) samjouta
C) samyukta
D) sanjeevani
Our priority is to ensure sustainable business in __________ B
A) short run
B) long run
C) reduction of resources
D) all of the above
What is " Gift Hope, Gift Life " Project ? B
A) It is related to Blood donation
B) It is related to Organ donation
C) It is related to Plasma donation
D) It is related to artificial limb donation
The Social pillar of Sustainability focuses on A
A) Gender equality
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B) Gender inequality
C) eradicating power
D) eradicating passion
The Social pillar of Sustainability guarantees B
A) inhuman rights
B) human rights
C) immortal rights
D) human privileges
The Bank's code of Ethics is applicable to D
A) employees
B) service providers
C) suppliers
D) all the above
Through the Sustainability report, Bank is communicating with all its D
A) Employees
B) Customers
C) Regulators
D) All of the above
The three pillars of Sustainability are referred to as C
A) People, profit & power
B) Politics, profit & power
C) People, profit & planet
D) People, profit & power
___ is not the Social focus area in implementing Sustainability in Bank B
A) Enhancing Financial inclusion
B) reducing financial inclusion
C) Promoting Human rights
D) Promoting Ethical business practices
To encourage, financial independence in women, our Bank provides ROI concession. By so, Bank satisfies which A
off the SDGs?
A) SDG-5, Gender Equality
B) SDG-1, No Poverty
C) SDG-8, Decent work & Economic Growth
D) SDG-11, Sustainable Cities and Communities
State Bank of India has been reporting its Sustainability Development from________ D
A) 2018-19
B) 2017-18
C) 2016-17
D) 2015-16
Bank spends more than the stipulated ____ % of total CSR expenditure on environment related projects. D
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
SBI adheres to ___________ C
A) BASEL I norms
B) BASEL II norms
C) BASEL III norms
SBI Car Loan helps in achieving some SDGs. Which of the following SD goal is not achieved by disbursing SBI Car D
Loan ?
A) SDG-5 Gender Equality
B) SDG-13- Climate Action
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C) SDG-11- Sustainable Cities and Communities

D) SDG-1- End Poverty everywhere in all forms
When Daan Utsav is observed ? D
A) 1st to 7th September every year
B) 1st to 7th October every year
C) 2nd to 8th September every year
D) 2nd to 8th October every year
"Each one Teach one " will help achieving which of the following Sustainable Development Goal ? B
A) Ensure healthy lives and promote well being for all
B) Quality Education
C) Reduce inequality within and among countries
D) Promote just, peaceful and inclusive society
The UN defines Sustainability as A
A) meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of the future generations to meet their
own needs
B) meeting the needs of the present by compromising the ability of the future generations to meet their own
needs
C) meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of the present generation to meet their
own needs
D) meeting the needs of the present by compromising the ability of the present generation to meet their own
needs
Sustainable development means (i) development that meets the needs of the present (ii) without compromising C
the ability of future generations to meet their own need (iii) without thinking for saving the resources for the
upcoming generation
A) Only statement (i) is correct
B) Only statement (ii) is correct
C) Only statement (i) and (ii) are correct
D) Only statement (i) and (iii) are correct
If we use electrical appliances with 5 star rating, which of the SDGs will be achieved? B
A) SDG-11- Sustainable Cities and Communities
B) SDG-7- Affordable and clean energy
C) SDG-8- Decent work and Economic Growth
D) SDG-1- End Poverty everywhere in all forms
In order to implement environment best practices, Bank established_______ A
A) Wind Mills
B) Sugar Mills
C) Rice Mills
D) Cotton Mills
Our Bank is associated with many organizations to drive the _________ agenda. D
A) risk
B) operations
C) non-renewable energy
D) renewable energy
Which of the following action is NOT helpful in achieving goals of Sustainable Development ? D
A) YONO App
B) Education Loan
C) Green Channel
D) Cash Withdrawal at Cash Counter
There was negative impact of Covid-19 on achievement of SDGs. Which of the following SDG had positive impact C
of Covid-19?
A) Ensure sustainable consumption and production pattern
B) Ensure access to water and sanitation for all
C) Take urgent action to combat climate change and its impact
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D) Decent work and economic growth

Which agency has been entrusted with the responsibility of co-ordination for achievement of Sustainable A
Development Goals?
A) NITI Aayog
B) MHA
C) Finance Ministry
D) PMO
World Soil Day (WSD) is held annually to focus attention on the importance of healthy soil and to advocate for A
the sustainable management of soil resources. When is World Soil Day being observed annually by Food and
Agricultural Organisation, United Nations worldwide?
A) 05th December
B) 10th December
C) 5th January
D) 10th January
There are 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and each Goal has a set of targets. Total number of targets C
set for all SDGs are________
A) 167
B) 168
C) 169
D) 170
Through Garima -POSH, which of the following SDG will be achieved? A
A) SDG-5 -Gender Equality
B) SDG-4-Quality Education
C) SDG-10- Reduce inequality within and among countries
D) SDG-16- Promote just, peaceful and inclusive society
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SBI officers Conduct Rules (L0437)

As per OSR gift from a near relative of value exceeding Rs ________ has to be reported to competent authority C
A) Rs 500/-
B) Rs 1000/-
C) Rs 1500/-
D) Rs 2000/-
As per OSR rule 51(1), The official should also ensure that he is not acting against the interests of______, while B
doing honorary work.
A) the Branch
B) the Bank
C) public
D) customer
A women officer may be granted special leave up to a period of__________ if recommendations for such grant of C
special leave are received from the Internal Committee (IC) under section 12(1) of the Sexual Harassment of
Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013.
A) six months
B) two months
C) three months
D) nine months
In performance of his official duties, an officer has to act in his best judgment except when D
A) The interests of his staff members is adversely affected
B) His principles and personal values so dictate
C) He is under the influence of intoxicating drinks
D) He is instructed otherwise by his superior officer
As per OSR rule, when the official receives more than one gift from the same or different persons /entities A
within a period of 12 months, the matter shall be reported to the competent authority if the aggregate value of
all such gifts exceeds________ in the case of officers TEGS-VI &above.
A) 25,000/
B) 15,000/-
C) Rs 10000/-
D) Rs 7500/-
Miss Radhika, an officer of the Bank, has been asked by his neighbours in her apartments to take up the post of D
Secretary of the cooperative society of Flat owners, without any remuneration. If she wants to accept the
same,___________.
A) She should obtain prior permission from his controller
B) She should give prior information to his controller
C) She should give an undertaking to the Bank that his official duties will not suffer
D) She can take up the position without referring to the Bank
If an officer wants to involve in any transaction in immovable property, A
A) He has to give prior intimation to the Bank
B) He should route his application through proper channel in the Bank
C) He has to obtain prior permission from the Bank
D) He need not inform the Bank
___ shall take appropriate steps to prevent sexual harassment to any woman at such work place. B
A) Branch Manager
B) Every officer who is in-charge of a work place
C) Regional Manager
D) Nodal Officer
As per OSR rule ____No officer shall abuse or fail to comply with any of the terms and conditions in respect of A
any loan, advance or other facility granted by the Bank either directly or indirectly to the officer or through any
other agency, including loans for purchase of vehicles or construction of houses.
A) 50(9)
B) 1
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C) 23
D) 3(1)
An appeal seeking change in any rule (OSR) can be submitted to the Managing Director by a group consisting C
of not less than ________.
A) 20 officers
B) 25 officers
C) 50 officers
D) 100 officers
________ shall take an active part in politics or political demonstration, or stand for election as member for a B
municipal council, district board or any legislative body.
A) No Branch Manager
B) No Officer
C) No Regional Manager
D) No Cash officer
As per OSR Gifts may be accepted from near relatives on occasions such as weddings, anniversaries, funerals or A
religious functions. However, the same should be reported to the competent authority, if the value of any single
gift received on one such occasion exceeds:- Rupees ------ in the case of officers up to Scale V.
A) Rs 15000/-
B) Rs 20000/-
C) Rs 10000/-
D) Rs 7500/-
When an officer's son wants to take up employment with a private undertaking which is obligated to the Bank, C
and the acceptance of employment cannot wait for the permission to the officer by the competent authority,
A) The employment can be accepted by his son provisionally
B) The officer has to report to the bank within 3 months of accepting employment
C) Both a and b
An officer is on deputation from the Bank to a company as director and the company offered him shares under A
promoter's quota. If he wants to accept them, he has to __..
A) Take prior permission from competent authority
B) Give prior information the Bank
C) Need not take bank's permission nor inform Bank
D) Give an affidavit to the Bank stating that there is no illegal gratification involved in the case
As per OSR rule, Every officer who is in-charge of a work place shall take appropriate steps to prevent sexual D
harassment to ____ at such work place.
A) woman officer
B) permanent woman employee
C) all officer
D) any woman
Read the both statements and answer as per OSR rule. (i) Example for an unlawful order is asking an officer to B
collect illegal gratification (ii) Example for an unreasonable order is asking an officer to do personal work of
superior official
A) Both statements are wrong
B) Both the statements are correct
C) Only statement (i) is correct
D) Only statement (ii) is correct
Every officer shall conform to and abide by OSR rules and shall observe, comply with and obey all ____ and D
________orders.
A) lawful, unlawful
B) reasonable, unreasonable
C) unlawful, unreasonable
D) lawful, reasonable
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Every officer shall conform to and abide by OSR rules and shall observe, comply with and does not obey all C
____and ________ orders.
A) lawful, unlawful
B) reasonable, unreasonable
C) unlawful, unreasonable
D) lawful, reasonable
As per OSR Rule No. 52 (3) (i), no officer shall grant on behalf of the Bank any loan or advance to D
A) Himself
B) His near relative
C) A Joint Hindu Family of which he is a member
D) All the above
OSR Rule ______ deals with the use of position or influence in matters of employment, sanction of loan, etc., to A
relatives.
A) 52
B) 22
C) 32
D) 12
One of the following statements is true in respect of SBIOSR B
A) An authentic soft copy is available on SB Times intranet site
B) HR Dept. at Corporate centre is authorized to publish this book
C) HR Depts. at LHOs are authorized to publish this book
D) These rules are formulated/ amended by DMD & CDO
Under Rule 61 (1) of SBIOSR (1992), frequent purchase or sale or both of shares or securities or other D
investments shall be deemed to be
A) Bona fide investment
B) Possession of assets disproportionate to known sources of income
C) Bona fide investment if done through SBICAPSEC trading site
D) Speculation
In OSR 1992, First ___ rules of State Bank of India Officers' Service Rules (SBIOSR) deal with appointment, A
grades, pay scales, extension and termination of service, various benefits etc., whereas the conduct rules start
from Rule______.
A) 49,50
B) 50,51
C) 10,11
D) 11,12
If an officer wants to contribute an article to a newspaper, which is of literary, artistic, scientific, professional, D
cultural, educational, religious or social character, when remuneration is not involved, he
A) Has to take prior permission from controller
B) Has to give prior information to the controller
C) Has to take post facto sanction
D) Need not take permission and need not give information
If any question arises as to the application or interpretation of any of the provisions of OSR rules, who will be A
the authority to do so?
A) ECCB
B) Chairman
C) MD
D) A committee consisting of two MDs and DMD & CDO
If an officer wants to undertake honorary work of a social or charitable nature or occasional work of a literary, C
artistic, scientific, professional, cultural, educational, religious or social character, by which official duties do not
thereby suffer, under Rule No. 51 (1) he should
A) Take prior permission from controller
B) Give prior information to the controller
C) Need not take permission and need not give information
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D) Post facto sanction can be taken

Signed Fidelity and Secrecy declaration is obtained from a person at time of _______,as per OSR rule. D
A) first appointed in officer cadre
B) promoted as an officer
C) either 1 or 2
D) both 1 & 2
If an officer wants to give guarantee in his private capacity for pecuniary obligations of another person, C
B) He cannot give it while he is in the employment of the Bank
As per OSR rule 50(4) ,Every officer shall, at all times, take all possible steps to ensure and protect the interests A
of_____ and discharge his duties with utmost integrity, honesty, devotion and diligence and do nothing which is
unbecoming of an officer.
A) the Bank
B) the branch
C) your family and yourself
D) yourself
Mr. Bhurelal, a branch manager of XYZ branch, has been asked by his neighbours in his apartments to take up D
the post of Secretary of the cooperative society of Flat owners, without any remuneration. If wants to accept the
same, ___________.
A) he should obtain prior permission from his controller
B) he should give prior information to his controller
C) he should give an undertaking to the Bank that his official duties will not suffer
D) he can take up the position without referring to the Bank
According to OSR(1992) ,Officer shall not take an active part in_____ D
A) politics or political demonstration
B) stand for election as member for a municipal council
C) stand for district board or any legislative body
D) All
As per OSR rule 50(3), Officer should act in his ______. However, an officer may act against his best judgement C
when so instructed by his superior officer. Oral instructions should be confirmed in writing by superior officer in
such case
A) good judgement
B) best believe
C) best judgement
D) best practice
If an officer attending a university exam for law graduation, indulges in giving unfair assistance to another D
candidate in the examination hall, and the university reports the matter to the Bank:
A) An FIR has to be filed against him by the University
B) University has to take an action
C) No action can be taken by the Bank against the officer
D) He can be charged with flouting one of his conduct rules
Every officer shall maintain good conduct and discipline and show courtesy and attention to all persons in all A
transactions and _____, as per OSR rule 50(5).
A) negotiations
B) dealings
C) feelings
D) postings
As per Every officer shall report to the competent authority if ____ is engaged in a trade or business or owns or D
manages an insurance agency or commission agency
A) Mother/Father
B) Children
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C) Spouse
D) Any member of his family
As per OSR rule,_____ shall report to the competent authority if any member of his family is engaged in a trade or C
business or owns or manages an insurance agency or commission agency.
A) Up to scale-III officers
B) Award Staff
C) Every officer
D) Both 2 & 3
Read the Statements and answer, As per OSR(1992) rules. C
(i) No officer shall bring or attempt to bring any political or other outside influence to bear upon any superior
authority .
(ii) No officer shall ordinarily absent himself in case of sickness or accident without submitting a proper medical
certificate.
A) Statement (i) is correct
B) Statement (ii) is correct
C) Both the statements are correct
D) Both the statements are wrong
Read the Statements and answer as per OSR(1992) rules. C
(i) No officer shall directly or indirectly exercise pressure or influence on any employee of the Bank to induce or
compel him to subscribe towards any farewell entertainment
(ii) No officer shall collect subscription for farewell entertainment from any intermediate or lower grade employee
for the entertainment of an officer belonging to any higher grade
A) Statement (i) is correct
B) Statement (ii) is correct
C) Both the statements are correct
D) Both the statements are wrong
As Per OSR rule, Oral directions given by superior officers ------ when he/she is acting under the direction of A
his/her officer superior
A) shall be confirmed in writing by his/her superior officer
B) donot require written confirmation.
C) donot require written confirmation, if it is given by branch manager.
D) either 2 or 3
An officer received summons from a judicial commission to depose as witness, in his individual capacity, to an D
incident of riots in the area –
A) He has to obtain prior permission from the Bank
B) He should have received such summons through proper channel
C) He has to give prior intimation to the Bank
Conduct Rules start from following rule in SBIOSR A
A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 80
Essence of Rule 50 (1) is that an officer should comply and obey all the ………….. orders and directions of his boss. C
A) Lawful
B) Reasonable
C) Both a and b
As per Rule No. 56 gift does not include: A
A) Free casual meal
B) Free boarding
C) Free transport
D) Free lodging
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Following rule deals with absence and late attendance B

A) Rule No. 67
B) Rule No. 58
C) Rule No. 66
D) Rule No. 50
Rule 62 (1-5) of SBI Officers’ Service Rules (OSR), 1992 lay down the provisions /instructions relating to A
Submission of statement of assets and liabilities
Speculation, insolvency, indebtedness
Second spouse
Consumption of intoxicating drinks, etc.
What is a ‘misconduct’ is defined in Rule No. B
A) 65
B) 66
C) 67
D) 68
Rule No. 67 to 70 cover C
A) Amendment, interpretation and appeal
B) Conduct, salary and perquisites
C) Discipline, appeal and suspension
D) Asset & liabilities statements
A gift from a person obligated to the Bank of value exceeding Rs ………… has to be reported to competent D
authority
A) Rs 500/-
B) Rs 200/-
C) Rs 100/-
D) Rs 75/-
If an officer wants to collect donations from staff members for a charity he has to C
If an officer wants to take a credit card other than SBI Card C
If an officer wants to purchase gold ornaments worth Rs 40000/- for his wife C
An officer shall refrain from consuming any intoxicating drink or drug in …………. D
A) A bar
B) The office
C) Public place
D) All of the above
If an officer in charge of a unit comes to know about possible sexual harassment of any woman in his office he A
has to
A) Take steps to prevent it
B) Advise the lady concerned to approach the police
C) Counsel the lady concerned
D) He need not do anything until the matter is reported to him
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Citizen’s forum wants to arrange for a private and informal farewell party to an officer of the Bank who is on D
transfer. If he wants to attend it
B) He should politely refuse the offer
If an officer wants to contest for election as an MLA B
B) He has to resign the Bank job
The conduct rules for supervisory staff of State Bank of India are contained in C
A) State Bank of India Officers Service Conditions (1992)
B) Booklet on Service Conditions
C) State Bank of India Officers? Service Rules (1992)
D) Handbook on staff matters
The rule regarding prevention of sexual harassment of women at workplace was inserted in Officers’ service rules B
due to:
A) RBI’s instructions
B) Supreme Court’s order
C) IBA’s decision
D) Govt. of India’s instructions.
“An officer should do nothing which is unbecoming of an officer” in terms of Rule No.” A
A) 50 (4)
B) 51 (4)
C) 52 (4)
D) 53 (4)
Essence of Rule 50(1) is that an officer should comply and obey all the …… orders and directyions of his boss. C
A) Lawful
B) Reasonable
C) Both a and b
An officer has been invited by an university to deliver an educational lecture in a seminar and he is not getting C
any fee/ honorarium for that purpose. He should
A) Take prior permission from his controller
B) Give prior intimation to the Bank.
C) Need not take bank’s permission if his official duties thereby do not suffer
D) Reject the invitation, as he is forbidden to give such lectures as per SBIOSR
As per Rule No. 52 (3) (iii) no officer shall grant on behalf of the Bank any work contract to D
A) Himself
B) His near relative
C) A Joint Hindu Family of which he is a member
D) All the above
If an officer has used his official position to get a job for his son in a company C
A) Action can be taken against him under Rule 52 (1)
B) Action can be taken against him under Rule 50 (4)
C) Both a. and b. above
D) Neither a. nor b. above
A gift, from a person obligated to the Bank of value exceeding Rs _______ has to be reported to competent D
authority
A) Rs 500/-
B) Rs 200/-
C) Rs 100/-
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D) Rs 75/-
A gift, from a personal friend not obligated to the bank, of value exceeding Rs _______ has to be reported to B
competent authority
A) Rs 500/-
B) Rs 1,500/-
C) Rs 100/-
D) Rs 75/-
SBI Officers’ Service Rules are applicable to D
A) Asst. Managers to Asst. General Managers
B) Asst. Managers to General Managers
C) Asst. Managers to Chief General Managers
D) Asst. Managers to Dy. Managing Directors
As per Rule No. 61 (2) an officer shall so manage his ………. affairs as to avoid insolvency or habitual indebtedness. D
A) Professional
B) Family
C) Social
D) Private
If any member of an officer’s family is engaged in a trade or business he should B
A) Take prior permission from his controller
B) Inform the Bank
C) Need not take banks permission nor inform Bank
D) Give an affidavit to the Bank stating that he has no stake in that trade/ business
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Sexual Harassment of women at workplaces (L0224)

Internal Appellate Committees (POSH) I & II will be constituted at B
A) RBO
B) Corporate Centre
C) LHO
D) Branch
As per Bank's instructions under GARIMA policy , the internal Appealate Committes of the Bank shall be D
constituted at
A) Each RBO
B) Each LHO
C) Each AO
D) Corporate Centre
Who is the competent authority to approve Internal Committee (IC)s at Local Head Offices (LHO)s A
A) CGM Circle
B) GM Network
C) DGM (B & O)
D) RM
The Garima Portal can be accessed on SBI Times as: A
A) Home Page>>Quick Links>>GARIMA.
B) Home Page >> What's New >> GARIMA
C) Home Page >> MIS Online >> GARIMA
D) Home Page >> My Workplace >> GARIMA
Whether action can be taken against aggreived woman if a forged or misleading document or false evidence A
has been produced before IC
A) Yes action can be taken in provisions of Service rules
B) No action can be taken
C) Woman can only be advised to take back her complaint in such cases
D) IC will only reject such complaint
Ms Ankita is Deputy Manager and recently posted to RBO. She has been subjected to sexual harrasment by B
Regional Manager who is her direct boss. Which Internal Committee (IC) is entitled to handle this complaint?
A) IC at RBO
B) IC at AO
C) IC at LHO
D) IC at CC
Ms. Prachi is a Field officer in XYZ branch of our Bank. During a promotional campaign Mr Vicky , contractual C
employee posted in same Branch tries to make physical advances, which are unwelcome to her. Can she file a
complaint under GARIMA Policy against Mr Vicky?
A) No Mr Vicky is a contractual employee hence not covered under definition of "Employee " as per GARIMA
policy
B) Yes it is sexual harassement but not covered under GARIMA policy
C) Yes , although Mr Vicky is a contractual employee but covered under definition of "Employee " as per
GARIMA policy
D) Ms Prachi should not be so sensitive and ignore
A male supervisor is staring at the women up and down while he is having conversation with her and she feels B
uncomfortable , does this act constitute sexual harassment at workplace as per provisions of GARMA policy ?
A) No, looking at somebody is normal
B) Yes, as per the provisions of the act it is covered
C) Can't say
D) No
In which ways the Internal Committee can respond to a complaint filed under GARIMA policy ? C
A) Conciliation
B) Inquiry
C) Either Conciliation on request of aggreived woman or Inquiry
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D) No action
Within how many days should the record (files/ documents) of closed POSH cases be forwarded by IC to A
respective department , after submission of its report
A) 90 days
B) 30 days
C) 60 days
D) 15 days
Which of the following is not an act of sexual harrasment as per the Policy? A
A) Greeting a female colleaugue formally
B) Making an attempt to rub shoulders with a female colleague
C) Cracking lewd jokes in presence of a female colleague which is unwelcome to her
D) Stalking a female colleauge on social media
Time line for appeal by the complaint if aggrieved by the decision of the Internal Committee is A
A) 90 days
B) 30 days
C) 60 days
D) 15 days
Which of the following is not an example of implied harrasment? D
A) Unwarranted monitoring
B) Being partial
C) Physical advances
D) Stalking
The internal committee for investigating cases of sexual harassment is headed by B
A) a Male officer
B) a Lady officer of a senior rank.
C) a Lady staff
D) any one
Where such complaint cannot be made in writing by aggreived woman what is the Role of Presiding Officer of B
Internal Committee?
A) Presiding Officer will accept complaint verbally
B) Presiding Officer or any Member of Committee will render assistance to woman for making the Complaint
in Writing
C) No role of Presiding Officer
D) Complaint will not be accepted
The Presiding Officer / Committee members of IC should be from same geography/ Circle ? B
A) True
B) False
C) No such instructions in this regard
D) Yes same geography is mandatory
Which of the following places other than office premise can be deemed as workplace as per GARIMA Policy C
guidelines?
A. Training events
B. Promotional Campaigns
C. Work related travel
A) Only A & B
B) Only A & C
C) All A, B, C
D) Only B & C
Choose the incorrect statement in regard to confidentiality of cases related to sexual harrasment at workplace B
A) The Policy prohibits disclosure of Identity and address of complainant, respondent and witnesses
B) Only members of Intenal Committee can disclose details of complaint to media or press or make it public
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C) The details of complaints are confidential and Presiding Officer or Committee members will be liable for
disqualification on disclosure of such details to media/ press / public in any way
D) The policy prohibits information pertaining to conciliatory / inquiry proceedings or recommendation of IC
or action taken by employer
As per GARIMA circular , which department of the Bank has been identified for offering regular training D
sessions to educate all employees about the implications of sexual harassment at workplace?
A) SME
B) CAG
C) CCG
D) STU
Choose the most appropriate statement out of the following in regard to applicability of GARIMA policy B
A) It extends to all Bank employees but only while on duty in office premise
B) It extends to all Bank employees ( whether in office or out of office premises) while on duty
C) It extends to any person but only while on duty in office premise
D) It extends to any person ( whether in office or out of office premises) while on duty in office premise
Ms. Prachi is a Field officer in XYZ branch of our Bank. During a promotional campaign Mr Vicky , contractual C
employee posted in same Branch tries to make physical advances, which are unwelcome to her. Can she file a
complaint under GARIMA Policy against Mr Vicky?
A) No Mr Vicky is a contractual employee hence not covered under definition of "Employee " as per GARIMA
policy
C) Yes , although Mr Vicky is a contractual employee but covered under definition of "Employee " as per
GARIMA policy
D) Ms Prachi should not be so sensitive and ignore
The records ( files/ documents) of closed cases by IC in Corporate Centre (CC) will be maintained by : B
A) Respective Deptt Head in CC
B) Ethics & Business Conduct department
C) No need to maintain closed records
D) HR deptt in CC
The records ( files/ documents) of closed cases by IC in Circles will be maintained by : C
A) No need to maintain closed records
B) Respective Branch Head / Department Head
C) HR deptt , LHO
D) HR deptt, AO
Which of the following acts or behaviour can be termed as Sexual harrasment as per GARIMA policy? B
A.Contacting a person on phone
B. Cracking vulgar jokes at workplace in presence of female colleauge which shefinds offending
C. Dropping a female colleaugue home upon her request
D. Sharing sexual jokes/ cartoons to afemale colleauge which she finds unwelcome
A) A, B, C
B) B, D
C) A, D
D) B,C
Choose the incorrect statement in regard to NGO member on Internal Committee C
A) There shall be one member from an NGO on Internal Committee
B) NGO member shall be paid fees or allowance for holding proceedings under GARIMA policy
C) NGO member shall not be paid fees or allowance for holding proceedings under GARIMA policy
D) The NGO member should be one who is committted to cause of women or familiar with the issues relating
to sexual harassment
What does rule 37 A of OSR pertain to : B
A) Prohibition of Sexual harrasment of working women
B) Special Casual leave and Special Leave
C) Misconduct
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D) Report or recommendations of Internal Committtee

What does rule 50( 10) of OSR pertain to : A
C) Misconduct
What is the name of portal in SBI times where an aggreived woman can file complaint related to sexual B
harrasment at workplace?
A) Sanjeevani
B) GARIMA
C) Both A and B
D) Either A or B
What does rule 66 of OSR pertain to : C
C) Misconduct
What does rule 68 (8) of OSR pertain to : D
C) Misconduct
As per the provisions of GARIMA Policy, what is incorrect regarding the role of BM/ Departmental Head in A
cases where perpetrator is not an employee ?
A) Advise the complaint that nothing can be done and discourage from filing the complaint since perpretator
is outsider
B) Provide assistance to the woman if she chooses to file a complaint in relation to the offence under Indian
Penal Code or any other law in force
C) Cause to initiate action , under the Indian Penal Code or any other law in force, against the perpetrator , of
if the aggrieved woman so desires, where perpetrator is not an employee, at the workplace at which the
incident of sexual harrasment took place
D) Provide a safe working environment at the workplace which shall include safety from persons coming into
contact at workplace
Where the Internal Authority arrives at a conclusion that during inquiry any witness has given false evidence, A
whom shall it recommend to take action against witness?
A) The Appointing authority of witness
B) The Disciplinary Authority of witness
C) Corporate Centre
D) No action can be taken against witness
On demand by Internal Committee should the Circle functionary / Departmental Head make such information C
available to IC regarding complaint on workplace sexual harrasment?
A) IC cannot demand such information from Departmental Head
B) IC can only seek information from complaint and respondent
C) Yes required information can be provided by Circle functionaries/ Departmental Heads
D) Its personal matter of complainant so no role of others
Choose the correct statement in regard to provisions of Appeal under GARIMA policy D
A) There is no provision for appeal against the decision of Internal Commmitttee
B) There are five Internal Appeallate Committtes ( POSH) constituted in the Bank under GARIMA policy
C) There are seven Internal Appeallate Committtes ( POSH) constituted in the Bank under GARIMA policy
D) There are two Internal Appellate Committes ( POSH) constituted in the Bank under GARIMA policy
Choose the wrong statement in regard to interim relief to the complaint during the pendency of inquiry? C
A) The IC may recommend to the appropriate authority to transfer the aggrieved woman different workplace
as a interim relief
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B) Grant leave to the complainant for upto 3 months in addition to her entitled leave
C) Grant leave to the complainant for upto 1 month in addition to her entitled leave
D) The IC may recommend to the appropriate authority to transfer the respondent to a different work places a
interim relief
Which of the following is not a "hostile" work environment kind of sexual harrasment at workplace D
A) Deliberately not allowing a women to attend work related trainings
B) Deliberately not allowing a women to attend work related meetings
C) Refusing genuine leave requests
D) Forcing woman to agree with such conduct by promising prefrential treatment
Choose the incorrect statement in regard to confidentiality of cases related to sexual harrasment at workplace B
A) The Policy prohibits disclosure of Identity and address of complainant, respondent and witnesses
B) Only members of Intenal Committee can disclose details of complaint to media or press or make it public
C) The details of complaints are confidential and Presiding Officer or Committee members will be liable for
disqualification on disclosure of such details to media/ press / public in any way
D) The policy prohibits information pertaining to conciliatory / inquiry proceedings or recommendation of IC
or action taken by employer
During work related phone conversation or email if a woman is subjected to sexual harrasment , will such an A
actbe covered under GARIMA policy?
A) Yes such an act shall be covered under GARIMA policy
C) No such actions cannot be substantiated
D) No these are personal matters
An aggreived woman as per GARIMA policy is synonymous to : D
A) Respondent
B) Employer
C) Internal Commiitee member
D) Complainant
Which of the following categories , if subjected to workplace sexual harrasment , are covered under the D
definitionof aggreived woman as per the GARIMA policy of the Bank A. Confirmed women employee of the
Bank B. Womencustomer in the Bank premises C. Women employee of subsidiary assisting customer in the
BranchA) Only A B) Only A & C C) Only B D) All A , B and C
Choose the correct statement in regard to Conciliation in terms of GARIMA policy guidelines. B
A) IC may settle the matter between complainant and respondent through conciliation at the request of
respondent
B) IC may settle the matter between complainant and respondent through conciliation at the request of
aggreived woman
C) IC may settle the matter between complainant and respondent through conciliation on its own
D) IC is bound to conduct inquiry
Choose the correct statement in regard to Conciliation in terms of GARIMA policy guidelines. C
A) Even if conciliation is reached further inquiry will be conducted by IC to reach to a logical conclusion
B) Setllement between aggreived woman and respondent can be made on monetary consideration
withoutinvolving IC , even after the complaint has been lodged
C) Where settlement has been arrived at by conciliation, no further inquiry will be conducted by IC
D) Where settlement has been arrived at by conciliation, IC need not forward the same to the
appropriateauthority for taking further action
Supreme Court has issued the guidelines for protection against sexual harassment putting the onus on B
A) Employees
B) Employers
C) Staff union
D) The aggrieved staff member
Choose the most appropriate statement in regard to Disclosure in Bank's Annual report under GARIMA policy C
guidelines
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A) Bank is not liable for any disclosure on cases filed under sexual haarasment in Annual report since the
information is confidential
B) Bank has to submit information pertaining to number of cases filed only
C) Bank has to submit information pertaining to both number of cases filed and disposed of in its Annual
report
D) Bank has to submit information pertaining to both number of cases filed and disposed of in its Annual
report along with details of complainant and respondent
Victim of sexual harassment should: D
A) Keep it a secret.
B) Confront the pepretrator directly that the acts are unwelcome
C) File complaint immediately
D) Both (B) and (C)
Mrs Maya, an employee of the Bank is a victim of sexual haraasment at workplace. Which of the following D
courses of action she can resort to?
A. If she feels comfortable in approaching the harrasser herself, she could directly tell him that is behaviour is
unwelcome and inappropriate
B. Report to the Bank as per GARIMA policy
A) Only A
B) Only B
C) She should ignore the incidence and keep quite
D) Both A or B
What is incorrect statement in regard to punishment for false or malicious complaints or false evidence ? A
A) Mere inability to substantiate a complaint will attract action under this provision
B) Where IC arrives at a conclusion that the agggreived woman has produced a forged or misleading
document, appropriate authority may be advised to take action against aggreived woman as per the service
rules applicable to such person
C) In cases where the complaint is proved to be a ?false? complaint, the findings/report of the IC should be
sent to the disciplinary authority (DA) of the complainant
D) Where the Internal Committee arrives at a conclusion that during the inquiry any witness has given false
evidence or produced any forged or misleading document, it may recommend to the appointing authority of
the witness to take action in accordance with the provisions of the service rules applicable to the said witness
Choose the false statement in regard to provisions of GARIMA policy B
A) The Internal Appellate Committee (POSH) shall have power to modify the findings/ recommendations of
Internal Committee
B) The findings/ recommendations of Internal Committee are binding on the respondent and cannot be
modified
C) During the period any appeal is pending before Appellate Committee (POSH) , the proceedings before the
Disciplinary authority shall be stayed
D) No action will be taken against respondent if allegations against him are proved to be false
The Internal committee for investigating cases of sexual harassment is constituted for C
A) 1year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) a permanent period
Appeals in cases where the complainant is Scale III and respondent Scale IV shall be heard by which A
Committee
A) Internal Appellate Committee (POSH)-II
B) Internal Appellate Committee (POSH)-I
C) Internal Appellate Committee (POSH)-III
D) either A or B
What is the fee payable to members of IC committee other than the external member C
A) 3000/- per session
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B) 5000/- per session

C) No fees to be paid
D) 4000/- session
Choose the incorrect statement in regard to Inquiry into complaint by Internal Committee in terms of GARIMA A
policy guidelines.
A) While conducting enquiry IC should not convey the allegations to the respondent
B) While conducting enquiry IC should gather relevant evidences
C) While conducting inquiry IC should Interview the complaint , respondent , witnesses etc
D) IC shall mainatin complete and accurate documentation of complaint, its investigation process and
resolution thereof
What is the timeline within which Disciplinary authority should implement the recommendations of Internal A
Committee?
A) within 60 days
B) Within 15 days
C) within 30 days
D) within 20 days
What is the time frame for submission of report by Internal Committee to Disciplinary Authority after A
completion of inquiry?
A) Within 10 days
B) Within 7 days
C) Within 15 days D
) Within 30 days
In case of series of incidences of sexual harrasment, what is the time frame in which aggreived woman should D
file a complaint?
A) Within 15 days of first incidence
B) Within 15 days of last incidence
C) Within 30 days of first incidence
D) Within 30 days of last incidence
Ms Aarti , an employee of our Bank has been subjected to sexual harrasment by another employee. How she C
can file a complaint . Choose the correct answer from options below
A. She can submit a complaint in writing to BM/HOD , where Shs is posted
B. She can send written complaint to concerned Internal Committee
C. She can go to GARIMA Portal on SBI times
A) A or B
B) A or C
C) B or C
D) A or B or C
Who is the competent authority to approve Internal Committee (IC)s at RBO D
A) RM
B) Manager HR of region
C) AGM HR , LHO
D) DGM (B & O)
Which of the following behaviours can be termed as unwelcome under the spirit of GARIMA policy ? B
A) Mutual Consent
B) Anger
C) Legal
D) Happiness
Bank has framed GARIMA policy in pursuant to enactment of which Act ? B
A) POSCO Act
B) POSH Act
C) DV act
D) Women Employee Act
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Workplace sexual harrasment in India was recognised for the first time by Supreme Court of India in which of D
the following landmark judgement ?
A) Garima
B) Aparna
C) Shlakaha
D) Vishakha
Mr X and Ms Y are friends and colleagues . Mr X invites for a dinner to Ms X which she happily accepts . The C
nextday she submits a complain of sexual harrasment under GARIMA policy to her Branch Manager, stating
that Mr Xinvited her for dinner. Whether her complaint can be held genuine as per the terms of GARIMA
policy? Choose themost appropriate option .
A) Yes because she was asked to socialise during off-duty hours
B) Yes because Mr X insisted that she join for dinner
C) No because the invite of Mr X was happily accepted by Ms X and the invitaion was not unwelcome to her
D) No because Mr X and Ms Y are friends and colleaugues
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Code of Ethics (L0893)

To stop Money Laundering, we should not: D
A) Assist, directly or indirectly, to launder money
B) Tip off a person who is subject of a suspicious transaction
C) Destroy records that are potentially relevant
D) All of the above
We should keep the values of STEPS in mind and treat _____________ with respect to protect our reputation. C
A) Colleagues
B) Customers
C) All Colleagues & Customers
D) Senior Colleagues only
We should hold on to the Bank’s ethical standards even when off-duty as we know that our off-duty conduct is A
seen in association with the Bank and impacts its reputation.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
C) Differ from person to person
D) Depends on the particular situation.
The expression ?gift? shall include free transport, boarding, lodging or other service or any other pecuniary A
advantage when provided by any person who have official dealings with the Bank.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
C) True except for free transport
D) True except for boarding /lodging
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of ?Safeguarding SBI Assets & Resources?: C
A) We must protect the Bank?s assets & resources, tangible as well as intangible from theft, waste, misuse ,loss
and damage.
B) We must use the Bank?s assets & resources prudently, both physical and intellectual, for approved purposes
only.
C) Both a & b
To promote an inclusive & empowering culture, we should not: C
A) Indulge in abuse of human rights in any form- obvious or subtle.
B) Avoid reporting a hazardous condition in work place.
C) Both a & b
In situations when we are uncertain on how to proceed, we can refer to: D
A) Ethical Decision-Making Guide
B) Seniors
C) Chief Ethics officer
D) All of the above
While attending to our customers, we should not: D
A) Hide any fact about Banks products or services.
B) Compromise with quality of service in any situation.
C) Ever delay in redressing the customer grievances.
D) All of the above
What is 'GARIMA' ? A
A) Bank's Policy on Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal)
B) Bank's Policy on Work Life Balance
C) Bank's Promotion Policy for Women Employees
While serving our customers, we should: D
A) Listen with empathy
B) Focus on customers needs
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C) Keep ourselves updated to respond to customers queries

D) All of the above
The Code applies to ______________ in the Bank regardless of their location or classification as regular, contractual B
or part-time.
A) Award Staff
B) All Staff Members
C) Supervisory Staff
D) Subordinate Staff
We should build and maintain positive and co-operative relationships with colleagues and connect with them B
with empathy like an __________.
A) External Customer
B) Internal Customer
C) Customer
D) All of the above
For growing together to deliver better, we should not: D
A) Ignore any feedback from Seniors, Juniors or Colleagues
B) Shirk collaboration
C) Stop being curious
D) All of the above
By pursuing digital excellence and telling customers about benefits of online channels, we can make D
banking_________
A) Simpler
B) Time saving
C) Reliable
D) All of the above
Not tolerating any kind of harassment, discrimination or intimidating behaviour at workplace falls under which C
principle of 'Politeness'
A) Being polite with peers & colleagues- senior or junior
B) Acting with empathy & passion
C) Promoting an inclusive & empowering culture
D) Being polite in treating customers
____________ with the Code of Ethics is a key requirement for the Bank staff along with adherence to other D
applicable laws, regulations, policies and processes.
A) Non-compliance
B) Defiance
C) Dis-agreement
D) Compliance
While using Banks assets & resources, we should not: D
A) Use Banks resources that would lead to violation of any applicable rule, policy, guidelines or law.
B) Use name or logo of the Bank for any personal communication.
C) Install or download unauthorized software, freeware applications, hardware or storage devices on Banks
computer, laptops or similar electronic devices.
D) All of the above.
When we talk about the principle -Handling Conflicts of Interest- Actual, Potential or Perceived, what is that we D
should not do ?
A) Using position to derive personal benefits
B) Viewing customer information for non- business reasons.
C) Engaging in insider trading or letting family members do so.
D) All of the above
Our __________ establish a set of ethical principles that are instrumental in founding and nurturing a common C
organizational culture.
A) Vision
B) Mission
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C) Values
D) Procedures
To achieve Sustainability and contribute to communities around, we should: D
A) Be sensitive to social & environmental risks.
B) Ignore social conscience.
C) Conserve natural resources.
D) Both a & c
We should treat our _________ customers fairly regardless of caste, creed, race, religion, disability or gender. C
A) High Net Worth
B) Top 100
C) All
D) Selected
Which of the following statement/s is/are true in respect of ?Bank?s Non-Retaliation Commitment? C
A) Bank strictly prohibits any form of retaliation or intimidation against anyone reporting legitimate concerns.
B) Anyone involved in victimising a person reporting legitimate concerns will be subjected to strict disciplinary
action.
C) Both a & b
We should be pro-active about minimizing carbon footprint through: D
A) Waste minimisation
B) Pollution prevention
C) Adopting clean technology
D) All of the above
One of the attributes of the ?Sustainability? is A
A) Optimal use of recourses in hand.
B) Non-usage of resources available.
C) Ignorance about resources available.
D) Non-availability of resources
To contribute to the Communities around, we should: D
A) Be sensitive to social & environmental risks
B) Conserve natural resources
C) Connect with communities around - Give back
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in relation to achieve ?Sustainability?. D
A) Commit ourselves to produce positive and lasting impacts in our communities.
B) Continuously engage with the communities around to promote ecological, social and economic improvements.
C) Embrace opportunities to develop eco-friendly products, services and processes for a sustainable corporate
management.
Being a Responsible Corporate Citizen, we should: D
A) Support and encourage people, businesses and institutions to continually reduce environment impact of their
activities for the wellbeing of the society at large.
B) Support and enable people to overcome poverty and shape their own futures by developing sustainable
livelihoods.
C) Provide services beyond banking and contribute to the community development activities in line with Bank’s
norms.
D) All of the above
We should not _______ anything of value for ourselves or for any other individual in return for any business, A
serviceor disclosure of confidential information, except as may specifically be permitted by the applicable policies.
A) Solicit
B) Refuse
C) Ignore
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Third parties, dealing with the Bank are also expected to understand that the Code forms part of their agreement B
with the Bank and that a _______ may result in the termination of contract, disqualification from applying for future
contracts or any other suitable action as applicable.
A) Compliance
B) Breach
C) Complaint
Which of the following statements is/are true in respect of handling conflict of interests: D
A) We should be proactive in identifying and managing conflicts of interest between the Bank and its stakeholders
B) We should give more importance to our personal interest
C) We should always report a conduct that can be detrimental to the interests of Bank or its stakeholders
D) Both a & c
We should endeavour to channelize the ________ of economic growth to the needy and the marginalised through B
our differentiated banking products & services.
A) Losses
B) Benefits
C) None of the above
D) Both a & b
We should carry out the prescribed _________ for scrutinizing the profiles of potential or current customers or C
counter parties while conducting business.
A) Verification
B) Enquiry
C) Due Diligence
We should __________ confidential information relating to our customers and third parties as we are responsible B
for keeping it safe and secure.
A) Disclose
B) Protect
C) Partially disclose
D) Share if requested
While processing the transaction of another employee, we shall exercise___________ due diligence as we would for A
any other customer.
A) Same
B) More
C) Less
D) No
We should _________ engage in any political activity or distribute political literature during work hours or from the C
work place or use Banks resources for the same (including Banks email address), unless authorised.
A) Always
B) Actively
C) Not
D) Sometimes
If our conduct does not meet the standards set out in the Code or is illegal, dishonest or unethical, it would A
constitute a breach of the Code and we may be subject to corrective or disciplinary action in terms of the
applicable service rules or contract terms.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
C) Depends on the type of behaviour
D) Depends on the loss to the Bank
All employees are required to report any violation of the Code of Ethics to: C
A) Superior/Controller
B) Chief Ethics Officer
C) Either of a or b
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D) No reporting of violation required

To serve our customers better we should learn continuously, build skills, share knowledge with each other and B
create a learning experience together. This statement demonstrates which value of STEPS?
A) Transparency
B) Service
C) Sustainability
D) Politeness
As a responsible Banker, we should strive to make banking accessible to ____________ to build a better India. D
A) Business class
B) Upper class
C) Middle class
D) Every Indian
Our work time is also a Banks resource. We should avoid personal activities during work time as these might affect A
our or our colleagues? productivity.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
C) Depends on how burdened we are with office work
D) Depends on the quality of the work being done.
The Code sets forth minimum standards of __________ the Bank expects all staff members to follow A
A) Behaviour
B) Education
C) Talent
D) Knowledge
The Banks credibility depends on the __________of its books, records & accounting. B
A) Design
B) Integrity
C) Paper quality
D) All of the above
While servicing our customers, "Providing Ease of Convenience" includes: C
A) We should keep our processes simple and prompt.
B) We should address and resolve our customers grievances quickly.
C) Both a & b
Which of the following statement is incorrect in respect of using technology prudently: D
A) Exercising extreme caution in opening email attachments from unknown or suspicious senders.
B) Accessing only that information / data which is needed to do the job.
C) Making sure that use of Bank s intranet & internet complies with the guidelines.
D) Provide access to office computers to our family members is acceptable
We should have the highest regard for the dignity of ____________ colleagues and ensure with passion that all are C
treated fairly and with respect.
A) Senior
B) Junior
C) All
Your official email id is Banks asset. A
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
C) Depends on Your Designation D) Depends on the ID
As a Supervisor or Manager, you are vested with added responsibilities by our Code. A
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
C) Applies to officials working as Branch Heads
D) Applies only to officials working in LHO's/ Corporate Centre
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We should offer a polite, courteous and empathetic experience to ____________ customers in their interactions with B
us
A) Selected
B) All
C) New
D) Old
Bank expects its suppliers and other third-party partners including their employees to use ________ processes and B
follow applicable laws while fulfilling its contractual obligations
A) Economical
B) Environmental friendly
C) Profitable
We should demonstrate politeness and propriety while interacting with our women colleagues. A
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
C) Depends on local customs and traditions.
D) Depends on the skill of the staff concerned
Conflict of Interest arises when? A
A) Our personal interest interferes with our professional duties.
B) Keep politics out of role & responsibilities.
C) Treat suppliers & vendors fairly.
D) All of the above
In a particular situation, Conflict of Interest may exist D
A) Potentially
B) Actually
C) Perceivably
D) Any of the above
Bank expects your _______________________ to portray good impression. Being well dressed, in a sense, is a mark of C
politeness to our stakeholders.
A) Appearance
B) Behaviour
C) Both a & b
Sunil SKA
1) Time line of any incident from capturing by Branches to Approval from AGM (ORM) in IMM
2) With respect to LGD, what is the difference between F-IRB and A-IRB
F-IRB permits to use prescribed LGD estimated and A-IRB permits to use own internal LGD
estimates
3) When the actions can lead to the entire financial system coming to a standstill, it is called
Systematic Risk
4) What are the types of Capital in reference to Basel II norms
Tier I and Tier II Capital
5) Fraud cases involving are monitored and reviewed by Committee of Executives on
Frauds (COEF) and special Committee of the Board for monitoring Large Value Frauds
(SCBMF) Rs.1.00 Crore and above
6) Statistical closure of frauds can be done in cases
Frauds involving upto Rs.25.00 lac
7) Which of the following is NOT an international recognised standard for Information Security?
IEEE 802.11b
8) is a property of access control of multiple retired, yet Independent, software systems.
Single sign on
9) Banks should calculate the incremental provisioning and capital requirement for the Unhedged
Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE) at least on a/an basis.
Quarterly
10) With reference to revised RAROC framework, undrawn portion of Cash Credit Limits attract,
CCF of
20%
11) The authority to sanction limit on a Foreign Banks lies with
IBG
12) What do you call a program used to detect unsolicited and unwanted e-mail and prevents those
messages from getting to a user’s inbox
Spam Filter
13) KRI comprises of two phrases. They are
Both a & b
14) Maximum loss on an instrument or a portfolio that can be excepted over a given time interval at a
specified level of probability is computed by
VaR
15) Increasing in number of frauds over time indicate
Both (1) and (2)
16) Branch has averted payment of a fake cheque. This incident should be reported under
Near Miss Event
17) Which of the following is not a component of Common Equity tier 1 capital as per Basel III ?
Perpetual Non-Cumulative Preference shares
18) Who is the Designated officer for receiving complaint under Whistle Blower Policy ?
DGM & CFO at Circles and GM(FPMD) at Corporate Centre
19) Risk Weight for Amount above 30 Lacs and upto 75 lacs and LTV Ratio less than or equal to
80% is
35%
20) Once a near miss event is reported, based on priority, identifying the cause(s) and initiating an
action plan for prevention of recurrence should be formulated.
TRUE
21) Which of the following statement in respect of Near Miss Management Process is not correct
Low priority incidents to be given through analysis on casual factors
22) As per RBI guidelines, exposure limit for a country should not exceed the Bank’s except in the
case of Insignificant Risk Category.
Regulatory Capital
23) What action taken in cases where suo moto proceedings initiated by investigating agencies eg.
CBI
The case to be reported as fraud
24) If identity of the Whistle Blower/ complainant could not be established, how the complaint will
be treated ?
It will be treated as anonymous complaint and may not attract further action
25) Which of the following does not attract foreign exchange risk
Domestic equities
26) The provisioning in respect of existing loans/exposures of the Bank to companies having director/s
(other than nominee directors of government/financial institutions brought on board at the time of
distress), whose name/s appear more than once in the list of wilful defaulters, will be in
cases of Standard accounts
5%
27) Which of the following is an aim of building conversation buffer
Maintaining a cushion of capital that can be used to absorb losses
28) Who is the Competent authority for identification of fraud for cases below Rs.5.00 Lac
Fraud Identification Committee (FIC) at Circles and Bus
29) With the increase in LGD, the requirement of capital will
Increase
30) What is not the meaning of integrity of information?
Information should not be readable
31) What is Credit Information Report
It is a factual record of a borrower’s credit payment history compiled from information received
from different credit grantors
32) Hackers get into the company’s systems and steal valuable data
Operational risk
33) E in ESG stands for
Environment
34) Which is a systematic and early examination of financial transformation on an ongoing basis to
ensure accuracy & compliance with procedure and guidelines.
Self-Audit
35) Banks using standardized measurement for Credit risk in OTC derivatives must add a capitalcharge to
cover
Credit Valuation Adjustment Risk
36) Gross (i.e. inherent) risk is
A measure of the risk after taking controls into account
37) acts as a facilitator for RCSA workshop.
OR MANAGER / CM (C&R) /CM(Rural) /CM (GB)
38) What is the timeline for reporting of fraud to RBI
21 days from the date of detection
39) Which of the following is/are included in 7 Loss Event as per Basel defined matrix
(a) , (b) & (c) above
40) Branches with high value advances and high interest income are likely to be found in
Category II
41) In calculating the VaR, the minimum holding period prescribed by RBI is days
10 days
42) is a data taken from production environment and then confidential information like customer
information or revenue information is masked or changed before using in test environment
Private data
43) The findings from a RCSA exercise can be used to
Both (a) and (b)
44) As per best IS practice, BIOS should be configured to boot only from the only
Primary Hard Disk
45) Tractor loan sanction may be considered after credit enhancement or to be forwarded to next higher
authority, if credit score of the applicant is in the range
40% - 60%
46) Exposure to Foreign Banks located outside India are part of Country Risk Exposure
TRUE
47) To prevent fraud through submission of fabricated statement by borrowers for availing credit
facilities, bank has mandated verification of financials
from GST portal
48) What kind of cyber security risks can be minimized by using a Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Phishing attacks
49) This is the inclusion of a secret message in otherwise unencrypted text or images
Eye-in-hand system
50) As per CVC guidelines, frauds with what amount to be reported to CBI
Rs. 3 Crores and above
51) First layer of IMM
Capture Incident
1. Reporting of frauds involving forged instruments including fake/forged instruments sent in clearing in
respect of truncated instruments will be done by the A.Payment Bank
2. What is not the meaning of integrity of information?A. Information should not be readable.
3. Which of the following is NOT an international recognized standard for information security?
C. IEEE 802.11b
4. Who can lodge a Whistle Blower complaint in our bank? A. any employee of the bank
5. Who is the first Layer in IMM? B. Creator of incident
6. Statistical closure of frauds can be done in cases C. Fruads involving uptoRs. 25.00 lacs
7. Frauds by closing of cards can be minimized/prevented if C. all ATMs are enabled with
chip reader software and customers are allowed to used only chip based cards.
8. Near Miss Events below a particular threshold should not be reported.
B. False? All NMEs are required to be reported
9. Talent risk is managed by B. Human resource dept
10. What is worm? B. It is a program that spreads over network. Unlike a virus,
a worm dopes not attach itself to a host program.
11. All network devices should be in time synchronization with the Synchronization device/server
A.NTP
12. Risk weight for A rated borrower is d. None of the above
13. Banks should calculate the incremental provisioning and capital requirements for the Unhedged
Foreign Currency Exposure (UFCE) at least on a/an basis B. Quarterly
14. This is the type of software intended to deliver advertisements , but quite often it tracks user behavior as
well B. Adware
15. Keyloggers is a form of A. Spyware
16. Which one of the following is one of the Roles and responsibilities of Inspection & management Audit
(I&MA) Department A. Checking of Near Miss event data reported by branch
17. What is the full form of RAROC? B. Risk adjusted return on capital
18. BEICF stands for A. Business Environment and internal control factors
19. A bankruptcy remote company is a A. Company within a corporate group whose bankruptcy ..
20. What do you call a program used to detect unsolicited and unwanted e mail and prevents those
messages from getting to a inbox C. Spam filter
21. Increasing in number of frauds over time indicates..D. Both (1)and (2)
22. Attempted fraud is a B. Near miss event
23. VaR can be calculated using D. all of the above
24. This is a computer system on the internet that is expressly setup to attract and “trap” intruders
A. Honey Pot
25. Objectives of Key risk indicators are D. all the above
26. According to RBI guidelines, from April 1, 2019 onwards, Specified borrower means a borrower
havingthreshold aggregate sanctioned credit limit(ASCL) of more than B. >10,000 Crs.
27. If identity of the whistle blower/complainant could not be estimated, how the complaint will be
treated/ B. it will be treated as anonymous complaint….
28. Which one of the following would not trigger risk threshold 3 under PCA?
D. Negative returns on assets for 3 consecutive years.

29. Probability of Default that a borrower can have is a key important factor. PD is calculated for a period
of B. 4 quarters
30. The sum of debit and credit summations of a public limited company is Rs. 90lacs, the account needs
to be categorized as A. Low risk
31. In a cryptography, what is cipher? A. algorithm for performing encryption and decryption
32. Pending position of OVVR checking is an example of A. Leading/ preventive indicator
33. Bank’s capital would be needed to absorb B. unexpected losses
34. Which is a systematic and early examination of financial transactions on an ongoing basis to ensure
accuracy& compliance with procedure and guidelines?B. concurrent audit
35. Which is the last date for completion of BC&OR plan testing for branches /operating units
C. 31stDecember
36. What is the RWA applicable on credit exposures to Banks with CRAR of
8% A. 15% B. 20% C. 50% D. 100%
37. Which of the following is an example of banking crises that occurred between 1990 and 2005
C. The Argentina crisis from 2001

38. Timely and quick identification of fraud helps in D. all three
39. It is desirable and extremely motivating to give appreciation to the employee who identified NME
A. True
40. The full form of PCA in banking parlance is? C. Prompt Corrective action
41. Find the odd man out with regard to measures to control and mitigate Operational Risk as per
Operational Risk Management Policy? D. Customer service survey
42. This is the inclusion of a secret message in otherwise unencrypted text or images
C. steganography
43. To prevent disbursement of Car Loan to factious Car Dealers
A. Account details of dealers mapped in LOS are hard coded in CBS while opening CL account
B. Changes can be made in account details through supervisory override
C. Only A Both a & b
44. Global financial crises period refers to C.2008-2009
45. This is a type of malware that is activated by some trigger , such as a specific date.
A. Logic Bomb
46. Only citizens of India can seek information under RTI act A.True
47. What is the full form of IMM B. incident Management Module
48. This is a set of standards and guidelines, which every employee of the bank needs to follow, regarding
appropriate (or inappropriate) use of e mail or Web browsing.
B. Acceptable usage policy
49. In assessing with a potential mortgage loan, a bank will charge higher if the borrow has a relatively
B. High Loan to value ratio

50. What is the most secure wireless encryption standard of the items listed below? A. WPA2
51. Frauds occur mostly in D. all three
52. BIS stands for A. Bank for international settlements
53. Which of the following ins not a contributing factor for Operational Risk C. default risk
54. What is the user id of the Reviewer of the incidents, created by the branch IMM
B. Combination of sbi.5 digit concerned reviewer office code

55. is the data exchanged between an HTTP server and a browser ( a client or server) to store state
information on the client side and retrieve it later for server use A.Cookies
56. To prevent fraud through submission of fabricated financial statement by borrowers for availing credit
facilities , Bank has mandated verification of financials A. with UDIN of ICAI
57. What is the timeline for reporting of fraud to RBI C. 21 days from the date of detection
58. Who is designated Officer for receiving complaint under Whistle Blower Policy? C. DGM &
CFO at circles Circles and GM(FPMD) at corporate centre.
59. Which of these is not a secure internet usage
A. Accessing of banking cites in Cyber cafes/public hotspots
60. Which one of the following is the most important document for opening of an account of a company?
B. Memorandum and Article of Association of the Company

61. The users of Banking services have to send their complaints regarding deficiency in services
by member banks to BCBSI only. A.TRUE
62. Customer acceptance policy defines explicit criteria for A. Acceptance
63. With respect to LDG, What is the difference between F-IRB and A-IRB? A. F-IRB permits to
use prescribed LDG estimates and A-IRB permits to use own internal LGD estimates
64. The relation of Return on Asset to risk assessed under Financial Feasibility
report is A. Negative
65. Hashing of data ensure B. Integrity
66. What is the full form of CCF? C. Credit Conservation Factor
67. The eight business lines are , Corporate Finance, Trading & services, Retail Banking,
Commercial Banking, Asset Management, Retail brokerage
D. Payment & settlement, Agency Services
68. With the increase in LGD, the requirement of capital will A. Increase
69. Maximum Applicable score in pre sanction process of CRM is B. 305
70. The facility of CC(Carbon Copy) in email is provided for -- C. to make a copy of official communication
to the controlling authority i.,e. your manager

71. Who is empowered to make a request for issuance of LOOK Out Circular to prevent the promoters /
directors leaving the country to escape from criminal action D. chairman
72. Dynamic Review is conducted in case of borrowers enjoying aggregate limits of Rs. 500 crore when
b. Half yearly intervals even if there is no trigger generated
73. If identity of the whistle blower/complainant could not be estimated, how the complaint will be
treated/ B. it will be treated as anonymous complaint….
74. Once a near miss event is reported, based on priority , identifying the cause(s) and initiating an action
plan for prevention of recurrence should be formulated A. True
75. What sort of intruders are actually “gud Guys” doing good things for your network.
B. Ethical Hacker
76. If ten lac customers out of 1 crore want to .........A. Customer identification risk
77. Which of the following is NOT recommended when using public computers?
D. No need to check the configuration …
78. RCSA helps in early detection of unidentified and/or under estimated risks A.True
79. Market risk has the following risk components D. all of the above
80. In measuring the capital requirements for General market risk, which are designed to capture the risk
of loss arising out of charges in the market interest rates which are the two principal method?
C. Maturity & Duration
81. Which action taken in cases where suomoto proceedings initiated by investing agencies eg.CBI
C. The case is to be reported as fraud.

82. Bank A has recently increased the interest rate for its Home Loans by 0.5% p.a. How should the bank
inform its existing Home Loans customers?
C. Bank has to send updates to customers….
of B. 4 quarters
84. Under its standard 239, BCBS has set out principles to strengthen Bank’s capabilities in
D. Digital Banking
85. What can detect the creeping privilege? C. Account review
86. In case of project financing, the Banks and FIs seek to ensure end use of funds by obtaining certificate
from the A. charted accountant
87. Which of the following describes the freedom of being observed, monitored or examined without
consent or knowledge B. Privacy
88. What is spoofing C. Malicious practice in which ……….
89. Which is the appellate authority under RTI Act for appeals pertaining to Branches D. Circle CGM
90. Which of the following is NOT the limitation of IDS ?
B. It cannot tell you exactly how the attack occurred

91. will primarily be responsible to put in place the appropriate approved mitigation measures
immediately to prevent recurrence of NMEs? A. Branch/Unit where the event has..
92. If acompliant has been lodged against a borrower with any law Enforcement Agency (LEA) like
police/CBI/ED etc. For any dishonest act. Such as removal of goods/disposal of assets/ property
charged to the Bank, the borrowal account is to be reported as fraud within
A.15days
B. 30 days of lodging of complaint/FIR with the LEA C. 3months D.No such action
93. Leverage Ratio shall be for the DSIBs B. 4.00%

94. Which option Is not part of Microsoft office 365 productivity suite D. Webex
95. Bob received a message from David that was encrypted with asymmetric algorithm. What key he
should use to decrypt it. B. Bob’s Private Key
96. Which of the following is not part of CIA traid C. Authentication
97. In basic indicator approach, capital charge is calculated on A. Gross Income
98. In a branch headed by an Asst. General manager, OTMS alerts to be responded by
D. AGM only
99. Accounts suspected as fraud by auditors during RFIA are reported in the suspected fraud portal by
them. A view regarding fraud or otherwise needs to be taken by the concerned circle/BU within
B. 30 days of reporting the account as “ suspected fraud” in the portal
100. What is SPIM? B. spim is short form of spam over instant messaging
101. As per RBI guidelines, exposure limit for a country should not exceed the Bank’s except in the
case of Insignificant Risk category. B. Regulatory capital
102. To hide information inside a picture, what technology is used C. Steganography

103. The relation of Cost to Income to risk assessed under financial stability report is
Positive
104. Applicable risk weight for exposure on core investment companies (CICs) D.100%
105. Potential Future Exposure (PEE), Current exposure (CE) & Expected positive Exposures (EPE)
arethe concepts used in A. Counterparty Risk Management
106. As per “Alertness Award for Near Miss Events including Preventive/Detection/Foiling of Frauds”
, Under Category (ii) is applicable for how much amount involved. C. From Rs.5.00
lacs to Rs. 25.00 lacs
107. Basel III recommendations will improve the banking system by increasing the skills to cover
theshock of financial crisis. Basel III will also increase the financial risk. B.False
108. What is Credit Conservation factor (CCF) for Financial Bank Guarantees A.100%
109. A dash board for fraud prone branches has been developed and made available to controllers by
A. Data Analysis Department, GITC
110. Similar events occurring multiple times should be B. Given higher priority
111. CERT-in represents A. Computer Emergency Response Team India
112. Which of the following is a security incident? B. An employee accessing a colleague’s
system using a guessed password, to complete an official work.

113. Beta is the slope of B. The Capital market line
114. The authority to place embargo or removal of embargo for assuming exposure on any country lies
with A. MD (R,C & SARG) B. DMD ( IBG)
115. BEICFs C. Both (a) and (b) above
116. What is CFR B. It is abbreviation for Central Fraud Registry. RBI
provides fraud data based on FRMs reported by various Banks and select FIs
117. The risk that an investor will suffer from lack of diversification and investing too heavily in
onetype of security is known as A. Concentration risk
118. Which of the following is not a segmentation of network A. VPN
119. What is full form of ORMS C. Operational risk management
120. Which officer in the public authority provides information under RTI act C. PIO
121. Under IBC 2016, who is the Adjudicating Authority for corporate person? B. NCLT
122. Not insuring the assets charged to Bank is an example of B. Lagging/detective
123. Under Human Capital Impact assessment, is assessed on scale having rating options
5 ( impact 1 to impact 5)
124. What type of connectivity is used for Remote VPN connection D. Internet
125. To prevent or timely identify fraudulent disposal of mortgage property, Bank has mandated
D. Both 1 and 2 are correct
126. CCIL stands for D. Clearing Corporation of India Ltd.

127. Under regulatory Impact assessment, is assessed on a scale having rating options
C. 7(impact 1 to impact 7)
128. Reporting to investigating agencies, Police/CBI is not mandatory for fraud cases
D. All cases below Rs.10000/-

129. A borrowal account that has been extended credit facilities by a consortium of Banks , is Red
flagged (RFA) by a member Bank today. As per RBI guidelines, the RFA details are to be uploaded
inCRILC within days of identification as RFA A.7
130. The provisioning in respect of existing loans/exposures of the Bank to companies having
director/s (other than nominee directors of government/financial institutions brought on board at the
time of distress) , whose name/s appear more than once in the list of willful defaulters, will be in
case of standard accounts. A. 5%
131. are indicators of a Bank’s operational risk profile that reflects underlying business risk factors
and an assessment of the effectiveness of the internal control environment. A.BEICF
132. What is the purpose of Tranche I,II and III data submitted by the banks to RBI
C. RBI assess the risk and capital position of the

bank…..
133. NFB exposure can A. exceed 100% Bank’s total FB exposure
C. Not exceed 100% Bank’s total FB exposures
134. What is the minimum exposure limit at present for Red Flagging an account B.3 cr
135. PV01 is change in price of bond for bps change in yield A. 1
136. With reference to revised RAROC framework, undrawn portion of Cash Credit Limits attract
,CCF of C. 20%
137. Whistle Blower complaint can be lodged through D. any of these
138. What type of vulnerability allows attackers to gain access of underlying DatabaseC.SQL Injection
139. Number of days ATM cash did not tally with ADMIN balance is an example of Key risk Indicator
A.TRUE
140. Who is the second layer of IMM? B. Reviewer of Incident
141. Non-Trigger based Dynamic Review of Rating above Rs.500Crs. is not required for
C. Mahartna&Navratna
142. During RCSA exercise where there is a divergence of opinion as to the rating of the risk,
howshould one deal with the situation C. Both a and b above
143. Total how many categories are available under Alertness Award for Near Miss Events including
Prevention/ Detection/ Foiling of Frauds” C.3
144. According to KYC guidelines, a customer is D. All of the above
145. What is meant by the term spamming C. Unsolicited emails to large number of…..
146. The weighing factor for cash assets is B.0%
147. What should be done with equipment that is at the end of its life cycle and that is being Donated to
a Charity? C. Sanitize it
148. Web sites with SSL can improve the security of online transactions, but which of the following
is NOT a function provided by SSL C. Verifies…….
149. Once a near miss event is reported, based on priority, identifying the cause(s) and initiating an
action plan for prevention of recurrence should be formulated B.False
150. As a step to prevent/minimize fraud through cloning of cheques, details of cheque books ordered
by the customer are restricted to the home branch CBS users B. TRUE
151. Frauds by cloning of cards can be minimized /prevented if C. All ATMs are enabled
withchip Reader software and customers are allowed to use only Chip based cards
152. What is the full form of RCSA C. Risk and control self-assessment
153. Limits on the maximum amount that can be lent to a single borrower has been put to avoid or
control A. Concentration risk
154. The main exemptions which would normally be applicable to the Bank are
D. All of the above

155. Tractor loan sanction may be considered after credit enhancement or to be forwarded to next
higher authority , if credit score of the applicant is in the range B. 40%-
60%
156. Expected loss in a loan the average anticipated credit loss that happens in the normal course of
Business and it is covered by? C. Provisions & Pricing
157. Frauds detected by Bank’s are to be reported to RBI through FMR
A. Within 7 days from the date of detection
158. What term describes the forgery of an email header so that the message appears to have
originated from a genuine source B. E-mail spoofing
159. The assessment of control for each of the identified risk will be based on C. both a & b
160. What is botnet? C. It is a network of Zombie computers under the remote……..
161. What is the full form of BYOD? B. Bring your own device
162. Incremental exposure of the banking system to a Specified borrower beyond Net Permissible
Leading Limit (NPLL) will attract additional risk weight of B. 75%
163. Internet access through Bank’s centralized internet proxy is allowed in SBI so that employees can
B. perform job responsibilities

164. Maximum loss on an instrument or a portfolio that can be expected over a given time interval at a
specified level of probability is computed by A. VaR
165. A person making a request under RTI need not give any reason for the request or any personal
details except that may be necessary for contacting him A. TRUE
166. Which of the following features is least likely a benefit of collateralization?
D. reduce credit exposure
167. Valuation of Collateral such as immovable properties is required to be done every year/Years
C.Three
168. Roles of a controller with respect to Near Miss Events are to C. Both A&B
169. Whether users can share the folders in their desktop with other users in the Bank’s network
C. yes, if specifically authorised

170. What is the maximum number of days allowed for IBC resolution process D. 330
171. Full form of MRTWG? C. Model Review Technical Working Group
172. RBI has extended the transition period for implementing the last tranche of 0.625% under the
Capital Conservation Buffer (CCB), it will be effective from D. 01-Oct- 21
173. Primary responsibility for effectively managing Operational Risk in our bank lies with
B. Board of directors
174. I have no work in conservation of capital if I am not working as a D. none of the above
175. The frequency f submission of CRILC main report is ? A.Monthly
176. Which of the following would generally not be considered an asset in a risk analysis?
D. users profile files
177. The arrangement of keeping the source code of software with a neutral third party with join
rights of vendor & Bank is termed as B. Software escrow
178. In RAROC, LGD is based on B. Internal rating

179. This is not an example of NME relating to Non _IT areas
D. Unsuccessful hacking attempts on IT components
180. How many types of risk index in RCSA? D. 4
181. is the data exchanged between an HTTP server and a browser ( a client of the server) to store
state information on the client side and retrieve it later for server use A. cookies
182. The unauthorised interception of information through tapping of wire or network over
which the information is flowing is called b. sniffing
183. As per CVC guidelines, frauds with what amount to be reported to CBI
B. Rs.3 crores and above
184. Master netting arrangements are used for reducing counterparty risk arising from-
transactions. B. Derivative Investments
185. Minimum amount is under Alertness Award for Near Miss Events
includingPrevention/Detection/Foiling of Frauds? A. 5000
186. The right to information act is associated with which fundamental right
a. Freedom of Speech and expression

187. What is adware ? C. It is a software that displays advertising banners while the ……
188. Bank A has marketing the mutual fund products of B Mutual fund through its branches. Will the
code of bank’s commitment to customers be applicable to the mutual fund products of B mutual fund
sold through bank A branches A. yes, it is applicable to all products and services offered by the
bank, including those marketed by it.
189. Govt-penalty die to delayed reporting is classified under which Basel defined category
C. Agency services
190. What sort of intruders are actually “gud guys” doing good things for your network
B. Ethical Hackers
191. If prices of Gold fluctuate this is a type of B. Commodity Risk
192. Policy of cheque collection includes C. Instant credit of local and non local cheques
193. All historical/ internal loss data to be categorized into RBI defined B. 8X7 matrix
194. Control operating effectiveness parameters with regard to RCSA are rated by
D. None of the above
195. Internet websites/API s shall be hosted in Bank’s zone in data center environment
C. demilitarized
196. NSFR(net stable funding ratio) guidelines shall be effective from the quarter commencing?
A. 01-oct-21
197. Staff accountability uncases of misappropriation of funds by staff members to be completed
within weeks under fast track disciplinary proceedings mechanism (FTDPM) B. 24 weeks
, Under Category (iii) is applicable for how much amount involved. D. Rs. 25.00
lacs and above
199. Which of the following is not an Operational risk event B. External publicity
200. At RBO level who is designated for reviewing of the incidents created by the branch
C. CM( C&R)
201. There exists possibility of general reluctance on the part of the operating staff to report NMEs
A. on account of fear of accountability
202. Which of the Business lines are not applicable for our bank.
203. AGL stands for A. Aggregate gap limit
204. The effectiveness of new set of mitigation measures can be gauged in the next cycle of
RCSAexercise A.True
205. Full form of CRD C. Credit review Department
206. List of willful defaulters provides information for outstanding of C. Rs.25.00 lacs and above
207. The authority to sanction exposure limit on a foreign bank lies with C. ECCB
208. To which phase of the information security management cycle does information security incident
handling belong? C. Monitoring & recording
209. What is the present Repo rate? B.4%
210. While conducting stress test for market risk loss incurred due to adverse movement in a single
risk factor is known as B. scenario analysis
211. Time line of any incident from capturing by branches to approval from AGM (ORM) in IMM
A. 5 days
212. A leading key risk indicator helps to prevent or stop the risk event from occurring A. True
213. The maximum ceiling on exposure to an individual is
A. Maximum aggregate exposure of Rs.100cr or its equivalent
214. With reference to internal rating mapping to external rating for exposure more than 500 cr, SBI is
equal to D. AAA
215. According to RBi guidelines, from fiscal 2018, Incremental exposure of the banking system to a
Specified borrower beyond Net Permissible Leading Limit (NPLL) would deemed to be carry higher
risk, which would be recognized by C. all the above
216. Whenever you receive a mail and have to consult it with outside persons, you should forward the
same along with history and attachments to the outside person. Is it advisable? :C.Draft a new mail…..
217. What is the limit for regulatory retail portfolio? C. 7.5 crores
218. Banks has a scheme for rewarding employees for preventing frauds, wherein the employees are
given a certificate of merit and a cash award. It is known as C. Alertness award
219. I have no role in conservation of capital if I am working as a D. none of the above
220. How many Early Warning Signals related to fraud are identified by
RBI A.7 B.10 C. 44 D.120
221. Leverage ratio of SBI(group) as on 31.03.2021 is C.5.39%
222. Which of the following is a potential fraud risk D. all the three
223. Placement is the process of placing thourhg deposits or other means, illegal cash proceeds into
traditional C. Both a & b
224. The legal entity identifier (LEI) code is a character unique identity code assigned to entities who
are parties to a financial C. 20
225. An official at a Branch wants to develop a software which will keep track of all the complaints…..
A. Branches are not permitted to take up…
226. Which of the following is a component of Tier 2 capital as per Basel III?
A. General Provisions and Loss Reserves
227. Who is the competent authority for identification of fraud for cases below Rs.5.00 lacs
A. GM of Network
228. The relation of Growth in profit to risk assessed under Financial Stability Report is
A. Negative
229. This is an attack in which multiple compromised systems attack a single target, causing users to
be denied normal services. C. DDoS
230. As per RBI guidelines the stress shock for baseline scenario for Interest rate risk of trading book
should be C. 250bps
231. What type of attack uses email and attempts to trick high-level executives?
C. Whaling
232. RCSA does not involve the business Groups/Support Groups…..B. False
233. Design effectiveness denotes A…
234. Frauds in mortgage of immovable properties can be prevented if D. all the three
235. What is Risk Weight % and standard asset provision% for Home loans above Rs. 7 lakhs?
B.50%, 0.25%
236. Near Miss can be classified into Basel defined Loss event Types A.True
237. Which of the following is most likely to occur as a direct result of a pandemic
B.Increase in Advances
238. What can a customer do if he/she is not satisfied with the services rendered by a particular bank
branch D. Customer can seek redressal as per the banking Ombudsman scheme 2006
239. In calculating the VaR, the minimum holding period prescribed by RBI is days C.10
240. The risk weight of 75 percent will apply to all fresh exposures and also to existing exposures
where incremental exposure may be taken by the banks upto the revised limit of C.
7.5Cr
241. Review of Externally Unrated Exposures (either at borrower level or instrument level) of Rs. 10
crores and above each to be capped at % of the Bank’s domestic exposure exclusive of food
advances ,advances against our own bank deposits, personal segment advances and exposure to banks A. 0.05
B. 0.1 C. 0.15 D. 0.2
242. The capital charge on each business line is calculated by multiplying income by a factor (denoted)
given by assigned to that A. Regulator, Business line B. Corporate centre, account
C. Regulator, bank D. Corporate centre, branch

243. Quick Mortality is an example of A. Key risk
indicator
244. Full form of CRILC C. Central respiratory of information on large credits
245. Banks using standardized measurement for Credit risk in OTC derivates must add a capital charge
to cover C. Credit Valuation Adjustment Risk
246. Which of the following is not considered as security measures implemented by an e-commerce
websiteB. cookie
247. Internal loss data would include A.Actual loss b. Potential loss C.Near misses
D. Attempted frauds
248. The one of the objectives of market risk management is A.maximising returns
B. Optimizing resources C. Maximising the risk adjusted rate of return D. Managing
portfolios
249. In the formula for market risk capital charge calculation issued by RBI what is the
minimum number of factors set for mc &ms B.3
250. If anything goes wrong in regard to product and services, the bank should immediately
C. Correct the mistake and cancel any bank charges that have charged for the services
251. ICAAP is the document approved by the Banks board and submitted to RBI. What tis the full
formof ICAAP? A. Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment process
252. From which date Large Exposure Framework (LEF) will be implemented B.01-April-19
253. The weighing factor for CRE assets is d.100%
254. After the completion of the SSL handshake, which of the following keys is used to provide security
D. A symmetric session key

255. Flash reports in respect of fraud cases where amount involved is Rs.5 crores and above, is to be
sent to RBI A.With in 7 days of receipt of information at the head offcie
256. Operational risk is the risk loss from C. Both a&b
257. Un successful hacking attempts on IT components can be classified as Near Miss Event(NME)
B.Yes
258. To take exposure on a Foreign Banks? C. Approved exposure Limit must be in place
259. The minimum regulatory required CAR of the bank as on 01.04.2021 is? A.9
B.10.875 C. 11.475 D. 12.1
260. What is the full form of KRI? C. Key Risk Indicator
261. Layering means converting cash into D. All of the above
262. Which of the following will ensure that the user is connecting to Bank’s official internet banking
websiteB. By typing complete address in the address bar……
263. For stress testing in Operational Risk following Tool is used B. Scenario analysis
264. If other things remain constant, with increase in the value of TOL/TNW, ability of the company to
borrow (to raise debt) A. Would increase
265. Leverage Ratio is calculated as D. Tier 1 capital / Total exposure
266. Which of the following statement in respect of Near Miss Management Process is not correct
B. Private Browsing only protects me from people…..
267. Which one of the following is the condition for PCA risk threshold 1 criteria? A.
Net NPA>= 6 but < 9%
268. Does private browsing fully ensure that no one is able to know what you did online?
269. Full form of LEF? C. Large Exposure Framework
270. Provision of country risk exposures are to be made on countries in which the Banks' net
funded exposure is: c. 1% or more of its total assets
271. Scenario analysis is a forward looking exercise... A. TRUE
272. Sharing of borrowers data with outsiders results in B. credit risk
273. The bank has a mechanism wherein an employee can report fraudulent/suspicious activities of a
college/peer discretely to an identified nodal officer of the bank. The scheme is called B. Whistle
Blower policy
274. Branches have to respond OTMS alerts’ within A. 3 days
275. What is the risk called when one bank makes the decision about how much risk to take, while
someone else (like government) bears the costs if things go badly? B. Moral hazard
276. Bank’s risk measurement system must be well B. Documented

277. What is credit Information report? C. it is a factual record of borrower….
278. The components of Advanced measurement Approach are D. a , b &c
279. RBI prescribes three methods for calculating OR capital charge. Which one of the following is
not among these methods? C. Advanced Monitoring Approach
280. Fraud cases involving are monitored and reviewed by Committee of Executives on Frauds
(COEF) and special committee of the board for monitoring large Value Frauds (SCBMF)
B. Rs. 5.00 crores and above
281. What is the purpose of Tranche I,II,and III data submitted by the banks to RBI C. RBI assess
risk and capital position of the bank under RBC….

282. PD used in RAROC framework is based on C. Both Internal and External rating
283. The method/s for calculating operational risk is/are D. All the above
284. CGTMSE covered loan account slipping to NPA, should be tagged as NPA on CGTMSE site within
D. Subsequent quarter of NPA date
285. The asset portion of a bank’s balance sheet includes A. Cash, investment in
Govt.securities and other securities, and loans and advances
286. What port is typically used to accept administrative connections using the SSH utility? B.22
287. Market risk limits are based on B. VaR
288. Suspected fraud portal contains details of accounts which are suspected as fraudulent by auditors
during RFIA. The portal is maintained by B. IAD
289. what can you do if information is denied or not provided under RTI act.. A.
Appeal to appellate authority…
290. Working/ access of Bank network for official purpose other than from base location is
called B. Telemarketing
291. Which of the following is/are included in 7 loss event as per basel defined matrix:
(D) all the above
292. Pillar I of the mutually reinforcing pillars on which Basel III is based is
B. Minimum capital Requirements
293. Mobile apps can be downloaded from B. Only legitimate app store/play store
294. An “aggressive” common stock would have a beta A. Equal to Zero
295. Within _ days of his appointment, the Insolvency resolution professional makes a public
announcement, inviting all the potential creditors to file claims against the debtor for their dues A. 3
days
296. How can a user protect sensitive data on laptop in the event of loss of laptop
d. BY USING ENCRYPTION
297. Under the revised PCA, framework for banks , the number of key areas for monitoring
are C.3
298. Borrowers who have defaulter / not defaulted but have committed a fraud in the account
would be debarred from availing bank finance from SCBs, Development Financial Institutions,
govt. owned NFBCs, Investment institutions for a period of C. 5 years
299. What is the user id (Creator of the incidents)of any the branch IMM
A. Combination of sbi.5 digit branch code
300. Which of the following is a part of post sanction process in Credit risk management CRM
C. Insurance cover for assets charged
301. A staff misappropriated an amount of Rs.25 lac…….. C. Rs. 25 lac as the amount involved …..
302. When the actions can lead to the entire financial system coming to a standstill , it is called
A. Systemic risk
303. A KRI in Red zone needs C. Immediate escalation
304. Under LEF, for Indian branches of foreign non GSIBs, exposure limit on a non GSIB,……
C.25% ,20%
305. As per RBI guidelines, the CRR requirement of banks will be reduced to % of their
NDTL from April 2020 D.3.00%
306. Key risk indicators D. all the above
307. What qualities is essential in an employee o check and prevent fraudulent activity? D.
allthe three
308. CPIOs are officers designated by the bank under RTI act and placed at B.LHO
309. For a fraud base loan of Rs. 1.00 crore, the bank will have to provide Rs.—lacs as capital
@12% CAR and RW 100% B.12
310. The basel III is to be implemented by banks in India as per the guidelines issued by D.RBI
311. Key loggers are a form of A. spyware
312. Net (i.e., residual )risk isB. a measure of risk after taking controls into account
313. As per Basel III accord, which form of capital is ? going concern capital for bank
A. Tier 1 capital
314. Under CRA model, following risk are considered D. all the above
315. The norms for the bank exposure and the sharing of exposure with other banks, are applicable in
respect of borrowers enjoying aggregate exposure from banking system of more than D.500 cr
316. Branches can prevent frauds if D. both a and b
317. Advanced measurement approach of operational risk is B.
Based on internally developed…
318. According to RBi guidelines on ‘enhancing credit supply for large borrowers through
market mechanism ‘ ASCL is aggregate of A. Fund based credit limits only
319. Filer avasion is the techniques used by phishers to use images instead of text B. to
make it hard….
320. Willful defaults broadly cover A. all of these
321. Which risk is not associated with G-sec B. credit risk
322. BRACHES/OFFICER ARE REQUIRED TO REPORT Near Miss events through
B. incident management module(IMM)
323. Liquidity coverage Ratio(LCR-Group)as on 31.03.2020 quarterly B.144.09%
324. Credit derivatives are used as credit protection and a recognised credit risk. Mitigation
product, one example of credit derivative is: a. credit default swap
325. A wanted to to know the number of A/cs B having in the bank. Can it be given.
B.No, personal information cannot be given
326. Credit concentration risk may arise due to D. all the above
327. Which of the following is not a component of common equity tier 1 capital as per Basel III
C. balance in P& L account at the…..
328. In case of ATM end points, third party audit certificates shall be submitted to the bank
by the vendors A. Anually
329. Banks will face a significant additional capital requirement under basel III D.
Yes
330. Testing of software for security featured by evaluating its internals including
design/architecture and code is B. white box testing
331. The rationale behind RBI seeking flash reports for frauds of Rs. 5 crand above
is D.both 1 and 2
332. Participants of an RCSA workshop at an entity(Branch/CPC/Vertical/FO) have to :(D)
All
333. In case of which risk, do we have a lot of information easily available to monitor
closely? A. Market risk
334. Frauds in SME/ Corporate loans are perpetrated by diversion of loaned funds…
D. both 1 and 2
335. which of the following is not a component of Common Equity Tier 1 capital as per basel III? d.
perpetual non cummulatinve preference shares
336. What are the risk components that are used to measure credit risk under Basel II a.
PD, LGD, EAD ,Maturity
337. Borrowers having aggregate fund based working capital limit of… A. April 1 2019
338. All securities held in HFT portfolio shall be have maximum holding period of A. 90days
339. For calculation of moving average under financial risk parameters in CRA how many years value to
be taken
340. The components for validation of output from a model will compromise
341. For Indian branches in case of facility of loans/advances/BG- country exposure to be reckoned
d. On geographical location where economic activity and remittance of surplus take place
342. All investments falling under the Investment portfolio of the bank have to e classified D .all of the
above
343. For a fraud angle examination, group approach is applicable for units/companies forming pert of a group
with total exposure D. Rs. 50cr and above
344. Which of the following EMM product is used with in the bank B. VM ware ariwathc
345. Example of intangible securities are C. both ..
346. Fsa
347. Df
348. Sdaf
349. sdfa
1. Unexpected loss is covered by

b) Capital
2. What is the timeframe for taking a decision on suspicious transactions pointed out by RFIA / SARG.
A: One month
3. The General Manager of Fraud Monitoring Cell (FMC), FPMD at Corporate Centre will be Nodal Officer,of the
Bank, for sending request of opening LOC to the Bureau of Immigration
4. The competent authority to Sign LOC Opening request is Chairman
5. Statistical Closure of Frauds can be done in cases

Fraud involving upto Rs. 1.00 Lacs
6. Internal Loss Data would include

Actual Loss
Potential Loss
Near Misses
Attempted Frauds
7. SBI has developed a strategy to share customer information database between offices in two countries. In this
situation, it is MOST important to ensure (Negative Marking)
Data is encrypted in transit and at rest
Data sharing complies with local laws and regulation at both locations
A nondisclosure agreement is signed
Risk coverage is split between the two locations sharing data
8. Staff accountability in case of misappropriation of funds by staff members to be completed within

weeks under Fast Track Disciplinary Proceedings Mechanism (FTDPM)
12 weeks
24 weeks
48 weeks
52 weeks
9. A walk in Customer is defined

Customers whose accounts are inoperative and there is no transaction for last two years. Customers who have
only deposit accounts and do not avail any loan from the Bank
A person who does not have an account based relationship with the Bank, but undertakestransaction with
us.
Customers with deposit and loan accounts both
10. Which is the most appropriate method to prevent unauthorized access to your desktop if you are leavingyour
workstation for a short duration (Negative Marking)
Lock the Desktop using Windows Key + L
11. Who is the Designated Officer for receiving complaint under Whistle Blower Policy
DGM (Vigilance) at Circles and CVO at Corporate Centre

DGM & CDO at Circles and CGM (HR) at Corporate Centre DGM &
CFO at Circles and CGM (FPMD) at Corporate CentreAGM (HR) at
Circles and DGM (HR) at Corporate Centre
12. Which of the following provide fixed income (Bond) price for valuationon a daily basis.
RBI
FBIL
SEBI
FEDAI
13. With reference to LGD, what is the difference between F-IRB and A-IRB
F-IRB permits to use prescribed LGD estimates and A-IRB permits to use own internal LGD
estimates.
A-IRB permits to use prescribed LGD estimates and F-IRB permits to use own internal LGD estimatesBoth approaches
allows to use internal LGD estmates
Both approaches are same, no difference
14. What is breach of confidentiality

The type of violation involves unauthorized reading of data
15. Compromising Confidential Information comes under

Vulnerability
16. A landless labour having no document of identity and address proof approaches your branch for openingof an
account. What will you do
Option A. Will open the account after obtaining self attested….
17. In measuring the capital requirements for General Market Risk, which are designed to capture rge riskof loss
arising out of changes in the market interest rates which are the two principal methods
Optimum and Marginal
18. The Bank has approved for handling Cyber Security incidents.
Cyber Security Policy and Standards and a SOP
19. Which of the following provide fixed income (Bond) price for valuation on a daily basis
SEBI
20. With respect to LGD, what is the difference between F-IRB and A-IRB
F-IRB permits to use prescribed LGD estimates and A-IRB permits to use own internal LGDestimates
21. Role of ORMD is to implement and maintain ORM framework

TRUE
22. KRI thresholds are fixed after going through

Both a&b
23. Wef 30 June 2019, applicable risk weightage for Unrated Corporate exposure above Rs.200 crores
1.5
24. If prices of Gold fluctuate this is a type of

Commodity risk
25. Minimum total capital including CCB increased from 9.0% to under Basel III
0.121
26. Monitoring of top Single and Group Borrowers in the Bank helps in mitigating which of the following risks
Credit Concentration Risk
27. Hackers get into the company’s systems and steal valuable data
Operational risk
28. Do we have policies on how / what you can and cannot use email for?
Yes, there are policies limiting what emails I can and cannot send while at work
29. The success of a computer forensic investigation depends on the concept of?
Chain of evidence
30. Which of the following refers to a series of characters used to verify a user’s identity?
Password
31. When an incident of suspected fraudulent activity comes to notice, who will take a prima facie view onit?
Respective Controller
32. involves using electronic means, including the Internet, to harass a person or a group ofpeople.
Cyberstalking
33. In a Banks SME loan portfolios, 200 accounts are NPA, amounting to 400 crores. Out of this recoverycould be
made only in 100 accounts amounting to 300 crores. What will be the LGD of the portfolios?
0.5
34. Who is the Nodal Officer responsible for vetting the complaint and ensuring that it is as per the prescribedchecklist
before reporting the case to CBI
CVO
35. Effective KRIs should be

All of the above
36. Maximum guarantee coverage under CGTMSE scheme is

200 Lakh
37. Substantial exposure limit for single borrower means

The exposure of a single borrower exceeds threshold limit decided in the loan policy of the Bank
38. Risk awareness day

1st September
39. Increasing in number of frauds over the time indicate

Both 1 and 2
40. For non-advance frauds, 100% provision will be made in the same
Quarter
41. Who is the competent authority for identification of fraud for cases below 5.00 lac
FIC at circles and Bus
42. Probability that borrower will fail to meet his contractual obligation due to borrower specific or marketspecific
reasons is called
Default Risk
43. Which of these is a risk transfer ways

Insurance
44. Cash retention limit exceeding at a branch on many occasions is an example of key indicator
TRUE
45. As per RBI guidelines the probable loss over 10 day horizon for calculating VaR at confidence
level
0.95
46. What is the risk weigh for AAA rated foreign sovereigns?
15
47. What does the ‘https://’ at the beginning of a URL denote

That information entered the site is encrypted
48. Authority to approve the market risk management policy of the Bank is
Risk management committee of the board
49. Risks falling under High Risk and Critical Risk categories
Exceed the risk tolerance levels and need to be monitored
50. Suspected Fraud portal contains details of accounts which are suspected as fraudulent by the auditorsunder
RFIA. The portal is maintained by
CPM Deptt
51. On cancellation of PGEL, on any Foreign Bank, the existing exposure is allowed to be continued till
Maturity of the exposure
52. Timely and quick identification of fraud helps in

All three
53. Which branch can undertake the process of KYC updation

Only Home branch can update
54. Operational controls are commonly utilized in which of the following risk mitigation strategies
Avoid the risk
55. Which category of Agri loans can be covered as MUDRA loans under PMMY
All of the above
56. List of wilful defaulters provides the information for outstanding of

25 lac and above
57. Unexpected Loss is calculated based upon a determined confidence level of of assumed correlation
amongst exposure etc
Equivalent to 99.95%
58. As per bank’s IS policy, User account should be locked out automatically after consecutive
unsuccessful login attempts.
3
59. The three Basel III pillars are , and Market Discipline
Minimum capital requirements, Supervisory Reserve Process
All of the above
61. Market risk has the following risk components

All of the above
62. A dashboard for fraud prone branches has been developed and made available to controllers by
Data Analytics Department, GITC
63. To prevent or timely identify fraudulent disposal of mortgage property Bank has mandated
Both 1 & 2 are correct
64. Which of the following is a potential fraud risk
All the three
65. Threat to an information cannot be

Transferred
66. Within days of appointment, the Insolvency Resolution Professional makes a public announcement, inviting
all the potential creditors to file claim
7 days
67. Segregation of duties is security control primarily used to

Establish dual check
68. Which one of the following transactions does not make any economic sense
Having large number of accounts with the same bank with frequent transfers between differentaccounts
69. How is risk calculated?

Likelihood*Impact
70. Cyber frauds are frauds which are committed

Both 1 & 2
71. Market risk limits are based on

VaR
72. Which of the following is the effective way to mitigate the risk of confidential data leakage to unauthorized
stakeholders?
Implement role based access controls
73. Expected Loss refers to

An amount estimated to be sacrificed in a given bad loan
74. BCBS stands for

Basel committee for banking standard
75. Participants of RCSA workshop at an entity have to

All abc above
76. RBI has made mandatory to upload the KYC data to CKYCR is case of
Individual account and legal entity and during the time of KYC updation
77. Which of the following is the indicator of suspicious transactions in a customer account
All of the above
78. The CRA should be reviewed at half yearly intervals for the units
Having CRA SB-10 and worse
79. Key indicators are linked to risks or controls in identified areas

True
80. Whistle blower complaint can be lodged through

Any of these
81. Capital Conservation Buffer (CCB) fully effective from 01.10.2021

82. Global financial crisis period
2008-2009
83. All accounts to be simultaneously examined from angle of possible fraud, when the account are
classifiedas NPA for limits above Rs crore
50
84. Risk Categorisation helps in

Risk Mitigation
85. What action to be taken in cases where suo moto proceedings initiated by investigating agencies eg CBI
Decision too be taken on case to case basis
86. Investments carried out by the Bank shall fall into the following brad categories
Both a & B
87. Which of the following is not amongst the top Information Security Risk?
Distributed Denial of Service
88. As per Alertness award for near miss events including

From 5 lacs to 25 lacs
89. In suspected fraud cases reported by RFIA, decision as Fraud or No Fraud to be taken by the FIC
withinthe time
1 month
90. Classification of frauds such as (i) Misappropriation and Criminal Breach of trust, (ii) cheating and
forgeryetc are based on various sections of IPC
TRUE
91. In assessing the key variables associated with a potential mortgage loan, a bank will charge a
higher interest rate if the borrower has a relatively
High loan to value ratios
92. Full form of ECLGS

Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme
93. Number of lines of defense in operational risk

3
Question 1
What is Reputation Risk?

A) Risk of fluctuations in Net Interest Income and value of assets and liabilities arising from
internal factors ( composition of asset and liabilities portfolio, maturity, interest rate, re-pricing
period etc.) and external factors ( general economic conditions).
B) Risk of damage to the reputation, name or brand arising directly from the organization or
indirectly from the actions of the employees and associated parties such as joint ventures /
subsidiaries, resulting in an adverse impact on the earnings, capital, image and trust.
C) Risk of current or prospective impact on bank"s earnings, capital or standing arising from
the strategic decisions, improper implementation of decisions or failure to respond to changes in
the competitive environment, business cycles, customer preferences, product innovations,
execution and / or other intrinsic risks of business impacting the ability to meet the objectives.
D) Inability to maintain statutory prescriptions, meet contractual and maturing cash outflows
and profitably deploy surplus cash.
Question 2
Major additions in Basel II were
A) Market Risk & The Three Pillars

B) Operational Risk & The Three Pillars
C) Operational Risk & Market Risk
D) Market risk & Liquidity Risk
Question 3
Interest Rate Risk in Banking Book is assessed under
A) Basel Pillar 1
B) Basel Pillar 2
C) Basel Pillar 3
D) Not assessed under Basel Pillars
Question 4
Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) is maesured as a ratio of

A) Available Stable Finding (ASF) to Required Stable funding (RSF) over one year
B) Required Stable funding (RSF) over one year to Available Stable Finding (ASF)
C) Available Stable Finding (ASF) to Required Stable funding (RSF) over 6 months
D) Required Stable funding (RSF) over 6 months to Available Stable Finding (ASF)
Question 5
For CRAR, capital is to be maintained as a percentage of
A) Requisite Assets
B) Risk Weighted Assets
C) Requisite Liabilities
D) Risk Weighted Liabilities
Question 6
The Drivers for Credit Risk are as under
A) Default Risk
B) Recovery Risk
C) Complexity of Exposure
D) All of the above
Question 7
Which of the following is included under Risk Management-
A) exercise of identifying the potential risks

B) analysing and measuring/evaluating the potential risks
C) taking measure to minimize the risks
Question 8
How many members are part of Basel Committee On Banking Supervision (BCBS)
A) 27
B) 74
C) 28
D) 45
Question 9
Which of the following is not a cause of Operational Loss
A) People
B) Process
C) Systems
D) Strategy
Question 10
Market risk is defined as the risk that the value of
A) on balance sheet positions will be adversely affected by movements in market variables.

B) off-balance sheet positions will be adversely affected by movements in market variables.
C) on or off-balance sheet positions will be adversely affected by movements in market
variables.
Question 11
Great Financial Crisis or Subprime Mortgage Crisis was the trigger for
A) Basel I
B) Basel II
C) Basel III
Question 12
Tier 2 capital absorbs losses

A) only when the bank is a Going Concern.
B) only when the bank is a Gone Concern i.e. insolvent.
C) Bank is either a Going Concern or a Gone Concern.
Question 13
Which of the following statement best defines liquidity Risk
A) Inability to maintain statutory prescriptions, meet contractual and maturing cash outflows
and profitably deploy surplus cash)
B) Risk of fluctuations in Net Interest Income and value of assets and liabilities arising from
internal factors ( composition of asset and liabilities portfolio, maturity, interest rate, re-pricing
period etc.) and external factors ( general economic conditions).
C) Risk of loss arising from an uneven distribution of credit exposure in terms of number of
borrowers, segments, industries, geographies.
D) Risk due to inappropriate valuation, deterioration in quality or unclear title to the
properties accepted as collateral
Question 14
Basel I accord primarily catered to
A) Operational Risk
B) Credit Risk
C) Liquidity Risk
D) Market Risk
Question 15
EGRM stands for
A) Exclusive Group Risk Management

B) Enterprise & Group Risk Management
C) Essential Group Risk Management
D) None
Question 16
Market risk is the possibility of loss due to movement in market variables. Which of these
market variables is/ are not relevant for Indian Banks? a) Interest Rate b) Exchange Rate c)
Equity price d) Commodity price
A) only b
B) only c
C) only d
D) b & c
Question 17
Standardised Measurement Method (SMM) is being used by Indian Banks since
A) 31st March 2004

B) 31st March 2005
C) 31st March 2006
D) 31st March 2007
Question 18
What is not the role of board in our Bank in connection with Governance of risk?
A) to identify the principal risks facing by the organisation and assures itself on an ongoing
basis that senior management is responding appropriately to these risks.
B) The board provides direction to senior management by setting the organisation"s risk
appetite.
C) The board provides direction to senior management by setting the organisation"s risk
capacity.
D) To ensure the effectiveness of an organisation"s risk management framework, the board
and senior management need to be able to rely on adequate line functions- including monitoring
and assurance functions - within the organisation.
Question 19
Individuals and businesses have three choices when it comes to dealing with risk- Denial,
Fearand .
A) Passion.
B) Acknowledgement of the existence of risk.
C) Avoidance.
D) Inaction.
Question 20
In the context of Capital Requirements for Banks which of the below statement/s is/ are True:
Statement I Capital is segregated in to Tier 1 and Tier 2. Tier 2 is further segregated in to
Common Equity Tier 1 and Additional Tier 1 capital. Statement II Tier 1 is called Gone Concern
capital and Tier 2 as Going Concern Capital.
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
C) Both I & II are True
D) None of I & II are True
Question 21
Equity Price Risk is the risk arising on account of
A) Change in market price volatility

B) Change in market value due to market price volatility
C) Change in market value due to change in interest rate volatility
Question 22
If the sum of Tier 1 and Tier 2 Capital for the Bank is 9% of Risk Weighted Assets, then Tier 2
capital can be maximum
A) 1.50%
B) 2.00%
C) 2.50%
D) No such restriction
Question 23
Which Risk is part of pillar II
A) Counter Party Risk
B) Credit Risk
C) Market Risk
D) All of the above
Question 24
Market disclosure is part of
A) Pillar I
B) Pillar II
C) Pillar III
D) None
Question 25
Market disclosure is meant for ?
A) Board of Directors
B) Employees of the bank
C) Regulator
D) Market Participants
Question 26
The Standarised approach for Operational Risk Capital calculation a beta factor is used
fordifferent business line. The beta factor is in the range of
A) 12% to 18%
B) 15% to 18%
C) 12% to 15%
Question 27
ICAAP is submitted to
A) Ministry of finance
B) SEBI
C) RBI
D) Not submitted to anyone one. It is for internal consumption.
Question 28
In the context of Credit risk Drivers, syndication exosure is part of
A) Default Risk
B) Recovery Risk
D) All of the above
Question 29
Which committee has set out the requirements for an effective risk management system in
Banks?
A) The Basel committee

B) International Monetary Fund
D) Risk Management Committee
Question 30
Which is not part of ICAAP?
A) Strategic Risk
B) Stress Testing
C) Product pricing
D) Product Risk
Question 1
Capital is kept for unexpected losses, whereas for expected loss, Banks make for
expected losses.
A) estimation
B) provision
C) revision
D) vision
Question 2
B) SEBI
C) RBI
Question 3
Quality of Credit Risk Rating Model is related to
A) Default Risk
B) Recovery Risk
D) All of the above
Question 4
Risk can be defined as the possibilty of loss, which would have an adverse impact .
A) either on a bank"s earnings or its capital.

B) on a Bank"s earnings only.
C) on a Bank"s Capital only.
D) on a bank"s earnings or capital or both.
Question 5
Which of the following is not a input under Advanced Measurement Approach for Operational Risk
management
A) Internal Loss Data

B) Scenario Analysis
C) External Loss Data
D) Ratings
Question 6
The success and failure of a banking institution heavily depends on the strength of the
in the current environment.
A) Risk management system

B) Customer management system
C) Queue management system
D) Cash management system
Question 7
"Sacrifice in compromise"cases will come under
A) Default Risk
B) Recovery Risk
D) Concentration Risk
Question 8
Risk Management is being aware of the and taking advantage of this
knowledge to gain competitive advantage.
A) risks inherent in business

B) number of customers in bank
C) profiles of the customers in bank
D) quality of customer service at branches
Question 9
Risk arises from the regarding an entity's future losses as well as future gains.
A) certainity
B) uncertainity
C) surity
D) security
Question 10
Which of the following is not correct about the third line of defence
A) Internal audit has no role in the corporate governance structure to assure the effective
management of risk.
B) The internal audit function provides assurance to the organisation"s board of directors and senior
management.
C) The assurance covers effectiveness of risk assessment and management by the organisation
D) Internal audit encompasses all elements of risk management framework and organisational
objectives: strategic, ethical, operational reporting and compliance.
Question 11
ICAAP stands for?
A) Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Process

B) Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Procedure
C) International Capital Adequacy Assessment Process
D) None
Question 12
The inability or unwillingness of borrowers to meet their repayment obligations and honor their
commitments.
A) Credit Risk
B) Market Risk
C) Operational Risk
D) Liquidity Risk
Question 13
In the context of Leverage Ratio for Banks which of the below statement/s is/ are True: Statement I It is
meant to serve as a backstop to the risk-based capital requirement. Statement II It helps contain
systemwide build-up of leverage.
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
Question 14
In the context of Leverage Ratio for Banks which of the below statement/s is/ are True: Statement I
Since failure of a Domestic Systemically Important bank would cause significant disruption to the
banking system and the overall economy, the rigour of oversight by the regulator and capital
requirement prescribed for them are more stringent than others. Statement II Minimum Leverage Ratio
mandated by RBI is 4% for Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs).
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
Question 15
Tier 2 capital absorbs losses
A) only when the bank is a Going Concern.

B) only when the bank is a Gone Concern i.e. insolvent.
C) Bank is either a Going Concern or a Gone Concern.
Question 16
Which group was instrumental in creation of Basel Committee On Banking Supervision (BCBS)
A) G-7
B) G-10
C) G-20
D) BRICS
Question 17
There is a natural trade-off between risk and .
A) speed
B) balance
C) failure
D) reward
Question 18
BCBS was set up under the auspices of
A) BIS
B) BRICS
C) ADB
D) IMF
Question 19
Internal fraud is considered an Operational Loss Data. Identify the cause as per Operational Risk
Defenition
A) Process
B) People
C) Systems
D) External Events
Question 20
Under Basel III Banks are required to maintain
A) More capital of higher quality to cover expected losses.

B) More capital of higher quality to cover unexpected losses.
C) More capital of higher quality to cover uexpected & expected losses.
D) Higher quality capital to cover expected losses.
Question 21
Risk is the of uncertainty of results.
A) effect
B) result
C) reason
D) logic
Question 22
ICAAP Takes in to account
A) Pillar I Risks
B) Pillar II Risks
C) Both Pillar I and Pillar II Risk
D) None
Question 23
Which of the following is not correct regarding Risk Identification as per Risk Management Process?
A) Identify which are the inherent risks in the activity

B) Identification of major contributing factors to the Risk being assessed.
C) It is carried out across the Bank at a granular level.
D) This requires that Risk should be identified only at Risk Management Department Corporate Centre
level.
Question 24
Equity Price Risk is the risk arising on account of
A) Change in market price volatility

B) Change in market value due to market price volatility
C) Change in market value due to change in interest rate volatility
Question 25
is further segregated in to Common Equity Tier 1 and Additional Tier 1 capital.
A) Tier 1 Capital
B) Tier 2 Capital
C) Total Capital
D) Buffer Capital
Question 26
Higher the risk, higher will have to be the requirement for a bank.
A) capital
B) cash
C) asset
D) liability
Question 27
under Advance internal Rating Based (AIRB) approach EAD is provided by
A) RBI
B) Bank
C) IDBI
D) DFS
Question 28

C) on or off-balance sheet positions will be adversely affected by movements in market variables.
Question 29
Which of the following is not a cause of Operational Loss
A) People
B) Process
C) Systems
D) Strategy
Question 30
What is Credit Concentration Risk?
A) Risk of loss arising from an uneven distribution of credit exposure in terms of number of borrowers,
segments, industries, geographies
B) Risk due to inappropriate valuation, deterioration in quality or unclear title to the properties accepted
as collateral
C) Risk of legal or regulatory sanctions, material financial loss or loss of reputation as a result of failure
to comply with laws, regulations, rules and cores of conduct applicable
D) The risk of inaccurate assessment of underlying risks arising from inappropriate model development,
calibration weaknesses or incorrect application of the model(s).
Question 1
Which committee has set out the requirements for an effective risk management system in Banks?
Question 2
The three pillars of Basel regulation are
A) Independent
B) Mutually reinforcing
C) Mutually antagonistic.
D) None
Question 3
Which of the following is correct regarding Risk Monitoring as per Risk Management Process?
A) Monitoring for breach of limits and policy guidelines
B) Reporting to Top Management and Regulator
C) Setting up of Risk Governance structure
D) Both 1 & 2
Question 4
Which statement is correct in respect of Risk Management?
A) Risk management is not about avoiding Risk.
B) Risk Management is about being aware of the Risks inherent in business and take advantage of this
knowledge to gain competitive advantage and enhance shareholder value.
C) Risk Management refers to exercise of identifying the potential risk, analysing and
measuring/evaluating those risks and taking measure to minimize those risks.
D) All of the above statements are correct.
Question 5
In the context of Capital Requirements for Banks which of the below statement/s is/ are True: Statement I
Capital is segregated in to Tier 1 and Tier 2. Tier 2 is further segregated in to Common Equity Tier 1 and
Additional Tier 1 capital. Statement II Tier 1 is called Gone Concern capital and Tier 2 as Going Concern
Capital.
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
Question 6
Which of the following is second line of defense for Governance of Risk?
A) Functions that provide dependent assurance on functioning of the other two lines.
B) functions that own and manage risk
C) functions that oversee risks
D) Functions that provide independent assurance on functioning of the other two lines.
Question 7
The Denominator in CRAR caluculation comprises of Risk Weighted Assets for
A) Only Credit Risk
B) Credit Risk + Operational Risk
C) Credit Risk + Operational Risk + Market Risk
D) Credit Risk + Market Risk
Question 8
Which of the following is not correct regarding Risk Idenetification as per Risk Management Process?
A) Identify which are the inherent risks in the activity
B) Identification of major contributing factors to the Risk being assessed.
C) It is carried out across the Bank at a granular level.
D) This requires that Risk should be identified only at Risk Management Department Corporate Centre
level.
Question 9
Bank is currently computing Capital for Market Risk as per the
A) Standardised Measurement Method (SMM)
B) Internal Models Approach (IMA)
C) Revised Minimum Capital Requirements for Market Risk (Jan" 2019)
Question 10
The Drivers for Credit Risk are as under
A) Default Risk
B) Recovery Risk
D) All of the above
Question 11
EGRM stands for
A) Exclusive Group Risk Management
B) Enterprise & Group Risk Management
C) Essential Group Risk Management
D) None
Question 12
Which of the following is not a line of defense to achieve the objectives for Governance of Risk?
Question 13
Internal fraud is considered an Operational Loss Data. Identify the cause as per Operational Risk Defenition
A) Process
B) People
C) Systems
D) External Events
Question 14
Enterprise Risk management manges risks at which level?
A) Individual Company level
B) Group level
C) Both Group and entity level
D) None
Question 15
Leverage ratio includes
A) Only on-balance sheet exposures
B) Only off-balance sheet exposures
C) Both on-balance sheet & off-balance sheet exposures
D) Limited to Derivative exposures
Question 16
Which of the following is first line of defense for Governance of Risk?
Question 17
Which group was instrumental in creation of Basel Committee On Banking Supervision (BCBS)
A) G-7
B) G-10
C) G-20
D) BRICS
Question 18
Which of the following is not correct regarding Risk Assessment as per Risk Management Process?
A) It can be assessed or measured by using quantitative and qualitative tools.
B) It cannot be assessed or measured by using quantitative and qualitative tools.
C) VaR, RCSA etc. are quantitative tools.
D) Some risk like exchange risk, interest rate risk etc can be easily quantified.
Question 19
A) capital
B) cash
C) asset
D) liability
Question 20
Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) aims at to
A) reduce over dependence on short term whole-sale funding during time of buoyant market liquidity .
B) reduce over dependence on short term whole-sale funding during time of stressed market liquidity .
C) increase dependence on short term whole-sale funding during time of buoyant market liquidity .
D) reduce over dependence on long term whole-sale funding during time of stressed market liquidity .
Question 21
Risks are.........
A) Interdependent
B) Independent
C) Dependent
D) Adaptable
Question 22
What percentage of average of three years Gross Income is set aside as Operational Risk capital under the BIA
approach
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 18%
D) 12%
Question 23
The Basel committee has set out the requirements for an effective risk management system. which of the
following is correct in respect of these requirements?
A) Active board and senior management oversight
B) Appropriate policies, procedures and limits
C) Comprehensive and timely identification, measurement, mitigation, controlling, monitoring and
reporting risks
D) All are correct
Question 24
There is a natural trade-off between risk and .
A) speed
B) balance
C) failure
D) reward
Question 25
Default Risk is the risk arising on account of
A) quality of secured exposure
B) high unrated exposures
C) high level of Write Offs
D) All of the above
Question 26
The board provides direction to senior management by setting the organisation's
A) Risk tolerance
B) Risk appetite
C) Risk Capacity
D) Risk adaptability
Question 27
B) SEBI
C) RBI
Question 28
Gross Income under BIA includes
A) Net Profit
B) Operational Expenses
C) Provisiosn
D) All of the above
Question 29
The Numerator in CRAR calculation comprises of
A) Eligible Tier 1 Capital
B) Eligible Tier 2 Capital
C) Eligible Total Capital
D) Eligible CET1 Capital
Question 30
What is Residual Risk arising from Credit Risk Mitigants?
A) Risk arising out of Political, Social and Economic factors which can impinge on a country"s capacity,
ability and willingness to honor its international off- shore obligations
as collateral
C) Risk of loss arising from an uneven distribution of credit exposure in terms of number of borrowers,
D) Risk of legal or regulatory sanctions, material financial loss or loss of reputation as a result of failure
Question 1
How many jurisdictions does Basel Committee On Banking Supervision (BCBS) comprise
A) 45
B) 74
C) 28
D) 47
Question 2
Under Basel III Systemically Important Banks (SIBs) are
A) subject to additional capital requirements.
B) subject to lower capital requirements.
C) subject to higher quality capital requirements.
D) Systemically Important Banks (SIBs) are not covered under Basel III
Question 3
Banks are required to maintain CRAR of
A) 8% (9% in India) on an ongoing basis (excluding Capital Conservation Buffer).
B) 8% (9% in India) on an ongoing basis (including Capital Conservation Buffer).
C) 11% (11.50% in India) on an ongoing basis (excluding Capital Conservation Buffer).
D) 11% (11.50% in India) on an ongoing basis (including Capital Conservation Buffer).
Question 4
What is Talent Risk ?
A) Inability to maintain statutory prescriptions, meet contractual and maturing cash outflows and
profitably deploy surplus cash.
B) Talent (Human Resources) Risk is the risk arising for the Bank from the following: Talent gap/surplus,
employee attrition, employee infidelity, employee productivity, lack of good training infrastructure etc.
C) Risk of fluctuations in Net Interest Income and value of assets and liabilities arising from internal
factors ( composition of asset and liabilities portfolio, maturity, interest rate, re-pricing period etc.) and
external factors ( general economic conditions).
D) Risk of loss arising from an uneven distribution of credit exposure in terms of number of borrowers,
Question 5
Enterprise Risk management looks at ?
A) Individual risk level
B) Group risk level
C) risks of the entity in a holistic manner
D) None
Question 6
Market risk is the possibility of loss due to movement in market variables. Which of the below are the market
variables: a) Interest Rate b) Exchange Rate c) Equity price d) Commodity price
A) a, b & c
B) a, b & d
C) a, c & d
D) a, b, c & d
Question 7
When was Basel III accord released
A) 2004
B) 1988
C) 2010
D) 2006
Question 8
Risk arises from the regarding an entity's future losses as well as future gains.
A) certainity
B) uncertainity
C) surity
D) security
Question 9
Which of the following does not comes under pillar 1(Primary Risk)
A) Credit Risk
B) Market Risk
C) Operational Risk
D) Liquidity Risk
Question 10
A leverage Ratio
A) enhances the build-up of debt to fund banks" investment and activities, reducing the risk of a
deleveraging spiral during downturns.
B) constrains the build-up of debt to fund banks" investment and activities, reducing the risk of a
C) constrains the build-up of capital to fund banks" investment and activities, reducing the risk of a
D) enhances the build-up of capita to fund banks" investment and activities, reducing the risk of a
Question 11
Capital Charge for Credit Risk under Foundation internal Rating Based (FIRB) is computed based on
A) Probability of Default(PD)
B) Loss Given Default
C) Exposure at Default
D) All of the above
Question 12
Which risk is not part of Pillar III
A) Reputation Risk
B) Liquidity Risk
C) Strategic risk
D) All the above
Question 13
Market disclosure is meant for ?
A) Board of Directors
B) Employees of the bank
C) Regulator
D) Market Participants
Question 14
Which of the following is not correct regarding Risk Control as per Risk Management Process?
A) Setting up of Risk Governance structure
B) Setting up policies and limits
C) Setting up of exposure & risk limits
D) Setting up of Customer Relationship Management
Question 15
is further segregated in to Common Equity Tier 1 and Additional Tier 1 capital.
A) Tier 1 Capital
B) Tier 2 Capital
C) Total Capital
D) Buffer Capital
Question 16
The Numerator in Levearge Ratio calculation comprises of
A) Tier 1 Capital
B) Tier 2 Capital
C) Total Capital
D) Additional Tier 1 Capital
Question 17
In the context of Capital Buffers for Banks which of the below statement/s is/ are True: Statement I Banks
retain earnings to build up capital buffers during periods of high economic growth so that they can draw them
down during periods of economic stress. Statement II The two capital Buffers are Capital Conservation Buffer
(CCB) and Countercyclical Capital Buffer (CCyB).
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
Question 18
A) capital
B) cash
C) asset
D) liability
Question 19
In the context of Capital Requirements for Banks which of the below statement/s is/ are True: Statement I
Capital is segregated in to Tier 1 and Tier 2. Tier 2 is further segregated in to Common Equity Tier 1 and
Additional Tier 1 capital. Statement II Tier 1 is called Gone Concern capital and Tier 2 as Going Concern
Capital.
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
Question 20
Capital is kept for unexpected losses, whereas for expected loss, Banks make for expected
losses.
A) estimation
B) provision
C) revision
D) vision
Question 21
Which of the following is not related to three pillars of Basel
A) Minimum capital
B) Supervisory Review Process
C) Market Discipline
D) Capital budget
Question 22
What is Interest Rate Risk in Banking Book (IRRBB)?
A) Risk due to inappropriate valuation, deterioration in quality or unclear title to the properties accepted
as collateral
B) Risk of legal or regulatory sanctions, material financial loss or loss of reputation as a result of failure to
comply with laws, regulations, rules and cores of conduct applicable
C) Risk of damage to the reputation, name or brand arising directly from the organization or indirectly
from the actions of the employees and associated parties such as joint ventures / subsidiaries, resulting in an
impact on the earnings, capital, image and trust.
D) Risk of fluctuations in Net Interest Income and value of assets and liabilities arising from internal
Question 23
How many members are part of Basel Committee On Banking Supervision (BCBS)
A) 27
B) 74
C) 28
D) 45
Question 24
Interest Rate Risk is present in
A) Trading Book
B) Banking Book
C) Either Trading Book or Banking Book
D) Both Trading Book & Banking Book
Question 25
Risks are.........
A) Interdependent
B) Independent
C) Dependent
D) Adaptable
Question 26
The physical assets were damaged at a branch due to fire in the premises . The losses due to fire would be
reported as its is an
A) Operational Risk
B) Compliance Risk
C) Talent Risk
D) Regulatory Risk
Question 27
Interest Rate Risk in Banking Book is assessed under
A) Basel Pillar 1
B) Basel Pillar 2
C) Basel Pillar 3
D) Not assessed under Basel Pillars
Question 28
Which of the following is included under Risk Management-
A) exercise of identifying the potential risks
B) analysing and measuring/evaluating the potential risks
C) taking measure to minimize the risks
Question 29
Individuals and businesses have three choices when it comes to dealing with risk- Denial, Fear and .
A) Passion.
B) Acknowledgement of the existence of risk.
C) Avoidance.
D) Inaction.
Question 30
Basel I accord primarily catered to
A) Operational Risk
B) Credit Risk
C) Liquidity Risk
D) Market Risk
Question 1
Capital is kept for unexpected losses, whereas for expected loss, Banks make for expected
losses.
A) estimation
B) provision
C) revision
D) vision
Question 2
Which of the following is not involved in Risk management Process?
A) Risk Identification, Risk Assessment
B) Risk Appetite and adaptability
C) Risk Mitigation/ Control
D) Risk Monitoring & Reporting
Question 3
Banks are required to maintain CRAR of
A) 8% (9% in India) on an ongoing basis (excluding Capital Conservation Buffer).
B) 8% (9% in India) on an ongoing basis (including Capital Conservation Buffer).
C) 11% (11.50% in India) on an ongoing basis (excluding Capital Conservation Buffer).
D) 11% (11.50% in India) on an ongoing basis (including Capital Conservation Buffer).
Question 4
In the context of Leverage Ratio for Banks which of the below statement/s is/ are True: Statement I It is meant
to serve as a backstop to the risk-based capital requirement. Statement II It helps contain systemwide build-up
of leverage.
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
Question 5
Which of the follwing statement best defines Strategic Risk
A) Risk of current or prospective impact on bank"s earnings, capital or standing arising from the strategic
decisions, improper implementation of decisions or failure to respond to changes in the competitive
environment, business cycles, customer preferences, product innovations, execution and / or other intrinsic
risks of business impacting the ability to meet the objectives
B) Risk of loss arising from an uneven distribution of credit exposure in terms of number of borrowers,
C) Talent (Human Resources) Risk is the risk arising for the Bank from the following: Talent gap/surplus,
employee attrition, employee infidelity, employee productivity, lack of good training infrastructure etc.
D) Risk of fluctuations in Net Interest Income and value of assets and liabilities arising from internal
Question 6
What is Residual Risk arising from Credit Risk Mitigants?
A) Risk arising out of Political, Social and Economic factors which can impinge on a country"s capacity,
as collateral
C) Risk of loss arising from an uneven distribution of credit exposure in terms of number of borrowers,
D) Risk of legal or regulatory sanctions, material financial loss or loss of reputation as a result of failure
Question 7
When did Bankhaus Herstatt in Germany collapse
A) 1974
B) 1975
C) 1978
D) 1976
Question 8
On a positive note, Risk is also .
A) an obstacle.
B) an opportunity.
C) an obsession.
D) an offer.
Question 9
In the context of Credit risk Drivers, syndication exosure is part of
A) Default Risk
B) Recovery Risk
D) All of the above
Question 10
The board provides direction to senior management by setting the organisation's
A) Risk tolerance
B) Risk appetite
C) Risk Capacity
D) Risk adaptability
Question 11
Which of the following is not a Pillar II risk
A) Compliance
B) Liquidity
C) Operational
D) Talent
Question 12
"Sacrifice in compromise"cases will come under
A) Default Risk
B) Recovery Risk
D) Concentration Risk
Question 13
Which is not among objectives of BCBS:
A) Monitoring and ensuring the capital adequacy of banks
B) To enhance financial stability by improving the quality of banking supervision.
C) Enhance profitability of banks
D) prudential regulation of banks
Question 14
Which is not part of ICAAP?
A) Strategic Risk
B) Stress Testing
C) Product pricing
D) Product Risk
Question 15
Which committee has set out the requirements for an effective risk management system in Banks?
Question 16
Which of the following is not a input under Advanced Measurement Approach for Operational Risk
management
A) Internal Loss Data
B) Scenario Analysis
C) External Loss Data
D) Ratings
Question 17
In the context of Internal Models Approach (IMA) for Market Risk Capital Charge, which of the below
statement/s is/ are True: Statement I Allows Banks to use their own Internal Models. Statement II Is a
combination of Value at Risk (VaR) and Stressed VaR.
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
Question 18
In the context of Leverage Ratio for Banks which of the below statement/s is/ are True: Statement I Since
failure of a Domestic Systemically Important bank would cause significant disruption to the banking system
and the overall economy, the rigour of oversight by the regulator and capital requirement prescribed for them
are more stringent than others. Statement II Minimum Leverage Ratio mandated by RBI is 4% for Domestic
Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs).
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
Question 19
Under Basel III Banks are required to maintain
A) More capital of higher quality to cover expected losses.
B) More capital of higher quality to cover unexpected losses.
C) More capital of higher quality to cover uexpected & expected losses.
D) Higher quality capital to cover expected losses.
Question 20
under Advance internal Rating Based (AIRB) approach EAD is provided by
A) RBI
B) Bank
C) IDBI
D) DFS
Question 21
When did Franklin National Bank in the United States collapse
A) 1978
B) 1975
C) 1974
D) 1976
Question 22
B) SEBI
C) RBI
Question 23
When was Basel III accord released
A) 2004
B) 1988
C) 2010
D) 2006
Question 24
Which statement is correct in respect of Risk Management?
A) Risk management is not about avoiding Risk.
B) Risk Management is about being aware of the Risks inherent in business and take advantage of this
knowledge to gain competitive advantage and enhance shareholder value.
C) Risk Management refers to exercise of identifying the potential risk, analysing and
measuring/evaluating those risks and taking measure to minimize those risks.
D) All of the above statements are correct.
Question 25
The Denominator in CRAR caluculation comprises of Risk Weighted Assets for
A) Only Credit Risk
B) Credit Risk + Operational Risk
C) Credit Risk + Operational Risk + Market Risk
D) Credit Risk + Market Risk
Question 26
What is not the role of board in our Bank in connection with Governance of risk?
A) to identify the principal risks facing by the organisation and assures itself on an ongoing basis that
senior management is responding appropriately to these risks.
B) The board provides direction to senior management by setting the organisation"s risk appetite.
C) The board provides direction to senior management by setting the organisation"s risk capacity.
D) To ensure the effectiveness of an organisation"s risk management framework, the board and senior
management need to be able to rely on adequate line functions- including monitoring and assurance functions -
within the organisation.
Question 27
Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) is maesured as a ratio of
A) Available Stable Finding (ASF) to Required Stable funding (RSF) over one year
B) Required Stable funding (RSF) over one year to Available Stable Finding (ASF)
C) Available Stable Finding (ASF) to Required Stable funding (RSF) over 6 months
D) Required Stable funding (RSF) over 6 months to Available Stable Finding (ASF)
Question 28
Leverage ratio includes
A) Only on-balance sheet exposures
B) Only off-balance sheet exposures
C) Both on-balance sheet & off-balance sheet exposures
D) Limited to Derivative exposures
Question 29
Which of the following defines Compliance Risk
A) Risk of loss arising from an uneven distribution of credit exposure in terms of number of borrowers,
B) Risk due to inappropriate valuation, deterioration in quality or unclear title to the properties accepted as
collateral
C) Risk of legal or regulatory sanctions, material financial loss or loss of reputation as a result of failure to
comply with laws, regulations, rules and cores of conduct applicable
D) Risk arising out of Political, Social and Economic factors which can impinge on a country"s capacity,
Question 30
C) on or off-balance sheet positions will be adversely affected by movements in market variables.
350. Reporting of frauds involving forged
instruments including fake/forged instruments sent in clearing in respect of truncated instruments will
be done by the A.Payment Bank
351. What is not the meaning of integrity of information?A. Information should not be readable.
352. Which of the following is NOT an international recognized standard for information security?
C. IEEE 802.11b
353. Who can lodge a Whistle Blower
complaint in our bank? A. any employee of the bank
354. Who is the first Layer in IMM? B. Creator of incident
355. Statistical closure of frauds can be done in cases
C. Fruads involving uptoRs. 25.00 lacs
356. Frauds by closing of cards can be
minimized/prevented if C. all ATMs are enabled with
chip reader software and customers are allowed to used only chip based cards.
357. Near Miss Events below a particular threshold should not be
reported. B. False? All NMEs are required to be reported
358. Talent risk is managed by B. Human resource dept
359. What is worm? B. It is a program that spreads over network. Unlike a virus,
a worm dopes not attach itself to a host program.
360. All network devices should be in
time synchronization with the Synchronization device/server
A.NTP
361. Risk weight for A rated borrower is d. None of the
above
362. Banks should calculate the
incremental provisioning and capital requirements for the Unhedged Foreign Currency Exposure
(UFCE) at least on a/an basis B. Quarterly
363. This is the type of software intended to deliver advertisements , but quite often it tracks user
behavior as well B. Adware
364. Keyloggers is a form of A. Spyware
365. Which one of the following is one of the Roles and responsibilities of
Inspection & management Audit (I&MA) Department A. Checking of Near Miss event data
reported by branch
366. What is the full form of RAROC? B. Risk adjusted return on
capital
367. BEICF stands for A. Business Environment and internal control factors
368. A bankruptcy remote company is a A. Company within a corporate group whose bankruptcy ..
369. What do you call a program used to detect unsolicited
and unwanted e mail and prevents those messages from getting to a inbox C. Spam filter
370. Increasing in number of frauds over time indicates..D. Both (1)and (2)
371. Attempted fraud is a B. Near miss event
372. VaR can be calculated using D. all of the above
373. This is a computer system on the internet that is expressly setup to attract and “trap” intruders
A. Honey Pot
374. Objectives of Key risk indicators are D. all the above
375. According to RBI guidelines, from April 1, 2019 onwards, Specified borrower means a borrower
havingthreshold aggregate sanctioned credit limit(ASCL) of more than B. >10,000 Crs.
376. If identity of the whistle blower/complainant could not be estimated, how the
complaint will betreated/ B. it will be treated as anonymous complaint….
377. Which one of the following would not trigger risk threshold 3 under PCA?
D. Negative returns on assets for 3 consecutive years.

of B. 4 quarters
379. The sum of debit and credit summations of a public limited company is Rs.
90lacs, the account needs to be categorized as A. Low risk
380. In a cryptography, what is cipher? A. algorithm for
performing encryption and decryption
381. Pending position of OVVR checking is an example of A. Leading/ preventive indicator
382. Bank’s capital would be needed to absorb B.
unexpected losses
383. Which is a systematic and early examination of financial transactions on an ongoing basis to
ensureaccuracy& compliance with procedure and guidelines?B. concurrent audit
384. Which is the last date for completion of BC&OR plan testing for branches /operating units
C. 31stDecember
385. What is the RWA applicable on credit exposures to Banks with

CRAR of 8% A. 15% B. 20% C. 50% D.
100%
386. Which of the following is an example of banking crises that occurred between 1990 and 2005
C. The Argentina crisis from 2001

D. all three
388. It is desirable and extremely motivating to give appreciation to the employee who identified NME
A. True
389. The full form of PCA in banking parlance is? C.
Prompt Corrective action
390. Find the odd man out with regard to measures to
control and mitigate Operational Risk as per Operational Risk Management Policy? D.
Customer service survey
391. This is the inclusion of a secret message in otherwise unencrypted text or images
C. steganography
392. To prevent disbursement of Car Loan to factious Car Dealers
A. Account details of dealers mapped in LOS are hard coded in CBS while opening CL account
B. Changes can be made in account details through supervisory override
C. Only A Both a & b
393. Global financial crises period refers to C.2008-2009
394. This is a type of malware that is activated by some trigger , such as a specific date.
A. Logic Bomb
395. Only citizens of India can seek
information under RTI act A.True
396. What is the full form of IMM B. incident Management Module
397. This is a set of standards and guidelines, which every employee of the bank needs to follow,
regardingappropriate (or inappropriate) use of e mail or Web browsing.
B. Acceptable usage policy
398. In assessing with a potential mortgage loan, a bank will charge higher if the borrow has a relatively
B. High Loan to value ratio

399. What is the most secure wireless encryption standard of the items listed below? A. WPA2
400. Frauds occur mostly in D. all three
401. BIS stands for A. Bank for international settlements
402. Which of the following ins not a contributing factor for Operational Risk C. default risk
403. What is the user id of the Reviewer of the incidents, created by the branch IMM
B. Combination of sbi.5 digit concerned reviewer office code

404. is the data exchanged between an HTTP server and a browser ( a client or server) to
store stateinformation on the client side and retrieve it later for server use A.Cookies
405. To prevent fraud through submission of fabricated financial statement by borrowers for availing
credit facilities , Bank has mandated verification of financials A. with UDIN of ICAI
406. What is the timeline for reporting of fraud to
RBI C. 21 days from the date of detection
407. Who is designated Officer for receiving complaint under Whistle Blower Policy? C. DGM &
CFO at circles Circles and GM(FPMD) at corporate centre.
408. Which of these is not a secure internet usage
A. Accessing of banking cites in Cyber cafes/public hotspots
409. Which one of the following is the most important document for opening of an account of a company?
B. Memorandum and Article of Association of the Company

410. The users of Banking services have to send their complaints
regarding deficiency in services by member banks to BCBSI only. A.TRUE
411. Customer acceptance policy defines explicit criteria for A. Acceptance
412. With respect to LDG, What is the difference between F-IRB and A-IRB? A. F-IRB permits
to use prescribed LDG estimates and A-IRB permits to use own internal LGD estimates
413. The relation of Return on Asset to risk assessed under Financial
Feasibility report is A. Negative
414. Hashing of data ensure B. Integrity
415. What is the full form of CCF? C. Credit Conservation Factor
416. The eight business lines are , Corporate Finance, Trading & services, Retail
Banking, Commercial Banking, Asset Management, Retail brokerage
D. Payment & settlement, Agency Services
417. With the increase in LGD, the requirement of capital will A. Increase
418. Maximum Applicable score in pre
sanction process of CRM is B. 305
419. ----------------------------------------------------------------------- The facility of CC(Carbon Copy) in email is
provided for -------------------------------------------------------- C. to make a copy of official communication
to the controlling authority i.,e. your manager

420. Who is empowered to make a
request for issuance of LOOK Out Circular to prevent the promoters / directors leaving the country to
escape from criminal action D. chairman
421. Dynamic Review is conducted in case of borrowers enjoying aggregate limits of Rs. 500 crore when
b. Half yearly intervals even if there is no trigger generated
422. If identity of the whistle blower/complainant could not be estimated, how the
complaint will betreated/ B. it will be treated as anonymous complaint….
423. Once a near miss event is reported, based on priority , identifying the cause(s) and initiating an
actionplan for prevention of recurrence should be formulated A. True
424. What sort of intruders are actually “gud Guys” doing good things for your network.
B. Ethical Hacker
425. .................................................................. If ten lac customers out of 1 crore want to A.
Customer identification risk
426. Which of the following is NOT recommended when using public computers?
D. No need to check the configuration …
427. RCSA helps in early
detection of unidentified and/or under estimated risks A.True
428. Market risk has the following risk components D. all of the above
429. In measuring the capital requirements for General market risk, which are designed to capture the
riskof loss arising out of charges in the market interest rates which are the two principal method?
C. Maturity & Duration
430. Which action taken in cases where suomoto proceedings initiated by investing agencies eg.CBI
C. The case is to be reported as fraud.

431. Bank A has recently increased the interest rate for its Home Loans by 0.5% p.a. How should the
bankinform its existing Home Loans customers?
C. Bank has to send updates to customers….
of B. 4 quarters
433. Under its standard 239, BCBS has set out principles to strengthen Bank’s capabilities in
D. Digital Banking
434. What can detect the creeping privilege? C. Account review
435. In case of project financing, the Banks and FIs seek to ensure end use of funds by obtaining certificate
from the A. charted accountant
436. Which of the following describes the freedom of being observed, monitored or examined
without consent or knowledge B. Privacy
437. What is spoofing C. Malicious practice in which ……….
438. Which is the appellate authority under RTI Act for appeals pertaining to Branches D. Circle CGM
439. Which of the following is NOT the limitation of IDS ?
B. It cannot tell you exactly how the attack occurred

440. will primarily be responsible to put in place the
appropriate approved mitigation measures immediately to prevent recurrence of NMEs? A.
Branch/Unit where the event has..
441. If
acompliant has been lodged against a borrower with any law Enforcement Agency (LEA) like
police/CBI/ED etc. For any dishonest act. Such as removal of goods/disposal of assets/ property
charged to the Bank, the borrowal account is to be reported as fraud within
A.15days
B. 30 days of lodging of complaint/FIR with the LEA C. 3months D.No such action
442. Leverage Ratio shall be for the DSIBs B. 4.00%

443. Which option Is not part of
Microsoft office 365 productivity suite D. Webex
444. Bob received a message from David that was encrypted with
asymmetric algorithm. What key heshould use to decrypt it. B. Bob’s Private Key
445. Which of the following is not part of CIA traid C.
Authentication
446. In basic indicator approach, capital
charge is calculated on A. Gross Income
447. In a branch headed by an Asst. General manager, OTMS alerts to be responded by
D. AGM only
448. Accounts suspected as fraud by auditors during RFIA are reported in the suspected fraud portal
bythem. A view regarding fraud or otherwise needs to be taken by the concerned circle/BU within
B. 30 days of reporting the account as “ suspected fraud” in the portal
449. What is SPIM? B. spim is short form of spam over instant messaging
450. As per RBI guidelines, exposure limit for a country should not exceed the Bank’s except in the
case of Insignificant Risk category. B. Regulatory capital
451. To hide information inside a picture, what technology is used C. Steganography

452. The relation of Cost to Income to risk assessed under financial stability report is
Positive
453. Applicable risk weight for exposure on core investment companies (CICs) D.100%
454. Potential Future Exposure (PEE), Current exposure (CE) & Expected positive Exposures (EPE)
arethe concepts used in A. Counterparty Risk Management
, Under Category (ii) is applicable for how much amount involved. C. From Rs.5.00
lacs to Rs. 25.00 lacs
456. Basel III recommendations will improve the banking system by increasing the skills to cover
theshock of financial crisis. Basel III will also increase the financial risk. B.False
457. What is Credit Conservation factor (CCF) for Financial Bank Guarantees A.100%
458. A dash board for fraud prone branches has been developed and made available to controllers by
A. Data Analysis Department, GITC
459. Similar events occurring multiple times should be B. Given higher priority
460. CERT-in represents A. Computer Emergency Response Team India
461. Which of the following is a security incident? B. An employee accessing a colleague’s
system using a guessed password, to complete an official work.

462. Beta is the slope of B. The Capital market line
463. The authority to place embargo or removal of embargo for assuming exposure on any country lies
with A. MD (R,C & SARG) B. DMD ( IBG)
464. BEICFs C. Both (a) and (b) above
465. What is CFR B. It is abbreviation for Central Fraud Registry. RBI
provides fraud data based on FRMs reported by various Banks and select FIs
466. The risk that an investor will suffer from lack of diversification and investing too heavily in
onetype of security is known as A. Concentration risk
467. Which of the following is not a segmentation of network A. VPN
468. What is full form of ORMS C. Operational risk management
469. Which officer in the public authority provides information under RTI act C. PIO
470. Under IBC 2016, who is the Adjudicating Authority for corporate person? B. NCLT
471. Not insuring the assets charged to Bank is an example of B. Lagging/detective
472. Under Human Capital Impact assessment, is assessed on scale having rating options
5 ( impact 1 to impact 5)
473. What type of connectivity is used for Remote VPN connection D. Internet
474. To prevent or timely identify fraudulent disposal of mortgage property, Bank has mandated
D. Both 1 and 2 are correct
475. CCIL stands for D. Clearing Corporation of India Ltd.

476. Under regulatory Impact assessment, is assessed on a scale having rating options
C. 7(impact 1 to impact 7)
477. Reporting to investigating agencies, Police/CBI is not mandatory for fraud cases
D. All cases below Rs.10000/-

478. A borrowal account that has been extended credit facilities by a consortium of Banks , is Red
flagged (RFA) by a member Bank today. As per RBI guidelines, the RFA details are to be uploaded
inCRILC within days of identification as RFA A.7
479. The provisioning in respect of existing loans/exposures of the Bank to companies having
director/s (other than nominee directors of government/financial institutions brought on board at the
time of distress) , whose name/s appear more than once in the list of willful defaulters, will be in
case of standard accounts. A. 5%
480. are indicators of a Bank’s operational risk profile that reflects underlying business risk factors
and an assessment of the effectiveness of the internal control environment. A.BEICF
481. What is the purpose of Tranche I,II and III data submitted by the banks to RBI
C. RBI assess the risk and capital position of the

bank…..
482. NFB exposure can A. exceed 100% Bank’s total FB exposure
C. Not exceed 100% Bank’s total FB exposures
483. What is the minimum exposure limit at present for Red Flagging an account B.3 cr
484. PV01 is change in price of bond for bps change in yield A. 1
485. With reference to revised RAROC framework, undrawn portion of Cash Credit Limits attract
,CCF of C. 20%
486. Whistle Blower complaint can be lodged through D. any of these
487. What type of vulnerability allows attackers to gain access of underlying DatabaseC.SQL Injection
488. Number of days ATM cash did not tally with ADMIN balance is an example of Key risk Indicator
A.TRUE
489. Who is the second layer of IMM? B. Reviewer of Incident
490. Non-Trigger based Dynamic Review of Rating above Rs.500Crs. is not required for
C. Mahartna&Navratna
491. During RCSA exercise where there is a divergence of opinion as to the rating of the risk,
howshould one deal with the situation C. Both a and b above
492. Total how many categories are available under Alertness Award for Near Miss Events including
Prevention/ Detection/ Foiling of Frauds” C.3
493. According to KYC guidelines, a customer is D. All of the above
494. What is meant by the term spamming C. Unsolicited emails to large number of…..
495. The weighing factor for cash assets is B.0%
496. What should be done with equipment that is at the end of its life cycle and that is being Donated to
a Charity? C. Sanitize it
497. Web sites with SSL can improve the security of online transactions, but which of the following
is NOT a function provided by SSL C. Verifies…….
498. Once a near miss event is reported, based on priority, identifying the cause(s) and initiating an
action plan for prevention of recurrence should be formulated B.False
499. As a step to prevent/minimize fraud through cloning of cheques, details of cheque books ordered
by the customer are restricted to the home branch CBS users B. TRUE
500. Frauds by cloning of cards can be minimized /prevented if C. All ATMs are enabled
withchip Reader software and customers are allowed to use only Chip based cards
501. What is the full form of RCSA C. Risk and control self-assessment
502. Limits on the maximum amount that can be lent to a single borrower has been put to avoid or
control A. Concentration risk
D. All of the above

504. Tractor loan sanction may be considered after credit enhancement or to be forwarded to next
higher authority , if credit score of the applicant is in the range B. 40%-
60%
505. Expected loss in a loan the average anticipated credit loss that happens in the normal course of
Business and it is covered by? C. Provisions & Pricing
506. Frauds detected by Bank’s are to be reported to RBI through FMR
A. Within 7 days from the date of detection
507. What term describes the forgery of an email header so that the message appears to have
originated from a genuine source B. E-mail spoofing
508. The assessment of control for each of the identified risk will be based on C. both a & b
509. What is botnet? C. It is a network of Zombie computers under the remote……..
510. What is the full form of BYOD? B. Bring your own device
511. Incremental exposure of the banking system to a Specified borrower beyond Net Permissible
Leading Limit (NPLL) will attract additional risk weight of B. 75%
512. Internet access through Bank’s centralized internet proxy is allowed in SBI so that employees can
B. perform job responsibilities

513. Maximum loss on an instrument or a portfolio that can be expected over a given time interval at a
specified level of probability is computed by A. VaR
514. A person making a request under RTI need not give any reason for the request or any personal
details except that may be necessary for contacting him A. TRUE
515. Which of the following features is least likely a benefit of collateralization?
D. reduce credit exposure
516. Valuation of Collateral such as immovable properties is required to be done every year/Years
C.Three
517. Roles of a controller with respect to Near Miss Events are to C. Both A&B
518. Whether users can share the folders in their desktop with other users in the Bank’s network
C. yes, if specifically authorised

519. What is the maximum number of days allowed for IBC resolution process D. 330
520. Full form of MRTWG? C. Model Review Technical Working Group
521. RBI has extended the transition period for implementing the last tranche of 0.625% under the
Capital Conservation Buffer (CCB), it will be effective from D. 01-Oct- 21
522. Primary responsibility for effectively managing Operational Risk in our bank lies with
B. Board of directors
523. I have no work in conservation of capital if I am not working as a D. none of the above
524. The frequency f submission of CRILC main report is ? A.Monthly
525. Which of the following would generally not be considered an asset in a risk analysis?
D. users profile files
526. The arrangement of keeping the source code of software with a neutral third party with join
rights of vendor & Bank is termed as B. Software escrow
527. In RAROC, LGD is based on B. Internal rating

528. This is not an example of NME relating to Non _IT areas
D. Unsuccessful hacking attempts on IT components
529. How many types of risk index in RCSA? D. 4
530. is the data exchanged between an HTTP server and a browser ( a client of the server) to store
state information on the client side and retrieve it later for server use A. cookies
531. The unauthorised interception of information through tapping of wire or network over
which the information is flowing is called b. sniffing
532. As per CVC guidelines, frauds with what amount to be reported to CBI
E. Rs.3 crores and above
533. Master netting arrangements are used for reducing counterparty risk arising from-
transactions. B. Derivative Investments
534. Minimum amount is under Alertness Award for Near Miss Events
includingPrevention/Detection/Foiling of Frauds? A. 5000
535. The right to information act is associated with which fundamental right
a. Freedom of Speech and expression

536. What is adware ? C. It is a software that displays advertising banners while the ……
537. Bank A has marketing the mutual fund products of B Mutual fund through its branches. Will the
code of bank’s commitment to customers be applicable to the mutual fund products of B mutual fund
sold through bank A branches A. yes, it is applicable to all products and services offered by the
bank, including those marketed by it.
538. Govt-penalty die to delayed reporting is classified under which Basel defined category
F. Agency services
539. What sort of intruders are actually “gud guys” doing good things for your network
B. Ethical Hackers
540. If prices of Gold fluctuate this is a type of B. Commodity Risk
541. Policy of cheque collection includes C. Instant credit of local and non local cheques
542. All historical/ internal loss data to be categorized into RBI defined B. 8X7 matrix
543. Control operating effectiveness parameters with regard to RCSA are rated by
G. None of the above
544. Internet websites/API s shall be hosted in Bank’s zone in data center environment
C. demilitarized
545. NSFR(net stable funding ratio) guidelines shall be effective from the quarter commencing?
A. 01-oct-21
546. Staff accountability uncases of misappropriation of funds by staff members to be completed
within weeks under fast track disciplinary proceedings mechanism (FTDPM) B. 24 weeks
, Under Category (iii) is applicable for how much amount involved. D. Rs. 25.00
lacs and above
548. Which of the following is not an Operational risk event B. External publicity
549. At RBO level who is designated for reviewing of the incidents created by the branch
C. CM( C&R)
550. There exists possibility of general reluctance on the part of the operating staff to report NMEs
A. on account of fear of accountability
551. Which of the Business lines are not applicable for our bank.
552. AGL stands for A. Aggregate gap limit
553. The effectiveness of new set of mitigation measures can be gauged in the next cycle of
RCSAexercise A.True
554. Full form of CRD C. Credit review Department
555. List of willful defaulters provides information for outstanding of C. Rs.25.00 lacs and above
556. The authority to sanction exposure limit on a foreign bank lies with C. ECCB
557. To which phase of the information security management cycle does information security incident
handling belong? C. Monitoring & recording
558. What is the present Repo rate? B.4%
559. While conducting stress test for market risk loss incurred due to adverse movement in a single
risk factor is known as B. scenario analysis
560. Time line of any incident from capturing by branches to approval from AGM (ORM) in IMM
A. 5 days
561. A leading key risk indicator helps to prevent or stop the risk event from occurring A. True
562. The maximum ceiling on exposure to an individual is
A. Maximum aggregate exposure of Rs.100cr or its equivalent
563. With reference to internal rating mapping to external rating for exposure more than 500 cr, SBI is
equal to D. AAA
564. According to RBi guidelines, from fiscal 2018, Incremental exposure of the banking system to a
Specified borrower beyond Net Permissible Leading Limit (NPLL) would deemed to be carry higher
risk, which would be recognized by C. all the above
565. Whenever you receive a mail and have to consult it with outside persons, you should forward the
same along with history and attachments to the outside person. Is it advisable? :C.Draft a new mail…..
566. What is the limit for regulatory retail portfolio? C. 7.5 crores
567. Banks has a scheme for rewarding employees for preventing frauds, wherein the employees are
given a certificate of merit and a cash award. It is known as C. Alertness award
568. I have no role in conservation of capital if I am working as a D. none of the above
569. How many Early Warning Signals related to fraud are identified by
RBI A.7 B.10 C. 44 D.120
570. Leverage ratio of SBI(group) as on 31.03.2021 is C.5.39%
571. Which of the following is a potential fraud risk D. all the three
572. Placement is the process of placing thourhg deposits or other means, illegal cash proceeds into
traditional C. Both a & b
573. The legal entity identifier (LEI) code is a character unique identity code assigned to entities who
are parties to a financial C. 20
574. An official at a Branch wants to develop a software which will keep track of all the complaints…..
A. Branches are not permitted to take up…
575. Which of the following is a component of Tier 2 capital as per Basel III?
A. General Provisions and Loss Reserves
576. Who is the competent authority for identification of fraud for cases below Rs.5.00 lacs
A. GM of Network
577. The relation of Growth in profit to risk assessed under Financial Stability Report is
A. Negative
578. This is an attack in which multiple compromised systems attack a single target, causing users to
be denied normal services. C. DDoS
579. As per RBI guidelines the stress shock for baseline scenario for Interest rate risk of trading book
should be C. 250bps
580. What type of attack uses email and attempts to trick high-level executives?
C. Whaling
581. RCSA does not involve the business Groups/Support Groups…..B. False
582. Design effectiveness denotes A…
583. Frauds in mortgage of immovable properties can be prevented if D. all the three
584. What is Risk Weight % and standard asset provision% for Home loans above Rs. 7 lakhs?
B.50%, 0.25%
585. Near Miss can be classified into Basel defined Loss event Types A.True
586. Which of the following is most likely to occur as a direct result of a pandemic
E. Increase in Advances
587. What can a customer do if he/she is not satisfied with the services rendered by a particular bank
branch D. Customer can seek redressal as per the banking Ombudsman scheme 2006
588. In calculating the VaR, the minimum holding period prescribed by RBI is days C.10
589. The risk weight of 75 percent will apply to all fresh exposures and also to existing exposures
where incremental exposure may be taken by the banks upto the revised limit of C.
7.5Cr
590. Review of Externally Unrated Exposures (either at borrower level or instrument level) of Rs. 10
crores and above each to be capped at % of the Bank’s domestic exposure exclusive of food
advances ,advances against our own bank deposits, personal segment advances and exposure to banks A. 0.05
B. 0.1 C. 0.15 D. 0.2
591. The capital charge on each business line is calculated by multiplying income by a factor (denoted)
given by assigned to that A. Regulator, Business line B. Corporate centre, account
F. Regulator, bank D. Corporate centre, branch

592. Quick Mortality is an example of A. Key risk
indicator
593. Full form of CRILC C. Central respiratory of information on large credits
594. Banks using standardized measurement for Credit risk in OTC derivates must add a capital charge
to cover C. Credit Valuation Adjustment Risk
595. Which of the following is not considered as security measures implemented by an e-commerce
websiteB. cookie
596. Internal loss data would include A.Actual loss b. Potential loss C.Near misses
G. Attempted frauds
597. The one of the objectives of market risk management is A.maximising returns
B. Optimizing resources C. Maximising the risk adjusted rate of return D. Managing
portfolios
598. In the formula for market risk capital charge calculation issued by RBI what is the
minimum number of factors set for mc &ms B.3
599. If anything goes wrong in regard to product and services, the bank should immediately
C. Correct the mistake and cancel any bank charges that have charged for the services
600. ICAAP is the document approved by the Banks board and submitted to RBI. What tis the full
formof ICAAP? A. Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment process
601. From which date Large Exposure Framework (LEF) will be implemented B.01-April-19
602. The weighing factor for CRE assets is d.100%
603. After the completion of the SSL handshake, which of the following keys is used to provide security
D. A symmetric session key

604. Flash reports in respect of fraud cases where amount involved is Rs.5 crores and above, is to be
sent to RBI A.With in 7 days of receipt of information at the head offcie
605. Operational risk is the risk loss from C. Both a&b
606. Un successful hacking attempts on IT components can be classified as Near Miss Event(NME)
B.Yes
607. To take exposure on a Foreign Banks? C. Approved exposure Limit must be in place
608. The minimum regulatory required CAR of the bank as on 01.04.2021 is? A.9
B.10.875 C. 11.475 D. 12.1
609. What is the full form of KRI? C. Key Risk Indicator
610. Layering means converting cash into D. All of the above
611. Which of the following will ensure that the user is connecting to Bank’s official internet banking
websiteB. By typing complete address in the address bar……
612. For stress testing in Operational Risk following Tool is used B. Scenario analysis
613. If other things remain constant, with increase in the value of TOL/TNW, ability of the company to
borrow (to raise debt) A. Would increase
614. Leverage Ratio is calculated as D. Tier 1 capital / Total exposure
615. Which of the following statement in respect of Near Miss Management Process is not correct
B. Private Browsing only protects me from people…..
616. Which one of the following is the condition for PCA risk threshold 1 criteria? A.
Net NPA>= 6 but < 9%
617. Does private browsing fully ensure that no one is able to know what you did online?
618. Full form of LEF? C. Large Exposure Framework
619. Provision of country risk exposures are to be made on countries in which the Banks' net
funded exposure is: c. 1% or more of its total assets
620. Scenario analysis is a forward looking exercise... A. TRUE
621. Sharing of borrowers data with outsiders results in B. credit risk
622. The bank has a mechanism wherein an employee can report fraudulent/suspicious activities of a
college/peer discretely to an identified nodal officer of the bank. The scheme is called B. Whistle
Blower policy
623. Branches have to respond OTMS alerts’ within A. 3 days
624. What is the risk called when one bank makes the decision about how much risk to take, while
someone else (like government) bears the costs if things go badly? B. Moral hazard
625. Bank’s risk measurement system must be well B. Documented

626. What is credit Information report? C. it is a factual record of borrower….
627. The components of Advanced measurement Approach are D. a , b &c
628. RBI prescribes three methods for calculating OR capital charge. Which one of the following is
not among these methods? C. Advanced Monitoring Approach
629. Fraud cases involving are monitored and reviewed by Committee of Executives on Frauds
(COEF) and special committee of the board for monitoring large Value Frauds (SCBMF)
B. Rs. 5.00 crores and above
630. What is the purpose of Tranche I,II,and III data submitted by the banks to RBI C. RBI assess
risk and capital position of the bank under RBC….

631. PD used in RAROC framework is based on C. Both Internal and External rating
632. The method/s for calculating operational risk is/are D. All the above
633. CGTMSE covered loan account slipping to NPA, should be tagged as NPA on CGTMSE site within
D. Subsequent quarter of NPA date
634. The asset portion of a bank’s balance sheet includes A. Cash, investment in
Govt.securities and other securities, and loans and advances
635. What port is typically used to accept administrative connections using the SSH utility? B.22
636. Market risk limits are based on B. VaR
637. Suspected fraud portal contains details of accounts which are suspected as fraudulent by auditors
during RFIA. The portal is maintained by B. IAD
638. what can you do if information is denied or not provided under RTI act.. A.
Appeal to appellate authority…
639. Working/ access of Bank network for official purpose other than from base location is
called B. Telemarketing
640. Which of the following is/are included in 7 loss event as per basel defined matrix:
(D) all the above
641. Pillar I of the mutually reinforcing pillars on which Basel III is based is
B. Minimum capital Requirements
642. Mobile apps can be downloaded from B. Only legitimate app store/play store
643. An “aggressive” common stock would have a beta A. Equal to Zero
644. Within _ days of his appointment, the Insolvency resolution professional makes a public
announcement, inviting all the potential creditors to file claims against the debtor for their dues A. 3
days
645. How can a user protect sensitive data on laptop in the event of loss of laptop
d. BY USING ENCRYPTION
646. Under the revised PCA, framework for banks , the number of key areas for monitoring
are C.3
647. Borrowers who have defaulter / not defaulted but have committed a fraud in the account
would be debarred from availing bank finance from SCBs, Development Financial Institutions,
govt. owned NFBCs, Investment institutions for a period of C. 5 years
648. What is the user id (Creator of the incidents)of any the branch IMM
A. Combination of sbi.5 digit branch code
649. Which of the following is a part of post sanction process in Credit risk management CRM
C. Insurance cover for assets charged
650. A staff misappropriated an amount of Rs.25 lac…….. C. Rs. 25 lac as the amount involved …..
651. When the actions can lead to the entire financial system coming to a standstill , it is called
A. Systemic risk
652. A KRI in Red zone needs C. Immediate escalation
653. Under LEF, for Indian branches of foreign non GSIBs, exposure limit on a non GSIB,……
C.25% ,20%
654. As per RBI guidelines, the CRR requirement of banks will be reduced to % of their
NDTL from April 2020 D.3.00%
655. Key risk indicators D. all the above
656. What qualities is essential in an employee o check and prevent fraudulent activity? D.
allthe three
657. CPIOs are officers designated by the bank under RTI act and placed at B.LHO
658. For a fraud base loan of Rs. 1.00 crore, the bank will have to provide Rs.—lacs as capital
@12% CAR and RW 100% B.12
659. The basel III is to be implemented by banks in India as per the guidelines issued by D.RBI
660. Key loggers are a form of A. spyware
661. Net (i.e., residual )risk isB. a measure of risk after taking controls into account
662. As per Basel III accord, which form of capital is ? going concern capital for bank
A. Tier 1 capital
663. Under CRA model, following risk are considered D. all the above
664. The norms for the bank exposure and the sharing of exposure with other banks, are applicable in
respect of borrowers enjoying aggregate exposure from banking system of more than D.500 cr
665. Branches can prevent frauds if D. both a and b
666. Advanced measurement approach of operational risk is B.
Based on internally developed…
667. According to RBi guidelines on ‘enhancing credit supply for large borrowers through
market mechanism ‘ ASCL is aggregate of A. Fund based credit limits only
668. Filer avasion is the techniques used by phishers to use images instead of text B. to
make it hard….
669. Willful defaults broadly cover A. all of these
670. Which risk is not associated with G-sec B. credit risk
671. BRACHES/OFFICER ARE REQUIRED TO REPORT Near Miss events through
B. incident management module(IMM)
672. Liquidity coverage Ratio(LCR-Group)as on 31.03.2020 quarterly B.144.09%
673. Credit derivatives are used as credit protection and a recognised credit risk. Mitigation
product, one example of credit derivative is: a. credit default swap
674. A wanted to to know the number of A/cs B having in the bank. Can it be given.
E. No, personal information cannot be given
675. Credit concentration risk may arise due to D. all the above
676. Which of the following is not a component of common equity tier 1 capital as per Basel III
F. balance in P& L account at the…..
677. In case of ATM end points, third party audit certificates shall be submitted to the bank
by the vendors A. Anually
678. Banks will face a significant additional capital requirement under basel III D.
Yes
679. Testing of software for security featured by evaluating its internals including
design/architecture and code is B. white box testing
680. The rationale behind RBI seeking flash reports for frauds of Rs. 5 crand above
is D.both 1 and 2
681. Participants of an RCSA workshop at an entity(Branch/CPC/Vertical/FO) have to :(D)
All
682. In case of which risk, do we have a lot of information easily available to monitor
closely? A. Market risk
683. Frauds in SME/ Corporate loans are perpetrated by diversion of loaned funds…
G. both 1 and 2
684. which of the following is not a component of Common Equity Tier 1 capital as per basel III? d.
perpetual non cummulatinve preference shares
685. What are the risk components that are used to measure credit risk under Basel II a.
PD, LGD, EAD ,Maturity
686. Borrowers having aggregate fund based working capital limit of… A. April 1 2019
687. All securities held in HFT portfolio shall be have maximum holding period of A. 90days
688. For calculation of moving average under financial risk parameters in CRA how many years value to
be taken
689. The components for validation of output from a model will compromise
690. For Indian branches in case of facility of loans/advances/BG- country exposure to be reckoned
d. On geographical location where economic activity and remittance of surplus take place
691. All investments falling under the Investment portfolio of the bank have to e classified D .all of the
above
692. For a fraud angle examination, group approach is applicable for units/companies forming pert of a group
with total exposure D. Rs. 50cr and above
693. Which of the following EMM product is used with in the bank B. VM ware ariwathc
694. Example of intangible securities are C. both ..
695. Fsa
696. Df
697. Sdaf
698. Sdfa
94. Unexpected loss is covered by

b) Capital
95. What is the timeframe for taking a decision on suspicious transactions pointed out by RFIA / SARG.
A: One month
96. The General Manager of Fraud Monitoring Cell (FMC), FPMD at Corporate Centre will be Nodal Officer,of the
Bank, for sending request of opening LOC to the Bureau of Immigration
97. The competent authority to Sign LOC Opening request is Chairman
98. Statistical Closure of Frauds can be done in cases

Fraud involving upto Rs. 1.00 Lacs
99. Internal Loss Data would include

Actual Loss
Potential Loss
Near Misses
Attempted Frauds
100. SBI has developed a strategy to share customer information database between offices in two countries. In this
situation, it is MOST important to ensure (Negative Marking)
Data is encrypted in transit and at rest
Data sharing complies with local laws and regulation at both locations
A nondisclosure agreement is signed
Risk coverage is split between the two locations sharing data
101. Staff accountability in case of misappropriation of funds by staff members to be completed within
weeks under Fast Track Disciplinary Proceedings Mechanism (FTDPM)
12 weeks
24 weeks
48 weeks
52 weeks
102. A walk in Customer is defined

Customers whose accounts are inoperative and there is no transaction for last two years. Customers who have
only deposit accounts and do not avail any loan from the Bank
A person who does not have an account based relationship with the Bank, but undertakestransaction with
us.
Customers with deposit and loan accounts both
103. Which is the most appropriate method to prevent unauthorized access to your desktop if you are leavingyour
workstation for a short duration (Negative Marking)
Lock the Desktop using Windows Key + L
104. Who is the Designated Officer for receiving complaint under Whistle Blower Policy
DGM (Vigilance) at Circles and CVO at Corporate Centre

DGM & CDO at Circles and CGM (HR) at Corporate Centre DGM &
CFO at Circles and CGM (FPMD) at Corporate CentreAGM (HR) at
Circles and DGM (HR) at Corporate Centre
105.Which of the following provide fixed income (Bond) price for valuationon a daily basis.
RBI
FBIL
SEBI
FEDAI
106.With reference to LGD, what is the difference between F-IRB and A-IRB
F-IRB permits to use prescribed LGD estimates and A-IRB permits to use own internal LGD
estimates.
A-IRB permits to use prescribed LGD estimates and F-IRB permits to use own internal LGD estimatesBoth approaches
allows to use internal LGD estmates
Both approaches are same, no difference
107. What is breach of confidentiality

The type of violation involves unauthorized reading of data
108. Compromising Confidential Information comes under

Vulnerability
109. A landless labour having no document of identity and address proof approaches your branch for openingof an
account. What will you do
Option A. Will open the account after obtaining self attested….
110. In measuring the capital requirements for General Market Risk, which are designed to capture rge riskof loss
arising out of changes in the market interest rates which are the two principal methods
Optimum and Marginal
111. The Bank has approved for handling Cyber Security incidents.
Cyber Security Policy and Standards and a SOP
112. Which of the following provide fixed income (Bond) price for valuation on a daily basis
SEBI
113. With respect to LGD, what is the difference between F-IRB and A-IRB
F-IRB permits to use prescribed LGD estimates and A-IRB permits to use own internal LGDestimates
114. Role of ORMD is to implement and maintain ORM framework

TRUE
115. KRI thresholds are fixed after going through

Both a&b
116. Wef 30 June 2019, applicable risk weightage for Unrated Corporate exposure above Rs.200 crores
1.5
117. If prices of Gold fluctuate this is a type of

Commodity risk
118. Minimum total capital including CCB increased from 9.0% to under Basel III
0.121
119. Monitoring of top Single and Group Borrowers in the Bank helps in mitigating which of the following risks
Credit Concentration Risk
120. Hackers get into the company’s systems and steal valuable data
Operational risk
121. Do we have policies on how / what you can and cannot use email for?
Yes, there are policies limiting what emails I can and cannot send while at work
122. The success of a computer forensic investigation depends on the concept of?
Chain of evidence
123. Which of the following refers to a series of characters used to verify a user’s identity?
Password
124. When an incident of suspected fraudulent activity comes to notice, who will take a prima facie view onit?
Respective Controller
125. involves using electronic means, including the Internet, to harass a person or a group ofpeople.
Cyberstalking
126. In a Banks SME loan portfolios, 200 accounts are NPA, amounting to 400 crores. Out of this recoverycould be
made only in 100 accounts amounting to 300 crores. What will be the LGD of the portfolios?
0.5
127. Who is the Nodal Officer responsible for vetting the complaint and ensuring that it is as per the prescribedchecklist
before reporting the case to CBI
CVO
128. Effective KRIs should be

All of the above
129. Maximum guarantee coverage under CGTMSE scheme is

200 Lakh
130. Substantial exposure limit for single borrower means

The exposure of a single borrower exceeds threshold limit decided in the loan policy of the Bank
131. Risk awareness day

1st September
132. Increasing in number of frauds over the time indicate

Both 1 and 2
133. For non-advance frauds, 100% provision will be made in the same
Quarter
134. Who is the competent authority for identification of fraud for cases below 5.00 lac
FIC at circles and Bus
135. Probability that borrower will fail to meet his contractual obligation due to borrower specific or marketspecific
reasons is called
Default Risk
136. Which of these is a risk transfer ways

Insurance
137. Cash retention limit exceeding at a branch on many occasions is an example of key indicator
TRUE
138. As per RBI guidelines the probable loss over 10 day horizon for calculating VaR at confidence
level
0.95
139. What is the risk weigh for AAA rated foreign sovereigns?
15
140. What does the ‘https://’ at the beginning of a URL denote

That information entered the site is encrypted
141. Authority to approve the market risk management policy of the Bank is
Risk management committee of the board
142. Risks falling under High Risk and Critical Risk categories
Exceed the risk tolerance levels and need to be monitored
143. Suspected Fraud portal contains details of accounts which are suspected as fraudulent by the auditorsunder
RFIA. The portal is maintained by
CPM Deptt
144. On cancellation of PGEL, on any Foreign Bank, the existing exposure is allowed to be continued till
Maturity of the exposure

All three
146. Which branch can undertake the process of KYC updation

Only Home branch can update
147. Operational controls are commonly utilized in which of the following risk mitigation strategies
Avoid the risk
148. Which category of Agri loans can be covered as MUDRA loans under PMMY
All of the above
149. List of wilful defaulters provides the information for outstanding of

25 lac and above
150. Unexpected Loss is calculated based upon a determined confidence level of of assumed correlation
amongst exposure etc
Equivalent to 99.95%
151. As per bank’s IS policy, User account should be locked out automatically after consecutive
unsuccessful login attempts.
3
152. The three Basel III pillars are , and Market Discipline
Minimum capital requirements, Supervisory Reserve Process
All of the above
154. Market risk has the following risk components

All of the above
155. A dashboard for fraud prone branches has been developed and made available to controllers by
Data Analytics Department, GITC
156. To prevent or timely identify fraudulent disposal of mortgage property Bank has mandated
Both 1 & 2 are correct
157. Which of the following is a potential fraud risk
All the three
158. Threat to an information cannot be

Transferred
159. Within days of appointment, the Insolvency Resolution Professional makes a public announcement, inviting
all the potential creditors to file claim
7 days
160. Segregation of duties is security control primarily used to

Establish dual check
161. Which one of the following transactions does not make any economic sense
Having large number of accounts with the same bank with frequent transfers between differentaccounts
162. How is risk calculated?

Likelihood*Impact
163. Cyber frauds are frauds which are committed

Both 1 & 2
164. Market risk limits are based on

VaR
165. Which of the following is the effective way to mitigate the risk of confidential data leakage to unauthorized
stakeholders?
Implement role based access controls
166. Expected Loss refers to

An amount estimated to be sacrificed in a given bad loan
167. BCBS stands for

Basel committee for banking standard
168. Participants of RCSA workshop at an entity have to

All abc above
169. RBI has made mandatory to upload the KYC data to CKYCR is case of
Individual account and legal entity and during the time of KYC updation
170. Which of the following is the indicator of suspicious transactions in a customer account
All of the above
171. The CRA should be reviewed at half yearly intervals for the units
Having CRA SB-10 and worse
172. Key indicators are linked to risks or controls in identified areas

True
173. Whistle blower complaint can be lodged through

Any of these
174. Capital Conservation Buffer (CCB) fully effective from 01.10.2021

175. Global financial crisis period
2008-2009
176. All accounts to be simultaneously examined from angle of possible fraud, when the account are
classifiedas NPA for limits above Rs crore
50
177. Risk Categorisation helps in

Risk Mitigation
178. What action to be taken in cases where suo moto proceedings initiated by investigating agencies eg
CBI
Decision too be taken on case to case basis
179. Investments carried out by the Bank shall fall into the following brad categories
Both a & B
180. Which of the following is not amongst the top Information Security Risk?
Distributed Denial of Service
181. As per Alertness award for near miss events including

From 5 lacs to 25 lacs
182. In suspected fraud cases reported by RFIA, decision as Fraud or No Fraud to be taken by the FIC
withinthe time
1 month
183. Classification of frauds such as (i) Misappropriation and Criminal Breach of trust, (ii) cheating and
forgeryetc are based on various sections of IPC
TRUE
184. In assessing the key variables associated with a potential mortgage loan, a bank will charge a
higher interest rate if the borrower has a relatively
High loan to value ratios
185. Full form of ECLGS

Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme
186. Number of lines of defense in operational risk

3

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1

KYC / AML-CFT & Compliance (L0921)

D) Action Taken Reports (ATRs)

A) System Generated STRs & Subjective STRs

D) All of the above options are correct

B) Risk Based Approach

C) Countering the financing of terrorism

KYC / AML-CFT & Compliance (L0929)

What is V-CIP in respect of KYC? B

A) ‘occupation’ of the customer

IS & Cyber Security (L0922)

someone the person knows

Social accounting facilitates transparency for ________ D

A) People, profit & power

D) Never demand for extra

C) SDG-11- Sustainable Cities and Communities

D) Decent work and economic growth

SBI officers Conduct Rules (L0437)

D) Post facto sanction can be taken

Following rule deals with absence and late attendance B

Sexual Harassment of women at workplaces (L0224)

D) Report or recommendations of Internal Committtee

B) 5000/- per session

Code of Ethics (L0893)

C) Keep ourselves updated to respond to customers queries

D) No reporting of violation required

D. Negative returns on assets for 3 consecutive years.

C. The Argentina crisis from 2001

B. High Loan to value ratio

B. Combination of sbi.5 digit concerned reviewer office code

B. Memorandum and Article of Association of the Company

to the controlling authority i.,e. your manager

C. The case is to be reported as fraud.

B. It cannot tell you exactly how the attack occurred

93. Leverage Ratio shall be for the DSIBs B. 4.00%

102. To hide information inside a picture, what technology is used C. Steganography

system using a guessed password, to complete an official work.

126. CCIL stands for D. Clearing Corporation of India Ltd.

D. All cases below Rs.10000/-

C. RBI assess the risk and capital position of the

D. All of the above

B. perform job responsibilities

C. yes, if specifically authorised

178. In RAROC, LGD is based on B. Internal rating

a. Freedom of Speech and expression

C. Regulator, bank D. Corporate centre, branch

D. A symmetric session key

276. Bank’s risk measurement system must be well B. Documented

risk and capital position of the bank under RBC….

PD, LGD, EAD ,Maturity

1. Unexpected loss is covered by

4. The competent authority to Sign LOC Opening request is Chairman

5. Statistical Closure of Frauds can be done in cases

6. Internal Loss Data would include

8. Staff accountability in case of misappropriation of funds by staff members to be completed within

9. A walk in Customer is defined

DGM (Vigilance) at Circles and CVO at Corporate Centre

14. What is breach of confidentiality