Sure Shot 60 in JEE
Sure Shot 60 in JEE
Sure Shot 60 in JEE
topics are ≈ 36
≈ 164 marks in total
NIT CSE with 164 marks
JEE Main 25th January 2023 S-1 JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-2
Q. Inert gases have positive electron Q. The first ionization enthalpies of Be, B,
gain enthalpy. Its correct order is N and O follow the order
(A) Xe < Kr < Ne < He (A) O < N < B < Be
(B) He < Ne < Kr < Xe (B) Be < B < N < O
(C) He < Xe < Kr < Ne (C) B < Be < N < O
(D) He < Kr < Xe < Ne (D) B < Be < O < N
(C) C22- < O22- < N22- (D) N22- < C22- < O22- JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-1
JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-1 Q. Amongst the following the number of
oxide(s) which are paramagnetic in nature is
Q. Bonding in which of the following diatomic Na2O, KO2, NO2, N2O, ClO2, NO, SO2, Cl2O
molecule(s) become(s) stronger, on the basis of
MO Theory, by removal of an electron? JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-1
JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1
JEE Main 29th Jan 2023 S-2 (A) O22- < O2- < O2 < O2+ (B) O2- < O22- < O2 < O2+
Q. According to MO theory the bond orders for (C) O2- < O22- < O2+ < O2 (D) O2- < O2+ < O22- < O2
O22-, CO and NO+ respectively are
(A) 1, 3, and 3 (B) 1, 3, and 2
(C) 1, 2, and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 3
Q. Amongst SF4, XeF4, CF4 and H2O, the number Q. The sum of number of lone pairs of electrons
of species with two lone pairs of electrons___. present on the central atoms of
JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-1
XeO3, XeOF4 and XeF6 is____
Q. Based upon VSEPR theory, match the shape JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-2
(geometry) of the molecules in List - I with the
molecules in List - II and select the most Q. The sum of number of lone pairs of electrons
appropriate option present on the central atoms of
List - I XeO3, XeOF4 and XeF6 is____
List-II JEE Main 29th July 2022 S-2
(Shape) (Molecules)
(A) T-shaped (I) XeF4 Q. Consider, PF5, BrF5, PCl3, SF6, [ICl4]-, ClF3 and
(B) Trigonal planar (II) SF4 IF5.
(C) Square planar (III) ClF3 Amongst the above molecule(s)/ion(s), the
(D) See-saw (IV) BF3 number of molecules(s)/ion(s) having sp3d2
hybridization is____.
(A) (A)-I, (B)-II, (C)-III, (D)-IV
(B) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-III
(C) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-II, (D)-I
(D) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-I, (D)-II
VSEPR Theory and Hybridisation
JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-2
Q. Identify the incorrect statement for PCl5 from Q. In the structure of SF4, the lone pair of
the following. electrons on S is in.
(A) In this molecule, orbitals of phosphorus are (A) Equatorial position and there are two Ione
assumed to undergo sp3d hybridization pair-bond pair repulsions at 90°
(B) The geometry of PCl5 is trigonal (B) Equatorial position and there are three lone
bipyramidal. pair-bond pair repulsions at 90°
(C) PCl5 has two axial bonds stronger than (C) Axial position and there are three lone pair-
three equatorial bonds bond pair repulsion at 90°
(D) The three equatorial bonds of PCl5 lie in a (D) Axial position and there are two lone pair-
plane. bond pair repulsion at 90°
JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-1 JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2
Q. The hybridization of P exhibited in PF5 is spxdy. Q. Consider the species CH4, NH4+ and BH4-. Choose
The value of y is____. the correct option with respect to the there species:
(A) They are isoelectronic and only two have
JEE Main 29th July 2022 S-1 tetrahedral structures
Q. Number of lone pairs of electrons in the
(B) They are isoelectronic and all have tetrahedral
central atom of SCl2, O3, ClF3 and SF6,
structures
respectively, are:
(C) Only two are isoelectronic and all have
(A) 0, 1, 2 and 2 (B) 2, 1, 2
tetrahedral structures
and 0 (D) Only two are isoelectronic and only two have
(C) 1, 2, 2 and 0 (D) 2, 1, 2 tetrahedral structures
and 0
JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2
JEE Main 30th Jan 2023 S-1 JEE Main 31th Jan 2023 S-1
Q. Match List-I with List-II:
Q. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
List-I List-II
(Molecule/ions) (No. of lone pairs of e-
(A) XeF4 (I) See - Saw
on
(B) SF4 (II) Square planar
central atom)
(C) NH4 + (III) Bent T-shaped
(A) IF7 (I) Three
(D) BrF3 (IV) Tetrahedral
(B) ICl4- (II) One
Choose the correct answer from the options
(C) XeF6 (III) Two
given below:
(D) XeF2 (IV) Zero
(A) A-IV, B-IIII, C-II, D-I (B) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Choose the correct from the options given
(C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
below:
(A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (D) A-IV, B-1, C-II, D-III
Flame colour – s block
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 07th January 2023 S-2
Q. S-block element which cannot be
Q. Given below are two statements, one
qualitatively confirmed by the flame
is labelled as Assertion A and the other
test is
is labelled as Reason R.
(A) Li (B)
Assertion A:- The alkali metals and their
Na
salts impart characteristic colour to
(C) Rb (D) Be
reducing flame.
Reason R:- Alkali metals can be
JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-2 detected using flame tests.
In the light of the above statements,
Q. In the flame test of a mixture of salts, choose the most appropriate answer
a green flame with blue centre was form the options given below.
observed. Which one of the following (A) Both A and R are correct but R is not
cations may be present? the correct explanation of A.
(A) Cu2+ (B) Sr2+ (B) A is correct but R is not correct.
(C) Ba2 (D) Ca2 (C) A is not correct but R is correct.
(D) Both A and R are correct and R is the
correct explanation of A.
Flame colour – s block
JEE Main 25th January 2023 S-1
Q. Match
JEE Main 29List I with List II
th June 2022 S-1
List-I List-
II Q. Q. Match List I with List II
(Metal) (Emitted light List-I List-II
wavelength (nm)) (Elements) (Colour imparted to
(A) Li (I) the flame)
670.8 (A) K (I) Brick Red
(B) Na (II) 589.2 (B) Ca (II) Violet
(C) Rb (III) 780.0 (C) Sr (III) Apple Green
(D) Cs (IV) 455.5 (D) Ba (IV) Crimson Red
Choose the correct answer from the Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
options given below:
A. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV A A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
B. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
C. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV B A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
D. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
C A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 29th July 2022 S-2
Sum of 𝜋-bonds present in
Q. Consider the following sulphur based
peroxides and pyrosulphuric
oxoacids.
acid is
H2SO3, H2SO4, H2S2O8 and H2S2O7.
Amongst these oxoacids, the number of those
with peroxo(O-O) bond is___ .
Magnetic Moment - D and f block
JEE Main 24th January 2023 S-1 JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-1
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-1 JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-2
Q. Among Co3+, Ti2+, V2+ and Cr2+ ions, Q. The metal ion (in gaseous state) with
one if used as a reagent cannot liberate lowest spin only magnetic moment
H2 from dilute mineral acid solution, its value is
spin-only magnetic moment in gaseous (A) V2+ (B) Ni2+
state is ______ B.M. (Nearest integer). (C) Cr2+ (D) Fe2+
JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-1 JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1
Q. How many of the following metal ions have Q. The spin-only magnetic moment value of the
similar value of spin only magnetic moment in
most basic oxide of vanadium among V2O3,
gaseous state?____
V2O4 and V2O5 is _______ B.M. [nearest
(Given: Atomic number: V, 23 ; Cr, 24; Fe, 26; Ni,
integer].
28) V3+, Cr3+, Fe2+, Ni3+
spin magnetic moment
JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 26th July 2022 S-1
Amongst FeCl3.3H2O, K3[Fe(CN)6] and Arrange the following The difference between spin
[Co(NH3)6]Cl3, the spin-only magnetic coordination compounds in only magnetic moment value
moment value of the inner-orbital the increasing order of of [Co(H2O)6]Cl2 and
complex that absorbs light at shortest magnetic moments.. (Atomic [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 is ____ .
wavelength is _____ B.M. numbers : Mn = 25; Fe = 26)
JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-2
(A) [FeF6]3- (B) [Fe(CN)6]3-
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1
(C) [MnCl6]3- (D) [Mn(CN)6]3- The spin only magnetic
The spin-only magnetic moment value (A) A < B < D < C moment of the complex
of an octahedral complex among (B) B < D < C < A present in Fehling’s reagent is
CoCl3.4NH3, NiCl2.6H2O and PtCl4.2HCl, (C) A < C < D < B ____ B.M.
which upon reaction with excess of (D) B < D < A < C
AgNO3 gives 2 moles of AgCl is ____
B.M. (Nearest Integer)
spin magnetic moment
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-1 JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2
JEE Main 31th Jan 2023 S-1 JEE Main 31th Jan 2023 S-1
Q. Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid to give Q. Assume carbon burns according to following
hydrogen and zinc chloride. The volume of equation:
hydrogen gas produced at STP from the When 12 g carbon is burnt in 48 g of oxygen, the
reaction of 11.5 g of zinc with excess HCl is __N volume of carbon monoxide produced is___
(Nearest integer) × 10-1 L at STP [Nearest integer]
(Given : Molar mass of Zn is 65.4g mol-1 and [Given: Assume CO as ideal gas, Mass of C is 12
Molar volume of H2 at STP = 22.7L) g mol-1, Mass of O is 16 g mol-1 and molar
volume of an ideal gas at STP is 22.7 L mol-1]
JEE Main 31th Jan 2023 S-2
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-2
Q. When a hydrocarbon A undergoes complete
combustion it requires 11 equivalents of oxygen Q. 56.0 L of nitrogen gas is mixed with excess of
and produces 4 equivalents of water. What is hydrogen gas and it is found that 20 L of
the molecular formula of A? ammonia gas is produced. The volume of
(A) C9H8 (B) C11H4 (C) C5H8 (D) C11H8 unused nitrogen gas is found to be___ L.
Stoichiometry - Mole concept
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1 JEE Main 29th Jan 2023 S-2
JEE Main 29th Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-1
At 25oC and 1 atm pressure, the The enthalpy of combustion of propane, graphite and dihydrogen
enthalpy of combustion of benzene (l) at 298 K are :- 2220.0 kJ mol-1, -393.5 kJ mol-1 and -285.8 kJ mol-1
and acetylene (g) re -3268 kJ mol-1 and respectively. The magnitude enthalpy of formation of propane
-1300 kJ mol-1, respectively. The change (C3H8) is _____ kJ mol-1.(Nearest integer)
in enthalpy for the reaction JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-1
3C2H2 → C6H6(l), is
(A)+324 kJ mol-1 While performing a thermodynamics experiment, a student made
(B) +632 kJ mol-1 the following observations,
(C) -632 kJ mol-1 HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O , ∆H = - 57.3 kJ mol-1
(D) -732 kJ mol-1 CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O , ∆H = -55.3 kJ mol-1
The enthalpy of ionization of CH3COOH as calculated by the
student is _____ kJ mol-1.(Nearest integer)
Reaction based - Thermodynamics
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 21st June 2023 S-1
For complete combustion of methanol The enthalpy change for the conversion
CH3OH(1)+3/2O2(g)→ CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) of 1/2Cl2 (g) to Cl-(aq) is (-) _____
The amount of heat produced as Kj mol-1 (Nearest integer)
measured by bomb calorimeter is 726 Given :
kJ mol-1 at 27oC. The enthalpy of
combustion for the reaction is -x kJ
mol-1, where x is _____. (Nearest
integer)
(Given : R = 8.3 JK-1 mol-1)
Q. 1.80 g of solute A was dissolved in 62.5 cm3 of Q. 1.2 mL of acetic acid is dissolved in water to
ethanol and freezing point of the solution was make 2.0 L of solution. The depression in
found to be 155.1 K. The molar mass of solute A freezing point observed for this strength of acid
is ____ g mol-1. is 0.0198℃. The percentage of dissociation of
[Given: Freezing point of ethanol is 156.0 K the acid is _____(Nearest integer)
Density of ethanol is 0.80 g cm-3. Freezing point [Given: Density of acetic acid is 1.02 g mL-1
depression constant of ethanol is 2.00 K kg mol- Molar mass of acetic acid is 60 g mol-1 Kf(H2O)
1] = 1.85 K kg mol-1]
JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2
Q. A solution containing 2.5 × 10-3 kg of a solute Q. Elevation in boiling point for 1.5 molal solution
dissolved in 75 × 10-3 kg of water boils at of glucose in water is 4K. The depression in
373.535 K. The molar mass of the solute is freezing point for 4.5 molar solution of glucose
____ g mol-1. [nearest integer] (Given : Kb in water is 4K. The ratio of molal elevation
(H2O) = 0.52 K Kg mol-1, boiling point of water = constant to molal depression constant (Kb/Kf)
373.15 K) is _______ .
Solutions - ΔTf and ΔTb
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-1
JEE Main 26th July 2022 S-2
Q. The depression in freezing point observed for Q. The elevation in boiling point for 1 molal
a formic acid solution of concentration 0.5 mL L- solution of non-volatile solute A is 3K. The
1 is 0.0405℃. Density of formic acid is 1.05 g mL-
depression in freezing point for 2 molal solution
1. The Van’t Hoff factor of the formic acid
of A in the same solvent is 6K. The ratio of K b
solution is nearly: (Given for water Kf = 1.86 K kg and Kf i.e., Kb/Kf is 1 : X. The value of X is [nearest
mol-1) integer].
(A) 0.8 (B) 1.1
(C) 1.9 (D) 2.4 JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-1
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-1 Q. 150 g of acetic acid was contaminated with
10.2 g ascorbic acid (C6H8O6) to lower down its
Q. Two solutions A and B are prepared by freezing point by (x × 10-1) ℃. The value of x is
dissolving 1 g of non-volatile solutes X and Y. _______. (Nearest integer)
respectively in 1 kg of water. The ratio of [Given Kf = 3.9 K kg mol-1; Molar mass of
depression in freezing points for A and B is ascorbic acid = 176 g mol-1]
found to be 1 : 4. The ratio of molar masses of X
and Y is:
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 0.25
(C) 1 : 0.20 (D) 1 : 5
Conductance - Electrochemistry
JEE Main 29th Jan 2023 S-1
JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-2
Following figure shows dependence of molar Q. The resistance of conductivity cell containing
conductance of two electrolytes on concentration. 0.01 M KCl solution at 298 K is 1750 𝛺. If the
Λ0m is the limiting molar conductivity. conductivity of 0.01 M KCl solution at 298 K is 0.152
× 10-3 S cm-1, then the cell constant of the
conductivity cell is ____ × 10-3 cm-1.
JEE Main 31th January 2023 S-1 JEE Main 24th January 2023 S-1
equal to
Aromaticity and resonance - GOC
JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-1
Q. Arrange the following carbocations in Q. Which of the following structures are
decreasing order of stability. aromatic in nature?
(A) A > C > B (B) A > B > (A) A, B, C and D (B) Only A
C and B
(C) C > B > A (D) C > A > (C) Only A and C (D) Only B,
B C and D
Q.
JEE Main 27 June 2022 S-2 is most stable?
Which of
th the following
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Aromaticity and resonance - GOC
JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2
Q. Which of the following carbocations is most JEE Main 01th February 2023 S-1
stable:
Q. Resonance in carbonate ion (CO32-) is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) Which of the following is true?
(1) It is possible to identify each structure
individually by some physical or chemical
method.
(2) All these structures are in dynamic
equilibrium with each other
(3) Each structure exists for equal amount of
time
(4) CO32- has a single structure i.e., resonance
hybrid of the above three structures.
Aromaticity and resonance - GOC
JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-1 JEE Main 24th January 2023 S-1
Q. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Q. Increasing order of stability of the resonance
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. structure is:
Assertion A: [6] Annulene [8] Annulene and cis-[10]
annulene, are respectively aromatic, not-aromatic and A.
aromatic
[6] Annulene B.
[8] Annulene
C.
Cis-[10] Annulene
Q. Given below are two statements: The photochemical smog does not generally
Statement I : Classical smog occurs in cool humid contain:
climate. It is a reducing mixture of smoke, fog and (A) No
sulphur dioxide (B) NO2
Statement II : Photochemical smog has components, (C) SO2
ozone, nitric oxide, acrolein, formaldehyde, PAN etc. (D) HCHO
In the light of above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below
is equal to
Q. The number of real roots of the equation
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1
Q.
Q. where m
and n are
Q. The sum of the common terms of the Q. Let a1 = 8, a2, a3, …. an be an A.P. If the sum of
following three arithmetic progressions. its first four terms is 50 and the sum of its last
3, 7, 11, 15, ……………….., 399, four terms is 170, then the product of its middle
2, 5, 8, 11, …………………., 359 and two terms is_____.
2, 7, 12, 17, ……………….., 197, is equal to______. JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-1
JEE Main 26th July 2022 S-2 Q. Suppose a1,a2,, …, an, … be an arithmetic
progression of natural numbers. If the ratio of
Q. Different A.P.’s are constructed with the first the sum of the first five terms to the sum of first
term 100, the last term 199, and integral nine terms of the progression is 5 : 17 and
common differences. The sum of the common 110 < a15 < 120, then the sum of the first ten terms
differences of all such. A.P.’s having at least 3 of the progression is equal to:
terms and at most 33 terms is. (A) 290 (B) 380 (C) 460 (D) 510
JEE Main 30th Jan 2023 S-2
JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2
Q. Let 3, 6, 9, 12, …. upto 78 terms and 5, 9, 13, 17, … Q. The 8th common term of the series
upto 59 terms be two series. Then, the sum of S1 = 3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + 19 + ….,
the terms common to both the series is equal to S2 = 1 + 6 + 11 + 16 + 21 + …. is ______.
Arithmetic Progression
JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-1 JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-1
Q. Let a1, a2, …, an be in A.P. If a5 = 2a7 and a11 =18, Q. Let A1, A2, A3 be the three A.P. with the same
common difference d and having their first
terms as A, A + 1, A + 2, respectively. Let a, b, c
be the 7th, 9th, 17th terms of A1, A2, A3, respectively
JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-2
such that
Q. If a1, a2, a3, … and b1, b2, b3 ….. Are A.P. and
a1 = 2, a10 = 3, a1 b1 = 1 = a10 b10 then a4b4 is equal If a = 29, then the sum of first 20 terms of an AP
to whose first term is c - a - b and common
(A) 35/27 (B) 1 (C) 27/28 (D) 28/27 difference is d/12, is equal to_____
JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 25th Jan 2022 S-2
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1 JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-1
JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-1 JEE Main 01st Feb 2023 S-1
Q. If the coefficient of x15 in the expansion of Q. If the term without x in the expansion of
of (1 - x2 + 3x3) x ≠ 0 is
Q. Consider a matrix
Q. Let A and B be two 3 × 3 matrices such that AB = I
and , then |adj(B adj(2A))| is equal to
where ⍺, β, γ are three distinct natural numbers.
(A) 16 (B) 32 (C) 64 (D) 128
If
JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-1
then the number of such 3- tuples (⍺, β, γ) is__. Q. The positive value of the determinant of the
JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-1
matrix A, whose
Q. Let the matrix and the matrix JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1
JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-1
Q. Let S denote the set of all real values of λ Q. The number of values of ⍺ for which the
such that the system of equations λx + y + z = 1, system of equations: x + y + z = ⍺,
x + λy + z = 1, x + y + λz = 1 is inconsistent, then ⍺x + 2⍺y + 3z = -1, x + 3⍺y + 5z = 4 is
is equal to inconsistent, is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
(A) 2 (B) 12 (C) 4 (D) 6 JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-1
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1 Q. If the system of linear equations
2x + 3y - z = -2, x + y + z = 4, x - y + |λ|z = 4λ - 4
Q. The ordered pair (a, b), for which the system of
where λ ∈ R, has no solution, then
linear equations 3x - 2y + z = b, 5x - 8y + 9z = 3,
(A) λ = 7 (B) λ = -7 (C) λ = 8 (D) λ2 = 1
2x + y + az = -1 has no solution, is:
(A) (3, ⅓) (B) (-3, ⅓) (C) (-3, -⅓) (D) (3, -⅓)
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-1
Q. Let the system of linear equations Q. For the system of linear equations
x + y + kz = 2, 2x + 3y - z = 1, 3x + 4y + 2z = k x + y + z = 6, ⍺x + βy + 7z = 3, x + 2y + 3z = 14,
have infinitely many solutions. Then the system which of the following is NOT true?
(k + 1)x + (2k - 1)y = 7, (2k + 1)x + (k + 5)y = 10 (A) If ⍺ = β = 7, then the system has no solution
has: (B) If ⍺ = β and ⍺ ≠ 7 then the system has a
(A) Infinitely many solutions unique solution
(B) Unique solution satisfying x - y = 1 (C) There is a unique point (⍺, β) on the line
(C) no solution x + 2y + 18 = 0 for which the system has
(D) Unique solution satisfying x + y = 1 infinitely many solutions
(D) For every point (⍺, β) ≠ (7, 7) on the line
x - 2y + 7 = 0, the system has infinitely many
solutions
Shortest distance between lines
JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-1 JEE Main 30th Jan 2023 S-1
Q. The shortest distance between the lines Q. The line l1 passes through the point (2, 6, 2)
and is perpendicular to the plane
2x + y - 2z = 10. Then the shortest distance
is equal to
between the line l1 and the line
JEE Main 01st Feb 2023 S-1
Q. The shortest distance between the lines (A) 7 (B) 19/3 (C) 19/7 (D) 9
Q. If the shortest distance between the line Q. The shortest distance between the lines
joining the points (1, 2, 3) and (2, 3, 4), and the
line is 𝛂, then 28𝛂2 is (A) 2√29 (B) 1 (C) √37/√29 (D) √29/2
equal to ______
JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-2
JEE Main 31th Jan 2023 S-1 Q. If the shortest distance between the lines
(A) 𝛂 + 2𝛄 = 24 (B) 2𝛂 + 𝛄 = 7
(C) 2𝛂 - 𝛄 = 9 (D) 𝛂 -2 𝛄 = 19 Q. The shortest distance between the lines
Q. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential Q. Let the solution curve y = y(x) of the DE
equation x3 dy + (xy -1) dx = 0, x > 0,
(A)1 (B) e (C) 2 - e (D) 3 pass through the origin. Then y(1) is equal to :
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-2
(A) (B)
Q. If the solution of the differential equation
Q. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential Q. Let y = y (x) be the solution curve of the DE
equation
JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-2 JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-2
Q. Let y = y(x) be the solution curve of the Q. Let y = y(t) be a solution of the differential
JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-2
JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-2 JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-2
Q. The area of the region enclosed by y ≤ 4x2, Q. The area of the region bounded by y2 = 8x and
x2 ≤ 9y and y ≤ 4, is equal to: y2 = 16(3 - x) is equal to:
(A) 40/3 (B) 56/3 (C) 112/3 (D) 80/3 (A) 32/3 (B) 40/3 (C) 16 (D) 19
JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-1
JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-2
Q. If the area enclosed by the parabolas
Q. If the area of the region bounded by the P1 : 2y = 5 x2 and P2 : x2 - y + 6 = 0 is equal to the area
curves y2 - 2y = -x, x + y = 0 is A, then 8A is enclosed by P1 and y = ⍺x, ⍺ > 0, then ⍺3 is equal
equal to to____.
Area under parabola and line
JEE Main 26th July 2022 S-2 JEE Main 30th Jan 2023 S-2
Q. The area bounded by the curves y = |x2 - 1| Q. Let q be the maximum integral value of p in [0, 10]
and y= 1 is for which the roots of the equation
(A) (B) are rational. Then the area
of the region {(x, y) : 0 ≤ y ≤ (x - q)2, 0 ≤ x ≤ q} is
(C) (D)
(A) 243 (B) 25 (C) 125/3 (D) 164
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-1
JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-1
Q. If two tangents drawn from a point (⍺, β) lying Q. The tangents at the point A(1, 3) and B(1, -1) on
on the ellipse 25x2 + 4y2 = 1 to the parabola y2 = 4x the parabola y2 - 2x - 2y = 1 meet at the point P.
are such that the slope of one tangent is four Then the area (in unit2) of the triangle PAB is:
times the other, then the value of (10⍺ + 5)2 + (16β2 (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
+ 50)2 equals_____.
Tangent to parabola
JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-1
Q. If the line y = 4 + kx, k > 0, is the tangent to Q. If y = m1x + c1 and y = m2x + c2, m1 ≠ m2, are two
the parabola y = x - x2 at the the point P and V common tangents of circle x2 + y2 = and parabola
is the vertex of the parabola, then the slope of y2 = x, then the value of 8|m1 m2| is equal to
the line through P and V is: (A) 3 + 4√2 (B) -5 + 6√2
(A) 3/2 (B) 26/9 (C) 5/2 (D) 23/6 (C) -4 + 3√2 (D) 7 + 6√2
JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-1 JEE Main 30th Jan 2023 S-2
Q. The maximum vertical height to which a man Q. A particle of mass 100 is projected at time
can throw a ball is 136 m. The maximum t = 0 with a speed 20 ms-1 at an angle 45° to the
horizontal distance upto which he can throw the horizontal as given in the figure. The magnitude
same ball is of the angular momentum of the particle about
(A) 192 m (B) 136 m (C) 272 m (D) 68 m the starting point at time t = 2s is found to be √K
JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-2 kg m2/s. The value of K is.
(Take g = 10 ms-2)
Q. Two objects are projected with same velocity
‘u’ however at difference angles ⍺ and β with the
horizontal. If ⍺ + β = 90°, the ratio of horizontal
range of the first object to the 2nd object will be:
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 1 JEE Main 31th Jan 2023 S-1
JEE Main 29th Jan 2023 S-1 Q. The initial speed of a projectile fired from
ground is u. At the highest point during its motion,
Q. A stone is projected at angle 30° to the
the speed of projectile is √3/2u. The time of flight
horizontal. The ratio of kinetic energy of the stone
of the projectile is:
at point of projection to its kinetic energy at the
(A) u/2g (B) u/g (C) u/g (D) √3u/g
highest point of flight will be:
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 4 : 3
Range & Velocity
JEE Main 01st Feb 2023 S-1 JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-2
Q. A child stands on the edge of the cliff 10m above Q. A body is projected from the ground at an angle
the ground and throws a stone horizontally with an of 45° with the horizontal. Its velocity after 2s is 20
initial speed of 5 ms-1. Neglecting the air resistance, ms-1. The maximum height reached by the body
the speed with which the stone hits the ground will during its motion is___m.
be______ ms-1 (given, g = 10 ms-2). (use g = 10ms-2)
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1
(A) 20 (B) 15 (C) 30 (D)
26 Q. A fighter jet is flying horizontally at a certain
JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-1
altitude with a speed of 200 ms-1. When it passes
Q. A projectile is projected with velocity of 25 m/s directly overhead an anti-aircraft gun, bullet is
at an angle θ with the horizontal. After t seconds its fired from the gun, at an angle θ with the horizontal,
inclination with horizontal becomes zero. If R to hit the jet. If the bullet speed is 400 m/s, the
represents horizontal range of the projectile, the value of θ will be____°.
value of θ will be: [use g = 10 m/s2] JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-1
Q. Given below are two statements. One is Q. A person can throw a ball upto a maximum
labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled range of 100 m. How high above the ground he
as Reason R. can throw the same ball?
Assertion A :Two identical balls A and B thrown (A) 25 m (B) 50 m (C) 100 m (D) 200 m
with same velocity ' u ' at two different angles
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-2
with horizontal attained the same range R. If A
and B reached the maximum height h1 and h2 Q. A ball is projected from the ground with a
respectively, then R = 4√h1h2 speed 15 ms-1 at an angle θ with horizontal so
Reason R: Product of said heights. that its range and maximum height are equal,
then ‘tan θ’ will be equal to
Choose the CORRECT answer: (A) ¼ (B) ½
Q. Two projectile thrown at 30° and 45° with the
horizontal (C)2022
respectively,
JEE Main 26th July 2reach
S-1the maximum (D) 4
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
height in same time. The ratio of their initial
explanation of A.
velocities is
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(A) 1 : √2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) √2 : 1 (D) 1 : 2
correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Range & Velocity
JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-1
Q. Moment of inertia of a dise of mass M and radius ‘R’ Q. The moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod about a
about any of its diameter is . The moment of perpendicular axis passing through one end is I1.The
inertia of this disc about an axis normal to the disc same rod is bent into a ring and its moment of inertia
and passing through a point on its edge will be, . about a diameter is I2. If then the value of x
The value of x is _____ . will be ______ .
JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-1 JEE Main 24th January 2023 S-2
Q. The approximate height from the surface of
earth at which the weight of the body becomes Q. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
of its weight on the surface of earth is: [Radius Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
of earth R = 6400 km and = 1.732] Assertin A: A pendulum clock when taken to Mount
(A) 3840 km (B) 4685 Everest becomes fast.
km Reason R : The value of g (acceleration due to gravity)
(C) 2133 km (D) 4267 is less at Mount Everest than its value on the surface of
JEE Main 29th July 2022 S-1
earth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
Q. If the acceleration due to gravity experienced appropriate answer from the options given below
by a point mass at a height h above the surface (A) Both A and R are correct but T is NOT the correct
of earth is same as that of the acceleration due explanation of A
to gravity at depth 𝛼h (h << Re) from the earth (B) Both A and R are correct but T is the correct
surface. The value of 𝛼 will be _____ . explanation of A
(use Re = 6400 km) (C) A is not correct but R is correct
(D) A is not correct but R is not correct
Variation in g
JEE Main 24th January 2023 S-2 JEE Main 01st February 2023 S-1
Q. Given below are two statements: Q. Given below are two statements:
Statements I : Acceleration due to earth’s gravity decreases Statement – I :Acceleration due to gravity is
as you go ‘up’ or ‘down’ from earth’s surface. different at different places on the surface of
Statements II : Acceleration due to earth’s gravity is same at a earth.
height ‘h’ and depth ‘d’ from earth’s surface, if h = d. Statement - II : Acceleration due to gravity
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate increases as we go down below the earth’s
answer from the options given below surface.
(A) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct In the light of the above statements, choose the
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect correct answer from the options given below
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(D) Both Statement I and Statement are correct (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is true but Statement II is true
Young's Modulus
25 Jan -Shift 1 JEE 2023 JEE Main 31st January 2023 S-1
Q. As shown in the figure, in an experiment to Q. A thin rod having a length of 1 m and area of
determine Young’s modulus of a wire, the cross-section 3 × 10-6 m2 is suspended vertically
extension-load curve is plotted. The curve is a from one end. The rod is cooled from 210°C to
straight line passing through the origin and 160°C. After cooling, a mass M is attached at the
makes an angle of 45° with the load axis. The lower end of the rod such that the length of rod
length of wire is 62.8 cm and its diameter is 4 again becomes 1 m. Young’s modulus and
mm. The Young’s modulus is found to be x × 104 coefficient of linear expansion of the rod are 2 ×
Nm-2. The value of x is____ . 1011 Nm-2 and 2 × 10-5 K-1, respectively. The value
of M is _____ kg. (Take g = 10 m s-2)
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 30th January 2023 S-2
Q. A heat engine operates with the cold Q. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
reservoir at temperature 324 K. The minimum Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A:
temperature of the hot reservoir, if the heat Efficiency of a reversible heat engine will be highest at -273°C
engine takes 300 J heat from the hot reservoir temperature of cold reservoir.
and delivers 180 J heat to the cold reservoir per Reason R: The efficiency of Carnot engine depends not only
cycle, is ___________K. on temperature of cold reservoir but it depends on the
JEE Main 1st Feb 2023 S-2 temperature of hot reservoir too and is given as
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
Q. A carnot engine operating between two
answer from the options given below:
reservoirs has efficiency ⅓. When the
(A) A is true but R is false
temperature of cold reservoir raised by x, its
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation
efficiency decreases to ⅙. The value of x, if the
of A
temperature of hot reservoir is 99°C, will be:
(C) A is false but R is true
(A) 16.5 K (B) 33 K (C) 66 K (D) 62 K
(D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Heat Engine
JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-2
JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-1
Q. In 1st case, Carnot engine operates between
Q. A carnot engine has efficiency of 50%. If the temperature of
temperatures 300 K and 100 K. In 2nd case,
sink is reduced by 40oC , its efficiency increases by 30%. The
case shown in the figure, a combination of two temperature of the source will be :
engines is used. The efficiency of this (A) 166.7 K (B) 255.1 K (C) 266.7 K (D) 367.7 K
combination (in 2nd case) will be:
JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-1
(A) Same as the 1st case
Q. A carnot engine whose heat sinks at 27°C, has an
(B) Always greater than the 1st case efficiency of 25%. By how many degrees should the
(C) Always less than the 1st case efficiency by 100% of the original efficiency?
(A) Increases by 18° C (B) Increases by 200°C
(D) May increase or decrease with
(C) Increases by 120°C (D) Increases by 73°C
respect to the 1st case
JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-1
JEE Main 26th Jun3 2022 S-1
JEE Main 26th July 2023 S-2 JEE Main 30th Jan 2023 S-2
JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 25th July 2023 S-2
Q As shown in the figure, a point charge Q is Q.Two uniformly charged spherical conductors
placed at the centre of conducting spherical A and B of radii 5 mm and 10 mm are separated
shell of inner radius a and outer radius b. The by a distance of 2 cm. If the spheres are
electric field due to charge Q in three different connected by a conducting wire, then in
regions I, II and III is given by : equilibrium condition, the ratio of the
(I : r < a, II : a < r < b, III : r > b) magnitudes of the electric fields at the surface
(A) EI = 0, EII = 0, EIII ≠ 0 of the sphere A and B will be :
(B) EI ≠ 0, EII = 0, EIII ≠ 0 (A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
(C) EI ≠ 0, EII = 0, EIII = 0
(D) EI = 0, EII = 0, EIII = 0 JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-2
Q. In the figure, a very large plane sheet of positive Q. Given below are two statements:
charge is shown, P1 and P2 are two points at distance l Statement-I : A point charge is brought in an electric
and 2l from the charge distribution. If 𝜎 is the surface field. The value of electric field at a point near to the
charge density then the magnitude of electric fields E1 charge may increase if the charge is positive.
and E2 at P1 and P2 respectively are: Statement-II : An electric dipole is placed in a non-
(A) E1 = 𝜎/𝜀0, E2 = 𝜎/𝜀0, uniform electric field. The net electric force on the
(B) E1 = 2𝜎/𝜀0, E2 = 𝜎/𝜀0, dipole will not be zero
(C) E1 = E2 = 𝜎/2𝜀0, Choose the correct answer from the options given
(D) E1 = E2 = 𝜎/𝜀0, below:
(A) Both statement-I and statement-II are ture.
(B) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.
JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-2
(C) Statement-I is true but statement-II if false
Q. A long cylindrical volume contains (D) Statement-I is false but statement-II if true.
a uniformly distributed charge of density
𝜌 Cm-3. The electric field inside the
cylindrical volume at a distance from its
axis is ______ Vm-1
Electric Field
JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-1 JEE Main 29th July 2022 S-1
Q. The three charges q/2, q and q/2 are placed at the Q. A spherically symmetric charge distribution is
corners A, B and C of a square of side ‘a’ as shown if considered with charge density varying as
figure. The magnitude of electric field (E) at the
comer D of the square, is:
(A)
Where, r(r < R) is the distance from
(B) the centre O (as shown in figure).
The electric field at point P will be:
(A) (B)
(C) (D) (C)
(D)
Dielectrics
JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-1
Q A capacitor has capacitance 5𝜇F When it’s Q A parallel plate capacitor has plate area 40 cm2 and
parallel plates are separated by air medium plates separation 2 mm. The space between the plates is
of thickness d. A slab of material of dielectric filled with dielectric medium of a thickness 1 mm and
constant 1.5 having area equal to that of dielectric constant 5. The capacitance of the system is:
plates but thickness d/2 is inserted between
the plates. Capacitance of the capacitor in A. 24 ε0 F B. C. D. 10 ε0 F
the presence of slab will be ____ 𝜇F.
Q Two parallel plate capacitors C1 and C2 each Q A parallel plate capacitor is formed by two plates each of
having capacitance of 10 μF are individually area 30𝜋 cm2 separated by 1 mm. A material of dielectric
charged by a 100 V D. C. source. Capacitor C1 is strength 3.6 × 107 Vm-1 is filled between the plates. If the
kept connected to the source and a dielectric maximum charge that can be stored on the capacitor
slab is inserted between it plates. Capacitor C2 without causing any dielectric breakdown is 7 × 10-6 C, The
is disconnected from the source and then a value of dielectric constant of the materials is:
dielectric slab is inserted in it. Afterwards the
(A) 1.66 (B) 1.75
capacitor C1 is also disconnected from the
(C) 2.25 (D) 2.33
source and the two capacitors are finally
connected in parallel combination. The
JEE Main 29th June 2023 S-1
common potential of the combination will
be______ V. (Assuming Dielectric Q A parallel plate capacitor filled with a medium of dielectric
Constant = 10)
constant 10, is connected across a battery and is charged.
The dielectric slab is replaced by another slab of dielectric
constant 15. Then the energy of capacitor will :
A. Increased by 50% B. Decrease by 15%
C. Increased by 25% D. Increase by 33%
Dielectrics
JEE Main 29th June 2023 S-2 JEE Main 25th June 2023 S-2
Q The displacement current of 4.425 𝜇A is Q Two metallic plates form a parallel plate capacitor.
developed in the space between the plates of The distance between the plates is ‘d’. A metal sheet of
parallel plate capacitor when voltage is thickness d/2 and of a area equal to area of each plate
changing at a rate of 106 Vs-1. The area of is introduced between the plates. What will be the ratio
each plate of the capacitor is 40 cm2. The of the new capacitance to the original capacitance of
distance between each plate of the the capacitor?
capacitor is x × 10-3m. The value of x is
(Permittivity of free space, E0 = 8.85 x 10- A. 2 : 1 B. 1 : 2 C. 1:4 D. 4:1
12C2N-1m-2)
JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-2
JEE Main 27th June 2023 S-2
Q Two parallel plate capacitors of capacity C
and 3C are connected in parallel
Q A parallel plate capacitor is made up of
combination and charged to a potential
stair like structure with a plate area A of difference 18V. The battery is then
each stair and that is connected with a disconnected and the space between the
wire of length b, as shown in the figure. plates of the capacitor of capacity C is
The capacitance of the arrangement is completely filled with a material of dielectric
constant 9. The final potential difference
The value of x is _____
across the combination of capacitors will be
Dielectrics
JEE Main 26th July 2023 S-1 JEE Main 27th July 2023 S-2
Q A composite parallel plate capacitor is made Q A parallel plate capacitor with width 4 cm, length 8 cm
up of two different dielectric materials with and separation between the plates of 4mm is connected to
different thickness (t1 and t2) as shown in a battery of 20 V. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant 5
figure. The two different dielectric material are having length 1 cm, width 4 cm and thickness 4 mm is
separated by a conducting foil F. The voltage of inserted between the plates of parallel plate capacitor. The
the conducting foil is _____ V. electrostatic energy of this system will be _____∈0 J.
(Where ∈0 is the permittivity of free space)
A. B. C. D.
Straight Wire & Circular Coil
JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-1
Q A long solenoid is formed by winding 70 turns
cm-1. If 2.0 A current flows, then the magnetic Q A circular loop of radius r is carrying current I
field produced inside the solenoid is _____ A. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of
(μ0 = 4π × 10-7 TmA-1) circular loop and at a distance r from the centre
A. 1232 × 10-4 T B. 176 × 10- of the loop on its axis is:
4T A. B. C. D.
C. 352 × 10-4 T D. 88 × 10-4 T
JEE Main 29th July 2022 S-1
JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2
(A) (B)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(C) (D)
Straight Wire & Circular Coil
JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-1
JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2
Q Two long current carrying conductors are Q. The magnetic field at the centre of a
placed parallel to each other at a distance of 8 circular coil of radius r, due to current I flowing
cm between them. The magnitude of magnetic through it, is B. The magnetic field at a point
field produced at mid-point between the two along
conductors due to current flowing in them is the axis at a distance r/2 from the centre is
300 µT. The equal current flowing in the two
conductors is: (A) (B) 2B (C) (D)
(A) 30A in the same direction
(B) 30A in the opposite direction
(C) 60A in the opposite direction JEE Main 26th July 2022 S-1
(D) 300A in the opposite direction
Q. Bx and BY are the magnetic field at the
JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-1
centre of two coils X and Y respectively, each
Q. A long straight wire with a circular cross-section having carrying equal current. If coil X has 200 turns
radius R, is carrying a steady current I. The current I is uniformly and 20 cm radius and coil Y has 400 turns
distributed across this cross-section. Then the variation of and 20 cm radius, the ratio of Bx and BY
magnetic field due to current I with distance r (f < R) from its
centre will be: (A) 1:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 2:1 (D) 4:1
(A) B ∝ r2 (B) B∝r (C) (D)
Series RLC Circuit
JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-2
JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-2
Q A series LCR circuit is connected to an AC Q For the given figures, choose the correct options:
source of 220 V, 50 Hz. The circuit contains a
resistance R = 80Ω, an inductor of inductive
reactance XL = 70Ω, and a capacitor of
capacitive reactance XC = 130Ω. The power
factor of circuit is x/10. The value of x is: (A) The rms current in circuit (b) can never be larger than
JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-2 that in (a)
(B) The rms current in figure (a) is always equal to that in
Q A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac figure (b)
source of 220V, 50Hz. The circuit contain a
(C) The rms current in circuit (b) can be larger than that
resistance R = 100Ω and an inductor of
in (a)
inductive reactance XL = 79.6Ω. The (D) At resonance, current in (b) is less than that in (a)
capacitance of the capacitor needed to
maximize the average rate at which energy is
supplied will be_____μF.
Series RLC Circuit
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-1
JEE Main 26th July 2022 S-1
Q To increase the resonant frequency in series Q The effective current I in the given circuit at
LCR circuit, very high frequencies will be _____ A
(A) Source frequency should be increased
(B) Another resistance should be added in
series with the first resistance.
(C) Another capacitor should be added in
series with the first capacitor
(D) The source frequency should be decreased.
JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-1
Q An inductor of 0.5 mH, a capacitor of 200 𝜇F Q For a series LCR circuit, I vs 𝜔 curve is shown:
and a resistor of 2 𝛺 are connected in series (a) To the left of 𝜔t, the circuit is mainly
with a 220 V ac source. If the current is in phase capacitive.
with the emf, the frequency of ac source will be (b) To the left of 𝜔t, the circuit is mainly
______× 102 Hz. inductive.
(c) At 𝜔t, impedance of the circuit is equal to
JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2
the resistance of the circuit.
Q In the given circuit, the (d) At 𝜔t, impedance of the circuit is 0.
magnitude of VL and VC are Choose the most appropriate answer from the
twice that of VR. Given that options given below:
f = 50 Hz, the inductance of (A) (a) and (d) only
the coil is 1/K𝜋 The value of (B) (b) and (d) only
K is __ (C) (a) and (c) only
(D) (b) and (c) only
EM Waves : E / B = C
JEE Main 29th January 2023 S-2 JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-2
Q. Given below are two statements: Q. The electromagnetic wave travel in a medium at
Statement I: Electromagnetic waves are not a speed of 2.0 × 108 m/s. The relative permeability
deflected by electric and magnetic field of the medium is 1.0. The relative permittivity of the
Statement II: The amplitude of electric field and the medium will be:
magnetic field in electromagnetic waves are (A) 2.25 (B) 4.25 (C) 6.25 (D) 8.25
related to each other as JEE Main 24th June 2020 S-1
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Q. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in a
correct answer from the option given below:
medium of relative permeability 1.61 and relative
(A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
permittivity 6.44. If magnitude of magnetic intensity
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
is 4.5 × 10-2 Am-1 at a point, what will be the
(C) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
approximate magnitude of electric field intensity at
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
that point?
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-1
Q. Light wave traveling in air along x-direction is (Given : Permeability of free space 𝜇0 = 4𝜋 × 10-7 NA-2,
speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms-1)
given by Ey = 540 sin π × 104 (x - ct) Vm-1. Then, the
peak value of magnetic field of wave will be (Given (A) 16.96 Vm-1 (B)
c = 3 × 108 ms-1) 2.25 × 10-2 Vm-1
(A) 18 × 10-7 T (B) 54 × 10-7 T (C) 8.48 Vm-1 (D)
6.75 × 106 Vm-1
-8 -8
EM Waves : E / B = C
JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-1 JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-2
Q. Given below are two statements:
Q. The oscillating magnetic field in a plane
Statement I: A time varying electric field is a source
electromagnetic wave is given by By = 5 × 10-6 sin
of changing magnetic field and vice-versa. Thus a
1000π (5x - 4 × 108 t) T. The amplitude of electric field disturbance in electric or magnetic field creates EM
will be: wave
(A) 15 × 102 Vm-1 (B) 5 × 10-6 Vm-1 Statement II: In a material medium. The EM wave
(C) 16 × 1012 Vm-1 (D) 4 × 102 Vm-1 travels with speed
JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-1 In the light of the above statements, choose the
Q. If electric field intensity of a uniform plane correct answer from the options given below:
electromagnetic wave is given as (A) Both statement I and statement II are true
(B) Both statement I and statement II are false
(C) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
Then, magnetic intensity H of this wave in Am-1 will be: (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
[Given: Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms-1,
permeability of vacuum 𝜇0 = 4𝜋 × 10-7 NA-2]
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
EM Waves : E / B = C
JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 26th July 2022 S-1
Q.In Young’s double slit experiment, two slits S 1 Q. In a double slit experiment with
and S2 are ’d’ distance apart and the monochromatic light, fringes are obtained on a
separation from slits to screen is D (as shown in screen placed at some distance from the plane
figure). Now if two transparent slabs of equal of slits. If the screen is moved by 5 × 10-2 m
thickness 0.1 mm but refractive index 1.51 and towards the slits, the change in fringe width is
1.55 are introduced in the 3 × 10-3 cm. If the distance between the slits is 1
path of beam (𝞴 = 4000 𝞴) mm, then the wavelength of the light will be_nm.
from S1 and S2 respectively.
The central bright fringe JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-2
spot will shift by______. Q. Two light waves of wavelengths 800 and 600
number of fringes. nm are used in Young’s double slit experiment to
JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-2 obtain interference fringes on a screen placed 7
m away from plane of slits. If the two slits are
Q. In a Young’s double slit experiment, an separated by 0.35 mm, then shortest distance
angular width of the fringe is 0.35° on a screen from the central bright maximum to the point
placed at 2 m away for particular wavelength where the bright fringes of the two wavelength
of 450 nm. The angular width of the fringe, coincide will be ________mm.
when whole system is immersed in a medium
of refractive index 7/5, is 1/⍺. The value of α is_
MODERN PHYSICS
Half Life
JEE Main 29th Jan 2023 S-1 JEE Main 29th Jan 2023 S-2
Q. The half life period of a radioactive Q. Two radioactive materials A and B have
substance is 60 days. The time taken for ⅞ th of decay constants 25λ and 16λ respectively. If
its original mass to disintegrate will be: initially they have the same number of nuclei,
(A) 120 days (B) 130 days then the ratio of the number of nuclei of B to
(C) 180 days (D) 20 days that of A will be “e” after a time 1/⍺λ. The value
of a is _______ .
JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-1
From the photoelectric effect experiment, Given below are two statements :
following observations are made. Identify Statement I : Stopping potential in
which of these are correct photoelectric effect does not depend on
A. The stopping potential depends only the power of the light source.
on the work function of the metal. Statement II : For a given metal, the
B. The saturation current increases as the maximum kinetic energy of the
intensity of incident light increases. photoelectron depends on the
C. The maximum kinetic energy of a wavelength of the incident light.
photo electron depends on the intensity
In the light of above statements, choose
of the incident light.
the most appropriate answer from the
D. Photoelectric effect can be explained
options given below.
using wave theory of light.
Choose the correct answer from the
(A) I is incorrect but II is correct
options given below:
(B) Both I & II are incorrect
(C) I Correct but II Incorrect
(A) B, C Only (B) 1A, C, D (C) B Only
(D) Both I & II are correct
(D) A, B, D
29 Jan - Shift 1 JEE 2023 31 Jan - Shift 2 JEE 2023
The threshold wavelength If the two metals A and B are exposed to 26 June - shift 2 2022
for photoelectric emission radiation of wavelength 350 nm. The work
The stopping potential for
from a material is 5500 Å. functions of metals A and B are 4.8 eV and 2.2
photoelectrons emitted from a
Photoelectrons will be eV. Then choose the correct option.
surface illuminated by light of
emitted, when this (A) B will not emit photoelectron
wavelength 6630 Å is 0.42 V. if
material is illuminated with (B) Both A & B will emit photo electron
the threshold frequency is x ×
monochromatic radiation (C) neither A nor B will emit photo
1013/s, where x
from a electron
is______(nearest integer).
A. 75 W infrared lamp (D) A will not emit photoelectron
24 June - shift 12022 (Give, speed light = 3 × 108 m/s,
B. 10 W infrared lamp Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10-34
C. 75 W ultra-violet lamp When light of frequency twice the threshold Js)
D. 10 W ultra-violet lamp frequency is incident on the metal plate, the
Choose the correct answer maximum velocity of emitted electron is v1.
from the options given When the frequency of incident radiation is
below : increased to five times the threshold value,
the maximum velocity of emitted electron
(1) B & C Only becomes v2. If v2 = x v1, the value of x will
(2) A & D Only be_____.
(3) C Only
(4) C & D Only
24 June - shift 2 2022 28 June - shift 2 2022
The light of two different frequencies Let K1 and K2 be the maximum kinetic energies of
whose photons have energies 3.8 eV and photoelectrons emitted when two monochromatic
1.4 eV respectively, illuminate a metallic beams of wavelength 𝜆1 and 𝜆2, respectively are
surface whose work function is 0.6 eV incident on a metallic surface. If 𝜆1 = 3𝜆2 then:
successively. The ratio of maximum
speeds of emitted electrons for the two (A) (B) (C)
frequencies respectively will be: (D)
(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1 (C) 4:1 (D) 1:4 29 June - shift 1 2022
25 July - shift 1 2022 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is Reason R.
A metal exposed to light of Assertion A: The photoelectric effect does not take place, if the
wavelength 800 nm and emits energy of the incident radiation is less than the work function of a
photoelectrons with a certain metal.
kinetic energy. The maximum Reason R: Kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is zero, if the energy
of the incident radiation is equal to the work function of a metal.
kinetic energy of photoelectron
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
doubles when light of wavelength
answer from the options, given below,
500 nm is used. The work function
of the metal (Take hc = 1230 eV- (A) A & R are correct & R is correct explanation of A
nm). (B) A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(A) 1.537 eV (B) 2.46 eV (C) A is correct but R is not correct
(D) A is not correct but R is correct
29 July - shift 1 2022
Q. An α-particle, a proton and an electron have Q. An electron with speed v and a photon with
the same kinetic energy. Which one of the speed c have the same de-Broglie wavelength.
following is correct in case of their De-Broglie If the kinetic energy and momentum of
wavelength: electron are Ee and pe and that of photon are
(A) 𝜆α > 𝜆p > 𝜆e (B) 𝜆α < 𝜆p < Eph and pph respectively. Which of the following
𝜆e is correct?
(C) 𝜆α ≡ 𝜆p = 𝜆e (D) 𝜆α > 𝜆p < (A)
JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-2
𝜆e (B)
Q. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of an α-
particle and a proton accelerated from rest by (C)
JEE Main 25th Jan
(D)2023 S-1
the same potential is 1/√m, the value of m is
(A) 4 (B) 16 Q. Electron beam used in an electron
(C) 8 (D) 2 microscope, when accelerated by a voltage of
JEE Main 01st Feb 2023 S-1
20 kV. Has a de-Broglie wavelength of 𝜆0. If the
Q. A proton moving with one tenth of velocity of voltage is increased to 40 kV. then the de-
light has a certain de-Broglie wavelength of 𝜆. Broglie wavelength associated with the
An alpha particle having certain kinetic energy electron beam would be:
has the same de-Brogle wavelength 𝜆. The (A) 3λ0 (B) 9λ0 (C) λ0/2 (D) λ0/√2
ratio of kinetic energy of proton and that of
alpha particle is:
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 4
JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-1
JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-1
Q. An α particle and a carbon 12 atom has
same kinetic energy K. The ratio of their de- Q. The equation can be used to
Broglie wavelength (𝜆a : 𝜆C12) is: find the de-Brogli wavelength of an electron. In
(A) 1 : √3 (B) √3 : 1 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 2 : √3 this equation x stands for:
Where
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-2 m = mass of electron
P = momentum of electron
Q. The ratio of wavelengths of proton and K = Kinetic energy of electron
deuteron accelerated by potential Vp and Vd is V = Accelerating potential in volts for electron
1 : √2. Then, the ratio of Vp to Vd will be
(A) 1 : 1 (B) √2 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 4 : 1 (A) (B)
(C) (D)
JEE Main 30th Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-1
(c) (D)
MODERN PHYSICS
Electronic transition
JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 01st Feb 2023 S-2
Q. In a hydrogen spectrum, 𝜆 be the wavelength Q. For hydrogen atom 𝜆1 and 𝜆2 are the
of first transition line of Lyman series. The wavelengths corresponding to the transitions 1
wavelength difference will be “a𝜆” between the and 2 respectively as shown in figure. The ratio
wavelength of 3rd transition line of Paschen of 𝜆1 and 𝜆2 is x/32. The value of x is____.
series and that of 2nd transition line of Balmer
Series where a = ___
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Diode & Logic Gates
JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 29th Jan 2023 S-2
Q The logic gate equivalent to the given circuit Q For he given logic gates combination, the
diagram is: correct truth table will be
(A) OR
(A)
(B) NAND
(C) NOR
(D) AND
(B) (C)
JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-1
(D)
Q In the following circuit, the correct relation
between output (Y) and inputs A and B will be:
(A) Y = AB
(B) Y = A + B
(C)
(D)
Diode & Logic Gates
JEE Main 30th Jan 2023 S-1 JEE Main 30th Jan 2023 S-1
Q The output waveform of the given logical Q The output Y for the inputs A and B of circuit is
circuit for the following inputs A and B as shown given by Truth table of the shown circuit is:
below, is:
(A) (A)
JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-1 JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-1
Q A logic gate circuit has two inputs A and B Q Identify the correct Logic Gate for the following output
and output Y. The voltage waveforms of A, B (Y) of two inputs A and B.
and Y are shown below The logic gate circuit is
(A) AND gate
(A)
(B) OR gate
(C) NOR gate
(D) NAND gate (B)
(C)
(D)
Keep studying