FON Mcqs From Nurses Lab Web by Abdullah Danish, Educational Platform
FON Mcqs From Nurses Lab Web by Abdullah Danish, Educational Platform
FON Mcqs From Nurses Lab Web by Abdullah Danish, Educational Platform
1. Question
The most important nursing intervention to correct skin dryness is:
A. Consult the dietitian about increasing the patient‘s fat intake, and take
necessary measures to prevent infection.
B. Ask the physician to refer the patient to a dermatologist, and suggest that
the patient wear home-laundered sleepwear.
D. Avoid bathing the patient until the condition is remedied, and notify the
physician.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Encourage the patient to increase his fluid intake, use
non-irritating soap when bathing the patient, and apply lotion to the
involved areas.
Dry skin will eventually crack, ranking the patient more prone to infection. To
prevent this, the nurse should provide adequate hydration through fluid intake,
use non irritating soaps or no soap when bathing the patient, and lubricate the
patient‘s skin with lotion. In most cases, dry skin responds well to lifestyle
measures, such as using moisturizers and avoiding long, hot showers and baths.
Moisturizers provide a seal over the skin to keep water from escaping. Apply
moisturizer several times a day and after bathing.
Option B: The attending physician and dietitian may be consulted for
treatment, but home-laundered items usually are not necessary. Natural
fibers, such as cotton and silk, allow the skin to breathe. But wool, although
natural, can irritate even normal skin. Wash clothes with detergents without
dyes or perfumes, both of which can irritate the skin.
Option C: Increasing fat intake is unnecessary. Hot, dry, indoor air can
parch sensitive skin and worsen itching and flaking. A portable home
humidifier or one attached to the furnace adds moisture to the air inside
the home. Be sure to keep the humidifier clean. It‘s best to use cleansing
creams or gentle skin cleansers and bath or shower gels with added
2. Question
When bathing a patient‘s extremities, the nurse should use long, firm strokes
from the distal to the proximal areas. This technique:
3. Question
Vivid dreaming occurs in which stage of sleep?
A. Stage I non-REM
C. Stage II non-REM
D. Delta stage
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Rapid eye movement (REM) stage
Other characteristics of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep are deep sleep (the
patient cannot be awakened easily), depressed muscle tone, and possibly
irregular heart and respiratory rates. This is the stage associated with dreaming.
Interestingly, the EEG is similar to an awake individual, but the skeletal muscles
are atonic and without movement. The exception is the eye and diaphragmatic
breathing muscles, which remain active. The breathing rate is altered though,
being more erratic and irregular. This stage usually starts 90 minutes after falling
asleep, and each of the REM cycles gets longer throughout the night. The first
period typically lasts 10 minutes, and the final one can last up to an hour.
Option A: Non-REM sleep is a deep, restful sleep without dreaming. This is
the lightest stage of sleep and starts when more than 50% of the alpha
waves are replaced with low-amplitude mixed-frequency (LAMF) activity.
There is muscle tone present in the skeletal muscle and breathing tends to
occur at a regular rate. This stage tends to last 1 to 5 minutes, consisting of
around 5% of the total cycle.
Option C: This stage represents deeper sleep the heart rate and body
temperature drop. It is characterized by the presence of sleep spindles, K-
complexes, or both. These sleep spindles will activate the superior temporal
gyri, anterior cingulate, insular cortices, and the thalamus. The K-complexes
show a transition into a deeper sleep. Stage 2 sleep lasts around 25
4. Question
The natural sedative in meat and milk products (especially warm milk) that can
help induce sleep is:
A. Flurazepam
B. Temazepam
C. Methotrimeprazine
D. Tryptophan
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Tryptophan
Tryptophan is a natural sedative; flurazepam (Dalmane), temazepam (Restoril),
and methotrimeprazine (Levoprome) are hypnotic sedatives. Protein foods such
as milk and milk products contain the sleep-inducing amino acid tryptophan.
Having warm milk at bedtime is a good way to work towards reaching the
recommended number of servings of Milk and Alternatives each day, and can be
a comforting way to unwind. Tryptophan is an amino acid that promotes sleep
and is found in small amounts in all protein foods. It is a precursor to the sleep-
inducing compounds serotonin (a neurotransmitter), and melatonin (a hormone
which also acts as a neurotransmitter).
Option A: Flurazepam (marketed under the brand names Dalmane and
Dalmadorm) is a drug which is a benzodiazepine derivative. It possesses
anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, hypnotic, sedative and skeletal muscle relaxant
5. Question
Nursing interventions that can help the patient to relax and sleep restfully include
all of the following except:
6. Question
Restraints can be used for all of the following purposes except to:
7. Question
Which of the following is the nurse‘s legal responsibility when applying
restraints?
8. Question
Kubler-Ross‘s five successive stages of death and dying are:
9. Question
A terminally ill patient usually experiences all of the following feelings during the
anger stage except:
A. Rage
B. Envy
C. Numbness
D. Resentment
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Numbness
Numbness is typical of the depression stage, when the patient feels a great sense
of loss. Depression is perhaps the most immediately understandable of Kubler-
Ross‘s stages and patients experience it with unsurprising symptoms such as
sadness, fatigue, and anhedonia. Spending time in the first three stages is
potentially an unconscious effort to protect oneself from this emotional pain,
and, while the patient‘s actions may potentially be easier to understand, they may
be more jarring in juxtaposition to behaviors arising from the first three stages.
10. Question
Nurses and other healthcare providers often have difficulty helping a terminally ill
patient through the necessary stages leading to acceptance of death. Which of
the following strategies is most helpful to the nurse in achieving this goal?
11. Question
Which of the following symptoms is the best indicator of imminent death?
12. Question
A nurse caring for a patient with an infectious disease who requires isolation
should refers to guidelines published by the:
13. Question
To institute appropriate isolation precautions, the nurse must first know the:
A. Have the patient place the specimen in a container and enclose the
container in a plastic bag.
B. Have the patient expectorate the sputum while the nurse holds the
container.
15. Question
An autoclave is used to sterilize hospital supplies because:
16. Question
The best way to decrease the risk of transferring pathogens to a patient when
removing contaminated gloves is to:
C. Gently pull just below the cuff and invert the gloves when removing
them.
17. Question
A. Infection
B. Infiltration
C. Phlebitis
D. Bleeding
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Phlebitis
Tenderness, warmth, swelling, and, in some instances, a burning sensation are
signs and symptoms of phlebitis. Superficial phlebitis affects veins on the skin
surface. The condition is rarely serious and, with proper care, usually resolves
rapidly. Sometimes people with superficial phlebitis also get deep vein
thrombophlebitis, so a medical evaluation is necessary.
Option A: Infection is less likely because no drainage or fever is present.
Call a health care provider if there are signs and symptoms of swelling,
pain, and inflamed superficial veins on the arms or legs. If the client is not
better in a week or two or if it gets any worse, he or she should get
reevaluated to make sure they don‘t have a more serious condition.
Option B: Infiltration would result in swelling and pallor, not erythema,
near the insertion site. In phlebitis, there is usually a slow onset of a tender
red area along the superficial veins on the skin. A long, thin red area may
be seen as the inflammation follows a superficial vein. This area may feel
hard, warm, and tender. The skin around the vein may be itchy and swollen.
The area may begin to throb or burn.
Option D: The patient has no evidence of bleeding. Injury to a vein
increases the risk of forming a blood clot. Sometimes clots occur without
an injury.
18. Question
To ensure homogenization when diluting powdered medication in a vial, the
nurse should:
19. Question
The nurse is teaching a patient to prepare a syringe with 40 units of U-100 NPH
insulin for self-injection. The patient‘s first priority concerning self-injection in
this situation is to:
C. Check the syringe to verify that the nurse has removed the prescribed
insulin dose.
20. Question
The physician‘s order reads ―Administer 1 g cefazolin sodium (Ancef) in 150 ml of
normal saline solution in 60 minutes.‖ What is the flow rate if the drop factor is 10
gtt = 1 ml?
A. 25 gtt/minute
B. 37 gtt/minute
C. 50 gtt/minute
D. 60 gtt/minute
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. 25 gtt/minute
When you have an order for an IV infusion, it is the nurse‘s responsibility to make
sure the fluid will infuse at the prescribed rate. IV fluids may be infused by gravity
using a manual roller clamp or dial-a-flow, or infused using an infusion pump.
Regardless of the method, it is important to know how to calculate the correct IV
flow rate.
Option B: When calculating the flow rate, determine which IV tubing you
will be using, microdrip or macrodrip, so you can use the proper drop
factor in your calculations. The drop factor is the number of drops in one
mL of solution, and is printed on the IV tubing package.
Option C: Macrodrip and microdrip refers to the diameter of the needle
where the drop enters the drip chamber. Macrodrip tubing delivers 10 to
20 gtts/mL and is used to infuse large volumes or to infuse fluids quickly.
21. Question
A patient must receive 50 units of Humulin regular insulin. The label reads 100
units = 1 ml. How many milliliters should the nurse administer?
A. 0.5 ml
B. 0.75 ml
C. 1 ml
D. 2 ml
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. 0.5 ml
There are 3 primary methods for calculation of medication dosages; Dimensional
Analysis, Ratio Proportion, and Formula or Desired Over Have Method. Desired
Over Have or Formula Method uses a formula or equation to solve for an
unknown quantity (x) much like ratio proportion.
Option B: Drug calculations require the use of conversion factors, for
example, when converting from pounds to kilograms or liters to milliliters.
Simplistic in design, this method allows clinicians to work with various units
of measurement, converting factors to find the answer. These methods are
useful in checking the accuracy of the other methods of calculation, thus
acting as a double or triple check.
Option C: The Ratio and Proportion Method has been around for years
and is one of the oldest methods utilized in drug calculations (as cited in
Boyer, 2002)[Lindow, 2004]. Addition principals is a problem-solving
technique that has no bearing on this relationship, only multiplication, and
division are used to navigate through a ratio and proportion problem, not
adding.
Option D: High-risk medications such as heparin and insulin often require
a second check on dosage amounts by more than one provider before the
administration of the drug. Follow institutional policies and
22. Question
How should the nurse prepare an injection for a patient who takes both regular
and NPH insulin?
A. Draw up the NPH insulin, then the regular insulin, in the same syringe.
B. Draw up the regular insulin, then the NPH insulin, in the same
syringe.
23. Question
24. Question
A patient is catheterized with a #16 indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter to
determine if:
25. Question
A staff nurse who is promoted to assistant nurse manager may feel
uncomfortable initially when supervising her former peers. She can best decrease
this discomfort by:
C. Telling the staff nurses that she is making changes to benefit their
performance.
26. Question
Nurse Clarisse is teaching a patient about a newly prescribed drug. What could
cause a geriatric patient to have difficulty retaining knowledge about prescribed
medications?
B. Sensory deficits
27. Question
When examining a patient with abdominal pain the nurse in charge should
assess:
28. Question
The nurse is assessing a postoperative adult patient. Which of the following
should the nurse document as subjective data?
A. Vital signs
29. Question
A male patient has a soft wrist-safety device. Which assessment finding should
the nurse consider abnormal?
30. Question
A. Frontal plane
B. Sagittal plane
C. Midsagittal plane
D. Transverse plane
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Frontal plane
Frontal or coronal plane runs longitudinally at a right angle to a sagittal plane
dividing the body in anterior and posterior regions. The coronal plane or frontal
plane (vertical) divides the body into dorsal and ventral (back and front, or
posterior and anterior) portions. An anatomical plane is a hypothetical plane used
to transect the body, in order to describe the location of structures or the
direction of movements.
Option B: A sagittal plane runs longitudinally dividing the body into right
and left regions. The sagittal plane or lateral plane (longitudinal,
anteroposterior) is a plane parallel to the sagittal suture. It divides the body
into left and right.
Option C: If exactly midline, it is called a midsagittal plane. The midsagittal
or median plane is in the midline; i.e. it would pass through midline
structures such as the navel or spine, and all other sagittal planes (also
referred to as parasagittal planes) are parallel to it. Median can also refer to
the midsagittal plane of other structures, such as a digit.
Option D: A transverse plane runs horizontally at a right angle to the
vertical axis, dividing the structure into superior and inferior regions. The
transverse plane or axial plane (horizontal) divides the body into cranial
and ca
31. Question
A female patient with a terminal illness is in denial. Indicators of denial include:
A. Shock dismay
B. Numbness
D. Preparatory grief
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Shock dismay
Shock and dismay are early signs of denial-the first stage of grief. Denial is a
common defense mechanism used to protect oneself from the hardship of
considering an upsetting reality. Kubler-Ross noted that after the initial shock of
receiving a terminal diagnosis, patients would often reject the reality of the new
information. The other options are associated with depression—a later stage of
grief.
Option B: Depression is perhaps the most immediately understandable of
Kubler-Ross‘s stages and patients experience it with unsurprising
symptoms such as sadness, fatigue, and anhedonia.
Option C: Spending time in the first three stages is potentially an
unconscious effort to protect oneself from this emotional pain, and, while
the patient‘s actions may potentially be easier to understand, they may be
more jarring in juxtaposition to behaviors arising from the first three
stages.
Option D: Consequently, caregivers may need to make a conscious effort
to restore compassion that may have waned while caring for patients
progressing through the first three stages.
32. Question
The nurse in charge is transferring a patient from the bed to a chair. Which action
does the nurse take during this patient transfer?
1. 33. Question
A female patient who speaks a little English has emergency gallbladder surgery,
during discharge preparation, which nursing action would best help this patient
understand wound care instruction?
o C. Writing out the instructions and having a family member read them to the
patient.
1. Question 34 of 75
34. Question
Before administering the evening dose of a prescribed medication, the nurse on
the evening shift finds an unlabeled, filled syringe in the patient‘s medication
drawer. What should the nurse in charge do?
o C. Use the syringe because it looks like it contains the same medication the
nurse was prepared to give.
1. Question 35 of 75
35. Question
When administering drug therapy to a male geriatric patient, the nurse must stay
especially alert for adverse effects. Which factor makes geriatric patients have
adverse drug effects?
1. Question 36 of 75
36. Question
A female patient is being discharged after cataract surgery. After providing
medication teaching, the nurse asks the patient to repeat the instructions. The
nurse is performing which professional role?
o A. Manager
o B. Educator
o C. Caregiver
o D. Patient advocate
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Educator
When teaching a patient about medications before discharge, the nurse is acting
as an educator. They provide educational leadership to patients and care
providers to enhance specialized patient care within established healthcare
settings. Assists patients and caregivers with educational needs, problem
resolution, and health management across the continuum of care.
Option A: The nurse acts as a manager when performing such activities as
scheduling and making patient care assignments. Great nurse managers
are able to work in coordination with other departments. They must also
possess the ability to oversee an array of practice functions including staff
1. Question 37 of 75
37. Question
A female patient exhibits signs of heightened anxiety. Which response by the
nurse is most likely to reduce the patient‘s anxiety?
o B. ―Read this manual and then ask me any questions you may have.‖
1. Question 38 of 75
38. Question
A scrub nurse in the operating room has which responsibility?
1. Question 39 of 75
39. Question
A patient is in the bathroom when the nurse enters to give a prescribed
medication. What should the nurse in charge do?
o B. Tell the patient to be sure to take the medication. And then leave it at the
bedside.
o C. Return shortly to the patient’s room and remain there until the
patient takes the medication.
o D. Wait for the patient to return to bed, and then leave the medication at the
bedside.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Return shortly to the patient’s room and remain there
until the patient takes the medication
The nurse should return shortly to the patient‘s room and remain there until the
patient takes the medication to verify that it was taken as directed. With the
growing reliance on medication therapy as the primary intervention for most
illnesses, patients receiving medication interventions are exposed to potential
harm as well as benefits. Benefits are effective management of the illness/disease,
slowed progression of the disease, and improved patient outcomes with few if
1. Question 40 of 75
40. Question
The physician orders heparin, 7,500 units, to be administered subcutaneously
every 6 hours. The vial reads 10,000 units per milliliter. The nurse should
anticipate giving how much heparin for each dose?
o A. ¼ ml
o B. ½ ml
o C. ¾ ml
o D. 1 ¼ ml
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. ¾ ml
The nurse solves the problem as follows:
10,000 units/7,500 units = 1 ml/X
10,000 X = 7,500
X= 7,500/10,000 or ¾ ml
Option A: There are 3 primary methods for the calculation of medication
dosages, as referenced above. These include Desired Over Have Method or
Formula, Dimensional Analysis and Ratio and Proportion.
1. Question 41 of 75
41. Question
The nurse in charge measures a patient‘s temperature at 102 degrees F. what is
the equivalent Centigrade temperature?
o A. 39 degrees C
o B. 47 degrees C
o C. 38.9 degrees C
o D. 40.1 degrees C
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. 38.9 degrees C
To convert Fahrenheit degrees to centigrade, use this formula:
C degrees = (F degrees – 32) x 5/9
C degrees = (102 – 32) 5/9
+ 70 x 5/9
38.9 degrees C
Option A: Fahrenheit and Celsius both use different temperatures for the
freezing and boiling points of water, and also use differently sized degrees.
1. Question 42 of 75
42. Question
To evaluate a patient for hypoxia, the physician is most likely to order which
laboratory test?
o B. Sputum culture
o C. Total hemoglobin
1. Question 43 of 75
43. Question
The nurse uses a stethoscope to auscultate a male patient‘s chest. Which
statement about a stethoscope with a bell and diaphragm is true?
1. Question 44 of 75
44. Question
A male patient is to be discharged with a prescription for an analgesic that is a
controlled substance. During discharge teaching, the nurse should explain that
the patient must fill this prescription how soon after the date on which it was
written?
o A. Within 1 month
o B. Within 3 months
o C. Within 6 months
o D. Within 12 months
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Within 6 months
In most cases, an outpatient must fill a prescription for a controlled substance
within 6 months of the date on which the prescription was written. A common
reason people seek the care of medical professionals is pain relief. While many
categories of pain medications are available, opioid analgesics are FDA-approved
for moderate to severe pain. As such, they are a common choice for patients with
acute, cancer-related, neurologic, and end-of-life pain. The prescribing of opioid
analgesics for chronic pain is controversial and fraught with inconclusive
standards.
Option A: All health professionals engaged in pain management need an
understanding of the treatment recommendations and safety concerns in
prescribing opioid analgesics. Appropriate opioid prescribing requires a
thorough patient assessment, short and long-term treatment planning,
close follow-up, and continued monitoring.
1. Question 45 of 75
45. Question
Which human element considered by the nurse in charge during assessment can
affect drug administration?
1. Question 46 of 75
46. Question
An employer establishes a physical exercise area in the workplace and
encourages all employees to use it. This is an example of which level of health
promotion?
o A. Primary prevention
o B. Secondary prevention
o C. Tertiary prevention
o D. Passive prevention
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Primary prevention
Primary prevention precedes disease and applies to healthy patients. Primary
prevention includes those preventive measures that come before the onset of
illness or injury and before the disease process begins. Examples include
immunization and taking regular exercise to prevent health problems from
developing in the future.
Option B: Secondary prevention focuses on patients who have health
problems and are at risk for developing complications. Secondary
1. Question 47 of 75
47. Question
What does the nurse in charge do when making a surgical bed?
o D. Tucks the top sheet and blanket under the bottom of the bed.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Leaves the bed in the high position when finished.
When making a surgical bed, the nurse leaves the bed in a high position when
finished. After placing the top linens on the bed without pouching them, the
nurse fan folds these linens to the side opposite from where the patient will enter
and places the pillow on the bedside chair. All these actions promote transfer of
the postoperative patient from the stretcher to the bed.
Option B: When making an occupied bed or unoccupied bed, the nurse
places the pillow at the head of the bed and tucks the top sheet and
blanket under the bottom of the bed.
1. Question 48 of 75
48. Question
The physician prescribes 250 mg of a drug. The drug vial reads 500 mg/ml. How
much of the drug should the nurse give?
o A. 2 ml
o B. 1 ml
o C. ½ ml
o D. ¼ ml
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. ½ ml
The nurse should give ½ ml of the drug. The dosage is calculated as follows:
250 mg/X=500 mg/1 ml
500x=250
X=1/2 ml
Option A: There are 3 primary methods for the calculation of medication
dosages, as referenced above. These include Desired Over Have Method or
Formula, Dimensional Analysis and Ratio and Proportion
Option B: Desired over Have or Formula Method is a formula or equation
to solve for an unknown quantity (x) much like ratio proportion. Drug
calculations require the use of conversion factors, such as when converting
from pounds to kilograms or liters to milliliters. Simplistic in design, this
method allows us to work with various units of measurement, converting
1. Question 49 of 75
49. Question
Nurse Mackey is monitoring a patient for adverse reactions during barbiturate
therapy. What is the major disadvantage of barbiturate use?
o A. Prolonged half-life
o B. Poor absorption
1. Question 50 of 75
50. Question
Which nursing action is essential when providing continuous enteral feeding?
1. Question 51 of 75
51. Question
When teaching a female patient how to take a sublingual tablet, the nurse should
instruct the patient to place the table on the:
1. Question 52 of 75
52. Question
Which action by the nurse in charge is essential when cleaning the area around a
Jackson-Pratt wound drain?
1. Question 53 of 75
53. Question
The doctor orders dextrose 5% in water, 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours. The
I.V. tubing delivers 15 drops per milliliter. The nurse in charge should run the I.V.
infusion at a rate of:
1. Question 54 of 75
54. Question
o A. Restlessness
1. Question 55 of 75
55. Question
o A. Radial
o B. Brachial
o C. Femoral
o D. Carotid
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Carotid
During a rapid assessment, the nurse‘s first priority is to check the patient‘s vital
functions by assessing his airway, breathing, and circulation. To check a patient‘s
circulation, the nurse must assess his heart and vascular network function. This is
done by checking his skin color, temperature, mental status and, most
importantly, his pulse. The nurse should use the carotid artery to check a patient‘s
circulation.
Option A: In a patient with circulatory problems or a history of
compromised circulation, the radial pulse may not be palpable. Examiners
frequently evaluate the radial artery during a routine examination of adults,
due to the unobtrusive position required to palpate it and its easy
accessibility in various types of clothing. Like other distal peripheral pulses
(such as those in the feet) it also may be quicker to show signs of
pathology.
Option B: The brachial pulse is palpated during rapid assessment of an
infant. The brachial artery is often the site of evaluation during
cardiopulmonary resuscitation of infants. It is palpated proximal to the
elbow between the medial epicondyle of the humerus and the distal biceps
tendon.
Option C: The femoral pulse may be the most sensitive in assessing for
septic shock and is routinely checked during resuscitation. It is palpated
distally to the inguinal ligament at a point less than halfway from the pubis
to the anterior superior iliac spine.
ADV
1. Question 56 of 75
o A. Constipation
o B. Diarrhea
o C. Incontinence
o D. Hemorrhoids
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Constipation
Habitually ignoring the urge to defecate can lead to constipation through loss of
the natural urge and the accumulation of feces. Functional constipation is a
prevalent condition in childhood, about 29.6% worldwide. In the United States, it
represents 3% to 5% of pediatric visits and a considerable annual health care
cost. Most children do not have an etiological factor, and one third continue to
have problems beyond adolescence.
Option B: Diarrhea will not result-if anything, there is increased
opportunity for water reabsorption because the stool remains in the colon,
leading to firmer stool. Diarrhea is described as three or more loose or
watery stools a day. Infection commonly causes acute diarrhea.
Noninfectious etiologies are more common as the duration of diarrhea
becomes chronic. Treatment and management are based on the duration
and specific etiology.
Option C: Ignoring the urge shows a strong voluntary sphincter, not a
weak one that could result in incontinence. Fecal incontinence (FI) is the
involuntary passage of fecal matter through anus or inability to control the
discharge of bowel contents. Its severity can range from an involuntary
passage of flatus to complete evacuation of fecal matter. Depending on
the severity of the disease, it has a significant impact on a patient‘s quality
of life
Option D: Hemorrhoids would only occur only if severe drying out of the
stool occurs, and thus repeated need to strain to pass stool. Hemorrhoids
are rich in vascular supply and have a tendency to engorge and prolapse.
Symptoms can vary from mild itching, bleeding to severe pain.
1. Question 57 of 75
57. Question
Which statement provides evidence that an older adult who is prone to
constipation is in need of further teaching?
o A. "I need to drink one and a half to 2 quarts of liquid each day."
1. Question 58 of 75
58. Question
A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. The nurse will provide information to the
client about which type of enema?
o A. Oil retention
o B. Return flow
1. Question 59 of 75
59. Question
The nurse is most likely to report which finding to the primary care provider for a
client who has an established colostomy?
o B. The skin under the appliance looks red briefly after removing the
appliance.
1. Question 60 of 75
60. Question
Which goal is the most appropriate for clients with diarrhea related to ingestion
of an antibiotic for an upper respiratory infection?
o A. The client will wear a medical alert bracelet for antibiotic allergy.
o B. The client will return to his or her previous fecal elimination pattern.
o D. The client will increase intake of insoluble fiber such as grains, rice, and
cereals.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. The client will return to his or her previous fecal
elimination pattern.
Once the cause of diarrhea has been identified and corrected, the client returns
to his or her previous elimination pattern. Diarrhea is a common adverse effect of
antibiotic treatments. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea occurs in about 5-30% of
1. Question 61 of 75
61. Question
A client with a new stoma who has not had a bowel movement since surgery last
week reports feeling nauseous. What is the appropriate nursing action?
o B. After assessing the stoma and surrounding skin, notify the surgeon.
1. Question 62 of 75
62. Question
The nurse assesses a client‘s abdomen several days after abdominal surgery. It is
firm, distended, and painful to palpate. The client reports feeling ―bloated‖ . The
o A. Soapsuds
o B. Retention
o C. Return flow
o D. Oil retention
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Return flow
This provides relief of postoperative flatus, stimulating bowel motility. Options
one, two, and four manage constipation and do not provide flatus relief. A
return-flow enema, or Harris flush, is used to remove intestinal gas and stimulate
peristalsis. A large volume fluid is used but the fluid is instilled in 100-200 ml
increments. Then, the fluid is drawn out by lowering the container below the level
of the bowel. This brings the flatus out with the fluid.
Option A: The soapsuds enema uses a mixture of a mild soap and warm
water injected into the colon in order to stimulate a bowel movement.
Normally given to relieve constipation or for bowel cleansing before a
medical examination or procedure.
Option B: An enema that may be used to provide nourishment,
medication, or anesthetic. It should be made from fluids that will not
stimulate peristalsis. A small amount of solution (e.g., 100 to 250 mL) is
typically used in adults.
Option D: If fecal material is hardened, an oil-retention enema may be
given to soften the feces. Commercially packaged enemas contain 90-120
ml solution. The patient should retain the solution to at least one hour for
the enema to be effective. This enema is usually followed by a cleansing
enema.
ADV
1. Question 63 of 75
63. Question
Which of the following is most likely to validate that a client is experiencing
intestinal bleeding?
1. Question 64 of 75
64. Question
Which nursing diagnosis is/are most applicable to a client with fecal
incontinence? Select all that apply.
o A. Bowel incontinence
o D. Social isolation
1. Question 65 of 75
65. Question
A nurse determines that a fracture bedpan should be used for the patient who:
o B. Is on bedrest
o C. Has dementia
o D. Is obese
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Has a spinal cord injury
A fracture bedpan has a low back that promotes function of the patient‘s lower
back while on the bedpan. The fracture pan has one flat end for ease of use with
specific patient populations: i.e. hip fractures, hip replacements, or lower
extremity fractures. Using the toilet may be a source of discomfort and
embarrassment among all genders. Semi-private rooms or shared wards and
hospital overcrowding are a challenge regarding patient privacy.
Option B: Bedpans come in regular size or a smaller, fracture pan. Bedpans
are chosen based on diagnosis, patient comfort or preference and if any
contraindications exist for using the regular size such as a fracture. The
regular bedpan is larger than its fracture counterpart. Bariatric bedpans are
available up to a 1200-pound (544-kg) capacity.
Option C: A patient that can assist with care by raising their hips is
approached differently than a patient that cannot lift their hips due to
surgical considerations, fractures, or other contraindications. In both cases,
ensure the patient is pulled up as high as they can be on the stretcher or
bed. If they can assist with raising their hips, then raise the head of the bed
at least thirty degrees.
1. Question 66 of 75
66. Question
A patient with the diagnosis of diverticulosis is advised to eat a diet high in fiber.
What should the nurse recommend that the patient eat to best increase the bulk
and fecal material?
o B. White rice
o C. Pasta
o D. Kale
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Kale
Kale is an excellent source of dietary fiber. A serving of 3 1/2 ounces of kale
contains 6.6 g of dietary fiber. Fiber is a very important component of our diet
and comes from plant-based food sources (fruits, vegetables, legumes and whole
grains). Different food sources contain different types of fiber and resistant
starches and the side effects depend on the individual‘s microbiome (gut
bacteria). Instead of avoiding fiber altogether, you may want to identify the
certain types of food that cause the distress.
Option A: One slice of whole wheat bread contains only 1.5 g of dietary
fiber. Whole wheat bread is made from flour that contains the entire wheat
kernel, including the bran and germ. It‘s here that wheat packs the most
nutrients, such as fiber, B vitamins, iron, folate, potassium, and magnesium.
Leaving the wheat kernel intact makes for a less processed, more nutritious
bread.
1. Question 67 of 75
67. Question
Which statement by a patient with an ileostomy alerts the nurse to the need for
further education?
o B. "I will have to take special precaution to protect my skin around the
stoma."
o D. "I should avoid gas forming foods like beans to limit funny noises from the
stoma."
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. “I’m going to have to irrigate my stoma so I have a bowel
movement every morning”
This statement is inaccurate in relation to an ileostomy and indicates that the
patient needs more teaching. An ileostomy produces liquid fecal drainage that is
constant and cannot be regulated. An ileostomy is when the lumen of the ileum
(small bowel) is brought through the abdominal wall via a surgical opening
(created by an operation). This can either be temporary or permanent, an end or
1. Question 68 of 75
68. Question
A practitioner orders a return flow enema (Harris flush drip) for an adult patient
with flatulence. When preparing to administer this enema the nurse compares the
steps of a return flow enema with cleansing enemas. What should the nurse do
that is unique to a return flow enema?
1. Question 69 of 75
69. Question
A nurse discourages a patient from straining excessively when attempting to have
a bowel movement. What physiological response primarily may be prevented by
avoiding straining on defecation?
o A. Incontinence
o B. Dysrhythmias
o C. Fecal impaction
o D. Rectal hemorrhoids
Incorrect
1. Question 70 of 75
70. Question
A nurse is caring for a client who will perform fecal occult blood testing at home.
Which of the following information should the nurse include when explaining the
procedure to the client?
1. Question 71 of 75
1. Question 72 of 75
o A. Bradycardia
o B. Hypotension
o C. Fever
o E. Peripheral edema
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B, C, and D
Diarrhea is described as three or more loose or watery stools a day. Infection
commonly causes acute diarrhea. Noninfectious etiologies are more common as
the duration of diarrhea becomes chronic. Treatment and management are based
on the duration and specific etiology. Rehydration therapy is an important aspect
of the management of any patient with diarrhea. Prevention of infectious diarrhea
includes proper handwashing to prevent the spread of infection.
Option A: Prolonged diarrhea is more likely to cause tachycardia than
bradycardia. Diarrhea is the result of reduced water absorption by the
bowel or increased water secretion. A majority of acute diarrheal cases are
due to infectious etiology. Chronic diarrhea is commonly categorized into
three groups; watery, fatty (malabsorption), or infectious.
Option B: Prolonged diarrhea leads to dehydration, which causes a
decrease in blood pressure. In bacterial and viral diarrhea, the watery stool
is the result of injury to the gut epithelium. Epithelial cells line the intestinal
tract and facilitate the absorption of water, electrolytes, and other solutes.
Infectious etiologies cause damage to the epithelial cells which leads to
increased intestinal permeability. The damaged epithelial cells are unable
to absorb water from the intestinal lumen leading to loose stool.
Option C: Prolonged diarrhea leads to dehydration, which causes fever.
History should include the duration of symptoms, accompanying
symptoms, travel history, and exposures to medications and food. It is
important to ask about the stool frequency, type, volume, and presence of
1. Question 73 of 75
73. Question
A nurse is preparing to administer a cleansing enema to an adult client in
preparation for a diagnostic procedure. Which of the following are appropriate
steps for the nurse to take? Select all that apply.
o B. Position the client on the left side with the right leg flexed forward.
1. Question 74 of 75
74. Question
While a nurse is administering a cleansing enema, the client reports abdominal
cramping. Which of the following is the appropriate intervention?
1. Question 75 of 75
75. Question
A client with chronic pulmonary disease has a bluish tinge around the lips. The
nurse charts which term to most accurately describe the client‘s condition?
o A. Hypoxia
o B. Hypoxemia
o D. Cyanosis
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Cyanosis
A bluish tinge to mucous membranes is called cyanosis. This is most accurate
because it is what the nurse observes. Cyanosis refers to a bluish cast to the skin
and mucous membranes. Peripheral cyanosis is when there is a bluish
discoloration to the hands or feet. It‘s usually caused by low oxygen levels in the
red blood cells or problems getting oxygenated blood to the body.
Option A: The nurse can only observe signs/symptoms of hypoxia. More
information is needed to validate this conclusion. Hypoxia is a condition in
which the body or a region of the body is deprived of adequate oxygen
supply at the tissue level. Hypoxia may be classified as either generalized,
affecting the whole body, or local, affecting a region of the body.
Option B: Hypoxemia requires blood oxygenation saturation data to be
confirmed. Hypoxemia refers to the low level of oxygen in the blood, and
the more general term hypoxia is an abnormally low oxygen content in any
tissue or organ or the body as a whole. Hypoxemia can cause hypoxia
(hypoxemic hypoxia), but hypoxia can also occur via other mechanisms,
such as anemia.
Option C: Dyspnea is difficult to breathe. Dyspnea is the medical term for
shortness of breath, sometimes described as ―air hunger.‖ It is an
uncomfortable feeling. Shortness of breath can range from mild and
temporary to serious and long-lasting. It is sometimes difficult to diagnose
and treat dyspnea because there can be many different causes.
ADV
1. Question
Which intervention is an example of primary prevention?
Question 2 of 75
2. Question
The nurse in charge is assessing a patient‘s abdomen. Which examination
technique should the nurse use first?
A. Auscultation
C. Percussion
D. Palpation
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Inspection
Inspection always comes first when performing a physical examination. It is
important to begin with the general examination of the abdomen with the
patient in a completely supine position. The presence of any of the following
signs may indicate specific disorders. Percussion and palpation of the abdomen
may affect bowel motility and therefore should follow auscultation.
Option A: The last step of the abdominal examination is auscultation with
a stethoscope. The diaphragm of the stethoscope should be placed on the
right side of the umbilicus to listen to the bowel sounds, and their rate
should be calculated after listening for at least two minutes. Normal bowel
sounds are low-pitched and gurgling, and the rate is normally 2-5/min.
Absent bowel sounds may indicate paralytic ileus and hyperactive rushes
(borborygmi) are usually present in small bowel obstruction and
sometimes may be auscultated in lactose intolerance.
Option C: A proper technique of percussion is necessary to gain maximum
information regarding the abdominal pathology. While percussing, it is
important to appreciate tympany over air-filled structures such as the
stomach and dullness to percussion which may be present due to an
underlying mass or organomegaly (for example, hepatomegaly or
splenomegaly).
Option D: The ideal position for abdominal examination is to sit or kneel
on the right side of the patient with the hand and forearm in the same
horizontal plane as the patient‘s abdomen. There are three stages of
palpation that include the superficial or light palpation, deep palpation,
and organ palpation and should be performed in the same order.
Maneuvers specific to certain diseases are also a part of abdominal
palpation.
3. Question
Which statement regarding heart sounds is correct?
4. Question
The nurse in charge identifies a patient‘s responses to actual or potential health
problems during which step of the nursing process?
B. Nursing diagnosis
C. Planning
D. Evaluation
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Nursing diagnosis
The nurse identifies human responses to actual or potential health problems
during the nursing diagnosis step of the nursing process. The formulation of a
nursing diagnosis by employing clinical judgment assists in the planning and
implementation of patient care. The North American Nursing Diagnosis
Association (NANDA) provides nurses with an up to date list of nursing
diagnoses. A nursing diagnosis, according to NANDA, is defined as a clinical
judgment about responses to actual or potential health problems on the part of
the patient, family or community.
Option A: During the assessment step, the nurse systematically collects
data about the patient or family. Assessment is the first step and involves
critical thinking skills and data collection; subjective and objective.
Subjective data involves verbal statements from the patient or caregiver.
Objective data is measurable, tangible data such as vital signs, intake and
output, and height and weight.
Option C: During the planning step, the nurse develops strategies to
resolve or decrease the patient‘s problem. The planning stage is where
goals and outcomes are formulated that directly impact patient care based
on EDP guidelines. These patient-specific goals and the attainment of such
assist in ensuring a positive outcome.
Option D: During the evaluation step, the nurse determines the
effectiveness of the plan of care. This final step of the nursing process is
vital to a positive patient outcome. Whenever a healthcare provider
intervenes or implements care, they must reassess or evaluate to ensure
the desired outcome has been met. Reassessment may frequently be
needed depending upon overall patient condition. The plan of care may be
adapted based on new assessment data.
5. Question
D. Creamed corn
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Bananas and oranges
Because furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, the nurse should plan to
teach the patient to increase intake of potassium-rich foods, such as bananas and
oranges. Potassium is a mineral in the cells. It helps the nerves and muscles work
as they should. The right balance of potassium also keeps the heart beating at a
steady rate. Fresh, green vegetables; lean red meat; and creamed corn are not
good sources of potassium.
Option A: GLVs are considered as natural caches of nutrients for human
beings as they are a rich source of vitamins, such as ascorbic acid, folic
acid, tocopherols, ?-carotene, and riboflavin, as well as minerals such as
iron, calcium, and phosphorous.
Option C: Lean red meat is an excellent source of high biological value
protein, vitamin B12, niacin, vitamin B6, iron, zinc, and phosphorus. It is a
source of long?chain omega?3 polyunsaturated fats, riboflavin, pantothenic
acid, selenium, and, possibly, also vitamin D. It is also relatively low in fat
and sodium.
Option D: Corn has several health benefits. Because of the high fiber
content, it can aid with digestion. It also contains valuable B vitamins,
which are important to your overall health. Corn also provides our bodies
with essential minerals such as zinc, magnesium, copper, iron, and
manganese.
6. Question
The nurse in charge must monitor a patient receiving chloramphenicol for
adverse drug reaction. What is the most toxic reaction to chloramphenicol?
B. Malignant hypertension
C. Status epilepticus
7. Question
A female patient is diagnosed with deep-vein thrombosis. Which nursing
diagnosis should receive highest priority at this time?
B. Basilica vein
C. Jugular vein
D. Subclavian vein
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Superior vena cava
When the central venous catheter is positioned correctly, its tip lies in the
superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, or the right atrium—that is, in central
venous circulation. Blood flows unimpeded around the tip, allowing the rapid
infusion of large amounts of fluid directly into circulation. The basilica, jugular,
and subclavian veins are common insertion sites for central venous catheters.
Option B: There are three main access sites for the placement of central
venous catheters. The internal jugular vein, common femoral vein, and
subclavian veins are the preferred sites for temporary central venous
catheter placement. Additionally, for mid-term and long-term central
venous access, the basilic and brachial veins are utilized for peripherally
inserted central catheters (PICCs).
Option C: The internal jugular vein (IJ) is often chosen for its reliable
anatomy, accessibility, low complication rates, and the ability to employ
ultrasound guidance during the procedure. The individual clinical scenario
may dictate laterality in some cases (such as with trauma, head and neck
cancer, or the presence of other invasive devices or catheters), but all
things being equal, many physicians prefer the right IJ. As compared to the
left, the right IJ forms a more direct path to the superior vena cava (SVC)
and right atrium. It is also wider in diameter and more superficial, thus
presumably easier to cannulated.
Option D: The subclavian vein site has the advantage of low rates of both
infectious and thrombotic complications. Additionally, the SC site is
accessible in trauma, when a cervical collar negates the choice of the IJ.
However, disadvantages include a higher relative risk of pneumothorax,
9. Question
Nurse Nikki is revising a client‘s care plan. During which step of the nursing
process does such revision take place?
A. Assessment
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Evaluation
During the evaluation step of the nursing process, the nurse determines whether
the goals established in the care plan have been achieved, and evaluates the
success of the plan. If a goal is unmet or partially met the nurse reexamines the
data and revises the plan. This final step of the nursing process is vital to a
positive patient outcome. Whenever a healthcare provider intervenes or
implements care, they must reassess or evaluate to ensure the desired outcome
has been met. Reassessment may frequently be needed depending upon overall
patient condition. The plan of care may be adapted based on new assessment
data. Assessment involves data collection. Planning involves setting priorities,
establishing goals, and selecting appropriate interventions.
Option A: Assessment is the first step and involves critical thinking skills
and data collection; subjective and objective. Subjective data involves
verbal statements from the patient or caregiver. Objective data is
measurable, tangible data such as vital signs, intake and output, and height
and weight.
Option B: The planning stage is where goals and outcomes are formulated
that directly impact patient care based on EDP guidelines. These patient-
specific goals and the attainment of such assist in ensuring a positive
outcome. Nursing care plans are essential in this phase of goal setting.
Care plans provide a course of direction for personalized care tailored to
an individual‘s unique needs. Overall condition and comorbid conditions
play a role in the construction of a care plan. Care plans enhance
10. Question
A 65-year-old female who has diabetes mellitus and has sustained a large
laceration on her left wrist asks the nurse, ―How long will it take for my scars to
disappear?‖ Which statement would be the nurse‘s best response?
B. ―Wound healing is very individual but within 4 months the scar should
fade.
C. “With your history and the type of location of the injury, it’s hard to
say.”
D. ―If you don‘t develop an infection, the wound should heal any time
between 1 and 3 years from now.‖
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. “With your history and the type of location of the injury,
it’s hard to say.”
Wound healing in a client with diabetes will be delayed. Providing the client with
a time frame could give the client false information. There is no doubt that
diabetes plays a detrimental role in wound healing. It does so by affecting the
wound healing process at multiple steps. Wound hypoxia, through a combination
of impaired angiogenesis, inadequate tissue perfusion, and pressure-related
ischemia, is a major driver of chronic diabetic wounds.
Option A: Ischemia can lead to prolonged inflammation, which increases
the levels of oxygen radicals, leading to further tissue injury. Elevated levels
of matrix metalloproteases in chronic diabetic wounds, sometimes up to
50-100 times higher than acute wounds, cause tissue destruction and
prevent normal repair processes from taking place. Furthermore, diabetes
is associated with impaired immunity, with critical defects occurring at
11. Question
One aspect of implementation related to drug therapy is:
12. Question
A female client is readmitted to the facility with a warm, tender, reddened area on
her right calf. Which contributing factor would the nurse recognize
as most important?
D. A history of diabetes.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Recent pelvic surgery
The client shows signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The pelvic area is rich in
blood supply, and thrombophlebitis of the deep vein is associated with pelvic
surgery. Thrombosis is a protective mechanism that prevents the loss of blood
and seals off damaged blood vessels. Fibrinolysis counteracts or stabilizes the
thrombosis. The triggers of venous thrombosis are frequently multifactorial, with
the different parts of the triad of Virchow contributing in varying degrees in each
patient, but all result in early thrombus interaction with the endothelium. This
then stimulates local cytokine production and causes leukocyte adhesion to the
endothelium, both of which promote venous thrombosis.
13. Question
Which intervention should the nurse in charge try first for a client that exhibits
signs of sleep disturbance?
B. Ask the client each morning to describe the quantity of sleep during the
previous night.
D. Provide the client with normal sleep aids, such as pillows, back rubs,
and snacks.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Provide the client with normal sleep aids, such as pillows,
back rubs, and snacks
The nurse should begin with the simplest interventions, such as pillows or snacks,
before interventions that require greater skill such as relaxation techniques. Sleep
14. Question
While examining a client‘s leg, the nurse notes an open ulceration with visible
granulation tissue in the wound. Until a wound specialist can be contacted, which
type of dressings is most appropriate for the nurse in charge to apply?
D. Povidone-iodine-soaked gauze
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Moist, sterile saline gauze
15. Question
A male client in a behavioral-health facility receives a 30-minute psychotherapy
session, and the provider uses a current procedure terminology (CPT) code that
bills for a 50-minute session. Under the False Claims Act, such illegal behavior is
known as:
A. Unbundling
B. Overbilling
C. Upcoding
16. Question
A nurse assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes
mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he‘s impotent
and says that he‘s concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this
client‘s care, the most appropriate intervention would be to:
1. 17. Question
Using Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs, a nurse assigns highest priority to which
client need?
o A. Security
o B. Elimination
o C. Safety
o D. Belonging
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Elimination
According to Maslow, elimination is a first-level or physiological need and therefore takes
priority over all other needs. In 1943, Abraham Maslow developed a hierarchy based on basic
18. Question
A male client on prolonged bed rest has developed a pressure ulcer. The wound shows no signs
of healing even though the client has received skin care and has been turned every 2 hours.
Which factor is most likely responsible for the failure to heal?
1. Question 19 of 75
19. Question
A female client who received general anesthesia returns from surgery. Postoperatively, which
nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for this client?
o B. Deficient fluid volume related to blood and fluid loss from surgery.
1. Question 20 of 75
20. Question
The nurse inspects a client’s back and notices small hemorrhagic spots. The nurse documents
that the client has:
o A. Extravasation
o B. Osteomalacia
o C. Petechiae
o D. Uremia
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Petechiae
Petechiae are small hemorrhagic spots. Petechiae are tiny purple, red, or brown spots on the skin.
They usually appear on the arms, legs, stomach, and buttocks. They can also be found inside the
mouth or on the eyelids. These pinpoint spots can be a sign of many different conditions — some
minor, others serious. They can also appear as a reaction to certain medications.
Option A: Extravasation is the leakage of fluid in the interstitial space. Extravasation is
the leakage of a fluid out of its container into the surrounding area, especially blood or
blood cells from vessels. In the case of inflammation, it refers to the movement of white
blood cells from the capillaries to the tissues surrounding them (leukocyte extravasation,
also known as diapedesis).
Option B: Osteomalacia is the softening of bone tissue. Osteomalacia refers to a marked
softening of the bones, most often caused by severe vitamin D deficiency. The softened
bones of children and young adults with osteomalacia can lead to bowing during growth,
1. Question 21 of 75
21. Question
Which document addresses the client’s right to information, informed consent, and treatment
refusal?
22. Question
If a blood pressure cuff is too small for a client, blood pressure readings taken with such a cuff
may do which of the following?
1. Question 23 of 75
23. Question
Nurse Elijah has been teaching a client about a high-protein diet. The teaching is successful if the
client identifies which meal as high in protein?
1. Question 24 of 75
24. Question
A male client is admitted to the hospital with blunt chest trauma after a motor vehicle accident.
The first nursing priority for this client would be to:
1. Question 25 of 75
25. Question
A newly hired charge nurse assesses the staff nurses as competent individually but ineffective
and unproductive as a team. In addressing her concern, the charge nurse should understand that
the usual reason for such a situation is:
1. Question 26 of 75
26. Question
o B. Prevent infection
o C. Promote rest
o D. Prevent injury
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Prevent infection
The client is at risk for infection because WBC count is dangerously low. Neutrophils play an
essential role in immune defenses because they ingest, kill, and digest invading microorganisms,
including fungi and bacteria. Failure to carry out this role leads to immunodeficiency, which is
mainly characterized by the presence of recurrent infections. Hb level and HCT are within
normal limits; therefore, fluid balance, rest, and prevention of injury are inappropriate.
Option A: Neutrophils play a role in the immune defense against extracellular bacteria,
including Staphylococci, Streptococci, and Escherichia coli, among others. They also
protect against fungal infections, including those produced by Candida albicans. Once
their count is below 1 x 10/L recurrent infections start. As compensation, the monocyte
count may increase.
Option C: Application of granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) can improve
neutrophil functions and number. Prophylactic use of antibiotics and antifungals is
reserved for some forms of alteration in neutrophil function such as chronic
granulomatous disease CGD).
Option D: In primary neutropenia disorders such as chronic granulomatous disease
presents with recurrent infections affecting many organs since childhood. It is caused by
a failure to produce toxic reactive oxygen species so that the neutrophils can ingest the
microorganisms, but they are unable to kill them, as a significant consequence granuloma
can obstruct organs such as the stomach, esophagus, or bladder. Patients with this disease
are very susceptible to opportunistic infections by certain bacteria and fungi, especially
with Serratia and Burkholderia.
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1. Question 27 of 75
27. Question
Following a tonsillectomy, a female client returns to the medical-surgical unit. The client is
lethargic and reports having a sore throat. Which position would be most therapeutic for this
client?
o A. Semi-Fowler’s
o C. High-Fowler’s
o D. Side-lying
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Side-lying
Because of lethargy, the post-tonsillectomy client is at risk for aspirating blood from the surgical
wound. Therefore, placing the client in the side-lying position until he awake is best. The semi-
Fowler’s, supine, and high-Fowler’s position don’t allow for adequate oral drainage in a
lethargic post-tonsillectomy client and increase the risk of blood aspiration.
Option A: Semi-Fowler’s would not be able to facilitate effective drainage. Bleeding is
one of the most common and feared complications following tonsillectomy with or
without adenoidectomy. A study from 2009 to 2013 involving over one hundred thousand
children showed that 2.8% of children had unplanned revisits for bleeding following
tonsillectomy, 1.6% percent of patients came through the emergency department, and
0.8% required a procedure.
Option B: Supine position predisposes the patient to aspiration. Frequency is higher at
night with 50% of bleeding occurring between 10pm-1am and 6am-9am; this is thought
to be from changes in circadian rhythm, vibratory effects of snoring on the oropharynx,
or drying of the oropharyngeal mucosa from mouth breathing. Risk of bleeding in
patients with known coagulopathies may be significantly higher.
Option C: Tonsillectomy can be either extracapsular or intracapsular. The ―hot‖
extracapsular technique with monopolar cautery is the most popular technique in the
United States.
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1. Question 28 of 75
28. Question
The nurse inspects a client’s pupil size and determines that it’s 2 mm in the left eye and 3 mm in
the right eye. Unequal pupils are known as:
o A. Anisocoria
o B. Ataxia
o C. Cataract
o D. Diplopia
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Anisocoria
1. Question 29 of 75
29. Question
The nurse in charge is caring for an Italian client. He’s complaining of pain, but he falls asleep
right after his complaint and before the nurse can assess his pain. The nurse concludes that:
1. Question 30 of 75
30. Question
A female client is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain and
shortness of breath. The nurse’s assessment reveals jugular vein distention. The nurse knows that
when a client has jugular vein distension, it’s typically due to:
o A. A neck tumor
o B. An electrolyte imbalance
o C. Dehydration
o D. Fluid overload
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Fluid overload
Fluid overload causes the volume of blood within the vascular system to increase. This increase
causes the vein to distend, which can be seen most obviously in the neck veins. JVD is a sign of
increased central venous pressure (CVP). That’s a measurement of the pressure inside the vena
cava. CVP indicates how much blood is flowing back into the heart and how well the heart can
move that blood into the lungs and the rest of the body.
Option A: A neck tumor doesn’t typically cause jugular vein distention. Right-sided
heart failure is a common cause. Right-sided heart failure usually develops after a left-
sided heart failure. The left ventricle pumps blood out through the aorta to most of the
body. The right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs. When the left ventricle’s pumping
power weakens, fluid can back up into the lungs. This eventually weakens the right
ventricle.
Option B: An electrolyte imbalance may result in fluid overload, but it doesn’t directly
contribute to jugular vein distention. The pericardium is a thin, fluid-filled sac that
surrounds the heart. An infection of the pericardium, called constrictive pericarditis, can
restrict the volume of the heart. As a result, the chambers can’t fill with blood properly,
so blood can back up into veins, including the jugular veins.
Option C: Dehydration does not cause JVD. Another common cause is pulmonary
hypertension. Pulmonary hypertension occurs when the pressure in your lungs increases,
sometimes as a result of changes to the lining of the artery walls. This can also lead to
right-sided heart failure.
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31. Question
Critical thinking and the nursing process have which of the following in common? Both:
1. Question 32 of 75
32. Question
In which step of the nursing process does the nurse analyze data and identify client problems?
o A. Assessment
o B. Diagnosis
o C. Planning outcomes
1. Question 33 of 75
33. Question
In which phase of the nursing process does the nurse decide whether her actions have
successfully treated the client’s health problem?
o A. Assessment
o B. Diagnosis
o C. Planning outcomes
o D. Evaluation
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Evaluation
1. Question 34 of 75
34. Question
What is the most basic reason that self-knowledge is important for nurses? Because it helps the
nurse to:
o A. Identify personal biases that may affect his thinking and actions.
1. Question 35 of 75
35. Question
Arrange the steps of the nursing process in the sequence in which they generally occur.
View Answers:
o Planning interventions
o Planning outcomes
o Assessment
o Evaluation
o Diagnosis
Incorrect
The correct order is shown above.
Logically, the steps are assessment, diagnosis, planning outcomes, planning interventions, and
evaluation. Keep in mind that steps are not always performed in this order, depending on the
patient’s needs and that steps overlap.
Assessment is the first step and involves critical thinking skills and data collection;
subjective and objective. Subjective data involves verbal statements from the patient or
caregiver. Objective data is measurable, tangible data such as vital signs, intake and
output, and height and weight.
The formulation of a nursing diagnosis by employing clinical judgment assists in the
planning and implementation of patient care. The North American Nursing Diagnosis
Association (NANDA) provides nurses with an up to date list of nursing diagnoses. A
nursing diagnosis, according to NANDA, is defined as a clinical judgment about
responses to actual or potential health problems on the part of the patient, family, or
community.
1. Question 36 of 75
36. Question
How are critical thinking skills and critical thinking attitudes similar? Both are:
1. Question 37 of 75
37. Question
The nurse is preparing to admit a patient from the emergency department. The transferring nurse
reports that the patient with chronic lung disease has a 30+ year history of tobacco use. The nurse
used to smoke a pack of cigarettes a day at one time and worked very hard to quit smoking. She
immediately thinks to herself, ―I know I tend to feel negative about people who use tobacco,
especially when they have a serious lung condition; I figure if I can stop smoking, they should be
able to. I must remember how physically and psychologically difficult that is, and be very careful
not to let it be judgmental of this patient.‖ This best illustrates:
o A. Theoretical knowledge
o B. Self-knowledge
1. Question 38 of 75
38. Question
Which organization’s standards require that all patients be assessed specifically for pain?
1. Question 39 of 75
39. Question
o A. The urinalysis report indicates there are white blood cells in the urine.
o B. The client states she feels feverish; you measure the oral temperature at 98°F.
o C. The client has clear breath sounds; you count a respiratory rate of 18.
o D. The chest x-ray report indicates the client has pneumonia in the right lower lobe.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. The client states she feels feverish; you measure the oral temperature
at 98°F.
Validation should be done when subjective and objective data do not make sense. For instance, it
is inconsistent data when the patient feels feverish and you obtain a normal temperature. The
other distractors do not offer conflicting data. Validation is not usually necessary for laboratory
test results.
Option A: When this test is positive and/or the WBC count in urine is high, it may
indicate that there is inflammation in the urinary tract or kidneys. The most common
cause for WBCs in urine (leukocyturia) is a bacterial urinary tract infection (UTI), such
as a bladder or kidney infection.
Option C: Breath sounds are the noises produced by the structures of the lungs during
breathing. Normal lung sounds occur in all parts of the chest area, including above the
collarbones and at the bottom of the rib cage. Using a stethoscope, the doctor may hear
normal breathing sounds, decreased or absent breath sounds, and abnormal breath sounds.
Normal respiration rates for an adult person at rest range from 12 to 16 breaths per
minute.
Option D: The most common organisms which cause lobar pneumonia are Streptococcus
pneumoniae, also called pneumococcus, Haemophilus influenza, and Moraxella
catarrhalis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the tubercle bacillus, may also cause lobar
pneumonia if pulmonary tuberculosis is not treated promptly.
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1. Question 40 of 75
40. Question
Which of the following is an example of appropriate behavior when conducting a client
interview?
o A. Recording all the information on the agency-approved form during the interview.
o B. Asking the client, "Why did you think it was necessary to seek health care at this time?"
1. Question 41 of 75
41. Question
The nurse wishes to identify nursing diagnoses for a patient. She can best do this by using a data
collection form organized according to: Select all that apply.
o B. A head-to-toe framework
1. Question 42 of 75
42. Question
The nurse is recording assessment data. She writes, ―The patient seems worried about his
surgery. Other than that, he had a good night.‖ Which errors did the nurse make? Select all that
apply.
1. Question 43 of 75
43. Question
A patient is admitted with shortness of breath, so the nurse immediately listens to his breath
sounds. Which type of assessment is the nurse performing?
o A. Ongoing assessment
o D. Psychosocial assessment
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Focused physical assessment
The nurse is performing a focused physical assessment, which is done to obtain data about an
identified problem, in this case shortness of breath. Detailed nursing assessment of specific body
system(s) relating to the presenting problem or current concern(s) of the patient. This may
involve one or more body systems.
Option A: An ongoing assessment is performed as needed, after the initial data are
collected, preferably with each patient contact. Repeat of the focused or rapid emergency
department assessment of a prehospital patient to detect changes in condition and to
judge the effectiveness of treatment before or during transport. Repeated every 5 minutes
for an unstable patient and every 15 minutes for a stable patient.
Option B: A comprehensive physical assessment includes an interview and a complete
examination of each body system. A comprehensive health assessment gives nurses
insight into a patient’s physical status through observation, the measurement of vital
1. Question 44 of 75
44. Question
The nurse is assessing vital signs for a patient just admitted to the hospital. Ideally, and if there
are no contraindications, how should the nurse position the patient for this portion of the
admission assessment?
o A. Sitting upright.
o C. Lying flat on the back with arms and legs fully extended.
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1. Question 45 of 75
45. Question
For all body systems except the abdomen, what is the preferred order for the nurse to perform the
following examination techniques?
o Palpation
o Percussion
o Auscultation
o Inspection
Incorrect
The correct order is shown above.
Inspection begins immediately as the nurse meets the patient, as she observes the patient’s
appearance and behavior. Observational data are not intrusive to the patient. When performing
assessment techniques involving physical touch, the behavior, posture, demeanor, and responses
might be altered. Palpation, percussion, and auscultation should be performed in that order,
except when performing an abdominal assessment. During abdominal assessment, auscultation
should be performed before palpation and percussion to prevent altering bowel sounds.
1. It is important to begin with the general examination of the abdomen with the patient
in a completely supine position. The presence of any of the following signs may indicate
specific disorders. Distension of the abdomen could be present due to small bowel
obstruction, masses, tumors, cancer, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, constipation,
abdominal aortic aneurysm, and pregnancy.
2. The ideal position for abdominal examination is to sit or kneel on the right side of the
patient with the hand and forearm in the same horizontal plane as the patient’s abdomen.
There are three stages of palpation that include the superficial or light palpation, deep
palpation, and organ palpation and should be performed in the same order. Maneuvers
specific to certain diseases are also a part of abdominal palpation.
3. A proper technique of percussion is necessary to gain maximum information regarding
the abdominal pathology. While percussing, it is important to appreciate tympany over
air-filled structures such as the stomach and dullness to percussion which may be present
due to an underlying mass or organomegaly (for example, hepatomegaly or
splenomegaly).
4. The last step of the abdominal examination is auscultation with a stethoscope. The
diaphragm of the stethoscope should be placed on the right side of the umbilicus to listen
to the bowel sounds, and their rate should be calculated after listening for at least two
minutes. Normal bowel sounds are low-pitched and gurgling, and the rate is normally 2-
5/min. Absent bowel sounds may indicate paralytic ileus and hyperactive rushes
(borborygmi) are usually present in small bowel obstruction and sometimes may be
auscultated in lactose intolerance.
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1. Question 46 of 75
46. Question
The nurse is assessing a patient admitted to the hospital with rectal bleeding. The patient had a
hip replacement 2 weeks ago. Which position should the nurse avoid when examining this
patient’s rectal area?
o B. Supine
o C. Dorsal recumbent
o D. Semi-Fowler's
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Sims’
Sims’ position is typically used to examine the rectal area. However, the position should be
avoided if the patient has undergone hip replacement surgery The patient with a hip replacement
can assume the supine, dorsal recumbent, or semi-Fowler’s positions without causing harm to the
joint.
Option B: Supine position is lying on the back facing upward. The supine position
means lying horizontally with the face and torso facing up, as opposed to the prone
position, which is face down. When used in surgical procedures, it allows access to the
peritoneal, thoracic, and pericardial regions; as well as the head, neck, and extremities.
Option C: The patient in dorsal recumbent is on his back with knees flexed and soles of
feet flat on the bed. A position in which the patient lies on the back with the lower
extremities moderately flexed and rotated outward. It is employed in the application of
obstetrical forceps, repair of lesions following parturition, vaginal examination, and
bimanual palpation.
Option D: In semi-Fowler’s position, the patient is supine with the head of the bed
elevated and legs slightly elevated. The Semi-Fowler’s position is a position in which a
patient, typically in a hospital or nursing home is positioned on their back with the head
and trunk raised to between 15 and 45 degrees, although 30 degrees is the most
frequently used bed angle.
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1. Question 47 of 75
47. Question
How should the nurse modify the examination for a 7-year-old child?
1. Question 48 of 75
48. Question
The nurse must examine a patient who is weak and unable to sit unaided or to get out of bed.
How should she position the patient to begin and perform most of the physical examination?
o A. Dorsal recumbent
o B. Semi-Fowler's
o C. Lithotomy
o D. Sims'
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Semi-Fowler’s
If a patient is unable to sit up, the nurse should place him lying flat on his back, with the head of
the bed elevated. The Semi-Fowler’s position is a position in which a patient, typically in a
1. Question 49 of 75
49. Question
The nurse should use the diaphragm of the stethoscope to auscultate which of the following?
o A. Heart murmurs
o C. Bowel sounds
o D. Carotid bruits
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Bowel sounds
The bell of the stethoscope should be used to hear low-pitched sounds, such as murmurs, bruits,
and jugular hums. The diaphragm should be used to hear high-pitched sounds that normally
occur in the heart, lungs, and abdomen. The diaphragm is best for higher-pitched sounds, like
breath sounds and normal heart sounds. The bell is best for detecting lower pitch sounds, like
some heart murmurs, and some bowel sounds.
Option A: Earpieces should be angled forwards to match the direction of the
practitioner’s external auditory meatus. The bell is used to hear low-pitched sounds. Use
for mid-diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis or S3 in heart failure.
Option B: The stethoscope bell is lightly applied in each supraclavicular fossa over the
subclavian artery. As usual, the examiner’s free hand palpates the contralateral carotid
pulse for timing purposes. If a bruit is appreciated, firmly compress the patient’s
ipsilateral radial artery, noting the effect on the murmur.
Option D: If the intensity of sound is greater above the clavicle it is most likely a carotid
bruit. If it is louder below the clavicle it is most likely a heart murmur. Use either the bell
1. Question 50 of 75
50. Question
The nurse calculates a body mass index (BMI) of 18 for a young adult woman who comes to the
physician’s office for a college physical. This patient is considered:
o A. Obese
o B. Overweight
o C. Average
o D. Underweight
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Underweight
For adults, BMI should range between 20 and 25. Body mass index (BMI) is a person’s weight
in kilograms divided by the square of height in meters. BMI is an inexpensive and easy screening
method for the weight category—underweight, healthy weight, overweight, and obesity.
Option A: BMI greater than 30 is considered obese For adults 20 years old and older,
BMI is interpreted using standard weight status categories. These categories are the same
for men and women of all body types and ages.
Option B: BMI 25 to 29.9 is overweight. The prevalence of adult BMI greater than or
equal to 30 kg/m2 (obese status) has greatly increased since the 1970s. Recently,
however, this trend has leveled off, except for older women. Obesity has continued to
increase in adult women who are 60 years and older.
Option C: BMI less than 20 is considered underweight. BMI can be a screening tool, but
it does not diagnose the body fatness or health of an individual. To determine if BMI is a
health risk, a healthcare provider performs further assessments. Such assessments include
skinfold thickness measurements, evaluations of diet, physical activity, and family
history.
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1. Question 51 of 75
51. Question
Using the principles of standard precautions, the nurse would wear gloves in what nursing
interventions?
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1. Question 52 of 75
52. Question
The nurse is preparing to take vital signs in an alert client admitted to the hospital with
dehydration secondary to vomiting and diarrhea. What is the best method used to assess the
client’s temperature?
o A. Oral
o B. Axillary
o C. Radial
1. Question 53 of 75
53. Question
A nurse obtained a client’s pulse and found the rate to be above normal. The nurse document
these findings as:
o A. Tachypnea
o B. Hyperpyrexia
o C. Arrhythmia
o D. Tachycardia
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Tachycardia
Tachycardia means rapid heart rate. Tachycardia refers to a heart rate that’s too fast. How that’s
defined may depend on age and physical condition. Generally speaking, for adults, a heart rate of
more than 100 beats per minute (BPM) is considered too fast.
1. Question 54 of 75
54. Question
Which of the following actions should the nurse take to use wide base support when assisting a
client to get up in a chair?
o A. Bend at the waist and place arms under the client’s arms and lift.
o B. Face the client, bend knees, and place hands-on client’s forearm and lift.
1. Question 55 of 75
55. Question
A client had oral surgery following a motor vehicle accident. The nurse assessing the client finds
the skin flushed and warm. Which of the following would be the best method to take the client’s
body temperature?
o A. Oral
o B. Axillary
o C. Arterial line
o D. Rectal
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Axillary
Taking the temperature via the axilla is the most appropriate route. Body temperature is a
numerical expression of the body’s heat and metabolic activity balance and can be a major
indicator of a person’s health status. Assessing a patient’s body temperature is a common
procedure nurses perform to monitor for signs of infection, environmental exposure, shock,
ovulation, or therapeutic response to medications or medical procedures. A normal body
temperature can be a potentially positive sign that the patient isn’t experiencing a disease
process, infection, or trauma and that the body’s cells, tissues, and organs aren’t under metabolic
distress.
Option A: Taking the temperature via the oral route is incorrect since the client had oral
surgery. The esophageal temperature probe (ETP) is an 18-in (45.7 cm) long, thin,
flexible catheter that has a rounded tip that should be lubricated with water-soluble
lubricant before being placed through the nares or mouth, extending into the esophagus at
least 2 to 3 in (5 to 7.6 cm). The external end portion of the catheter has a small, coated
wire with a plug that can be attached to a telemetry monitor for continuous temperature
monitoring.
Option C: A PiCCO thermodilution catheter (Pulsion Medical Systems) containing a
temperature thermistor was inserted into the brachial artery at the antecubital fossa and
doubled as the arterial pressure monitoring line and arterial blood sampling portal. This
measured brachial artery temperature from the time of insertion to the time the patient left
the operating room.
Option D: This is unnecessary. The ETP and RTP (rectal temperature probe) are the
same device but can be used in either orifice depending on the patient’s medical
condition. Again, the tip should be lubricated with water-soluble lubricant, and then
1. Question 56 of 75
56. Question
A client who is unconscious needs frequent mouth care. When performing mouth care,
the best position of a client is:
o A. Fowler’s position
o B. Side-lying
o C. Supine
o D. Trendelenburg
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Side-lying
An unconscious client is best placed on his side when doing oral care to prevent aspiration. An
unconscious patient is placed in the side-lying position when mouth care is provided because this
position prevents pooling of secretions at the back of the oral cavity, thereby reducing the risk of
aspiration. Oral hygiene is especially important for patients receiving oxygen therapy, patients
who have nasogastric tubes, and patients who are NPO. Their oral mucosa dries out much faster
than normal due to their mouth-breathing.
Option A: A soft toothbrush or gauze-padded tongue blade may be used to clean the
teeth and mouth. The patient should be positioned in the lateral position with the head
turned toward the side to provide for drainage and to prevent aspiration.
Option C: This is the most common position for surgery with a patient lying on his or
her back with head, neck, and spine in neutral positioning and arms either adducted
alongside the patient or abducted to less than 90 degrees.
Option D: A variation of supine in which the head of the bed is tilted down such that the
pubic symphysis is the highest point of the trunk facilitates venous return and improves
exposure during abdominal and laparoscopic surgeries.
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1. Question 57 of 75
57. Question
A client is hospitalized for the first time, which of the following actions ensure the safety of the
client?
1. Question 58 of 75
58. Question
A walk-in client enters the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain and diarrhea. The
nurse takes the client’s vital sign hereafter. What phrase of the nursing process is being
implemented here by the nurse?
o A. Assessment
o B. Diagnosis
o C. Planning
o D. Implementation
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Assessment
Assessment is the first phase of the nursing process where a nurse collects information about the
client. Assessment is the first step and involves critical thinking skills and data collection;
subjective and objective. Subjective data involves verbal statements from the patient or
1. Question 59 of 75
59. Question
It is best described as a systematic, rational method of planning and providing nursing care for
individual, families, group, and community
o A. Assessment
o B. Nursing Process
o C. Diagnosis
o D. Implementation
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Nursing Process
The statement describes the Nursing Process. The Nursing Process is the essential core of
practice for the registered nurse to deliver holistic, patient-focused care. Defined as a systematic
approach to care using the fundamental principles of critical thinking, client-centered approaches
to treatment, goal-oriented tasks, evidence-based practice (EDP) recommendations, and nursing
intuition. Holistic and scientific postulates are integrated to provide the basis for compassionate,
quality-based care.
1. Question 60 of 75
60. Question
Exchange of gases takes place in which of the following organs?
o A. Kidney
o B. Lungs
o C. Liver
o D. Heart
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Lungs
Gas exchange is the transport of oxygen from the lungs to the bloodstream and the expulsion of
carbon dioxide from the bloodstream to the lungs. It transpires in the lungs between the alveoli
and a network of tiny blood vessels called capillaries, which are located in the walls of the
alveoli.
Option A: The renal system consists of the kidney, ureters, and urethra. The overall
function of the system filters approximately 200 liters of fluid a day from renal blood
flow which allows for toxins, metabolic waste products, and excess ions to be excreted
while keeping essential substances in the blood. The kidney regulates plasma osmolarity
by modulating the amount of water, solutes, and electrolytes in the blood. It ensures long-
term acid-base balance and also produces erythropoietin which stimulates the production
of red blood cells.
Option C: The liver is a critical organ in the human body that is responsible for an array
of functions that help support metabolism, immunity, digestion, detoxification, vitamin
storage among other functions. It comprises around 2% of an adult’s body weight. The
1. Question 61 of 75
61. Question
The chamber of the heart that receives oxygenated blood from the lungs is the:
o A. Left atrium
o B. Right atrium
o C. Left ventricle
o D. Right ventricle
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Left atrium
The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the left ventricle. In
the lungs, the blood oxygenates as it passes through the capillaries where it is close enough to the
oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs. This oxygenated blood is collected by the four pulmonary
veins, two from each lung. All four of these veins open into the left atrium that acts as a
collection chamber for oxygenated blood. Just like the right atrium, the left atrium passes the
blood onto its ventricle both by passive flow and active pumping.
Option B: The right atrium receives blood from the veins and pumps it to the right
ventricle. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the entire body except for
the lungs (the systemic circulation) via the superior and inferior vena cavae. Also,
deoxygenated blood from the heart muscle itself drains into the right atrium via the
coronary sinus. The right atrium, therefore, acts as a reservoir to collect deoxygenated
blood.
Option C: The left ventricle (the strongest chamber) pumps oxygen-rich blood to the rest
of the body, its vigorous contractions create the blood pressure. Oxygenated blood thus
fills the left ventricle, passing through the mitral valve. The left ventricle, which is the
main pumping chamber of the left heart, then pumps, sending freshly oxygenated blood
to the systemic circulation through the aortic valve
Option D: The right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium and pumps it to the
lungs, where it is loaded with oxygen. The right ventricle pumps blood through the right
ventricular outflow tract, across the pulmonic valve, and into the pulmonary artery that
distributes it to the lungs for oxygenation.
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62. Question
A muscular enlarged pouch or sac that lies slightly to the left which is used for temporary storage
of food…
o A. Gallbladder
o B. Urinary bladder
o C. Stomach
o D. Lungs
1. Question 63 of 75
63. Question
o A. Hormones
o B. Secretion
o C. Immunity
o D. Glands
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Immunity
Immunity is the ability of an organism to resist a particular infection or toxin by the action of
specific antibodies or sensitized white blood cells. The Immune response is the body’s ability to
stay safe by affording protection against harmful agents and involves lines of defense against
most microbes as well as specialized and highly specific responses to a particular offender. This
immune response classifies as either innate which is non-specific and adaptive acquired which is
highly specific.
Option A: The endocrine hormones are a wide array of molecules that traverse the
bloodstream to act on distant tissues, leading to alterations in metabolic functions within
the body. They can broadly divide into peptides, steroids, and tyrosine derivatives that
may work on either cell surface or intracellular receptors.
Option B: Secretion, in biology, production and release of a useful substance by a gland
or cell; also, the substance produced. In addition to the enzymes and hormones that
facilitate and regulate complex biochemical processes, body tissues also secrete a variety
of substances that provide lubrication and moisture.
Option D: A gland is an organ which produces and releases substances that perform a
specific function in the body. There are two types of gland. Endocrine glands are ductless
glands and release the substances that they make (hormones) directly into the
bloodstream.
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1. Question 64 of 75
64. Question
Hormones secreted by Islets of Langerhans
o A. Progesterone
o B. Testosterone
o C. Insulin
o D. Hemoglobin
1. Question 65 of 75
65. Question
It is a transparent membrane that focuses the light that enters the eyes to the retina.
o A. Lens
o B. Sclera
o C. Cornea
o D. Pupils
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Lens
The lens is located in the eye. By changing its shape, the lens changes the focal distance of the
eye. In other words, it focuses the light rays that pass through it (and onto the retina) in order to
create clear images of objects that are positioned at various distances. It also works together with
the cornea to refract, or bend, light. The lens consists of the lens capsule, the lens epithelium, and
1. Question 66 of 75
66. Question
Which of the following is included in Orem’s theory?
o B. Self perception.
o D. Physiologic needs.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Maintenance of a sufficient intake of air.
Dorothea Orem’s Self-Care Theory defined Nursing as ―The act of assisting others in the
provision and management of self-care to maintain or improve human functioning at home level
of effectiveness.‖ The Self-Care or Self-Care Deficit Theory of Nursing is composed of three
interrelated theories: (1) the theory of self-care, (2) the self-care deficit theory, and (3) the theory
of nursing systems, which is further classified into wholly compensatory, partial compensatory
and supportive-educative. Choices B, C, and D are from Abraham Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs.
Option B: At the fourth level in Maslow’s hierarchy is the need for appreciation and
respect. When the needs at the bottom three levels have been satisfied, the esteem needs
begin to play a more prominent role in motivating behavior. At this point, it becomes
increasingly important to gain the respect and appreciation of others. People have a need
to accomplish things and then have their efforts recognized. In addition to the need for
1. Question 67 of 75
67. Question
Which of the following cluster of data belong to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
o B. Physiological needs
o C. Self actualization
1. Question 68 of 75
68. Question
This is characterized by severe symptoms relatively of short duration.
o A. Chronic Illness
o B. Acute Illness
o C. Pain
o D. Syndrome
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Acute Illness
Acute illnesses are different than chronic illnesses in that they usually develop quickly and they
only last a short time – usually a few days or weeks. Acute illnesses are often caused by viral or
bacterial infections.
Option A: Chronic Illness (Choice A) are illnesses that are persistent or long-term. A
chronic illness is a condition that develops over time and is present for a long period of
time. Some people have chronic conditions for many years. Technically, a chronic
disease is defined as a health condition that lasts anywhere from three months to a
lifetime. Chronic conditions may get worse over time.
Option C: Pain refers to the product of higher brain center processing; it entails the
actual unpleasant emotional and sensory experience generated from nervous signals.
Option D: A syndrome is a set of medical signs and symptoms which are correlated with
each other and often associated with a particular disease or disorder. The word derives
from the Greek ?????????, meaning ―concurrence‖.
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1. Question 69 of 75
o C. Worksite wellness
1. Question 70 of 75
70. Question
It is described as a collection of people who share some attributes of their lives.
o A. Family
o B. Illness
o C. Community
1. Question 71 of 75
71. Question
Five teaspoons is equivalent to how many milliliters (ml)?
o A. 30 ml
o B. 25 ml
o C. 12 ml
o D. 22 ml
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. 25 ml
One teaspoon is equal to 5ml. Drug calculations require the use of conversion factors, for
example, when converting from pounds to kilograms or liters to milliliters. Simplistic in design,
this method allows clinicians to work with various units of measurement, converting factors to
find the answer. These methods are useful in checking the accuracy of the other methods of
calculation, thus acting as a double or triple check.
Option A: 30 ml is equal to 6 teaspoons. When clinicians are prepared and know the key
conversion factors, they will be less anxious about the calculation involved. This is vital
to accuracy, regardless of which formula or method employed.
Option C: 12 ml is equal to 2.4 teaspoons. Units of measurement must match, for
example, milliliters and milliliters, or one needs to convert to like units of measurement.
1. Question 72 of 75
72. Question
1800 ml is equal to how many liters?
o A. 1.8
o B. 18000
o C. 180
o D. 2800
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. 1.8
1,800 ml is equal to 1.8 liters.
Option B: 18000 liters is equal to 18,000,000 ml.
Option C: 180 liters is equal to 180,000 ml.
Option D: 2800 liters is equal to 280,000 ml.
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1. Question 73 of 75
73. Question
Which of the following is the abbreviation of drops?
o A. Gtt.
o B. Gtts.
o C. Dp.
o D. Dr.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Gtts.
Gtt (Choice A) is an abbreviation for drop. Dp and Dr are not recognized abbreviations for
measurement. Standardization and uniform use of codes, symbols, and abbreviations can
improve communication and understanding between health care practitioners, leading to safer
and more effective care for patients.
1. Question 74 of 75
74. Question
The abbreviation for microdrop is…
o A. µgtt
o B. gtt
o C. mdr
o D. mgts
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. µgtt
The abbreviation for microdrop is µgtt. When abbreviations are used in documents given to the
patient, the potential for misunderstanding can increase. Information needs to be clear and
unambiguous to improve patients’ comprehension.
Option B: When abbreviations are used in documents given to the patient, the potential
for misunderstanding can increase. Information needs to be clear and unambiguous to
improve patients’ comprehension.
Option C: As stated in MOI.4, ME 5, ―Abbreviations are not used on informed consent
and patient rights documents, discharge instructions, discharge summaries, and other
documents patients and families receive from the hospital about the patient’s care.‖
Option D: No abbreviations of any kind should appear in informed consent documents,
patient rights documents, and discharge instructions. These documents are meant for the
patient and every effort should be made to increase the readability and clarity of the
documents.
1. Question 75 of 75
75. Question
Which of the following is the meaning of PRN?
o A. When advice
o B. Immediately
o C. When necessary
o D. Now.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. When necessary
PRN comes from the Latin ―pro re nata‖ meaning, ―for an occasion that has arisen or as
circumstances require‖. When an abbreviation is less known outside of the organization or
clinical specialty, it is necessary to spell out the abbreviation throughout the discharge summary
to prevent misunderstanding and confusion by the physician or health care organization that
receives the summary.
Option A: The practice of spelling out an abbreviation when first mentioned, then using
the abbreviation thereafter in the document is acceptable only in discharge summaries.
Abbreviations are not to be used in the other types of documents listed in the measurable
element.
Option B: Laboratory test results sometimes go to patients, but it is not the intent of the
standard for the abbreviations of the laboratory tests to be spelled out. When test results
are given to patients, they are shared with their physician who can help explain the
results.
Option D: Hospitals may want to consider providing a separate form or resource to
patients for information about the tests — such as a handout or website that has the
names of common laboratory tests along with their definitions or descriptions. Results of
diagnostic imaging studies also go to a patient’s physician, after interpretation by a
radiologist.
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1. Question
The charge nurse asks the nursing assistive personnel (NAP) to give a bag bath to
a patient with end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. How should the
NAP proceed?
C. Saturate a towel and blanket in a plastic bag, and then bathe the patient.
2. Question
For a morbidly obese patient, which intervention should the nurse choose to
counteract the pressure created by the skin folds?
1. 3. Question
A client exhibits all of the following during a physical assessment. Which of these
is considered a primary defense against infection?
o A. Fever
o B. Intact skin
o C. Inflammation
o D. Lethargy
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Intact skin
Intact skin is considered a primary defense against infection. Usually, the skin
prevents invasion by microorganisms unless it is damaged (for example, by an
injury, insect bite, or burn). Mucous membranes, such as the lining of the mouth,
1. Question 4 of 75
4. Question
A client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus (MRSA) cultured from the wound. Contact precautions are initiated. Which
rule must be observed to follow contact precautions?
o B. Everyone who enters the room must wear a N-95 respirator mask.
o D. Place the client in a room with a client with an upper respiratory infection.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. A clean gown and gloves must be worn when in contact
with the client.
A clean gown and gloves must be worn when any contact is anticipated with the
client or with contaminated items in the room. Visitors might also be asked to
wear a gown and gloves. Patients are asked to stay in their hospital rooms as
much as possible. They should not go to common areas, such as the gift shop or
cafeteria. They may go to other areas of the hospital for treatments and tests.
Option B: A respirator mask is required only with airborne precautions, not
contact precautions. Healthcare providers will put on gloves and wear a
gown over their clothing while taking care of patients with MRSA.
Option C: All linen must be double-bagged and clearly marked as
contaminated. When leaving the room, healthcare providers and visitors
remove their gown and gloves and clean their hands.
Option D: The client should be placed in a private room or in a room with
a client with an active infection caused by the same organism and no other
infections. Whenever possible, patients with MRSA will have a single room
or will share a room only with someone else who also has MRSA.
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1. Question 5 of 75
5. Question
A client requires protective isolation. Which client can be safely paired with this
client in a client-care assignment? One:
1. Question 6 of 75
6. Question
A newly hired at Nurseslabs Medical Center is assigned to the OR Department.
Which action demonstrates a break in sterile technique?
1. Question 7 of 75
7. Question
Nurse Berta is facilitating a monthly mothers‘ class at a small village. As a
knowledgeable nurse, she must know that a mother who breastfeeds her child
passes on which antibody through breast milk?
o A. IgA
o B. IgE
o D. IgM
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. IgA
Antibodies, which are also called immunoglobulins, take five basic forms,
indicated as IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD and IgE. All have been detected in human milk,
but by far the most abundant type is IgA, particularly the form known as
secretory IgA, which is found in great amounts throughout the gut and
respiratory system of adults. The secretory IgA molecules passed to the suckling
child are helpful in ways that go beyond their ability to bind to microorganisms
and keep them away from the body‘s tissues.
Option B: IgE is a monomer. It has a molecular weight of 188 Kd and a
serum concentration of 0.00005 mg/mL. It protects against parasites and
also binds to high-affinity receptors on mast cells and basophils causing
allergic reactions. IgE is regarded as the most important host defense
against different parasitic infections which include Strongyloides
stercoralis, Trichinella spiralis, Ascaris lumbricoides, and the hookworms
Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenal.
Option C: IgG2 forms an important host defense against bacteria that are
encapsulated. IgG is the only immunoglobulin that crosses the placentae as
its Fc portion binds to the receptors present on the surface of the placenta,
protecting the neonate from infectious diseases. IgG is thus the most
abundant antibody present in newborns.
Option D: IgM has a molecular weight of 970 Kd and an average serum
concentration of 1.5 mg/ml. It is mainly produced in the primary immune
response to infectious agents or antigens. It is a pentamer and activates
the classical pathway of the complement system. IgM is regarded as a
potent agglutinin (e.g., anti-A and anti-B isoagglutinin present in type B
and type A blood respectively) and a monomer of IgM is used as a B cell
receptor (BCR).
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1. Question 8 of 75
8. Question
1. Question 9 of 75
9. Question
1. Question 10 of 75
10. Question
The nurse is orienting a new nurse to the unit and reviews source-oriented
charting. Which statement by the nurse best describes source-oriented charting?
Source-oriented charting:
1. 11. Question
When the nurse completes the patient‘s admission nursing database, the patient
reports that he does not have any allergies. Which acceptable medical
abbreviation can the nurse use to document this finding?
o A. NA
o B. NDA
o C. NKA
o D. NPO
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. NKA
The nurse can use the medical abbreviation NKA, which means no known
allergies, to document this finding. NKA is the abbreviation for ―no known
allergies,‖ meaning no known allergies of any sort. By contrast, NKDA stands
exclusively for ―no known drug allergies.‖
Option A: NA is an abbreviation for not applicable.
Option B: NDA is an abbreviation for no known drug allergies.
Option D: NPO is an abbreviation that means nothing by mouth.
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o B. Contain only graphic information, such as I&O, vital signs, and medication
administration.
o C. Are used to record routine aspects of care; they do not contain assessment
data.
o D. Contain vital data collected upon admission, which can be compared with
newly collected data.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Are comprehensive charting forms that integrate
assessments and nursing actions
Nursing assessment flow sheets are organized by body systems. The nurse checks
the box corresponding to the current assessment findings. Nursing actions, such
as wound care, treatments, or IV fluid administration, are also included. A flow
sheet is simply a one- or two-page form that gathers all the important data
regarding a patient‘s condition. The flow sheet is housed in the patient‘s chart
and serves as a reminder of care and a record of whether care expectations have
been met.
Option B: Graphic information, such as vital signs, I&O, and routine care,
may be found on the graphic record. This where records of serial
measurements and observations, nursing interventions, and nursing care
plans are recorded.
Option C: Nursing documentation covers a wide variety of issues, topics,
and systems. Researchers, practitioners, and hospital administrators view
recordkeeping as an important element leading to continuity of care,
safety, quality care, and compliance.
Option D: The admission form contains baseline information. In health
care organizations, the EHR, oral reports, handoffs, conferences, and health
information technologies (HIT) are intended to facilitate information flow.
1. 13. Question
At the end of the shift, the nurse realizes that she forgot to document a dressing
change that she performed for a patient. Which action should the nurse take?
1. Question 14 of 75
14. Question
Patient Z asks Nurse Toni why an electronic health record (EHR) system is being
used. Which response by the nurse indicates an understanding of the rationale
for an EHR system?
1. Question 15 of 75
15. Question
In the United States, the first programs for training nurses were affiliated with:
o A. The military
o B. General hospitals
o C. Civil service
o D. Religious orders
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Religious orders
When the Civil War broke out, the Army used nurses who had already been
trained in religious orders. Nursing started with religious orders. The Hindu faith
was the first to write about nursing. In the United States, all training for nurses
was affiliated with religious orders until after the Civil War.
Option A: Although the Army did provide some training, it occurred later
than in the religious orders. Most people think of the nursing profession as
1. Question 16 of 75
16. Question
Which of the following is/are an example(s) of a health restoration
activity? Select all that apply.
1. 17. Question
Which of the following aspects of nursing is essential to defining it as both a
profession and a discipline?
o B. Professional organizations
1. Question 18 of 75
18. Question
o A. Team nursing
o C. Functional nursing
o D. Primary nursing
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Functional nursing
This medical-surgical floor is following the functional nursing model of care, in
which care is partitioned and assigned to a staff member with the appropriate
skills. For example, the NAP is assigned vital signs, and the LVN is assigned
medication administration. Functional nursing is task-oriented in scope. Instead
of one nurse performing many functions, several nurses are given one or two
assignments. For example, there is a medicine nurse whose sole responsibility is
administering medications.
Option A: With team nursing, an RN or LVN is paired with a NAP. The pair
is then assigned to render care for a group of patients. Team nursing is a
system that distributes the care of a patient amongst a team that is all
working together to provide for this person. This team consists of up to 4
to 6 members that has a team leader who gives jobs and instructions to
the group.
Option B: In case method nursing, one nurse cares for one patient during
her entire shift. Private duty nursing is an example of this care model. The
case method is a participatory, discussion-based way of learning where
students gain skills in critical thinking, communication, and group
dynamics. It is a type of problem-based learning.
Option D: When the primary nursing model is utilized, one nurse manages
care for a group of patients 24 hours a day, even though others provide
care during part of the day. A method of providing nursing services to
inpatients whereby one nurse plans the care of specific patients for a
period of 24 hours. The primary nurse provides direct care to those
patients when working and is responsible for directing and supervising
their care in collaboration with other health care team members.
1. Question 19 of 75
19. Question
Paul Jake suffered a stroke and has difficulty swallowing. Which healthcare team
member should be consulted to assess the patient‘s risk for aspiration?
o A. Respiratory therapist
o B. Occupational therapist
o C. Dentist
o D. Speech therapist
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Speech therapist
Speech and language therapists provide assistance to clients experiencing
swallowing and speech disturbances. They assess the risk for aspiration and
recommend a treatment plan to reduce the risk. Speech-language pathologists
(SLPs) work to prevent, assess, diagnose, and treat speech, language, social
communication, cognitive-communication, and swallowing disorders in children
and adults.
Option A: Respiratory therapists provide care for patients with respiratory
disorders. Respiratory therapists interview and examine patients with
breathing or cardiopulmonary disorders. Respiratory therapists care for
patients who have trouble breathing—for example, from a chronic
respiratory disease, such as asthma or emphysema.
Option B: Occupational therapists help patients regain function and
independence. Occupational therapists treat injured, ill, or disabled
patients through the therapeutic use of everyday activities. They help these
patients develop, recover, improve, as well as maintain the skills needed for
daily living and working.
Option C: Dentists diagnose and treat dental disorders. Dentists remove
tooth decay, fill cavities, and repair fractured teeth. Dentists diagnose and
treat problems with patients‘ teeth, gums, and related parts of the mouth.
They provide advice and instruction on taking care of the teeth and gums
and on diet choices that affect oral health.
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o B. When you take a patient's blood pressure, the patient's arm should be at
heart level.
o D. When drawing medication out of a vial, inject air into the vial first.
o E. Let the patient dangle his feet first before assisting him to stand or
transfer.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A, C
Theoretical knowledge consists of research findings, facts (e.g., ―Antibiotics are
ineffective . . .‖ is a fact), principles, and theories (e.g., ―In Maslow‘s framework . . .‖
is a statement from a theory). Instructions for taking blood pressure and
withdrawing medications are examples of practical knowledge—what to do and
how to do it. While practical knowledge is gained by doing things, theoretical
knowledge is gained, for example, by reading a manual.
Option A: Theoretical knowledge teaches the reasoning, techniques and
theory of knowledge.
Option B: Practical knowledge is the knowledge that is acquired by day-
to-day hands-on experiences. In other words, practical knowledge is
gained through doing things; it is very much based on real-life endeavors
and tasks.
Option C: While theoretical knowledge may guarantee that you
understand the fundamental concepts and have know-how about how
something works and its mechanism, it will only get you so far, as, without
practice, one is not able to perform the activity as well as he could.
Option D: Practical knowledge guarantees that you are able to actually do
something instead of simply knowing how to do it.
1. Question 21 of 75
21. Question
The nurse recognizes that urinary elimination changes may occur even in healthy
older adults because of which of the following?
1. Question 22 of 75
22. Question
During the assessment of the client with urinary incontinence, the nurse is most
likely to assess for which of the following? Select all that apply.
o D. Hx of UTI
o E. A fecal impaction
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A, B, D, and E
Urinary incontinence is the involuntary leakage of urine. This medical condition is
common in the elderly, especially in nursing homes, but it can affect younger
adult males and females as well. Urinary incontinence can impact both patient
health and quality of life. The prevalence may be underestimated as some
patients do not inform health care providers of having issues with urinary
incontinence for various reasons.
Option A: The perineum may become irritated by the frequent contact
with urine. Approximately 13 million Americans experience urinary
incontinence. The prevalence is 50% or greater among residents of nursing
facilities. Caregivers report that 53% of the homebound elderly are
incontinent. A random sampling of hospitalized elderly patients reports
1. Question 23 of 75
23. Question
Which action represents the appropriate nursing management of a client wearing
a condom catheter?
o A. Ensure that the tip of the penis fits snugly against the end of the condom.
1. Question 24 of 75
24. Question
The catheter slips into the vagina during a straight catheterization of a female
client. The nurse does which action?
o B. Leaves the catheter in place and asks another nurse to attempt the
procedure.
o D. Removes the catheter, wipes it with a sterile gauze, and redirects it to the
urinary meatus.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Leaves the catheter in place and gets a new sterile
catheter.
The catheter in the vagina is contaminated and can‘t be reused. If left in place, it
may help avoid mistaking the vaginal opening for the urinary meatus. A single
failure to catheterize the meatus doesn‘t indicate that another nurse is needed
although sometimes a second nurse can assist in visualization of the meatus.
Urinary bladder catheterization is performed for both therapeutic and diagnostic
purposes. Based on the dwell time, the urinary catheter can be either intermittent
(short-term) or indwelling (long-term).
Option B: After exposing the urethral meatus, a lubricated catheter tip is
advanced in the meatus until there is a spontaneous return of urine. The
catheter balloon is then inflated as per the manufacturer‘s
recommendations.
Option C: In the event a catheter is inserted in the vagina, it should be left
there until a new sterile catheter is successfully inserted into the meatus.
Analgesia is of no proven clinical use in women. Lubrication jelly should be
applied to the tip of the catheter. The application of lubricant to the
urethral meatus is associated with difficulty in catheter insertion.
Option D: Urinary tract infection (UTI) is the most common complication
that occurs as a result of long-term catheterization. The normal urinary
flow prevents the ascension of microbes from the periurethral skin
avoiding the infection. Alteration of the defensive mechanism from the
catheter results in an increased risk of UTIs. Escherichia coli and Klebsiella
pneumonia are the most common organisms implicated in UTIs. Recurrent
UTIs are associated with increased antibiotic resistance.
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1. Question 25 of 75
o A. "I will keep the collecting bag below the level of the bladder at all times."
o C. "Soaking in a warm tub bath may ease the irritation associated with
the catheter."
o D. "I should use clean tech. when emptying the collecting bag."
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. “Soaking in a warm tub bath may ease the irritation
associated with the catheter”
Soaking in a bathtub can increase the risk of exposure to bacteria. Avoid taking
baths, but shower daily. For the first few days after getting a suprapubic catheter,
use a waterproof bandage when showering. Once the wound heals, the client can
shower as usual, but avoid scented soaps.
Option A: The bag should be below the level of the bladder to promote
proper drainage. Always keep the bag below the waist. Check the tube
once in a while for bends or kinks that keep pee from flowing out. Don‘t
use any lotions or powders around where the catheter goes into the body.
Option B: Intake of cranberry juice creates an environment nonconducive
to infection. ―Indwelling‖ means inside the body. This catheter drains urine
from the bladder into a bag outside the body. Common reasons to have an
indwelling catheter are urinary incontinence (leakage), urinary retention
(not being able to urinate), a surgery that made this catheter necessary, or
another health problem.
Option D: Clean technique is appropriate for touching the exterior
portions of the system. Wash hands with soap and water. Empty urine from
the bag into the toilet. Pinch the catheter closed between the fingers.
Remove the bag. Wipe the end of the catheter with a fresh alcohol pad.
Wipe the tip of the new bag with the second alcohol pad. Connect the new
bag and stop pinching the catheter now. Make sure there are no bends or
kinks in the catheter tube. Wash hands again.
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1. Question 27 of 75
27. Question
A female client has a urinary tract infection. Which teaching points by the nurse
should be helpful to the client? Select all that apply.
1. Question 28 of 75
28. Question
The nurse will need to assess the client‘s performance of clean intermittent self
catheterization (CISC) for a client with which urinary diversion?
o A. Ileal conduit
o B. Kock pouch
o C. Neobladder
o D. Vesicostomy
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Kock pouch
The ileal conduit and vesicostomy are incontinent urinary diversions, and clients
are required to use an external ostomy appliance to contain the urine. In this new
operation, a pouch or reservoir is fashioned out of the terminal ileum with a valve
1. Question 29 of 75
29. Question
Which focus is the nurse most likely to teach for a client with a flaccid bladder?
1. Question 30 of 75
30. Question
Which of the following behaviors indicates that the client on a bladder training
program has met the expected outcomes? Select all that apply.
1. Question 31 of 75
31. Question
A nurse has identified that the patient has overflow incontinence. What is a major
factor that contributes to this clinical manifestation?
o A. Coughing
o B. Mobility deficits
o C. Prostate enlargement
1. Question 32 of 75
32. Question
A nurse must measure the intake and output (I&O) for a patient who has a
urinary retention catheter. Which equipment is most appropriate to use to
accurately measure urine output from a urinary retention catheter?
o A. Urinal
o B. Graduate
o C. Large syringe
1. Question 33 of 75
33. Question
A patient‘s urine is cloudy, is amber, and has an unpleasant odor. What problem
may this information indicate that requires the nurse to make a focused
assessment?
o A. Urinary retention
1. Question 34 of 75
34. Question
1. Question 35 of 75
35. Question
A practitioner uses a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity via a straight
catheter for a patient. What should the nurse do when collecting this urine
specimen?
1. Question 36 of 75
36. Question
A nurse in a provider‘s office is assessing a client who reports losing control of
urine whenever she coughs, laughs, or sneezes. The client relates a history of
three vaginal births, but no serious accidents or illnesses. Which of the following
interventions are appropriate for helping to control or eliminate the clients
incontinence? Select all that apply.
1. Question 37 of 75
37. Question
A client who has an indwelling catheter reports the need to urinate. Which of the
following interventions should the nurse perform?
1. Question 38 of 75
38. Question
A provider prescribes a 24-hour urine collection for a client. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
o C. Ask the client to urinate and pour the urine into a specimen container.
o D. Ask the client to urinate into the toilet, stop midstream, and finish
urinating into the specimen container.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Discard the first voiding.
The nurse should discard the first voiding of the 24 hour urine specimen, and
note the time. 24-hour urine protein measures the amount of protein released in
1. Question 39 of 75
39. Question
A nurse is preparing to initiate a bladder training program for a client who has a
voiding disorder. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all
that apply.
1. Question 40 of 75
1. Question 41 of 75
41. Question
To prevent postoperative complications, Nurse Kim assists the client with
coughing and deep breathing exercises. This is best accomplished by
implementing which of the following?
o A. Coughing exercises one hour before meals and deep breathing one hour
after meals.
1. Question 42 of 75
42. Question
Nurse Trixie is preparing to perform tracheostomy care. Prior to the beginning of
the procedure, the nurse performs which action?
1. Question 43 of 75
43. Question
Which action by the nurse represents proper nasopharyngeal/nasotracheal
suctioning technique?
o D. Hyper oxygenate with 100% oxygen for 30 minutes before and after
suctioning.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Rotate the catheter while applying suction.
Rotating the catheter prevents pulling of tissue into the opening on the catheter
tip and the side. Suction is used to clear retained or excessive lower respiratory
tract secretions in patients who are unable to do so effectively for themselves.
This could be due to the presence of an artificial airway, such as an endotracheal
or tracheostomy tube, or in patients who have a poor cough due to an array of
reasons such as excessive sedation or neurological involvement.
Option A: Suction catheters may only be lubricated with water or water-
soluble lubricant and petroleum jelly such as Vaseline has an oil base.
Lubricate the outside of the airway with a water-soluble/aqueous gel (e.g.
KY Jelly). Initially, choose the larger nostril that is clear from other tubes
(e.g. nasogastric tube). Insert the tip of the NPA into the nostril, then
slightly lift the nares up and direct the airway to follow a path along the
floor of the nose, parallel to the hard palate.
Option B: No suction should ever be applied while the catheters are being
inserted because this can traumatize tissues. Apply a gentle partial rotation
to the NPA if resistance is felt during insertion e.g. from opposition against
the turbinates. If this does not relieve the resistance/obstruction then
withdraw the airway and try the other nostril before selecting a smaller
size.
Option D: The client should be hyper-oxygenated for only a few minutes
before and after suctioning and this is generally limited to clients who are
intubated or have a tracheostomy. Hyper-oxygenate the patient if able
(increase mask flow rate or FiO2) delivery of 100% oxygen for > 30 secs
prior to the suction event.
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1. Question 44 of 75
o A. "I should breathe out as fast and as hard as possible into the device."
o B. "I should inhale slowly and steadily to keep the balls up."
o C. "I should use the device three times a day, after meals."
1. Question 45 of 75
45. Question
While a client with chest tubes is ambulating, the connection between the tube
and the water seal dislodges. Which action by Nurse Flora is most appropriate?
1. Question 46 of 75
46. Question
Nurse Peter makes the assessment that which client has the greatest risk for a
problem with the transport of oxygen from the lungs to the tissues? A client who
has:
o A. Anemia
o B. An infection
o C. A fractured rib
1. Question 47 of 75
47. Question
Which term does the nurse document to best describe a client experiencing
shortness of breath while lying down who must assume an upright or sitting
position to breathe more comfortably and effectively?
o A. Dyspnea
o B. Hyperpnea
o C. Orthopnea
o D. Apnea
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Orthopnea
Respiratory difficulty related to a reclining position without other physical
alterations is defined as orthopnea. Orthopnea is the sensation of breathlessness
in the recumbent position, relieved by sitting or standing. Orthopnea is caused by
pulmonary congestion during recumbency. In the horizontal position there is
redistribution of blood volume from the lower extremities and splanchnic beds to
the lungs.
Option A: Dyspnea is the medical term for shortness of breath, sometimes
described as ―air hunger.‖ It is an uncomfortable feeling. Shortness of
breath can range from mild and temporary to serious and long-lasting. It is
sometimes difficult to diagnose and treat dyspnea because there can be
many different causes.
Option B: Hyperpnea is breathing more deeply and sometimes faster than
usual. It‘s normal during exercise or exertion. Hyperpnea is breathing
deeply, a normal response to exertion requiring more oxygen. This is when
you‘re breathing in more air but not necessarily breathing faster. It can
1. Question 48 of 75
48. Question
A client with emphysema is prescribed corticosteroid therapy on a short-term
basis for acute bronchitis. The client asks the nurse how the steroids will help him.
The nurse responded by saying that the corticosteroids will do which of the
following?
o A. Promote bronchodilation
1. Question 49 of 75
49. Question
Nurse Aleli is planning to perform percussion and postural drainage. Which is an
important aspect of planning the clients‘ care?
1. Question 50 of 75
50. Question
Nurse Winona teaches a patient how to use an incentive spirometer. What
patient outcome will support the conclusion that the use of the incentives
spirometer was effective?
1. 51. Question
Nurse AJ is applying a warm compress. What should the nurse explain to the
patient is the primary reason why heat is used instead of cold?
o B. Prevents hemorrhage
o D. Reduces discomfort
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Increases circulation
Heat increases the skin surface temperature, promoting vasodilation, which
increases blood flow to the area. Cold has the opposite effect: it promotes
vasoconstriction, which decreases blood flow to the area. In general, heat therapy
is also recommended prior to exercise for those who have chronic injuries. Heat
warms the muscles and helps increase flexibility. The only time one should ever
consider using cold to treat a chronic injury is after finishing exercising when
inflammation may reappear. Applying cold at this time helps reduce any residual
swelling.
Option A: Both heat and cold relax muscles and thus minimize muscle
spasms. It reduces joint stiffness and muscle spasm, which makes it useful
when muscles are tight. There is no advantage to using heat over cold.
When muscles work, chemical byproducts are made that need to be
eliminated. When exercise is very intense, there may not be enough blood
flow to eliminate all the chemicals. It is the buildup of chemicals (for
example, lactic acid) that cause muscle ache. Because the blood supply
helps eliminate these chemicals, use heat to help sore muscles after
exercise.
Option B: Heat does not prevent hemorrhage; heat causes vasodilation,
which promotes hemorrhage. Apply an ice compress to the injury as soon
as possible. This will cool down the tissues, lower their metabolic rate and
nerve conduction velocity, resulting in vasoconstriction of the surrounding
blood vessels and reduced inflammation.
Option D: Both heat and cold can reduce discomfort. Cold reduces
discomfort by numbing the area, slowing the transmission of pain
impulses, and increasing the pain threshold. Heat reduces the discomfort
by relaxing the muscles. When an injury or inflammation, such as tendonitis
or bursitis occurs, tissues are damaged. Cold numbs the affected area,
which can reduce pain and tenderness. Cold can also reduce swelling and
inflammation.
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1. Question 52 of 75
o A. Emphysema
o B. Osteoporosis
o C. Cystic fibrosis
o D. Chronic bronchitis
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Osteoporosis
Implementing the practitioner‘s order may compromise patient safety because
percussion and vibration in the presence of osteoporosis may cause fractures.
Osteoporosis is an abnormal loss of bone mass and strength. Chest
physiotherapy is a group of physical techniques that improve lung function and
help you breathe better. Chest PT, or CPT expands the lungs, strengthens
breathing muscles, and loosens and improves drainage of thick lung secretions.
Option A: These are appropriate interventions for a patient with
emphysema. Emphysema is a chronic pulmonary disease characterized by
an abnormal increase in the size of air spaces distal to the terminal
bronchioles with destructive changes in their walls. Chest percussion and
vibration to help loosen lung secretions. Some patients wear a special CPT
vest hooked up to a machine. The machine makes the vest vibrate at a high
frequency to break up the secretions.
Option C: These are appropriate interventions for a patient with cystic
fibrosis causes widespread dysfunction of the exocrine glands. It is
characterized by thick, tenacious secretions in the respiratory system that
block the bronchioles, creating breathing difficulties. Chest PT helps treat
such diseases as cystic fibrosis and COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease). It also keeps the lungs clear to prevent pneumonia after surgery
and during periods of immobility.
Option D: These are appropriate interventions for a patient with chronic
bronchitis. Bronchitis is an inflammation of the mucous membranes of the
bronchial airways. The doctor may recommend chest PT to help loosen and
1. Question 53 of 75
53. Question
Nurse Sue teaches a patient about pursed lip breathing. The nurse identifies that
the teaching is affected when the patient says its purpose is to:
o A. Precipitate coughing
1. Question 54 of 75
54. Question
What should Nurse Mavie do first if a patient is choking on food?
1. Question 55 of 75
55. Question
Nurse Stephanie is assessing a client who has an acute respiratory infection that
puts her at risk for hypoxemia. Which of the following findings are early
indications that should alert the nurse that the client is developing
hypoxemia? Select all that apply.
o A. Restlessness
o B. Tachypnea
o C. Bradycardia
o D. Confusion
o E. Cyanosis
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A, B, & E
1. Question 56 of 75
56. Question
1. Question 57 of 75
57. Question
Nurse Aldrin is preparing to perform endotracheal suctioning for a client. Which
of the following are appropriate guidelines for the nurse to follow? Select all
that apply.
1. Question 58 of 75
58. Question
A nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take each time he provides tracheostomy care? Select
all that apply.
o A. Apply the oxygen source loosely if the SPO2 increases during the
procedure.
o C. Clean the outer surfaces in a circular motion from the stoma site
outward.
1. Question 59 of 75
59. Question
1. Question 60 of 75
60. Question
A man brings his elderly wife to the emergency department. He states that she
has been vomiting and has had diarrhea for the past two days. She appears
lethargic and is complaining of leg cramps. What should the nurse do first?
o A. Start an IV.
o C. Offer the woman foods that are high in sodium and potassium content.
o D. Administer an antiemetic.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Review the results of serum electrolytes.
Further assessment is needed to determine appropriate action. While the nurse
may perform some of the interventions in options one, three, and four,
assessment is needed initially. Electrolyte abnormalities may be addressed on an
individual level, although often these are caused by an overall fluid volume
depletion which, when corrected, will also cause electrolytes to normalize. Both
saline and lactated Ringer‘s solutions appear to be effective for the treatment of
dehydration due to viral gastroenteritis.
Option A: The most important goal of treatment is to maintain hydration
status and effectively counter fluid and electrolyte losses. Fluid therapy is a
fundamental part of treatment. Intravenous fluids may be administered to
those individuals who appear dehydrated or to those unable to tolerate
oral fluids.
Option C: No specific nutritional recommendations are universal for
patients with viral gastroenteritis. A diet of banana, rice, apples, tea, and
toast is often advised, but several studies have failed to show any
significant outcome difference when compared to regular diets.
Option D: Antiemetic medications such as ondansetron or
metoclopramide may be used to assist with controlling nausea and
1. Question 61 of 75
61. Question
Which of the following is the appropriate meaning of CBR?
o B. Complete Bathroom
1. Question 62 of 75
62. Question
One (1) tsp is equal to how many drops?
o A. 15
o B. 60
o C. 10
o D. 30
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. 60
One teaspoon (tsp) is equal to 60 drops (gtts). When the nurse has an order for
an IV infusion, it is her responsibility to make sure the fluid will infuse at the
prescribed rate. IV fluids may be infused by gravity using a manual roller clamp or
dial-a-flow, or infused using an infusion pump. Regardless of the method, it is
important to know how to calculate the correct IV flow rate.
Option A: When calculating the flow rate, determine which IV tubing will
be used, microdrip or macrodrip, so the nurse can use the proper drop
factor in her calculations. The drop factor is the number of drops in one mL
of solution, and is printed on the IV tubing package. Macrodrip and
microdrip refers to the diameter of the needle where the drop enters the
drip chamber.
Option C: Macrodrip tubing delivers 10 to 20 gtts/mL and is used to infuse
large volumes or to infuse fluids quickly. Microdrip tubing delivers 60
gtts/mL and is used for small or very precise amounts of fluid, as with
neonates or pediatric patients.
Option D: To calculate the drops per minute, the drop factor is needed.
The formula for calculating the IV flow rate (drip rate) is… total volume (in
1. 63. Question
20 cc is equal to how many ml?
o A. 2
o B. 20
o C. 2000
o D. 20000
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. 20
One cubic centimeter is equal to one milliliter. When clinicians are prepared and
know the key conversion factors, they will be less anxious about the calculation
involved. This is vital to accuracy, regardless of which formula or method
employed.
Option A: Drug calculations require the use of conversion factors, for
example, when converting from pounds to kilograms or liters to milliliters.
Simplistic in design, this method allows clinicians to work with various units
of measurement, converting factors to find the answer. These methods are
useful in checking the accuracy of the other methods of calculation, thus
acting as a double or triple check.
Option C: Units of measurement must match, for example, milliliters and
milliliters, or one needs to convert to like units of measurement. In the
example above, the ordered dose was in milligrams, and the have dose was
in milligrams, both of which cancel out leaving milliliters (answer called for
milliliters), so no further conversion is required.
Option D: All members of the interprofessional team are responsible for
dose calculations. Physicians, nurses, and pharmacists all must be
conversant in the desired overall formula. This technique is invaluable in
properly treating patients.
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1. Question 64 of 75
o A. 8
o B. 80
o C. 800
o D. 8000
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. 8
One cup is equal to 8 ounces. Weight conversion is also utilized daily in health
care. There are two systems calculating weight used in all healthcare settings for
health management, such as medication dosing per patient body weight. First,
the metric system is in common use in health care in the US. It is also the only
system universally used in many countries on all continents of the globe. It has
the advantage of a decimal system in increments or the power of tenths. Second,
the US weight system customarily uses the ounce or pound. It derives from the
British colonial era. This non-metric system is still being used nowadays among
laypersons in the US for products sold to the public.
Option B: The metric system is essential in all health care settings. Patients
are weighed at each clinical encounter. Scales used in the US have double
marking indicators: metric and non-metric markings. Metric weight values
are used in medication calculation, radiation dosing, and weight
compliance in equipment use, such as the maximum weight of a CAT-
SCAN unit or a surgical table that may hold a person.
Option C: Nowadays, all medications are based on weight for dose
calculations for all populations but very specifically in children and infants.
Adults have their weight recorded mainly by their doctors at each physical
patient-clinician encounter. Commonly, most adults monitor their weight
for weight management. Clinicians record it in the electronic health records
in both kilograms and pounds.
Option D: Commonly in healthcare and medical practices, the metric
system is used for weighing mass. In the metric system, there are
increments at the power of the tenth for calculations. This weight
conversion is used daily among scientists and health care providers.
1. Question 65 of 75
65. Question
The nurse must verify the client‘s identity before administration of medication.
Which of the following is the safest way to identify the client?
o C. State the client‘s name aloud and have the client repeat it.
1. Question 66 of 75
66. Question
The nurse prepares to administer buccal medication. The medicine should be
placed in what area?
1. Question 67 of 75
67. Question
The nurse administers a cleansing enema. The common position for this
procedure is?
o B. Dorsal Recumbent
o C. Supine
o D. Prone
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Sims left lateral
This position provides comfort to the patient and easy access to the natural
curvature of the rectum. Enemas are rectal injections of fluid intended to cleanse
or stimulate the emptying of the bowel. Enemas may also be prescribed to flush
out the colon before certain diagnostic tests or surgeries. The bowel needs to be
empty before these procedures to reduce infection risk and prevent stool from
getting in the way.
Option B: Position the patient on the left side, lying with the knees drawn
to the abdomen. This eases the passage and flow of fluid into the rectum.
Gravity and the anatomical structure of the sigmoid colon also suggest that
this will aid enema distribution and retention. Dorsal recumbent is a
position in which the patient lies on the back with the lower extremities
1. Question 68 of 75
68. Question
A client complains of difficulty swallowing when the nurse tries to administer
capsule medication. Which of the following measures should the nurse do?
1. Question 69 of 75
69. Question
Which of the following is the appropriate route of administration for insulin?
o A. Intramuscular
o B. Intradermal
o C. Subcutaneous
o D. Intravenous
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Subcutaneous
The subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen is preferred because the absorption of
the insulin is more consistent from this location than subcutaneous tissues in
other locations. Insulin may be injected into the subcutaneous tissue of the upper
arm and the anterior and lateral aspects of the thigh, buttocks, and abdomen
(with the exception of a circle with a 2-inch radius around the navel).
Option A: Intramuscular injection is not recommended for routine
injections. Rotation of the injection site is important to prevent
lipohypertrophy or lipoatrophy. Rotating within one area is recommended
(e.g., rotating injections systematically within the abdomen) rather than
1. Question 70 of 75
70. Question
The nurse is ordered to administer ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The nurse should
give the medication by which frequency?
1. Question 71 of 75
71. Question
Back Care is best described as:
1. Question 72 of 75
72. Question
It refers to the preparation of the bed with a new set of linens
o A. Bed bath
o B. Bed making
o C. Bed shampoo
o D. Bed lining
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Bed making
Bed making is one of the important nursing techniques to prepare various types
of bed for patients or clients to guarantee comfort and beneficial position for a
specific condition. The bed is particularly important for patients who are sick. The
nurse plays an inevitable role to ensure comfort and cleanliness for ill patients. It
1. Question 73 of 75
73. Question
Which of the following is the most important purpose of handwashing?
o D. To provide comfort.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. To prevent the transfer of microorganism
Hand washing is the single most effective infection control measure.
Handwashing practices in the patient care setting began in the early 19th century.
The practice evolved over the years with evidential proof of its vast importance
and coupled with other hand-hygienic practices, decreased pathogens
responsible for nosocomial or hospital-acquired infections (HAI).
Option A: According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
(CDC), hand hygiene is the single most important practice in the reduction
of the transmission of infection in the healthcare setting Transient
1. Question 74 of 75
74. Question
What should be done in order to prevent contaminating the environment in bed
making?
75. Question
The most important purpose of cleansing bed bath is:
1. 1. Question
All of the following can cause tachycardia except:
o B. Exercise
1. Question 2 of 75
o C. Respiratory rate
o D. Apical pulse
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Apical pulse
The apical pulse (the pulse at the apex of the heart) is located on the
midclavicular line at the fourth, fifth, or sixth intercostal space. Assessing whether
the rhythm of the pulse is regular or irregular is essential. The pulse could be
regular, irregular, or irregularly irregular. Changes in the rate of the pulse, along
with changes in respiration is called sinus arrhythmia. In sinus arrhythmia, the
pulse rate becomes faster during inspiration and slows down during expiration.
Irregularly irregular pattern is more commonly indicative of processes like atrial
flutter or atrial fibrillation.
Option A: Baseline vital signs include pulse rate, temperature, respiratory
rate, and blood pressure. Vital signs are an objective measurement for the
essential physiological functions of a living organism. They have the name
―vital‖ as their measurement and assessment is the critical first step for any
clinic evaluation. The first set of clinical examinations is an evaluation of the
vital signs of the patient.
Option B: Blood pressure is typically assessed at the antecubital fossa. The
arm should be supported at the heart level. Unsupported arm leads to 10
mmHg to the pressure readings. The patient‘s blood pressure should get
checked in each arm, and in younger patients, it should be tested in an
upper and lower extremity to rule out the coarctation of the aorta.
Option C: Respiratory rate is assessed best by observing chest movement
with each inspiration and expiration. The respiratory rate is the number of
breaths per minute. The normal breathing rate is about 12 to 20 beats per
minute in an average adult. In the pediatric age group, it is defined by the
particular age group. Parameters important here again include its rate,
depth of breathing, and its pattern rate of breathing is a crucial parameter.
1. Question 3 of 75
3. Question
The absence of which pulse may not be a significant finding when a patient is
admitted to the hospital?
o A. Apical
o B. Radial
o C. Pedal
o D. Femoral
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Pedal
Because the pedal pulse cannot be detected in 10% to 20% of the population, its
absence is not necessarily a significant finding. However, the presence or absence
of the pedal pulse should be documented upon admission so that changes can
be identified during the hospital stay. Absent peripheral pulses may be indicative
of peripheral vascular disease (PVD). PVD may be caused by atherosclerosis,
which can be complicated by an occluding thrombus or embolus. This may be
life-threatening and may cause the loss of a limb.
Option A: Apical pulse rate is indicated during some assessments, such as
when conducting a cardiovascular assessment and when a client is taking
certain cardiac medications (e.g., digoxin). Sometimes the apical pulse is
auscultated pre and post medication administration. It is also a best
practice to assess apical pulse in infants and children up to five years of
age because radial pulses are difficult to palpate and count in this
population.
Option B: Examiners frequently evaluate the radial artery during a routine
examination of adults, due to the unobtrusive position required to palpate
it and it‘s easy accessibility in various types of clothing. Like other distal
peripheral pulses (such as those in the feet) it also may be quicker to show
signs of pathology. Palpation is at the anterior wrist just proximal to the
base of the thumb.
Option D: The femoral pulse may be the most sensitive in assessing for
septic shock and is routinely checked during resuscitation. It is palpated
1. Question 4 of 75
4. Question
Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
o C. An apathetic 63-year old COPD patient receiving nasal oxygen via cannula.
o D. A confused 78-year old patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) who
requires assistance to get out of bed.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. An 88-year old incontinent patient with gastric cancer
who is confined to his bed at home.
Pressure ulcers are most likely to develop in patients with impaired mental status,
mobility, activity level, nutrition, circulation and bladder or bowel control. Age is
also a factor. Thus, the 88-year old incontinent patient who has impaired nutrition
(from gastric cancer) and is confined to bed is at greater risk. Pressure injuries are
defined as localized damage to the skin as well as underlying soft tissue, usually
occurring over a bony prominence or related to medical devices. They are the
result of prolonged or severe pressure with contributions from shear and friction
forces.
Option A: Risk factors for developing pressure injuries, in general, include
immobility, reduced perfusion, malnutrition, and sensory loss. Other
patients at increased risk for pressure injury development include those
with cerebrovascular or cardiovascular disease, recent fracture of a lower
extremity, diabetes, and incontinence. Older patients are also at increased
risk for the formation of pressure injuries due to skin changes associated
with aging, including thinning of the dermis and epidermis, resulting in
decreased resistance to shear forces.
1. Question 5 of 75
5. Question
The physician orders the administration of high-humidity oxygen by face mask
and placement of the patient in a high Fowler‘s position. After assessing Mrs.
Paul, the nurse writes the following nursing diagnosis: Impaired gas exchange
related to increased secretions. Which of the following nursing interventions has
the greatest potential for improving this situation?
1. Question 6 of 75
6. Question
The most common deficiency seen in alcoholics is:
o A. Thiamine
o B. Riboflavin
o C. Pyridoxine
o D. Pantothenic acid
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Thiamine
Chronic alcoholism commonly results in thiamine deficiency and other symptoms
of malnutrition. Chronic alcohol consumption can cause thiamine deficiency and
1. Question 7 of 75
7. Question
Which of the following statements is incorrect about a patient with dysphagia?
o A. The patient will find pureed or soft foods, such as custards, easier to
swallow than water.
o D. The nurse should perform oral hygiene before assisting with feeding.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. The patient should always feed himself.
1. Question 8 of 75
8. Question
To assess the kidney function of a patient with an indwelling urinary (Foley)
catheter, the nurse measures his hourly urine output. She should notify the
physician if the urine output is:
o B. 64 ml in 2 hours
o D. 125 ml in 4 hours
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Less than 30 ml/hour
A urine output of less than 30ml/hour indicates hypovolemia or oliguria, which is
related to kidney function and inadequate fluid intake. Urine output is a
noninvasive method to measure fluid balance once intravascular volume has
been restored. Normal urine output is defined as 1.5 to 2 mL/kg per hour
Option B: Micturition process entails contraction of the detrusor muscle
and relaxation of the internal and external urethral sphincter. The process is
slightly different based on age. Children younger than three years old have
the micturition process coordinated by the spinal reflex.
Option C: It starts with urine accumulation in the bladder that stretches the
detrusor muscle causing activation of stretch receptors. The stretch
sensation is carried by the visceral afferent to the sacral region of the spinal
cord where it synapses with the interneuron that excites the
parasympathetic neurons and inhibits the sympathetic neurons. The
visceral afferent impulse concurrently decreases the firing of the somatic
efferent that normally keeps the external urethral sphincter closed allowing
reflexive urine output.
Option D: Low bladder volume activates the pontine storage center which
activates the sympathetic nervous system and inhibits the parasympathetic
nervous system cumulatively allowing the accumulation of urine in the
bladder. High bladder volume activates the pontine micturition center
which activates the parasympathetic nervous system and inhibits the
sympathetic nervous system as well as triggers awareness of a full bladder;
consequently leading to relaxation of the internal sphincter and a choice to
relax the external urethral sphincter once ready to void.
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1. Question 9 of 75
9. Question
Certain substances increase the amount of urine produced. These include:
o C. Urinary analgesics
1. Question 10 of 75
10. Question
A male patient who had surgery 2 days ago for head and neck cancer is about to
make his first attempt to ambulate outside his room. The nurse notes that he is
steady on his feet and that his vision was unaffected by the surgery. Which of the
following nursing interventions would be appropriate?
o B. Discourage the patient from walking in the hall for a few more days.
1. Question 11 of 75
1. Question 12 of 75
12. Question
Mrs. Lim begins to cry as the nurse discusses hair loss. The best response would
be:
o B. ―Why are you crying? I didn‘t get to the bad news yet‖
o D. “I know this will be difficult for you, but your hair will grow back
after the completion of chemotherapy”
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. “I know this will be difficult for you, but your hair will
grow back after the completion of chemotherapy”
―I know this will be difficult‖ acknowledges the problem and suggests a resolution
to it. The term alopecia means hair loss regardless of the cause. It is not exclusive
to the scalp; it can be anywhere on the body. As an individual grows older, they
will lose hair. The difference between male hair loss and female hair loss is the
pattern. Men generally lose hair in the front and the temporal region, while
women tend to lose hair from the central area of the scalp. Also, female hair loss
will not end up with complete baldness, whereas male hair loss can end up with
complete baldness.
1. Question 13 of 75
13. Question
An additional Vitamin C is required during all of the following periods except:
o A. Infancy
o B. Young adulthood
o C. Childhood
o D. Pregnancy
Incorrect
1. Question 14 of 75
14. Question
A prescribed amount of oxygen is needed for a patient with COPD to prevent:
o C. Respiratory excitement.
1. Question 15 of 75
15. Question
After 1 week of hospitalization, Mr. Gray develops hypokalemia. Which of the
following is the most significant symptom of his disorder?
o A. Lethargy
o C. Muscle weakness
o D. Muscle irritability
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Muscle weakness
Presenting symptoms of hypokalemia ( a serum potassium level below 3.5
mEq/liter) include muscle weakness, chronic fatigue, and cardiac dysrhythmias.
The combined effects of inadequate food intake and prolonged diarrhea can
deplete the potassium stores of a patient with GI problems. Significant muscle
weakness occurs at serum potassium levels below 2.5 mmol/L but can occur at
higher levels if the onset is acute. Similar to the weakness associated with
hyperkalemia, the pattern is ascending in nature affecting the lower extremities,
progressing to involve the trunk and upper extremities, and potentially advancing
to paralysis.
Option A: Periodic paralysis is a rare neuromuscular disorder, which is
inherited or acquired, that is caused by an acute transcellular shift of
potassium into the cells. It is characterized by potentially fatal episodes of
muscle weakness or paralysis that can affect the respiratory muscles.
Clinical manifestations mainly involve the musculoskeletal and
cardiovascular systems. Hence, the physical exam should focus on
identifying neurologic manifestations and cardiac dysrhythmias.
Option B: Clinical symptoms of hypokalemia do not become evident until
the serum potassium level is less than 3 mmol/L unless there is a
precipitous fall or the patient has a process that is potentiated by
hypokalemia. The severity of symptoms also tends to be proportional to
the degree and duration of hypokalemia. Symptoms resolve with
correction of the hypokalemia.
1. Question 16 of 75
16. Question
Which of the following nursing interventions promotes patient safety?
o A. Assess the patient‘s ability to ambulate and transfer from a bed to a chair.
1. Question 17 of 75
17. Question
Studies have shown that about 40% of patients fall out of bed despite the use of
side rails; this has led to which of the following conclusions?
o C. Side rails are a deterrent that prevent a patient from falling out of bed.
1. Question 18 of 75
18. Question
Examples of patients suffering from impaired awareness include all of the
following except:
1. Question 19 of 75
19. Question
The most common injury among elderly persons is:
o D. Hip fracture
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Hip fracture
1. Question 20 of 75
20. Question
The most common psychogenic disorder among elderly person is:
o A. Depression
o C. Inability to concentrate
o D. Decreased appetite
Incorrect
1. Question 21 of 75
21. Question
Which of the following vascular system changes results from aging?
1. Question 22 of 75
22. Question
Which of the following is the most common cause of dementia among elderly
persons?
o B. Multiple sclerosis
o D. Alzheimer’s disease
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Alzheimer’s disease
Alzheimer‘s disease, sometimes known as senile dementia of the Alzheimer‘s type
or primary degenerative dementia, is an insidious; progressive, irreversible, and
degenerative disease of the brain whose etiology is still unknown. Alzheimer‘s is
the most common cause of dementia among older adults. Dementia is the loss of
cognitive functioning—thinking, remembering, and reasoning—and behavioral
abilities to such an extent that it interferes with a person‘s daily life and activities.
Option A: Parkinson‘s disease is a neurologic disorder caused by lesions in
the extrapyramidal system and manifested by tremors, muscle rigidity,
hypokinesia, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Parkinson‘s disease is a
neurodegenerative disorder that mostly presents in later life with
generalized slowing of movements (bradykinesia) and at least one other
symptom of resting tremor or rigidity. Other associated features are a loss
of smell, sleep dysfunction, mood disorders, excess salivation, constipation,
and excessive periodic limb movements in sleep (REM behavior disorder).
Option B: Multiple sclerosis, a progressive, degenerative disease involving
demyelination of the nerve fibers, usually begins in young adulthood and is
marked by periods of remission and exacerbation. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is
a chronic autoimmune disease of the central nervous system (CNS)
characterized by inflammation, demyelination, gliosis, and neuronal loss.
Pathologically, perivascular lymphocytic infiltrates, and macrophages
produce degradation of myelin sheaths that surround neurons.
Option C: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, a disease marked by progressive
degeneration of the neurons, eventually results in atrophy of all the
muscles; including those necessary for respiration. Amyotrophic lateral
sclerosis (ALS), also known as ―Lou Gehrig‘s disease,‖ is a
neurodegenerative disease of the motor neurons. No single etiology has
been proven; rather, multiple pathways (both heritable and sporadic) have
been shown to result in unmistakably similar disease entities. ALS
necessarily affects both upper and lower motor neurons with variable
1. Question 23 of 75
23. Question
The nurse‘s most important legal responsibility after a patient‘s death in a
hospital is:
1. Question 24 of 75
24. Question
Before rigor mortis occurs, the nurse is responsible for:
1. Question 25 of 75
25. Question
When a patient in the terminal stages of lung cancer begins to exhibit loss of
consciousness, a major nursing priority is to:
o B. Insert an airway.
1. Question 26 of 75
26. Question
Which element in the circular chain of infection can be eliminated by preserving
skin integrity?
o A. Host
o C. Mode of transmission
o D. Portal of entry
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Portal of entry
In the circular chain of infection, pathogens must be able to leave their reservoir
and be transmitted to a susceptible host through a portal of entry, such as
broken skin. The portal of entry refers to the manner in which a pathogen enters
a susceptible host. The portal of entry must provide access to tissues in which the
pathogen can multiply or a toxin can act. Often, infectious agents use the same
portal to enter a new host that they used to exit the source host.
Option A: The final link in the chain of infection is a susceptible host.
Susceptibility of a host depends on genetic or constitutional factors,
specific immunity, and nonspecific factors that affect an individual‘s ability
to resist infection or to limit pathogenicity. An individual‘s genetic makeup
may either increase or decrease susceptibility.
Option B: The reservoir of an infectious agent is the habitat in which the
agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies. Reservoirs include humans,
animals, and the environment. The reservoir may or may not be the source
from which an agent is transferred to a host.
Option C: An infectious agent may be transmitted from its natural
reservoir to a susceptible host in different ways. There are different
classifications for modes of transmission. In direct transmission, an
infectious agent is transferred from a reservoir to a susceptible host by
direct contact or droplet spread. Indirect transmission refers to the transfer
of an infectious agent from a reservoir to a host by suspended air particles,
inanimate objects (vehicles), or animate intermediaries (vectors).
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1. Question 27 of 75
27. Question
Which of the following will probably result in a break in sterile technique for
respiratory isolation?
o C. Opening the door of the patient’s room leading into the hospital
corridor.
1. Question 28 of 75
28. Question
1. Question 29 of 75
29. Question
Effective handwashing requires the use of:
1. Question 30 of 75
30. Question
After routine patient contact, handwashing should last at least:
o A. 30 seconds
o B. 1 minute
o C. 2 minutes
o D. 3 minutes
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. 30 seconds
Depending on the degree of exposure to pathogens, hand washing may last from
10 seconds to 4 minutes. After routine patient contact, hand washing for 30
seconds effectively minimizes the risk of pathogen transmission. According to the
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), hand hygiene is the single
most important practice in the reduction of the transmission of infection in the
healthcare setting.
Option B: According to the CDC, hand hygiene encompasses the cleansing
of your hands with soap and water, antiseptic hand washes, antiseptic hand
rubs such as alcohol-based hand sanitizers, foams or gels, or surgical hand
antisepsis. Indications for handwashing include when hands are visibly
soiled, contaminated with blood or other bodily fluids, before eating, and
after restroom use.
Option C: Handwashing is the act of washing hands with soap, either
antimicrobial or non-antimicrobial, and water for at least 15 to 20 seconds
with a vigorous motion to cause friction making sure to include all surfaces
of the hands and fingers. Hand rubbing with an alcohol-based rub should
not be performed when the hands are visibly soiled. In this case, the CDC
and WHO guidelines recommend that handwashing with soap and water
1. Question 31 of 75
31. Question
Which of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?
o B. Urinary catheterization
o D. Colostomy irrigation
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Urinary catheterization
The urinary system is normally free of microorganisms except at the urinary
meatus. Any procedure that involves entering this system must use surgically
aseptic measures to maintain a bacteria-free state. Guidelines from The Centers
for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and The European Association of
Urology Nurses (EAUN) recommend ‗sterile technique‘ when inserting an
indwelling urinary catheter. Insertion of indwelling urinary catheters should be
performed in a way that minimizes the risk of introducing bacteria to the urinary
bladder.
Option A: Conjugated estrogens is a medicine that contains a mixture of
estrogen hormones. Conjugated estrogen vaginal cream is used to treat
changes in and around the vagina (such as vaginal dryness, itching, and
burning) caused by low estrogen levels or menopause. It is also used to
treat vaginal pain during sexual intercourse. This medicine is to be used
only in the vagina. Use at bedtime unless your doctor tells otherwise.
Option C: Nasogastric (NG) intubation is a procedure in which a thin,
plastic tube is inserted into the nostril, toward the esophagus, and down
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1. Question 32 of 75
32. Question
Sterile technique is used whenever:
1. Question 33 of 75
33. Question
Which of the following constitutes a break in sterile technique while preparing a
sterile field for a dressing change?
o A. Using sterile forceps, rather than sterile gloves, to handle a sterile item.
o D. Pouring out a small amount of solution (15 to 30 ml) before pouring the
solution into a sterile container.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Placing a sterile object on the edge of the sterile field.
The edges of a sterile field are considered contaminated. When sterile items are
allowed to come in contact with the edges of the field, the sterile items also
1. Question 34 of 75
34. Question
A natural body defense that plays an active role in preventing infection is:
o A. Yawning
o B. Body hair
o C. Hiccupping
1. Question 35 of 75
35. Question
All of the following statement are true about donning sterile gloves except:
o A. The first glove should be picked up by grasping the inside of the cuff.
o C. The gloves should be adjusted by sliding the gloved fingers under the
sterile cuff and pulling the glove over the wrist.
1. Question 36 of 75
36. Question
When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should be careful that the first
thing she touches is the:
1. Question 37 of 75
37. Question
Which of the following nursing interventions is considered the most effective
form for universal precautions?
o A. Cap all used needles before removing them from their syringes.
1. Question 38 of 75
38. Question
1. Question 39 of 75
1. Question 40 of 75
40. Question
The primary purpose of a platelet count is to evaluate the:
1. Question 41 of 75
41. Question
Which of the following white blood cell (WBC) counts clearly indicates
leukocytosis?
o A. 4,500/mm³
o B. 7,000/mm³
o C. 10,000/mm³
o D. 25,000/mm³
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. 25,000/mm³
Leukocytosis is any transient increase in the number of white blood cells
(leukocytes) in the blood. The normal number of WBCs in the blood is 4,500 to
11,000 WBCs per microliter (4.5 to 11.0 × 109/L). Normal value ranges may vary
slightly among different labs. Thus, a count of 25,000/mm3 indicates leukocytosis.
Option A: A WBC count is a blood test to measure the number of white
blood cells (WBCs) in the blood. WBCs are also called leukocytes. They help
fight infections. A higher than normal WBC count is called leukocytosis.
1. Question 42 of 75
42. Question
After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of furosemide (Lasix) daily, a patient
begins to exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness. These
symptoms probably indicate that the patient is experiencing:
o A. Hypokalemia
o B. Hyperkalemia
o C. Anorexia
o D. Dysphagia
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Hypokalemia
1. Question 43 of 75
43. Question
Which of the following statements about chest X-rays is not true?
1. Question 44 of 75
1. Question 45 of 75
45. Question
1. Question 46 of 75
46. Question
All of the following nursing interventions are correct when using the Z-track
method of drug injection except:
1. Question 47 of 75
47. Question
The correct method for determining the vastus lateralis site for I.M. injection is to:
o A. Locate the upper aspect of the upper outer quadrant of the buttock about
5 to 8 cm below the iliac crest.
o B. Palpate the lower edge of the acromion process and the midpoint lateral
aspect of the arm.
o D. Divide the area between the greater femoral trochanter and the
lateral femoral condyle into thirds, and select the middle third on the
anterior of the thigh.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Divide the area between the greater femoral trochanter
and the lateral femoral condyle into thirds, and select the middle third on
the anterior of the thigh
The vastus lateralis, a long, thick muscle that extends the full length of the thigh,
is viewed by many clinicians as the site of choice for I.M. injections because it has
relatively few major nerves and blood vessels. The middle third of the muscle is
recommended as the injection site. The patient can be in a supine or sitting
position for an injection into this site.
Option A: There are specific landmarks to be taken into consideration
while giving IM injections so as to avoid any neurovascular complications.
The heel of the opposing hand is placed in the greater trochanter, the
index finger in the anterior superior iliac spine, and the middle finger below
the iliac crest. The drug is injected in the triangle formed by the index,
middle finger, and the iliac crest
1. Question 48 of 75
48. Question
The mid-deltoid injection site is seldom used for I.M. injections because it:
1. Question 49 of 75
49. Question
The appropriate needle size for insulin injection is:
o A. 18G, 1 ½‖ long
o B. 22G, 1‖ long
o C. 22G, 1 ½‖ long
1. Question 50 of 75
50. Question
The appropriate needle gauge for intradermal injection is:
o A. 20G
o B. 22G
o C. 25G
o D. 26G
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. 26G
1. Question 51 of 75
51. Question
Parenteral penicillin can be administered as an:
o A. IM injection or an IV solution
o B. IV or an intradermal injection
o D. IM or a subcutaneous injection
1. Question 52 of 75
52. Question
The physician orders gr 10 of aspirin for a patient. The equivalent dose in
milligrams is:
o A. 0.6 mg
o B. 10 mg
o C. 60 mg
o D. 600 mg
Incorrect
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1. Question 53 of 75
53. Question
The physician orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at 100ml/hour. What
would the flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml?
o A. 5 gtt/minute
o B. 13 gtt/minute
o C. 25 gtt/minute
1. Question 54 of 75
54. Question
Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a hemolytic reaction to blood
transfusion?
o A. Hemoglobinuria
o B. Chest pain
o C. Urticaria
1. Question 55 of 75
55. Question
Which of the following conditions may require fluid restriction?
o A. Fever
o C. Renal Failure
o D. Dehydration
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Renal Failure
1. Question 56 of 75
56. Question
All of the following are common signs and symptoms of phlebitis except:
1. Question 57 of 75
57. Question
The best way of determining whether a patient has learned to instill ear
medication properly is for the nurse to:
o B. Have the patient repeat the nurse‘s instructions using her own words.
1. Question 58 of 75
58. Question
Which of the following types of medications can be administered via gastrostomy
tube?
1. Question 59 of 75
59. Question
A patient who develops hives after receiving an antibiotic is exhibiting drug:
o A. Tolerance
o B. Idiosyncrasy
o D. Allergy
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Allergy
A drug-allergy is an adverse reaction resulting from an immunologic response
following previous sensitizing exposure to the drug. The reaction can range from
a rash or hives to anaphylactic shock.
Option A: Tolerance to a drug means that the patient experiences a
decreasing physiologic response to repeated administration of the drug in
the same dosage.
Option B: Idiosyncrasy is an individual‘s unique hypersensitivity to a drug,
food, or other substance; it appears to be genetically determined.
Option C: Synergism, is a drug interaction in which the sum of the drug‘s
combined effects is greater than that of their separate effects.
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1. Question 60 of 75
60. Question
A patient has returned to his room after femoral arteriography. All of the
following are appropriate nursing interventions except:
o A. Assess femoral, popliteal, and pedal pulses every 15 minutes for 2 hours.
1. Question 61 of 75
61. Question
The nurse explains to a patient that a cough:
1. Question 62 of 75
62. Question
An infected patient has chills and begins shivering. The best nursing intervention
is to:
1. Question 63 of 75
63. Question
1. Question 64 of 75
64. Question
The purpose of increasing urine acidity through dietary means is to:
1. Question 65 of 75
65. Question
Clay-colored stools indicate:
o A. Upper GI bleeding
o B. Impending constipation
o C. An effect of medication
o D. Bile obstruction
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Bile obstruction
Bile colors the stool brown. Any inflammation or obstruction that impairs bile
flow will affect the stool pigment, yielding light, clay-colored stool. The liver
releases bile salts into the stool, giving it a normal brown color. One may have
clay-colored stools if they have a liver infection that reduces bile production, or if
the flow of bile out of the liver is blocked. Yellow skin (jaundice) often occurs with
clay-colored stools.
Option A: Upper GI bleeding results in black or tarry stool. Melena is a
black, tarry stool that is caused by GI bleeding. The black color is due to
the oxidation of blood hemoglobin during the bleeding in the ileum and
colon. Melena also refers to stools or vomit stained black by blood
pigment or dark blood products and may indicate upper GI bleeding.
Option B: Constipation is characterized by small, hard masses. The
problem may arise in the colon or rectum or it may be due to an external
cause. In most people, slow colonic motility that occurs after years of
laxative abuse is the problem. In a few patients, the cause may be related
to an outlet obstruction like rectal prolapse or a rectocele. External causes
of constipation may include poor dietary habits, lack of fluid intake,
overuse of certain medications, an endocrine problem like hypothyroidism
or some type of an emotional issue.
1. Question 66 of 75
66. Question
In which step of the nursing process would the nurse ask a patient if the
medication she administered relieved his pain?
o A. Assessment
o B. Analysis
o C. Planning
o D. Evaluation
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Evaluation
In the evaluation step of the nursing process, the nurse must decide whether the
patient has achieved the expected outcome that was identified in the planning
phase. This final step of the nursing process is vital to a positive patient outcome.
Whenever a healthcare provider intervenes or implements care, they must
reassess or evaluate to ensure the desired outcome has been met. Reassessment
may frequently be needed depending upon the overall patient‘s condition. The
plan of care may be adapted based on new assessment data.
Option A: Assessment is the first step and involves critical thinking skills
and data collection; subjective and objective. Subjective data involves
verbal statements from the patient or caregiver. Objective data is
measurable, tangible data such as vital signs, intake and output, and height
and weight.
1. Question 67 of 75
67. Question
All of the following are good sources of vitamin A except:
o A. White potatoes
o B. Carrots
o C. Apricots
o D. Egg yolks
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. White potatoes
Potatoes contain a good amount of carbs and fiber, as well as vitamin C, vitamin
B6, potassium and manganese. Their nutrient contents can vary depending on
the type of potato and cooking method. The main sources of vitamin A are yellow
and green vegetables (such as carrots, sweet potatoes, squash, spinach, collard
greens, broccoli, and cabbage) and yellow fruits (such as apricots, and
cantaloupe). Animal sources include liver, kidneys, cream, butter, and egg yolks.
1. Question 68 of 75
68. Question
Which of the following is a primary nursing intervention necessary for all patients
with a Foley Catheter in place?
o A. Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag level with the patient‘s
bladder.
o C. Clamp the catheter for 1 hour every 4 hours to maintain the bladder‘s
elasticity.
o D. Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag below bladder level
to facilitate drainage by gravity.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag below
bladder level to facilitate drainage by gravity
To prevent obstruction, the catheter and collecting tube should be kept free from
kinking, the collecting bag should be positioned below the level of the bladder at
all times and never placed on the floor. The collecting bag should be emptied
1. Question 69 of 75
69. Question
The ELISA test is used to:
1. Question 71 of 75
71. Question
Effective skin disinfection before a surgical procedure includes which of the
following methods?
1. Question 72 of 75
72. Question
When transferring a patient from a bed to a chair, the nurse should use which
muscles to avoid back injury?
o A. Abdominal muscles
o B. Back muscles
o C. Leg muscles
1. Question 73 of 75
73. Question
Thrombophlebitis typically develops in patients with which of the following
conditions?
1. Question 74 of 75
74. Question
1. Question 75 of 75
75. Question
Immobility impairs bladder elimination, resulting in such disorders as:
1. 1. Question
Once a nurse assesses a client‘s condition and identifies appropriate nursing
diagnoses, a:
1. Question 2 of 75
2. Question
Planning is a category of nursing behaviors in which:
o A. The nurse determines the health care needed for the client.
1. Question 3 of 75
o A. Physician
o C. Future well-being.
o D. Urgency of problems
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Urgency of problems
Triage of patients involves looking for signs of serious illness or injury. These
emergency signs are connected to the Airway – Breathing –
Circulation/Consciousness – Dehydration and are easily remembered as ABCD. If
the client does not have any emergency signs, the health worker proceeds to
assess the client for priority conditions. This should not take more than a few
seconds. Some of these signs will have been noticed during the ABCD triage and
others need to be rechecked.
Option A: All clinical staff involved in the care of the sick should be
prepared to carry out a rapid assessment to identify the few clients who are
severely ill and require emergency treatment.
Option B: Triage is the process of rapidly examining sick children when
they first arrive in order to place them in one of the following categories:
those with EMERGENCY SIGNS who require immediate emergency
treatment; those with PRIORITY SIGNS who should be given priority in the
queue so they can be rapidly assessed and treated without delay; and
those who have no emergency or priority signs and are NON-URGENT
cases. These clients can wait their turn in the queue for assessment and
treatment. The majority of sick clients will be non-urgent and will not
require emergency treatment.
Option C: Ideally, all clients should be checked on their arrival by a person
who is trained to assess how ill they are. This person decides whether the
client will be seen immediately and receive life-saving treatment, or will be
seen soon, or can safely wait for his or her turn to be examined.
1. Question 4 of 75
4. Question
A client-centered goal is a specific and measurable behavior or response that
reflects a client‘s:
1. Question 5 of 75
5. Question
1. Question 6 of 75
o D. Client will take pain medication every 4 hours around the clock.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Client will report pain acuity less than 4 on a scale of 0-
10.
When developing goals for patients, the nurse needs to look at several factors.
Think back to the SMART goal criteria. In order to be specific, nurses focus on
questions like ‗What is the problem? What is the response desired?‘ To make it
measurable, ‗How will the client look or behave if the healthy response is
achieved? What can I see, hear, measure, observe?‘
Option A: One way to help nurses remember how to write goals is to make
sure they are SMART. SMART goals are Specific, Measurable, Action-
Oriented, Realistic, and Timely. ‗Specific‘ refers to who, what, when, where,
and why. ‗Measurable‘ means that you can actually measure and evaluate
the progress of that goal in a concrete way. ‗Action-oriented‘ means there
are actions that can be taken to reach the goal. ‗Realistic‘ includes the
ability to work on the goal, having the resources, attitudes, abilities, and
skills to reach this goal, and how realistic it is to come to fruition. Finally,
‗Timely‘ means that there is an end time frame or date at which the goal is
going to be evaluated.
Option B: Goal setting occurs in the third phase of the process, planning.
Is the goal for nursing care to heal patients? To help them get better? To
help them get well? While these are certainly at the forefront of nurses‘
minds, how do you evaluate these statements? What if the definition of
wellness is different from one person to another? This is why nursing goal
statements that are patient-centered and measurable are so important.
Option D: Considering action-oriented, ‗Are there steps and nursing
interventions needed to reach that goal? Is this a realistic outcome for the
1. Question 7 of 75
7. Question
As goals, outcomes, and interventions are developed, the nurse must:
1. Question 8 of 75
8. Question
When establishing realistic goals, the nurse:
o B. Knows the resources of the health care facility, family, and the client.
1. Question 9 of 75
9. Question
To initiate an intervention the nurse must be competent in three areas, which
include:
1. Question 10 of 75
10. Question
Collaborative interventions are therapies that require:
1. Question 11 of 75
11. Question
Well formulated, client-centered goals should:
1. Question 12 of 75
o A. Nursing diagnosis
o B. Short-term goal
o C. Long-term goal
o D. Expected outcome
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Short-term goal
Short-term goals can act as stepping stones to achieving longer-term targets. For
example, a client may have the long-term goal of being able to groom herself,
including cleaning her teeth, washing her face, combing her hair, and applying
her make-up on her own. A short-term goal for this client might be to be able to
clean her teeth.
Option A: Actual or potential health problems that can be prevented or
resolved by independent nursing intervention are termed nursing
diagnoses. NANDA nursing diagnoses are a uniform way of identifying,
focusing on, and dealing with specific client needs and responses to actual
and high-risk problems.
Option C: Long-term goals are often used for clients who have chronic
health problems or who live at home, in nursing homes, or extended-care
facilities. Long-term goal indicates an objective to be completed over a
longer period, usually over weeks or months.
Option D: Goals or desired outcomes describe what the nurse hopes to
achieve by implementing the nursing interventions and are derived from
the client‘s nursing diagnoses. One overall goal is determined for each
nursing diagnosis. The terms goal, outcome, and expected outcome are
oftentimes used interchangeably.
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1. Question 13 of 75
13. Question
o A. Nursing interventions
o B. Short-term goals
o C. Long-term goals
o D. Expected outcomes
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Expected outcomes
Goals or desired outcomes describe what the nurse hopes to achieve by
implementing the nursing interventions and are derived from the client‘s nursing
diagnoses. One overall goal is determined for each nursing diagnosis. The terms
goal, outcome, and expected outcome are oftentimes used interchangeably.
Option A: Nursing interventions are activities or actions that a nurse
performs to achieve client goals. Interventions chosen should focus on
eliminating or reducing the etiology of the nursing diagnosis.
Option B: Short-term goals can act as stepping stones to achieving
longer-term targets. For example, a client may have the long-term goal of
being able to groom herself, including cleaning her teeth, washing her face,
combing her hair, and applying her make-up on her own. A short-term
goal for this client might be to be able to clean her teeth.
Option C: Long-term goals are often used for clients who have chronic
health problems or who live at home, in nursing homes, or extended-care
facilities. Long-term goal indicates an objective to be completed over a
longer period, usually over weeks or months.
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1. Question 14 of 75
14. Question
The planning step of the nursing process includes which of the following
activities?
1. Question 15 of 75
15. Question
The nursing care plan is:
1. Question 16 of 75
16. Question
After determining a nursing diagnosis of acute pain, the nurse develops the
following appropriate client-centered goal:
1. Question 17 of 75
17. Question
When developing a nursing care plan for a client with a fractured right tibia, the
nurse includes in the plan of care independent nursing interventions, including:
1. Question 18 of 75
18. Question
Which of the following nursing interventions are written correctly?
1. Question 19 of 75
19. Question
A client‘s wound is not healing and appears to be worsening with the current
treatment. The nurse first considers:
1. Question 20 of 75
20. Question
When calling the nurse consultant about a difficult client-centered problem, the
primary nurse is sure to report the following:
1. Question 21 of 75
21. Question
The primary nurse asked a clinical nurse specialist (CNS) to consult on a difficult
nursing problem. The primary nurse is obligated to:
1. Question 22 of 75
22. Question
After assessing the client, the nurse formulates the following diagnoses. Place
them in order of priority, with the most important (classified as high) listed first.
View Answers:
1. Question 23 of 75
23. Question
The nurse is reviewing the critical paths of the clients on the nursing unit. In
performing a variance analysis, which of the following would indicate the need
for further action and analysis?
1. Question 24 of 75
24. Question
The RN has received her client assignment for the day shift. After making the
initial rounds and assessing the clients, which client would the RN need to
develop a care plan first?
o D. A client who just had an appendectomy and has just received pain
medication.
Incorrect
1. Question 25 of 75
25. Question
Which of the following statements about the nursing process is most accurate?
o C. Use of the nursing process is optional for nurses since there are many ways
to accomplish the work of nursing.
1. Question 26 of 75
26. Question
o A. A cotton ball
o B. A penlight
o C. An ophthalmoscope
1. Question 27 of 75
27. Question
Which technique would be best in caring for a client following receiving a
diagnosis of a stage IV tumor in the brain?
o C. Reminding the client that advances in technology are occurring every day.
1. Question 28 of 75
28. Question
An 8.5 lb, 6 oz infant is delivered to a diabetic mother. Which nursing intervention
would be implemented when the neonate becomes jittery and lethargic?
o A. Administer insulin.
o B. Administer oxygen.
1. Question 29 of 75
29. Question
What question would be most important to ask a male client who is in for a
digital rectal examination?
o D. ―Do you notice any burning with urination or any odor to the urine?‖
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. “Have you noticed a change in the force of the urinary
system?”
This change would be most indicative of a potential complication with (BPH)
benign prostate hypertrophy. The goals of the evaluation of such men are to
identify the patient‘s voiding or, more appropriately, urinary tract problems, both
symptomatic and physiologic; to establish the etiologic role of BPH in these
problems.
1. Question 30 of 75
30. Question
The nurse assesses a prolonged late deceleration of the fetal heart rate while the
client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) IV to stimulate labor. The priority nursing
intervention would be to:
1. Question 31 of 75
31. Question
Which nursing approach would be most appropriate to use while administering
an oral medication to a 4-month-old?
1. Question 32 of 75
32. Question
Which nursing intervention would be a priority during the care of a 2-month-old
after surgery?
o D. Demonstrate to the mother how she can assist with her infant‘s care.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Encourage stroking of the infant.
Tactile stimulation is imperative for an infant‘s normal emotional development.
After the trauma of surgery, sensory deprivation can cause failure to thrive. Most
babies with FTT do not have a specific underlying disease or medical condition to
account for their growth failure. This is referred to as Non-organic FTT. Up to 80%
of all children with FTT have Non-organic type FTT. Non-organic FTT most
1. Question 33 of 75
33. Question
While performing a physical examination on a newborn, which assessment should
be reported to the physician?
1. Question 34 of 75
34. Question
Which action by the mother of a preschooler would indicate a disturbed family
interaction?
o A. Tells her child that if he does not sit down and shut up she will leave
him there.
o C. Tells her child that the injection can be given while he‘s in her lap.
1. Question 35 of 75
35. Question
During the history, which information from a 21-year-old client would indicate a
risk for development of testicular cancer?
o A. Genital Herpes
o B. Hydrocele
o C. Measles
o D. Undescended testicle
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Undescended testicle
Undescended testicles make the client at high risk for testicular cancer. Mumps,
inguinal hernia in childhood, orchitis, and testicular cancer in the contralateral
testis are other predisposing factors. The risk of testicular cancer might be a little
higher for men whose testicles stayed in the abdomen as opposed to one that
has descended at least partway. If cancer does develop, it‘s usually in the
1. Question 36 of 75
36. Question
While caring for a client, the nurse notes a pulsating mass in the client‘s
periumbilical area. Which of the following assessments is appropriate for the
nurse to perform?
1. Question 37 of 75
37. Question
When observing 4-year-old children playing in the hospital playroom, what
activity would the nurse expect to see the children participating in?
1. Question 38 of 75
38. Question
The nurse is teaching the parents of a 3 month-old infant about nutrition. What is
the main source of fluids for an infant until about 12 months of age?
o A. Formula or breastmilk
1. Question 39 of 75
39. Question
While the nurse is administering medications to a client, the client states ―I do not
want to take that medicine today.‖ Which of the following responses by the nurse
would be best?
o A. ―That‘s OK, it's alright to skip your medication now and then.‖
o C. “Is there a reason why you don’t want to take your medicine?”
1. Question 40 of 75
40. Question
The nurse is assessing a 4 month-old infant. Which motor skill would the nurse
anticipate finding?
o A. Hold a rattle
o D. Wave ―bye-bye‖
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Hold a rattle
The age at which a baby will develop the skill of grasping a toy with help is 4 to 6
months. The baby is becoming more dexterous and doing more with their hands.
Their hands now work together to move a toy or shake a rattle. In fact, those
1. Question 41 of 75
41. Question
The nurse should recognize that all of the following physical changes of the head
and face are associated with the aging client except:
o D. Neck wrinkles.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Decreased size of the nose and ears.
The nose and ears of the aging client actually become longer and broader. The
chin line is also altered. Height doesn‘t change after puberty (well, if anything we
get shorter as we age) but ears and noses are always lengthening. That‘s due to
gravity, not actual growth. As people age, gravity causes the cartilage in the ears
and nose to break down and sag. This results in droopier, longer features.
1. Question 42 of 75
42. Question
All of the following characteristics would indicate to the nurse that an elder client
might experience undesirable effects of medicines except:
1. Question 43 of 75
43. Question
When assessing a newborn whose mother consumed alcohol during the
pregnancy, the nurse would assess for which of these clinical manifestations?
1. Question 44 of 75
44. Question
Which of these statements, when made by the nurse, is most effective when
communicating with a 4-year-old?
1. Question 45 of 75
45. Question
A 64-year-old client scheduled for surgery with a general anesthetic refuses to
remove a set of dentures prior to leaving the unit for the operating room. What
would be the most appropriate intervention by the nurse?
o A. Explain to the client that the dentures must come out as they may get lost
or broken in the operating room.
o B. Ask the client if there are second thoughts about having the procedure.
o C. Notify the anesthesia department and the surgeon of the client‘s refusal.
1. Question 46 of 75
46. Question
The nurse is assessing a client who states her last menstrual period was March 17,
and she has missed one period. She reports episodes of nausea and vomiting.
Pregnancy is confirmed by a urine test. What will the nurse calculate as the
estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
o A. November 8
o B. May 15
o C. February 21
1. Question 47 of 75
47. Question
The family of a 6-year-old with a fractured femur asks the nurse if the child‘s
height will be affected by the injury. Which statement is true concerning long
bone fractures in children?
o D. Adequate blood supply to the bone prevents growth delay after fractures.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Epiphyseal fractures often interrupt a child’s normal
growth pattern.
Epiphyseal fractures often interrupt a child‘s normal growth pattern. Growth plate
fractures are classified based on which parts of the bone are damaged, in
addition to the growth plate. Areas of the bone immediately above and below
the growth plate may fracture. They are called the epiphysis (the tip of the bone)
and metaphysis (the ―neck‖ of the bone).
Option A: The most serious complication is early closure (complete or
partial) of the growth plate. Complete closure means the entire growth
plate of the affected bone has stopped expanding. This results in the
affected bone not growing as long as the opposite side.
Option C: The severity of and need for treatment of growth plate closures
depend on the location of the fracture and the age of the patient. Other
complications of growth plate fractures include delayed healing of the
bone, nonhealing, infection, and loss of blood flow to the area, causing
death of part of the bone.
Option D: Growth plate fractures are generally treated with splints or casts.
Sometimes, the bone may need to be put back in place to allow it to heal
in the correct position. This may be done before or after the cast is placed
and is called a closed reduction. The length of time the child needs to be in
a cast or splint depends on the location and severity of the fracture. The
child‘s age also matters: younger patients heal faster than older patients.
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1. Question 48 of 75
48. Question
A client is admitted to the hospital with a history of confusion. The client has
difficulty remembering recent events and becomes disoriented when away from
home. Which statement would provide the best reality orientation for this client?
1. Question 49 of 75
49. Question
When a client wishes to improve the appearance of their eyes by removing excess
skin from the face and neck, the nurse should provide teaching regarding which
of the following procedures?
o A. Dermabrasion
o B. Rhinoplasty
o C. Blepharoplasty
o D. Rhytidectomy
1. Question 50 of 75
50. Question
A woman who is six months pregnant is seen in antepartal clinic. She states she is
having trouble with constipation. To minimize this condition, the nurse should
instruct her to
1. Question 51 of 75
51. Question
A client with chronic pain reports to you, the charge nurse, that the nurse has not
been responding to requests for pain medication. What is your initial action?
o A. Check the MARs and nurses‘ notes for the past several days.
o D. Have a conference with the nurses responsible for the care of this
client.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Have a conference with the nurses responsible for the
care of this client.
As a charge nurse, you must assess the performance and attitude of the staff in
relation to this client. Handling conflicts in an efficient and effective manner
results in improved quality, patient safety, and staff morale, and limits work stress
for the caregiver. The nurse manager must approach this challenge thoughtfully
because it involves working relationships that are critical for the unit to function
effectively.
Option A: After gathering data from the nurses, additional information
from the records and the client can be obtained as necessary. Effective
resolution and management of a conflict require clear communication and
a level of understanding of the perceived areas of disagreement. Conflict
resolution is an essential element of a healthy work environment because a
breakdown in communication and collaboration can lead to increased
patient errors.
Option B: The educator may be of assistance if knowledge deficit or need
for performance improvement is the problem. The American Association of
Critical-Care Nurses standards for healthy work environments recognizes
the importance of proficiency in communication skills and The Joint
Commission‘s revised leadership standards place a mandate on healthcare
leadership to manage disruptive behavior that can impact patient safety.
Option C: Nursing leaders need to assess how nurses deal with conflict in
the healthcare environment in an effort to develop and implement conflict
management training and processes that can assist them in dealing with
difficult situations.
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1. Question 52 of 75
52. Question
o A. Sensory
o B. Sociocultural
o C. Behavioral
o D. Cognitive
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Sociocultural
The family is part of the socio-cultural dimension of pain. They are influencing the
client and should be included in the teaching sessions about the appropriate use
of narcotics and about the adverse effects of pain on the healing process. The
other dimensions should be included to help the client/family understand the
overall treatment plan and pain mechanism.
Option A: The sensory dimension encompasses both the quality and
severity of pain. It includes the patient‘s report of the location, quality, and
intensity of pain. Assessing this dimension helps quantify the pain and
clarify the extent of poorly localized or radiating pain.
Option C: The behavioral dimension of pain refers to the patient‘s verbal
or nonverbal behaviors exhibited in response to pain. To assess it, rely on
direct observation and continued patient interaction. Watch for common
behaviors associated with pain, such as guarding, splinting, tensing up,
crying, moaning, and massaging a specific body part.
Option D: The cognitive dimension refers to thoughts, beliefs, attitudes,
intentions, and motivations related to pain and its management. Before
assessing this dimension, evaluate the patient‘s cognitive capacity and
functioning. Review the medical history for diseases or conditions that may
impair cognition; if any exists, assess its current level of progression. In
some patients, pain can temporarily worsen pre-existing cognitive
limitations.
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1. Question 53 of 75
o A. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
o B. Corticosteroids
o C. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
o D. Lorazepam (Ativan)
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
Antidepressants such as amitriptyline can be given for diabetic neuropathy. The
American Diabetes Association recommends amitriptyline, a tricyclic
antidepressant, as the first choice; however, titration to higher doses is limited by
its anticholinergic adverse effects.
Option B: Corticosteroids are for pain associated with inflammation.
Corticosteroids produce their effect through multiple pathways. In general,
they produce anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects, protein
and carbohydrate metabolic effects, water and electrolyte effects, central
nervous system effects, and blood cell effects.
Option C: Methylphenidate is given to counteract sedation if the client is
on opioids. Methylphenidate is FDA-approved for the treatment of
attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in children and adults and
as a second-line treatment for narcolepsy in adults. Children with a
diagnosis of ADHD should be at least six years of age or older before being
started on this medication.
Option D: Lorazepam is an anxiolytic. Lorazepam has common use as the
sedative and anxiolytic of choice in the inpatient setting owing to its fast (1
to 3 minute) onset of action when administered intravenously. Lorazepam
is also one of the few sedative-hypnotics with a relatively clean side effect
profile.
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1. Question 54 of 75
o D. Give praise for the correct dose and time and discuss the deficits in
charting.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Give praise for the correct dose and time and discuss the
deficits in charting.
In supervising the new RN, good performance should be reinforced first and then
areas of improvement can be addressed. Nursing activities are very important
within the hospital and must solve the problems that the patient needs. Every
nursing activity should produce documentation with critical thinking. If nursing
documents are not clear and accurate, inter-professional communication and an
evaluation of nursing care cannot be optimal.
Option A: Making a note and watching do not help the nurse to correct
the immediate problem. Nursing activity that has been completed or that
will take place should be properly documented. Accurate documentation
and reports play a pivotal role in health services. This documentation is
necessary to identify nursing interventions that have been provided to
patients and to show patient progress during hospitalization.
Option B: In-service might be considered if the problem persists. Nursing
documentation also serves as an effective tool of inter-professional
communication between nurses and other health professionals for
delivering ongoing nursing care, evaluating patient progress and
outcomes, and providing constant patient protection. High-quality nursing
1. Question 56 of 75
56. Question
In caring for a young child with pain, which assessment tool is the most useful?
1. Question 57 of 75
57. Question
In applying the principles of pain treatment, what is the first consideration?
1. Question 58 of 75
58. Question
Which route of administration is preferred if immediate analgesia and rapid
titration are necessary?
o A. Intraspinal
o C. Intravenous (IV)
o D. Sublingual
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Intravenous (IV)
The IV route is preferred as the fastest and most amenable to titration.
Medications may be given as repeated intermittent bolus doses or by continuous
infusion. Intravenous provides almost immediate analgesia; subcutaneous may
require up to 15 minutes for effect. Bolus IV dosing provides a shorter duration of
action than other routes.
Option A: Intraspinal administration requires special catheter placement
and there are more potential complications with this route. Intraspinal and
intraventricular administration are options if maximal doses of opioids and
adjuvants administered through other routes are ineffective or produce
intolerable side effects {e.g., nausea/vomiting, excessive sedation,
confusion}. Opioids can be administered via indwelling percutaneous or
tunneled catheters into the epidural or intrathecal space.
Option B: A PCA bolus can be delivered; however, the pump will limit the
dosage that can be delivered unless the parameters are changed. Patient-
1. Question 59 of 75
59. Question
When titrating an analgesic to manage pain, what is the priority goal?
o A. Administer smallest dose that provides relief with the fewest side
effects.
o D. Ensure that the drug is adequate to meet the client‘s subjective needs.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Administer smallest dose that provides relief with the
fewest side effects.
The goal is to control pain while minimizing side effects. The World Health
Organization cancer pain ladder provides a helpful starting point for achieving
effective pain management. Clinicians should begin with nonopioid analgesics
(e.g., acetaminophen, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs [NSAIDs]), and
gradually progress to more potent analgesics until pain is relieved.
1. Question 60 of 75
60. Question
In educating clients about non-pharmaceutical alternatives, which topic could
you delegate to an experienced LPN/LVN, who will function under your
continued support and supervision?
o A. Therapeutic touch
o C. Meditation
1. Question 61 of 75
61. Question
Place the examples of drugs in the order of usage according to the World Health
Organization (WHO) analgesic ladder.
View Answers:
1. Question 62 of 75
62. Question
Which client is at greater risk for respiratory depression while receiving opioids
for analgesia?
1. Question 63 of 75
63. Question
A client appears upset and tearful, but denies pain and refuses pain medication,
because ―my sibling is a drug addict and has ruined our lives.‖ What is
the priority intervention for this client?
1. Question 64 of 75
64. Question
A client is being tapered off opioids and the nurse is watchful for signs of
withdrawal. What is one of the first signs of withdrawal?
o A. Fever
o B. Nausea
o C. Diaphoresis
o D. Abdominal cramps
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Diaphoresis
Diaphoresis is one of the early signs that occur between 6 and 12 hours. Fever,
nausea, and abdominal cramps are late signs that occur between 48 and 72
hours. According to Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM–
1. Question 65 of 75
65. Question
In caring for clients with pain and discomfort, which task is most appropriate to
delegate to the nursing assistant?
1. Question 66 of 75
66. Question
The physician has ordered a placebo for a chronic pain client. You are a newly
hired nurse and you feel very uncomfortable administering the medication. What
is the first action that you should take?
1. Question 67 of 75
67. Question
For a cognitively impaired client who cannot accurately report pain, what is
the first action that you should take?
o C. Look at the MAR and chart, to note the time of the last dose and response.
o D. Give the maximum PRS dose within the minimum time frame for relief.
1. Question 68 of 75
68. Question
Which route of administration is preferable for administration of daily analgesics
(if all body systems are functional)?
o A. IV
o B. IM or subcutaneous
o C. Oral
o D. Transdermal
o E. PCA
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Oral
If the gastrointestinal system is functioning, the oral route is preferred for routine
analgesics because of lower cost and ease of administration. Oral route is also
1. Question 69 of 75
69. Question
A first-day postoperative client on a PCA pump reports that the pain control is
inadequate. What is the first action you should take?
1. Question 70 of 75
70. Question
Which non-pharmacological measure is particularly useful for a client with acute
pancreatitis?
1. Question 71 of 75
71. Question
What is the best way to schedule medication for a client with constant pain?
o D. Around-the-clock
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Around-the-clock
If the pain is constant, the best schedule is around-the-clock, to provide steady
analgesia and pain control. The other options may actually require higher doses
1. Question 72 of 75
72. Question
Which client(s) are appropriate to assign to the LPN/LVN, who will function
under the supervision of the RN or team leader? Select all that apply.
o B. A client with a leg cast who needs neurologic checks and PRN
hydrocodone.
o D. A client with terminal cancer and severe pain who is refusing medication.
Incorrect
1. Question 73 of 75
73. Question
o B. Hematocrit 41%
o C. PT 14 seconds
o D. BUN 20 mg/dL
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. PT 14 seconds
When a client takes aspirin, monitor for increases in PT (normal range 11.0-12.5
seconds in 85%-100%). Also, monitor for possible decreases in potassium (normal
range 3.5-5.0 mEq/L). If bleeding signs are noted, hematocrit should be
monitored (normal range male 42%-52%, female 37%-47%). An elevated BUN
could be seen if the client is having chronic gastrointestinal bleeding (normal
range 10-20 mg/dL).
Option A: Severity is categorized as mild when the serum potassium level
is 3 to 3.4 mmol/L, moderate when the serum potassium level is 2.5 to 3
mmol/L, and severe when the serum potassium level is less than 2.5
mmol/L. Values obtained from plasma and serum may differ.
Option B: HCT calculation is by dividing the lengths of the packed RBC
layer by the length of total cells and plasma. As it is a ratio, it doesn‘t have
any unit. Multiplying the ratio by 100 gives the accurate value, which is the
accepted reporting style for HCT. A normal adult male shows an HCT of
40% to 54% and female shows 36% to 48%.
Option D: BUN and creatinine levels that are within the ranges established
by the laboratory performing the test suggest that the kidneys are
functioning as they should. Increased BUN and creatinine levels may mean
that the kidneys are not working as they should. This healthcare
practitioner will consider other factors, such as the medical history and
physical exam, to determine what condition, if any, may be affecting the
kidneys.
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1. Question 74 of 75
o A. An anxious, chronic pain client who frequently uses the call button.
o C. A client with HIV who reports headache and abdominal and pleuritic chest
pain.
1. Question 75 of 75
75. Question
A family member asks you, ―Why can‘t you give more medicine? He is still having
a lot of pain.‖ What is your best response?
o B. ―If the medication is given too frequently he could suffer ill effects.‖
o D. ―Let‘s wait about 30-40 minutes. If there is no relief I‘ll call the doctor.‖
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. “Please tell him that I will be right there to check on
him.”
Directly ask the client about the pain and do a complete pain assessment. This
information will determine which action to take next. Pain assessment is critical to
optimal pain management interventions. While pain is a highly subjective
experience, its management necessitates objective standards of care.
Option A: Poorly managing pain may put clinicians at risk for legal action.
Current standards for pain management, such as the national standards
outlined by the Joint Commission (formerly known as the Joint Commission
on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, JCAHO), require that pain is
promptly addressed and managed.
Option B: Continuous, unrelieved pain also affects the psychological state
of the patient and family members. Common psychological responses to
pain include anxiety and depression. The inability to escape from pain may
create a sense of helplessness and even hopelessness, which may
predispose the patient to more chronic depression.
Option D: Inadequately managed pain can lead to adverse physical and
psychological patient outcomes for individual patients and their families.
1. Question
The most important nursing intervention to correct skin dryness is:
A. Consult the dietitian about increasing the patient‘s fat intake, and take
necessary measures to prevent infection.
B. Ask the physician to refer the patient to a dermatologist, and suggest that
the patient wear home-laundered sleepwear.
D. Avoid bathing the patient until the condition is remedied, and notify the
physician.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Encourage the patient to increase his fluid intake, use
non-irritating soap when bathing the patient, and apply lotion to the
involved areas.
Dry skin will eventually crack, ranking the patient more prone to infection. To
prevent this, the nurse should provide adequate hydration through fluid intake,
use non irritating soaps or no soap when bathing the patient, and lubricate the
patient‘s skin with lotion. In most cases, dry skin responds well to lifestyle
measures, such as using moisturizers and avoiding long, hot showers and baths.
Moisturizers provide a seal over the skin to keep water from escaping. Apply
moisturizer several times a day and after bathing.
Option B: The attending physician and dietitian may be consulted for
treatment, but home-laundered items usually are not necessary. Natural
fibers, such as cotton and silk, allow the skin to breathe. But wool, although
2. Question
When bathing a patient‘s extremities, the nurse should use long, firm strokes
from the distal to the proximal areas. This technique:
3. Question
Vivid dreaming occurs in which stage of sleep?
A. Stage I non-REM
C. Stage II non-REM
D. Delta stage
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Rapid eye movement (REM) stage
Other characteristics of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep are deep sleep (the
patient cannot be awakened easily), depressed muscle tone, and possibly
irregular heart and respiratory rates. This is the stage associated with dreaming.
Interestingly, the EEG is similar to an awake individual, but the skeletal muscles
are atonic and without movement. The exception is the eye and diaphragmatic
breathing muscles, which remain active. The breathing rate is altered though,
being more erratic and irregular. This stage usually starts 90 minutes after falling
asleep, and each of the REM cycles gets longer throughout the night. The first
period typically lasts 10 minutes, and the final one can last up to an hour.
Option A: Non-REM sleep is a deep, restful sleep without dreaming. This is
the lightest stage of sleep and starts when more than 50% of the alpha
4. Question
The natural sedative in meat and milk products (especially warm milk) that can
help induce sleep is:
A. Flurazepam
B. Temazepam
C. Methotrimeprazine
D. Tryptophan
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Tryptophan
Tryptophan is a natural sedative; flurazepam (Dalmane), temazepam (Restoril),
and methotrimeprazine (Levoprome) are hypnotic sedatives. Protein foods such
as milk and milk products contain the sleep-inducing amino acid tryptophan.
5. Question
Nursing interventions that can help the patient to relax and sleep restfully include
all of the following except:
6. Question
Restraints can be used for all of the following purposes except to:
7. Question
Which of the following is the nurse‘s legal responsibility when applying
restraints?
8. Question
Kubler-Ross‘s five successive stages of death and dying are:
9. Question
A terminally ill patient usually experiences all of the following feelings during the
anger stage except:
A. Rage
B. Envy
D. Resentment
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Numbness
Numbness is typical of the depression stage, when the patient feels a great sense
of loss. Depression is perhaps the most immediately understandable of Kubler-
Ross‘s stages and patients experience it with unsurprising symptoms such as
sadness, fatigue, and anhedonia. Spending time in the first three stages is
potentially an unconscious effort to protect oneself from this emotional pain,
and, while the patient‘s actions may potentially be easier to understand, they may
be more jarring in juxtaposition to behaviors arising from the first three stages.
Option A: The anger stage includes such feelings as rage, envy,
resentment, and the patient‘s questioning ―Why me?‖ Anger, as Kubler-
Ross pointed out, is commonly experienced and expressed by patients as
they concede the reality of a terminal illness. It may be directed, as with
blame of medical providers for inadequately preventing the illness, of
family members for contributing to risks of not being sufficiently
supportive, or of spiritual providers or higher powers for the diagnosis‘
injustice.
Option B: Patients may feel sadness, anger, or confusion. They are
experiencing the pain of loss. The task is completed as the patient begins
to feel ―normal‖ again.
Option D: The anger may also be generalized and undirected, manifesting
as a shorter temper or a loss of patience. Recognizing anger as a natural
response can help health care providers and loved-ones to tolerate what
might otherwise feel like hurtful accusations, though they must take care
not to disregard criticism that may be warranted by attributing them solely
to an emotional stage.
10. Question
Nurses and other healthcare providers often have difficulty helping a terminally ill
patient through the necessary stages leading to acceptance of death. Which of
the following strategies is most helpful to the nurse in achieving this goal?
11. Question
Which of the following symptoms is the best indicator of imminent death?
12. Question
A nurse caring for a patient with an infectious disease who requires isolation
should refers to guidelines published by the:
13. Question
To institute appropriate isolation precautions, the nurse must first know the:
14. Question
Which is the correct procedure for collecting a sputum specimen for culture and
sensitivity testing?
A. Have the patient place the specimen in a container and enclose the
container in a plastic bag.
B. Have the patient expectorate the sputum while the nurse holds the
container.
15. Question
An autoclave is used to sterilize hospital supplies because:
16. Question
The best way to decrease the risk of transferring pathogens to a patient when
removing contaminated gloves is to:
C. Gently pull just below the cuff and invert the gloves when removing
them.
17. Question
After having an I.V. line in place for 72 hours, a patient complains of tenderness,
burning, and swelling. Assessment of the I.V. site reveals that it is warm and
erythematous. This usually indicates:
A. Infection
B. Infiltration
C. Phlebitis
D. Bleeding
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Phlebitis
Tenderness, warmth, swelling, and, in some instances, a burning sensation are
signs and symptoms of phlebitis. Superficial phlebitis affects veins on the skin
surface. The condition is rarely serious and, with proper care, usually resolves
rapidly. Sometimes people with superficial phlebitis also get deep vein
thrombophlebitis, so a medical evaluation is necessary.
Option A: Infection is less likely because no drainage or fever is present.
Call a health care provider if there are signs and symptoms of swelling,
pain, and inflamed superficial veins on the arms or legs. If the client is not
better in a week or two or if it gets any worse, he or she should get
reevaluated to make sure they don‘t have a more serious condition.
18. Question
To ensure homogenization when diluting powdered medication in a vial, the
nurse should:
19. Question
The nurse is teaching a patient to prepare a syringe with 40 units of U-100 NPH
insulin for self-injection. The patient‘s first priority concerning self-injection in
this situation is to:
C. Check the syringe to verify that the nurse has removed the prescribed
insulin dose.
20. Question
The physician‘s order reads ―Administer 1 g cefazolin sodium (Ancef) in 150 ml of
normal saline solution in 60 minutes.‖ What is the flow rate if the drop factor is 10
gtt = 1 ml?
A. 25 gtt/minute
B. 37 gtt/minute
C. 50 gtt/minute
D. 60 gtt/minute
21. Question
A patient must receive 50 units of Humulin regular insulin. The label reads 100
units = 1 ml. How many milliliters should the nurse administer?
A. 0.5 ml
B. 0.75 ml
C. 1 ml
D. 2 ml
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. 0.5 ml
There are 3 primary methods for calculation of medication dosages; Dimensional
Analysis, Ratio Proportion, and Formula or Desired Over Have Method. Desired
Over Have or Formula Method uses a formula or equation to solve for an
unknown quantity (x) much like ratio proportion.
22. Question
How should the nurse prepare an injection for a patient who takes both regular
and NPH insulin?
A. Draw up the NPH insulin, then the regular insulin, in the same syringe.
B. Draw up the regular insulin, then the NPH insulin, in the same
syringe.
23. Question
A patient has just received 30 mg of codeine by mouth for pain. Five minutes
later he vomits. What should the nurse do first?
24. Question
A patient is catheterized with a #16 indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter to
determine if:
25. Question
C. Telling the staff nurses that she is making changes to benefit their
performance.
26. Question
Nurse Clarisse is teaching a patient about a newly prescribed drug. What could
cause a geriatric patient to have difficulty retaining knowledge about prescribed
medications?
B. Sensory deficits
27. Question
When examining a patient with abdominal pain the nurse in charge should
assess:
28. Question
The nurse is assessing a postoperative adult patient. Which of the following
should the nurse document as subjective data?
A. Vital signs
29. Question
A male patient has a soft wrist-safety device. Which assessment finding should
the nurse consider abnormal?
30. Question
Which of the following planes divides the body longitudinally into anterior and
posterior regions?
A. Frontal plane
B. Sagittal plane
C. Midsagittal plane
D. Transverse plane
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Frontal plane
Frontal or coronal plane runs longitudinally at a right angle to a sagittal plane
dividing the body in anterior and posterior regions. The coronal plane or frontal
plane (vertical) divides the body into dorsal and ventral (back and front, or
posterior and anterior) portions. An anatomical plane is a hypothetical plane used
to transect the body, in order to describe the location of structures or the
direction of movements.
Option B: A sagittal plane runs longitudinally dividing the body into right
and left regions. The sagittal plane or lateral plane (longitudinal,
31. Question
A female patient with a terminal illness is in denial. Indicators of denial include:
A. Shock dismay
B. Numbness
C. Stoicism
D. Preparatory grief
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Shock dismay
Shock and dismay are early signs of denial-the first stage of grief. Denial is a
common defense mechanism used to protect oneself from the hardship of
considering an upsetting reality. Kubler-Ross noted that after the initial shock of
receiving a terminal diagnosis, patients would often reject the reality of the new
information. The other options are associated with depression—a later stage of
grief.
Option B: Depression is perhaps the most immediately understandable of
Kubler-Ross‘s stages and patients experience it with unsurprising
symptoms such as sadness, fatigue, and anhedonia.
Option C: Spending time in the first three stages is potentially an
unconscious effort to protect oneself from this emotional pain, and, while
the patient‘s actions may potentially be easier to understand, they may be
32. Question
The nurse in charge is transferring a patient from the bed to a chair. Which action
does the nurse take during this patient transfer?
2. 33. Question
o C. Writing out the instructions and having a family member read them to the
patient.
2. Question 34 of 75
34. Question
Before administering the evening dose of a prescribed medication, the nurse on
the evening shift finds an unlabeled, filled syringe in the patient‘s medication
drawer. What should the nurse in charge do?
o C. Use the syringe because it looks like it contains the same medication the
nurse was prepared to give.
2. Question 35 of 75
35. Question
When administering drug therapy to a male geriatric patient, the nurse must stay
especially alert for adverse effects. Which factor makes geriatric patients have
adverse drug effects?
2. Question 36 of 75
36. Question
A female patient is being discharged after cataract surgery. After providing
medication teaching, the nurse asks the patient to repeat the instructions. The
nurse is performing which professional role?
o B. Educator
o C. Caregiver
o D. Patient advocate
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Educator
When teaching a patient about medications before discharge, the nurse is acting
as an educator. They provide educational leadership to patients and care
providers to enhance specialized patient care within established healthcare
settings. Assists patients and caregivers with educational needs, problem
resolution, and health management across the continuum of care.
Option A: The nurse acts as a manager when performing such activities as
scheduling and making patient care assignments. Great nurse managers
are able to work in coordination with other departments. They must also
possess the ability to oversee an array of practice functions including staff
supervision, clinical tasks, and appointments. It is also part of their jobs to
liaise with pathology labs, suppliers, and other health facilities.
Option C: The nurse performs the caregiving role when providing direct
care, including bathing patients and administering medications and
prescribed treatments. Healthcare should address a patient‘s cultural,
spiritual and mental needs. Increasing diversity in a growing patient
population requires nurses to demonstrate cultural awareness and
sensitivity. Patients may have specific needs and preferences due to their
religion or gender, for example. Nurses need to be respectful of, and
knowledgeable about, diverse backgrounds while remaining vigilant in
providing quality care.
Option D: The nurse acts as a patient advocate when making the patient‘s
wishes known to the doctor. A nurse advocate is a nurse who works on
behalf of patients to maintain quality of care and protect patients‘ rights.
They intervene when there is a care concern, and following the proper
channels, work to resolve any patient care issues. Realistically, every nurse
is an advocate.
ADV
2. Question 37 of 75
o B. ―Read this manual and then ask me any questions you may have.‖
2. Question 38 of 75
38. Question
2. Question 39 of 75
39. Question
A patient is in the bathroom when the nurse enters to give a prescribed
medication. What should the nurse in charge do?
o C. Return shortly to the patient’s room and remain there until the
patient takes the medication.
o D. Wait for the patient to return to bed, and then leave the medication at the
bedside.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Return shortly to the patient’s room and remain there
until the patient takes the medication
The nurse should return shortly to the patient‘s room and remain there until the
patient takes the medication to verify that it was taken as directed. With the
growing reliance on medication therapy as the primary intervention for most
illnesses, patients receiving medication interventions are exposed to potential
harm as well as benefits. Benefits are effective management of the illness/disease,
slowed progression of the disease, and improved patient outcomes with few if
any errors. Harm from medications can arise from unintended consequences as
well as medication error (wrong medication, wrong time, wrong dose, etc.).
Option A: The nurse should never leave medication at the patient‘s
bedside unless specifically requested to do so.
Option B: With inadequate nursing education about patient safety and
quality, excessive workloads, staffing inadequacies, fatigue, illegible
provider handwriting, flawed dispensing systems, and problems with the
labeling of drugs, nurses are continually challenged to ensure that their
patients receive the right medication at the right time.
Option D: Examples of errors that can be initiated at the transcribing,
dispensing, and delivering stages include failure to transcribe the order,
incorrectly filling the order, and failure to deliver the correct medication for
the correct patient.
ADV
2. Question 40 of 75
40. Question
The physician orders heparin, 7,500 units, to be administered subcutaneously
every 6 hours. The vial reads 10,000 units per milliliter. The nurse should
anticipate giving how much heparin for each dose?
o B. ½ ml
o C. ¾ ml
o D. 1 ¼ ml
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. ¾ ml
The nurse solves the problem as follows:
10,000 units/7,500 units = 1 ml/X
10,000 X = 7,500
X= 7,500/10,000 or ¾ ml
Option A: There are 3 primary methods for the calculation of medication
dosages, as referenced above. These include Desired Over Have Method or
Formula, Dimensional Analysis and Ratio and Proportion.
Option B: Desired over Have or Formula Method is a formula or equation
to solve for an unknown quantity (x) much like ratio proportion. Drug
calculations require the use of conversion factors, such as when converting
from pounds to kilograms or liters to milliliters. Simplistic in design, this
method allows us to work with various units of measurement, converting
factors to find our answer. Useful in checking the accuracy of the other
methods of calculation as above mentioned, thus acting as a double or
triple check.
Option D: The Ratio and Proportion Method has been around for years
and is one of the oldest methods utilized in drug calculations (as cited in
Boyer, 2002)[Lindow, 2004]. Addition principals is a problem-solving
technique that has no bearing on this relationship, only multiplication, and
division are used to navigate through a ratio and proportion problem, not
adding.
ADV
2. Question 41 of 75
41. Question
The nurse in charge measures a patient‘s temperature at 102 degrees F. what is
the equivalent Centigrade temperature?
o B. 47 degrees C
o C. 38.9 degrees C
o D. 40.1 degrees C
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. 38.9 degrees C
To convert Fahrenheit degrees to centigrade, use this formula:
C degrees = (F degrees – 32) x 5/9
C degrees = (102 – 32) 5/9
+ 70 x 5/9
38.9 degrees C
Option A: Fahrenheit and Celsius both use different temperatures for the
freezing and boiling points of water, and also use differently sized degrees.
Water freezes at 0 degrees Celsius, and boils at 100 degrees C, while in
Fahrenheit, water freezes at 32 degrees F and boils at 212 degrees F.
Option B: Use the relationship in degree size to convert between Celsius
and Fahrenheit. Because Celsius degrees are larger than those in
Fahrenheit, to convert from Celsius to Fahrenheit, multiply the Celsius
temperature by 1.8, then add 32.
Option D: The Fahrenheit and Celsius scales are the two most common
temperature scales. However, the two scales use different measurements
for the freezing and boiling points of water, and also use different sized
degrees.
ADV
2. Question 42 of 75
42. Question
To evaluate a patient for hypoxia, the physician is most likely to order which
laboratory test?
o B. Sputum culture
o C. Total hemoglobin
2. Question 43 of 75
43. Question
The nurse uses a stethoscope to auscultate a male patient‘s chest. Which
statement about a stethoscope with a bell and diaphragm is true?
2. Question 44 of 75
44. Question
A male patient is to be discharged with a prescription for an analgesic that is a
controlled substance. During discharge teaching, the nurse should explain that
the patient must fill this prescription how soon after the date on which it was
written?
o A. Within 1 month
o B. Within 3 months
o C. Within 6 months
o D. Within 12 months
Incorrect
2. Question 45 of 75
45. Question
Which human element considered by the nurse in charge during assessment can
affect drug administration?
2. Question 46 of 75
46. Question
An employer establishes a physical exercise area in the workplace and
encourages all employees to use it. This is an example of which level of health
promotion?
o A. Primary prevention
o C. Tertiary prevention
o D. Passive prevention
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Primary prevention
Primary prevention precedes disease and applies to healthy patients. Primary
prevention includes those preventive measures that come before the onset of
illness or injury and before the disease process begins. Examples include
immunization and taking regular exercise to prevent health problems from
developing in the future.
Option B: Secondary prevention focuses on patients who have health
problems and are at risk for developing complications. Secondary
prevention includes those preventive measures that lead to early diagnosis
and prompt treatment of a disease, illness, or injury. This should limit
disability, impairment or dependency and prevent more severe health
problems from developing in the future.
Option C: Tertiary prevention enables patients to gain health from others‘
activities without doing anything themselves. Tertiary prevention includes
those preventive measures aimed at rehabilitation following a significant
illness. At this level, health educators work to retrain, re-educate and
rehabilitate the individual who has already had an impairment or disability.
Option D: Prevention, as it relates to health, is really about avoiding
disease before it starts. It has been defined as the plans for, and the
measures taken, to prevent the onset of a disease or other health problem
before the occurrence of the undesirable health event.
ADV
2. Question 47 of 75
47. Question
What does the nurse in charge do when making a surgical bed?
o D. Tucks the top sheet and blanket under the bottom of the bed.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Leaves the bed in the high position when finished.
When making a surgical bed, the nurse leaves the bed in a high position when
finished. After placing the top linens on the bed without pouching them, the
nurse fan folds these linens to the side opposite from where the patient will enter
and places the pillow on the bedside chair. All these actions promote transfer of
the postoperative patient from the stretcher to the bed.
Option B: When making an occupied bed or unoccupied bed, the nurse
places the pillow at the head of the bed and tucks the top sheet and
blanket under the bottom of the bed.
Option C: When making an occupied bed, the nurse rolls the patient to the
far side of the bed. Bed Making is a key nursing skill that is essential for the
promotion of patient comfort, hygiene, and wellbeing. Bed Making
requires technical and practical skills and consideration should be given to
issues of safety, moving and handling and infection control practices.
Option D: The blanket is placed at the center of the bed with its top 20cms
approximately from the top of the mattress. The top sheet is folded back
over the blanket. The blanket is folded under the foot of the mattress.
Make a square corner & tuck in along sides.
ADV
2. Question 48 of 75
48. Question
The physician prescribes 250 mg of a drug. The drug vial reads 500 mg/ml. How
much of the drug should the nurse give?
o A. 2 ml
o B. 1 ml
o C. ½ ml
o D. ¼ ml
Incorrect
2. Question 49 of 75
49. Question
Nurse Mackey is monitoring a patient for adverse reactions during barbiturate
therapy. What is the major disadvantage of barbiturate use?
o A. Prolonged half-life
o B. Poor absorption
2. Question 50 of 75
50. Question
Which nursing action is essential when providing continuous enteral feeding?
2. Question 51 of 75
51. Question
When teaching a female patient how to take a sublingual tablet, the nurse should
instruct the patient to place the table on the:
2. Question 52 of 75
52. Question
Which action by the nurse in charge is essential when cleaning the area around a
Jackson-Pratt wound drain?
2. Question 53 of 75
53. Question
The doctor orders dextrose 5% in water, 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours. The
I.V. tubing delivers 15 drops per milliliter. The nurse in charge should run the I.V.
infusion at a rate of:
2. Question 54 of 75
54. Question
A female patient undergoes a total abdominal hysterectomy. When assessing the
patient 10 hours later, the nurse identifies which finding as an early sign of
shock?
o A. Restlessness
2. Question 55 of 75
55. Question
Which pulse should the nurse palpate during rapid assessment of an unconscious
male adult?
o A. Radial
o B. Brachial
o C. Femoral
o D. Carotid
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Carotid
During a rapid assessment, the nurse‘s first priority is to check the patient‘s vital
functions by assessing his airway, breathing, and circulation. To check a patient‘s
circulation, the nurse must assess his heart and vascular network function. This is
done by checking his skin color, temperature, mental status and, most
importantly, his pulse. The nurse should use the carotid artery to check a patient‘s
circulation.
2. Question 56 of 75
56. Question
Clients should be taught that repeatedly ignoring the sensation of needing to
defecate could result in which of the following?
o A. Constipation
o B. Diarrhea
o C. Incontinence
o D. Hemorrhoids
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Constipation
Habitually ignoring the urge to defecate can lead to constipation through loss of
the natural urge and the accumulation of feces. Functional constipation is a
prevalent condition in childhood, about 29.6% worldwide. In the United States, it
represents 3% to 5% of pediatric visits and a considerable annual health care
2. Question 57 of 75
57. Question
Which statement provides evidence that an older adult who is prone to
constipation is in need of further teaching?
o A. "I need to drink one and a half to 2 quarts of liquid each day."
2. Question 58 of 75
58. Question
A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. The nurse will provide information to the
client about which type of enema?
o A. Oil retention
2. Question 59 of 75
59. Question
o B. The skin under the appliance looks red briefly after removing the
appliance.
2. Question 60 of 75
60. Question
Which goal is the most appropriate for clients with diarrhea related to ingestion
of an antibiotic for an upper respiratory infection?
o A. The client will wear a medical alert bracelet for antibiotic allergy.
o B. The client will return to his or her previous fecal elimination pattern.
o D. The client will increase intake of insoluble fiber such as grains, rice, and
cereals.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. The client will return to his or her previous fecal
elimination pattern.
Once the cause of diarrhea has been identified and corrected, the client returns
to his or her previous elimination pattern. Diarrhea is a common adverse effect of
antibiotic treatments. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea occurs in about 5-30% of
patients either early during antibiotic therapy or up to two months after the end
of the treatment. The frequency of antibiotic-associated diarrhea depends on the
definition of diarrhea, the inciting antimicrobial agents, and host factors.
Option A: This is not an example of an allergy to the antibiotic but a
common consequence of overgrowth of bowel organisms not killed by the
drug. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea results from disruption of the normal
microflora of the gut by antibiotics. This microflora, composed of 1011
bacteria per gram of intestinal content, forms a stable ecosystem that
permits the elimination of exogenous organisms. Antibiotics disturb the
composition and the function of this flora and enable the overgrowth of
micro-organisms that induce diarrhea.
Option C: Antidiarrheal medications are usually prescribed according to
the number of stools, not routinely around the clock. Managing diarrhea
depends on the clinical presentation and the inciting agent. In mild to
2. Question 61 of 75
61. Question
A client with a new stoma who has not had a bowel movement since surgery last
week reports feeling nauseous. What is the appropriate nursing action?
o B. After assessing the stoma and surrounding skin, notify the surgeon.
2. Question 62 of 75
62. Question
The nurse assesses a client‘s abdomen several days after abdominal surgery. It is
firm, distended, and painful to palpate. The client reports feeling ―bloated‖ . The
nurse consults with the surgeon, who orders an enema. The nurse prepares to
give what kind of enema?
o A. Soapsuds
o B. Retention
o C. Return flow
o D. Oil retention
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Return flow
This provides relief of postoperative flatus, stimulating bowel motility. Options
one, two, and four manage constipation and do not provide flatus relief. A
return-flow enema, or Harris flush, is used to remove intestinal gas and stimulate
2. Question 63 of 75
63. Question
Which of the following is most likely to validate that a client is experiencing
intestinal bleeding?
2. Question 64 of 75
64. Question
Which nursing diagnosis is/are most applicable to a client with fecal
incontinence? Select all that apply.
o A. Bowel incontinence
o D. Social isolation
2. Question 65 of 75
65. Question
A nurse determines that a fracture bedpan should be used for the patient who:
o B. Is on bedrest
o C. Has dementia
o D. Is obese
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Has a spinal cord injury
A fracture bedpan has a low back that promotes function of the patient‘s lower
back while on the bedpan. The fracture pan has one flat end for ease of use with
specific patient populations: i.e. hip fractures, hip replacements, or lower
extremity fractures. Using the toilet may be a source of discomfort and
embarrassment among all genders. Semi-private rooms or shared wards and
hospital overcrowding are a challenge regarding patient privacy.
Option B: Bedpans come in regular size or a smaller, fracture pan. Bedpans
are chosen based on diagnosis, patient comfort or preference and if any
contraindications exist for using the regular size such as a fracture. The
regular bedpan is larger than its fracture counterpart. Bariatric bedpans are
available up to a 1200-pound (544-kg) capacity.
Option C: A patient that can assist with care by raising their hips is
approached differently than a patient that cannot lift their hips due to
surgical considerations, fractures, or other contraindications. In both cases,
ensure the patient is pulled up as high as they can be on the stretcher or
bed. If they can assist with raising their hips, then raise the head of the bed
at least thirty degrees.
Option D: Positioning in this Semi-Fowler‘s position allows for anatomical
support and facilitates ease of defecation or urination by assuming a
natural position for these bodily functions. According to a 2003 study,
body positioning has a significant influence on intestinal gas propulsion
and transit times with gastric flow being faster in the upright position than
when supine [Dainese, Serra, Azpiroz & Malagelada, 2003].
ADV
2. Question 66 of 75
66. Question
o B. White rice
o C. Pasta
o D. Kale
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Kale
Kale is an excellent source of dietary fiber. A serving of 3 1/2 ounces of kale
contains 6.6 g of dietary fiber. Fiber is a very important component of our diet
and comes from plant-based food sources (fruits, vegetables, legumes and whole
grains). Different food sources contain different types of fiber and resistant
starches and the side effects depend on the individual‘s microbiome (gut
bacteria). Instead of avoiding fiber altogether, you may want to identify the
certain types of food that cause the distress.
Option A: One slice of whole wheat bread contains only 1.5 g of dietary
fiber. Whole wheat bread is made from flour that contains the entire wheat
kernel, including the bran and germ. It‘s here that wheat packs the most
nutrients, such as fiber, B vitamins, iron, folate, potassium, and magnesium.
Leaving the wheat kernel intact makes for a less processed, more nutritious
bread.
Option B: A serving of a 1/2 cup of white rice contains only 0.8 g of dietary
fiber. White rice is mostly a source of ―empty‖ calories and carbs with very
few essential nutrients. 100 grams (3.5 ounces) of cooked brown rice
provide 1.8 grams of fiber, whereas 100 grams of white provide only 0.4
grams of fiber (1, 2). Bottom Line: Brown rice is much higher in nutrients
than white rice.
Option C: A serving of 3 1/2 ounces of cooked pasta contains only 1.6 g of
dietary fiber. Whole-wheat pasta is usually made from whole-wheat durum
semolina, or flour made from the whole grain rather than the striped grain.
For about 175 calories, a 1-cup serving of cooked whole-wheat spaghetti
delivers 6.3 grams of fiber, or 25 percent of the daily value.
2. Question 67 of 75
67. Question
Which statement by a patient with an ileostomy alerts the nurse to the need for
further education?
o B. "I will have to take special precaution to protect my skin around the
stoma."
o D. "I should avoid gas forming foods like beans to limit funny noises from the
stoma."
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. “I’m going to have to irrigate my stoma so I have a bowel
movement every morning”
This statement is inaccurate in relation to an ileostomy and indicates that the
patient needs more teaching. An ileostomy produces liquid fecal drainage that is
constant and cannot be regulated. An ileostomy is when the lumen of the ileum
(small bowel) is brought through the abdominal wall via a surgical opening
(created by an operation). This can either be temporary or permanent, an end or
a loop. The purpose of an ileostomy is to evacuate stool from the body via the
ileum rather than the usual route of the anus.
Option A: The odor from drainage is minimal because fewer bacteria are
present in the ileum compared with the large intestine. There are different
indications for forming an ileostomy but essentially arrive at the same
result of diverting stool out of the body without it ever entering the colon.
Option B: An ileostomy is an opening into the ileum (distal small intestine
from the jejunum to the cecum). Cleansing the skin, skin barriers, and a
well fitted appliance are precautions to protect the skin around the
ileostomy stoma. The drainage from ileostomy contains enzymes that can
damage the skin.
Option D: An ileostomy stoma does not have a sphincter that can control
the flow of flatus or drainage, resulting in noise. The output from an
2. Question 68 of 75
68. Question
A practitioner orders a return flow enema (Harris flush drip) for an adult patient
with flatulence. When preparing to administer this enema the nurse compares the
steps of a return flow enema with cleansing enemas. What should the nurse do
that is unique to a return flow enema?
2. Question 69 of 75
69. Question
A nurse discourages a patient from straining excessively when attempting to have
a bowel movement. What physiological response primarily may be prevented by
avoiding straining on defecation?
o A. Incontinence
o B. Dysrhythmias
o C. Fecal impaction
o D. Rectal hemorrhoids
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Dysrhythmias
Straining on defecation requires the person to hold the breath while bearing
down. This maneuver increases the intrathoracic and intracranial pressures, which
can precipitate dysrhythmias, brain attack, and respiratory difficulties; all of these
can be life threatening. Strain at stool causes blood pressure rise, which can
trigger cardiovascular events such as congestive heart failure, arrhythmia, acute
coronary disease, and aortic dissection.
Option A: The loss of the voluntary ability to control the passage of fecal
or gaseous discharges through the anus is caused by impaired functioning
of the anal sphincter or its nerve supply, not straining on defecation. Fecal
incontinence is the inability to control bowel movements, causing stool
(feces) to leak unexpectedly from the rectum. Also called bowel
2. Question 70 of 75
70. Question
A nurse is caring for a client who will perform fecal occult blood testing at home.
Which of the following information should the nurse include when explaining the
procedure to the client?
2. Question 71 of 75
71. Question
A nurse is talking with a client who reports constipation. When the nurse
discusses dietary changes that can help prevent constipation, which of the
following foods should the nurse recommend?
2. Question 72 of 75
72. Question
A nurse is caring for a client who has diarrhea for the past four days. When
assessing a client, the nurse should expect which of the following findings? Select
all that apply.
o A. Bradycardia
o B. Hypotension
o E. Peripheral edema
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B, C, and D
Diarrhea is described as three or more loose or watery stools a day. Infection
commonly causes acute diarrhea. Noninfectious etiologies are more common as
the duration of diarrhea becomes chronic. Treatment and management are based
on the duration and specific etiology. Rehydration therapy is an important aspect
of the management of any patient with diarrhea. Prevention of infectious diarrhea
includes proper handwashing to prevent the spread of infection.
Option A: Prolonged diarrhea is more likely to cause tachycardia than
bradycardia. Diarrhea is the result of reduced water absorption by the
bowel or increased water secretion. A majority of acute diarrheal cases are
due to infectious etiology. Chronic diarrhea is commonly categorized into
three groups; watery, fatty (malabsorption), or infectious.
Option B: Prolonged diarrhea leads to dehydration, which causes a
decrease in blood pressure. In bacterial and viral diarrhea, the watery stool
is the result of injury to the gut epithelium. Epithelial cells line the intestinal
tract and facilitate the absorption of water, electrolytes, and other solutes.
Infectious etiologies cause damage to the epithelial cells which leads to
increased intestinal permeability. The damaged epithelial cells are unable
to absorb water from the intestinal lumen leading to loose stool.
Option C: Prolonged diarrhea leads to dehydration, which causes fever.
History should include the duration of symptoms, accompanying
symptoms, travel history, and exposures to medications and food. It is
important to ask about the stool frequency, type, volume, and presence of
blood or mucus. Patients with diarrhea may also complain of abdominal
pain or cramping, vomit, bloating, flatulence, fever, and bloody or mucoid
stools.
Option D: Prolonged diarrhea is more likely to cause a fluid deficit. An
important aspect of diarrhea management is replenishing fluid and
electrolyte loss. Patients should be encouraged to drink diluted fruit juice,
Pedialyte or Gatorade. In more severe cases of diarrhea, IV fluid
rehydration may become necessary.
2. Question 73 of 75
73. Question
A nurse is preparing to administer a cleansing enema to an adult client in
preparation for a diagnostic procedure. Which of the following are appropriate
steps for the nurse to take? Select all that apply.
o B. Position the client on the left side with the right leg flexed forward.
2. Question 74 of 75
74. Question
While a nurse is administering a cleansing enema, the client reports abdominal
cramping. Which of the following is the appropriate intervention?
2. Question 75 of 75
75. Question
A client with chronic pulmonary disease has a bluish tinge around the lips. The
nurse charts which term to most accurately describe the client‘s condition?
o A. Hypoxia
o B. Hypoxemia
o C. Dyspnea
o D. Cyanosis
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Cyanosis
1. Question
Which intervention is an example of primary prevention?
Question 2 of 75
2. Question
The nurse in charge is assessing a patient‘s abdomen. Which examination
technique should the nurse use first?
A. Auscultation
B. Inspection
C. Percussion
D. Palpation
3. Question
Which statement regarding heart sounds is correct?
4. Question
The nurse in charge identifies a patient‘s responses to actual or potential health
problems during which step of the nursing process?
A. Assessment
B. Nursing diagnosis
C. Planning
5. Question
A female patient is receiving furosemide (Lasix), 40 mg P.O. b.i.D. in the plan of
care, the nurse should emphasize teaching the patient about the importance of
consuming:
D. Creamed corn
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Bananas and oranges
Because furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, the nurse should plan to
teach the patient to increase intake of potassium-rich foods, such as bananas and
oranges. Potassium is a mineral in the cells. It helps the nerves and muscles work
as they should. The right balance of potassium also keeps the heart beating at a
steady rate. Fresh, green vegetables; lean red meat; and creamed corn are not
good sources of potassium.
Option A: GLVs are considered as natural caches of nutrients for human
beings as they are a rich source of vitamins, such as ascorbic acid, folic
acid, tocopherols, ?-carotene, and riboflavin, as well as minerals such as
iron, calcium, and phosphorous.
Option C: Lean red meat is an excellent source of high biological value
protein, vitamin B12, niacin, vitamin B6, iron, zinc, and phosphorus. It is a
source of long?chain omega?3 polyunsaturated fats, riboflavin, pantothenic
acid, selenium, and, possibly, also vitamin D. It is also relatively low in fat
and sodium.
Option D: Corn has several health benefits. Because of the high fiber
content, it can aid with digestion. It also contains valuable B vitamins,
which are important to your overall health. Corn also provides our bodies
with essential minerals such as zinc, magnesium, copper, iron, and
manganese.
6. Question
The nurse in charge must monitor a patient receiving chloramphenicol for
adverse drug reaction. What is the most toxic reaction to chloramphenicol?
A. Lethal arrhythmias
B. Malignant hypertension
C. Status epilepticus
7. Question
A female patient is diagnosed with deep-vein thrombosis. Which nursing
diagnosis should receive highest priority at this time?
8. Question
When positioned properly, the tip of a central venous catheter should lie in the:
C. Jugular vein
D. Subclavian vein
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Superior vena cava
When the central venous catheter is positioned correctly, its tip lies in the
superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, or the right atrium—that is, in central
venous circulation. Blood flows unimpeded around the tip, allowing the rapid
infusion of large amounts of fluid directly into circulation. The basilica, jugular,
and subclavian veins are common insertion sites for central venous catheters.
Option B: There are three main access sites for the placement of central
venous catheters. The internal jugular vein, common femoral vein, and
subclavian veins are the preferred sites for temporary central venous
catheter placement. Additionally, for mid-term and long-term central
venous access, the basilic and brachial veins are utilized for peripherally
inserted central catheters (PICCs).
Option C: The internal jugular vein (IJ) is often chosen for its reliable
anatomy, accessibility, low complication rates, and the ability to employ
ultrasound guidance during the procedure. The individual clinical scenario
may dictate laterality in some cases (such as with trauma, head and neck
cancer, or the presence of other invasive devices or catheters), but all
things being equal, many physicians prefer the right IJ. As compared to the
left, the right IJ forms a more direct path to the superior vena cava (SVC)
and right atrium. It is also wider in diameter and more superficial, thus
presumably easier to cannulated.
Option D: The subclavian vein site has the advantage of low rates of both
infectious and thrombotic complications. Additionally, the SC site is
accessible in trauma, when a cervical collar negates the choice of the IJ.
However, disadvantages include a higher relative risk of pneumothorax,
less accessibility to use ultrasound for CVC placement, and the non-
compressible location posterior to the clavicle.
9. Question
Nurse Nikki is revising a client‘s care plan. During which step of the nursing
process does such revision take place?
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Evaluation
During the evaluation step of the nursing process, the nurse determines whether
the goals established in the care plan have been achieved, and evaluates the
success of the plan. If a goal is unmet or partially met the nurse reexamines the
data and revises the plan. This final step of the nursing process is vital to a
positive patient outcome. Whenever a healthcare provider intervenes or
implements care, they must reassess or evaluate to ensure the desired outcome
has been met. Reassessment may frequently be needed depending upon overall
patient condition. The plan of care may be adapted based on new assessment
data. Assessment involves data collection. Planning involves setting priorities,
establishing goals, and selecting appropriate interventions.
Option A: Assessment is the first step and involves critical thinking skills
and data collection; subjective and objective. Subjective data involves
verbal statements from the patient or caregiver. Objective data is
measurable, tangible data such as vital signs, intake and output, and height
and weight.
Option B: The planning stage is where goals and outcomes are formulated
that directly impact patient care based on EDP guidelines. These patient-
specific goals and the attainment of such assist in ensuring a positive
outcome. Nursing care plans are essential in this phase of goal setting.
Care plans provide a course of direction for personalized care tailored to
an individual‘s unique needs. Overall condition and comorbid conditions
play a role in the construction of a care plan. Care plans enhance
communication, documentation, reimbursement, and continuity of care
across the healthcare continuum.
Option C: Implementation is the step that involves action or doing and the
actual carrying out of nursing interventions outlined in the plan of care.
This phase requires nursing interventions such as applying a cardiac
monitor or oxygen, direct or indirect care, medication administration,
standard treatment protocols, and EDP standards.
B. ―Wound healing is very individual but within 4 months the scar should
fade.
C. “With your history and the type of location of the injury, it’s hard to
say.”
D. ―If you don‘t develop an infection, the wound should heal any time
between 1 and 3 years from now.‖
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. “With your history and the type of location of the injury,
it’s hard to say.”
Wound healing in a client with diabetes will be delayed. Providing the client with
a time frame could give the client false information. There is no doubt that
diabetes plays a detrimental role in wound healing. It does so by affecting the
wound healing process at multiple steps. Wound hypoxia, through a combination
of impaired angiogenesis, inadequate tissue perfusion, and pressure-related
ischemia, is a major driver of chronic diabetic wounds.
Option A: Ischemia can lead to prolonged inflammation, which increases
the levels of oxygen radicals, leading to further tissue injury. Elevated levels
of matrix metalloproteases in chronic diabetic wounds, sometimes up to
50-100 times higher than acute wounds, cause tissue destruction and
prevent normal repair processes from taking place. Furthermore, diabetes
is associated with impaired immunity, with critical defects occurring at
multiple points within the immune system cascade of the wound healing
process.
Option B: To further complicate matters, these wounds have defects in
angiogenesis and neovascularization. Normally, wound hypoxia stimulates
mobilization of endothelial progenitor cells via vascular endothelial growth
factor (VEGF). In diabetic wounds, there are aberrant levels of VEGF and
11. Question
One aspect of implementation related to drug therapy is:
12. Question
A female client is readmitted to the facility with a warm, tender, reddened area on
her right calf. Which contributing factor would the nurse recognize
as most important?
D. A history of diabetes.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Recent pelvic surgery
The client shows signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The pelvic area is rich in
blood supply, and thrombophlebitis of the deep vein is associated with pelvic
surgery. Thrombosis is a protective mechanism that prevents the loss of blood
and seals off damaged blood vessels. Fibrinolysis counteracts or stabilizes the
thrombosis. The triggers of venous thrombosis are frequently multifactorial, with
the different parts of the triad of Virchow contributing in varying degrees in each
patient, but all result in early thrombus interaction with the endothelium. This
then stimulates local cytokine production and causes leukocyte adhesion to the
endothelium, both of which promote venous thrombosis.
Option A: Aspirin, an antiplatelet agent, and an active walking program
help decrease the client‘s risk of DVT. The use of thrombolytic therapy can
result in an intracranial bleed, and hence, careful patient selection is vital.
Recently endovascular interventions like catheter-directed extraction,
13. Question
Which intervention should the nurse in charge try first for a client that exhibits
signs of sleep disturbance?
B. Ask the client each morning to describe the quantity of sleep during the
previous night.
D. Provide the client with normal sleep aids, such as pillows, back rubs,
and snacks.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Provide the client with normal sleep aids, such as pillows,
back rubs, and snacks
The nurse should begin with the simplest interventions, such as pillows or snacks,
before interventions that require greater skill such as relaxation techniques. Sleep
is a complex biological process. It is a reversible state of unconsciousness in
which there are reduced metabolism and motor activity. Sleep disorders are a
group of conditions that disturb the normal sleep patterns of a person. Sleep
14. Question
While examining a client‘s leg, the nurse notes an open ulceration with visible
granulation tissue in the wound. Until a wound specialist can be contacted, which
type of dressings is most appropriate for the nurse in charge to apply?
D. Povidone-iodine-soaked gauze
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Moist, sterile saline gauze
Moist, sterile saline dressings support would heal and are cost-effective. If the
wound is infected and there are a lot of sloughs, which cannot be mechanically
15. Question
A male client in a behavioral-health facility receives a 30-minute psychotherapy
session, and the provider uses a current procedure terminology (CPT) code that
bills for a 50-minute session. Under the False Claims Act, such illegal behavior is
known as:
A. Unbundling
B. Overbilling
C. Upcoding
D. Misrepresentation
16. Question
A nurse assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes
mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he‘s impotent
and says that he‘s concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this
client‘s care, the most appropriate intervention would be to:
2. 17. Question
Using Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs, a nurse assigns highest priority to which
client need?
o A. Security
o B. Elimination
o C. Safety
o D. Belonging
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Elimination
According to Maslow, elimination is a first-level or physiological need and therefore takes
priority over all other needs. In 1943, Abraham Maslow developed a hierarchy based on basic
18. Question
A male client on prolonged bed rest has developed a pressure ulcer. The wound shows no signs
of healing even though the client has received skin care and has been turned every 2 hours.
Which factor is most likely responsible for the failure to heal?
2. Question 19 of 75
19. Question
A female client who received general anesthesia returns from surgery. Postoperatively, which
nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for this client?
o B. Deficient fluid volume related to blood and fluid loss from surgery.
2. Question 20 of 75
20. Question
The nurse inspects a client’s back and notices small hemorrhagic spots. The nurse documents
that the client has:
o A. Extravasation
o B. Osteomalacia
o C. Petechiae
o D. Uremia
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Petechiae
Petechiae are small hemorrhagic spots. Petechiae are tiny purple, red, or brown spots on the skin.
They usually appear on the arms, legs, stomach, and buttocks. They can also be found inside the
mouth or on the eyelids. These pinpoint spots can be a sign of many different conditions — some
minor, others serious. They can also appear as a reaction to certain medications.
Option A: Extravasation is the leakage of fluid in the interstitial space. Extravasation is
the leakage of a fluid out of its container into the surrounding area, especially blood or
blood cells from vessels. In the case of inflammation, it refers to the movement of white
blood cells from the capillaries to the tissues surrounding them (leukocyte extravasation,
also known as diapedesis).
Option B: Osteomalacia is the softening of bone tissue. Osteomalacia refers to a marked
softening of the bones, most often caused by severe vitamin D deficiency. The softened
bones of children and young adults with osteomalacia can lead to bowing during growth,
2. Question 21 of 75
21. Question
Which document addresses the client’s right to information, informed consent, and treatment
refusal?
22. Question
If a blood pressure cuff is too small for a client, blood pressure readings taken with such a cuff
may do which of the following?
2. Question 23 of 75
23. Question
Nurse Elijah has been teaching a client about a high-protein diet. The teaching is successful if the
client identifies which meal as high in protein?
2. Question 24 of 75
24. Question
A male client is admitted to the hospital with blunt chest trauma after a motor vehicle accident.
The first nursing priority for this client would be to:
2. Question 25 of 75
25. Question
A newly hired charge nurse assesses the staff nurses as competent individually but ineffective
and unproductive as a team. In addressing her concern, the charge nurse should understand that
the usual reason for such a situation is:
2. Question 26 of 75
26. Question
o B. Prevent infection
o C. Promote rest
o D. Prevent injury
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Prevent infection
The client is at risk for infection because WBC count is dangerously low. Neutrophils play an
essential role in immune defenses because they ingest, kill, and digest invading microorganisms,
including fungi and bacteria. Failure to carry out this role leads to immunodeficiency, which is
mainly characterized by the presence of recurrent infections. Hb level and HCT are within
normal limits; therefore, fluid balance, rest, and prevention of injury are inappropriate.
Option A: Neutrophils play a role in the immune defense against extracellular bacteria,
including Staphylococci, Streptococci, and Escherichia coli, among others. They also
protect against fungal infections, including those produced by Candida albicans. Once
their count is below 1 x 10/L recurrent infections start. As compensation, the monocyte
count may increase.
Option C: Application of granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) can improve
neutrophil functions and number. Prophylactic use of antibiotics and antifungals is
reserved for some forms of alteration in neutrophil function such as chronic
granulomatous disease CGD).
Option D: In primary neutropenia disorders such as chronic granulomatous disease
presents with recurrent infections affecting many organs since childhood. It is caused by
a failure to produce toxic reactive oxygen species so that the neutrophils can ingest the
microorganisms, but they are unable to kill them, as a significant consequence granuloma
can obstruct organs such as the stomach, esophagus, or bladder. Patients with this disease
are very susceptible to opportunistic infections by certain bacteria and fungi, especially
with Serratia and Burkholderia.
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2. Question 27 of 75
27. Question
Following a tonsillectomy, a female client returns to the medical-surgical unit. The client is
lethargic and reports having a sore throat. Which position would be most therapeutic for this
client?
o A. Semi-Fowler’s
o C. High-Fowler’s
o D. Side-lying
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Side-lying
Because of lethargy, the post-tonsillectomy client is at risk for aspirating blood from the surgical
wound. Therefore, placing the client in the side-lying position until he awake is best. The semi-
Fowler’s, supine, and high-Fowler’s position don’t allow for adequate oral drainage in a
lethargic post-tonsillectomy client and increase the risk of blood aspiration.
Option A: Semi-Fowler’s would not be able to facilitate effective drainage. Bleeding is
one of the most common and feared complications following tonsillectomy with or
without adenoidectomy. A study from 2009 to 2013 involving over one hundred thousand
children showed that 2.8% of children had unplanned revisits for bleeding following
tonsillectomy, 1.6% percent of patients came through the emergency department, and
0.8% required a procedure.
Option B: Supine position predisposes the patient to aspiration. Frequency is higher at
night with 50% of bleeding occurring between 10pm-1am and 6am-9am; this is thought
to be from changes in circadian rhythm, vibratory effects of snoring on the oropharynx,
or drying of the oropharyngeal mucosa from mouth breathing. Risk of bleeding in
patients with known coagulopathies may be significantly higher.
Option C: Tonsillectomy can be either extracapsular or intracapsular. The ―hot‖
extracapsular technique with monopolar cautery is the most popular technique in the
United States.
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2. Question 28 of 75
28. Question
The nurse inspects a client’s pupil size and determines that it’s 2 mm in the left eye and 3 mm in
the right eye. Unequal pupils are known as:
o A. Anisocoria
o B. Ataxia
o C. Cataract
o D. Diplopia
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Anisocoria
2. Question 29 of 75
29. Question
The nurse in charge is caring for an Italian client. He’s complaining of pain, but he falls asleep
right after his complaint and before the nurse can assess his pain. The nurse concludes that:
2. Question 30 of 75
30. Question
A female client is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain and
shortness of breath. The nurse’s assessment reveals jugular vein distention. The nurse knows that
when a client has jugular vein distension, it’s typically due to:
o A. A neck tumor
o B. An electrolyte imbalance
o C. Dehydration
o D. Fluid overload
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Fluid overload
Fluid overload causes the volume of blood within the vascular system to increase. This increase
causes the vein to distend, which can be seen most obviously in the neck veins. JVD is a sign of
increased central venous pressure (CVP). That’s a measurement of the pressure inside the vena
cava. CVP indicates how much blood is flowing back into the heart and how well the heart can
move that blood into the lungs and the rest of the body.
Option A: A neck tumor doesn’t typically cause jugular vein distention. Right-sided
heart failure is a common cause. Right-sided heart failure usually develops after a left-
sided heart failure. The left ventricle pumps blood out through the aorta to most of the
body. The right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs. When the left ventricle’s pumping
power weakens, fluid can back up into the lungs. This eventually weakens the right
ventricle.
Option B: An electrolyte imbalance may result in fluid overload, but it doesn’t directly
contribute to jugular vein distention. The pericardium is a thin, fluid-filled sac that
surrounds the heart. An infection of the pericardium, called constrictive pericarditis, can
restrict the volume of the heart. As a result, the chambers can’t fill with blood properly,
so blood can back up into veins, including the jugular veins.
Option C: Dehydration does not cause JVD. Another common cause is pulmonary
hypertension. Pulmonary hypertension occurs when the pressure in your lungs increases,
sometimes as a result of changes to the lining of the artery walls. This can also lead to
right-sided heart failure.
2. Question 31 of 75
31. Question
Critical thinking and the nursing process have which of the following in common? Both:
2. Question 32 of 75
32. Question
In which step of the nursing process does the nurse analyze data and identify client problems?
o A. Assessment
o B. Diagnosis
o D. Evaluation
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Diagnosis
In the diagnosis phase, the nurse identifies the client’s health status. The North American
Nursing Diagnosis Association (NANDA) provides nurses with an up to date list of nursing
diagnoses. A nursing diagnosis, according to NANDA, is defined as a clinical judgment about
responses to actual or potential health problems on the part of the patient, family, or community.
Option A: In the assessment phase, the nurse gathers data from many sources for
analysis in the diagnosis phase. Assessment is the first step and involves critical thinking
skills and data collection; subjective and objective. Subjective data involves verbal
statements from the patient or caregiver. Objective data is measurable, tangible data such
as vital signs, intake and output, and height and weight.
Option C: In the planning outcomes phase, the nurse formulates goals and outcomes.
The planning stage is where goals and outcomes are formulated that directly impact
patient care based on EDP guidelines. These patient-specific goals and the attainment of
such assist in ensuring a positive outcome. Nursing care plans are essential in this phase
of goal setting. Care plans provide a course of direction for personalized care tailored to
an individual’s unique needs. Overall condition and comorbid conditions play a role in
the construction of a care plan. Care plans enhance communication, documentation,
reimbursement, and continuity of care across the healthcare continuum.
Option D: In the evaluation phase, which occurs after implementing interventions, the
nurse gathers data about the client’s responses to nursing care to determine whether client
outcomes were met. This final step of the nursing process is vital to a positive patient
outcome. Whenever a healthcare provider intervenes or implements care, they must
reassess or evaluate to ensure the desired outcome has been met. Reassessment may
frequently be needed depending upon overall patient condition. The plan of care may be
adapted based on new assessment data.
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2. Question 33 of 75
33. Question
In which phase of the nursing process does the nurse decide whether her actions have
successfully treated the client’s health problem?
o A. Assessment
o B. Diagnosis
o C. Planning outcomes
o D. Evaluation
2. Question 34 of 75
34. Question
What is the most basic reason that self-knowledge is important for nurses? Because it helps the
nurse to:
o A. Identify personal biases that may affect his thinking and actions.
2. Question 35 of 75
35. Question
Arrange the steps of the nursing process in the sequence in which they generally occur.
View Answers:
o Planning interventions
o Planning outcomes
o Assessment
o Evaluation
o Diagnosis
Incorrect
The correct order is shown above.
Logically, the steps are assessment, diagnosis, planning outcomes, planning interventions, and
evaluation. Keep in mind that steps are not always performed in this order, depending on the
patient’s needs and that steps overlap.
Assessment is the first step and involves critical thinking skills and data collection;
subjective and objective. Subjective data involves verbal statements from the patient or
caregiver. Objective data is measurable, tangible data such as vital signs, intake and
output, and height and weight.
The formulation of a nursing diagnosis by employing clinical judgment assists in the
planning and implementation of patient care. The North American Nursing Diagnosis
Association (NANDA) provides nurses with an up to date list of nursing diagnoses. A
nursing diagnosis, according to NANDA, is defined as a clinical judgment about
2. Question 36 of 75
36. Question
How are critical thinking skills and critical thinking attitudes similar? Both are:
2. Question 37 of 75
37. Question
The nurse is preparing to admit a patient from the emergency department. The transferring nurse
reports that the patient with chronic lung disease has a 30+ year history of tobacco use. The nurse
used to smoke a pack of cigarettes a day at one time and worked very hard to quit smoking. She
immediately thinks to herself, ―I know I tend to feel negative about people who use tobacco,
especially when they have a serious lung condition; I figure if I can stop smoking, they should be
able to. I must remember how physically and psychologically difficult that is, and be very careful
not to let it be judgmental of this patient.‖ This best illustrates:
o A. Theoretical knowledge
o B. Self-knowledge
2. Question 38 of 75
38. Question
Which organization’s standards require that all patients be assessed specifically for pain?
39. Question
Which of the following is an example of data that should be validated?
o A. The urinalysis report indicates there are white blood cells in the urine.
o B. The client states she feels feverish; you measure the oral temperature at 98°F.
o C. The client has clear breath sounds; you count a respiratory rate of 18.
o D. The chest x-ray report indicates the client has pneumonia in the right lower lobe.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. The client states she feels feverish; you measure the oral temperature
at 98°F.
Validation should be done when subjective and objective data do not make sense. For instance, it
is inconsistent data when the patient feels feverish and you obtain a normal temperature. The
other distractors do not offer conflicting data. Validation is not usually necessary for laboratory
test results.
Option A: When this test is positive and/or the WBC count in urine is high, it may
indicate that there is inflammation in the urinary tract or kidneys. The most common
cause for WBCs in urine (leukocyturia) is a bacterial urinary tract infection (UTI), such
as a bladder or kidney infection.
Option C: Breath sounds are the noises produced by the structures of the lungs during
breathing. Normal lung sounds occur in all parts of the chest area, including above the
collarbones and at the bottom of the rib cage. Using a stethoscope, the doctor may hear
normal breathing sounds, decreased or absent breath sounds, and abnormal breath sounds.
Normal respiration rates for an adult person at rest range from 12 to 16 breaths per
minute.
Option D: The most common organisms which cause lobar pneumonia are Streptococcus
pneumoniae, also called pneumococcus, Haemophilus influenza, and Moraxella
catarrhalis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the tubercle bacillus, may also cause lobar
pneumonia if pulmonary tuberculosis is not treated promptly.
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2. Question 40 of 75
40. Question
Which of the following is an example of appropriate behavior when conducting a client
interview?
o A. Recording all the information on the agency-approved form during the interview.
o B. Asking the client, "Why did you think it was necessary to seek health care at this time?"
o D. Sitting, facing the client in a chair at the client's bedside, using active listening.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Sitting, facing the client in a chair at the client’s bedside, using active
listening.
Active listening should be used during an interview. The nurse should face the patient, have
relaxed posture, and keep eye contact. Nonjudgmental interest in the patient’s problems (active
listening), empathy (communicating to the patient an accurate assessment of emotional state),
and concern for the patient as a unique person are among the most important tools in the
physician’s interpersonal repertoire. The difference between interviewing a patient who is lying
flat in bed and one who is sitting in a chair can be striking. This simple act can emphasize patient
autonomy and active involvement in the interview.
Option A: Note-taking interferes with eye contact. By recognizing the patient’s emotions
and responding to them in a supportive manner, the clinician can conduct an effective
patient-centered interview.
Option B: Asking ―why‖ may make the client defensive. Frequently used opening
questions include, ―What problems brought you to the hospital (or office) today?‖ or
―What kind of problems have you been having recently?‖ or ―What kind of problems
would you like to share with me?‖ These open-ended, non-directive questions encourage
the patient to report any and all problems. At this point in the interview, it is important to
let the patient talk spontaneously rather than restricting and directing the flow of
information with multiple questions.
Option C: The client may not understand medical terminology or health care jargon.
Questions should be worded so that the patient has no difficulty understanding what is
being asked. Avoid using technical terms and diagnostic labels. The interviewer’s
questions should indicate what type of information is requested, but not what answer is
expected.
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2. Question 41 of 75
41. Question
The nurse wishes to identify nursing diagnoses for a patient. She can best do this by using a data
collection form organized according to: Select all that apply.
o B. A head-to-toe framework
2. Question 42 of 75
42. Question
The nurse is recording assessment data. She writes, ―The patient seems worried about his
surgery. Other than that, he had a good night.‖ Which errors did the nurse make? Select all that
apply.
2. Question 43 of 75
43. Question
A patient is admitted with shortness of breath, so the nurse immediately listens to his breath
sounds. Which type of assessment is the nurse performing?
o A. Ongoing assessment
o D. Psychosocial assessment
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Focused physical assessment
The nurse is performing a focused physical assessment, which is done to obtain data about an
identified problem, in this case shortness of breath. Detailed nursing assessment of specific body
system(s) relating to the presenting problem or current concern(s) of the patient. This may
involve one or more body systems.
Option A: An ongoing assessment is performed as needed, after the initial data are
collected, preferably with each patient contact. Repeat of the focused or rapid emergency
department assessment of a prehospital patient to detect changes in condition and to
judge the effectiveness of treatment before or during transport. Repeated every 5 minutes
for an unstable patient and every 15 minutes for a stable patient.
2. Question 44 of 75
44. Question
The nurse is assessing vital signs for a patient just admitted to the hospital. Ideally, and if there
are no contraindications, how should the nurse position the patient for this portion of the
admission assessment?
o A. Sitting upright.
o C. Lying flat on the back with arms and legs fully extended.
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2. Question 45 of 75
45. Question
View Answers:
o Palpation
o Percussion
o Auscultation
o Inspection
Incorrect
The correct order is shown above.
Inspection begins immediately as the nurse meets the patient, as she observes the patient’s
appearance and behavior. Observational data are not intrusive to the patient. When performing
assessment techniques involving physical touch, the behavior, posture, demeanor, and responses
might be altered. Palpation, percussion, and auscultation should be performed in that order,
except when performing an abdominal assessment. During abdominal assessment, auscultation
should be performed before palpation and percussion to prevent altering bowel sounds.
1. It is important to begin with the general examination of the abdomen with the patient
in a completely supine position. The presence of any of the following signs may indicate
specific disorders. Distension of the abdomen could be present due to small bowel
obstruction, masses, tumors, cancer, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, constipation,
abdominal aortic aneurysm, and pregnancy.
2. The ideal position for abdominal examination is to sit or kneel on the right side of the
patient with the hand and forearm in the same horizontal plane as the patient’s abdomen.
There are three stages of palpation that include the superficial or light palpation, deep
palpation, and organ palpation and should be performed in the same order. Maneuvers
specific to certain diseases are also a part of abdominal palpation.
3. A proper technique of percussion is necessary to gain maximum information regarding
the abdominal pathology. While percussing, it is important to appreciate tympany over
air-filled structures such as the stomach and dullness to percussion which may be present
due to an underlying mass or organomegaly (for example, hepatomegaly or
splenomegaly).
4. The last step of the abdominal examination is auscultation with a stethoscope. The
diaphragm of the stethoscope should be placed on the right side of the umbilicus to listen
to the bowel sounds, and their rate should be calculated after listening for at least two
minutes. Normal bowel sounds are low-pitched and gurgling, and the rate is normally 2-
5/min. Absent bowel sounds may indicate paralytic ileus and hyperactive rushes
(borborygmi) are usually present in small bowel obstruction and sometimes may be
auscultated in lactose intolerance.
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2. Question 46 of 75
46. Question
o A. Sims'
o B. Supine
o C. Dorsal recumbent
o D. Semi-Fowler's
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Sims’
Sims’ position is typically used to examine the rectal area. However, the position should be
avoided if the patient has undergone hip replacement surgery The patient with a hip replacement
can assume the supine, dorsal recumbent, or semi-Fowler’s positions without causing harm to the
joint.
Option B: Supine position is lying on the back facing upward. The supine position
means lying horizontally with the face and torso facing up, as opposed to the prone
position, which is face down. When used in surgical procedures, it allows access to the
peritoneal, thoracic, and pericardial regions; as well as the head, neck, and extremities.
Option C: The patient in dorsal recumbent is on his back with knees flexed and soles of
feet flat on the bed. A position in which the patient lies on the back with the lower
extremities moderately flexed and rotated outward. It is employed in the application of
obstetrical forceps, repair of lesions following parturition, vaginal examination, and
bimanual palpation.
Option D: In semi-Fowler’s position, the patient is supine with the head of the bed
elevated and legs slightly elevated. The Semi-Fowler’s position is a position in which a
patient, typically in a hospital or nursing home is positioned on their back with the head
and trunk raised to between 15 and 45 degrees, although 30 degrees is the most
frequently used bed angle.
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2. Question 47 of 75
47. Question
How should the nurse modify the examination for a 7-year-old child?
2. Question 48 of 75
48. Question
The nurse must examine a patient who is weak and unable to sit unaided or to get out of bed.
How should she position the patient to begin and perform most of the physical examination?
o A. Dorsal recumbent
o B. Semi-Fowler's
o C. Lithotomy
o D. Sims'
Incorrect
2. Question 49 of 75
49. Question
The nurse should use the diaphragm of the stethoscope to auscultate which of the following?
o A. Heart murmurs
o C. Bowel sounds
o D. Carotid bruits
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Bowel sounds
The bell of the stethoscope should be used to hear low-pitched sounds, such as murmurs, bruits,
and jugular hums. The diaphragm should be used to hear high-pitched sounds that normally
occur in the heart, lungs, and abdomen. The diaphragm is best for higher-pitched sounds, like
breath sounds and normal heart sounds. The bell is best for detecting lower pitch sounds, like
some heart murmurs, and some bowel sounds.
Option A: Earpieces should be angled forwards to match the direction of the
practitioner’s external auditory meatus. The bell is used to hear low-pitched sounds. Use
for mid-diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis or S3 in heart failure.
Option B: The stethoscope bell is lightly applied in each supraclavicular fossa over the
subclavian artery. As usual, the examiner’s free hand palpates the contralateral carotid
pulse for timing purposes. If a bruit is appreciated, firmly compress the patient’s
ipsilateral radial artery, noting the effect on the murmur.
2. Question 50 of 75
50. Question
The nurse calculates a body mass index (BMI) of 18 for a young adult woman who comes to the
physician’s office for a college physical. This patient is considered:
o A. Obese
o B. Overweight
o C. Average
o D. Underweight
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Underweight
For adults, BMI should range between 20 and 25. Body mass index (BMI) is a person’s weight
in kilograms divided by the square of height in meters. BMI is an inexpensive and easy screening
method for the weight category—underweight, healthy weight, overweight, and obesity.
Option A: BMI greater than 30 is considered obese For adults 20 years old and older,
BMI is interpreted using standard weight status categories. These categories are the same
for men and women of all body types and ages.
Option B: BMI 25 to 29.9 is overweight. The prevalence of adult BMI greater than or
equal to 30 kg/m2 (obese status) has greatly increased since the 1970s. Recently,
however, this trend has leveled off, except for older women. Obesity has continued to
increase in adult women who are 60 years and older.
Option C: BMI less than 20 is considered underweight. BMI can be a screening tool, but
it does not diagnose the body fatness or health of an individual. To determine if BMI is a
health risk, a healthcare provider performs further assessments. Such assessments include
skinfold thickness measurements, evaluations of diet, physical activity, and family
history.
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2. Question 51 of 75
51. Question
Using the principles of standard precautions, the nurse would wear gloves in what nursing
interventions?
o B. Feeding a client.
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2. Question 52 of 75
52. Question
The nurse is preparing to take vital signs in an alert client admitted to the hospital with
dehydration secondary to vomiting and diarrhea. What is the best method used to assess the
client’s temperature?
o A. Oral
o B. Axillary
o C. Radial
2. Question 53 of 75
53. Question
A nurse obtained a client’s pulse and found the rate to be above normal. The nurse document
these findings as:
o A. Tachypnea
o B. Hyperpyrexia
o C. Arrhythmia
o D. Tachycardia
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Tachycardia
2. Question 54 of 75
54. Question
Which of the following actions should the nurse take to use wide base support when assisting a
client to get up in a chair?
o A. Bend at the waist and place arms under the client’s arms and lift.
o B. Face the client, bend knees, and place hands-on client’s forearm and lift.
2. Question 55 of 75
55. Question
A client had oral surgery following a motor vehicle accident. The nurse assessing the client finds
the skin flushed and warm. Which of the following would be the best method to take the client’s
body temperature?
o A. Oral
o B. Axillary
o C. Arterial line
o D. Rectal
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Axillary
Taking the temperature via the axilla is the most appropriate route. Body temperature is a
numerical expression of the body’s heat and metabolic activity balance and can be a major
indicator of a person’s health status. Assessing a patient’s body temperature is a common
procedure nurses perform to monitor for signs of infection, environmental exposure, shock,
ovulation, or therapeutic response to medications or medical procedures. A normal body
temperature can be a potentially positive sign that the patient isn’t experiencing a disease
process, infection, or trauma and that the body’s cells, tissues, and organs aren’t under metabolic
distress.
Option A: Taking the temperature via the oral route is incorrect since the client had oral
surgery. The esophageal temperature probe (ETP) is an 18-in (45.7 cm) long, thin,
flexible catheter that has a rounded tip that should be lubricated with water-soluble
lubricant before being placed through the nares or mouth, extending into the esophagus at
least 2 to 3 in (5 to 7.6 cm). The external end portion of the catheter has a small, coated
wire with a plug that can be attached to a telemetry monitor for continuous temperature
monitoring.
Option C: A PiCCO thermodilution catheter (Pulsion Medical Systems) containing a
temperature thermistor was inserted into the brachial artery at the antecubital fossa and
doubled as the arterial pressure monitoring line and arterial blood sampling portal. This
measured brachial artery temperature from the time of insertion to the time the patient left
the operating room.
2. Question 56 of 75
56. Question
A client who is unconscious needs frequent mouth care. When performing mouth care,
the best position of a client is:
o A. Fowler’s position
o B. Side-lying
o C. Supine
o D. Trendelenburg
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Side-lying
An unconscious client is best placed on his side when doing oral care to prevent aspiration. An
unconscious patient is placed in the side-lying position when mouth care is provided because this
position prevents pooling of secretions at the back of the oral cavity, thereby reducing the risk of
aspiration. Oral hygiene is especially important for patients receiving oxygen therapy, patients
who have nasogastric tubes, and patients who are NPO. Their oral mucosa dries out much faster
than normal due to their mouth-breathing.
Option A: A soft toothbrush or gauze-padded tongue blade may be used to clean the
teeth and mouth. The patient should be positioned in the lateral position with the head
turned toward the side to provide for drainage and to prevent aspiration.
Option C: This is the most common position for surgery with a patient lying on his or
her back with head, neck, and spine in neutral positioning and arms either adducted
alongside the patient or abducted to less than 90 degrees.
Option D: A variation of supine in which the head of the bed is tilted down such that the
pubic symphysis is the highest point of the trunk facilitates venous return and improves
exposure during abdominal and laparoscopic surgeries.
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2. Question 57 of 75
57. Question
A client is hospitalized for the first time, which of the following actions ensure the safety of the
client?
2. Question 58 of 75
58. Question
A walk-in client enters the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain and diarrhea. The
nurse takes the client’s vital sign hereafter. What phrase of the nursing process is being
implemented here by the nurse?
o A. Assessment
o B. Diagnosis
o C. Planning
o D. Implementation
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Assessment
2. Question 59 of 75
59. Question
It is best described as a systematic, rational method of planning and providing nursing care for
individual, families, group, and community
o A. Assessment
o B. Nursing Process
o C. Diagnosis
o D. Implementation
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Nursing Process
The statement describes the Nursing Process. The Nursing Process is the essential core of
practice for the registered nurse to deliver holistic, patient-focused care. Defined as a systematic
approach to care using the fundamental principles of critical thinking, client-centered approaches
2. Question 60 of 75
60. Question
Exchange of gases takes place in which of the following organs?
o A. Kidney
o B. Lungs
o C. Liver
o D. Heart
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Lungs
Gas exchange is the transport of oxygen from the lungs to the bloodstream and the expulsion of
carbon dioxide from the bloodstream to the lungs. It transpires in the lungs between the alveoli
and a network of tiny blood vessels called capillaries, which are located in the walls of the
alveoli.
Option A: The renal system consists of the kidney, ureters, and urethra. The overall
function of the system filters approximately 200 liters of fluid a day from renal blood
flow which allows for toxins, metabolic waste products, and excess ions to be excreted
while keeping essential substances in the blood. The kidney regulates plasma osmolarity
by modulating the amount of water, solutes, and electrolytes in the blood. It ensures long-
term acid-base balance and also produces erythropoietin which stimulates the production
of red blood cells.
2. Question 61 of 75
61. Question
The chamber of the heart that receives oxygenated blood from the lungs is the:
o A. Left atrium
o B. Right atrium
o C. Left ventricle
o D. Right ventricle
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Left atrium
The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the left ventricle. In
the lungs, the blood oxygenates as it passes through the capillaries where it is close enough to the
oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs. This oxygenated blood is collected by the four pulmonary
veins, two from each lung. All four of these veins open into the left atrium that acts as a
collection chamber for oxygenated blood. Just like the right atrium, the left atrium passes the
blood onto its ventricle both by passive flow and active pumping.
Option B: The right atrium receives blood from the veins and pumps it to the right
ventricle. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the entire body except for
the lungs (the systemic circulation) via the superior and inferior vena cavae. Also,
deoxygenated blood from the heart muscle itself drains into the right atrium via the
coronary sinus. The right atrium, therefore, acts as a reservoir to collect deoxygenated
blood.
Option C: The left ventricle (the strongest chamber) pumps oxygen-rich blood to the rest
of the body, its vigorous contractions create the blood pressure. Oxygenated blood thus
fills the left ventricle, passing through the mitral valve. The left ventricle, which is the
main pumping chamber of the left heart, then pumps, sending freshly oxygenated blood
to the systemic circulation through the aortic valve
Option D: The right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium and pumps it to the
lungs, where it is loaded with oxygen. The right ventricle pumps blood through the right
2. Question 62 of 75
62. Question
A muscular enlarged pouch or sac that lies slightly to the left which is used for temporary storage
of food…
o A. Gallbladder
o B. Urinary bladder
o C. Stomach
o D. Lungs
63. Question
The ability of the body to defend itself against scientific invading agent such as bacteria, toxin,
viruses, and foreign body:
o A. Hormones
o B. Secretion
o C. Immunity
o D. Glands
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Immunity
Immunity is the ability of an organism to resist a particular infection or toxin by the action of
specific antibodies or sensitized white blood cells. The Immune response is the body’s ability to
stay safe by affording protection against harmful agents and involves lines of defense against
most microbes as well as specialized and highly specific responses to a particular offender. This
immune response classifies as either innate which is non-specific and adaptive acquired which is
highly specific.
Option A: The endocrine hormones are a wide array of molecules that traverse the
bloodstream to act on distant tissues, leading to alterations in metabolic functions within
the body. They can broadly divide into peptides, steroids, and tyrosine derivatives that
may work on either cell surface or intracellular receptors.
Option B: Secretion, in biology, production and release of a useful substance by a gland
or cell; also, the substance produced. In addition to the enzymes and hormones that
facilitate and regulate complex biochemical processes, body tissues also secrete a variety
of substances that provide lubrication and moisture.
Option D: A gland is an organ which produces and releases substances that perform a
specific function in the body. There are two types of gland. Endocrine glands are ductless
glands and release the substances that they make (hormones) directly into the
bloodstream.
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2. Question 64 of 75
64. Question
Hormones secreted by Islets of Langerhans
o A. Progesterone
o B. Testosterone
o D. Hemoglobin
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Insulin
The Islets of Langerhans are the regions of the pancreas that contain its endocrine cells. Insulin is
a peptide hormone secreted in the body by beta cells of islets of Langerhans of the pancreas and
regulates blood glucose levels. Medical treatment with insulin is indicated when there is
inadequate production or increased demands of insulin in the body.
Option A: Progesterone (Choice A) is produced by the ovaries. Progesterone is an
endogenous steroid hormone that is commonly produced by the adrenal cortex as well as
the gonads, which consist of the ovaries and the testes. Progesterone is also secreted by
the ovarian corpus luteum during the first ten weeks of pregnancy, followed by the
placenta in the later phase of pregnancy.
Option B: Testosterone (Choice B) is secreted by the testicles of males and ovaries of
females. Testosterone is the primary male hormone responsible for regulating sex
differentiation, producing male sex characteristics, spermatogenesis and fertility.
Testosterone is responsible for the development of primary sexual development, which
includes testicular descent, spermatogenesis, enlargement of the penis and testes, and
increasing libido.
Option D: Hemoglobin (Choice D) is a protein molecule in the red blood cells that
carries oxygen from the lungs to the body’s tissues and returns carbon dioxide.
Hemoglobin is an oxygen-binding protein found in erythrocytes which transports oxygen
from the lungs to tissues. Each hemoglobin molecule is a tetramer made of four
polypeptide globin chains. Each globin subunit contains a heme moiety formed of an
organic protoporphyrin ring and a central iron ion in the ferrous state (Fe2+). The iron
molecule in each heme moiety can bind and unbind oxygen, allowing for oxygen
transport in the body.
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2. Question 65 of 75
65. Question
It is a transparent membrane that focuses the light that enters the eyes to the retina.
o A. Lens
o B. Sclera
o C. Cornea
o D. Pupils
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Lens
2. Question 66 of 75
66. Question
Which of the following is included in Orem’s theory?
o B. Self perception.
o D. Physiologic needs.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Maintenance of a sufficient intake of air.
Dorothea Orem’s Self-Care Theory defined Nursing as ―The act of assisting others in the
provision and management of self-care to maintain or improve human functioning at home level
of effectiveness.‖ The Self-Care or Self-Care Deficit Theory of Nursing is composed of three
interrelated theories: (1) the theory of self-care, (2) the self-care deficit theory, and (3) the theory
of nursing systems, which is further classified into wholly compensatory, partial compensatory
and supportive-educative. Choices B, C, and D are from Abraham Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs.
Option B: At the fourth level in Maslow’s hierarchy is the need for appreciation and
respect. When the needs at the bottom three levels have been satisfied, the esteem needs
2. Question 67 of 75
67. Question
Which of the following cluster of data belong to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
o B. Physiological needs
o C. Self actualization
2. Question 68 of 75
68. Question
This is characterized by severe symptoms relatively of short duration.
o A. Chronic Illness
o B. Acute Illness
o C. Pain
o D. Syndrome
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Acute Illness
Acute illnesses are different than chronic illnesses in that they usually develop quickly and they
only last a short time – usually a few days or weeks. Acute illnesses are often caused by viral or
bacterial infections.
Option A: Chronic Illness (Choice A) are illnesses that are persistent or long-term. A
chronic illness is a condition that develops over time and is present for a long period of
time. Some people have chronic conditions for many years. Technically, a chronic
disease is defined as a health condition that lasts anywhere from three months to a
lifetime. Chronic conditions may get worse over time.
Option C: Pain refers to the product of higher brain center processing; it entails the
actual unpleasant emotional and sensory experience generated from nervous signals.
Option D: A syndrome is a set of medical signs and symptoms which are correlated with
each other and often associated with a particular disease or disorder. The word derives
from the Greek ?????????, meaning ―concurrence‖.
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69. Question
Which of the following is the nurse’s role in health promotion?
o C. Worksite wellness
2. Question 70 of 75
70. Question
It is described as a collection of people who share some attributes of their lives.
o A. Family
o B. Illness
o D. Nursing
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Community
A community is defined by the shared attributes of the people in it, and/or by the strength of the
connections among them. When an organization is identifying communities of interest, the
shared attribute is the most useful definition of a community.
Option A: In human society, family is a group of people related either by consanguinity
(by recognized birth) or affinity (by marriage or other relationship). The purpose of
families is to maintain the well-being of its members and of society. Ideally, families
would offer predictability, structure, and safety as members mature and participate in the
community.
Option B: Illness is a condition of being unhealthy in the body or mind; a specific
condition that prevents the body or mind from working normally; a sickness or disease.
Option D: Nursing encompasses autonomous and collaborative care of individuals of all
ages, families, groups, and communities, sick or well, and in all settings. Nursing
includes the promotion of health, prevention of illness, and the care of ill, disabled, and
dying people.
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2. Question 71 of 75
71. Question
Five teaspoons is equivalent to how many milliliters (ml)?
o A. 30 ml
o B. 25 ml
o C. 12 ml
o D. 22 ml
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. 25 ml
One teaspoon is equal to 5ml. Drug calculations require the use of conversion factors, for
example, when converting from pounds to kilograms or liters to milliliters. Simplistic in design,
this method allows clinicians to work with various units of measurement, converting factors to
find the answer. These methods are useful in checking the accuracy of the other methods of
calculation, thus acting as a double or triple check.
Option A: 30 ml is equal to 6 teaspoons. When clinicians are prepared and know the key
conversion factors, they will be less anxious about the calculation involved. This is vital
to accuracy, regardless of which formula or method employed.
2. Question 72 of 75
72. Question
1800 ml is equal to how many liters?
o A. 1.8
o B. 18000
o C. 180
o D. 2800
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. 1.8
1,800 ml is equal to 1.8 liters.
Option B: 18000 liters is equal to 18,000,000 ml.
Option C: 180 liters is equal to 180,000 ml.
Option D: 2800 liters is equal to 280,000 ml.
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2. Question 73 of 75
73. Question
Which of the following is the abbreviation of drops?
o A. Gtt.
o B. Gtts.
o C. Dp.
o D. Dr.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Gtts.
Gtt (Choice A) is an abbreviation for drop. Dp and Dr are not recognized abbreviations for
measurement. Standardization and uniform use of codes, symbols, and abbreviations can
2. Question 74 of 75
74. Question
The abbreviation for microdrop is…
o A. µgtt
o B. gtt
o C. mdr
o D. mgts
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. µgtt
The abbreviation for microdrop is µgtt. When abbreviations are used in documents given to the
patient, the potential for misunderstanding can increase. Information needs to be clear and
unambiguous to improve patients’ comprehension.
Option B: When abbreviations are used in documents given to the patient, the potential
for misunderstanding can increase. Information needs to be clear and unambiguous to
improve patients’ comprehension.
Option C: As stated in MOI.4, ME 5, ―Abbreviations are not used on informed consent
and patient rights documents, discharge instructions, discharge summaries, and other
documents patients and families receive from the hospital about the patient’s care.‖
Option D: No abbreviations of any kind should appear in informed consent documents,
patient rights documents, and discharge instructions. These documents are meant for the
2. Question 75 of 75
75. Question
Which of the following is the meaning of PRN?
o A. When advice
o B. Immediately
o C. When necessary
o D. Now.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. When necessary
PRN comes from the Latin ―pro re nata‖ meaning, ―for an occasion that has arisen or as
circumstances require‖. When an abbreviation is less known outside of the organization or
clinical specialty, it is necessary to spell out the abbreviation throughout the discharge summary
to prevent misunderstanding and confusion by the physician or health care organization that
receives the summary.
Option A: The practice of spelling out an abbreviation when first mentioned, then using
the abbreviation thereafter in the document is acceptable only in discharge summaries.
Abbreviations are not to be used in the other types of documents listed in the measurable
element.
Option B: Laboratory test results sometimes go to patients, but it is not the intent of the
standard for the abbreviations of the laboratory tests to be spelled out. When test results
are given to patients, they are shared with their physician who can help explain the
results.
Option D: Hospitals may want to consider providing a separate form or resource to
patients for information about the tests — such as a handout or website that has the
names of common laboratory tests along with their definitions or descriptions. Results of
diagnostic imaging studies also go to a patient’s physician, after interpretation by a
radiologist.
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1. Question
The charge nurse asks the nursing assistive personnel (NAP) to give a bag bath to
a patient with end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. How should the
NAP proceed?
C. Saturate a towel and blanket in a plastic bag, and then bathe the patient.
2. Question
For a morbidly obese patient, which intervention should the nurse choose to
counteract the pressure created by the skin folds?
2. 3. Question
A client exhibits all of the following during a physical assessment. Which of these
is considered a primary defense against infection?
o A. Fever
o B. Intact skin
o C. Inflammation
o D. Lethargy
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Intact skin
2. Question 4 of 75
4. Question
o A. A clean gown and gloves must be worn when in contact with the
client.
o B. Everyone who enters the room must wear a N-95 respirator mask.
o D. Place the client in a room with a client with an upper respiratory infection.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. A clean gown and gloves must be worn when in contact
with the client.
A clean gown and gloves must be worn when any contact is anticipated with the
client or with contaminated items in the room. Visitors might also be asked to
wear a gown and gloves. Patients are asked to stay in their hospital rooms as
much as possible. They should not go to common areas, such as the gift shop or
cafeteria. They may go to other areas of the hospital for treatments and tests.
Option B: A respirator mask is required only with airborne precautions, not
contact precautions. Healthcare providers will put on gloves and wear a
gown over their clothing while taking care of patients with MRSA.
Option C: All linen must be double-bagged and clearly marked as
contaminated. When leaving the room, healthcare providers and visitors
remove their gown and gloves and clean their hands.
Option D: The client should be placed in a private room or in a room with
a client with an active infection caused by the same organism and no other
infections. Whenever possible, patients with MRSA will have a single room
or will share a room only with someone else who also has MRSA.
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2. Question 5 of 75
5. Question
A client requires protective isolation. Which client can be safely paired with this
client in a client-care assignment? One:
2. Question 6 of 75
6. Question
2. Question 7 of 75
7. Question
Nurse Berta is facilitating a monthly mothers‘ class at a small village. As a
knowledgeable nurse, she must know that a mother who breastfeeds her child
passes on which antibody through breast milk?
o B. IgE
o C. IgG
o D. IgM
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. IgA
Antibodies, which are also called immunoglobulins, take five basic forms,
indicated as IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD and IgE. All have been detected in human milk,
but by far the most abundant type is IgA, particularly the form known as
secretory IgA, which is found in great amounts throughout the gut and
respiratory system of adults. The secretory IgA molecules passed to the suckling
child are helpful in ways that go beyond their ability to bind to microorganisms
and keep them away from the body‘s tissues.
Option B: IgE is a monomer. It has a molecular weight of 188 Kd and a
serum concentration of 0.00005 mg/mL. It protects against parasites and
also binds to high-affinity receptors on mast cells and basophils causing
allergic reactions. IgE is regarded as the most important host defense
against different parasitic infections which include Strongyloides
stercoralis, Trichinella spiralis, Ascaris lumbricoides, and the hookworms
Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenal.
Option C: IgG2 forms an important host defense against bacteria that are
encapsulated. IgG is the only immunoglobulin that crosses the placentae as
its Fc portion binds to the receptors present on the surface of the placenta,
protecting the neonate from infectious diseases. IgG is thus the most
abundant antibody present in newborns.
Option D: IgM has a molecular weight of 970 Kd and an average serum
concentration of 1.5 mg/ml. It is mainly produced in the primary immune
response to infectious agents or antigens. It is a pentamer and activates
the classical pathway of the complement system. IgM is regarded as a
potent agglutinin (e.g., anti-A and anti-B isoagglutinin present in type B
and type A blood respectively) and a monomer of IgM is used as a B cell
receptor (BCR).
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2. Question 8 of 75
2. Question 9 of 75
9. Question
2. Question 10 of 75
10. Question
The nurse is orienting a new nurse to the unit and reviews source-oriented
charting. Which statement by the nurse best describes source-oriented charting?
Source-oriented charting:
2. 11. Question
When the nurse completes the patient‘s admission nursing database, the patient
reports that he does not have any allergies. Which acceptable medical
abbreviation can the nurse use to document this finding?
o A. NA
o B. NDA
o C. NKA
o D. NPO
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. NKA
The nurse can use the medical abbreviation NKA, which means no known
allergies, to document this finding. NKA is the abbreviation for ―no known
allergies,‖ meaning no known allergies of any sort. By contrast, NKDA stands
exclusively for ―no known drug allergies.‖
Option A: NA is an abbreviation for not applicable.
Option B: NDA is an abbreviation for no known drug allergies.
Option D: NPO is an abbreviation that means nothing by mouth.
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o B. Contain only graphic information, such as I&O, vital signs, and medication
administration.
o C. Are used to record routine aspects of care; they do not contain assessment
data.
o D. Contain vital data collected upon admission, which can be compared with
newly collected data.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Are comprehensive charting forms that integrate
assessments and nursing actions
Nursing assessment flow sheets are organized by body systems. The nurse checks
the box corresponding to the current assessment findings. Nursing actions, such
as wound care, treatments, or IV fluid administration, are also included. A flow
sheet is simply a one- or two-page form that gathers all the important data
regarding a patient‘s condition. The flow sheet is housed in the patient‘s chart
and serves as a reminder of care and a record of whether care expectations have
been met.
Option B: Graphic information, such as vital signs, I&O, and routine care,
may be found on the graphic record. This where records of serial
measurements and observations, nursing interventions, and nursing care
plans are recorded.
Option C: Nursing documentation covers a wide variety of issues, topics,
and systems. Researchers, practitioners, and hospital administrators view
recordkeeping as an important element leading to continuity of care,
safety, quality care, and compliance.
Option D: The admission form contains baseline information. In health
care organizations, the EHR, oral reports, handoffs, conferences, and health
information technologies (HIT) are intended to facilitate information flow.
2. 13. Question
At the end of the shift, the nurse realizes that she forgot to document a dressing
change that she performed for a patient. Which action should the nurse take?
2. Question 14 of 75
14. Question
Patient Z asks Nurse Toni why an electronic health record (EHR) system is being
used. Which response by the nurse indicates an understanding of the rationale
for an EHR system?
2. Question 15 of 75
15. Question
In the United States, the first programs for training nurses were affiliated with:
o A. The military
o B. General hospitals
o C. Civil service
o D. Religious orders
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Religious orders
When the Civil War broke out, the Army used nurses who had already been
trained in religious orders. Nursing started with religious orders. The Hindu faith
was the first to write about nursing. In the United States, all training for nurses
was affiliated with religious orders until after the Civil War.
2. Question 16 of 75
16. Question
Which of the following is/are an example(s) of a health restoration
activity? Select all that apply.
2. 17. Question
Which of the following aspects of nursing is essential to defining it as both a
profession and a discipline?
2. Question 18 of 75
18. Question
The charge nurse on the medical-surgical floor assigns vital signs to the nursing
assistive personnel (NAP) and medication administration to the licensed
vocational nurse (LVN). Which nursing model of care is this floor following?
o A. Team nursing
o C. Functional nursing
o D. Primary nursing
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Functional nursing
This medical-surgical floor is following the functional nursing model of care, in
which care is partitioned and assigned to a staff member with the appropriate
skills. For example, the NAP is assigned vital signs, and the LVN is assigned
medication administration. Functional nursing is task-oriented in scope. Instead
of one nurse performing many functions, several nurses are given one or two
assignments. For example, there is a medicine nurse whose sole responsibility is
administering medications.
Option A: With team nursing, an RN or LVN is paired with a NAP. The pair
is then assigned to render care for a group of patients. Team nursing is a
system that distributes the care of a patient amongst a team that is all
working together to provide for this person. This team consists of up to 4
to 6 members that has a team leader who gives jobs and instructions to
the group.
Option B: In case method nursing, one nurse cares for one patient during
her entire shift. Private duty nursing is an example of this care model. The
case method is a participatory, discussion-based way of learning where
students gain skills in critical thinking, communication, and group
dynamics. It is a type of problem-based learning.
Option D: When the primary nursing model is utilized, one nurse manages
care for a group of patients 24 hours a day, even though others provide
care during part of the day. A method of providing nursing services to
2. Question 19 of 75
19. Question
Paul Jake suffered a stroke and has difficulty swallowing. Which healthcare team
member should be consulted to assess the patient‘s risk for aspiration?
o A. Respiratory therapist
o B. Occupational therapist
o C. Dentist
o D. Speech therapist
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Speech therapist
Speech and language therapists provide assistance to clients experiencing
swallowing and speech disturbances. They assess the risk for aspiration and
recommend a treatment plan to reduce the risk. Speech-language pathologists
(SLPs) work to prevent, assess, diagnose, and treat speech, language, social
communication, cognitive-communication, and swallowing disorders in children
and adults.
Option A: Respiratory therapists provide care for patients with respiratory
disorders. Respiratory therapists interview and examine patients with
breathing or cardiopulmonary disorders. Respiratory therapists care for
patients who have trouble breathing—for example, from a chronic
respiratory disease, such as asthma or emphysema.
Option B: Occupational therapists help patients regain function and
independence. Occupational therapists treat injured, ill, or disabled
patients through the therapeutic use of everyday activities. They help these
patients develop, recover, improve, as well as maintain the skills needed for
daily living and working.
2. Question 20 of 75
20. Question
Which of the following is/are an example(s) of theoretical knowledge? Select all
that apply.
o B. When you take a patient's blood pressure, the patient's arm should be at
heart level.
o D. When drawing medication out of a vial, inject air into the vial first.
o E. Let the patient dangle his feet first before assisting him to stand or
transfer.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A, C
Theoretical knowledge consists of research findings, facts (e.g., ―Antibiotics are
ineffective . . .‖ is a fact), principles, and theories (e.g., ―In Maslow‘s framework . . .‖
is a statement from a theory). Instructions for taking blood pressure and
withdrawing medications are examples of practical knowledge—what to do and
how to do it. While practical knowledge is gained by doing things, theoretical
knowledge is gained, for example, by reading a manual.
Option A: Theoretical knowledge teaches the reasoning, techniques and
theory of knowledge.
Option B: Practical knowledge is the knowledge that is acquired by day-
to-day hands-on experiences. In other words, practical knowledge is
gained through doing things; it is very much based on real-life endeavors
and tasks.
2. Question 21 of 75
21. Question
The nurse recognizes that urinary elimination changes may occur even in healthy
older adults because of which of the following?
2. Question 22 of 75
22. Question
During the assessment of the client with urinary incontinence, the nurse is most
likely to assess for which of the following? Select all that apply.
o D. Hx of UTI
o E. A fecal impaction
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A, B, D, and E
Urinary incontinence is the involuntary leakage of urine. This medical condition is
common in the elderly, especially in nursing homes, but it can affect younger
adult males and females as well. Urinary incontinence can impact both patient
health and quality of life. The prevalence may be underestimated as some
o A. Ensure that the tip of the penis fits snugly against the end of the condom.
o B. Leaves the catheter in place and asks another nurse to attempt the
procedure.
o D. Removes the catheter, wipes it with a sterile gauze, and redirects it to the
urinary meatus.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Leaves the catheter in place and gets a new sterile
catheter.
The catheter in the vagina is contaminated and can‘t be reused. If left in place, it
may help avoid mistaking the vaginal opening for the urinary meatus. A single
failure to catheterize the meatus doesn‘t indicate that another nurse is needed
although sometimes a second nurse can assist in visualization of the meatus.
Urinary bladder catheterization is performed for both therapeutic and diagnostic
purposes. Based on the dwell time, the urinary catheter can be either intermittent
(short-term) or indwelling (long-term).
Option B: After exposing the urethral meatus, a lubricated catheter tip is
advanced in the meatus until there is a spontaneous return of urine. The
catheter balloon is then inflated as per the manufacturer‘s
recommendations.
Option C: In the event a catheter is inserted in the vagina, it should be left
there until a new sterile catheter is successfully inserted into the meatus.
Analgesia is of no proven clinical use in women. Lubrication jelly should be
applied to the tip of the catheter. The application of lubricant to the
urethral meatus is associated with difficulty in catheter insertion.
Option D: Urinary tract infection (UTI) is the most common complication
that occurs as a result of long-term catheterization. The normal urinary
flow prevents the ascension of microbes from the periurethral skin
avoiding the infection. Alteration of the defensive mechanism from the
2. Question 25 of 75
25. Question
Which statement indicates a need for further teaching of a home care client with
a long term indwelling catheter?
o A. "I will keep the collecting bag below the level of the bladder at all times."
o C. "Soaking in a warm tub bath may ease the irritation associated with
the catheter."
o D. "I should use clean tech. when emptying the collecting bag."
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. “Soaking in a warm tub bath may ease the irritation
associated with the catheter”
Soaking in a bathtub can increase the risk of exposure to bacteria. Avoid taking
baths, but shower daily. For the first few days after getting a suprapubic catheter,
use a waterproof bandage when showering. Once the wound heals, the client can
shower as usual, but avoid scented soaps.
Option A: The bag should be below the level of the bladder to promote
proper drainage. Always keep the bag below the waist. Check the tube
once in a while for bends or kinks that keep pee from flowing out. Don‘t
use any lotions or powders around where the catheter goes into the body.
Option B: Intake of cranberry juice creates an environment nonconducive
to infection. ―Indwelling‖ means inside the body. This catheter drains urine
from the bladder into a bag outside the body. Common reasons to have an
indwelling catheter are urinary incontinence (leakage), urinary retention
(not being able to urinate), a surgery that made this catheter necessary, or
another health problem.
Option D: Clean technique is appropriate for touching the exterior
portions of the system. Wash hands with soap and water. Empty urine from
2. Question 26 of 75
26. Question
During shift report, the nurse learns that an older female client is unable to
maintain continence after she senses the urge to void and becomes incontinent
on the way to the bathroom. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?
2. Question 27 of 75
27. Question
A female client has a urinary tract infection. Which teaching points by the nurse
should be helpful to the client? Select all that apply.
2. Question 28 of 75
28. Question
The nurse will need to assess the client‘s performance of clean intermittent self
catheterization (CISC) for a client with which urinary diversion?
o A. Ileal conduit
o B. Kock pouch
o D. Vesicostomy
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Kock pouch
The ileal conduit and vesicostomy are incontinent urinary diversions, and clients
are required to use an external ostomy appliance to contain the urine. In this new
operation, a pouch or reservoir is fashioned out of the terminal ileum with a valve
mechanism at its exit to the skin surface. This allows storage of the liquid bowel
contents in an expandable container with no leakage of stool or gas and
therefore no skin problems. There is no need for appliances or bags, no
embarrassment from the involuntary noise and smell of flatus through the
ileostomy. The stoma is created flush and within the bikini line. The patient
catheterizes the pouch on an average of three times a day.
Option A: An ileal conduit aims to divert urine produced from the upper
urinary tracts to a newly formed reservoir created from the terminal ileum.
The ureters are disconnected from the bladder and implanted into the
conduit.
Option C: Clients with a neobladder can control their voiding. During
neobladder surgery, the surgeon takes out the existing bladder and forms
an internal pouch from part of the intestine. The pouch, called a
neobladder, stores the urine.
Option D: A vesicostomy is a stoma (opening) created between the
bladder and the abdomen. This allows urine to drain freely, with low
pressure, to help protect and prevent harm to the kidneys. It is a surgical
procedure that typically involves an overnight stay in the hospital.
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2. Question 29 of 75
29. Question
Which focus is the nurse most likely to teach for a client with a flaccid bladder?
2. Question 30 of 75
30. Question
Which of the following behaviors indicates that the client on a bladder training
program has met the expected outcomes? Select all that apply.
2. Question 31 of 75
o A. Coughing
o B. Mobility deficits
o C. Prostate enlargement
2. Question 32 of 75
32. Question
o A. Urinal
o B. Graduate
o C. Large syringe
2. Question 33 of 75
33. Question
A patient‘s urine is cloudy, is amber, and has an unpleasant odor. What problem
may this information indicate that requires the nurse to make a focused
assessment?
o A. Urinary retention
2. Question 34 of 75
34. Question
A nurse is caring for a debilitated female patient with nocturia. Which nursing
intervention is the priority when planning to meet this patient‘s needs?
2. Question 35 of 75
35. Question
A practitioner uses a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity via a straight
catheter for a patient. What should the nurse do when collecting this urine
specimen?
2. Question 36 of 75
36. Question
A nurse in a provider‘s office is assessing a client who reports losing control of
urine whenever she coughs, laughs, or sneezes. The client relates a history of
three vaginal births, but no serious accidents or illnesses. Which of the following
interventions are appropriate for helping to control or eliminate the clients
incontinence? Select all that apply.
2. Question 37 of 75
37. Question
A client who has an indwelling catheter reports the need to urinate. Which of the
following interventions should the nurse perform?
2. Question 38 of 75
38. Question
A provider prescribes a 24-hour urine collection for a client. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
o D. Ask the client to urinate into the toilet, stop midstream, and finish
urinating into the specimen container.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Discard the first voiding.
The nurse should discard the first voiding of the 24 hour urine specimen, and
note the time. 24-hour urine protein measures the amount of protein released in
urine over a 24-hour period. The normal value is less than 100 milligrams per day
or less than 10 milligrams per deciliter of urine.
Option B: The nurse should collect all voidings after that and keep them in
a refrigerated container. A 24-hour urine collection is done by collecting
the urine in a special container over a full 24-hour period. The container
must be kept cool until the urine is returned to the lab.
Option C: For a urinalysis, the nurse should ask the client to urinate and
pour the urine into a specimen container. Urine is made up of water and
dissolved chemicals, such as sodium and potassium. It also contains urea.
This is made when protein breaks down. And it contains creatinine, which is
formed from muscle breakdown. Normally, urine contains certain amounts
of these waste products. It may be a sign of a certain disease or condition if
these amounts are not within a normal range. Or if other substances are
present.
Option D: For a culture, the nurse should ask the client to urinate first into
the toilet, then stop midstream, and finish urinating in the specimen
container. A 24-hour urine collection helps diagnose kidney problems. It is
often done to see how much creatinine clears through the kidneys. It‘s also
done to measure protein, hormones, minerals, and other chemical
compounds.
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2. Question 39 of 75
39. Question
A nurse is preparing to initiate a bladder training program for a client who has a
voiding disorder. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all
that apply.
2. Question 40 of 75
40. Question
A nurse educator on a medical unit is reviewing factors that increase the risk of
urinary tract infections with a group of assistive personnel. Which of the following
should be included in the review? Select all that apply.
2. Question 41 of 75
41. Question
o A. Coughing exercises one hour before meals and deep breathing one hour
after meals.
2. Question 42 of 75
42. Question
Nurse Trixie is preparing to perform tracheostomy care. Prior to the beginning of
the procedure, the nurse performs which action?
2. Question 43 of 75
43. Question
Which action by the nurse represents proper nasopharyngeal/nasotracheal
suctioning technique?
o A. Lubricate the suction catheter with petroleum jelly before and between
insertion.
o D. Hyper oxygenate with 100% oxygen for 30 minutes before and after
suctioning.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Rotate the catheter while applying suction.
Rotating the catheter prevents pulling of tissue into the opening on the catheter
tip and the side. Suction is used to clear retained or excessive lower respiratory
tract secretions in patients who are unable to do so effectively for themselves.
This could be due to the presence of an artificial airway, such as an endotracheal
or tracheostomy tube, or in patients who have a poor cough due to an array of
reasons such as excessive sedation or neurological involvement.
Option A: Suction catheters may only be lubricated with water or water-
soluble lubricant and petroleum jelly such as Vaseline has an oil base.
Lubricate the outside of the airway with a water-soluble/aqueous gel (e.g.
KY Jelly). Initially, choose the larger nostril that is clear from other tubes
(e.g. nasogastric tube). Insert the tip of the NPA into the nostril, then
slightly lift the nares up and direct the airway to follow a path along the
floor of the nose, parallel to the hard palate.
2. Question 44 of 75
44. Question
Which client statement informs the nurse that his teaching about the proper use
of an incentive spirometer was effective?
o A. "I should breathe out as fast and as hard as possible into the device."
o B. "I should inhale slowly and steadily to keep the balls up."
o C. "I should use the device three times a day, after meals."
2. Question 45 of 75
45. Question
While a client with chest tubes is ambulating, the connection between the tube
and the water seal dislodges. Which action by Nurse Flora is most appropriate?
2. Question 46 of 75
46. Question
Nurse Peter makes the assessment that which client has the greatest risk for a
problem with the transport of oxygen from the lungs to the tissues? A client who
has:
o A. Anemia
o B. An infection
o C. A fractured rib
2. Question 47 of 75
47. Question
Which term does the nurse document to best describe a client experiencing
shortness of breath while lying down who must assume an upright or sitting
position to breathe more comfortably and effectively?
o A. Dyspnea
o B. Hyperpnea
o C. Orthopnea
o D. Apnea
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Orthopnea
2. Question 48 of 75
48. Question
A client with emphysema is prescribed corticosteroid therapy on a short-term
basis for acute bronchitis. The client asks the nurse how the steroids will help him.
The nurse responded by saying that the corticosteroids will do which of the
following?
o A. Promote bronchodilation
2. Question 49 of 75
49. Question
Nurse Aleli is planning to perform percussion and postural drainage. Which is an
important aspect of planning the clients‘ care?
2. Question 50 of 75
2. 51. Question
Nurse AJ is applying a warm compress. What should the nurse explain to the
patient is the primary reason why heat is used instead of cold?
o B. Prevents hemorrhage
o C. Increases circulation
o D. Reduces discomfort
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Increases circulation
Heat increases the skin surface temperature, promoting vasodilation, which
increases blood flow to the area. Cold has the opposite effect: it promotes
vasoconstriction, which decreases blood flow to the area. In general, heat therapy
is also recommended prior to exercise for those who have chronic injuries. Heat
warms the muscles and helps increase flexibility. The only time one should ever
consider using cold to treat a chronic injury is after finishing exercising when
inflammation may reappear. Applying cold at this time helps reduce any residual
swelling.
Option A: Both heat and cold relax muscles and thus minimize muscle
spasms. It reduces joint stiffness and muscle spasm, which makes it useful
when muscles are tight. There is no advantage to using heat over cold.
When muscles work, chemical byproducts are made that need to be
eliminated. When exercise is very intense, there may not be enough blood
flow to eliminate all the chemicals. It is the buildup of chemicals (for
example, lactic acid) that cause muscle ache. Because the blood supply
helps eliminate these chemicals, use heat to help sore muscles after
exercise.
Option B: Heat does not prevent hemorrhage; heat causes vasodilation,
which promotes hemorrhage. Apply an ice compress to the injury as soon
2. Question 52 of 75
52. Question
A practitioner orders chest physiotherapy with percussion and vibration for a
newly admitted patient. Which information obtained by the nurse during the
health history should alert the nurse to question the practitioner‘s order?
o A. Emphysema
o B. Osteoporosis
o C. Cystic fibrosis
o D. Chronic bronchitis
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Osteoporosis
Implementing the practitioner‘s order may compromise patient safety because
percussion and vibration in the presence of osteoporosis may cause fractures.
Osteoporosis is an abnormal loss of bone mass and strength. Chest
physiotherapy is a group of physical techniques that improve lung function and
help you breathe better. Chest PT, or CPT expands the lungs, strengthens
breathing muscles, and loosens and improves drainage of thick lung secretions.
Option A: These are appropriate interventions for a patient with
emphysema. Emphysema is a chronic pulmonary disease characterized by
an abnormal increase in the size of air spaces distal to the terminal
bronchioles with destructive changes in their walls. Chest percussion and
2. Question 53 of 75
53. Question
Nurse Sue teaches a patient about pursed lip breathing. The nurse identifies that
the teaching is affected when the patient says its purpose is to:
o A. Precipitate coughing
2. Question 54 of 75
54. Question
What should Nurse Mavie do first if a patient is choking on food?
2. Question 55 of 75
55. Question
Nurse Stephanie is assessing a client who has an acute respiratory infection that
puts her at risk for hypoxemia. Which of the following findings are early
o A. Restlessness
o B. Tachypnea
o C. Bradycardia
o D. Confusion
o E. Cyanosis
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A, B, & E
Restlessness, tachypnea, and pallor are early manifestations of hypoxemia, along
with tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, use of accessory muscles, nasal flaring,
tracheal tugging, and adventitious lung sounds. Bradycardia and confusion are
late manifestations of hypoxemia, along with stupor, cyanotic skin and mucous
membranes, bradypnea, hypotension, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Hypoxemia is
defined as a decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood whereas
hypoxia is defined by reduced level of tissue oxygenation. It can be due to either
defective delivery or defective utilization of oxygen by the tissues.
Option A: When oxygen delivery is severely compromised, organ function
will start to deteriorate. Neurologic manifestations include restlessness,
headache, and confusion with moderate hypoxia. In severe cases, altered
mentation and coma can occur, and if not corrected quickly may lead to
death.
Option B: The chronic presentation is usually less dramatic, with dyspnea
on exertion as the most common complaint. Symptoms of the underlying
condition that induced the hypoxia can help in narrowing the differential
diagnosis. The physical exam may show tachypnea and low oxygen
saturation. Fever may point to infection as the cause of hypoxia.
Option C: Bradycardia is a late manifestation of hypoxemia. Increase in
cardiac output with exercise results in accelerated blood flow through
alveoli, reducing the time available for gas exchange. In case of the
abnormal pulmonary interstitium, gas exchange time becomes insufficient,
and hypoxemia ensues.
2. Question 56 of 75
56. Question
Nurse CJ is caring for a client who is having difficulty breathing. The client is lying
in bed and is already receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which of the
following interventions is the nurse‘s priority?
2. Question 57 of 75
57. Question
Nurse Aldrin is preparing to perform endotracheal suctioning for a client. Which
of the following are appropriate guidelines for the nurse to follow? Select all
that apply.
2. Question 58 of 75
58. Question
A nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take each time he provides tracheostomy care? Select
all that apply.
o A. Apply the oxygen source loosely if the SPO2 increases during the
procedure.
o C. Clean the outer surfaces in a circular motion from the stoma site
outward.
2. Question 59 of 75
59. Question
An elderly nursing home resident has refused to eat or drink for several days and
is admitted to the hospital. The nurse should expect which assessment finding?
2. Question 60 of 75
60. Question
A man brings his elderly wife to the emergency department. He states that she
has been vomiting and has had diarrhea for the past two days. She appears
lethargic and is complaining of leg cramps. What should the nurse do first?
o A. Start an IV.
o C. Offer the woman foods that are high in sodium and potassium content.
o D. Administer an antiemetic.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Review the results of serum electrolytes.
Further assessment is needed to determine appropriate action. While the nurse
may perform some of the interventions in options one, three, and four,
assessment is needed initially. Electrolyte abnormalities may be addressed on an
individual level, although often these are caused by an overall fluid volume
depletion which, when corrected, will also cause electrolytes to normalize. Both
2. Question 61 of 75
61. Question
Which of the following is the appropriate meaning of CBR?
o B. Complete Bathroom
2. Question 62 of 75
62. Question
One (1) tsp is equal to how many drops?
o A. 15
o B. 60
o C. 10
o D. 30
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. 60
One teaspoon (tsp) is equal to 60 drops (gtts). When the nurse has an order for
an IV infusion, it is her responsibility to make sure the fluid will infuse at the
prescribed rate. IV fluids may be infused by gravity using a manual roller clamp or
dial-a-flow, or infused using an infusion pump. Regardless of the method, it is
important to know how to calculate the correct IV flow rate.
2. 63. Question
20 cc is equal to how many ml?
o A. 2
o B. 20
o C. 2000
o D. 20000
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. 20
One cubic centimeter is equal to one milliliter. When clinicians are prepared and
know the key conversion factors, they will be less anxious about the calculation
involved. This is vital to accuracy, regardless of which formula or method
employed.
Option A: Drug calculations require the use of conversion factors, for
example, when converting from pounds to kilograms or liters to milliliters.
Simplistic in design, this method allows clinicians to work with various units
of measurement, converting factors to find the answer. These methods are
2. Question 64 of 75
64. Question
1 cup is equal to how many ounces?
o A. 8
o B. 80
o C. 800
o D. 8000
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. 8
One cup is equal to 8 ounces. Weight conversion is also utilized daily in health
care. There are two systems calculating weight used in all healthcare settings for
health management, such as medication dosing per patient body weight. First,
the metric system is in common use in health care in the US. It is also the only
system universally used in many countries on all continents of the globe. It has
the advantage of a decimal system in increments or the power of tenths. Second,
the US weight system customarily uses the ounce or pound. It derives from the
British colonial era. This non-metric system is still being used nowadays among
laypersons in the US for products sold to the public.
Option B: The metric system is essential in all health care settings. Patients
are weighed at each clinical encounter. Scales used in the US have double
2. Question 65 of 75
65. Question
The nurse must verify the client‘s identity before administration of medication.
Which of the following is the safest way to identify the client?
o C. State the client‘s name aloud and have the client repeat it.
2. Question 66 of 75
66. Question
The nurse prepares to administer buccal medication. The medicine should be
placed in what area?
2. Question 67 of 75
67. Question
The nurse administers a cleansing enema. The common position for this
procedure is?
o B. Dorsal Recumbent
o D. Prone
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Sims left lateral
This position provides comfort to the patient and easy access to the natural
curvature of the rectum. Enemas are rectal injections of fluid intended to cleanse
or stimulate the emptying of the bowel. Enemas may also be prescribed to flush
out the colon before certain diagnostic tests or surgeries. The bowel needs to be
empty before these procedures to reduce infection risk and prevent stool from
getting in the way.
Option B: Position the patient on the left side, lying with the knees drawn
to the abdomen. This eases the passage and flow of fluid into the rectum.
Gravity and the anatomical structure of the sigmoid colon also suggest that
this will aid enema distribution and retention. Dorsal recumbent is a
position in which the patient lies on the back with the lower extremities
moderately flexed and rotated outward. It is employed in the application of
obstetrical forceps, repair of lesions following parturition, vaginal
examination, and bimanual palpation.
Option C: The supine position means lying horizontally with the face and
torso facing up, as opposed to the prone position, which is face down.
When used in surgical procedures, it allows access to the peritoneal,
thoracic, and pericardial regions; as well as the head, neck, and extremities.
Option D: Prone position is a body position in which the person lies flat
with the chest down and the backup. In anatomical terms of location, the
dorsal side is up, and the ventral side is down. The supine position is the
180° contrast.
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2. Question 68 of 75
68. Question
A client complains of difficulty swallowing when the nurse tries to administer
capsule medication. Which of the following measures should the nurse do?
2. Question 69 of 75
69. Question
Which of the following is the appropriate route of administration for insulin?
o A. Intramuscular
o C. Subcutaneous
o D. Intravenous
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Subcutaneous
The subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen is preferred because the absorption of
the insulin is more consistent from this location than subcutaneous tissues in
other locations. Insulin may be injected into the subcutaneous tissue of the upper
arm and the anterior and lateral aspects of the thigh, buttocks, and abdomen
(with the exception of a circle with a 2-inch radius around the navel).
Option A: Intramuscular injection is not recommended for routine
injections. Rotation of the injection site is important to prevent
lipohypertrophy or lipoatrophy. Rotating within one area is recommended
(e.g., rotating injections systematically within the abdomen) rather than
rotating to a different area with each injection. This practice may decrease
variability in absorption from day to day.
Option B: Site selection should take into consideration the variable
absorption between sites. The abdomen has the fastest rate of absorption,
followed by the arms, thighs, and buttocks. Exercise increases the rate of
absorption from injection sites, probably by increasing blood flow to the
skin and perhaps also by local actions.
Option D: Administration of mixtures of rapid- or short- and intermediate-
or long-acting insulins will produce a more normal glycemia in some
patients than the use of single insulin. The formulations and particle size
distributions of insulin products vary. On mixing, physicochemical changes
in the mixture may occur (either immediately or over time). As a result, the
physiological response to the insulin mixture may differ from that of the
injection of the insulins separately.
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2. Question 70 of 75
70. Question
The nurse is ordered to administer ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The nurse should
give the medication by which frequency?
2. Question 71 of 75
71. Question
Back Care is best described as:
2. Question 72 of 75
o A. Bed bath
o B. Bed making
o C. Bed shampoo
o D. Bed lining
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Bed making
Bed making is one of the important nursing techniques to prepare various types
of bed for patients or clients to guarantee comfort and beneficial position for a
specific condition. The bed is particularly important for patients who are sick. The
nurse plays an inevitable role to ensure comfort and cleanliness for ill patients. It
should be adaptable to various positions as per patient‘s needs because they
spend a varying amount of the day in bed.
Option A: Bed bathing is not as effective as showering or bathing and
should only be undertaken when there is no alternative (Dougherty and
Lister, 2015). If a bed bath is required, it is important to offer patients the
opportunity to participate in their own care, which helps to maintain their
independence, self-esteem and dignity.
Option C: The condition of their hair and how it is styled is an important
part of patients‘ identity and wellbeing, so assisting them with hair care is a
fundamental aspect of nursing care
Option D: The purpose of a well-made hospital bed, as well as an
appropriately chosen mattress, is to provide a safe, comfortable place for
the patient, where repositioning is more easily achieved, and pressure
ulcers are prevented.
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2. Question 73 of 75
73. Question
Which of the following is the most important purpose of handwashing?
o D. To provide comfort.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. To prevent the transfer of microorganism
Hand washing is the single most effective infection control measure.
Handwashing practices in the patient care setting began in the early 19th century.
The practice evolved over the years with evidential proof of its vast importance
and coupled with other hand-hygienic practices, decreased pathogens
responsible for nosocomial or hospital-acquired infections (HAI).
Option A: According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
(CDC), hand hygiene is the single most important practice in the reduction
of the transmission of infection in the healthcare setting Transient
microorganisms are often acquired by healthcare workers through direct,
close contact with patients or contaminated inanimate objects or
environmental surfaces. Transient flora colonizes the superficial skin layers.
It can be removed by routine hand washing more easily than resident flora.
These organisms vary in number depending upon body location.
Healthcare-associated infections are a result of these transient organisms.
Option C: Contaminated hands of healthcare providers are a primary
source of pathogenic spread. Proper hand hygiene decreases the
proliferation of microorganisms, thus reducing infection risk and overall
healthcare costs, length of stays, and ultimately, reimbursement. According
to the CDC, hand hygiene encompasses the cleansing of your hands with
soap and water, antiseptic hand washes, antiseptic hand rubs such as
alcohol-based hand sanitizers, foams or gels, or surgical hand antisepsis.
Option D: Indications for handwashing include when hands are visibly
soiled, contaminated with blood or other bodily fluids, before eating, and
after restroom use. Hands should be washed if there was potential
exposure to Clostridium difficile, Norovirus, or Bacillus anthracis. Alcohol-
based hand sanitizers are the recommended product for hand hygiene
when hands are not visibly soiled. Apply alcohol-based products per
manufacturer guidelines on dispensing of the product. Typically, 3 mL to 5
mL in the palm, rubbing vigorously, ensuring all surfaces on both hands
2. Question 74 of 75
74. Question
What should be done in order to prevent contaminating the environment in bed
making?
75. Question
The most important purpose of cleansing bed bath is:
A. To cleanse, refresh and give comfort to the client who must remain in
bed.
2. 1. Question
All of the following can cause tachycardia except:
o A. Fever
o B. Exercise
2. Question 2 of 75
2. Question
Palpating the midclavicular line is the correct technique for assessing:
o C. Respiratory rate
o D. Apical pulse
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Apical pulse
The apical pulse (the pulse at the apex of the heart) is located on the
midclavicular line at the fourth, fifth, or sixth intercostal space. Assessing whether
the rhythm of the pulse is regular or irregular is essential. The pulse could be
regular, irregular, or irregularly irregular. Changes in the rate of the pulse, along
with changes in respiration is called sinus arrhythmia. In sinus arrhythmia, the
pulse rate becomes faster during inspiration and slows down during expiration.
2. Question 3 of 75
3. Question
The absence of which pulse may not be a significant finding when a patient is
admitted to the hospital?
o A. Apical
o B. Radial
o C. Pedal
o D. Femoral
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Pedal
Because the pedal pulse cannot be detected in 10% to 20% of the population, its
absence is not necessarily a significant finding. However, the presence or absence
2. Question 4 of 75
4. Question
Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
o C. An apathetic 63-year old COPD patient receiving nasal oxygen via cannula.
o D. A confused 78-year old patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) who
requires assistance to get out of bed.
2. Question 5 of 75
5. Question
2. Question 6 of 75
6. Question
The most common deficiency seen in alcoholics is:
o A. Thiamine
o B. Riboflavin
o C. Pyridoxine
o D. Pantothenic acid
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Thiamine
Chronic alcoholism commonly results in thiamine deficiency and other symptoms
of malnutrition. Chronic alcohol consumption can cause thiamine deficiency and
thus reduced enzyme activity through several mechanisms, including inadequate
dietary intake, malabsorption of thiamine from the gastrointestinal tract, and
impaired utilization of thiamine in the cells.
Option B: Riboflavin, vitamin B2, is a water-soluble and heat-stable vitamin
that the body uses to metabolize fats, protein, and carbohydrates into
glucose for energy. In addition to boosting energy, riboflavin functions as
an antioxidant for the proper function of the immune system, healthy skin,
and hair. Riboflavin deficiency can result from inadequate dietary intake or
by endocrine abnormalities. Riboflavin deficiency also correlates with other
vitamin B complexes.
Option C: Vitamin B6 deficiency is usually caused by pyridoxine-
inactivating drugs (eg, isoniazid), protein-energy undernutrition,
malabsorption, alcoholism, or excessive loss. Deficiency can cause
peripheral neuropathy, seborrheic dermatitis, glossitis, and cheilosis, and, in
adults, depression, confusion, and seizures.
Option D: Pantothenic acid deficiency is very rare in the United States.
Severe deficiency can cause numbness and burning of the hands and feet,
2. Question 7 of 75
7. Question
Which of the following statements is incorrect about a patient with dysphagia?
o A. The patient will find pureed or soft foods, such as custards, easier to
swallow than water.
o D. The nurse should perform oral hygiene before assisting with feeding.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. The patient should always feed himself.
A patient with dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) requires assistance with feeding.
Feeding himself is a long-range expected outcome. Dysphagia is defined as
objective impairment or difficulty in swallowing, resulting in an abnormal delay in
the transit of a liquid or solid bolus. The delay may be during the oropharyngeal
or esophageal phase of swallowing.
Option A: The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics has created a diet plan
for people with dysphagia. The plan is called the National Dysphagia Diet.
The dysphagia diet has 4 levels of foods. Level 1 foods are foods that are
pureed or smooth, like pudding. They need no chewing. This includes
foods such as yogurt, mashed potatoes with gravy to moisten it, smooth
soups, and pureed vegetables and meats.
Option B: While eating or drinking, it may help to sit upright, with the back
straight. The client may need support pillows to get into the best position.
It may also help to have few distractions while eating or drinking. Changing
between solid food and liquids may also help the swallowing. Stay upright
for at least 30 minutes after eating. This can help reduce the risk for
aspiration.
2. Question 8 of 75
8. Question
To assess the kidney function of a patient with an indwelling urinary (Foley)
catheter, the nurse measures his hourly urine output. She should notify the
physician if the urine output is:
o B. 64 ml in 2 hours
o C. 90 ml in 3 hours
o D. 125 ml in 4 hours
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Less than 30 ml/hour
A urine output of less than 30ml/hour indicates hypovolemia or oliguria, which is
related to kidney function and inadequate fluid intake. Urine output is a
noninvasive method to measure fluid balance once intravascular volume has
been restored. Normal urine output is defined as 1.5 to 2 mL/kg per hour
Option B: Micturition process entails contraction of the detrusor muscle
and relaxation of the internal and external urethral sphincter. The process is
slightly different based on age. Children younger than three years old have
the micturition process coordinated by the spinal reflex.
Option C: It starts with urine accumulation in the bladder that stretches the
detrusor muscle causing activation of stretch receptors. The stretch
sensation is carried by the visceral afferent to the sacral region of the spinal
2. Question 9 of 75
9. Question
Certain substances increase the amount of urine produced. These include:
o B. Beets
o C. Urinary analgesics
2. Question 10 of 75
10. Question
A male patient who had surgery 2 days ago for head and neck cancer is about to
make his first attempt to ambulate outside his room. The nurse notes that he is
steady on his feet and that his vision was unaffected by the surgery. Which of the
following nursing interventions would be appropriate?
o B. Discourage the patient from walking in the hall for a few more days.
2. Question 11 of 75
11. Question
A patient has exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
manifested by shortness of breath; orthopnea: thick, tenacious secretions; and a
dry hacking cough. An appropriate nursing diagnosis would be:
2. Question 12 of 75
12. Question
o B. ―Why are you crying? I didn‘t get to the bad news yet‖
o D. “I know this will be difficult for you, but your hair will grow back
after the completion of chemotherapy”
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. “I know this will be difficult for you, but your hair will
grow back after the completion of chemotherapy”
―I know this will be difficult‖ acknowledges the problem and suggests a resolution
to it. The term alopecia means hair loss regardless of the cause. It is not exclusive
to the scalp; it can be anywhere on the body. As an individual grows older, they
will lose hair. The difference between male hair loss and female hair loss is the
pattern. Men generally lose hair in the front and the temporal region, while
women tend to lose hair from the central area of the scalp. Also, female hair loss
will not end up with complete baldness, whereas male hair loss can end up with
complete baldness.
Option A: ―Don‘t worry..‖ offers some relief but doesn‘t recognize the
patient‘s feelings. The epidemiology is variable depending on the cause of
alopecia and the type. In alopecia areata, the prevalence is 0.2% with no
racial or sexual predilection, and it may affect any age group. Androgenetic
alopecia is a common disorder affecting 50% of men and 15% of women,
especially postmenopausal women.
Option B: ―..I didn‘t get to the bad news yet‖ would be inappropriate at
any time. Pathophysiology is dependent on the type of alopecia. In
alopecia areata, it is unknown, but the most common hypothesis involves
autoimmunity in the form of a T-cell–mediated pathway. In androgenetic
alopecia, both genetic and hormonal androgens play a role in
pathogenesis. In telogen effluvium, the shedding of hair is under the
influence of hormone or stress, but sometimes the trigger is not very clear.
Option C: ―Your hair is really pretty‖ offers no consolation or alternatives to
the patient. During the physical examination, it is essential to notice the
pattern of hair loss. In a patient with androgenetic alopecia, patients tend
2. Question 13 of 75
13. Question
An additional Vitamin C is required during all of the following periods except:
o A. Infancy
o B. Young adulthood
o C. Childhood
o D. Pregnancy
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Young adulthood
Additional Vitamin C is needed in growth periods, such as infancy and childhood,
and during pregnancy to supply demands for fetal growth and maternal tissues.
Other conditions requiring extra vitamin C include wound healing, fever, infection
and stress. Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin, antioxidant, and essential
cofactor for collagen biosynthesis, carnitine and catecholamine metabolism, and
dietary iron absorption. Humans are unable to synthesize vitamin C, so they can
only obtain it through dietary intake of fruits and vegetables.
Option A: An infant requires Vitamin C. Although most vitamin C is
completely absorbed in the small intestine, the percentage of absorbed
vitamin C decreases as intraluminal concentrations increase. Proline
residues on procollagen require vitamin C for the hydroxylation, making it
necessary for the triple-helix formation of mature collagen. The lack of a
stable triple-helical structure compromises the integrity of the skin, mucous
membranes, blood vessels, and bone.
2. Question 14 of 75
14. Question
A prescribed amount of oxygen is needed for a patient with COPD to prevent:
o C. Respiratory excitement.
2. Question 15 of 75
15. Question
After 1 week of hospitalization, Mr. Gray develops hypokalemia. Which of the
following is the most significant symptom of his disorder?
o A. Lethargy
o C. Muscle weakness
o D. Muscle irritability
Incorrect
2. Question 16 of 75
16. Question
Which of the following nursing interventions promotes patient safety?
o A. Assess the patient‘s ability to ambulate and transfer from a bed to a chair.
2. Question 17 of 75
17. Question
o C. Side rails are a deterrent that prevent a patient from falling out of bed.
2. Question 18 of 75
18. Question
Examples of patients suffering from impaired awareness include all of the
following except:
2. Question 19 of 75
19. Question
The most common injury among elderly persons is:
o D. Hip fracture
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Hip fracture
Hip fracture, the most common injury among elderly persons, usually results from
osteoporosis. Hip fractures from falls are one of the leading causes of injuries for
seniors and result in the largest number of hospitalizations. Family members and
hourly caregivers can take steps to prevent falls, such as removing area rugs,
improving lighting throughout the home, and offering mobility support when
needed.
Option A: Some changes in the heart and blood vessels normally occur
with age. However, many other changes that are common with aging are
due to modifiable factors. If not treated, these can lead to heart disease.
Arteriosclerosis (hardening of the arteries) is very common. Fatty plaque
deposits inside the blood vessels cause them to narrow and totally block
blood vessels. The capillary walls thicken slightly. This may cause a slightly
slower rate of exchange of nutrients and wastes.
Option B: Increasing age is a major risk factor for their formation, with the
prevalence of gallstones being greatest at advanced age. While the
2. Question 20 of 75
20. Question
The most common psychogenic disorder among elderly person is:
o A. Depression
o C. Inability to concentrate
o D. Decreased appetite
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Depression
Depression typically begins before the onset of old age and usually is caused by
psychosocial, genetic, or biochemical factors. Depression is a common problem
among older adults, but it is NOT a normal part of aging. In fact, studies show
that most older adults feel satisfied with their lives, despite having more illnesses
or physical problems. However, important life changes that happen as we get
older may cause feelings of uneasiness, stress, and sadness. Sometimes older
people who are depressed appear to feel tired, have trouble sleeping, or seem
grumpy and irritable. Confusion or attention problems caused by depression can
sometimes look like Alzheimer‘s disease or other brain disorders.
Option B: Primary sleep disorders are more common in the elderly than in
younger persons. Restless legs syndrome and periodic limb movement
disorder can disrupt sleep and may respond to low doses of
antiparkinsonian agents as well as other drugs. Sleep apnea can lead to
excessive daytime sleepiness.
2. Question 21 of 75
21. Question
Which of the following vascular system changes results from aging?
2. Question 22 of 75
22. Question
Which of the following is the most common cause of dementia among elderly
persons?
o A. Parkinson‘s disease
o B. Multiple sclerosis
o D. Alzheimer’s disease
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Alzheimer’s disease
Alzheimer‘s disease, sometimes known as senile dementia of the Alzheimer‘s type
or primary degenerative dementia, is an insidious; progressive, irreversible, and
degenerative disease of the brain whose etiology is still unknown. Alzheimer‘s is
the most common cause of dementia among older adults. Dementia is the loss of
cognitive functioning—thinking, remembering, and reasoning—and behavioral
abilities to such an extent that it interferes with a person‘s daily life and activities.
2. Question 23 of 75
23. Question
The nurse‘s most important legal responsibility after a patient‘s death in a
hospital is:
2. Question 24 of 75
24. Question
Before rigor mortis occurs, the nurse is responsible for:
2. Question 25 of 75
25. Question
When a patient in the terminal stages of lung cancer begins to exhibit loss of
consciousness, a major nursing priority is to:
o B. Insert an airway.
2. Question 26 of 75
26. Question
Which element in the circular chain of infection can be eliminated by preserving
skin integrity?
o A. Host
o B. Reservoir
o C. Mode of transmission
o D. Portal of entry
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Portal of entry
In the circular chain of infection, pathogens must be able to leave their reservoir
and be transmitted to a susceptible host through a portal of entry, such as
broken skin. The portal of entry refers to the manner in which a pathogen enters
a susceptible host. The portal of entry must provide access to tissues in which the
pathogen can multiply or a toxin can act. Often, infectious agents use the same
portal to enter a new host that they used to exit the source host.
Option A: The final link in the chain of infection is a susceptible host.
Susceptibility of a host depends on genetic or constitutional factors,
specific immunity, and nonspecific factors that affect an individual‘s ability
2. Question 27 of 75
27. Question
Which of the following will probably result in a break in sterile technique for
respiratory isolation?
o C. Opening the door of the patient’s room leading into the hospital
corridor.
2. Question 28 of 75
28. Question
Which of the following patients is at greater risk for contracting an infection?
2. Question 29 of 75
29. Question
Effective handwashing requires the use of:
2. Question 30 of 75
30. Question
After routine patient contact, handwashing should last at least:
o A. 30 seconds
o B. 1 minute
o D. 3 minutes
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. 30 seconds
Depending on the degree of exposure to pathogens, hand washing may last from
10 seconds to 4 minutes. After routine patient contact, hand washing for 30
seconds effectively minimizes the risk of pathogen transmission. According to the
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), hand hygiene is the single
most important practice in the reduction of the transmission of infection in the
healthcare setting.
Option B: According to the CDC, hand hygiene encompasses the cleansing
of your hands with soap and water, antiseptic hand washes, antiseptic hand
rubs such as alcohol-based hand sanitizers, foams or gels, or surgical hand
antisepsis. Indications for handwashing include when hands are visibly
soiled, contaminated with blood or other bodily fluids, before eating, and
after restroom use.
Option C: Handwashing is the act of washing hands with soap, either
antimicrobial or non-antimicrobial, and water for at least 15 to 20 seconds
with a vigorous motion to cause friction making sure to include all surfaces
of the hands and fingers. Hand rubbing with an alcohol-based rub should
not be performed when the hands are visibly soiled. In this case, the CDC
and WHO guidelines recommend that handwashing with soap and water
Option D: Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are the recommended product
for hand hygiene when hands are not visibly soiled. Apply alcohol-based
products per manufacturer guidelines on dispensing of the product.
Typically, 3 mL to 5 mL in the palm, rubbing vigorously, ensuring all
surfaces on both hands get covered, about 20 seconds is required for all
surfaces to dry completely.
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2. Question 31 of 75
31. Question
Which of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?
o D. Colostomy irrigation
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Urinary catheterization
The urinary system is normally free of microorganisms except at the urinary
meatus. Any procedure that involves entering this system must use surgically
aseptic measures to maintain a bacteria-free state. Guidelines from The Centers
for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and The European Association of
Urology Nurses (EAUN) recommend ‗sterile technique‘ when inserting an
indwelling urinary catheter. Insertion of indwelling urinary catheters should be
performed in a way that minimizes the risk of introducing bacteria to the urinary
bladder.
Option A: Conjugated estrogens is a medicine that contains a mixture of
estrogen hormones. Conjugated estrogen vaginal cream is used to treat
changes in and around the vagina (such as vaginal dryness, itching, and
burning) caused by low estrogen levels or menopause. It is also used to
treat vaginal pain during sexual intercourse. This medicine is to be used
only in the vagina. Use at bedtime unless your doctor tells otherwise.
Option C: Nasogastric (NG) intubation is a procedure in which a thin,
plastic tube is inserted into the nostril, toward the esophagus, and down
into the stomach. Once an NG tube is properly placed and secured,
healthcare providers such as the nurses can deliver food and medicine
directly to the stomach or obtain substances from it. Clean, not sterile,
technique is necessary because the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is not sterile.
Option D: Sterile supplies are used in acute care with a fresh post-surgical
urostomy. A patient in the community may not use sterile supplies, but
strict adherence to proper hand hygiene is required to prevent infections
of the bladder, kidney, or urinary tract. Never place anything inside the
stoma.
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2. Question 32 of 75
32. Question
2. Question 33 of 75
33. Question
Which of the following constitutes a break in sterile technique while preparing a
sterile field for a dressing change?
o A. Using sterile forceps, rather than sterile gloves, to handle a sterile item.
o D. Pouring out a small amount of solution (15 to 30 ml) before pouring the
solution into a sterile container.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Placing a sterile object on the edge of the sterile field.
The edges of a sterile field are considered contaminated. When sterile items are
allowed to come in contact with the edges of the field, the sterile items also
become contaminated. The sterile field should be prepared as close as possible
to the time of use.2 The sterility of supplies used during a surgical procedure can
be affected by the events taking place within the operating room, and the length
of time the items have been exposed to the environment.
Option A: Under no circumstances should sterile and nonsterile
items/areas be mixed since one contaminates the other.4 Sterilization
provides the highest level of assurance that all instruments, sutures, fluids,
supplies, and drapes are void of microorganisms.2 The sterility of a
package is determined by events, not by time. To ensure sterility, all sterile
items need to be inspected for package integrity and sterilization process
indicators, such as indicator tape and internal chemical indicators, prior to
introduction onto the sterile field. If a package has been compromised, it
should be considered contaminated and not be used.
Option B: When opening wrapped supplies, the nonsterile person should
open the top wrapper flap away from them first, then open the flaps to
each side. The last wrapper flap is pulled toward the nonsterile person
2. Question 34 of 75
34. Question
A natural body defense that plays an active role in preventing infection is:
o A. Yawning
o B. Body hair
o C. Hiccupping
2. Question 35 of 75
35. Question
All of the following statement are true about donning sterile gloves except:
o A. The first glove should be picked up by grasping the inside of the cuff.
o C. The gloves should be adjusted by sliding the gloved fingers under the
sterile cuff and pulling the glove over the wrist.
2. Question 36 of 75
36. Question
When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should be careful that the first
thing she touches is the:
2. Question 37 of 75
37. Question
Which of the following nursing interventions is considered the most effective
form for universal precautions?
o A. Cap all used needles before removing them from their syringes.
2. Question 38 of 75
38. Question
All of the following measures are recommended to prevent pressure
ulcers except:
2. Question 39 of 75
39. Question
Which of the following blood tests should be performed before a blood
transfusion?
2. Question 40 of 75
40. Question
2. Question 41 of 75
o A. 4,500/mm³
o B. 7,000/mm³
o C. 10,000/mm³
o D. 25,000/mm³
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. 25,000/mm³
Leukocytosis is any transient increase in the number of white blood cells
(leukocytes) in the blood. The normal number of WBCs in the blood is 4,500 to
11,000 WBCs per microliter (4.5 to 11.0 × 109/L). Normal value ranges may vary
slightly among different labs. Thus, a count of 25,000/mm3 indicates leukocytosis.
Option A: A WBC count is a blood test to measure the number of white
blood cells (WBCs) in the blood. WBCs are also called leukocytes. They help
fight infections. A higher than normal WBC count is called leukocytosis.
Leukocytosis is the broad term for an elevated white blood cell (WBC)
count, typically above 11.0×10^9/L, on a peripheral blood smear
collection. The exact value of WBC elevation can vary slightly between
laboratories depending on their ‗upper limits of normal‘ as identified by
their reference ranges.
Option B: The WBC value represents the sum-total of white blood cell
subtypes, including neutrophils, eosinophils, lymphocytes, monocytes,
atypical leukocytes that are not normally present on a peripheral blood
smear (e.g., lymphoblasts), or any combination of these. The clinician
should properly characterize the leukocytosis and determine if further
evaluation and workup are indicated.
Option C: Leukocytosis can occur acutely and often transiently or
chronically, either in response to an inflammatory stressor/cytokine
cascade or as part of an autonomous myeloproliferative neoplasm.
Neutrophilia is the most common presentation, but clinicians should be
aware of the other cell lines that can be involved in acute and chronic
presentations. A detailed history, physical examination, medication
2. Question 42 of 75
42. Question
After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of furosemide (Lasix) daily, a patient
begins to exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness. These
symptoms probably indicate that the patient is experiencing:
o A. Hypokalemia
o B. Hyperkalemia
o C. Anorexia
o D. Dysphagia
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Hypokalemia
Fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weaknesses are symptoms of hypokalemia
(an inadequate potassium level), which is a potential side effect of diuretic
therapy. The physician usually orders supplemental potassium to prevent
hypokalemia in patients receiving diuretics. Hypokalemia is more prevalent than
hyperkalemia; however, most cases are mild. Although there is a slight variation,
an acceptable lower limit for normal serum potassium is 3.5 mmol/L. Severity is
categorized as mild when the serum potassium level is 3 to 3.4 mmol/L, moderate
when the serum potassium level is 2.5 to 3 mmol/L, and severe when the serum
potassium level is less than 2.5 mmol/L.
Option B: Hyperkalemia is defined as a serum or plasma potassium level
above the upper limits of normal, usually greater than 5.0 mEq/L to 5.5
mEq/L. While mild hyperkalemia is usually asymptomatic, high levels of
potassium may cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, muscle
weakness or paralysis. Symptoms usually develop at levels higher levels, 6.5
mEq/L to 7 mEq/L, but the rate of change is more important than the
numerical value.
2. Question 43 of 75
43. Question
Which of the following statements about chest X-rays is not true?
o B. Before the procedure, the patient should remove all jewelry, metallic
objects, and buttons above the waist.
2. Question 44 of 75
44. Question
The most appropriate time for the nurse to obtain a sputum specimen for culture
is:
2. Question 45 of 75
45. Question
A patient with no known allergies is to receive penicillin every 6 hours. When
administering the medication, the nurse observes a fine rash on the patient‘s skin.
The most appropriate nursing action would be to:
2. Question 46 of 75
46. Question
All of the following nursing interventions are correct when using the Z-track
method of drug injection except:
2. Question 47 of 75
47. Question
The correct method for determining the vastus lateralis site for I.M. injection is to:
o A. Locate the upper aspect of the upper outer quadrant of the buttock about
5 to 8 cm below the iliac crest.
o D. Divide the area between the greater femoral trochanter and the
lateral femoral condyle into thirds, and select the middle third on the
anterior of the thigh.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Divide the area between the greater femoral trochanter
and the lateral femoral condyle into thirds, and select the middle third on
the anterior of the thigh
The vastus lateralis, a long, thick muscle that extends the full length of the thigh,
is viewed by many clinicians as the site of choice for I.M. injections because it has
relatively few major nerves and blood vessels. The middle third of the muscle is
recommended as the injection site. The patient can be in a supine or sitting
position for an injection into this site.
Option A: There are specific landmarks to be taken into consideration
while giving IM injections so as to avoid any neurovascular complications.
The heel of the opposing hand is placed in the greater trochanter, the
index finger in the anterior superior iliac spine, and the middle finger below
the iliac crest. The drug is injected in the triangle formed by the index,
middle finger, and the iliac crest
Option B: The deltoid area is 2.5 to 5 cm below the acromion process.
Intramuscular injection is the method of installing medications into the
depth of the bulk of specifically selected muscles. The basis of this process
is that the bulky muscles have good vascularity, and therefore the injected
drug quickly reaches the systemic circulation and thereafter into the
specific region of action, bypassing the first-pass metabolism.
Option C: The vastus lateralis is a common site for IM injection. The middle
third of the line joining the greater trochanter of the femur and the lateral
femoral condyle of the knee. It is one of the most common medical
procedures to be performed on an annual basis. However, there is still a
lack of uniform guidelines and an algorithm in giving IM among health
professionals across the world.
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2. Question 49 of 75
49. Question
The appropriate needle size for insulin injection is:
o A. 18G, 1 ½‖ long
o B. 22G, 1‖ long
o C. 22G, 1 ½‖ long
2. Question 50 of 75
50. Question
The appropriate needle gauge for intradermal injection is:
o A. 20G
o B. 22G
o C. 25G
o D. 26G
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. 26G
Because an intradermal injection does not penetrate deeply into the skin, a small-
bore 26G-27G needle is recommended. This type of injection is used primarily to
administer antigens to evaluate reactions for allergy or sensitivity studies.
Equipment used for ID injections is a tuberculin syringe calibrated in tenths and
hundredths of a millilitre, and a 1/4 to 1/2 in., 26 or 27 gauge needle. The dosage
of an ID injection is usually under 0.5 ml. The angle of administration for an ID
injection is 5 to 15 degrees.
Option A: A 20G needle is usually used for I.M. injections of oil-based
medications. Intramuscular injections are administered at a 90-degree
angle to the skin, preferably into the anterolateral aspect of the thigh or
the deltoid muscle of the upper arm, depending on the age of the patient.
The needle gauge for intramuscular injection is 22-25 gauge.
Option B: A 22G-25G needle for I.M. injections. A decision on needle
length and site of injection must be made for each person on the basis of
the size of the muscle, the thickness of adipose tissue at the injection site,
2. Question 51 of 75
51. Question
Parenteral penicillin can be administered as an:
o A. IM injection or an IV solution
o B. IV or an intradermal injection
o D. IM or a subcutaneous injection
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. IM injection or an IV solution
Parenteral penicillin can be administered I.M. or added to a solution and given
I.V. It cannot be administered subcutaneously or intradermally. Penicillin G
administration can be either intravenously or intramuscularly. Penicillin G
benzathine administration ensures a continuous low dose of penicillin G over 2 to
4 weeks.
Option B: Intradermal injection, often abbreviated ID, is a shallow or
superficial injection of a substance into the dermis, which is located
between the epidermis and the hypodermis. This route is relatively rare
compared to injections into the subcutaneous tissue or muscle.
Option C: A subcutaneous injection is a method of administering
medication. Subcutaneous means under the skin. In this type of injection, a
short needle is used to inject a drug into the tissue layer between the skin
2. Question 52 of 75
52. Question
The physician orders gr 10 of aspirin for a patient. The equivalent dose in
milligrams is:
o A. 0.6 mg
o B. 10 mg
o C. 60 mg
o D. 600 mg
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. 600 mg
gr 10 x 60 mg/gr 1 = 600 mg. There are 3 primary methods for the calculation of
medication dosages, as referenced above. These include Desired Over Have
Method or Formula, Dimensional Analysis and Ratio and Proportion (as cited in
Boyer, 2002)[Lindow, 2004].
Option A: Desired over Have or Formula Method is a formula or equation
to solve for an unknown quantity (x) much like ratio proportion. Drug
calculations require the use of conversion factors, such as when converting
from pounds to kilograms or liters to milliliters. Simplistic in design, this
method allows us to work with various units of measurement, converting
factors to find our answer. Useful in checking the accuracy of the other
methods of calculation as above mentioned, thus acting as a double or
triple check.
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2. Question 53 of 75
53. Question
The physician orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at 100ml/hour. What
would the flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml?
o A. 5 gtt/minute
o B. 13 gtt/minute
o C. 25 gtt/minute
o D. 50 gtt/minute
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. 25 gtt/minute
100ml/60 min X 15 gtt/ 1 ml = 25 gtt/minute. When the nurse has an order for an
IV infusion, it is her responsibility to make sure the fluid will infuse at the
prescribed rate. IV fluids may be infused by gravity using a manual roller clamp or
dial-a-flow, or infused using an infusion pump. Regardless of the method, it is
important to know how to calculate the correct IV flow rate.
Option A: When calculating the flow rate, determine which IV tubing you
will be using, microdrip or macrodrip, so you can use the proper drop
factor in your calculations. The drop factor is the number of drops in one
mL of solution, and is printed on the IV tubing package.
2. Question 54 of 75
54. Question
Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a hemolytic reaction to blood
transfusion?
o A. Hemoglobinuria
o B. Chest pain
o C. Urticaria
2. Question 55 of 75
55. Question
Which of the following conditions may require fluid restriction?
o A. Fever
o C. Renal Failure
o D. Dehydration
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Renal Failure
In renal failure, the kidney loses their ability to effectively eliminate wastes and
fluids. Because of this, limiting the patient‘s intake of oral and I.V. fluids may be
necessary. The term renal failure denotes the inability of the kidneys to perform
excretory function leading to retention of nitrogenous waste products from the
blood.
Option A: A fever draws moisture out of the body. Plus, you lose fluid as
your body makes mucus and it drains away. And that over-the-counter
cold medicine you‘re taking to dry up your head can dry the rest of you
out, too. So drink plenty of water, juice, or soup.
Option B: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is airflow
limitation caused by an inflammatory response to inhaled toxins, often
2. Question 56 of 75
56. Question
All of the following are common signs and symptoms of phlebitis except:
2. Question 57 of 75
57. Question
The best way of determining whether a patient has learned to instill ear
medication properly is for the nurse to:
o B. Have the patient repeat the nurse‘s instructions using her own words.
2. Question 58 of 75
58. Question
Which of the following types of medications can be administered via gastrostomy
tube?
2. Question 59 of 75
59. Question
A patient who develops hives after receiving an antibiotic is exhibiting drug:
o A. Tolerance
o B. Idiosyncrasy
o C. Synergism
o D. Allergy
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Allergy
A drug-allergy is an adverse reaction resulting from an immunologic response
following previous sensitizing exposure to the drug. The reaction can range from
a rash or hives to anaphylactic shock.
Option A: Tolerance to a drug means that the patient experiences a
decreasing physiologic response to repeated administration of the drug in
the same dosage.
2. Question 60 of 75
60. Question
A patient has returned to his room after femoral arteriography. All of the
following are appropriate nursing interventions except:
o A. Assess femoral, popliteal, and pedal pulses every 15 minutes for 2 hours.
2. Question 61 of 75
61. Question
The nurse explains to a patient that a cough:
2. Question 62 of 75
62. Question
An infected patient has chills and begins shivering. The best nursing intervention
is to:
2. Question 63 of 75
63. Question
A clinical nurse specialist is a nurse who has:
2. Question 64 of 75
64. Question
The purpose of increasing urine acidity through dietary means is to:
2. Question 65 of 75
65. Question
Clay-colored stools indicate:
o B. Impending constipation
o C. An effect of medication
o D. Bile obstruction
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Bile obstruction
Bile colors the stool brown. Any inflammation or obstruction that impairs bile
flow will affect the stool pigment, yielding light, clay-colored stool. The liver
releases bile salts into the stool, giving it a normal brown color. One may have
clay-colored stools if they have a liver infection that reduces bile production, or if
the flow of bile out of the liver is blocked. Yellow skin (jaundice) often occurs with
clay-colored stools.
Option A: Upper GI bleeding results in black or tarry stool. Melena is a
black, tarry stool that is caused by GI bleeding. The black color is due to
the oxidation of blood hemoglobin during the bleeding in the ileum and
colon. Melena also refers to stools or vomit stained black by blood
pigment or dark blood products and may indicate upper GI bleeding.
Option B: Constipation is characterized by small, hard masses. The
problem may arise in the colon or rectum or it may be due to an external
cause. In most people, slow colonic motility that occurs after years of
laxative abuse is the problem. In a few patients, the cause may be related
to an outlet obstruction like rectal prolapse or a rectocele. External causes
of constipation may include poor dietary habits, lack of fluid intake,
overuse of certain medications, an endocrine problem like hypothyroidism
or some type of an emotional issue.
Option C: Many medications and foods will discolor stool – for example,
drugs containing iron turn stool black; beets turn stool red. Blue feces may
be caused by boric acid, chloramphenicol, or methylene blue. Causative
diseases for clay feces may include alcoholic hepatitis, biliary cirrhosis,
gallstones, sclerosing cholangitis, biliary strictures, or viral hepatitis.
Causative medications for gray feces may include cocoa or colchicines.
Potential causes for green stools may include spinach, Indomethacin, iron,
or medroxyprogesterone.
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o A. Assessment
o B. Analysis
o C. Planning
o D. Evaluation
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Evaluation
In the evaluation step of the nursing process, the nurse must decide whether the
patient has achieved the expected outcome that was identified in the planning
phase. This final step of the nursing process is vital to a positive patient outcome.
Whenever a healthcare provider intervenes or implements care, they must
reassess or evaluate to ensure the desired outcome has been met. Reassessment
may frequently be needed depending upon the overall patient‘s condition. The
plan of care may be adapted based on new assessment data.
Option A: Assessment is the first step and involves critical thinking skills
and data collection; subjective and objective. Subjective data involves
verbal statements from the patient or caregiver. Objective data is
measurable, tangible data such as vital signs, intake and output, and height
and weight.
Option B: Analysis can be a part of diagnosing. The formulation of a
nursing diagnosis by employing clinical judgment assists in the planning
and implementation of patient care. The North American Nursing
Diagnosis Association (NANDA) provides nurses with an up to date list of
nursing diagnoses. A nursing diagnosis, according to NANDA, is defined as
a clinical judgment about responses to actual or potential health problems
on the part of the patient, family, or community.
Option C: The planning stage is where goals and outcomes are formulated
that directly impact patient care based on EDP guidelines. These patient-
specific goals and the attainment of such assist in ensuring a positive
outcome. Nursing care plans are essential in this phase of goal setting.
2. Question 67 of 75
67. Question
All of the following are good sources of vitamin A except:
o A. White potatoes
o B. Carrots
o C. Apricots
o D. Egg yolks
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. White potatoes
Potatoes contain a good amount of carbs and fiber, as well as vitamin C, vitamin
B6, potassium and manganese. Their nutrient contents can vary depending on
the type of potato and cooking method. The main sources of vitamin A are yellow
and green vegetables (such as carrots, sweet potatoes, squash, spinach, collard
greens, broccoli, and cabbage) and yellow fruits (such as apricots, and
cantaloupe). Animal sources include liver, kidneys, cream, butter, and egg yolks.
Option B: They‘re rich in beta-carotene, a compound the body changes
into vitamin A, which helps keep the eyes healthy. And beta-carotene helps
protect the eyes from the sun and lowers the chances of cataracts and
other eye problems. Yellow carrots have lutein, which is also good for the
eyes.
Option C: Apricots are a great source of many antioxidants, including beta
carotene and vitamins A, C, and E. What‘s more, they‘re high in a group of
polyphenol antioxidants called flavonoids, which have been shown to
protect against illnesses, including diabetes and heart disease.
Option D: Egg yolks contain vitamins A, D, E, and K along with omega-3
fats. Compared to the whites, egg yolks are also rich in folate and vitamin
2. Question 68 of 75
68. Question
Which of the following is a primary nursing intervention necessary for all patients
with a Foley Catheter in place?
o A. Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag level with the patient‘s
bladder.
o C. Clamp the catheter for 1 hour every 4 hours to maintain the bladder‘s
elasticity.
o D. Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag below bladder level
to facilitate drainage by gravity.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag below
bladder level to facilitate drainage by gravity
To prevent obstruction, the catheter and collecting tube should be kept free from
kinking, the collecting bag should be positioned below the level of the bladder at
all times and never placed on the floor. The collecting bag should be emptied
regularly using a clean collecting container (HICPAC, 2009). In ambulatory
patients, collecting bags may be disguised in bags and pouches.
Option A: Maintaining the drainage tubing and collection bag level with
the patient‘s bladder could result in reflux of urine into the kidney. The
indwelling catheter should be secured to the thigh or abdomen after
insertion to prevent movement and the exertion of excessive force on the
bladder neck or urethra (Gray, 2008). Unsecured and displaced catheters
can also cause pressure ulcers on the perineum and buttock (Siegel, 2008).
Option B: Irrigating the bladder with Neosporin must be indicated and
ordered by the physician. Nash (2003) conducted a recent review of the
literature on self-cleaning of catheter training bags. The study showed that
patients whose bags were irrigated with vinegar showed a significant
2. Question 69 of 75
69. Question
The ELISA test is used to:
2. Question 70 of 75
70. Question
The two blood vessels most commonly used for TPN infusion are the:
2. Question 71 of 75
71. Question
Effective skin disinfection before a surgical procedure includes which of the
following methods?
2. Question 72 of 75
72. Question
When transferring a patient from a bed to a chair, the nurse should use which
muscles to avoid back injury?
o A. Abdominal muscles
o B. Back muscles
o C. Leg muscles
2. Question 73 of 75
73. Question
Thrombophlebitis typically develops in patients with which of the following
conditions?
2. Question 74 of 75
74. Question
In a recumbent, immobilized patient, lung ventilation can become altered,
leading to such respiratory complications as:
2. Question 75 of 75
75. Question
2. 1. Question
Once a nurse assesses a client‘s condition and identifies appropriate nursing
diagnoses, a:
2. Question 2 of 75
2. Question
Planning is a category of nursing behaviors in which:
o A. The nurse determines the health care needed for the client.
2. Question 3 of 75
3. Question
Priorities are established to help the nurse anticipate and sequence nursing
interventions when a client has multiple problems or alterations. Priorities are
determined by the client‘s:
o A. Physician
o C. Future well-being.
o D. Urgency of problems
Incorrect
2. Question 4 of 75
4. Question
A client-centered goal is a specific and measurable behavior or response that
reflects a client‘s:
2. Question 5 of 75
5. Question
For clients to participate in goal setting, they should be:
2. Question 6 of 75
6. Question
The nurse writes an expected outcome statement in measurable terms. An
example is:
o D. Client will take pain medication every 4 hours around the clock.
2. Question 7 of 75
7. Question
As goals, outcomes, and interventions are developed, the nurse must:
2. Question 8 of 75
8. Question
When establishing realistic goals, the nurse:
o B. Knows the resources of the health care facility, family, and the client.
2. Question 9 of 75
9. Question
To initiate an intervention the nurse must be competent in three areas, which
include:
2. Question 10 of 75
10. Question
Collaborative interventions are therapies that require:
2. Question 11 of 75
11. Question
Well formulated, client-centered goals should:
2. Question 12 of 75
12. Question
The following statement appears on the nursing care plan for an
immunosuppressed client: The client will remain free from infection throughout
hospitalization. This statement is an example of a (an):
o A. Nursing diagnosis
o B. Short-term goal
o C. Long-term goal
o D. Expected outcome
Incorrect
2. Question 13 of 75
13. Question
The following statements appear on a nursing care plan for a client after a
mastectomy: Incision site approximated; absence of drainage or prolonged
erythema at the incision site; and the client remains afebrile. These statements
are examples of:
o A. Nursing interventions
o B. Short-term goals
o C. Long-term goals
o D. Expected outcomes
Incorrect
2. Question 14 of 75
14. Question
The planning step of the nursing process includes which of the following
activities?
2. Question 15 of 75
15. Question
The nursing care plan is:
2. Question 16 of 75
16. Question
After determining a nursing diagnosis of acute pain, the nurse develops the
following appropriate client-centered goal:
2. Question 17 of 75
17. Question
When developing a nursing care plan for a client with a fractured right tibia, the
nurse includes in the plan of care independent nursing interventions, including:
2. Question 18 of 75
18. Question
Which of the following nursing interventions are written correctly?
2. Question 19 of 75
19. Question
A client‘s wound is not healing and appears to be worsening with the current
treatment. The nurse first considers:
2. Question 20 of 75
20. Question
When calling the nurse consultant about a difficult client-centered problem, the
primary nurse is sure to report the following:
2. Question 21 of 75
21. Question
The primary nurse asked a clinical nurse specialist (CNS) to consult on a difficult
nursing problem. The primary nurse is obligated to:
2. Question 22 of 75
22. Question
After assessing the client, the nurse formulates the following diagnoses. Place
them in order of priority, with the most important (classified as high) listed first.
View Answers:
2. Question 23 of 75
23. Question
The nurse is reviewing the critical paths of the clients on the nursing unit. In
performing a variance analysis, which of the following would indicate the need
for further action and analysis?
2. Question 24 of 75
24. Question
The RN has received her client assignment for the day shift. After making the
initial rounds and assessing the clients, which client would the RN need to
develop a care plan first?
o D. A client who just had an appendectomy and has just received pain
medication.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. A client, who has a fever, is diaphoretic and restless.
This client‘s needs are a priority. Clinical judgment and prioritization of patient
care is built on the nursing process. Nurses learn the steps of the nursing process
2. Question 25 of 75
25. Question
Which of the following statements about the nursing process is most accurate?
o C. Use of the nursing process is optional for nurses since there are many ways
to accomplish the work of nursing.
2. Question 26 of 75
26. Question
What equipment would be necessary to complete an evaluation of cranial nerves
9 and 10 during a physical assessment?
o A. A cotton ball
o B. A penlight
o C. Reminding the client that advances in technology are occurring every day.
2. Question 28 of 75
28. Question
An 8.5 lb, 6 oz infant is delivered to a diabetic mother. Which nursing intervention
would be implemented when the neonate becomes jittery and lethargic?
o A. Administer insulin.
o B. Administer oxygen.
2. Question 29 of 75
29. Question
What question would be most important to ask a male client who is in for a
digital rectal examination?
o D. ―Do you notice any burning with urination or any odor to the urine?‖
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. “Have you noticed a change in the force of the urinary
system?”
This change would be most indicative of a potential complication with (BPH)
benign prostate hypertrophy. The goals of the evaluation of such men are to
identify the patient‘s voiding or, more appropriately, urinary tract problems, both
symptomatic and physiologic; to establish the etiologic role of BPH in these
problems.
Option B: Food intolerances are more common in those with digestive
system disorders, such as irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). According to the
IBS network, most people with IBS have food intolerances. The symptoms
of food intolerances can also mimic the symptoms of chronic digestive
conditions, such as IBS. However, certain patterns in the symptoms can
help a doctor distinguish between the two.
2. Question 30 of 75
30. Question
The nurse assesses a prolonged late deceleration of the fetal heart rate while the
client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) IV to stimulate labor. The priority nursing
intervention would be to:
2. Question 31 of 75
31. Question
Which nursing approach would be most appropriate to use while administering
an oral medication to a 4-month-old?
2. Question 32 of 75
32. Question
Which nursing intervention would be a priority during the care of a 2-month-old
after surgery?
o D. Demonstrate to the mother how she can assist with her infant‘s care.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Encourage stroking of the infant.
Tactile stimulation is imperative for an infant‘s normal emotional development.
After the trauma of surgery, sensory deprivation can cause failure to thrive. Most
babies with FTT do not have a specific underlying disease or medical condition to
account for their growth failure. This is referred to as Non-organic FTT. Up to 80%
of all children with FTT have Non-organic type FTT. Non-organic FTT most
commonly occurs when there is inadequate food intake or there is a lack of
environmental stimuli.
Option A: Provide sensory stimulation. Attempt to cuddle the child and
talk to him or her in a warm, soothing tone and allow for play activities
appropriate for the child‘s age. Feed the child slowly and carefully in a
2. Question 33 of 75
33. Question
While performing a physical examination on a newborn, which assessment should
be reported to the physician?
2. Question 34 of 75
34. Question
Which action by the mother of a preschooler would indicate a disturbed family
interaction?
o A. Tells her child that if he does not sit down and shut up she will leave
him there.
o C. Tells her child that the injection can be given while he‘s in her lap.
2. Question 35 of 75
35. Question
During the history, which information from a 21-year-old client would indicate a
risk for development of testicular cancer?
o A. Genital Herpes
o B. Hydrocele
o C. Measles
o D. Undescended testicle
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Undescended testicle
Undescended testicles make the client at high risk for testicular cancer. Mumps,
inguinal hernia in childhood, orchitis, and testicular cancer in the contralateral
testis are other predisposing factors. The risk of testicular cancer might be a little
higher for men whose testicles stayed in the abdomen as opposed to one that
has descended at least partway. If cancer does develop, it‘s usually in the
undescended testicle, but about 1 out of 4 cases occur in the normally descended
testicle.
Option A: While HPV infections are very common, cancer caused by HPV is
not. Most people infected with HPV will not develop cancer-related to the
infection. However, some people with long-lasting infections of high-risk
types of HPV, are at risk of developing cancer.
Option B: Hydroceles generally don‘t pose any threat to the testicles.
They‘re usually painless and disappear without treatment. However, if the
2. Question 36 of 75
36. Question
While caring for a client, the nurse notes a pulsating mass in the client‘s
periumbilical area. Which of the following assessments is appropriate for the
nurse to perform?
2. Question 37 of 75
37. Question
When observing 4-year-old children playing in the hospital playroom, what
activity would the nurse expect to see the children participating in?
2. Question 38 of 75
38. Question
The nurse is teaching the parents of a 3 month-old infant about nutrition. What is
the main source of fluids for an infant until about 12 months of age?
o A. Formula or breastmilk
2. Question 39 of 75
39. Question
While the nurse is administering medications to a client, the client states ―I do not
want to take that medicine today.‖ Which of the following responses by the nurse
would be best?
o A. ―That‘s OK, it's alright to skip your medication now and then.‖
o C. “Is there a reason why you don’t want to take your medicine?”
2. Question 40 of 75
40. Question
The nurse is assessing a 4 month-old infant. Which motor skill would the nurse
anticipate finding?
o A. Hold a rattle
o D. Wave ―bye-bye‖
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Hold a rattle
The age at which a baby will develop the skill of grasping a toy with help is 4 to 6
months. The baby is becoming more dexterous and doing more with their hands.
Their hands now work together to move a toy or shake a rattle. In fact, those
hands will grab for just about anything within reach, including a stuffed animal,
the mother‘s hair, and any colorful or shiny object hanging nearby
Option B: At 9 months, babies repeat different actions with objects. They
mouth objects to explore the features. They bang objects with their hand
and bang two objects together to create sounds and actions. They drop
objects sometimes by chance and other times on purpose.
Option C: Babies are learning functional actions with a purpose in mind.
They can put things in, such as put clothes in the dryer or a shape in a
puzzle. From ―put in‖ they learn a variety of functional actions. They can put
2. Question 41 of 75
41. Question
The nurse should recognize that all of the following physical changes of the head
and face are associated with the aging client except:
o D. Neck wrinkles.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Decreased size of the nose and ears.
The nose and ears of the aging client actually become longer and broader. The
chin line is also altered. Height doesn‘t change after puberty (well, if anything we
get shorter as we age) but ears and noses are always lengthening. That‘s due to
gravity, not actual growth. As people age, gravity causes the cartilage in the ears
and nose to break down and sag. This results in droopier, longer features.
Option A: Wrinkles on the face become more pronounced and tend to
take on the general mood of the client over the years. For example laugh
or frown wrinkles above the eyebrows, lips, cheeks, and outer edges of the
eye orbit.
Option C: The change in the androgen-estrogen ratio causes an increase in
growth of facial hair in most older adults. Women develop excessive body
or facial hair due to higher-than-normal levels of androgens, including
testosterone. All females produce androgens, but the levels typically
remain low.
2. Question 42 of 75
42. Question
All of the following characteristics would indicate to the nurse that an elder client
might experience undesirable effects of medicines except:
2. Question 43 of 75
43. Question
When assessing a newborn whose mother consumed alcohol during the
pregnancy, the nurse would assess for which of these clinical manifestations?
2. Question 44 of 75
44. Question
Which of these statements, when made by the nurse, is most effective when
communicating with a 4-year-old?
2. Question 45 of 75
45. Question
A 64-year-old client scheduled for surgery with a general anesthetic refuses to
remove a set of dentures prior to leaving the unit for the operating room. What
would be the most appropriate intervention by the nurse?
o A. Explain to the client that the dentures must come out as they may get lost
or broken in the operating room.
o B. Ask the client if there are second thoughts about having the procedure.
o C. Notify the anesthesia department and the surgeon of the client‘s refusal.
2. Question 46 of 75
46. Question
The nurse is assessing a client who states her last menstrual period was March 17,
and she has missed one period. She reports episodes of nausea and vomiting.
Pregnancy is confirmed by a urine test. What will the nurse calculate as the
estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
o A. November 8
o B. May 15
o C. February 21
o D. December 24
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. December 24
Naegele‘s rule: add 7 days and subtract 3 months from the first day of the last
regular menstrual period to calculate the estimated date of delivery. Naegele‘s
rule, derived from a German obstetrician, subtracts 3 months and adds 7 days to
calculate the estimated due date (EDD). It is prudent for the obstetrician to get a
detailed menstrual history, including duration, flow, previous menstrual periods,
and hormonal contraceptives.
2. Question 47 of 75
47. Question
The family of a 6-year-old with a fractured femur asks the nurse if the child‘s
height will be affected by the injury. Which statement is true concerning long
bone fractures in children?
o D. Adequate blood supply to the bone prevents growth delay after fractures.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Epiphyseal fractures often interrupt a child’s normal
growth pattern.
Epiphyseal fractures often interrupt a child‘s normal growth pattern. Growth plate
fractures are classified based on which parts of the bone are damaged, in
addition to the growth plate. Areas of the bone immediately above and below
2. Question 48 of 75
48. Question
A client is admitted to the hospital with a history of confusion. The client has
difficulty remembering recent events and becomes disoriented when away from
home. Which statement would provide the best reality orientation for this client?
2. Question 49 of 75
49. Question
When a client wishes to improve the appearance of their eyes by removing excess
skin from the face and neck, the nurse should provide teaching regarding which
of the following procedures?
o A. Dermabrasion
o B. Rhinoplasty
o C. Blepharoplasty
o D. Rhytidectomy
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Rhytidectomy
Rhytidectomy is the procedure for removing excess skin from the face and neck.
It is commonly called a facelift. Rhytidectomy is a surgical procedure meant to
counteract the effects of time on the aging face. In the rhytidectomy procedure
(also known as a ―face-lift‖), the tissues under the skin are tightened and excess
facial and neck skin are excised. Rhytidectomy literally means wrinkle (rhytid-)
removal (-ectomy).
2. Question 50 of 75
50. Question
A woman who is six months pregnant is seen in antepartal clinic. She states she is
having trouble with constipation. To minimize this condition, the nurse should
instruct her to
2. Question 51 of 75
51. Question
A client with chronic pain reports to you, the charge nurse, that the nurse has not
been responding to requests for pain medication. What is your initial action?
o A. Check the MARs and nurses‘ notes for the past several days.
o D. Have a conference with the nurses responsible for the care of this
client.
Incorrect
2. Question 52 of 75
52. Question
Family members are encouraging your client to ―tough it out‖ rather than run the
risk of becoming addicted to narcotics. The client is stoically abiding by the
family‘s wishes. Priority nursing interventions for this client should target which
dimension of pain?
o A. Sensory
o B. Sociocultural
o D. Cognitive
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Sociocultural
The family is part of the socio-cultural dimension of pain. They are influencing the
client and should be included in the teaching sessions about the appropriate use
of narcotics and about the adverse effects of pain on the healing process. The
other dimensions should be included to help the client/family understand the
overall treatment plan and pain mechanism.
Option A: The sensory dimension encompasses both the quality and
severity of pain. It includes the patient‘s report of the location, quality, and
intensity of pain. Assessing this dimension helps quantify the pain and
clarify the extent of poorly localized or radiating pain.
Option C: The behavioral dimension of pain refers to the patient‘s verbal
or nonverbal behaviors exhibited in response to pain. To assess it, rely on
direct observation and continued patient interaction. Watch for common
behaviors associated with pain, such as guarding, splinting, tensing up,
crying, moaning, and massaging a specific body part.
Option D: The cognitive dimension refers to thoughts, beliefs, attitudes,
intentions, and motivations related to pain and its management. Before
assessing this dimension, evaluate the patient‘s cognitive capacity and
functioning. Review the medical history for diseases or conditions that may
impair cognition; if any exists, assess its current level of progression. In
some patients, pain can temporarily worsen pre-existing cognitive
limitations.
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2. Question 53 of 75
53. Question
A client with diabetic neuropathy reports a burning, electrical type in the lower
extremities that is not responding to NSAIDs. You anticipate that the physician
will order which adjuvant medication for this type of pain?
o A. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
o C. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
o D. Lorazepam (Ativan)
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
Antidepressants such as amitriptyline can be given for diabetic neuropathy. The
American Diabetes Association recommends amitriptyline, a tricyclic
antidepressant, as the first choice; however, titration to higher doses is limited by
its anticholinergic adverse effects.
Option B: Corticosteroids are for pain associated with inflammation.
Corticosteroids produce their effect through multiple pathways. In general,
they produce anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects, protein
and carbohydrate metabolic effects, water and electrolyte effects, central
nervous system effects, and blood cell effects.
Option C: Methylphenidate is given to counteract sedation if the client is
on opioids. Methylphenidate is FDA-approved for the treatment of
attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in children and adults and
as a second-line treatment for narcolepsy in adults. Children with a
diagnosis of ADHD should be at least six years of age or older before being
started on this medication.
Option D: Lorazepam is an anxiolytic. Lorazepam has common use as the
sedative and anxiolytic of choice in the inpatient setting owing to its fast (1
to 3 minute) onset of action when administered intravenously. Lorazepam
is also one of the few sedative-hypnotics with a relatively clean side effect
profile.
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2. Question 54 of 75
54. Question
Which client is most likely to receive opioids for extended periods of time?
2. Question 55 of 75
55. Question
As the charge nurse, you are reviewing the charts of clients who were assigned to
a newly graduated RN. The RN has correctly chartered the dose and time of
o D. Give praise for the correct dose and time and discuss the deficits in
charting.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Give praise for the correct dose and time and discuss the
deficits in charting.
In supervising the new RN, good performance should be reinforced first and then
areas of improvement can be addressed. Nursing activities are very important
within the hospital and must solve the problems that the patient needs. Every
nursing activity should produce documentation with critical thinking. If nursing
documents are not clear and accurate, inter-professional communication and an
evaluation of nursing care cannot be optimal.
Option A: Making a note and watching do not help the nurse to correct
the immediate problem. Nursing activity that has been completed or that
will take place should be properly documented. Accurate documentation
and reports play a pivotal role in health services. This documentation is
necessary to identify nursing interventions that have been provided to
patients and to show patient progress during hospitalization.
Option B: In-service might be considered if the problem persists. Nursing
documentation also serves as an effective tool of inter-professional
communication between nurses and other health professionals for
delivering ongoing nursing care, evaluating patient progress and
outcomes, and providing constant patient protection. High-quality nursing
documentation may improve the effectiveness of communication between
health professionals in first- and higher-level healthcare facilities.
Option C: Asking the nurse about knowledge of pain management is also
an option; however, it would be a more indirect and time-consuming
approach. It is also an indicator of nurse performance and the nursing
service quality in a hospital. Documentation provides details of patient
2. Question 56 of 75
56. Question
In caring for a young child with pain, which assessment tool is the most useful?
2. Question 57 of 75
57. Question
In applying the principles of pain treatment, what is the first consideration?
2. Question 58 of 75
58. Question
Which route of administration is preferred if immediate analgesia and rapid
titration are necessary?
o A. Intraspinal
o C. Intravenous (IV)
o D. Sublingual
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Intravenous (IV)
The IV route is preferred as the fastest and most amenable to titration.
Medications may be given as repeated intermittent bolus doses or by continuous
infusion. Intravenous provides almost immediate analgesia; subcutaneous may
require up to 15 minutes for effect. Bolus IV dosing provides a shorter duration of
action than other routes.
Option A: Intraspinal administration requires special catheter placement
and there are more potential complications with this route. Intraspinal and
intraventricular administration are options if maximal doses of opioids and
adjuvants administered through other routes are ineffective or produce
intolerable side effects {e.g., nausea/vomiting, excessive sedation,
confusion}. Opioids can be administered via indwelling percutaneous or
tunneled catheters into the epidural or intrathecal space.
Option B: A PCA bolus can be delivered; however, the pump will limit the
dosage that can be delivered unless the parameters are changed. Patient-
controlled analgesia (PCA) devices can be used to combine continuous
infusion with intermittent bolus doses, allowing more flexible pain control.
It is recommended that the hourly SQ volume limit not exceed 5 cc.
Medications can be concentrated to maintain SQ volume limits; maximal
2. Question 59 of 75
59. Question
When titrating an analgesic to manage pain, what is the priority goal?
o A. Administer smallest dose that provides relief with the fewest side
effects.
o D. Ensure that the drug is adequate to meet the client‘s subjective needs.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Administer smallest dose that provides relief with the
fewest side effects.
The goal is to control pain while minimizing side effects. The World Health
Organization cancer pain ladder provides a helpful starting point for achieving
effective pain management. Clinicians should begin with nonopioid analgesics
(e.g., acetaminophen, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs [NSAIDs]), and
gradually progress to more potent analgesics until pain is relieved.
Option B: For severe pain, the medication can be titrated upward until
pain is controlled. Many patients with terminal illnesses require immediate
opioid therapy or have contraindications to common non-opioid
analgesics, such as NSAIDs.
2. Question 60 of 75
60. Question
In educating clients about non-pharmaceutical alternatives, which topic could
you delegate to an experienced LPN/LVN, who will function under your
continued support and supervision?
o A. Therapeutic touch
o C. Meditation
2. Question 61 of 75
61. Question
Place the examples of drugs in the order of usage according to the World Health
Organization (WHO) analgesic ladder.
View Answers:
2. Question 62 of 75
62. Question
Which client is at greater risk for respiratory depression while receiving opioids
for analgesia?
2. Question 63 of 75
63. Question
A client appears upset and tearful, but denies pain and refuses pain medication,
because ―my sibling is a drug addict and has ruined our lives.‖ What is
the priority intervention for this client?
2. Question 64 of 75
64. Question
A client is being tapered off opioids and the nurse is watchful for signs of
withdrawal. What is one of the first signs of withdrawal?
o A. Fever
o B. Nausea
o C. Diaphoresis
o D. Abdominal cramps
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Diaphoresis
Diaphoresis is one of the early signs that occur between 6 and 12 hours. Fever,
nausea, and abdominal cramps are late signs that occur between 48 and 72
hours. According to Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM–
5) criteria, signs, and symptoms of opioid withdrawal include lacrimation or
rhinorrhea, piloerection ―goose flesh,‖ myalgia, diarrhea, nausea/vomiting,
pupillary dilation and photophobia, insomnia, autonomic hyperactivity
2. Question 65 of 75
65. Question
In caring for clients with pain and discomfort, which task is most appropriate to
delegate to the nursing assistant?
2. Question 66 of 75
66. Question
The physician has ordered a placebo for a chronic pain client. You are a newly
hired nurse and you feel very uncomfortable administering the medication. What
is the first action that you should take?
2. Question 67 of 75
67. Question
For a cognitively impaired client who cannot accurately report pain, what is
the first action that you should take?
o C. Look at the MAR and chart, to note the time of the last dose and response.
o D. Give the maximum PRS dose within the minimum time frame for relief.
Incorrect
2. Question 68 of 75
68. Question
Which route of administration is preferable for administration of daily analgesics
(if all body systems are functional)?
o A. IV
o B. IM or subcutaneous
o C. Oral
o D. Transdermal
o E. PCA
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Oral
If the gastrointestinal system is functioning, the oral route is preferred for routine
analgesics because of lower cost and ease of administration. Oral route is also
2. Question 69 of 75
69. Question
A first-day postoperative client on a PCA pump reports that the pain control is
inadequate. What is the first action you should take?
2. Question 70 of 75
70. Question
Which non-pharmacological measure is particularly useful for a client with acute
pancreatitis?
2. Question 71 of 75
71. Question
What is the best way to schedule medication for a client with constant pain?
o D. Around-the-clock
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Around-the-clock
2. Question 72 of 75
72. Question
Which client(s) are appropriate to assign to the LPN/LVN, who will function
under the supervision of the RN or team leader? Select all that apply.
o B. A client with a leg cast who needs neurologic checks and PRN
hydrocodone.
2. Question 73 of 75
o B. Hematocrit 41%
o C. PT 14 seconds
o D. BUN 20 mg/dL
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. PT 14 seconds
When a client takes aspirin, monitor for increases in PT (normal range 11.0-12.5
seconds in 85%-100%). Also, monitor for possible decreases in potassium (normal
range 3.5-5.0 mEq/L). If bleeding signs are noted, hematocrit should be
monitored (normal range male 42%-52%, female 37%-47%). An elevated BUN
could be seen if the client is having chronic gastrointestinal bleeding (normal
range 10-20 mg/dL).
Option A: Severity is categorized as mild when the serum potassium level
is 3 to 3.4 mmol/L, moderate when the serum potassium level is 2.5 to 3
mmol/L, and severe when the serum potassium level is less than 2.5
mmol/L. Values obtained from plasma and serum may differ.
Option B: HCT calculation is by dividing the lengths of the packed RBC
layer by the length of total cells and plasma. As it is a ratio, it doesn‘t have
any unit. Multiplying the ratio by 100 gives the accurate value, which is the
accepted reporting style for HCT. A normal adult male shows an HCT of
40% to 54% and female shows 36% to 48%.
Option D: BUN and creatinine levels that are within the ranges established
by the laboratory performing the test suggest that the kidneys are
functioning as they should. Increased BUN and creatinine levels may mean
that the kidneys are not working as they should. This healthcare
practitioner will consider other factors, such as the medical history and
physical exam, to determine what condition, if any, may be affecting the
kidneys.
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o A. An anxious, chronic pain client who frequently uses the call button.
o C. A client with HIV who reports headache and abdominal and pleuritic chest
pain.
2. Question 75 of 75
75. Question
A family member asks you, ―Why can‘t you give more medicine? He is still having
a lot of pain.‖ What is your best response?
o B. ―If the medication is given too frequently he could suffer ill effects.‖
o D. ―Let‘s wait about 30-40 minutes. If there is no relief I‘ll call the doctor.‖
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. “Please tell him that I will be right there to check on
him.”
Directly ask the client about the pain and do a complete pain assessment. This
information will determine which action to take next. Pain assessment is critical to
optimal pain management interventions. While pain is a highly subjective
experience, its management necessitates objective standards of care.
Option A: Poorly managing pain may put clinicians at risk for legal action.
Current standards for pain management, such as the national standards
outlined by the Joint Commission (formerly known as the Joint Commission
on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, JCAHO), require that pain is
promptly addressed and managed.
Option B: Continuous, unrelieved pain also affects the psychological state
of the patient and family members. Common psychological responses to
pain include anxiety and depression. The inability to escape from pain may
create a sense of helplessness and even hopelessness, which may
predispose the patient to more chronic depression.
1. 1. Question
The nurse is caring for an elderly woman who has had a fractured hip repaired. In
the first few days following the surgical repair, which of the following nursing
measures will best facilitate the resumption of activities for this client?
1. Question 2 of 75
2. Question
Which of the following is the most important nursing order in a client with major
head trauma who is about to receive bolus enteral feeding?
1. Question 3 of 75
3. Question
The pathological process causing esophageal varices is/are:
o B. Systemic hypertension
o C. Portal hypertension
1. Question 4 of 75
4. Question
Which of the following interventions will help lessen the effect of GERD (acid
reflux)?
o D. Wear a girdle.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Elevate the head of the bed on 4-6 inch blocks.
Elevation of the head of the bed allows gravity to assist in decreasing the
backflow of acid into the esophagus. The fluid does not flow uphill. Instruct to
remain in an upright position at least 2 hours after meals; avoiding eating 3 hours
before bedtime. Helps control reflux and causes less irritation from reflux action
into the esophagus. The other three options all increase fluid backflow into the
esophagus through position or increasing abdominal pressure.
Option B: Avoid placing the patient in a supine position, have the patient
sit upright after meals. Supine position after meals can increase
regurgitation of acid. Elevate HOB while in bed. To prevent aspiration by
preventing the gastric acid to flow back into the esophagus.
Option C: Instruct patient regarding eating small amounts of bland food
followed by a small amount of water. Instruct to remain in an upright
position at least 1–2 hours after meals, and to avoid eating within 2–4
hours of bedtime. Gravity helps control reflux and causes less irritation
from reflux action into the esophagus.
Option D: Instruct the patient to avoid bending over, coughing, straining
at defecations, and other activities that increase reflux. Promotes comfort
by the decrease in intra-abdominal pressure, which reduces the reflux of
gastric contents.
1. Question 5 of 75
5. Question
The main benefit of therapeutic massages is:
o A. Lettuce
o B. Eggs
o C. Chocolate
o D. Butterscotch
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Chocolate
Ingestion of chocolate can reduce lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure
leading to reflux and clinical symptoms of GERD. Ingesting cocoa can cause a
surge of serotonin. This surge can cause the esophageal sphincter to relax and
gastric contents to rise. Caffeine and theobromine in chocolate may also trigger
acid reflux. All of the other foods do not affect LES pressure.
Option A: Vegetables are naturally low in fat and sugar, and they help
reduce stomach acid. Good options include green beans, broccoli,
asparagus, cauliflower, leafy greens, potatoes, and cucumbers.
Option B: Egg whites are a good option. Stay away from egg yolks,
though, which are high in fat and may trigger reflux symptoms. Reflux
symptoms may result from stomach acid touching the esophagus and
causing irritation and pain.
Option D: The foods the patient eats affect the amount of acid the
stomach produces. Eating the right kinds of food is key to controlling acid
reflux or GERD, a severe, chronic form of acid reflux. Sources of healthy fats
include avocados, walnuts, flaxseed, olive oil, sesame oil, and sunflower oil.
Reduce the intake of saturated fats and trans fats and replace them with
these healthier unsaturated fats.
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1. Question 7 of 75
7. Question
o C. Flush the TPN line with water prior to initiating nutritional support.
1. Question 8 of 75
8. Question
Which of the following should be included in a plan of care for a client who is
lactose intolerant?
1. Question 9 of 75
9. Question
Pain tolerance in an elderly patient with cancer would:
o B. Be lowered.
o C. Be increased.
1. Question 10 of 75
10. Question
What is the main advantage of cutaneous stimulation in managing pain?
o A. Costs less.
1. Question 11 of 75
11. Question
The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis.
The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to
1. Question 12 of 75
12. Question
A client in a long-term care facility complains of pain. The nurse collects data
about the client‘s pain. The first step in pain assessment is for the nurse to
1. Question 13 of 75
13. Question
Which statement best describes the effects of immobility in children?
o C. Children are more susceptible to the effects of immobility than are adults.
1. Question 14 of 75
14. Question
After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When
the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be
the most appropriate to suggest?
o A. 3 oz. broiled fish, 1 baked potato, ½ cup canned beets, 1 orange, and milk.
o C. A bologna sandwich, fresh eggplant, 2 oz fresh fruit, tea, and apple juice.
o D. 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk,
and 1 orange.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green
beans, milk, and 1 orange
Canned fish and vegetables and cured meats are high in sodium. This meal does
not contain any canned fish and/or vegetables or cured meats. Eat a
Mediterranean?style diet—more bread, fruit, vegetables, and fish; less meat; and
replace butter and cheese with products based on vegetable and plant oils
(reduces total mortality and the risk of myocardial infarction).
1. Question 15 of 75
15. Question
A nurse is assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility. Which client
is at highest risk for the development of decubitus ulcers?
1. Question 16 of 75
16. Question
Mrs. Kennedy had a CVA (cerebrovascular accident) and has a severe right-sided
weakness. She has been taught to walk with a cane. The nurse is evaluating her
use of the cane prior to discharge. Which of the following reflects the correct use
of the cane?
o A. Holding the cane in her left hand, Mrs. Kennedy moves the cane
forward first, then her right leg, and finally her left leg.
o her left leg. B. Holding the cane in her right hand, Mrs. Kennedy moves the
cane forward first, then her left leg, and finally her right leg.
o C. Holding the cane in her right hand, Mrs. Kennedy moves the cane and her
right leg forward then moves her left leg forward.
o D. Holding the cane in her left hand, Mrs. Kennedy moves the cane and her
left leg forward, then moves her right leg forward.
1. Question 17 of 75
17. Question
The nurse is instructing a woman on a low-fat, high-fiber diet. Which of the
following food choices, if selected by the client, indicate an understanding of a
low-fat, high-fiber diet?
1. Question 18 of 75
18. Question
An 85-year-old male patient has been bedridden for two weeks. Which of the
following complaints by the patient indicates to the nurse that he is developing a
complication of immobility?
o D. Decreased appetite.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Stiffness of the right ankle joint.
Stiffness of a joint may indicate the beginning of contracture and/or early muscle
atrophy. In the development of joint contractures that result from long-term
immobilization, shortening of the joint capsule, synovial adhesions and
arthrofibrosis play decisive roles and may present as a generalized joint stiffness
Option B: Soreness of the gums is not related to immobility. Brushing too
hard, improper flossing techniques, infection, or gum disease can cause
sore and sensitive gums. Other causes unrelated to oral hygiene could
include Vitamin K deficiency, hormonal changes during pregnancy,
leukemia, or blood disorders.
Option C: Short-term memory loss is not related to immobility. Short-term
memory loss is when one forgets things they heard, saw, or did recently.
It‘s a normal part of getting older for many people. But it can also be a sign
of a deeper problem, such as dementia, a brain injury, or a mental health
issue.
Option D: Decreased appetite is unlikely to be related to immobility.
People can experience a loss of appetite for a wide range of reasons. Some
of these are short-term, including colds, food poisoning, other infections,
or the side effects of medication. Others are to do with long-term medical
conditions, such as diabetes, cancer, or life-limiting illnesses.
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1. Question 19 of 75
19. Question
An eleven-month-old infant is brought to the pediatric clinic. The nurse suspects
that the child has iron-deficiency anemia. Because iron deficiency anemia is
suspected, which of the following is the most important information to obtain
from the infant‘s parents?
1. Question 20 of 75
20. Question
A 46-year-old female with chronic constipation is assessed by the nurse for a
bowel training regimen. Which factor indicates further information is needed by
the nurse?
1. Question 21 of 75
21. Question
Mr. Teban is a 73-year old patient diagnosed with pneumonia. Which data would
be of greatest concern to the nurse when completing the nursing assessment of
the patient?
1. Question 22 of 75
22. Question
During the nursing assessment, which data represent information concerning
health beliefs?
o C. History immunizations
1. Question 24 of 75
24. Question
John Joseph was scheduled for a physical assessment. When percussing the
client‘s chest, the nurse would expect to find which assessment data as a normal
sign over his lungs?
o A. Dullness
o B. Resonance
o C. Hyperresonance
o D. Tympany
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Resonance
Normally, when percussing a client‘s chest, percussion over the lungs reveals
resonance, a hollow or loud, low-pitched sound of long duration. Since lungs are
mostly filled with air that we breathe in, percussion performed over most of the
lung area produces a resonant sound, which is a low-pitched, hollow sound.
Therefore, any dullness or hyper-resonance is indicative of lung pathology, such
as pleural effusion or pneumothorax, respectively.
Option A: Dullness is typically heard on percussion of solid organs, such as
the liver or areas of consolidation. Dullness to percussion indicates denser
tissue, such as zones of effusion or consolidation. Once an abnormality is
detected, percussion can be used around the area of interest to define the
extent of the abnormality. Normal areas of dullness are those overlying the
liver and spleen at the anterior bases of the lungs.
Option C: Hyperresonance would be evidenced by percussion over areas
of overinflation such as an emphysematous lung. Hyperresonant sounds
may also be heard when percussing lungs hyperinflated with air, such as
1. Question 25 of 75
25. Question
Matteo is diagnosed with dehydration and underwent a series of tests. Which
laboratory result would warrant immediate intervention by the nurse?
1. Question 26 of 75
26. Question
During an otoscopic examination, which action should be avoided to prevent the
client from discomfort and injury?
o A. Tipping the client's head away from the examiner and pulling the ear up
and back.
o B. Inserting the otoscope inferiorly into the distal portion of the external
canal.
1. Question 27 of 75
27. Question
When assessing the lower extremities for arterial function, which intervention
should the nurse perform?
1. Question 28 of 75
28. Question
Newly hired nurse Liza is excited to perform her very first physical assessment
with a 19-year-old client. Which assessment examination requires Liza to wear
gloves?
o A. Breast
o B. Integumentary
o D. Oral
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Oral
Gloves should be worn anytime there is a risk of exposure to the client‘s blood or
body fluids. Oral, rectal, and genital examinations require gloves because they
involve contact with body fluids. Ophthalmic, breast, or integumentary
examinations normally do not involve contact with the client‘s body fluids and do
not require the nurse to wear gloves for protection.
Option A: After completing the visual inspection, the patient should be
instructed to lay supine. If a site-specific breast complaint is being
evaluated, the examiner should begin his/her exam on the opposite, or
―normal‖ side. As one breast is examined, the other is covered for the
patient‘s comfort. The patient should place the ipsilateral hand above
and/or behind their head to flatten the breast tissue as much as possible.
The breast tissue itself is evaluated using a sequence of palpation that
allows serial progression from superficial to deeper tissues.
Option B: A general assessment of the skin begins at the initial contact
with the patient and continues throughout the examination. Specific areas
of the skin are assessed during the examination of other body systems
unless the chief complaint is a dermatologic problem. However, if there are
areas of skin breakdown or drainage, gloves should be used.
Option C: The Royal College of Ophthalmologists have updated their
advice on PPE to ophthalmologists and are now recommending that
clinicians should wear standard surgical masks when examining or treating
patients at the slit lamp. Gowns and gloves are not recommended. They
also recommend that plastic breath shields attached to slit lamps provide
some protection, but must be disinfected between patients as studies show
that the COVID-19 virus is viable for up to 72 hours on plastic surfaces.
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1. Question 29 of 75
29. Question
Nurse Renner is about to perform Romberg‘s test on Pierro. To ensure the latter‘s
safety, which intervention should nurse Renner implement?
1. Question 30 of 75
30. Question
1. Question 31 of 75
31. Question
Which assessment data should the nurse include when obtaining a review of
body systems?
o A. Brief statement about what brought the client to the health care provider.
1. Question 32 of 75
32. Question
Tywin has come to the nursing clinic for a comprehensive health assessment.
Which statement would be the best way to end the history interview?
1. Question 33 of 75
33. Question
For which time period would the nurse notify the health care provider that the
client had no bowel sounds?
o A. 2 minutes
o B. 3 minutes
o C. 4 minutes
o D. 5 minutes
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. 5 minutes
To completely determine that bowel sounds are absent, the nurse must
auscultate each of the four quadrants for at least 5 minutes; 2, 3, or 4 minutes is
too short a period to arrive at this conclusion. The first item to listen for is the
1. Question 34 of 75
34. Question
Evaluating the apical pulse is the most reliable noninvasive way to assess cardiac
function. Which is the best area for auscultating the apical pulse?
o A. Aortic arch
o B. Pulmonic area
o C. Tricuspid area
o D. Mitral area
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Mitral area
The mitral area (also known as the left ventricular area or the apical area), the fifth
intercostal space (ICS) at the left midclavicular line, is the best area for
auscultating the apical pulse. The apical pulse is auscultated with a stethoscope
over the chest where the heart‘s mitral valve is best heard. In infants and young
1. Question 35 of 75
35. Question
Beginning in their 20s, women should be told about the benefits and limitations
of breast self-exam (BSE). Which scientific rationale should the nurse remember
when performing a breast examination on a female client?
o D. A pad should be placed under the opposite scapula of the breast being
palpated.
Incorrect
1. Question 36 of 75
36. Question
Mr. Lim, who has chronic pain, loss of self-esteem, no job, and bodily
disfigurement from severe burns over the trunk and arms, is admitted to a pain
o A. The client remains free of the aftermath phase of the pain experience.
o D. The client develops increased tolerance for severe pain in the future.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. The client continues normal growth and development
with intact support systems.
Even though the client may experience an aftermath phase, progress is still
possible, as is effective rehabilitation. Give positive reinforcement of progress and
encourage endeavors toward the attainment of rehabilitation goals. Words of
encouragement can support the development of positive coping behaviors.
Option A: Aftermath reactions may occur but need not interfere with
rehabilitation. Encourage family interaction with each other and with the
rehabilitation team. To open lines of communication and provide ongoing
support for the patient and family.
Option B: Acute pain is not expected at this stage of recovery. Pain is
nearly always present to some degree because of varying severity of tissue
involvement and destruction but is usually most severe during dressing
changes and debridement.
Option D: Conditioning probably would produce less pain tolerance.
Exercise is generally considered to be a safe and efficacious approach to
restoring physiological function in patients with various chronic diseases.
However, the inclusion of exercise regimens in the outpatient rehabilitation
of patients who have undergone major trauma, such as a large burn, is not
common.
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1. Question 37 of 75
37. Question
1. Question 38 of 75
38. Question
Miggy, a 6-year-old boy, received a small paper cut on his finger, his mother let
him wash it and apply a small amount of antibacterial ointment and bandage.
Then she let him watch TV and eat an apple. This is an example of which type of
pain intervention?
o A. Pharmacologic therapy
o B. Environmental alteration
o D. Cutaneous stimulation
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Control and distraction
The mother‘s actions are an example of control and distraction. Involving the
child in care and providing distraction took his mind off the pain. The brain can
only focus its attention in so many areas at one time. Pain sensations compete for
attention with all of the other things going on around. Just how much attention
the brain gives each thing depends on a number of factors, including how long
you have been hurting and the current mood.
Option A: Pharmacologic agents for pain analgesics — were not used. A
wide range of drugs are used to manage pain resulting from inflammation
in response to tissue damage, chemical agents/pathogens (nociceptive
pain) or nerve damage (neuropathic pain).
Option B: The home environment was not changed. There has recently
been heightened recognition that environmental factors can influence pain.
Clinicians involved in delivering multidisciplinary pain programs often
structure the social environment of their treatment settings to help
promote adaptive responses to pain.
Option D: Cutaneous stimulation, such as massage, vibration, or pressure,
was not used. Cutaneous stimulation involves stimulation of nerves via skin
1. Question 39 of 75
39. Question
Which statement represents the best rationale for using noninvasive and non-
pharmacologic pain-control measures in conjunction with other measures?
1. Question 40 of 75
40. Question
When evaluating a client‘s adaptation to pain, which behavior indicates
appropriate adaptation?
1. 41. Question
In planning pain reduction interventions, which pain theory provides
information most useful to nurses?
o A. Specificity theory
o B. Pattern theory
o C. Gate-control theory
o D. Central-control theory
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Central-control theory
No one theory explains all the factors underlying the pain experience, but the
central-control theory discusses brain opiates with analgesic properties and how
their release can be affected by actions initiated by the client and caregivers. In
central-control theory, the master control mechanism directs the muscle
movement based on linguistic goals. The gate-control, specificity, and patter
theories do not address pain control to the depth included in the central-control
theory.
Option A: Specificity theory is one of the first modern theories for pain. It
holds that specific pain receptors transmit signals to a ―pain center‖ in the
brain that produces the perception of pain. Von Frey (1895) argued that
the body has a separate sensory system for perceiving pain—just as it does
for hearing and vision.
1. Question 42 of 75
42. Question
Ryan underwent an open reduction and internal fixation of the left hip. One day
after the operation, the client is complaining of pain. Which data would cause the
nurse to refrain from administering the pain medication and to notify the health
care provider instead?
1. Question 43 of 75
43. Question
Which term would the nurse use to document pain at one site that is perceived in
another site?
o A. Referred pain
o B. Phantom pain
o C. Intractable pain
o D. Aftermath of pain
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Referred pain
Referred pain is pain occurring at one site that is perceived in another site.
Referred pain follows dermatome and nerve root patterns. Referred pain is pain
perceived at a location other than the site of the painful stimulus/ origin. It is the
result of a network of interconnecting sensory nerves that supply many different
tissues. When there is an injury at one site in the network it is possible that when
1. Question 44 of 75
44. Question
Chuck, who is in the hospital, complains of abdominal pain that ranks 9 on a scale
of 1 (no pain) to 10 (worst pain). Which interventions should the nurse
implement? Select all that apply.
1. Question 45 of 75
1. Question 46 of 75
o B. Checking the client's chart to determine when pain medication was last
administered.
o C. Explaining to the client that the pain should not be this severe 3 days
postoperatively.
1. Question 47 of 75
47. Question
Which term refers to the pain that has a slower onset, is diffuse, radiates, and is
marked by somatic pain from organs in any body activity?
o A. Acute pain
o B. Chronic pain
o C. Superficial pain
o D. Deep pain
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Deep pain
Deep pain has a slow onset, is diffuse, and radiates, and is marked by somatic
pain from organs in any body activity. Deep somatic pain originates from
structures deeper within the body, such as the joints, bones, tendons, and
muscles. Like visceral pain, deep somatic pain is usually dull and aching. Deep
somatic pain can either be experienced locally or more generally depending on
the degree of trauma.
Option A: Acute pain is rapid in onset, usually temporary (less than 6
months), and subsides spontaneously. Acute pain is a type of pain that
typically lasts less than 3 to 6 months or pain that is directly related to soft
tissue damage such as a sprained ankle or a paper cut. Acute pain is of
short duration but it gradually resolves as the injured tissues heal.
1. Question 48 of 75
48. Question
A 50-year-old widower has arthritis and remains in bed too long because it hurts
to get started. Which intervention should the nurse plan?
o A. Telling the client to strictly limit the amount of movement of his inflamed
joints.
o B. Teaching the client's family how to transfer the client into a wheelchair.
o C. Teaching the client the proper method for massaging inflamed, sore joints.
1. 49. Question
Which intervention should the nurse include as a nonpharmacologic pain-relief
intervention for chronic pain?
1. Question 50 of 75
50. Question
A 12-year-old student falls off the stairs, grabs his wrist, and cries, ―Oh, my wrist!
Help! The pain is so sharp, I think I broke it.‖ Based on this data, the pain the
student is experiencing is caused by impulses traveling from receptors to the
spinal cord along which type of nerve fibers?
o C. Type C fibers
1. Question 51 of 75
51. Question
Which nursing intervention takes the highest priority when caring for a newly
admitted client who‘s receiving a blood transfusion?
1. Question 52 of 75
52. Question
Nurse Paulo has received a blood unit from the blood bank and has rechecked
the blood bag properly with nurse Edward. Prior to the facilitation of the blood
transfusion, nurse Paulo priority checks which of the following?
o C. Vital signs
o D. Skin turgor
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Vital signs
The nurse must assess the vital signs before and 15 minutes after the procedure
so that any changes during the transfusion may indicate a transfusion reaction is
1. Question 53 of 75
53. Question
A client is brought to the emergency department having experienced blood loss
due to a deep puncture wound. A 3 unit Fresh-frozen plasma (FFP) is ordered.
The nurse determines that the reason behind this order is to:
o D. Treat thrombocytopenia.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Provide clotting factors and volume expansion.
1. Question 54 of 75
54. Question
Nurse Amanda is caring for a client with severe blood loss who is prescribed
multiple transfusions of blood. Nurse Amanda obtains which most essential piece
of equipment to prevent the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias?
o A. Cardiac monitor
o B. Blood warmer
o C. ECG machine
o D. Infusion pump
1. Question 55 of 75
55. Question
A client is receiving a first-time blood transfusion of packed RBC. How long
should the nurse stay and monitor the client to ensure a transfusion reaction will
not happen?
o A. 15 minutes
o B. 30 minutes
o C. 45 minutes
1. Question 56 of 75
56. Question
Nurse Rick is administering 2 unit-packed RBCs on a client with low hemoglobin.
The nurse will prepare which of the following in order to transfuse the blood?
o A. Microfusion set
o C. Photofusion set
1. Question 57 of 75
57. Question
To verify the age of blood cells in blood, the nurse will check which of the
following?
o A. Blood type
o B. Blood group
1. Question 58 of 75
58. Question
A client has an order to receive one unit of packed RBCs. The nurse makes sure
which of the following intravenous solutions to hang with the blood product at
the client‘s bedside?
1. Question 59 of 75
59. Question
Nurse Jay is caring for a client with an ongoing transfusion of packed RBCs when
suddenly the client is having difficulty breathing, skin is flushed, and having chills.
Which action should nurse Jay take first?
o A. Administer oxygen.
1. Question 59 of 75
59. Question
Nurse Jay is caring for a client with an ongoing transfusion of packed RBCs when
suddenly the client is having difficulty breathing, skin is flushed, and having chills.
Which action should nurse Jay take first?
o A. Administer oxygen.
1. Question 60 of 75
60. Question
After terminating the transfusion during a reaction, which action should the
nurse immediately be taken next?
1. Question 61 of 75
1. Question 62 of 75
o A. Circulatory overload
o C. Hypocalcemia
o D. Septicemia
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Septicemia
Septicemia happens with the transfusion of blood that is contaminated with
microorganisms. Assessment includes the rapid onset of high fever and chills,
hypotension, nausea, diarrhea, vomiting, and shock. Fever and/or chills are most
commonly associated with a febrile, non-hemolytic reaction, however; they can
also be the first sign of a more serious acute hemolytic reaction, TRALI, or septic
transfusion reaction. If the temperature rises 1 C or higher from the temperature
at the start of the transfusion, the transfusion should be stopped.
Option A: Circulatory overload causes hypertension, cough, dyspnea, chest
pain, tachycardia, and wheezing upon auscultation. Dyspnea, or shortness
of breath, is a concerning sign that can often be seen with more severe
reactions including anaphylaxis, TRALI, and TACO. It can also be seen by
itself without accompanying symptoms.
Option B: Delayed reaction can occur days to years after a transfusion. It
causes fever, rashes, mild jaundice, and oliguria or anuria. Typically caused
by an anamnestic response to a foreign antigen that the patient was
previously exposed to (generally by prior transfusion or pregnancy).
Option C: Hypocalcemia causes paresthesias, tetany, muscle cramps,
hyperactive reflexes, positive Trousseau‘s sign, and positive Chovstek‘s sign.
Hypocalcemia is said to be present when the total serum calcium
concentration is less than 8.8 mg/dl. The disorder may be acquired or
inherited but its presentation can vary- from asymptomatic to life-
1. Question 63 of 75
63. Question
Packed red blood cells have been prescribed for a client with low hemoglobin
and hematocrit levels. The nurse takes the client‘s temperature before hanging
the blood transfusion and records 100.8 °F. Which action should the nurse take?
1. Question 64 of 75
64. Question
A nurse is caring for a client requiring surgery and is ordered to have a standby
blood secured if in case a blood transfusion is needed during or after the
procedure. The nurse suggests to the client to do which of the following to lessen
the risk of possible transfusion reaction?
o A. Request that any donated blood be screened twice by the blood bank.
o B. Take iron supplements prior to the surgery and eat green leafy vegetables.
1. Question 65 of 75
65. Question
A client is receiving a transfusion of one unit of cryoprecipitate. The nurse will
review which of the following laboratory studies to assess the effectiveness of the
therapy?
o A. Serum electrolytes
o C. Coagulation studies
o D. Hematocrit count
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Coagulation studies
The evaluation of the effective response of a cryoprecipitate transfusion is
assessed by monitoring coagulation studies and fibrinogen levels. Cryoprecipitate
Antihemophilic Factor, also called cryo, is a portion of plasma, the liquid part of
the blood. Cryo is rich in clotting factors, which are proteins that can reduce
blood loss by helping to slow or stop bleeding.
Option A: Crystalloids are the fluids of choice for most minor procedures.
They are sterile aqueous solutions that may contain glucose, various
electrolytes, organic salts, and nonionic compounds. Some examples of
these solutes are sodium chloride, potassium chloride, sodium bicarbonate,
calcium carbonate, sodium acetate, sodium lactate, and sodium gluconate.
1. Question 66 of 75
66. Question
A nurse is teaching a client with pancreatitis about following a low-fat diet. The
nurse develops a list of high-fat foods to avoid and includes which food on the
item list?
o A. Chocolate milk
o B. Broccoli
o C. Apple
o D. Salmon
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Chocolate milk
Chocolate milk is a high-fat food. The pancreas helps with fat digestion, so foods
with more fat make the pancreas work harder. Registered dietitian Deborah
Gerszberg recommends that people with chronic pancreatitis limit their intake of
refined carbohydrates, such as white bread and high sugar foods. Refined
carbohydrates can lead to the pancreas releasing large amounts of insulin. Foods
that are high in sugar can also raise triglycerides.
1. Question 67 of 75
67. Question
The nurse is giving dietary instructions to a client who is on a vegan diet. The
nurse provides dietary teaching focus on foods high in which vitamin that may be
lacking in a vegan diet?
o A. Vitamin A
o B. Vitamin D
o C. Vitamin E
o D. Vitamin C
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Vitamin D
Deficiencies in vegetarian diets include vitamin B12 which is found in animal
products and vitamin D (if limited exposure to sunlight). Vegans and other
vegetarians who limit their intake of animal products may be at greater risk of
vitamin D deficiency than nonvegetarians because foods providing the highest
amount of vitamin D per gram naturally are all from animal sources, and
fortification with vitamin D currently occurs in few foods.
1. Question 68 of 75
68. Question
A nurse is caring for a client with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. The physician
asks the nurse to teach the client to consume thiamine-rich food. The nurse
instructs the client to increase the intake of which food items?
o A. Chicken
o B. Milk
o C. Beef
o D. Broccoli
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Beef
Food sources of thiamin include beef, liver, nuts, oats, oranges, pork, eggs, seeds,
legumes, peas, and yeast. In meat, the liver has the highest amount of thiamine.
Whereas three ounces of beefsteak gives 7% of the daily value of thiamine, one
serving of beef liver will give about 10%. One serving of cooked salmon gives
18% of the daily value of thiamine.
1. Question 69 of 75
69. Question
A client who is recovering from surgery has been ordered a change from a clear
liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The nurse would offer which full liquid item to the
client?
o A. Popsicle
o B. Carbonated beverages
o C. Gelatin
o D. Custard
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Custard
Full liquid food items include items such as plain ice cream, sherbet, breakfast
drinks, milk, pudding, and custard, soups that are strained, refined cooked
cereals, and strained vegetable juices. A full liquid diet is made up only of fluids
1. Question 70 of 75
70. Question
A postoperative client has been placed on a clear liquid diet. The nurse provides
the client with which items are allowed to be consumed on this diet?
o A. Vegetable juices
o B. Custard
o C. Sherbet
o D. Bouillon
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Bouillon
A clear liquid diet consists of foods that are relatively transparent to light and
liquid at room and body temperature. Foods allowed on the clear liquid diet
(bouillon, popsicles, plain gelatin, ice chips, sweetened tea or coffee (no creamer),
carbonated beverages, and water). The clear liquid diet assists in maintaining
hydration, it provides electrolytes and calories, and offers some level of satiety
1. Question 71 of 75
71. Question
The nurse is teaching a client who has iron-deficiency anemia about foods she
should include in her diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the
dietary instructions if she selects which of the following from her menu?
1. Question 72 of 75
72. Question
The nurse instructs a client with renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis about
dietary modifications. The nurse determines that the client understands these
dietary modifications if the client selects which items from the dietary menu?
1. Question 73 of 75
73. Question
A client with heart failure has been told to maintain a low sodium diet. A nurse
who is teaching this client about foods that are allowed includes which food item
in a list provided to the client?
o A. Pretzels
o D. Dried apricot
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Dried apricot
Foods that are lower in sodium include fruits and vegetables like dried apricot.
Dried apricots are sodium-free. Dried apricots, as part of a low sodium diet, may
reduce the risk of high blood pressure. Apricots contain numerous antioxidants,
1. Question 74 of 75
74. Question
The nurse is instructing a client with hyperkalemia on the importance of choosing
foods low in potassium. The nurse should teach the client to limit which of the
following foods?
o A. Grapes
o B. Carrot
o C. Green beans
o D. Lettuce
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Carrot
Carrots have 320 mg of potassium per 100 mg serving; green beans give 209 mg
of potassium, 194 mg for lettuce, and 191 mg for grapes all in 100 mg serving.
Other foods that are low in potassium include applesauce, blueberries, pineapple,
and cabbage. To minimize potassium buildup, a person with chronic kidney
disease should stick to a low-potassium diet of between 1,500 and 2,000
1. Question 75 of 75
75. Question
A client is recovering from debridement of the right leg. A nurse encourages the
client to eat which food item that is naturally high in vitamin C to promote
wound healing?
o A. Milk
o B. Chicken
o C. Banana
o D. Strawberries
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Strawberries
Citrus fruits and juices are especially high in vitamin C. Strawberries are an
excellent source of vitamin C and manganese and also contain decent amounts
of folate (vitamin B9) and potassium. Strawberries are very rich in antioxidants
and plant compounds, which may have benefits for heart health and blood sugar
control
1. 1. Question
The nurse is caring for an elderly woman who has had a fractured hip repaired. In
the first few days following the surgical repair, which of the following nursing
measures will best facilitate the resumption of activities for this client?
1. 1. Question
The nurse is caring for an elderly woman who has had a fractured hip repaired. In
the first few days following the surgical repair, which of the following nursing
measures will best facilitate the resumption of activities for this client?
1. Question 2 of 75
2. Question
Which of the following is the most important nursing order in a client with major
head trauma who is about to receive bolus enteral feeding?
1. Question 3 of 75
3. Question
The pathological process causing esophageal varices is/are:
o B. Systemic hypertension
o C. Portal hypertension
1. Question 4 of 75
4. Question
Which of the following interventions will help lessen the effect of GERD (acid
reflux)?
o D. Wear a girdle.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Elevate the head of the bed on 4-6 inch blocks.
Elevation of the head of the bed allows gravity to assist in decreasing the
backflow of acid into the esophagus. The fluid does not flow uphill. Instruct to
remain in an upright position at least 2 hours after meals; avoiding eating 3 hours
before bedtime. Helps control reflux and causes less irritation from reflux action
into the esophagus. The other three options all increase fluid backflow into the
esophagus through position or increasing abdominal pressure.
Option B: Avoid placing the patient in a supine position, have the patient
sit upright after meals. Supine position after meals can increase
regurgitation of acid. Elevate HOB while in bed. To prevent aspiration by
preventing the gastric acid to flow back into the esophagus.
Option C: Instruct patient regarding eating small amounts of bland food
followed by a small amount of water. Instruct to remain in an upright
1. Question 5 of 75
5. Question
The main benefit of therapeutic massages is:
1. Question 6 of 75
6. Question
Which of the following foods should be avoided by clients who are prone to
develop heartburn as a result of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
o A. Lettuce
o B. Eggs
o C. Chocolate
o D. Butterscotch
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Chocolate
Ingestion of chocolate can reduce lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure
leading to reflux and clinical symptoms of GERD. Ingesting cocoa can cause a
surge of serotonin. This surge can cause the esophageal sphincter to relax and
gastric contents to rise. Caffeine and theobromine in chocolate may also trigger
acid reflux. All of the other foods do not affect LES pressure.
Option A: Vegetables are naturally low in fat and sugar, and they help
reduce stomach acid. Good options include green beans, broccoli,
asparagus, cauliflower, leafy greens, potatoes, and cucumbers.
Option B: Egg whites are a good option. Stay away from egg yolks,
though, which are high in fat and may trigger reflux symptoms. Reflux
symptoms may result from stomach acid touching the esophagus and
causing irritation and pain.
Option D: The foods the patient eats affect the amount of acid the
stomach produces. Eating the right kinds of food is key to controlling acid
1. Question 7 of 75
7. Question
Which of the following should be included in a plan of care for a client receiving
total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?
o C. Flush the TPN line with water prior to initiating nutritional support.
1. Question 8 of 75
8. Question
Which of the following should be included in a plan of care for a client who is
lactose intolerant?
1. Question 9 of 75
9. Question
Pain tolerance in an elderly patient with cancer would:
o B. Be lowered.
o C. Be increased.
1. Question 10 of 75
10. Question
What is the main advantage of cutaneous stimulation in managing pain?
o A. Costs less.
1. Question 11 of 75
11. Question
The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis.
The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to
1. Question 12 of 75
12. Question
A client in a long-term care facility complains of pain. The nurse collects data
about the client‘s pain. The first step in pain assessment is for the nurse to
1. Question 13 of 75
13. Question
Which statement best describes the effects of immobility in children?
o C. Children are more susceptible to the effects of immobility than are adults.
1. Question 14 of 75
14. Question
After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When
the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be
the most appropriate to suggest?
o A. 3 oz. broiled fish, 1 baked potato, ½ cup canned beets, 1 orange, and milk.
o C. A bologna sandwich, fresh eggplant, 2 oz fresh fruit, tea, and apple juice.
o D. 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk,
and 1 orange.
1. Question 15 of 75
15. Question
A nurse is assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility. Which client
is at highest risk for the development of decubitus ulcers?
1. Question 16 of 75
16. Question
Mrs. Kennedy had a CVA (cerebrovascular accident) and has a severe right-sided
weakness. She has been taught to walk with a cane. The nurse is evaluating her
use of the cane prior to discharge. Which of the following reflects the correct use
of the cane?
o A. Holding the cane in her left hand, Mrs. Kennedy moves the cane
forward first, then her right leg, and finally her left leg.
o C. Holding the cane in her right hand, Mrs. Kennedy moves the cane and her
right leg forward then moves her left leg forward.
o D. Holding the cane in her left hand, Mrs. Kennedy moves the cane and her
left leg forward, then moves her right leg forward.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Holding the cane in her left hand, Mrs. Kennedy moves
the cane forward first, then her right leg, and finally her left leg
When a person with weakness on one side uses a cane, there should always be
two points of contact with the floor. When Mrs. Kennedy. moves the cane
forward, she has both feet on the floor, providing stability. As she moves the
weak leg, the cane and the strong leg provide support. Finally, the cane, which is
even with the weak leg, provides stability while she moves the strong leg.
Option B: She should not hold the cane with her weak arm. The use of the
cane requires arm strength to ensure that the cane provides adequate
stability when standing on the weak leg. To go upstairs, use the handrail
and step up with the unaffected leg first and follow with the cane and the
affected foot together.
Option C: The cane should be held in the left hand, the hand opposite the
affected leg. Hold the cane in the hand of the unaffected side. Move the
cane and the affected leg forward at the same time, so that the cane helps
take the weight of the weak leg. Then step with the unaffected leg.
Option D: If Mrs. Kennedy. moved the cane and her strong foot at the
same time, she would be left standing on her weak leg at one point. This
would be unstable at best; at worst, impossible. To go downstairs, use the
handrail and step down with the affected foot and cane together first and
follow with the unaffected foot.
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1. Question 17 of 75
17. Question
The nurse is instructing a woman on a low-fat, high-fiber diet. Which of the
following food choices, if selected by the client, indicate an understanding of a
low-fat, high-fiber diet?
1. Question 18 of 75
18. Question
o D. Decreased appetite.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Stiffness of the right ankle joint.
Stiffness of a joint may indicate the beginning of contracture and/or early muscle
atrophy. In the development of joint contractures that result from long-term
immobilization, shortening of the joint capsule, synovial adhesions and
arthrofibrosis play decisive roles and may present as a generalized joint stiffness
Option B: Soreness of the gums is not related to immobility. Brushing too
hard, improper flossing techniques, infection, or gum disease can cause
sore and sensitive gums. Other causes unrelated to oral hygiene could
include Vitamin K deficiency, hormonal changes during pregnancy,
leukemia, or blood disorders.
Option C: Short-term memory loss is not related to immobility. Short-term
memory loss is when one forgets things they heard, saw, or did recently.
It‘s a normal part of getting older for many people. But it can also be a sign
of a deeper problem, such as dementia, a brain injury, or a mental health
issue.
Option D: Decreased appetite is unlikely to be related to immobility.
People can experience a loss of appetite for a wide range of reasons. Some
of these are short-term, including colds, food poisoning, other infections,
or the side effects of medication. Others are to do with long-term medical
conditions, such as diabetes, cancer, or life-limiting illnesses.
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1. Question 19 of 75
19. Question
1. Question 20 of 75
20. Question
A 46-year-old female with chronic constipation is assessed by the nurse for a
bowel training regimen. Which factor indicates further information is needed by
the nurse?
1. Question 22 of 75
22. Question
During the nursing assessment, which data represent information concerning
health beliefs?
1. Question 23 of 75
23. Question
Nurse Patrick is acquiring information from a client in the emergency
department. Which is an example of biographic information that may be
obtained during a health history?
o C. History immunizations
1. Question 24 of 75
24. Question
John Joseph was scheduled for a physical assessment. When percussing the
client‘s chest, the nurse would expect to find which assessment data as a normal
sign over his lungs?
o A. Dullness
o B. Resonance
o C. Hyperresonance
o D. Tympany
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Resonance
Normally, when percussing a client‘s chest, percussion over the lungs reveals
resonance, a hollow or loud, low-pitched sound of long duration. Since lungs are
mostly filled with air that we breathe in, percussion performed over most of the
1. Question 25 of 75
25. Question
Matteo is diagnosed with dehydration and underwent a series of tests. Which
laboratory result would warrant immediate intervention by the nurse?
1. Question 26 of 75
26. Question
During an otoscopic examination, which action should be avoided to prevent the
client from discomfort and injury?
o A. Tipping the client's head away from the examiner and pulling the ear up
and back.
1. Question 27 of 75
1. Question 28 of 75
28. Question
Newly hired nurse Liza is excited to perform her very first physical assessment
with a 19-year-old client. Which assessment examination requires Liza to wear
gloves?
o A. Breast
o B. Integumentary
o C. Ophthalmic
o D. Oral
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Oral
Gloves should be worn anytime there is a risk of exposure to the client‘s blood or
body fluids. Oral, rectal, and genital examinations require gloves because they
involve contact with body fluids. Ophthalmic, breast, or integumentary
examinations normally do not involve contact with the client‘s body fluids and do
not require the nurse to wear gloves for protection.
Option A: After completing the visual inspection, the patient should be
instructed to lay supine. If a site-specific breast complaint is being
evaluated, the examiner should begin his/her exam on the opposite, or
―normal‖ side. As one breast is examined, the other is covered for the
patient‘s comfort. The patient should place the ipsilateral hand above
and/or behind their head to flatten the breast tissue as much as possible.
The breast tissue itself is evaluated using a sequence of palpation that
allows serial progression from superficial to deeper tissues.
Option B: A general assessment of the skin begins at the initial contact
with the patient and continues throughout the examination. Specific areas
of the skin are assessed during the examination of other body systems
unless the chief complaint is a dermatologic problem. However, if there are
areas of skin breakdown or drainage, gloves should be used.
1. Question 29 of 75
29. Question
Nurse Renner is about to perform Romberg‘s test on Pierro. To ensure the latter‘s
safety, which intervention should nurse Renner implement?
1. Question 30 of 75
30. Question
A physical assessment is being performed on patient Geoff by Nurse Tine. During
the abdominal examination, Nurse Tine should perform the four physical
examination techniques in which sequence?
1. Question 31 of 75
31. Question
Which assessment data should the nurse include when obtaining a review of
body systems?
o A. Brief statement about what brought the client to the health care provider.
1. Question 32 of 75
32. Question
Tywin has come to the nursing clinic for a comprehensive health assessment.
Which statement would be the best way to end the history interview?
1. Question 33 of 75
33. Question
o A. 2 minutes
o B. 3 minutes
o C. 4 minutes
o D. 5 minutes
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. 5 minutes
To completely determine that bowel sounds are absent, the nurse must
auscultate each of the four quadrants for at least 5 minutes; 2, 3, or 4 minutes is
too short a period to arrive at this conclusion. The first item to listen for is the
presence of bowel sounds. To chart an assessment finding of no bowel sounds,
the nurse needs to listen over the quadrant for at least five minutes. The nurse
should also do the auscultation before palpation and percussion to avoid
influencing bowel sounds.
Option A: In most cases, bowel sounds are present, but the nurse needs to
categorize them. She should listen for the intensity of the sound – whether
it is soft or strong. The nurse should also listen for frequency. Hypoactive
bowel sounds could indicate a problem, so if the nurse is having trouble
hearing them, this is significant.
Option B: Auscultating bowel sounds can allow the nurse to pinpoint areas
where an obstruction may have occurred. Finding no bowel sounds can
mean an ileus or obstruction above that area of the intestine.
Option C: Hypoactive bowel sounds are considered as one every three to
five minutes, and this can indicate diarrhea, anxiety, or gastroenteritis.
Hyperactive bowel sounds are often found before a blockage. It is quite
common to find one quadrant with hyperactive bowel sounds and one with
none or hypoactive ones.
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1. Question 34 of 75
34. Question
o A. Aortic arch
o B. Pulmonic area
o C. Tricuspid area
o D. Mitral area
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Mitral area
The mitral area (also known as the left ventricular area or the apical area), the fifth
intercostal space (ICS) at the left midclavicular line, is the best area for
auscultating the apical pulse. The apical pulse is auscultated with a stethoscope
over the chest where the heart‘s mitral valve is best heard. In infants and young
children, the apical pulse is located at the fourth intercostal space at the left
midclavicular line. In adults, the apical pulse is located at the fifth intercostal
space at the left midclavicular line.
Option A: The aortic arch is the second ICS to the right of the sternum.
Apical pulse rate is indicated during some assessments, such as when
conducting a cardiovascular assessment and when a client is taking certain
cardiac medications (e.g., digoxin). Sometimes the apical pulse is
auscultated pre and post medication administration.
Option B: The pulmonic area is the second intercostal space to the left of
the sternum. It is also a best practice to assess apical pulse in infants and
children up to five years of age because radial pulses are difficult to
palpate and count in this population. It is typical to assess apical pulses in
children younger than eighteen, particularly in hospital environments.
Apical pulses may also be taken in obese people because their peripheral
pulses are sometimes difficult to palpate.
Option C: The tricuspid area is the fifth ICS to the left of the sternum.
Position the client in a supine (lying flat) or in a seated position. Physically
palpate the intercostal spaces to locate the landmark of the apical pulse.
Ask the female client to re-position her own breast tissue to auscultate the
apical pulse.
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o D. A pad should be placed under the opposite scapula of the breast being
palpated.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. The tail of Spence area must be included in the self-
examination.
The tail of Spence, an extension of the upper outer quadrant of breast tissue, can
develop breast tumors. This area must also be included in breast self-
examination. As the fingers traverse the breasts, they must remain in contact with
the skin to avoid missing any tissue plane. Assessment of the inner half of the
breasts requires changing to a supine position, removing the hand from the
forehead, and placing the inactive arm at a right angle on the examination
surface.
Option A: One-half of all women who die of breast cancer are older than
age 65. Breast cancer is the most prevalent malignancy among female
populations and is responsible for the second-highest number of cancer-
related deaths in American women. The need for early detection has
manifested several screening initiatives intent on curtailing morbidity and
mortality associated with the disease.
Option C: The correct position for breast self-examination is not limited to
the supine position; the sitting position with hands at sides, above head,
and on the hips is also recommended. A visual survey of the breast tissue
requires an inspection from three angles, with arms at the side, arms raised
above the head while bending forward, and hunched over with the hands
placed on the hips. Each of these positions should be observed in a mirror
from a direct view, right profile, and left profile.
1. Question 36 of 75
36. Question
Mr. Lim, who has chronic pain, loss of self-esteem, no job, and bodily
disfigurement from severe burns over the trunk and arms, is admitted to a pain
center. Which evaluation criteria would indicate the client‘s successful
rehabilitation?
o A. The client remains free of the aftermath phase of the pain experience.
o D. The client develops increased tolerance for severe pain in the future.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. The client continues normal growth and development
with intact support systems.
Even though the client may experience an aftermath phase, progress is still
possible, as is effective rehabilitation. Give positive reinforcement of progress and
encourage endeavors toward the attainment of rehabilitation goals. Words of
encouragement can support the development of positive coping behaviors.
Option A: Aftermath reactions may occur but need not interfere with
rehabilitation. Encourage family interaction with each other and with the
rehabilitation team. To open lines of communication and provide ongoing
support for the patient and family.
Option B: Acute pain is not expected at this stage of recovery. Pain is
nearly always present to some degree because of varying severity of tissue
1. Question 37 of 75
37. Question
Christine Ann is about to take her NCLEX examination next week and is currently
reviewing the concept of pain. Which scientific rationale would indicate that she
understands the topic?
1. Question 38 of 75
38. Question
Miggy, a 6-year-old boy, received a small paper cut on his finger, his mother let
him wash it and apply a small amount of antibacterial ointment and bandage.
Then she let him watch TV and eat an apple. This is an example of which type of
pain intervention?
o A. Pharmacologic therapy
o B. Environmental alteration
o D. Cutaneous stimulation
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Control and distraction
The mother‘s actions are an example of control and distraction. Involving the
child in care and providing distraction took his mind off the pain. The brain can
only focus its attention in so many areas at one time. Pain sensations compete for
attention with all of the other things going on around. Just how much attention
1. Question 39 of 75
39. Question
Which statement represents the best rationale for using noninvasive and non-
pharmacologic pain-control measures in conjunction with other measures?
1. Question 40 of 75
40. Question
When evaluating a client‘s adaptation to pain, which behavior indicates
appropriate adaptation?
1. Question 41 of 75
41. Question
In planning pain reduction interventions, which pain theory provides
information most useful to nurses?
o A. Specificity theory
o B. Pattern theory
o C. Gate-control theory
o D. Central-control theory
1. Question 42 of 75
42. Question
Ryan underwent an open reduction and internal fixation of the left hip. One day
after the operation, the client is complaining of pain. Which data would cause the
nurse to refrain from administering the pain medication and to notify the health
care provider instead?
1. Question 43 of 75
43. Question
Which term would the nurse use to document pain at one site that is perceived in
another site?
o B. Phantom pain
o C. Intractable pain
o D. Aftermath of pain
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Referred pain
Referred pain is pain occurring at one site that is perceived in another site.
Referred pain follows dermatome and nerve root patterns. Referred pain is pain
perceived at a location other than the site of the painful stimulus/ origin. It is the
result of a network of interconnecting sensory nerves that supply many different
tissues. When there is an injury at one site in the network it is possible that when
the signal is interpreted in the brain signals are experienced in the surrounding
nervous tissue.
Option B: Phantom pain refers to pain in a part of the body that is no
longer there, such as in amputation. Phantom pain is pain that feels like it‘s
coming from a body part that‘s no longer there. Doctors once believed this
post-amputation phenomenon was a psychological problem, but experts
now recognize that these real sensations originate in the spinal cord and
brain.
Option C: Intractable pain refers to moderate to severe pain that cannot
be relieved by any known treatment. Intractable pain refers to a type of
pain that can‘t be controlled with standard medical care. Intractable
essentially means difficult to treat or manage. This type of pain isn‘t
curable, so the focus of treatment is to reduce the discomfort.
Option D: Aftermath of pain, a phase of the pain experience and the most
neglected phase address the client‘s response to the pain experience. The
complexity of pain physiology makes some pains more difficult to manage
than others. Acute postoperative pain normally responds well to analgesia,
but this should be complemented by strategies such as comfortable
positioning, distraction, TENS, and reassurance.
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1. 44. Question
1. Question 45 of 75
45. Question
Albert, who suffered severe burns 6 months ago, is expressing concern about the
possible loss of job-performance abilities and physical disfigurement. Which
intervention is the most appropriate for him?
1. Question 46 of 75
46. Question
Mrs. Bagapayo who had abdominal surgery 3 days earlier complains of sharp,
throbbing abdominal pain that ranks 8 on a scale of 1 (no pain) to 10 (worst
pain). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
o B. Checking the client's chart to determine when pain medication was last
administered.
o C. Explaining to the client that the pain should not be this severe 3 days
postoperatively.
1. Question 47 of 75
47. Question
Which term refers to the pain that has a slower onset, is diffuse, radiates, and is
marked by somatic pain from organs in any body activity?
o A. Acute pain
o B. Chronic pain
o C. Superficial pain
1. Question 48 of 75
48. Question
A 50-year-old widower has arthritis and remains in bed too long because it hurts
to get started. Which intervention should the nurse plan?
o A. Telling the client to strictly limit the amount of movement of his inflamed
joints.
o B. Teaching the client's family how to transfer the client into a wheelchair.
1. Question 49 of 75
49. Question
Which intervention should the nurse include as a nonpharmacologic pain-relief
intervention for chronic pain?
1. Question 50 of 75
50. Question
A 12-year-old student falls off the stairs, grabs his wrist, and cries, ―Oh, my wrist!
Help! The pain is so sharp, I think I broke it.‖ Based on this data, the pain the
student is experiencing is caused by impulses traveling from receptors to the
spinal cord along which type of nerve fibers?
1. Question 51 of 75
51. Question
Which nursing intervention takes the highest priority when caring for a newly
admitted client who‘s receiving a blood transfusion?
1. Question 52 of 75
o C. Vital signs
o D. Skin turgor
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Vital signs
The nurse must assess the vital signs before and 15 minutes after the procedure
so that any changes during the transfusion may indicate a transfusion reaction is
happening. The nurse remains with the client, observing signs and symptoms and
monitoring vital signs as often as every 5 minutes.
Option A: Monitoring the intake and output during blood transfusion may
be done, but not as often as necessary. Monitoring of intake helps the
caregiver to ensure that the patient has a proper intake of fluid and other
nutrients. Monitoring of output helps determine whether there is an
adequate output of urine as well as normal defecation.
Option B: A patient on blood transfusion is not placed in an NPO standing
order. Current nil per os (NPO) standards promote pre-operative fasting as
an approach to reduce the volume and acidity of a patient‘s stomach
contents to reduce the risks of regurgitation and subsequent pulmonary
aspiration. Pre-anesthesia fasting standards apply to any procedure where
sedative medications reduce the protective airway reflex that under normal
conditions prevent aspiration.
Option D: Physical findings suggestive of volume depletion include dry
mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, and low jugular venous
distention. While the incidence of hypovolemic shock from extracellular
fluid loss is difficult to quantify, it is known that hemorrhagic shock is most
commonly due to trauma. In one study, 62.2% of massive transfusions at a
level 1 trauma center were due to traumatic injury.
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o D. Treat thrombocytopenia.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Provide clotting factors and volume expansion.
Fresh-frozen plasma may be used to provide clotting factors or volume
expansion. It is rich in clotting factors and can be thawed quickly and transfused
right away. Fresh frozen plasma is the fluid portion of a unit of whole blood
frozen in a designated time frame, usually within 8 hours. FFP contains all
coagulation factors except platelets.
Option B: Increasing hemoglobin, hematocrit, and neutrophil levels is not
an indication for FFP. FFP corrects coagulopathy by replacing or supplying
plasma proteins in patients who are deficient in or have defective plasma
proteins. A standard dose of 10 to 20 mL/kg (4 to 6 units in adults) will
raise factor levels by approximately 20%.
Option C: FFP does not contain platelets. Other situations where the
administration of FFP cannot be recommended for or against based on
systematic review include FFP transfusion at a plasma-to-RBC ratio of 1:3 or
more in trauma patients with massive transfusion. Conditions that cause
the deficiency of multiple coagulation factors and may require the
administration of FFP include liver disease and disseminated intravascular
coagulation.
Option D: Treating thrombocytopenia is incorrect since FFP does not
contain any platelet. FFP contains fibrinogen (400 to 900 mg/unit), albumin,
protein C, protein S, antithrombin, tissue factor pathway inhibitor. It is free
of erythrocytes and leukocytes. FFP provides some volume resuscitation, as
each unit contains approximately 250 ml.
1. Question 54 of 75
54. Question
Nurse Amanda is caring for a client with severe blood loss who is prescribed
multiple transfusions of blood. Nurse Amanda obtains which most essential piece
of equipment to prevent the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias?
o A. Cardiac monitor
o B. Blood warmer
o C. ECG machine
o D. Infusion pump
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Blood warmer
Rapid transfusion of cool blood puts the client at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias.
Modern methods of very rapid transfusion in resuscitation would cause clinically
dangerous hypothermia if unmodified, ice-cold blood were to be so transfused.
These needs must be reconciled in the interest of adequate patient care–hence
the need for blood warming. Countercurrent in-line blood warmers and the
method of rapid warm saline admixture can both be used successfully for rapid,
massive transfusions.
Option A: Cardiac monitor is used to assess for any blood transfusion-
related complication, but they do not prevent the occurrence of cardiac
dysrhythmia. During the blood transfusion process, patients‘ vital signs
(heart rate, blood pressure, temperature, and respiration rate) should be
monitored throughout the procedure and recorded. Follow the
organization‘s policy on how often the vital signs should be measured.
Option C: ECG machine is used to assess for any blood transfusion-related
complication, but they do not prevent the occurrence of cardiac
dysrhythmia. Many severe reactions occur within the first 30 minutes of
commencing a transfusion of a blood component unit (SHOT 2008). Close
observation during this period is essential.
Option D: Infusion pump is not beneficial in this case since the infusion
must be given rapidly. SHOT 2008 recommends that patients be observed
1. Question 55 of 75
55. Question
A client is receiving a first-time blood transfusion of packed RBC. How long
should the nurse stay and monitor the client to ensure a transfusion reaction will
not happen?
o A. 15 minutes
o B. 30 minutes
o C. 45 minutes
o D. 60 minutes
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. 15 minutes
Usually, a transfusion reaction occurs within 15 minutes of a transfusion. For each
unit of blood transfused, monitor the patient before starting the transfusion
(baseline observation; 15 minutes after starting the transfusion; at least every
hour during transfusion; and carry out a final set of observations 15 minutes after
each unit has been transfused.
Option B: Staying with the patient for 30 minutes might be too long. Acute
reactions may occur in 1% to 2% of transfused patients. Rapid recognition
and management of the reaction may save the patient‘s life. Once
immediate action has been taken, careful and repeated clinical assessment
is essential to identify and treat the patient‘s problems.
Option C: 45 minutes of staying and monitoring the patient for transfusion
reactions is too long. All suspected acute transfusion reactions should be
reported immediately to the blood transfusion center and to the doctor
responsible for the patient. With the exception of urticarial allergic
reactions and febrile non-hemolytic reactions, all are potentially fatal and
require urgent treatment.
Option D: Most transfusion reactions occur during the first 15 minutes of
transfusion. 60 minutes is too long. However, transfusion-transmitted
1. Question 56 of 75
56. Question
Nurse Rick is administering 2 unit-packed RBCs on a client with low hemoglobin.
The nurse will prepare which of the following in order to transfuse the blood?
o A. Microfusion set
o C. Photofusion set
1. Question 57 of 75
57. Question
To verify the age of blood cells in blood, the nurse will check which of the
following?
o A. Blood type
o B. Blood group
1. Question 58 of 75
58. Question
A client has an order to receive one unit of packed RBCs. The nurse makes sure
which of the following intravenous solutions to hang with the blood product at
the client‘s bedside?
1. Question 59 of 75
59. Question
Nurse Jay is caring for a client with an ongoing transfusion of packed RBCs when
suddenly the client is having difficulty breathing, skin is flushed, and having chills.
Which action should nurse Jay take first?
o A. Administer oxygen.
1. Question 60 of 75
60. Question
After terminating the transfusion during a reaction, which action should the
nurse immediately be taken next?
1. Question 61 of 75
61. Question
A client is receiving a platelet transfusion. The nurse determines that the client is
gaining from this therapy if the client exhibits which of the following?
1. Question 62 of 75
62. Question
Nurse Daniel is caring for a client receiving a transfusion of packed red blood
cells (PRBCs). The client started to vomit and to be nauseous. Client‘s blood
pressure is 95/40 mm Hg from a baseline of 110/70 mm Hg. The client‘s
temperature is 100.5°F orally from a baseline of 99.5°F orally. The nurse
understands that the client may be experiencing which of the following?
o A. Circulatory overload
o C. Hypocalcemia
o D. Septicemia
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Septicemia
1. Question 63 of 75
63. Question
Packed red blood cells have been prescribed for a client with low hemoglobin
and hematocrit levels. The nurse takes the client‘s temperature before hanging
the blood transfusion and records 100.8 °F. Which action should the nurse take?
1. Question 64 of 75
64. Question
A nurse is caring for a client requiring surgery and is ordered to have a standby
blood secured if in case a blood transfusion is needed during or after the
procedure. The nurse suggests to the client to do which of the following to lessen
the risk of possible transfusion reaction?
o A. Request that any donated blood be screened twice by the blood bank.
1. Question 65 of 75
65. Question
A client is receiving a transfusion of one unit of cryoprecipitate. The nurse will
review which of the following laboratory studies to assess the effectiveness of the
therapy?
o C. Coagulation studies
o D. Hematocrit count
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Coagulation studies
The evaluation of the effective response of a cryoprecipitate transfusion is
assessed by monitoring coagulation studies and fibrinogen levels. Cryoprecipitate
Antihemophilic Factor, also called cryo, is a portion of plasma, the liquid part of
the blood. Cryo is rich in clotting factors, which are proteins that can reduce
blood loss by helping to slow or stop bleeding.
Option A: Crystalloids are the fluids of choice for most minor procedures.
They are sterile aqueous solutions that may contain glucose, various
electrolytes, organic salts, and nonionic compounds. Some examples of
these solutes are sodium chloride, potassium chloride, sodium bicarbonate,
calcium carbonate, sodium acetate, sodium lactate, and sodium gluconate.
Option B: White blood cells are transfused to treat life-threatening
infections in people who have a greatly reduced number of white blood
cells or whose white blood cells are functioning abnormally. The use of
white blood cell transfusions is rare because improved antibiotics and the
use of cytokine growth factors that stimulate people to produce more of
their own white blood cells have greatly reduced the need for such
transfusions.
Option D: The average increase in hematocrit per liter of packed red blood
cells transfused was 6.4% +/- 4.1%. If 1 ―unit‖ of packed red blood cells is
approximately 300 mL, this becomes a change of hematocrit of 1.9% +/-
1.2% per ―unit‖ of blood. The accepted correlation of about 1 ―unit‖ of
blood loss per 3% change in hematocrit would be valid for a 500-cc unit,
but a typical unit of packed red blood cells is typically 300 cc.
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1. Question 66 of 75
66. Question
o A. Chocolate milk
o B. Broccoli
o C. Apple
o D. Salmon
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Chocolate milk
Chocolate milk is a high-fat food. The pancreas helps with fat digestion, so foods
with more fat make the pancreas work harder. Registered dietitian Deborah
Gerszberg recommends that people with chronic pancreatitis limit their intake of
refined carbohydrates, such as white bread and high sugar foods. Refined
carbohydrates can lead to the pancreas releasing large amounts of insulin. Foods
that are high in sugar can also raise triglycerides.
Option B: Vegetables are low in fat because they do not come from animal
sources. Vegetables, beans, lentils, and whole grains are beneficial because
of their fiber content. Eating more fiber can lower the chances of having
gallstones or elevated levels of fats in the blood called triglycerides. Both
of those conditions are common causes of acute pancreatitis.
Option C: Fruits are low in fat because they do not come from animal
sources. Fruits are recommended for people with pancreatitis because they
tend to be naturally low in fat, which eases the amount of work the
pancreas needs to do to aid digestion.
Option D: Salmon is naturally lower in fat. Many types of fish, such as
salmon, lake trout, tuna, and herring, provide healthy omega-3 fat. But
avoid fish canned in oil, such as sardines in olive oil. Bake, broil, or grill
meats, poultry, or fish instead of frying them in butter or fat.
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1. Question 67 of 75
67. Question
o A. Vitamin A
o B. Vitamin D
o C. Vitamin E
o D. Vitamin C
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Vitamin D
Deficiencies in vegetarian diets include vitamin B12 which is found in animal
products and vitamin D (if limited exposure to sunlight). Vegans and other
vegetarians who limit their intake of animal products may be at greater risk of
vitamin D deficiency than nonvegetarians because foods providing the highest
amount of vitamin D per gram naturally are all from animal sources, and
fortification with vitamin D currently occurs in few foods.
Option A: Plant sources contain vitamin A in the form of carotenoids which
have to be converted during digestion into retinol before the body can use
it. Carotenoids are the pigments that give plants their green color and
some fruits and vegetables their red or orange color.
Option C: The best way to get the daily requirement of vitamin E is by
eating food sources. Vitamin E is found in vegetable oils, nuts, seeds, green
leafy vegetables, and fortified breakfast cereals. It is an antioxidant. This
means it protects body tissue from damage caused by substances called
free radicals. Free radicals can harm cells, tissues, and organs. They are
believed to play a role in certain conditions related to aging.
Option D: Vitamin C can be found in fruits and vegetables, which are eaten
by a vegetarian. Humans are unable to synthesize vitamin C, so it is strictly
obtained through the dietary intake of fruits and vegetables. Citrus fruits,
berries, tomatoes, potatoes, and green leafy vegetables are excellent
sources of vitamin C.
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1. Question 68 of 75
o A. Chicken
o B. Milk
o C. Beef
o D. Broccoli
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Beef
Food sources of thiamin include beef, liver, nuts, oats, oranges, pork, eggs, seeds,
legumes, peas, and yeast. In meat, the liver has the highest amount of thiamine.
Whereas three ounces of beefsteak gives 7% of the daily value of thiamine, one
serving of beef liver will give about 10%. One serving of cooked salmon gives
18% of the daily value of thiamine.
Option A: Poultry contains niacin. Chicken meat, particularly chicken
breast, is an excellent source of protein as well as niacin. A three-ounce
serving of skinless breast meat provides 10.3 mg. Niacin is an essential
nutrient that we mainly need to get from foods. The body may also convert
some tryptophan, one of the body‘s amino acids, into a nutrient.
Option B: Milk contains vitamins A, D, and B2. Milk contains the fat-soluble
vitamins A, D, E, and K. The content level of fat-soluble vitamins in dairy
products depends on the fat content of the product. Milk contains the
water-soluble vitamins thiamin (vitamin B1), riboflavin (vitamin B2), niacin
(vitamin B3), pantothenic acid (vitamin B5), vitamin B6 (pyridoxine), vitamin
B12 (cobalamin), vitamin C, and folate. Milk is a good source of thiamin,
riboflavin, and vitamin B12.
Option D: Broccoli contains folic acid, vitamins C, E, and K. Broccoli is a
good source of fiber and protein and contains iron, potassium, calcium,
selenium, and magnesium as well as the vitamins A, C, E, K, and a good
array of B vitamins including folic acid.
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1. Question 69 of 75
o A. Popsicle
o B. Carbonated beverages
o C. Gelatin
o D. Custard
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Custard
Full liquid food items include items such as plain ice cream, sherbet, breakfast
drinks, milk, pudding, and custard, soups that are strained, refined cooked
cereals, and strained vegetable juices. A full liquid diet is made up only of fluids
and foods that are normally liquid and foods that turn to liquid when they are at
room temperature, like ice cream.
Option A: A clear liquid diet is a specific dietary plan that only includes
liquids that are fully transparent at room temperature. Some items that
may be allowed include water, ice, fruit juices without pulp, sports drinks,
carbonated drinks, gelatin, tea, coffee, clear broths, and clear ice pops.
Option B: Carbonated beverages are part of a clear liquid diet. Items can
have color as long as they are transparent. Items such as milk and orange
juice are not considered clear liquids because they are not fully transparent
and may take more effort for the digestive system to break down, whereas
grape juice is allowed (it is pigmented, but fully transparent).
Option C: Gelatin is a clear liquid diet. The clear liquid diet assists in
maintaining hydration, provides electrolytes and calories, and offers some
level of satiety when a full diet is not appropriate, but may struggle to
provide adequate caloric needs if employed for more than five days.
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1. Question 70 of 75
70. Question
o A. Vegetable juices
o B. Custard
o C. Sherbet
o D. Bouillon
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Bouillon
A clear liquid diet consists of foods that are relatively transparent to light and
liquid at room and body temperature. Foods allowed on the clear liquid diet
(bouillon, popsicles, plain gelatin, ice chips, sweetened tea or coffee (no creamer),
carbonated beverages, and water). The clear liquid diet assists in maintaining
hydration, it provides electrolytes and calories, and offers some level of satiety
when a full diet is not appropriate, but may struggle to provide adequate caloric
needs if employed for more than five days
Option A: Vegetable juices are part of a full liquid diet. A patient
prescribed a full liquid diet follows a specific diet type requiring all liquids
and semi-liquids but no forms of solid intake. Unlike a clear liquid diet,
which includes only liquids and semi-liquids that are non-opaque, a full
liquid diet is more inclusive, as it allows all types of liquids.
Option B: Custard is a full liquid diet. Patients not ready for a regular diet
due to elective or emergent procedures or who experience irregularity in
gastrointestinal function, dysphagia, a transition from prolonged fasted
periods, etc., are typically placed on a restrictive diet.
Option C: Sherbet is a full liquid diet. Dietary restrictions can be as
restrictive as no food or liquids allowed by mouth, which may increase in a
stepwise fashion until reaching regular nutrition. One step in that
progression is a full liquid diet.
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1. Question 71 of 75
71. Question
1. Question 72 of 75
1. Question 73 of 75
73. Question
o A. Pretzels
o D. Dried apricot
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Dried apricot
Foods that are lower in sodium include fruits and vegetables like dried apricot.
Dried apricots are sodium-free. Dried apricots, as part of a low sodium diet, may
reduce the risk of high blood pressure. Apricots contain numerous antioxidants,
most notably flavonoids. They help protect the body from oxidative stress, which
is linked to many chronic diseases.
Option A: These classic snacks are high in sodium — almost 20 percent of
the recommended daily intake is in one serving of pretzels. Too much
sodium leads to increased water retention, which can lead to bloating and
puffiness, and too much sodium over time can lead to heart disease.
Option B: Sodium is finding its way into a lot of whole wheat bread brands
in amounts that average 240 to 400 mg per slice. If your serving usually
contains two slices, the sodium can add up quickly.
Option C: Many tomato juice products contain added salt — which bumps
up the sodium content. For example, a 1.4-cup (340-ml) serving of
Campbell‘s 100% tomato juice contains 980 mg of sodium — which is 43%
of the DV. Research shows that diets high in sodium may contribute to
high blood pressure.
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1. Question 74 of 75
74. Question
The nurse is instructing a client with hyperkalemia on the importance of choosing
foods low in potassium. The nurse should teach the client to limit which of the
following foods?
o B. Carrot
o C. Green beans
o D. Lettuce
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Carrot
Carrots have 320 mg of potassium per 100 mg serving; green beans give 209 mg
of potassium, 194 mg for lettuce, and 191 mg for grapes all in 100 mg serving.
Other foods that are low in potassium include applesauce, blueberries, pineapple,
and cabbage. To minimize potassium buildup, a person with chronic kidney
disease should stick to a low-potassium diet of between 1,500 and 2,000
milligrams (mg) per day. Limiting phosphorus, sodium, and fluids may also be
important for people with kidney dysfunction.
Option A: Grapes are also rich in potassium, but not as much as in carrots.
They‘re also a good source of vitamin C, an essential nutrient and powerful
antioxidant necessary for connective tissue health. Grapes are high in a
number of powerful antioxidant compounds. In fact, over 1,600 beneficial
plant compounds have been identified in this fruit.
Option C: Half a cup of freshly cooked green beans has only 90 milligrams
of potassium and 18 milligrams of phosphorus, making them a great
vegetable choice for the kidney diet.
Option D: Lettuce is a popular vegetable and is usually eaten raw in salads.
Because CKD patients with hyperkalemia need to limit potassium intake
from meals, they are not able to eat large quantities of raw vegetables such
as lettuce.
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1. Question 75 of 75
75. Question
A client is recovering from debridement of the right leg. A nurse encourages the
client to eat which food item that is naturally high in vitamin C to promote
wound healing?
o A. Milk
o C. Banana
o D. Strawberries
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Strawberries
Citrus fruits and juices are especially high in vitamin C. Strawberries are an
excellent source of vitamin C and manganese and also contain decent amounts
of folate (vitamin B9) and potassium. Strawberries are very rich in antioxidants
and plant compounds, which may have benefits for heart health and blood sugar
control
Option A: Dairy products such as milk are high in vitamin B. Milk and other
dairy products pack about a third of the daily riboflavin requirement in just
1 cup (240 ml). Milk is also a good source of well-absorbed B12. Like other
animal products, milk also is a good source of B12, supplying 18% of the
RDI per 1-cup (240-ml) serving.
Option B: Meats such as chicken are high in vitamin B. Chicken and turkey,
especially the white meat portions, are high in B3 and B6. Poultry also
supplies smaller amounts of riboflavin, pantothenic acid, and cobalamin.
Most of the nutrients are in the meat, not the skin.
Option C: Bananas are rich in potassium. Bananas are rich in the mineral
potassium. Potassium helps maintain fluid levels in the body and regulates
the movement of nutrients and waste products in and out of cells. One
medium-sized banana contains 422 milligrams (mg) of potassium.
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1. 1. Question
Which of the following is not true regarding the types of a nasogastric tube?
o A. Cantor tube is a single-lumen long tube with a small inflatable bag at the
distal end.
1. Question 2 of 75
2. Question
A new RN nurse is about to insert a nasogastric tube into a client with Guillain-
Barre Syndrome. To determine the accurate measurement of the length of the
tube to be inserted, the nurse should:
o A. Place the tube at the tip of the nose, and measure by extending the tube
to the earlobe and then down to the top of the sternum.
o C. Place the tube at the tip of the nose, and measure by extending the tube
down to the chin and then down to the top of the xiphoid process.
o D. Place the tube at the base of the nose and measure by extending the tube
to the earlobe and then down to the top of the sternum.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Place the tube at the tip of the nose, and measure by
extending the tube to the earlobe and then down to the xiphoid process.
Estimate the length of insertion by measuring the distance from the tip of the
nose, around the ear, and down to just below the left costal margin. This point
can be marked with a piece of tape on the tube. When using the Salem sump NG
tube (Kendall, Mansfield, MA) in adults, the estimated length usually falls
between the second and third preprinted black lines on the tube.
Option A: Apart from the nose-to-ear-to-xiphisternum (NEX) method,
several other methods for determining the length of the tube have been
described. Among the various options, a formula based on gender, weight,
and nose-to-umbilicus measurement while lying flat was found to be safer
and more accurate in a study by Santos et al.
Option C: While the stomach is a highly distensible structure and
therefore, can vary in length, the empty stomach is generally around 25 cm
long. Thus if one intended to place a tube through the nares and place it in
the middle of the stomach, then approximately 55 cm of the tube should
be inserted.
Option D: There are several methods to estimate the depth that an NG
should be placed. All methods for estimation will have some margin of
error. A common pre-procedure maneuver is to loop the tube over one of
the patient‘s ears and place the tip at the patient‘s xiphoid process and use
this as an estimate for the length of the tube that should be inserted.
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1. Question 3 of 75
3. Question
o C. Do a Valsalva maneuver.
1. Question 4 of 75
o A. If bowel sounds are absent, hold the feeding and notify the physician.
1. Question 5 of 75
5. Question
A nurse is checking the nasogastric tube position of a client receiving a long-term
therapy of Omeprazole (Prilosec) by aspirating the stomach contents to check for
the PH level. The nurse proves the correct tube placement if the PH level is?
o A. 7.75.
o B. 7.5.
o C. 6.5.
o D. 5.5.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. 5.5.
Gastric placement is indicated by a pH of less than 4 but may increase to
between pH 4-6 if the patient is receiving acid-inhibiting drugs. Measuring the
pH of stomach aspirate is considered more accurate than visual inspection.
Stomach aspirate generally has a pH range of 0 to 4, commonly less than 4.
Option A: The aspirate of respiratory contents is generally more alkaline,
with a pH of 7 or more. Testing the pH of gastric aspirate to show pH ?5.5
is recommended first-line test to confirm correct placement of nasogastric
tubes and reduce the risk of potentially fatal aspiration.
Option B: The pH readings between 4.5 and 6.0 provided the greatest
overall accuracy, however, there was only moderate agreement between
observers at pH readings ?5.0. Compared with studies that have taken
aspirate directly from the nasogastric tube, patients undergoing scope
procedures had a lower sensitivity at the pH cut-off ?5.5 for identifying
gastric aspirates for the whole group and in the presence and absence of
antacid medications.
Option C: Current healthcare guidelines recommend that the first-line test
to confirm correct NGT placement prior to giving food or medications
must be that the pH of an NGT aspirate is ?5.5 (acidic). Nevertheless, false-
1. Question 6 of 75
6. Question
Before feeding a client via NGT, the nurse checks for residual and obtains a
residual amount of 90ml. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?
o C. Skip the feeding and administer the next feeding due in 4 hours.
1. Question 7 of 75
7. Question
Continuous type of feedings is administered over a __ hour period?
o A. 4.
o B. 12.
o C. 24.
o D. 36.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. 24.
Continuous feeding is administered for 24 hours. An infusion pump regulates the
flow. Continuous drip feeding is delivered by either gravity drip or infusion pump.
The infusion pump is a better method of delivery than gravity drip. The flow rate
of gravity drip may be inconsistent and, therefore, needs to be checked
frequently.
Option A: When feedings are delivered continuously, stool output is
reduced, a consideration for the child with chronic diarrhea. Continuous
infusions of elemental formula have been successful in managing infants
with short bowel syndrome, intractable diarrhea, necrotizing enterocolitis,
and Crohn‘s disease.
Option B: Commonly, it is used for 8 to 10 hours during the night for
volume-sensitive patients so that smaller bolus feedings or oral feeding
1. Question 8 of 75
8. Question
A client is subjected to undergo a chest x-ray to confirm the endotracheal tube
placement. The tube should be how many centimeters above the carina?
o A. 2-4 cm.
o B. 1.5-3 cm.
o C. 1-2 cm.
o D. 0.5-1 cm.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. 1-2 cm.
Placement of an endotracheal tube is confirmed by a chest x-ray and the correct
placement is 1 to 2 cm above the carina. Check patient‘s chest x-ray for tube
placement and presence of C02 per ET C02 detector after any new intubation;
auscultate chest for equal breath sounds bilaterally, and adjust E.T. tube for
proper placement.
Option A: Check tube placement with each ventilator assessment. The
optimal placement for the endotracheal tube is 2-3cm above the carina in
adults. If repositioning of the endotracheal tube is warranted, suction the
tube and then suction the oropharynx.
Option B: Positioning the ET tip 4 cm above carina as recommended will
result in placement of tube cuff inside cricoid ring with currently available
tubes. Optimal depth of ET placement can be estimated by the formula
―(Height in cm/7)-2.5.‖
1. Question 9 of 75
9. Question
After the client had tolerated the weaning process, the physician ordered the
removal of the endotracheal tube and it will be shifted into a nasal cannula.
Which of the following findings after the removal
requires immediate intervention by the physician?
o A. Sore throat.
o D. Neck discomfort.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Coughing out blood.
A sign of a tracheal or esophageal perforation that prevents oxygen from
reaching the lungs and can result in internal bleeding. This life-threatening side
effect of being intubated requires immediate medical intervention. When
hemoptysis begins after endotracheal intubation, upper airway trauma caused by
the intubation procedure, endotracheal tube, or endotracheal suction catheters
must be considered. If hemoptysis begins after a latent period of 1 or more
weeks after intubation, a tracheo-artery fistula may be the source of hemorrhage.
Option A: Endotracheal tube (ETT) is often necessary to achieve airway
control during general anesthesia. However, postoperative sore throat
(POST) is considered as a common adverse event after general anesthesia
with ETTs. POST continues to be reported with a high frequency and can
sometimes persist for several days
1. Question 10 of 75
10. Question
The nurse is assessing a client with an endotracheal tube and observes that the
client can make verbal sounds. What is the most likely cause of this?
o B. There is a leak.
o C. There is an occlusion.
1. Question 11 of 75
11. Question
While changing the tapes on a tracheostomy tube, the client coughs, and the
tube is dislodged. Which is the initial nursing action?
1. Question 12 of 75
12. Question
The nurse caring for a client with a pneumothorax and who has had a chest tube
inserted notes continuous gentle bubbling in the suction control chamber. What
action is most appropriate for the nurse?
1. Question 13 of 75
13. Question
The nurse is assessing the functioning of a chest tube drainage system in a client
with hemothorax. Which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to
notify the physician?
1. Question 14 of 75
14. Question
A nurse is supervising a student nurse who is performing tracheostomy care for a
client. Which of the following actions by the student should the nurse intervene?
o C. Changing the old tracheostomy ties and securing the tube in place.
o D. Replacing the inner cannula and cleaning the site of the stoma.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Removing the inner cannula and cleaning using universal
precaution.
1. Question 15 of 75
15. Question
The nurse is handling a client with a chest tube. Suddenly, the chest drainage
system is accidentally disconnected. What is the most appropriate action for the
nurse to take?
1. Question 16 of 75
16. Question
A client with Congestive heart failure is about to take a dose of furosemide
(Lasix). Which of the following potassium levels, if noted in the client‘s record,
should be reported before giving the due medication?
o A. 5.1 mEq/L.
o C. 3.9 mEq/L.
o D. 3.3 mEq/L.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. 3.3 mEq/L.
The normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L. Low potassium levels can be
dangerous, especially for people with CHF. Low potassium can cause fatal heart
arrhythmias. An abnormal serum K+ level is associated with an increased risk of
ventricular arrhythmia and sudden cardiac death (SCD) and these patients are
generally prescribed furosemide and potassium chloride (KCl).
Option A: Furosemide, a short-acting diuretic is commonly recommended
as an essential drug in patients with heart failure and fluid retention. A
recent study has shown that furosemide administration increases mortality
in heart failure rat models. The commonly used drugs, furosemide, and KCl
in the treatment of various diseases render the differential expression of
proteins in the LV tissue, which is involved in the cardiac conductivity.
Option B: The risk of hypokalemia increases with the use of a high dose of
furosemide, decreased oral intake of potassium in patients with
hyperaldosteronism states (liver abnormalities or licorice ingestion), or
concomitant use of corticosteroid, ACTH, and laxatives.
Option C: Careful monitoring of the patient‘s clinical condition, daily
weight, fluids intake, and urine output, electrolytes, i.e., potassium and
magnesium, kidney function monitoring with serum creatinine and serum
blood urea nitrogen level is vital to monitor the response to furosemide. If
indicated as diuresis with furosemide, replete electrolytes lead to
electrolyte depletion and adjust the dose or even hold off on furosemide if
laboratory work shows signs of kidney dysfunction.
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1. Question 16 of 75
16. Question
A client with Congestive heart failure is about to take a dose of furosemide
(Lasix). Which of the following potassium levels, if noted in the client‘s record,
should be reported before giving the due medication?
o B. 4.9 mEq/L.
o C. 3.9 mEq/L.
o D. 3.3 mEq/L.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. 3.3 mEq/L.
The normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L. Low potassium levels can be
dangerous, especially for people with CHF. Low potassium can cause fatal heart
arrhythmias. An abnormal serum K+ level is associated with an increased risk of
ventricular arrhythmia and sudden cardiac death (SCD) and these patients are
generally prescribed furosemide and potassium chloride (KCl).
Option A: Furosemide, a short-acting diuretic is commonly recommended
as an essential drug in patients with heart failure and fluid retention. A
recent study has shown that furosemide administration increases mortality
in heart failure rat models. The commonly used drugs, furosemide, and KCl
in the treatment of various diseases render the differential expression of
proteins in the LV tissue, which is involved in the cardiac conductivity.
Option B: The risk of hypokalemia increases with the use of a high dose of
furosemide, decreased oral intake of potassium in patients with
hyperaldosteronism states (liver abnormalities or licorice ingestion), or
concomitant use of corticosteroid, ACTH, and laxatives.
Option C: Careful monitoring of the patient‘s clinical condition, daily
weight, fluids intake, and urine output, electrolytes, i.e., potassium and
magnesium, kidney function monitoring with serum creatinine and serum
blood urea nitrogen level is vital to monitor the response to furosemide. If
indicated as diuresis with furosemide, replete electrolytes lead to
electrolyte depletion and adjust the dose or even hold off on furosemide if
laboratory work shows signs of kidney dysfunction.
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1. Question 17 of 75
17. Question
o A. 130 mEq/L.
o B. 148 mEq/L.
o C. 143 mEq/L.
o D. 139 mEq/L.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. 148 mEq/L.
The normal sodium level is 135-145 mEq/L. Diaphoresis and a high fever can lead
to free water loss through the skin, resulting in increased sodium level
(hypernatremia). Hypernatremia is defined as a serum sodium concentration of
greater than 145 meq/l. The human body maintains sodium and water
homeostasis by concentrating the urine secondary to the action of antidiuretic
hormone (ADH) and increased fluid intake by a powerful thirst response.
Option A: The basic mechanisms of hypernatremia are water deficit and
excess solute. Total body water loss relative to solute loss is the most
common reason for developing hypernatremia. Hypernatremia is usually
associated with hypovolemia, which can occur in conditions that cause
combined water and solute loss, where water loss is greater than sodium
loss, or free water loss.
Option C: Excessive sweating can occur due to exercise, fever, or high heat
exposure. Renal losses can be seen in intrinsic renal disease, post-
obstructive diuresis, and with the use of osmotic or loop diuretics.
Hyperglycemia and mannitol are common causes of osmotic diuresis. Free
water loss is seen with central or nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) and
also in conditions with increased insensible loss.
Option D: Sodium excretion also involves regulatory mechanisms such as
the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone systems. When serum sodium increases,
the plasma osmolality increases which triggers the thirst response and ADH
secretion, leading to renal water conservation and concentrated urine.
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1. Question 18 of 75
19. Question
A male client with atrial fibrillation who is receiving maintenance therapy of
warfarin (Coumadin) has a prothrombin time of 37 seconds. Based on the result,
the nurse will follow which of the following doctor‘s orders?
1. 20. Question
A client is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin sodium to treat
deep vein thrombosis. The client‘s activated partial thromboplastin time is 77
seconds. Based on this result, the nurse anticipated which of the following
prescriptions?
1. Question 21 of 75
21. Question
A nurse is handling a pregnant client who was prescribed to have an Alpha
Fetoprotein level. The nurse should explain to the client that this blood test:
1. Question 22 of 75
22. Question
Which of the following laboratory results indicates hypoparathyroidism?
1. Question 23 of 75
23. Question
An adult male client has a hemoglobin count of 12.5 g/dL. Based on the result,
the client is most likely having this due to which of the following notes in the
client‘s record?
o A. Emphysema.
o C. Dehydration.
1. Question 24 of 75
24. Question
A screen test for the detection of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) reveals a
positive ELISA exam. Which of the following tests will be used to confirm the
diagnosis of HIV?
o B. CD4-to-CD8 ratio.
1. Question 25 of 75
25. Question
The client went to the emergency room with a sudden onset of chest pain and
difficulty of breathing. Which of the following results is indicative that the client is
experiencing a myocardial infarction?
1. Question 26 of 75
26. Question
A nurse is caring for a client with diarrhea and dehydration. The nurse determines
that the client has received adequate fluid replacement if the blood urea nitrogen
decreases to:
o B. 27 mg/dL.
o C. 18 mg/dL.
o D. 6 mg/dL.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. 18 mg/dL.
The normal value of blood urea nitrogen is 8 to 25 mg/dL. Fluid status absolutely
affects the levels of BUN and creatinine in the blood, but volume depletion or
dehydration tends to affect BUN more so that we see a BUN: creatinine ratio of
20:1 or more in people who are very dry.
Option A: 36 mg/dl indicates a high level of BUN. Dehydration generally
causes BUN levels to rise more than creatinine levels. This causes a high
BUN-to-creatinine ratio. Kidney disease or blockage of the flow of urine
from the kidney causes both BUN and creatinine levels to go up.
Option B: 27 mg/dl still indicates dehydration. A patient who is severely
dehydrated may also have a high BUN due to the lack of fluid volume to
excrete waste products. Because urea is an end product of protein
metabolism, a diet high in protein, such as high-protein tube feeding, may
also cause the BUN to increase.
Option D: A low BUN occurs with conditions such as fluid volume
overload, malnutrition, etc. Because urea is synthesized by the liver, severe
liver failure causes a reduction of urea in the blood. Just as dehydration
may cause an elevated BUN, overhydration causes a decreased BUN. When
a person has a ―syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic secretion‖ (SIADH),
the antidiuretic hormone responsible for stimulating the kidney to
conserve water causes excess water to be retained in the bloodstream
rather than being excreted into the urine.
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1. Question 27 of 75
27. Question
A client with liver cirrhosis has been advised to follow a high-protein diet. The
nurse evaluates the effectiveness of the diet if the total protein level is which of
the following values?
o B. 4.9 g/dL.
o C. 2.9 g/dL.
o D. 0.9 g/dL.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. 6.9 g/dL.
The normal value for total serum protein is 6 to 8 g/dL. The client with liver
cirrhosis has low total protein levels secondary to inadequate nutrition. Protein
deficiency is often associated with liver disease. The principal cause of protein
deficiency is decreased dietary intake. Deficiencies in digestion and absorption
that are common in alcoholics contribute to protein deficiency in alcoholic liver
disease.
Option B: 4.9 mg/dl is a low value for total serum protein. The protein
requirements in most patients with compensated chronic liver disease are
not different from normal but increase during episodes of hepatocellular
deterioration. Increased demand for protein after liver injury drains
nitrogen from other organs such as muscle.
Option C: 2.9 mg/dl is a very low total serum protein level. Circulating
proteins synthesized by the liver, such as albumin and clotting factors, are
frequently decreased in chronic liver disease. Vitamin deficiencies that are
common in liver disease contribute to abnormalities of protein metabolism.
Hepatic regeneration following hepatic resection or injury is adversely
affected by protein and vitamin deficiencies and by alcohol ingestion.
Option D: 0.9 mg/dl is an abnormally low total serum protein value. This is
because some conditions affect the amounts of albumin or globulin in the
blood. A low A/G ratio may be due to an overproduction of globulin,
underproduction of albumin, or loss of albumin, which may indicate the
following: an autoimmune disease. cirrhosis, involving inflammation and
scarring of the liver.
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1. Question 28 of 75
28. Question
o A. 50 units/L.
o B. 150 units/L.
o C. 350 units/L.
o D. 650 units/L.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. 350 units/L.
The normal serum amylase level is 25 to 151 unit/L. Clients with chronic
pancreatitis have an increased level of serum amylase which does not exceed
three times the normal value. Serum amylase and lipase levels may be slightly
elevated in chronic pancreatitis; high levels are found only during acute attacks of
pancreatitis.
Option A: 50 units/L is a low serum amylase level. Low serum amylase
(hypoamylasemia) has been reported in certain common cardiometabolic
conditions such as obesity, diabetes (regardless of type), and metabolic
syndrome, all of which appear to have a common etiology of insufficient
insulin action due to insulin resistance and/or diminished insulin secretion.
Option B: 150 units/L is within the normal values. However, in the later
stages of chronic pancreatitis, atrophy of the pancreatic parenchyma can
result in normal serum enzyme levels because of significant fibrosis of the
pancreas, resulting in decreased concentrations of these enzymes within
the pancreas.
Option D: 650 units/L is seen with acute pancreatitis since the value may
exceed five times the normal value. The sensitivity and specificity of
amylase as a diagnostic test for acute pancreatitis depends on the chosen
threshold value. By raising the cut-off level to 1000 IU/l (more than three
times the upper limit of normal), amylase has a specificity approaching
95%, but sensitivity as low as 61% in some studies.
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1. Question 29 of 75
29. Question
o B. Preventing hypoglycemia.
o C. Preventing hyperglycemia.
o D. Avoiding infection.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Preventing hyperglycemia.
Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c level of 8% higher indicates poor diabetic control.
Elevations indicate continued need for teaching related to the prevention of
hyperglycemic episodes. The test shows an average of the blood sugar level over
the past 90 days and represents a percentage. The test can also be used to
diagnose diabetes.
Option A: For an A1c test to classify as normal, or in the non-diabetic
range the value must be below 5.7 %. Anyone with an A1c value of 5.7 % to
6.4 % is considered to be prediabetic, while diabetes can be diagnosed
with an A1c of 6.5% or higher. Hemoglobin A1c serves as an indicator of
overall glycemic control and a reflection of the average blood sugar over
the past three months.
Option B: A falsely low A1c value can result from several conditions
including high altitude, pregnancy, hemorrhages, blood transfusions,
erythropoietin administration, iron supplementation, hemolytic anemia,
chronic kidney failure, liver cirrhosis, alcoholism, folic acid deficiency, sickle
cell anemia, and spherocytosis.
Option D: A1c provides a measure of the glucose concentration over three
months. Hemoglobin A1c is often used as an outcome measure to
determine if an intervention in a population is successful by showing a
decrease in A1c by a certain percentage. Levels of A1c should be measured
twice a year in stable patients and at least four times in patients who have
glucose fluctuations or those who have had a change in their diabetic
treatment.
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1. Question 30 of 75
1. Question 31 of 75
31. Question
The nurse caring for a client with a serum calcium of 6.8 mg/dL. What would the
nurse expect the change on the electrocardiogram (ECG)?
o B. Prolonged QT interval.
o C. Shortened ST segment.
o D. Widened T wave.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Prolonged QT interval.
The normal serum calcium level is 8.6 to 10 mg/dL. A serum calcium level lower
than 8.6 mg/dL indicates hypocalcemia. Electrocardiographic changes that occur
in a client with hypocalcemia include a prolonged ST or QT interval. The ECG
hallmark of hypocalcemia remains the prolongation of the QTc interval because
of lengthening of the ST segment, which is directly proportional to the degree of
hypocalcemia or, as otherwise stated, inversely proportional to the serum calcium
level. The exact opposite holds true for hypercalcemia.
Option A: High and low levels of ionized serum calcium concentration can
produce characteristic changes on the electrocardiogram. These changes
are almost entirely limited to the duration of the ST segment, with no
change in the QRS complexes or T waves.
Option C: The ST segment on an electrocardiogram (ECG) normally
represents an electrically neutral area of the complex between ventricular
depolarization (QRS complex) and repolarization (T wave). However, it can
take on various waveform morphologies that may indicate benign or
clinically significant injury or insult to the myocardium.
Option D: A widened T wave occurs with hypercalcemia. On
electrocardiography (ECG), characteristic changes in patients with
hypercalcemia include shortening of the QT interval. ECG changes in
1. Question 32 of 75
32. Question
When providing care for a female client with Addison disease, the nurse should
be alert for which of the following laboratory values?
1. Question 33 of 75
33. Question
A client has been undergoing radiotherapy for the treatment of mandibular
cancer. After a few sessions, the client is diagnosed with Tumor Lysis Syndrome
(TLS). Which of the following findings correlates with TLS?
1. Question 34 of 75
34. Question
A female client went to the clinic with a creatinine clearance of 200 mL/min.
Which of the following conditions of the client can cause the increased level of
this test?
o A. Renal disease.
o B. Dehydration.
1. 35. Question
A nurse is reviewing the complete blood count (CBC) of a child who has been
diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. Which of the following
laboratory results should the nurse report immediately to the physician?
1. Question 36 of 75
36. Question
A patient receiving parenteral nutrition is administered via the following routes
except:
o A. Subclavian line.
o D. PEG tube.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. PEG tube.
Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG tube) is inserted into a person‘s
stomach through the abdominal wall that is used to provide a means of feeding
when oral intake is not adequate. While parenteral nutrition bypasses the
digestive system by the administration to the bloodstream.
Option A: TPN may be administered as peripheral parenteral nutrition
(PPN) or via a central line, depending on the components and osmolality.
Central veins are usually the veins of choice because there is less risk of
thrombophlebitis and vessel damage (Chowdary & Reddy, 2010).
Option B: Parenteral nutrition may be delivered via femoral lines, internal
jugular lines, and subclavian vein catheters in the hospital setting. Central
access is required for infusions that are toxic to small veins due to
medication pH, osmolarity, and volume.
Option C: PICC lines may be used in ambulatory settings or for long-term
therapy. It is inserted in the cephalic, basilic, median basilic, or median
1. Question 37 of 75
37. Question
A nurse is monitoring the status of a client‘s fat emulsion (lipid) infusion and
notes that the infusion is 2 hours delay. The nurse should do which of the
following actions?
o C. Increase the infusion rate to catch up over the next few hours.
o D. Adjust the infusion rate to full blast until the solution is back on time.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Make sure the infusion rate is infusing at the ordered
rate.
The nurse should maintain the prescribed rate of a fat emulsion even if the
infusion‘s time consumed is behind. The infusion of lipid emulsions allows a high
energy supply, facilitates the prevention of high glucose infusion rates, and is
indispensable for the supply with essential fatty acids. The administration of lipid
emulsions is recommended within ?7 days after starting PN (parenteral nutrition)
to avoid deficiency of essential fatty acids.
Option A: This intervention may cause hyperglycemia. Low-fat PN with a
high glucose intake increases the risk of hyperglycemia. In parenterally fed
patients with a tendency to hyperglycemia, an increase in the lipid-glucose
ratio should be considered. In critically ill patients the glucose infusion
should not exceed 50% of energy intake.
Option C: C is incorrect since increasing the rate will potentially cause a
fluid overload. The risk of PN complications (e.g. refeeding syndrome,
hyperglycemia, bone demineralization, catheter infections) can be
minimized by carefully monitoring patients and the use of nutrition
support teams particularly during long-term PN.
1. Question 38 of 75
38. Question
A nurse is preparing to hang the initial bag of the parenteral nutrition (PN)
solution via the central line of a malnourished client. The nurse ensures the
availability of which medical equipment before hanging the solution?
o A. Glucometer.
o B. Dressing tray.
o C. Nebulizer.
o D. Infusion pump.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Infusion pump.
The nurse should prepare an infusion pump prior to hanging a parenteral
solution. The use of an infusion pump is important to make sure that the solution
does not infuse too quickly or delayed since the parenteral nutrition has a high
glucose content. An infusion pump controls the rate at which the TPN solution is
given so that the concentrated food does not overload other digestive organs.
For many patients receiving TPN, the pump is portable.
Option A: A glucometer is also needed since the client‘s glucose level is
monitored every 4 to 6 hours, but it is not an essential item needed.
Hyperglycemia is associated with increased hospital complications and
mortality in patients receiving TPN. TPN-induced hyperglycemia is
associated with increased length of hospital stay, increased risk of
complications, and higher mortality in hospitalized patients.
1. Question 39 of 75
39. Question
A nurse is conducting a follow-up home visit to a client who has been discharged
with parenteral nutrition(PN). Which of the following should the
nurse most closely monitor in this kind of therapy?
1. Question 40 of 75
40. Question
A nurse is preparing to hang a fat emulsion (lipids) and observes some visible fat
globules at the top of the solution. The nurse ensures to do which of the
following actions?
1. Question 41 of 75
41. Question
A client is receiving nutrition via parenteral nutrition (PN). A nurse assesses the
client for complications of the therapy and assesses the client for which of the
following signs of hyperglycemia?
1. Question 42 of 75
42. Question
A nurse is caring for a client who disconnected the tubing of the parenteral
nutrition from the central line catheter. A nurse suspects an occurrence of an air
embolism. Which of the following is an appropriate position for the client in this
kind of situation?
o C. On the left side, with the head higher than the feet.
1. Question 43 of 75
43. Question
A client is being weaned off from parenteral nutrition (PN) and is given a go-
signal to take a regular diet. The ongoing solution rate has been 120ml/hr. A
nurse expects that which of the following prescriptions regarding the PN solution
will accompany the diet order?
1. Question 44 of 75
44. Question
A client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) in the home setting has a weight gain
of 5 lb in 1 week. The nurse next assesses the client to identify the presence of
which of the following?
o A. Hypotension.
o D. Polyuria.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Crackles upon auscultation of the lungs.
Normally, the weight gain of a client receiving PN is about 1-2 pounds a week. A
weight gain of five (5) pounds over a week indicates a client is experiencing fluid
retention that can result in hypervolemia. Signs of hypervolemia include weight
gain more than desired, headache, jugular vein distention, bounding pulse, and
crackles on lung auscultation.
Option A: Hypertension, not hypotension is expected. Fluid overload can
occur for the same reasons that fluid overload can occur with a regular
peripheral intravenous flow. The rate is too fast and rapid for the client. The
signs and symptoms of fluid overload include hypertension, edema,
adventitious breath sounds like crackles and rales, shortness of breath, and
bulging neck veins.
Option C: Thirst is associated with hyperglycemia. Hyperglycemia can
occur as the result of the high dextrose content of the total parenteral
nutrition solution as well as the lack of a sufficient amount of administered.
This total parenteral nutrition complication can be prevented with the
continuous monitoring of the client‘s blood glucose levels and the titration
of insulin administration based on these levels of insulin.
Option D: Polyuria is associated with hyperglycemia. The signs and
symptoms of hyperglycemia secondary to total parenteral nutrition are the
same as those associated with poorly managed diabetes and they include a
high blood glucose level, thirst, excessive urinary output, headache, nausea,
and fatigue.
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1. Question 45 of 75
45. Question
A nurse is making initial rounds at the beginning of the shift and notices that the
parenteral nutrition (PN) bag of an assigned client is empty. Which of the
following solutions readily available on the nursing unit should the nurse hang
until another PN solution is mixed and delivered to the nursing unit?
o B. 5% dextrose in water.
1. Question 46 of 75
46. Question
1. Question 47 of 75
47. Question
A client is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) and is suddenly having a fever. A
nurse notifies the physician and the physician initially prescribes that the solution
and tubing be changed. The nurse should do which of the following with the
discontinued materials?
1. Question 48 of 75
48. Question
A nurse is changing the central line dressing of a client receiving parenteral
nutrition (PN) and notes that there is redness and drainage at the insertion site.
The nurse next assesses which of the following?
o B. Allergy.
o C. Client's temperature.
o D. Expiration date.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Client’s temperature.
Redness at the catheter insertion site is a possible sign of infection. The nurse
would next assess for other signs of infection. Of the options given, the
temperature is the next item to assess. TPN requires a chronic IV access for the
solution to run through, and the most common complication is an infection of
this catheter. Infection is a common cause of death in these patients, with a
mortality rate of approximately 15% per infection, and death usually results from
septic shock.
Option A: Assess skin integrity and wound healing. Skin integrity changes
and wound healing are used as parameters in monitoring the effectiveness
of TPN feeding.
Option B: TPN composition is based on the calculated nutritional needs of
the client. Before the therapy is started, a thorough baseline assessment
1. Question 49 of 75
49. Question
A client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) complains of a headache. A nurse
notes that the client has a bounding pulse, jugular distension, and weight gain
greater than desired. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing which
complication of PN therapy?
o A. Air embolism.
o B. Hypervolemia.
o C. Hyperglycemia.
o D. Sepsis.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Hypervolemia.
The client‘s signs and symptoms are consistent with hypervolemia. This happens
when the client receives excessive fluid administration or administration of fluid
too rapidly. Increased central venous pressure is noticed first as distention of the
jugular veins. Maintaining the head of bed elevated will promote ease in
breathing. This position also allows pooling of fluid in the bases and for gas
exchange to be more available to the lung tissue.
Option A: An air embolism may occur if IV tubing disconnects and is open
to air, or if part of the catheter system is open or removed without being
clamped. Symptoms include sudden respiratory distress, decreased oxygen
1. Question 50 of 75
50. Question
A nurse is preparing to change the parenteral nutrition (PN) solution bag and
tubing. The client‘s central venous line is located in the right subclavian vein. The
nurse asks the client to take which essential action during the tube change?
o C. Breathe normally.
1. Question 51 of 75
51. Question
A nurse observes the client receiving fat emulsions is having hives. A nurse
reviews the client‘s history and notes which of the following may be caused by
the complaint of the client?
o A. Allergy to an egg.
o B. Allergy to peanuts.
o C. Allergy to shellfish.
o D. Allergy to corn.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Allergy to an egg.
Fat emulsions (lipids) contain egg yolk phospholipids and should not be given to
clients with egg allergies. Intravenous fat emulsions (IFEs) are a vital component
of total parenteral nutrition, because they provide essential fatty acids. IFE is a
1. Question 52 of 75
52. Question
A client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) complains of shortness of breath and
shoulder pain. A nurse notes that the client has an increased pulse rate. The nurse
determines that the client is experiencing which complication of PN therapy?
o A. Air embolism.
o B. Hypervolemia.
o C. Hyperglycemia.
o D. Pneumothorax.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Pneumothorax.
Pneumothorax might happen during parenteral therapy due to inexact catheter
placement. In order to prevent this, the nurse obtains a chest x-ray after insertion
of the catheter to ensure proper catheter placement. A pneumothorax occurs
when the tip of the catheter enters the pleural space during insertion, causing the
lung to collapse. Symptoms include sudden chest pain, difficulty breathing,
1. Question 53 of 75
53. Question
A nurse is caring for a combative client who is ordered to have a nutritional
therapy using parenteral nutrition (PN). The nurse should plan which of the
following measures to prevent the client from injury?
1. Question 54 of 75
54. Question
Nurse Spencer is caring for an anorexic client who is having a total parenteral
nutrition solution for the first time. Which of the following assessments requires
the most immediate attention?
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1. 56. Question
Nurse Aaron is inserting a nasogastric tube to a stroke client. He understands
that the best position for the insertion is?
o A. Low Fowler‘s.
o B. Sims position.
o C. Trendelenburg.
1. Question 57 of 75
57. Question
Nurse Monica is handling a female client who had undergone a mastectomy.
Which is the best position in which she should place the client?
o A. Head of bed elevated at least 30° with the affected arm elevated on a
pillow.
o D. Head of bed elevated at least 30° with the unaffected arm elevated on a
pillow.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Head of bed elevated at least 30°.
Position a post-mastectomy client with the head of the bed elevated at least 30
degrees, with the affected arm elevated on a pillow to promote lymphatic fluid
return after the removal of axillary lymph nodes. The patient is draped with the
arm free to allow for movements during the procedure. It is important not to
hyperextend the arm when positioning the patient; hyperextension may cause
significant postoperative neurapraxia.
Option B: Patient positioning is in a supine position in the operating room,
and the breast, chest wall, axilla, and upper arm are exposed, after
induction of anesthesia. Many surgeons may include the contralateral
breast in the prepped operative field. There has been a growing trend
toward breast conservation, and numerous studies have looked at the
efficacy of breast-conserving surgery when compared to standard
mastectomy techniques.
Option C: The patient is kept in a supine position with a thin sandbag
under the ipsilateral scapula to facilitate axillary dissection. The ipsilateral
arm is draped separately and kept free for adduction during axillary
dissection.
Option D: The patient is placed supine with the ipsilateral arm stretched
out level with the shoulder. The head end of the operating table is raised to
30º. The side being operated on is raised by 30º. Lymphedema is less
commonly present since the advent of modified mastectomy techniques.
Axillary lymph node dissection is the most significant risk factor for the
development of lymphedema, with a reported incidence of greater than
20%.
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1. Question 58 of 75
58. Question
o A. Trendelenburg.
o C. Supine position.
o D. Prone position.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Head of bed elevated.
For clients with burns on the face and head, the best position is to elevate the
head of the bed to reduce the occurence of facial edema. Elevation will
encourage drainage of fluid and allow it to be reabsorbed by the body. The
swollen part should be higher than the rest of the limb so that gravity can assist.
Option A: Placing the patient in Trendelenburg position would aggravate
the facial edema. Physiochemical changes in the extracellular spaces cause
protein denaturation, increasing the oncotic pressures, increasing local
edema. It is also important to be aware of the requirement for fluid
resuscitation, which increases the hydrostatic gradient, ultimately pushing
more fluid into the extracellular space, compounding the tissue edema
from the initial insult.
Option C: If the client has facial swelling it is extremely important to
maintain an upright position. The client should avoid lying flat as this
encourages fluid collection in the face and head which can lead to difficulty
opening the eyes and may also affect breathing.
Option D: If the patient is placed in a prone position, fluid would
accumulate in the face. Burns cause a local cytokine-mediated
inflammatory response, creating hyperpermeability of the
microvasculature, leading to tissue swelling. For the patient who sustains
any facial burns or inhalation injuries, local swelling can occur rapidly and
immediately.
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1. Question 59 of 75
59. Question
1. Question 60 of 75
60. Question
Nurse Ian is handling a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease. Which of the
following positions will best help the client in this case?
o B. Supine position.
o D. Sims position.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Reverse Trendelenburg position.
Reverse Trendelenburg position is advised to a client to promote gastric
emptying and prevent gastroesophageal reflux. Studies that monitored
esophageal acid exposure after elevation of the head of the bed showed a
decrease in reflux activity in adults. Placing blocks under the head of the bed or
placing a foam wedge under the patient‘s mattress can accomplish this.
Option A: In the right lateral recumbent position, the individual is lying on
their right side. This position makes it easier to access a patient‘s left side.
The word ―lateral‖ means ―to the side,‖ while ―recumbent‖ means ―lying
down.‖
Option B: Avoid placing the patient in supine position, have the patient sit
upright after meals. Supine position after meals can increase regurgitation
of acid. Elevate HOB while in bed to prevent aspiration by preventing the
gastric acid to flow back into the esophagus.
Option D: The Sims position is a standard position in which the patient lies
on their left side, with right hip and knees bent. The lower arm is behind
the back, the thighs flexed. The left knee is slightly tilted. The right arm is
positioned comfortably in front of the body, the right arm is rested behind
the body. This is also known as ―lateral‖ position. This position is often used
for rectal or vaginal examination, and treatments.
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1. Question 61 of 75
61. Question
A client with pleural effusion is scheduled to have a thoracentesis. The nurse on
duty will assist the client to which position during the procedure?
o A. Lying in bed on the unaffected side with the head of the bed elevated
about 45°.
o C. Lying in bed on the affected side with the head of the bed elevated about
45°.
1. Question 62 of 75
62. Question
Nurse Maria is administering a cleansing enema to a client with severe
constipation. She will place the client in which position?
1. Question 63 of 75
63. Question
What type of client would benefit the most from an elevated head of the bed
position?
1. Question 64 of 75
64. Question
Nurse Justin is taking care of a client with deep vein thrombosis. Which position
should be provided to the client?
o A. Bed rest with the affected extremity remains flat at all times.
1. Question 65 of 75
65. Question
Nurse Sandra had just received a postoperative total hip replacement client from
the recovery unit. Which is the best position in which she should place the client?
1. Question 66 of 75
66. Question
A client has just returned to a nursing unit after a cardiac catheterization
performed using the femoral artery. The nurse places the client in which position?
1. Question 67 of 75
67. Question
A nurse is preparing to care for a client who had undergone an above-knee
amputation of the right leg. The nurse plans to allow which position for the client
in the first 24 hours?
1. Question 68 of 75
68. Question
A client is to be on bed rest for 24 hours and the affected extremity is to be kept
straight during this time. Which of the following procedures would require a
client to do the above?
o B. Myelogram.
1. Question 69 of 75
69. Question
Which is the best position for a client with autonomic dysreflexia?
o A. Sim's Position.
o B. Fowler's Position.
o C. Semi-Fowler's Position.
1. Question 70 of 75
70. Question
A nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the recovery unit following a
craniotomy. The nurse can safely place the client in which position?
o A. Trendelenburg position.
1. Question 71 of 75
71. Question
A nurse is caring for a Native American client who experiences emotional distress
due to a family problem. In anticipating pharmacological treatment for the client,
the nurse understands that they would most likely:
1. Question 72 of 75
72. Question
A nurse is conducting an assessment of an American Indian woman who has
come to the clinic complaining of a headache. The patient tells the nurse that the
medicines prescribed by the tribal healer have done some good. What is the
appropriate response of the nurse at this time?
o A. Tell me about these medicines and how often you are using them.
o B. I advise you to refrain from taking those medicines from the tribal healer.
1. Question 73 of 75
73. Question
A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client who is a Jehovah‘s Witness. The
client has been told that surgery is necessary. The nurse considers the client‘s
religious preferences in developing the plan of care and documents that:
1. Question 74 of 75
74. Question
A Chinese-American client experiencing cough with clear white phlegm, which is
believed to be a yin disorder, is likely to treat it with:
o C. Aromatherapy.
o D. Touch therapy.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Foods considered to be yang.
In the yin and yang theory, health is believed to exist when all aspects of the
person are in perfect balance. Yin foods are cold and yang foods are hot. One
eats cold foods when hot has a hot illness and one eats hot foods when one has
a cold illness.
Option A: Foods considered yin include dark leafy greens like spinach,
lotus root, radish, dandelion greens, cucumbers, bamboo shoots, seaweed,
watermelon, green tea, chamomile tea, mint tea, clams, crab, and tofu.
1. Question 75 of 75
75. Question
Which of the following food items would be appropriate for a Jewish client who
follows a kosher diet?
1. 1. Question
The best explanation of what Title VI of the Civil Rights Act mandates is the
freedom to:
o C. Have equal access to all health care regardless of race and religion.
o D. Have basic care with a sliding scale payment plan from all healthcare
facilities.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Have equal access to all health care regardless of race
and religion.
Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 states that ―No person in the United States
shall, on the ground of race, color, or national origin, be excluded from
participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination
under any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance.‖
Option A: The Affordable Care Act puts consumers back in charge of their
health care. Under the law, a new ―Patient‘s Bill of Rights‖ gives the
American people the stability and flexibility they need to make informed
choices about their health. Through this bill, the client may choose the
primary care physician he wants from his plan‘s network.
Option B: Since the Patient‘s Bill of Rights was enacted, the Affordable
Care Act has provided additional rights and protections. The health care
1. Question 2 of 75
2. Question
Which statement would best explain the role of the nurse when planning care for
a culturally diverse population? The nurse will plan care to:
o A. Include care that is culturally congruent with the staff from predetermined
criteria.
o B. Focus only on the needs of the client, ignoring the nurse‘s beliefs and
practices.
o C. Blend the values of the nurse that are for the good of the client and
minimize the client‘s individual values and beliefs during care.
o D. Provide care while aware of one’s own bias, focusing on the client’s
individual needs rather than the staff’s practices.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Provide care while aware of one’s own bias, focusing on
the client’s individual needs rather than the staff’s practices
Without understanding one‘s own beliefs and values, a bias or preconceived
belief by the nurse could create an unexpected conflict or an area of neglect in
the plan of care for a client (who might be expecting something totally different
from the care). During assessment values, beliefs, practices should be identified
by the nurse and used as a guide to identify the choices by the nurse to meet
specific needs/outcomes of that client. Therefore identification of values, beliefs,
and practices allows for planning meaningful and beneficial care specific for this
client.
Option A: As nurses strive to learn more about becoming culturally
sensitive nurses, they should also let others know what they are doing and
1. Question 3 of 75
3. Question
Which factor is least significant during assessment when gathering information
about cultural practices?
o A. Language, timing
o C. Biocultural needs
1. Question 4 of 75
4. Question
Transcultural nursing implies:
1. Question 5 of 75
5. Question
What should the nurse do when planning nursing care for a client with a different
cultural background? The nurse should:
o A. Allow the family to provide care during the hospital stay so no rituals or
customs are broken.
o C. Speak slowly and show pictures to make sure the client always
understands.
1. Question 6 of 75
6. Question
Which activity would not be expected by the nurse to meet the cultural needs of
the client?
o B. Ensure that the interpreter understands not only the language of the client
but feelings and attitudes behind cultural practices to make sure an ethical
balance can be achieved.
1. Question 7 of 75
7. Question
Ethical principles for professional nursing practice in a clinical setting are guided
by the principles of conduct that are written as the:
1. Question 8 of 75
8. Question
A bioethical issue should be described as:
o D. After the client gives permission, the physician‘s disclosing all information
to the family for their support in the management of the client.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. A research project that included treating all the white
men and not treating all the black men to compare the outcomes of specific
drug therapy.
The ethical issue was the inequality of treatment based strictly upon racial
differences. Secondly, the drug was deliberately withheld even after results
showed that the drug was working to cure the disease process in white men for
many years. So after many years, the black men were still not treated despite the
outcome of the research process that showed the drug to be effective in
controlling the disease early at the beginning of the research project. Therefore
harm was done. Nonmaleficence, veracity, and justice were not followed.
Option A: Patients have a right to make their own decisions about their
healthcare, guided by the advice of health professionals. This guidance
means making sure one fully understands his medical treatment options so
one can weigh up options along with the benefits and risks before making
a decision. This is called shared decision-making. It ensures that the patient
and the doctor are making treatment and healthcare decisions together.
Option C: Advance care planning can help the people close to the patient
and those caring for him know what is important to him about the level of
healthcare and quality of life he would want if, for some reason, the patient
is unable to participate in the discussions.
Option D: Information about medical conditions and treatments is more
available than ever before, thanks largely to health websites on the
internet. But despite this easy access to health information, it is hard to
know what is relevant and appropriate for each patient. Everyone is
different and only health professionals can provide the right health
information that relates to an individual medical condition.
1. Question 9 of 75
9. Question
When the nurse described the client as ―that nasty old man in room 201,‖ the
nurse is exhibiting which ethical dilemma?
o B. HIPAA violation
o C. Beneficence
1. Question 10 of 75
10. Question
The distribution of nurses to areas of ―most need‖ in the time of a nursing
shortage is an example of:
o A. Utilitarianism theory
o B. Deontological theory
o C. Justice
o D. Beneficence
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Justice
Justice is defined as the fairness of the distribution of resources. However,
guidelines for a hierarchy of needs have been established, such as with organ
transplantation. Nurses are moved to areas of greatest need when shortages
occur on the floors. No floor is left without staff, and another floor that had five
staff will give up two to go help the floor that had no staff.
Option A: Utilitarianism is a theory of morality, which advocates actions
that foster happiness or pleasure and opposes actions that cause
unhappiness or harm. When directed toward making social, economic, or
political decisions, a utilitarian philosophy would aim for the betterment of
society as a whole.
Option B: In contemporary moral philosophy, deontology is one of those
kinds of normative theories regarding which choices are morally required,
forbidden, or permitted. In other words, deontology falls within the domain
of moral theories that guide and assess our choices of what we ought to
do (deontic theories), in contrast to those that guide and assess what kind
of person we are and should be (aretaic [virtue] theories).
Option D: Beneficence is defined as an act of charity, mercy, and kindness
with a strong connotation of doing good to others including moral
obligation. All professionals have the foundational moral imperative of
doing right.
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o B. Regulatory law includes prevention of harm for the public and punishment
for those laws that are broken.
o C. Common law protects the rights of the individual within society for fair and
equal treatment.
o D. Criminal law creates boards that pass rules and regulations to control
society.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Statutory law is created by an elected legislature, such as
the state legislature that defines the Nurse Practice Act (NPA).
Statutory law is created by the legislature. It creates statutes such as the NPA,
which defines the role of the nurse and expectations of the performance of one‘s
duties and explains what is contraindicated as guidelines for breach of those
regulations.
Option B: Federal and state regulations influence everything from the air
we breathe to the fine print on credit card agreements. Regulatory law
involves creating and/or managing the rules and regulations created by
federal and state agencies.
Option C: Common law is a body of unwritten laws based on legal
precedents established by the courts. Common law influences the decision-
making process in unusual cases where the outcome cannot be determined
based on existing statutes or written rules of law.
Option D: Criminal law, as distinguished from civil law, is a system of laws
concerned with the punishment of individuals who commit crimes. Thus,
wherein a civil case of two individuals dispute their rights, a criminal
prosecution involves the government deciding whether to punish an
individual for either an act or an omission.
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1. Question 13 of 75
13. Question
When a client is confused, left alone with the side rails down, and the bed in a
high position, the client falls and breaks a hip. What law has been broken?
o A. Assault
o B. Battery
o C. Negligence
o D. Civil tort
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Negligence
Knowing what to do to prevent injury is a part of the standards of care for nurses
to follow. Safety guidelines dictate raising the side rails, staying with the client,
lowering the bed, and observing the client until the environment is safe. As a
nurse, these activities are known as basic safety measures that prevent injuries,
and to not perform them is not acting in a safe manner. Negligence is conduct
that falls below the standard of care that protects others against unreasonable
risk of harm.
Option A: Assault is the intentional act of making someone fear that the
nurse will cause them harm. One does not have to actually harm them to
commit assault. Threatening them verbally or pretending to hit them are
both examples of assault.
Option B: Battery is the intentional act of causing physical harm to
someone. Unlike assault, one doesn‘t have to warn the victim or make him
fearful before they hurt them for it to count as a battery. If a nursing home
1. Question 14 of 75
14. Question
When signing a form as a witness, your signature shows that the client:
o B. Was awake and fully alert and not medicated with narcotics.
o D. Has signed that form and the witness saw it being done.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Has signed that form and the witness saw it being done
Your signature as a witness only states that the person signing the form was the
person who was listed in the procedure. A witness‘s signature can be useful for
evidentiary purposes. If a party to the agreement later says they did not sign, the
person who witnessed the party signing can be called to confirm it. The witness
can confirm that the specific person signed and that was the sign they made.
Option A: In a legal contract, a witness is someone who watches the
document is signed by the person they are being a witness for and who
verifies its authenticity by singing their own name on the document as well.
Option B: Having a witness helps to reinforce the validity and authenticity
of a document by adding another layer of security should the contract ever
be questioned in court.
Option C: Though witnesses aren‘t always a requirement for executing a
legal document, they can help solidify and authenticate a contract by
providing proof that the signatures are legitimate and consensual.
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o A. An appointed guardianship
o B. Unemancipated minor
o D. ―Nurses who get sick and leave during a shift are not abandoning clients if
they call their supervisor and leave a message about their emergency illness.‖
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. “Consent for medical treatment can be given by a minor
with a sexually transmitted disease (STD).”
Anyone, at any age, can be treated without parental permission for an STD
infection. The client is ―advised‖ to contact sexual partners but is not ―required‖ to
give names. Permission from parents is not needed, based upon current privacy
laws. According to the CDC, as of 2020, all jurisdictions have laws that explicitly
allow a minor of a particular age (as defined by each state) to give informed
consent to receive STD diagnosis and treatment services. In some jurisdictions, a
minor might be legally allowed to give informed consent to receive specific STD
or HIV services, including PrEP, even if the law is silent on those disease-related
services.
Option B: Abortion is legal throughout the United States and its territories,
although restrictions and accessibility vary from state to state. Abortion is a
controversial and divisive issue in the society, culture, and politics of the
U.S., and various anti-abortion laws have been in force in each state since
at least 1900.
Option C: One very important point is that student nurses are personally
responsible for their own negligent acts. Student nurses are responsible for
providing care to their patients, and students are held to the same
standards as a licensed professional nurses when performing the duties of
a nurse (Pozgar, 2016).
1. Question 17 of 75
17. Question
Most litigation in the hospital comes from the:
1. Question 18 of 75
18. Question
The nurse places an aquathermia pad on a client with a muscle sprain. The nurse
informs the client the pad should be removed in 30 minutes. Why will the nurse
return in 30 minutes to remove the pad?
1. Question 19 of 75
19. Question
A client has recently been told he has terminal cancer. As the nurse enters the
room, he yells, ―My eggs are cold, and I‘m tired of having my sleep interrupted by
noisy nurses!‖ The nurse may interpret the client‘s behavior as:
1. Question 20 of 75
20. Question
When helping a person through grief work, the nurse knows:
o A. Coping mechanisms that were effective in the past are often disregarded
in response to the pain of a loss.
1. Question 21 of 75
21. Question
A client is hospitalized in the end stage of terminal cancer. His family members
are sitting at his bedside. What can the nurse do to best aid the family at this
time?
o A. Limit the time visitors may stay so they do not become overwhelmed by
the situation.
o B. Avoid telling family members about the client‘s actual condition so they
will not lose hope.
o C. Discourage spiritual practices because this will have little connection to the
client at this time.
o D. Find simple and appropriate care activities for the family to perform.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Find simple and appropriate care activities for the family
to perform.
1. Question 22 of 75
22. Question
When caring for a terminally ill client, it is important for the nurse to maintain the
client‘s dignity. This can be facilitated by:
1. Question 23 of 75
23. Question
What are the stages of dying according to Elizabeth Kubler-Ross?
o B. Accepting the reality of loss, working through the pain of grief, adjusting
to the environment without the deceased, and emotionally relocating the
deceased and moving on with life.
1. Question 24 of 75
1. Question 25 of 75
25. Question
A client who had a ―Do Not Resuscitate‖ order passed away. After verifying there
is no pulse or respirations, the nurse should next:
1. Question 26 of 75
26. Question
A client‘s family member says to the nurse, ―The doctor said he will provide
palliative care. What does that mean?‖ The nurse‘s best response is:
o A. ―Palliative care is given to those who have less than 6 months to live.‖
o D. ―Palliative care means the client and family take a more passive role and
the doctor focuses on the physiological needs of the client. The location of death
will most likely occur in the hospital setting.‖
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. “Palliative care aims to relieve or reduce the symptoms
of a disease.”
The goal of palliative care is the prevention, relief, reduction, or soothing of
symptoms of disease or disorders without effecting a cure. Palliative care
improves the quality of life of patients and that of their families who are facing
challenges associated with life-threatening illness, whether physical,
psychological, social, or spiritual. The quality of life of caregivers improves as well.
Option A: Palliative care is required for a wide range of diseases. The
majority of adults in need of palliative care have chronic diseases such as
cardiovascular diseases (38.5%), cancer (34%), chronic respiratory diseases
(10.3%), AIDS (5.7%), and diabetes (4.6%). Many other conditions may
require palliative care, including kidney failure, chronic liver disease,
multiple sclerosis, Parkinson‘s disease, rheumatoid arthritis, neurological
disease, dementia, congenital anomalies, and drug-resistant tuberculosis.
1. Question 27 of 75
27. Question
Which of the following is not included in evaluating the degree of heritage
consistency in a client?
o A. Gender
o B. Culture
o C. Ethnicity
o D. Religion
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Gender
The term heritage consistency is used to describe how much or how little a
person‘s lifestyle reflects his or her traditional culture. If one is very ―consistent‖
with their heritage, then one maintains more of the core values, beliefs, attitudes,
and behaviors of one‘s cultural heritage.
Option B: Acculturation is necessary to survival so it is involuntary. The
degree to which one becomes acculturated and the speed of the process is
affected by an individual‘s circumstances and choices. Children, who can
easily avail themselves of socialization via public schools, tend to
acculturate quickly in the U.S. They have an easier time learning a new
language.
1. Question 28 of 75
28. Question
When providing care to clients with varied cultural backgrounds, it is imperative
for the nurse to recognize that:
o D. Similar reactions to stress will occur when individuals have the same
cultural background.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Generalizations about the behavior of a particular group
may be inaccurate.
Nurses can pay close attention to their own biases and how they react to people
whose backgrounds and cultural experiences differ from their own. For example,
a person who becomes conscious that they think of immigrants as illegal aliens
achieves cultural awareness of that particular bias.
1. Question 29 of 75
29. Question
To respect a client‘s personal space and territoriality, the nurse:
1. Question 30 of 75
30. Question
To be effective in meeting various ethnic needs, the nurse should:
1. Question 31 of 75
31. Question
The most important factor in providing nursing care to clients in a specific ethnic
group is:
o A. Communication
o B. Time orientation
o C. Biological variation
o D. Environmental control
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Communication
The ability to communicate effectively with patients and families is paramount for
good patient care. This practice point reviews the importance of communicating
1. Question 32 of 75
32. Question
A health care issue often becomes an ethical dilemma because:
1. Question 33 of 75
33. Question
A document that lists the medical treatment a person chooses to refuse if unable
to make decisions is the:
o B. Informed consent
o C. Living will
o D. Advance directives
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Advance directives
1. Question 34 of 75
34. Question
Which statement about an institutional ethics committee is correct?
o B. The ethics committee relieves health care professionals from dealing with
ethical issues.
1. Question 35 of 75
35. Question
The nurse is working with the parents of a seriously ill newborn. Surgery has been
proposed for the infant, but the chances of success are unclear. In helping the
parents resolve this ethical conflict, the nurse knows that the first step is:
1. Question 36 of 75
o A. Affirming a value
o B. Choosing a value
o C. Prizing a value
o D. Reflecting a value
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Prizing a value.
The alternative goal of value awareness is enabling patients to achieve their
desired balance between rational and nonrational decision-making, allowing
them to be as rational as they can and want to be. That means doing everything
possible to make the critical issues clear, thereby expanding the envelope of
potentially rational decision-making.
Option A: Nurses engaged with mortality through a process of recognition
and through the affirmation of their values. The affirmed values are aligned
with the palliative care approach and within the ethics of finitude lens in
that their enactment is partly premised on the recognition of patients‘
accumulated losses related to human facticities (social, temporal, mortal).
Option B: Advance directives treat patients (and their surrogates) as
rational actors, who will choose the option with the highest expected utility
if provided needed information. The rational actor model assumes well-
formulated decisions, with each option (e.g., treatment) represented as a
vector of expected outcomes (e.g., pain, anxiety, life expectancy) that a
decision-maker can weigh by relative importance.
Option D: Reflection brings learning to life. Reflective practice helps
learners find relevancy and meaning in a lesson and make connections
between educational experiences and real-life situations. It increases
insight and creates pathways to future learning. Reflection is called by
1. Question 37 of 75
37. Question
The scope of nursing practice is legally defined by:
1. Question 38 of 75
38. Question
A student nurse who is employed as a nursing assistant may perform any
functions that:
1. Question 39 of 75
39. Question
A confused client who fell out of bed because side rails were not used is an
example of which type of liability?
o A. Felony
o B. Assault
o C. Battery
o D. Negligence
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Negligence
Negligence is defined as doing something or failing to do something that a
prudent, careful, and reasonable nurse would do or not do in the same situation.
It is the failure to meet accepted standards of nursing competence and nursing
scope of practice.
Option A: Some examples of felonies include murder, rape, burglary,
kidnapping, and arson. People who have been convicted of a felony are
called felons. Repeat felons are punished extra harshly because sentencing
laws take into consideration their criminal history. A more serious crime
than a misdemeanor with a punishment greater than that for
1. Question 40 of 75
40. Question
The nurse puts a restraint jacket on a client without the client‘s permission and
without the physician‘s order. The nurse may be guilty of:
o A. Assault
o B. Battery
o C. Invasion of privacy
o D. Neglect
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Battery
A battery comprises a direct and intentional [or reckless] act of the defendant
which causes some physical contact with the person of the plaintiff without the
plaintiff‘s consent. Touching a person that does not invite touching or blatantly
says to stop is a battery. For example, going by a coworker‘s desk and continually
pinching, slapping, or punching them, when the force is strong enough to hurt
them and your intent is to hurt them, would constitute battery.
Option A: Assault is the intentional act of making someone fear that you
will cause them harm. You do not have to actually harm them to commit
assault. Threatening them verbally or pretending to hit them are both
examples of assault that can occur in a nursing home.
1. Question 41 of 75
41. Question
In a situation in which there is insufficient staff to implement competent care, a
nurse should:
o A. Organize a strike.
1. Question 42 of 75
42. Question
Which statement about loss is accurate?
o B. The more the individual has invested in what is lost, the less the feeling of
loss.
1. Question 43 of 75
43. Question
Trying questionable and experimental forms of therapy is a behavior that is
characterized by which stage of dying?
o A. Anger
o B. Depression
o C. Bargaining
o D. Acceptance
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Bargaining
This is the step in the grieving process where one may think ―If this __, then
this__.‖ For example: ―I will do anything if you take the hurt away‖ or ―I will never
sin again if my loved one will be spared.‖ Bargaining may come in the form of
―what if‖ statements. For example, ―What if we found the cancer sooner?‖ or
―What if this accident never happened?‖ These ―what ifs‖ are a way to negotiate
the fact that an individual wants life to go back to how it once was.
Option A: Anger is a necessary stage of the healing process. Before the
anger stage, an individual who is experiencing grief may feel like they have
1. Question 44 of 75
44. Question
All of the following are crucial needs of the dying client except:
o A. Control of pain
1. Question 45 of 75
45. Question
Cultural awareness is an in-depth self-examination of one‘s:
1. Question 46 of 75
46. Question
Cultural competence is the process of:
1. Question 47 of 75
47. Question
Ethnocentrism is the root of:
o C. Cultural beliefs.
1. Question 48 of 75
48. Question
When action is taken on one‘s prejudices:
o A. Discrimination occurs.
1. Question 49 of 75
49. Question
The dominant value orientation in North American society is:
1. Question 50 of 75
50. Question
Disparities in health outcomes between the rich and the poor illustrates: a (an)
1. Question 51 of 75
51. Question
1. Question 52 of 75
1. Question 53 of 75
53. Question
In the United States, access to health care usually depends on a client‘s ability to
pay for health care, either through insurance or by paying cash. The client the
nurse is caring for needs a liver transplant to survive. This client has been out of
work for several months and does not have insurance or enough cash. A
discussion about the ethics of this situation would involve predominantly the
principle of:
o A. Accountability, because you as the nurse are accountable for the well
being of this client.
o C. Ethics of care, because the caring thing that a nurse could provide this
patient is resources for a liver transplant.
o D. Justice, because the first and greatest question in this situation is how
to determine the just distribution of resources.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Justice, because the first and greatest question in this
situation is how to determine the just distribution of resources
Justice refers to fairness. Health care providers agree to strive for justice in health
care. The term often is used during discussions about resources. Decisions about
who should receive available organs are always difficult. All patients have a right
to be treated fair and equally by others. Justice involves how people are treated
when their interest competes with others. A current hot topic that addresses this
is the lack of healthcare insurance for some. Another example is with patients in
rural settings who may not have access to the same healthcare services that are
offered in metropolitan areas.
Option A: As a nurse, it‘s inherent that accountability for all aspects of care
aligns with responsible decision-making. The use of authority must be
1. Question 54 of 75
54. Question
The Code of Ethics for nurses is composed and published by:
1. Question 55 of 75
55. Question
Nurses agree to be advocates for their patients. The practice of advocacy calls for
the nurse to:
o C. Assess the client’s point of view and prepare to articulate this point of
view.
1. Question 56 of 75
56. Question
Successful ethical discussion depends on people who have a clear sense of
personal values. When many people share the same values it may be possible to
identify a philosophy of utilitarianism, with proposes that:
1. Question 57 of 75
57. Question
o A. Relationships
o B. Ethical principles
o C. Clients
1. Question 58 of 75
o A. Nurses have a legal license that encourages their presence during ethical
discussions.
o B. The principle of autonomy guides all participants to respect their own self-
worth.
o C. Nurses develop a relationship with the client that is unique among all
professional health care providers.
1. Question 59 of 75
59. Question
Ethical dilemmas often arise over a conflict of opinion. Once the nurse has
determined that the dilemma is ethical, a critical first step in negotiating the
difference of opinion would be to:
o C. List the ethical principles that inform the dilemma so that negotiations
agree on the language of the discussion.
o D. Ensure that the attending physician has written an order for an ethics
consultation to support the ethics process.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Gather all relevant information regarding the clinical,
social, and spiritual aspects of the dilemma
Each step in the processing of an ethical dilemma resembles steps in critical
thinking. The nurse begins by gathering information and moves through
assessment, identification of the problem, planning, implementation, and
evaluation.
Option A: To address health inequity factors, nurses are encouraged to be
aware of health disparities that could impair treatment outcomes. They can
then refer patients to social workers, case managers, and other healthcare
team members for additional services. Nurses should be mindful of the
social and economic factors that affect patient and community health.
Option C: Nurses make decisions based on the information available to
them in the current situation. The more relevant information they have, the
more likely their decision will have a positive outcome. When a nurse‘s
decision leads to a negative outcome, the question becomes: What critical
1. Question 60 of 75
60. Question
The Nurse Practice Acts are an example of:
o A. Statutory law
o B. Common law
o C. Civil law
o D. Criminal law
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Statutory law
The NPA is then interpreted into regulations by each state and territorial nursing
board with the authority to regulate the practice of nursing care and the power
to enforce the laws. Fifty states, the District of Columbia and 4 United States (US)
territories, have state boards of nursing (BON) that are responsible for regulating
their individual NPA.
Option B: Common law results from judicial decisions made in courts
when individual legal cases are decided. Examples of common law include
informed consent, the patient‘s right to refuse treatment, negligence, and
malpractice.
Option C: Civil laws protect the rights of individuals within our society and
provide for fair and equitable treatment when civil wrongs or violations
occur (Garner, 2006). The consequences of civil law violations are damages
in the form of fines or specific performance of good works such as public
1. Question 61 of 75
61. Question
The scope of Nursing Practice, the established educational requirements for
nurses, and the distinction between nursing and medical practice is defined by:
o A. Statutory law
o B. Common law
o C. Civil law
1. Question 62 of 75
62. Question
The client‘s right to refuse treatment is an example of:
o A. Statutory law
o B. Common law
o C. Civil laws
1. Question 63 of 75
63. Question
Even though the nurse may obtain the client‘s signature on a form, obtaining
informed consent is the responsibility of the:
o A. Client
o B. Physician
o C. Student nurse
o D. Supervising nurse
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Physician
It is the obligation of the provider to make it clear that the patient is participating
in the decision-making process and avoid making the patient feel forced to agree
to the provider. The provider must make a recommendation and provide their
reasoning for said recommendation.
Option A: Informed consent is the process in which a health care provider
educates a patient about the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a given
procedure or intervention. The patient must be competent to make a
voluntary decision about whether to undergo the procedure or
intervention.
Option C: Members of the healthcare team, such as nurses and patient
care assistants, should also be educated about all potential adverse
reactions so that they are able to identify them and notify a provider so
that any immediate intervention that is needed can be performed in a
timely manner.
Option D: Members of the healthcare team involved with the care of a
patient should also be informed about procedures and interventions as
1. Question 64 of 75
64. Question
The nurse is obligated to follow a physician‘s order unless:
1. Question 65 of 75
65. Question
The nursing theorist who developed transcultural nursing theory is
o A. Dorothea Orem
o B. Madeleine Leininger
o C. Betty Newman
1. Question 66 of 75
66. Question
An American nurse tries to speak with a Korean client who cannot understand the
English language. To effectively communicate to a client with a different
language, which of the following should the nurse implement?
o B. Speak slowly.
1. Question 67 of 75
67. Question
Which of the following clients has the lowest risk of diabetes mellitus and stroke?
1. Question 68 of 75
68. Question
The nurse is providing instructions to a Chinese-American client about the
frequency and dosages of the take-home medicines. When conducting the
teaching, the client continuously turns away from the nurse. The nurse should do
which of the following appropriate actions?
o A. Walk around the client so that the nurse can constantly face the client.
o D. Hand over a written instruction and discuss only what the client doesn't
understand.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Continue with the instructions, verifying client
understanding.
Most Chinese maintain a formal personal space with others, which is a form of
respect. Most Chinese are uncomfortable with face-to-face communications,
especially when eye contact is direct. If the client turns away from the nurse
during a conversation, the most appropriate action is to continue with the
1. Question 69 of 75
69. Question
The ambulatory care nurse is discussing preoperative procedures with a Japanese
American client who is scheduled for surgery the following week. During the
discussion, the client continually smiles and nods his head. How should the nurse
interpret this nonverbal behavior?
1. Question 70 of 75
70. Question
The nurse identifies low-risk therapies to a client and should include which
therapy(s) in the discussion, except?
o A. Acupuncture
o B. Relaxation
o C. Touch
o D. Prayer
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Acupuncture
1. Question 71 of 75
71. Question
A clinic nurse is preparing to examine a Hispanic child who was brought by the
mother for his first physical check-up. While assessing the child, the nurse would
avoid doing which of the following?
1. Question 72 of 75
72. Question
A nurse is preparing to deliver a food tray to a Jewish client. The nurse checks the
food on the tray and notes that the client has received a hamburger and whole
milk as a beverage. Which is the appropriate action for the nurse?
o C. Call the dietary department and ask for a new meal tray.
1. Question 73 of 75
73. Question
A clinic nurse is performing an admission assessment for an African-American
client scheduled for an emergency appendectomy. Which of the following
questions would be inappropriate for the nurse to ask for the initial evaluation?
1. Question 74 of 75
74. Question
A nurse is caring for a Chinese client who is hospitalized due to pneumonia.
Based on their culture, which of the following is believed to be the cause of the
illness?
1. Question 75 of 75
75. Question
A nurse is caring for a client who has symptoms of chills, fever, no sweating,
headache, nasal congestion, and stiffness and pain in the shoulders, upper back,
neck, and back of the head that are common in Chinese culture and are called as
syndromes of Wind. This is an example of which of the following?
o A. Culture shock
o C. Cultural awareness
o D. Culture biased
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Culture-bound syndrome
Culture-bound syndrome is a combination of psychiatric and somatic symptoms
that are common in one culture group or not another. A culture-bound syndrome
is a collection of signs and symptoms that is restricted to a limited number of
cultures by reason of certain psychosocial features. Culture-bound syndromes are
usually restricted to a specific setting, and they have a special relationship to that
setting.
Option A: Culture shock is a sense of anxiety, depression, or confusion that
results from being cut off from a familiar culture, environment, and norms
when living in a foreign country or society. Those experiencing culture
shock go through distinct phases of euphoria, discomfort, adjustment, and
acceptance.
Option C: Cultural awareness is sensitivity to the similarities and
differences that exist between two different cultures and the use of this
sensitivity in effective communication with members of another cultural
group.
Option D: Cultural bias is the interpretation of situations, actions, or data
based on the standards of one‘s own culture. Cultural biases are grounded
in the assumptions one might have due to the culture in which they are
raised.
By Abdullah Danish
Fb Page: Educational Platform
Gmail: abdullahdani4200@gmail.com