Psychology A Concise Introduction 5th

Edition Griggs Test Bank

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1. Processing information to solve problems and make judgments and decisions is called:
A) problem solving.
B) thinking.
C) reasoning.
D) intelligence.

2. Which problem is the MOST well defined?

A) writing a poem
B) painting a watercolor picture
C) creating a garden
D) solving a mathematics problem

3. Which problem is NOT ill defined?

A) determining how to arrange the furniture in your bedroom
B) determining the number of square feet in your bedroom before purchasing carpet
C) determining how to convince your spouse that you need new carpet for your
bedroom
D) determining who might be a good contractor to hire to install carpet

4. What is the difference between a well-defined and an ill-defined problem?

A) In a well-defined problem, the process to achieve the goal is not immediately
apparent.
B) In an ill-defined problem, the start state, goal state, or process to achieve the goal
are unclear.
C) In an ill-defined problem, the goal state cannot be determined.
D) Only well-defined problems have a start state and a goal state.

5. A well-defined problem has clear specifications of the:

A) start state (where you are).
B) goal state (where you want to be).
C) processes for reaching the goal state (how to get there).
D) start state, the goal state, and the processes for reaching the goal state.

6. Board games are examples of _____ problems, and deciding on a major in college is an
example of a(n) _____ problem.
A) well-defined; ill-defined
B) well-defined; well-defined
C) ill-defined; well-defined
D) ill-defined; ill-defined

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 7. An ill-defined problem is missing a clear specification of the:
A) start state.
B) goal state.
C) processes for reaching the goal state.
D) start state, the goal state, or the processes for reaching the goal state.

8. A board game, such as Monopoly, is an example of a(n) _____ problem, and

determining the number of square feet in a room before purchasing carpet is an example
of a(n) _____ problem.
A) well-defined; ill-defined
B) well-defined; well-defined
C) ill-defined; well-defined
D) ill-defined; ill-defined

9. The tendency for most people to try to solve the four-straight-lines version of the
nine-circle problem by keeping their lines within the "mental square" illustrates:
A) functional fixedness.
B) fixation.
C) an ill-defined problem.
D) an algorithm.

10. Despite many unsuccessful attempts, Steve repeatedly tries to change the settings on his
cell phone by using the same menu selections, rather than trying a different set of
options from the menu. Steve is displaying a form of:
A) means–end analysis.
B) anchoring.
C) functional fixedness.
D) fixation.

11. Mental set is to _____ the problem as fixation is to _____ the problem.
A) interpreting; interpreting
B) solving; solving
C) interpreting; solving
D) solving; interpreting

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12. Trevor did not think to use the plastic bag he was carrying as a raincoat when he was
caught in a downpour, BEST illustrating:
A) functional fixedness.
B) the availability heuristic.
C) fixation.
D) mental set.

13. Unable to find a needle and thread, Kim doesn't consider using a stapler to temporarily
fix the hem of her skirt. Her failure to consider the stapler BEST illustrates:
A) functional fixedness.
B) a fixation.
C) confirmation bias.
D) mental set.

14. Functional fixedness occurs during the _____ stage of problem solving.
A) definition
B) processing
C) goal-setting
D) solution

15. When Melinda dropped her watch behind a bookcase that was too heavy for her to
move, she failed to realize that she could use a coat hanger to reach behind the bookcase
and get the watch. Melinda's failure to consider using a coat hanger BEST illustrates:
A) mental set.
B) anchoring and adjustment.
C) functional fixedness.
D) belief perseverance.

16. After solving a series of mathematical problems using a complicated formula, Mark
uses the same formula to solve another problem he could have solved using a much
simpler formula. Mark's continued reliance on the complicated formula BEST
illustrates:
A) confirmation bias.
B) use of the availability heuristic.
C) mental set.
D) use of means–end analysis.

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17. Mental set is:
A) the inability to create a new interpretation of a problem.
B) the inability to see that an object can have a function other than its typical one.
C) the tendency to use previously successful solution strategies without considering
others that may be more appropriate for a current problem.
D) a step-by-step procedural set that guarantees a correct solution.

18. As per the text, why is the OTTFFSS series problem difficult?
A) The goal is unclear.
B) The start state is unclear.
C) People do not use the correct strategy.
D) People immediately try a new strategy.

19. For days, Dianne had been trying to think of a way to approach her parents about her
desire to transfer to a new college. While watching a TV commercial about vacation
areas, Dianne suddenly looked at her problem from a new perspective and thought of a
solution. Dianne's behavior BEST illustrates:
A) a release from interference.
B) use of the availability heuristic.
C) a shift to conjunctive thinking.
D) the occurrence of insight.

20. Casey is trying to find a creative solution to a problem she is having with her roommate.
Because research suggests that frontal cortex activity may _____ insight, when she
"thinks outside the box," Casey would likely be _____ successful at solving the problem
than would a patient with frontal lobe damage.
A) inhibit; more
B) inhibit; less
C) encourage; more
D) encourage; less

21. One block to problem solving can be mindless behavior, which is:
A) when we rely on an educated guess.
B) rigid, habitual behavior that ignores problem details.
C) working backward to solve a problem.
D) when we rely on the anchoring and adjustment heuristic.

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22. Cory had been working on a calculus problem for several hours when the best strategy
for solving the problem suddenly came to him. It was as if the correct solution path
made sense all at once. This BEST illustrates what psychologists call:
A) means–end analysis.
B) working backward to solve a problem.
C) insight.
D) mental set.

23. Although Terry knew he was supposed to stop at the grocery store on the way home
from the gym, he drove right past the store and did not realize he'd forgotten until
pulling into his garage. This BEST illustrates what is known as:
A) mental set.
B) mindless behavior.
C) fixation.
D) insight.

24. Rigid habitual behavior in which we fail to carefully attend to the details of the present
situation is to _____ as a new way to understand a problem that immediately gives you
the solution is to _____.
A) fixation; insight
B) mindless behavior; mental set
C) mindless behavior; insight
D) mental set; fixation

25. To locate a missing receipt that Dennis knows he put in a file, Dennis systematically
goes through each of the folders he uses, starting with A and working his way toward Z.
This search procedure MOST closely resembles which problem-solving strategy?
A) an algorithm
B) a heuristic
C) anchoring and adjustment
D) mental set

26. The steps used to solve long division and multiplication problems represent the use of
_____ in problem solving.
A) heuristics
B) mental set
C) algorithms
D) insight

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27. When solving the anagram LOSOGCYHYP, humans place letters next to each other
based on their knowledge of the English language. This represents using _____ to solve
the problem.
A) a heuristic
B) a mental set
C) an algorithm
D) insight

28. People are likely to use _____ to solve anagrams.

A) trial and error
B) heuristics
C) insight
D) algorithms

29. A(n) _____ is a step-by-step procedure that guarantees a correct solution to a problem.
A) algorithm
B) heuristic
C) mental set
D) means–end analysis

30. Which process would be an example of an algorithm?

A) determining which material to study more in depth for your next psychology exam
B) deciding how much food will be consumed by guests at an upcoming picnic you
are planning
C) calculating miles per gallon on a long-distance trip you just completed
D) determining the best strategy for getting your parents to buy you a car

31. When solving the anagram LOSOGCYHYP, a computer generates all possible
permutations in order to find the answer. This represents using _____ to solve the
problem.
A) a heuristic
B) a mental set
C) an algorithm
D) means–ends analysis

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32. Stuart knew the key to his girlfriend's apartment was on her key ring, so he
systematically tried each successive key until finding the one that unlocked her front
door. This strategy illustrates problem solving by means of using:
A) an algorithm.
B) a mental set.
C) the availability heuristic.
D) the working backward heuristic.

33. In an effort to quickly solve puzzles, we might use _____, but to guarantee solutions, we
should use _____.
A) prototypes; heuristics
B) algorithms; prototypes
C) heuristics; algorithms
D) algorithms; heuristics

34. Prior to estimating the number of people attending a concert, Edward was asked whether
there were more or fewer than 1,000 people and Ellen was asked if there were more or
fewer than 4,000 people. Edward's estimate of the number of people was much less than
Ellen's estimate, suggesting their estimates were influenced by use of the:
A) representativeness heuristic.
B) conjunction fallacy.
C) availability heuristic.
D) anchoring and adjustment heuristic.

35. When asked to quickly estimate the product of 8*7*6*5*4*3*2*1, people give a much
larger answer than when asked to quickly estimate the product of 1*2*3*4*5*6*7*8.
This BEST illustrates the dynamics involved in using:
A) the anchoring and adjustment heuristic.
B) the working backward heuristic.
C) means–end analysis.
D) an algorithm.

36. Elliott's credit card bill includes a minimum payment amount. Compared with a
situation in which a minimum payment amount is not provided, it is likely that Elliott
will make a _____ partial payment, reflecting his use of the _____ heuristic.
A) smaller; anchoring and adjustment
B) smaller; representativeness
C) larger; anchoring and adjustment
D) larger; representativeness

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37. When Olivia and Amanda met for the first time, Olivia's first impression was that
Amanda was rather unfriendly. Although subsequent meetings indicted that Amanda
may really be friendly, Olivia failed to substantially change her initial impression. This
tendency to cling to an initial impression is similar to processes that occur when people:
A) use means–end analysis.
B) work backward.
C) use the anchoring and adjustment heuristic.
D) overlook the conjunction rule.

38. Tim is trying to solve a maze that has 10 paths from the starting point, only one of
which leads to the goal. For this type of problem, which would be the BEST approach?
A) means–end analysis
B) anchoring and adjustment
C) working backward
D) insight

39. A problem-solving strategy that makes use of subgoals in reducing the distance between
start states and goal states is:
A) means–end analysis.
B) the anchoring and adjustment heuristic.
C) working backward.
D) an algorithm.

40. Laura wants to buy a car, so she is attempting to solve the problems of getting money
for a down payment and establishing credit. She realizes there are multiple steps she
must follow to achieve her goal. The problem-solving technique that involves
accomplishing one step at a time to move closer to a goal is called _____ analysis, and
the individual steps are called _____.
A) means–end; increments
B) means–end; subgoals
C) conjunctive; increments
D) conjunctive; subgoals

41. The Tower of Hanoi problem (reconfiguring disks on pegs) is best solved using the
_____ heuristic, whereas the water lily problem (determining when the pond is half
covered) is best solved using the _____ heuristic.
A) working backward; means–end
B) means–end; working backward
C) means–end; anchoring and adjustment
D) anchoring and adjustment; working backward

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42. Implicit procedural memory is to the _____ as explicit episodic memory is to the _____.
A) cerebellum and basal ganglia; hippocampus
B) hippocampus; cerebellum and basal ganglia
C) medulla and pons; hypothalamus
D) hypothalamus; medulla and pons

43. Applying means–end analysis to solve a four-disk version of the Tower of Hanoi
problem requires solving _____ problems.
A) 3 three-disk
B) 4 three-disk
C) 2 two-disk
D) 4 two-disk

44. Applying means–end analysis to solve a four-disk version of the Tower of Hanoi
problem requires solving _____ problems.
A) 2 three-disk
B) 3 three-disk
C) 2 two-disk
D) 3 two-disk

45. Research on the role of the frontal lobes in problem solving suggests that frontal lobe
damage may _____ the ability to solve the Tower of Hanoi problem and may _____ the
ability to solve insight problems.
A) impair; impair
B) impair; enhance
C) enhance; impair
D) enhance; enhance

46. Recent research has found that antereograde amnesics do not show practice effects on
the Tower of Hanoi problem. This led the researchers to conclude that learning the
means–end analysis strategy for solving this problem:
A) only requires implicit procedural memory.
B) only requires explicit episodic memory.
C) requires both implicit procedural memory and explicit episodic memory.
D) requires neither implicit memory nor explicit memory

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47. Rafael is attempting to solve a Tower of Hanoi problem that includes four disks. What is
the minimum number of moves required to solve a four-disk version of the problem?
A) 7
B) 15
C) 16
D) 64

48. In judging the likelihood that it will rain tomorrow, the weather forecaster announces
that the probability is maximally uncertain. Which probability estimate BEST reflects
this likelihood?
A) 1.00
B) 0.50
C) 0.25
D) 0

49. Which statement is an example of an erroneous belief that may arise from subjective,
informal hypothesis testing?
A) Heredity most likely plays a larger role in determining intelligence than does
environment.
B) Average intelligence test scores have improved steadily in Western industrialized
countries.
C) Mental telepathy is an extension of our sensory abilities.
D) More people die from diabetes than from airplane crashes.

50. Carol judges the probability of category membership by how well an object resembles a
category. Carol is:
A) using the representativeness heuristic.
B) committing the conjunction fallacy.
C) committing the gambler's fallacy.
D) using the availability heuristic.

51. Talking about his acquaintance Doug, who is really "into" technology, Dave says that it
is more likely that Doug has both a Blu-ray player and a flat screen TV than just a
Blu-ray player. Apparently influenced by the _____ heuristic, Dave has _____.
A) representativeness; committed the conjunction fallacy
B) representativeness; created an illusory correlation
C) availability; committed the conjunction fallacy
D) availability; created an illusory correlation

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52. David judges the joint occurrence of two uncertain events as being more likely than the
occurrence of either of the events. David is:
A) using the representativeness heuristic.
B) using the availability heuristic.
C) committing the conjunction fallacy.
D) displaying confirmation bias.

53. With respect to the "Linda" problem in the textbook, people judge that it is more likely
that Linda is a bank teller and active in the feminist movement because they _____ and
misuse the _____ heuristic.
A) use the conjunction rule; representativeness
B) commit the conjunction fallacy; availability
C) use the conjunction rule; availability
D) commit the conjunction fallacy; representativeness

54. On a roulette wheel, there are an equal number of red (R) and black (B) slots into which
a ball may fall at random. Suppose a roulette wheel is spun five times. Which sequence
of outcomes is more likely?
A) B R B R B
B) B B B R R
C) R R B B R
D) No specific sequence is more likely than any other.

55. The gambler's fallacy is:

A) a rule of thumb for judging the probability of a gambling event being more
favorable to a casino than to a gambler.
B) the belief that a chance event is always going to have a 50-percent probability of
occurring.
C) the belief that a chance event that has not occurred for a while is more likely to
occur.
D) the belief that a streak is likely to continue.

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56. In the game of roulette, a wheel spins and a ball lands at random in one of an equal
number of black and red slots. Because the ball landed in a red slot four times in a row,
Cal believes it will land in a black slot on the next spin. Which statement MOST
accurately describes the validity of Cal's belief?
A) Cal is most likely correct because the law of averages should apply.
B) Cal is most likely correct because the probability of a ball landing in a red slot
increases for any spin that immediately follows a black outcome.
C) Cal is incorrect in believing that random outcomes alternate more than they really
do.
D) Cal is incorrect because the ball would need to land in the red slot several more
times in a row before increasing its likelihood of landing in a black slot.

57. Which factor contributes to both the gambler's fallacy and the conjunction fallacy?
A) the representativeness heuristic
B) mental set
C) the anchoring and adjustment heuristic
D) fixation

58. Which statement about categorization is FALSE?

A) Recognition involves putting people and objects into categories.
B) We judge categorical probabilities differently than we recognize patterns.
C) Pattern recognition is an example of an automatic process.
D) Our first impression of people is often based on categorical resemblance.

59. Because he heard news reports nightly concerning the terrorist attack on the World
Trade Center in New York City, Kevin overestimated his risk of being a victim of a
terrorist attack. Kevin's overestimate was likely influenced by:
A) belief perseverance.
B) illusory correlation.
C) the availability heuristic.
D) the representativeness heuristic.

60. The availability heuristic is:

A) a rule of thumb for judging the probability of category membership by how well an
object resembles a category.
B) the fact that the likelihood of two uncertain events occurring together cannot be
greater than the likelihood of either event occurring alone.
C) the belief that a chance event that has not occurred for a while is more likely to
occur.
D) a rule of thumb that the more easily we remember an event, the more probable it is.

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61. Most people incorrectly think that "r" appears more often as the first letter of a word
than as the third letter. This belief stems from the use of the _____ heuristic, based on
the way we _____.
A) availability; organize words in memory
B) availability; automatically categorize items
C) representativeness; organize words in memory
D) representativeness; automatically categorize items

62. College students incorrectly judge that death by plane crash is more frequent than death
from asthma. In fact, asthma is 20 times more likely to cause death. Use of the _____
explains this error in judgment.
A) means–end analysis heuristic
B) availability heuristic
C) representativeness heuristic
D) conjunction rule

63. After learning that the parents of both of her roommates were divorced, Meghan began
to overestimate the divorce rate. Meghan's conclusion BEST illustrates the misuse of
the:
A) availability heuristic.
B) anchoring and adjustment heuristic.
C) the conjunction rule.
D) the conjunction fallacy.

64. After several highly publicized instances of deadly shark attacks, many people stopped
swimming in the ocean. It appears that vivid media coverage prompted people to use
_____ to judge the probability of death by shark attack.
A) the availability heuristic
B) a mental set
C) means–end analysis
D) the representativeness heuristic

65. Which factor is UNLIKELY to lead to use of the availability heuristic?

A) particularly vivid events
B) events that have happened recently
C) when we can easily recall memories of an event
D) events that we experience but don't give rise to conscious awareness

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66. John is using fast, intuitive processing to judge the likelihood that he will do well on a
test. John's thinking is characteristic of _____ processing, which is _____.
A) System 1; more reliable than System 2
B) System 1; less reliable than System 2
C) System 2; more reliable than System 1
D) System 2; less reliable than System 1

67. System 1 is to _____ as System 2 is to _____.

A) availability; representativeness
B) representativeness; availability
C) reflective; automatic
D) automatic; reflective

68. In the British researcher Peter Wason's "2-4-6 task," Zach thought the rule was
"numbers under 10 that increased by 2." To attempt to disconfirm this hypothesis, which
sequence(s) should he test?
A) 1-3-5
B) 8-10-12
C) 4-7-9
D) Either 8-10-12 or 4-7-9 could be used to disconfirm the hypothesis.

69. The errors made when trying to determine the rule for Wason's "2-4-6 task" BEST
illustrate:
A) an illusory correlation.
B) the availability heuristic.
C) the confirmation bias.
D) a mental set.

70. The tendency to seek evidence that supports our hypotheses is known as the:
A) availability heuristic.
B) confirmation bias.
C) representativeness heuristic.
D) verification bias.

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71. Miss Binder, a second-grade teacher, thinks that girls pass more notes in class than do
boys, so she watches the girls more closely than she watches the boys. Miss Binder's
behavior BEST illustrates:
A) belief perseverance.
B) confirmation bias.
C) a fixation.
D) the representativeness heuristic.

72. Greg believes that female drivers make more careless mistakes on the road than do male
drivers, so he watches female drivers more closely than he watches male drivers. Greg's
behavior BEST illustrates:
A) the availability heuristic.
B) fixation.
C) confirmation bias.
D) belief perseverance.

73. Suppose you are given the following problem: "There are four cards showing E, J, 2, &
5. On one side of each card is a letter, and on the other side is a number. Consider this
rule: "If a card has a vowel on one side, then it has an odd number on the other side."
Select the card or cards that you definitely must turn over to determine whether the rule
is true or false for the four cards indicated.
A) the E card only
B) the E and 2 cards
C) the E and 5 cards
D) the J and 5 cards

74. Because Tim is likely to notice when it rains after he washes his car, he believes there is
a relationship between washing his car and the occurrence of rain. This perceived
relationship BEST illustrates:
A) confirmation bias.
B) belief perseverance.
C) an illusory correlation.
D) person-who reasoning.

75. Because Janet is particularly likely to notice when the phone rings while she is in the
shower, she believes that there is a relationship between taking a shower and receiving a
phone call. This perceived relationship BEST illustrates:
A) belief perseverance.
B) an illusory correlation.
C) confirmation bias.
D) person-who reasoning.

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76. What is the tendency to erroneously believe that two variables are related when they
actually are not?
A) correlation bias
B) belief bias
C) belief perseverance
D) illusory correlation

77. If you create a 2  2 table showing the number of people who exhibit each possible
pairing of eating spinach (or not) with being strong (or not), which cells must be
examined in order to determine whether there is a relationship between spinach eating
and strength?
A) the cell showing the number of people who eat spinach and are strong and the cell
showing the number of people who eat spinach and are not strong
B) the cell showing the number of people who eat spinach and are strong and the cell
showing the number of people who do not eat spinach and are strong
C) the cell showing the number of people who eat spinach and are strong and the cell
showing the number of people who do not eat spinach and are not strong
D) the number of people found in all four cells

78. What is the tendency to cling to one's beliefs in the face of contradictory evidence?
A) belief bias
B) confirmation bias
C) belief perseverance
D) illusory belief

79. A police detective continues to pursue the individual he feels is guilty of a robbery in
the face of increasing evidence to the contrary. It is likely that the detective is
experiencing:
A) belief perseverance.
B) confirmation bias.
C) person-who reasoning.
D) illusory correlation.

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80. Despite his awareness of scientific evidence indicating that fortune-tellers are unable to
forecast the future, Justin believes they can. He bases his belief on the fact that his
friend Ronnie won $100 after a fortune-teller told Ronnie that something good would
happen to him. Justin is experiencing _____ resulting from _____.
A) a fixation; person-who reasoning
B) a fixation; the conjunction fallacy
C) belief perseverance; person-who reasoning
D) belief perseverance; the conjunction fallacy

81. Donald argues vehemently that women drive more recklessly than men do despite his
awareness of statistics from multiple sources that indicate his argument is not correct.
Donald is MOST specifically demonstrating:
A) means–end analysis.
B) functional fixedness.
C) the conjunction fallacy.
D) belief perseverance.

82. Questioning a well-established finding because you know an individual who violates the
finding is to _____ as clinging to your viewpoints despite evidence to the contrary is to
_____.
A) belief perseverance; illusory correlation
B) illusory correlation; belief perseverance
C) person-who reasoning; illusory correlation
D) person-who reasoning; belief perseverance

83. Stan loves junk food and eats it every day in vast quantities. Stan's wife keeps telling
him that research results show that he is killing himself with his diet, but Stan simply
points to his grandfather who lived to be 92 and ate junk food most of his life. Stan is
using _____ to justify his junk food eating behavior.
A) means–end analysis
B) illusory correlation
C) person-who reasoning
D) both person-who reasoning and illusory correlation

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84. Dr. Barba, like most doctors, tends to _____ the probability that a person has a disease
when a test result is positive. To accurately calculate this probability, one of the factors
that Dr. Barba needs to know is the percentage of people in the population who actually
have the disease, which is known as the _____ rate.
A) overestimate; base
B) overestimate; sensitivity
C) underestimate; base
D) underestimate; sensitivity

85. Imagine a base rate of 1 percent for a disease, a false positive rate of 10 percent, and a
sensitivity rate of 90 percent for the screening test for the disease. Using natural
frequencies, _____ percent is the closest estimate of the conditional probability that a
person actually has the disease given a positive test result?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 16
D) 20

86. Dr. Huang knows that the base rate for a disease is 5 percent. Out of 1,000 people, this
base rate indicates that _____ would have the disease. To test a patient, Dr. Huang will
use a test that will correctly show that the disease is present in 80 percent of the people
who actually have the disease. Thus, the _____ rate for the test is 80 percent.
A) 5; sensitivity
B) 5; true negative
C) 50; sensitivity
D) 50; true negative

87. The American Cancer Society and the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force each
recently recommended that women of average risk for breast cancer wait to an older age
before starting regular mammogram screening. This is because:
A) a mammogram is likely to fail to detect breast cancer when it is present in younger
women.
B) younger women don't get breast cancer.
C) even when a younger woman of average risk tests positive, it is still more likely
that it is a false positive, rather than actual cancer.
D) breast cancer isn't a serious disease if you are young.

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88. The intelligence theorist responsible for the eugenics movement was:
A) Galton.
B) Wechsler.
C) Binet.
D) Terman.

89. Which intelligence theorist assumed that more intelligent people would have more acute
senses and faster reaction times?
A) Lewis Terman
B) Alfred Binet
C) Francis Galton
D) David Wechsler

90. With respect to intelligence, eugenics is:

A) the idea that intelligence is due to environmental influences.
B) the idea that intelligence is due to gender.
C) selective reproduction to enhance the mental capacities of the human race.
D) selective reproduction to enhance the environmental influences on intelligence.

91. Galton's major contribution to intelligence testing was the development of the:
A) deviation IQ score.
B) intelligence quotient.
C) mathematics underlying the correlation statistic.
D) g factor of intelligence.

92. Galton's tests of _____ were _____ predictors of intelligent thinking.

A) physical traits; poor
B) physical traits; good
C) verbal ability; poor
D) verbal ability; good

93. With respect to perspectives on intelligence, _____ is to nature as _____ is to nurture.

A) Binet; Galton
B) Galton; Binet
C) Terman; Galton
D) Binet; Terman

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94. Which figures involved in the development of intelligence tests believed that
intelligence was determined by the environment?
A) Binet and Wechsler
B) Terman and Galton
C) Wechsler and Terman
D) Galton and Binet

95. Binet and Simon developed an intelligence test for the French school system to:
A) determine which children were above average in intelligence.
B) remove from the school system those children deemed uneducable.
C) diagnose children whose intellectual development was subnormal and likely to
experience problems in school.
D) measure the correlation between physical abilities and intelligence.

96. Binet is to _____ as Wechsler is to _____.

A) nature; nurture
B) nurture; nature
C) nature; nature
D) nurture; nurture

97. The development of mental orthopedics by _____ was consistent with his view that
intelligence was influenced primarily by _____.
A) Binet; nurture
B) Binet; nature
C) Terman; nurture
D) Terman; nature

98. Lewis Terman is responsible for developing the:

A) Binet-Simon test of intelligence.
B) WAIS.
C) the Stanford-Binet test of intelligence.
D) Terman-Binet test of intelligence.

99. The revision of Binet's original intelligence test that was developed in 1916 for specific
use with American schoolchildren became known as the:
A) Binet-Simon.
B) Wechsler (WAIS).
C) Stanford-Binet.
D) Wechsler-Sternberg.

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100. The formula used when calculating an intelligence quotient is:
A) 100 × IQ/chronological age.
B) chronological age/mental age × 100.
C) mental age/chronological age × 100.
D) mental age/100 × 100.

101. Using William Stern's formula, Terman would conclude that an 8-year-old child with a
mental age of 12 had an IQ of:
A) 90.
B) 110.
C) 130.
D) 150.

102. If a child's mental age is lower than the child's chronological age, then the child's IQ:
A) is less than 100.
B) is greater than 100.
C) is exactly 100.
D) cannot be determined from the information provided.

103. If a child's mental age is greater than the child's chronological age, then the child's IQ:
A) is less than 100.
B) is greater than 100.
C) is exactly 100.
D) cannot be determined from the information provided.

104. Which statement is NOT a reason that David Wechsler determined that the Binet-Simon
intelligence test was inadequate for his purposes?
A) It only provided a single measure of academic performance.
B) It wasn't designed to assess adult intelligence.
C) The intelligence quotient (IQ) made it appear that intelligence began to decline in
adulthood.
D) Wechsler wanted a narrower assessment of the academic performance of children.

105. The Stanford-Binet test was not suitable for measuring adult intelligence because:
A) at some point, mental age levels off but chronological age keeps increasing.
B) with increasing age, a person's IQ would increase, even if intelligence did not.
C) it is based on deviation scores that don't accurately measure adult intelligence.
D) mental age drops off as chronological age increases.

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106. If a test has been standardized, it has:
A) the ability to yield consistent results every time.
B) the ability to predict performance on future tests.
C) been given to a representative sample of the relevant population.
D) content validity.

107. What is the purpose of standardization?

A) to predict what a child's IQ will be in adulthood
B) to permit interpretation of scores against norms
C) to determine similarities between the IQs of parents and IQs of their children
D) to enable calculation of a national mean IQ

108. The first researcher to use deviation scores to measure intelligence was:
A) Binet.
B) Simon.
C) Terman.
D) Wechsler.

109. A deviation IQ score is:

A) 150 plus or minus (10 × the number of standard deviations the person is from the
raw score median for the standardization group).
B) 100 plus or minus (10 × the number of standard deviations the person is from the
raw score median for the standardization group).
C) 150 plus or minus (15 × the number of standard deviations the person is from the
raw score mean for the standardization group).
D) 100 plus or minus (15 × the number of standard deviations the person is from the
raw score mean for the standardization group).

110. In the standardization distribution of deviation IQ scores developed by Wechsler, the

mean is set at _____, and the standard deviation is set at _____.
A) 100; 15
B) 100; 10
C) 50; 15
D) 50; 10

111. An individual with a deviation IQ score of –2 on the WAIS would have an IQ score of:
A) 70.
B) 85.
C) 115.
D) 130.

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112. Karen's deviation IQ score falls 2 standard deviations above the mean for her age group;
therefore, her deviation IQ score is:
A) 90.
B) 100.
C) 120.
D) 130.

113. Susan's deviation IQ score is 115; therefore, her deviation IQ score is _____ standard
deviation(s) above the mean for her age group.
A) 0.5
B) 1.0
C) 1.5
D) 2.0

114. Which term does NOT belong with the others?

A) alternate-form
B) predictive
C) split-half
D) test-retest

115. A test in which the test scores are consistent is said to have a high degree of:
A) validity.
B) standardization.
C) reliability.
D) symmetry.

116. An acceptable reliability coefficient for an intelligence test should have a value of at
least:
A) 0.80.
B) 0.90.
C) 1.00.
D) 1.10.

117. For which correlation coefficient would you be MOST likely to conclude that the
test-retest method revealed a very reliable test?
A) 0.70
B) 0.80
C) 0.90
D) 1.50

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118. Assessing alternate-form reliability involves giving _____ form(s) of a test to the same
sample at _____.
A) one; different times
B) two; the same time
C) two; different times
D) None of the answers is correct.

119. Internal consistency on a test would be measured by giving:

A) the same test twice to the same sample and measuring the correlation between the
two scores.
B) the same test twice to two different samples and measuring the correlation between
the two scores.
C) two halves (odd versus even items) of a test to the same sample and measuring the
correlation between the scores.
D) two halves (odd versus even items) of a test to two different samples and
measuring the correlation between the scores.

120. To determine if a test is internally consistent, which measure of reliability would be

appropriate to use?
A) alternate-form
B) split-half
C) test-retest
D) either alternate-form or split-half

121. Which statement is TRUE?

A) When using test-retest reliability, the same test is administered twice to the same
sample, and the correlation coefficient for the two sets of scores is computed.
B) In split-half reliability, different forms of the test are administered to the same
sample at different times, and a correlation coefficient for performance on the two
forms is calculated.
C) In alternate-form reliability, performance on half of the test items is compared to
performance on the other half of the items.
D) In alternate-form reliability, the same test is administered twice to the same sample,
and the correlation coefficient for the two sets of scores is computed.

122. A test that measures or predicts what it is supposed to is said to have a high degree of:
A) validity.
B) standardization.
C) reliability.
D) symmetry.

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123. If your psychology test included material that was not assigned or covered in class, you
could MOST reasonably argue that the test lacked:
A) content validity.
B) internal consistency.
C) predictive validity.
D) test-retest reliability.

124. _____ is concerned with consistency, whereas _____ is concerned with predictability.
A) Reliability; reliability
B) Validity; validity
C) Reliability; validity
D) Validity; reliability

125. Which statement is TRUE?

A) A test can be reliable but not valid.
B) A test can be valid but not reliable.
C) Test-retest is one way to measure validity.
D) Content is an important form of reliability.

126. Concerning the reliability and validity of intelligence tests, which statement is FALSE?
A) Intelligence tests are valid predictors of academic performance.
B) The predictive validity of intelligence tests varies for different groups.
C) Intelligence tests are reliable indicators of job performance.
D) Psychologists agree on what intelligence tests should predict but disagree on
definitions of intelligence.

127. _____ was the first intelligence theorist to argue that intelligence test performance is a
function of general intelligence and specific intellectual abilities.
A) L. L. Thurstone
B) Charles Spearman
C) Robert Sternberg
D) Raymond Cattell

128. Regarding theories of intelligence, Charles Spearman believed that _____ was/were
MOST important, and Thurstone believed that _____ was/were MOST important.
A) crystallized intelligence; fluid intelligence
B) fluid intelligence; crystallized intelligence
C) the g factor; specific mental abilities
D) specific mental abilities; the g factor

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129. Which item is NOT one of Thurstone's seven primary mental abilities?
A) verbal comprehension
B) number facility
C) spatial relations
D) musical ability

130. Which statistical technique helped Thurstone identify seven primary mental abilities?
A) standardization
B) deviation scoring
C) factor analysis
D) correlation

131. For which reason would a researcher use factor analysis?

A) to determine if average intelligence scores for two samples differ from each other
B) to determine the variability of intelligence test scores
C) to determine the predictive validity of an intelligence test
D) to determine which clusters of intelligence test items measure the same ability

132. According to Cattell and Horn, the "g factor" includes which types of intelligence?
A) linguistic and logical-mathematical
B) "s factors" and "g factors"
C) fluid and crystallized
D) interpersonal and intrapersonal

133. According to Cattell and Horn, _____ intelligence includes accumulated knowledge and
is hypothesized to _____ with age.
A) crystallized; increase
B) crystallized; decrease
C) fluid; increase
D) fluid; decrease

134. According to Cattell and Horn, _____ intelligence includes abstract reasoning and is
hypothesized to _____ with age.
A) crystallized; decrease
B) fluid; decrease
C) crystallized; increase
D) fluid; increase

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135. Which is NOT one of Gardner's multiple intelligences?
A) abstract reasoning
B) spatial
C) musical
D) logical-mathematical

136. Scott is particularly skilled at understanding other people. It is MOST likely that he
would score highly on _____ measure of _____ intelligence.
A) Gardner's; naturalist
B) Sternberg's; linguistic
C) Gardner's; interpersonal
D) Sternberg's; intrapersonal

137. Which statement concerning Howard Gardner's theory of intelligence is FALSE?

A) There are eight independent intelligences.
B) Six of the intelligences are considered by some psychologists to be talents and
skills, not types of intelligence.
C) The linguistic and spatial intelligences seem to fit best with other definitions of
intelligence in terms of mental abilities.
D) Many of the intelligences are difficult to quantify and measure.

138. Of Gardner's eight intelligences, which two are the LEAST controversial?
A) intrapersonal and interpersonal
B) spatial and musical
C) naturalist and bodily-kinesthetic
D) linguistic and logical-mathematical

139. Alexandra firmly believes that intelligence consists of multiple independent abilities,
including such intelligences as spatial, musical, bodily-kinesthetic, and intrapersonal.
Alexandra's belief is MOST consistent with the theory of intelligence developed by:
A) Cattell and Horn.
B) Gardner.
C) Spearman.
D) Sternberg.

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140. Mariska is skilled at handling objects but has difficulty visualizing how puzzle pieces fit
together. Based on Gardner's conceptualization of intelligence, it is likely that Mariska
would score high on _____ intelligence but low on _____ intelligence.
A) bodily-kinesthetic; spatial
B) spatial; logical-mathematical
C) logical-mathematical; naturalist
D) naturalist; bodily-kinesthetic

141. What are the three types of intelligences in Sternberg's triarchic theory?
A) analytical, creative, and practical
B) linguistic, logical, and spatial
C) bodily-kinesthetic, fluid, and musical
D) intrapersonal, interpersonal, and naturalist

142. Which item is NOT one of the three types of intelligence proposed by Sternberg?
A) analytical
B) practical
C) interpersonal
D) creative

143. Larraine always takes the 8:10 p.m. train when she has to work late because she finds
there are typically a sufficient number of waiting passengers to keep her feeling safe.
According to Sternberg's triarchic theory, Larraine is demonstrating _____ intelligence.
A) logical
B) practical
C) creative
D) intrapersonal

144. Which theorist proposed that an individual can be irrational and still score high on an
intelligence test?
A) Charles Spearman
B) Keith Stanovich
C) Robert Sternberg
D) Howard Gardner

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145. Brenda received high scores on her SAT; however, when choosing her courses for the
semester, she doesn't look at the requirements for her major but selects courses based on
their closeness to her dorm room. According to Keith Stanovich, Brenda is
demonstrating:
A) practical intelligence.
B) dysrationalia.
C) probability thinking.
D) intuition.

146. According to Stanovich, dysrationalia occurs when individuals have not developed the
appropriate:
A) fluid intelligence skills.
B) crystallized intelligence skills.
C) mindware.
D) heuristics.

147. When thinking about situations such as how a full-time job would influence the time he
has to study, Nick tends to jump to conclusions that are not logical despite the fact that
he has a very high IQ. According to Stanovich, Nick is demonstrating signs of a _____
that is resulting in _____.
A) Flynn effect; a conjunction fallacy
B) Flynn effect; dysrationalia
C) mindware gap; a conjunction fallacy
D) mindware gap; dysrationalia

148. How is the average correlation between intelligence scores related to genetic similarity?
A) The average correlation increases as genetic similarity decreases.
B) The average correlation increases as genetic similarity increases.
C) The average correlation does not change with genetic similarity.
D) The average correlation increases with genetic similarity for children but not for
adults.

149. The average correlation between fraternal twins raised together is _____ than that for
identical twins reared apart, indicating the influence of _____ factors.
A) greater; hereditary
B) greater; environmental
C) less; hereditary
D) less; environmental

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150. The fact that the average correlation between intelligence scores is greater for fraternal
twins than for genetically related siblings can be explained by:
A) both genetic similarity and environmental influences.
B) genetic similarity only.
C) environmental influences only.
D) neither genetic similarity nor environmental influences.

151. Adopted children would be expected to have test scores LEAST similar to their adoptive
parents in:
A) early childhood.
B) middle childhood.
C) adolescence.
D) young adulthood.

152. What happens to the modest correlation between the intelligence test scores of adopted
children and their adoptive parents as the children get older?
A) The correlation decreases.
B) The correlation increases.
C) The correlation remains the same.
D) The correlation depends on whether children were adopted before the age of 5.

153. Heritability is an index of the:

A) upper limits of a given trait within a population that is due to heredity.
B) percentage of an individual's intelligence that is determined by heredity.
C) degree of variation in a trait within an individual that is due to heredity.
D) degree of variation in a trait within a population that is due to heredity.

154. Heritability estimates for intelligence range from _____ percent to _____ percent.
A) 40; 60
B) 30; 50
C) 20; 40
D) 50; 70

155. Odafin's reaction range is determined by his _____. His reaction range defines the limits
of his _____.
A) heredity; intelligence
B) heredity; kinesthetic abilities
C) prior experience; intelligence
D) prior experience; kinesthetic abilities

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156. The genetically determined limits for an individual's intelligence is called:
A) the reaction range.
B) the Flynn effect.
C) heritability.
D) genetic limitation.

157. Kevin's reaction range for intelligence (IQ) is between 90 and 130. Which factor would
predict that Kevin might reach the upper limits of his reaction range?
A) if one of Kevin's parents has an IQ close to 130
B) if both of Kevin's parent have IQs close to 130
C) if Kevin lives in a high-quality environment
D) if Kevin has a high-achieving personality

158. A cross-cultural study of the intelligence test scores of Asian and American children
suggests that:
A) scores for American children and Asian children are generally the same.
B) as they proceed in school, Asian children have increasingly higher scores than
American children.
C) before children start school, American children have higher scores than Asian
children.
D) in early grades, Asian children have higher scores, but in high school, American
children have higher scores.

159. Heritability indices indicate that for a(n):

A) individual, 50 percent to 70 percent of intelligence is determined by genetic factors.
B) individual, 25 percent to 45 percent of intelligence is determined by genetic factors.
C) given population, 50 percent to 70 percent of the variation in intelligence is due to
heredity.
D) given population, 25 percent to 45 percent of the variation in intelligence is due to
heredity.

160. The finding that average intelligence scores have increased over the past century in the
United States and other industrialized countries illustrates:
A) an increase in reaction range.
B) the Flynn effect.
C) the application of Sternberg's practical intelligence.
D) the effect of Gardner's natural intelligence.

Page 31
161. According to James Flynn, _____ has likely contributed to the increase in intelligence
test scores that has occurred over the past century.
A) a decrease in family size
B) an increase in the number of colleges and universities
C) the change to an information-based society, which led people to get smarter overall
D) societal changes, which led people to get smarter in abstract, scientific thinking

162. Recent research on the Flynn effect has found that gains on intelligence test scores over
time:
A) primarily occur in developed countries.
B) primarily occur in developing countries.
C) have been seen in both developed and developing countries with larger gains for
the developed countries.
D) have been seen in both developed and developing countries with larger gains for
the developing countries.

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Answer Key
1. B
2. D
3. B
4. B
5. D
6. A
7. D
8. B
9. B
10. D
11. D
12. A
13. A
14. A
15. C
16. C
17. C
18. C
19. D
20. B
21. B
22. C
23. B
24. C
25. A
26. C
27. A
28. B
29. A
30. C
31. C
32. A
33. C
34. D
35. A
36. A
37. C
38. C
39. A
40. B
41. B
42. A
43. D
44. A

Page 33
45. B
46. C
47. B
48. B
49. C
50. A
51. A
52. C
53. D
54. D
55. C
56. C
57. A
58. B
59. C
60. D
61. A
62. B
63. A
64. A
65. D
66. B
67. D
68. D
69. C
70. B
71. B
72. C
73. B
74. C
75. B
76. D
77. D
78. C
79. A
80. C
81. D
82. D
83. C
84. A
85. A
86. C
87. C
88. A
89. C
90. C

Page 34
 91. C
92. A
93. B
94. A
95. C
96. D
97. A
98. C
99. C
100. C
101. D
102. A
103. B
104. D
105. A
106. C
107. B
108. D
109. D
110. A
111. A
112. D
113. B
114. B
115. C
116. B
117. C
118. C
119. C
120. B
121. A
122. A
123. A
124. C
125. A
126. B
127. B
128. C
129. D
130. C
131. D
132. C
133. A
134. B
135. A
136. C

Page 35
137. C
138. D
139. B
140. A
141. A
142. C
143. B
144. B
145. B
146. C
147. D
148. B
149. C
150. C
151. D
152. A
153. D
154. D
155. A
156. A
157. C
158. B
159. C
160. B
161. D
162. D

Page 36