WOOD STRUCTURES JEPPESEN #1

1- what are the three forms of wood commonly used in aircraft construction?

Solid, laminated, and plywood.

2- what type of wood should be used when splicing or reinforcing plywood webs

The same type of plywood used.

3- name at least four different types of defects found in wood

Knots, cross grain, curly grain, decay, dry rot.

4- can a section of wood containing a hard knot be used

Yes, within specified limits.

5- what type of glue may have been used in older wooden aircraft construction that
requires careful inspection to detect deterioration

Casein glue.

6-what are the three types of glues used in modern aircraft construction and repair

Resorcinol glue, Phenol-formaldehyde glue, and epoxy resin glue.

7- is compression wood acceptable for structural repairs

No

8- why should the various pieces of wood being joined be kept in the same room for at
least 24 hours prior to joining

To allow the moisture content to equalize.

9- why is it important to consider the open-assembly time when gluing wooden

structures

If the maximum open-assembly time is exceeded, the joint may fail .

10- why is it important to apply the proper clamping pressure to a glue joint

to properly joint , 125 to 150 psi

AIRFRAME 1
11- describe some of the methods used to apply pressure to glue joints

Clamps, nailing joints, power presses, brads, nails, and small screws.

12- what minimum curing temperature should be observe when joining wood with
various adhesives

70 degrees fahrenheit or specified by the glue manufacturer.

13- when inspecting wood structures, why might it be important to consider stains and
discolored areas

Decay and/or rot.

14- describe the acceptable methods used to repair elongated bolt holes found in a
wooden wing spar

remove damage section.

Splice new section.
drill new holes.

15- what type of joint is used to splice a solid or rectangular wood spar

A scarf joint.

16- in what areas are splices to a wood spar prohibited

Wing attachment fitting .

Landing gear fittings.
Engine mount fitting.

17- what is the maximum number of splices allowed for any single spar

Two.

18- describe the characteristics of a scarf joint

The pieces to be joined are tapered on a slope of 1 to 12.

19- why must the beveled cut be accurate on both pieces of wood being repaired with a
scarfed joint

To ensure a tight joint.

AIRFRAME 2
20- what are the two primary uses for plywood in aircraft construction

reinforcing plates and aircraft skin.

21- provide examples of at least three types of plywood skin repairs

Splayed patches, surface patches, plug patches, and scarfed patches.

22- what type of patch should be used to repair small holes in thin plywood skin if the
skin is less than 1/10th in thick

A splayed patch may be used .

23- what should be done to prevent a plywood patch and the pressure plate from
sticking together is glue is extruded from the joint

Place a waxed paper between the patch and the pressure plate.

24- why are lightweight steel bushings sometimes used in wooden structures

To prevent crush in the wood.

25- what is the purpose of large surface area washers when used on wooden structures

to prevent damage to the wood when is tightened

26- name several facings and core materials used in bonded honeycomb structures
intended for special applications

Stainless steel, magnesium, plywood, glass, nylon and cotton cloth.

27- describe the construction of bonded honeycomb structure

It is a laminated structure that has a solid facing bonded to either side of a

core consisting of open, six-sided cells.

28- what must be done with a damaged area in a bonded honeycomb structure prior to
beginning repairs

The damaged area must be removed.

29- a drill bit used for drilling composites should have an included angle of how many
degrees

135 degrees

AIRFRAME 3
30-what are the most common causes for delamination of a composite structure

Sonic vibration, moisture, liquid leakage, and a manufacturing error.

31- what type of defect in, or damage to, a bonded honeycomb structure can be repaired
using the potted repair method

Filling a hole.

32- name some of the factors that cause crazing in transparent plastic windows and
windshields

stress, solvents, and improper handling.

33- how should a hole be drilled in plexiglas to avoid damage to the hole when the drill
breaks through to the underside

Back up the plastic with a piece of wood and drill slowly.

AIRFRAME 4
AIRCRAFT COVERING JEPPESEN #2

1- aircraft covering fabrics are made of material from what two sources

Organi and synthetic materials.

2- how would you determine the strength requirements for fabric used to re-cover an
aircraft

The fabric must be of at least the quality and strength of the fabric used.

3- what two types of organic fibers are used for covering aircraft

Cotton and linen.

4- what is meant by warp,weft,and bias

Warp :is the direction of the fabric.

Weft : is the direction across the fabric .
Bias :is a direction at a 45 degree angle of the fabric.

5- what is the purpose of the selvage edge on a roll of fabric

It prevents the fabric from unraveling.

6- what identification marking is found on the selvage edge, and in which direction is
the warp applied

the FAA-PMA stamp, parallel to the line of the flight

7- how are the fabric type and strength requirements determined for fabric-covered
aircraft

Never exceed speed and wing loading.

8- what types of synthetic fibers are used for covering aircraft

Fiberglass and polyester fibers.

9- which of the several types of fabrics is unaffected by moisture and mildew

AIRFRAME 5
fiberglass

10- what is the function or purpose of reinforcing tape

Keeps the fabric from a tear off.

11- where would you use surface tape

Over rib stitching and sewed seams, over lapped edges, around corners,
and along leading and trailing edges.

12- how should the edges of drainage, inspection,and ventilation holes be reinforced

With plastic and aluminum .

13- what are the principle methods used to test the condition of fabric

Punch testers , and laboratory pull testing.

14- fabric is considered unairworthy when it has deteriorated to what percentage of its
original strength

Less than 70%.

15- how should a structure that will be covered with doped fabric be prepared following
inspection and prior to covering

with a protective coating of paint or varnish .

16- what is the principal advantage of the envelope method for covering wings

Almost all the seams are machine-sewed .

17- what is a tie-off knot

A standard, modified seine knot.

18- Name three common types of machine-sewed seams

Plain overlap, folded-fell, and French-fell.

19- where are anti-tear strips used

Under wing rib stitching.

20- how would you determine the correct spacing for rib stitching if the original spacing

AIRFRAME 6
was unknown

Chart in AC 43.13-1B

AIRCRAFT FINISHES JEPPESEN # 3

1- why is butyrate dope fabric safer to used than nitrate dope

it is less flammable

2- what are the two types of dope used for fabric finishes

Nitrate and Butyrate.

3- what is the appearance of a blushing paint finish

cloudy

4- what finishing defect is the result of paint room temperature that is too
warm

blister

5- what cause dope to blush

high humidity and moisture in the spray system

6- what factors cause spray paint sags and runs

Too much paint.

7- what components or parts of the airframe must be protected from damage

when using paint stripper

Windshields and windows, plastics, composites, synthetic rubber, and

fabrics

8- what is the function of zinc-chromate or wash primer

it prevent corrosion .

9- name several common types of paint used on aircraft

AIRFRAME 7
Zink-chromate and wash primers, synthetic enamels, acrylic lacquer, and
poyurethane.

10- what is the proper thinner to use with zinc-chromate primer

Toluene

11- what health and safety precautions must be observe when using the toxic
solvents and hinnesr that are part of modern finishing systems

respirator mask must be worn when spraying finishes

12- if spray painting dust causes a surface to appear dry and rough,what are
the most likely causes

Too much air pressure

13- what causes orange-peel

damp draft over the surface

14- what regulation governs the application of the registration numbers to

aircraft registered in the united states

FAR Part 45

15- other than appearance, what is another reason for touching up painted
surfaces

Reduction

16- what references should be used to determine if a control surface must be

checked and/or rebalanced after painting

The manufactures service manual.

17- what would be the effect if dope was used over paint or enamel

To melt the materials.

18- what are the three most commonly used methods of applying paint

Dipping, brushing, and spraying.

AIRFRAME 8
19- what is the effect on paint finishes if too much drier is added to the paint

Tend to crack and peel.

20- what paint systems may be used with epoxy topcoats

Any paint system in good condition

SHEET METAL JEPPESEN #4

1- what is the major type of damage to aluminum structures that is caused by

exposure to the weather

corrosion

2- name several methods for forming sheet metal

Bending , stretching, bumping, and crimping.

3- what are the dimensions of a properly formed rivet head

The head should be 1 1/2 times the shank diameter in width and 1/2 the
shank diameter in height.

4- describe the markings found on the heads of A,B,D,AD, and DD rivets

A plain
B cross
D raised dot
AD dimple.
DD double dash.

5- what happens to the stem of a self-plugging(friction lock) rivet when the

rivet is installed

The stem is pulled until it snaps off

6- name at least three types of self-plugging mechanical lock rivets

CherryMAX, CherryLOCK, and OYLMPIC-LOCK

7- what is the different between the tools required to pull a cherryLOCK rivet
and cherryMAX rivet

AIRFRAME 9
cherryLock rivets required a tool for each different size , while cherryMax
needs only one

8- which of the five stresses is the most commom cause of rivet failure

Shear

9- if a 2024 rivet must be replaced with a 2117 rivet, how do you determine the
size to be used

by using the next larger size 2117 rivet,

10- describe the process for determining the total length of a solid rivet for a
particular installation

The thickness plus 1 1/2 times the rivet diameter.

11- what minimum edge distance and spacing should be used for a single row
of protruting head rivets

Two times the diameter of the rivet.

12- how can a mechanic determine whether the countersink for a flush rivet
should be dimpled or drilled

By the thickness of the top sheet

13- what action is taken to prevent cracks from forming while dimpling
magnesium or some hard sheet metals

Hot dimpling equipment is used to preheat and soften the metal.

14- what type of damage can occur when using a rivet set that does not
properly fit the rivet

sheet metal damage or rivet damage

15- why it is important to use the proper size and weight bucking bar when
performing sheet metal riveting

to prevent damage to the structure

AIRFRAME 10
16- what procedures should be followed to properly remove a solid-shank rivet

Center punch the rivet.

Drill the base of the rivet head with the same size drill.
Pin punch to tip off the rivet head.

17- what are the two special calculations that must be made when bending
sheet metal

Bend allowance and setback.

18- what factors must be considered in order to determine setback

The thickness of the metal and the bend radius.

19-what is done to a corner where two bends intersect to prevent cracking

Relief holes are drilled in the corner.

20- what are the two reasons for installing a lightening hole in a sheet metal
wing rib

To reduce weight and increase stiffness.

21-describe a joggle and explain its function

A joggle is an offset shape to overlap of the part.

AIRFRAME 11
WELDING JEPPESEN #5

1- Name the three principle types of welding.

gas welding, electrical arc,and electric resistance

2- What are some advantages of gas shielded arc welding?

It is stronger and more corrosion resistance

3- Which method of welding is less likely to cause buckling or warping of thin metal
sheets?

TIG welding

4- What is the purpose of shielding an arc weld with an inert gas?

to prevents oxygen from contaminating the weld.

5- What is common method of controlling expansion when welding a joint?

Place tack welds along the length of the joint.

6- What is the effect of inadequate penetration on a weld?

the weld will be weak

7- What is the purpose of the flux used with brazing and silver soldering?

to clean the base metal

8- What type of flame is used when torch brazing of silver soldering?

A neutral flame

9- What must be done to a soldering iron tip to increase the amount of heat transferred
from the tip to the work?

The tip must be clean and properly tinned.

10- What is the preferred method for welding aluminum?

TIG welding

AIRFRAME 12
11- What is the preferred method of welding magnesium?

TIG welding

12- What precautions must be observed in order to weld titanium?

keep oxygen and nitrogen away from the weld

13- Describe one type of repair that could be made to a dented steel tube cluster joint.

a formed steel patch plate

14- How can a soft flame be obtained without reducing the heat output of the torch?

by using a large tip and adjusting the gas pressure

15- What factors determine the amount of heat delivered by a gas welding torch?

the torch tip and gas pressure

16- When an oxyacetylene torch is extinguished, which valve is turned off first?

turn off the acetylene valve

17- When a gas welding project is completed, what safety precautions should be
accomplished?

all valves are turn off and gas pressure is relief

18- What should be done to a heat-treated aluminum part after welded repairs are
completed?

the part must be re-heat treated

19- Welding magnesium can create a serious safety hazard. What is the nature of this
hazard?

magnesium burns with hot flame

20- What technique might be used to enable a tight-fitting inner sleeve to be inserted
into a tubular repair?

the inner tube can be chilled with dry ice

AIRFRAME 13
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING JEPPESEN #6

1- What is the function of the vortex generator?

to delay or prevent separation of the boundary layer

2- What are the 3 axes of an airplane?

lateral, vertical and longitudinal

3- What are the three primary flight controls of an aircraft?

ailerons, elevator and rudder

4- Name several secondary flight controls and describe their general purpose.

balance tabs, anti-servo tabs, and spring tabs. their function is move the
controls and trim the aircraft .

5- Name several types of auxiliary flight controls and describe their general purpose.

leading and trailing edges flaps, slats slots are use as high-lift device at
low speed

6- What is a servo trim tab?

it is an auxiliary control designed to create aerodynamic force to assist in

moving the control surfaces

7- What is a spring tab?

it is an auxiliary control designed to move primary control at hight-speed

8- What is a balance trim tab?

it is an auxiliary control designed to create aerodynamic force to move

control surface

9- What are the four most common types of high lift devices?

leading and trailing edge flap, slat and slots

10- Describe some of the tools used to check control surface travel.

universal propeller protractor, special control surface protractor

AIRFRAME 14
11- Name three mechanical methods by which flight control systems may be actuated.

cables, push-pull rod, and torque tube

12-What is a fairlead?

it is a device to prevent cable from rubbing on the aircraft structure

13- What are the most likely places for a control cable to wear or break?

around pulleys or trough fairlead

14- What information is required before a cable rigging chart can be used?

the ambient temperature and size of the cable

15- What is the function of a cable tension regulator?

It automatically adjust the cable tension to compensate for expansion and

contraction in the aircraft structure

16- Describe the function of a rotorcraft collective pitch control.

to change it is pitch angle by the same amount thus increasing or

decreasing the lift produce by the rotor

17- Describe the function of a rotorcraft cyclic pitch control.

to tilt the main rotor disc by changing the pitch angle of each rotor blade
during cycle of rotation

18- What mechanism is most commonly used to compensate for the torque produced by
the main rotor of a helicopter?

the tail rotor

19- How is the amount of thrust produced by the tail rotor controlled?

by moving the foot pedals

20- Why should control surfaces be locked when an aircraft is parked?

to prevent damage from the wind

AIRFRAME 15
AIRCRAFT INSPECTION JEPPESEN # 7

1- What regulation specifies operating conditions that make 100 hour inspections
mandatory?

part 91

2- An A&P may sign off and approve the return to service following what type of
inspection?

100 hours inspection

3- When may a mechanic perform an annual and return aircraft to service?

when they hold an I A

4- What is the time frame for annual inspections?

12 calendar months

5- When can any checklist be used as a guide for a 100 hour?

when it meets the requirement according to part 43 appendix D

6- May an aircraft that is overdue on an annual be flown to the inspection place?

Yes . with a special flight permit.

7- In order for an individual to conduct a 100 hour inspection and approve for return to
service, what certificate must they have?

A&P certificate

8- FAR 91.409 requires a 100 hour inspection. Is it legal to fly beyond the requirement,
and for how long?

yes, for 10 hours

9- What operations require aircraft operating under part 91 to undergo a 100 hour?

operating for flight instruction or hire

10- An aircraft under a progressive inspection program is operated for compensation or

hire. Does it need a 100 hour inspection?

NO

AIRFRAME 16
11- Who is authorized to supervise a progressive?

an A&P mechanic holding an Inspection Authorization

12- When a progressive is discontinued, at what time is the next 100 hour due?

100 hour after the last progressive inspection

13- An owner desires to use a progressive inspection program. To whom does the owner
apply?

to the FAA FSDO Flight standards district office

14- Is an engine run-up required as part of a 100-hour on a turbine aircraft?

Yes

15- Where might you locate a sample of the recommended statement for recording the
approval for return to service following an annual or 100 hour?

part 43

16- Where would you look to find approved info for work on an aircraft electrical
system?

in the manufacturer maintenance manual

17- What are the limitations on mechanics regarding propellers?

Mechanics may not perform major repair and alteration in propellers

18- After equipment is installed in accordance with an STC, who must approve the
return to service?

An A&P mechanic with an IA

19- Where would you locate the required items that must be recorded in the aircraft
maintenance records following completion of a 100 hour inspection?

part 43

20- An airplane is flown 4 hours over the 100-hour inspection limit to reach your
maintenance facility. How do you account for those 4 hours?

the 4 hours are included on the next 100 hours inspection

AIRFRAME 17
AIRCRAFT LANDING GEAR JEPPESEN #8

1- What is the purpose of a torque link on an oleo strut?

to keep the wheel alignment and prevent the piston from coming out of the
cylinder

2- A landing gear shock strut should be inflated with what gas?

with nitrogen

3- What conditions should a mechanic look for during a regular inspection of the
exposed piston section of a landing gear?

cleanliness, evidence of damage, and proper extensión

4- What prevents air from leaking out between the two halves of a split wheel assembly?

an O-ring

5- Why are fusible plugs installed on some aircraft wheels?

to release the pressure

6- What safety precaution must be taken when removing a wheel from an axle or when
disassembling a wheel?

Make sure that the tire is completely deflated before removing or

disassembling the wheel

7- What are the visible signs of excessive heating on a wheel bearing?

discoloration

8- How are the pilot's nose wheel steering commands transmitted to the steering control
unit of a large aircraft?

by steering signal transmitted hydraulically

9- How is the nose wheel steering mechanism usually actuated on a small aircraft?

by mechanical linkage connected to the rudder pedal

10- what is the name of the unit that prevents a nose wheel from vibrating or oscillating

shimmy damper

AIRFRAME 18
11- What are the most common sources of power used to extend and retract landing gear?

hydraulic pressure an electric motor

12- At what times should a gear retraction check be performed?

during annual and hard landing inspection

13- What mechanism ensures that a nose wheel is not turned as it retracts into its wheel
well?

an external track

14- Name several types of brake actuating systems

independent master cylinder, boosted braked and power controlled brakes

15- What is the function of an anti-skid system?

To allow maximum braking without allowing the wheel to skid or lock

16- What is the purpose of a debooster?

To reduce hydraulic high pressure

17- Describe two methods of bleeding brakes

use the bleeder valve to force fluid back towards the master cylinder.
The master cylinder used for forcing fluid from the reservoir to the brakes

18- Before a brake system can be inspected for leaks, what action must be accomplished?

pressure must be applied to the system

19- What maintenance function has the greatest impact on tire service life?

The tires are properly inflated

20- What effect does under inflation have on aircraft tires?

internal heat damage and more wear in the shoulder than in the center

AIRFRAME 19
HYDRAULIC AND PNEAUMATIC POWER SYSTEMS JEPPESEN #9

1- What materials form the bases of the three types of hydraulic fluids?

vegetable, mineral, and phosphate-ester

2- What colors denote mineral based and phosphate-ester hydraulic fluids?

mineral base is red) and phosphate-ester is purple

3- What are the results of exposing lacquers, oil-based paint, plastic resins, and vinyl
compounds to phosphate-ester-based hydraulic fluid?

the material will be damage

4- Name several sources used to develop hydraulic pressure.

hand pumps, engine-driven pump, and electric driven pump

5- What would cause the bypass valve in a hydraulic filter to open and allow unfiltered
fluid to circulate in the system?

A clogged filter element

6- Describe several methods of pressurizing a hydraulic reservoir.

engine bleed air, and variable-displacement hydraulic pumps.

7- What feature prevents engine damage if an engine-driven hydraulic pump seizes or is

overloaded?

a shear section in the pump driveshaft will break, disconnecting the pump
from the engine

8- Describe the purpose of a pressure relief valve.

to limit the maximum pressure produced by the pump

9- Engine-driven pumps deliver the output fluid in what two forms?

Constant and variable volume

10- Describe the operation of a gear-type pump

Two meshed gears, driven by a power source, rotate in a housing. Inlet

fluid is carried around the outside of the gears and delivered to the outlet
side as the gears rotate.

AIRFRAME 20
11- Describe the purpose of a pressure regulator?

to regulate the output of the pump to maintain system pressure

12- What is the device that is used in some systems to supplement the pump output
during periods of high demand?

an accumulator

13- What are the three types of accumulators?

piston, diaphragm and bladder

14- What safety precautions must be taken prior to disasembling an accumulator?

release all the air

15- When a hydraulic unit is replaced, what precautions should be taken to avoid
contamination of the system?

all lines must be capped

16- What types of components or systems are pneumatically operated in some aircraft?

landing gears, brakes, flaps and other mechanical actuators

17- Name several sources of pneumatic power.

storage bottle, engine bleed air, and vane type pump

18- What happens to excess pressure in a pneumatic system?

a relief valve vent it overboard

19- What is the function of a restrictor in a pneumatic system?

to control the rate of flow

20- What are the reasons for periodically purging a pneumatic system

to remove moisture and contaminants

AIRFRAME 21
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL SYSTEMS JEPPESEN #10

1- Is there any special requirement as to the type of oxygen used in an aircraft system,
and if so, what is it?

only aviators breathing oxygen should be used

2- What should be used to purge an oxygen system of moisture?

oxygen and dry air

3- What action must be taken when an oxygen system has been open to the atmosphere?

the system must be purge of any moisture

4- Describe the safety precautions that should be observed when servicing oxygen
systems

Avoid contact with petroleum-based oil and keep everything clean

5- What is a Roots blower?

it is an engine driven compressor

6- Name two different types of independent cabin air compressors

positive displacement and centrifugal

7- What is the source of pressurization air in most jet aircraft?

engine bleed air

8- What device provides the principle means of controlling cabin pressure?

an outflow valve

9- What unit regulates the position of an outflow valve

the cabin pressure controller

10- Name several methods used on reciprocating-engine aircraft for providing heated
cabin air

Exhaust shroud heat exchangers, combustion heaters and electric heaters

AIRFRAME 22
11- What is the function of the ventilating air in a combustion heater?

to transport heat into the cabin and prevent exhaust gases from entering in
the cabin

12- What are the sources of ventilating air in a combustion heater?

ram air in flight and a blower on the ground

13- Name the basic components of an air cycle cooling system

Compressor, heat exchangers, expansion turbine, and valves

14- Name the principle components of a vapor cycle system

A compressor, condenser, expansion valve, and an evaporator

15- In what significant way is a vapor cycle cooling system different from air cycle?

a vapor cycle use refrigerant liquid

16- Why is oil added to the refrigerant in a vapor cycle system?

to lubricate the compressor

17- Describe the operating principle of a continuous-flow oxygen system?

High-pressure oxygen flows from the cylinder to a pressure regulator and

then to the mask whenever the system is turned on.

18- Describe the operating principle of a pressure-demand oxygen system?

To allow the flow oxygen from the cylinder to the regulator and then to the
mask only when the user inhales.

19- Describe the basic operating principles that allow air-cycle system to produce cool air.

Hot engine bleed air is cooled in the primary heat exchanger, compressed,
then cooled again in the secondary heat exchanger. This air is expanded
across the turbine .

20- Describe the basic operating principles of a water separator.

Cool, moist air is swirled so that water droplets are separated by

centrifugal force, captured by sock, and drained.

AIRFRAME 23
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS JEPPESEN #11

1- A static check may be performed on a manifold pressure gauge by using what piece of
information?

current atmospheric pressure

2- What aircraft instrument can be used to check a manifold pressure gauge for proper
indication?

an altimeter

3- Name several of the indication errors that may be found in altimeters

scale errors, friction and installation

4- What is the signal source in an electrical resistance type temperature indicating

system?

sensing element

5- What type of temperature sensing system is normally used to measure a turbine

engine exhaust gas temperature?

a thermocouple

6- What operating parameter is indicated by a tachometer?

engine RPM

7- What is the name of the effect that causes a gyro to respond to an applied force at a
point 90 degrees further in the direction of rotation?

a gyroscopic procession

8- What aircraft instruments are connected to the pitot-static system?

the altimeter, vertical speed indicator,airspeed and mach meter

9- What are the three sources of power used to drive a gyroscopic turn indicator?

air from a vacuum , pressure and electric motor

10- What are two items that should be considered during inspection of a magnetic
compass?

the fluid must be clear and the compass must be properly calibrate

AIRFRAME 24
11- In what way do magnetic fields generated by electrical equipment and steel parts in
the airplane affect a magnetic compass?

it deflect the compass from correct alignment with the earth magnetic
field

12- Describe the basic operating concept of a synchro-type remote indicating system

it sense electrical signals to a receiver inside the instrument

13- Why should you avoid cleaning obstructions from the sensing holes in a pitot-static
system with a tool?

the holes are aerodynamic critical

14- After components in a pitot-static system have been replaced, what tests or
inspections are required?

A leak test

15- What quantity is measured by a capacitance type fuel quantity indicating system?

the mass of the fuel

16- Who is authorized to apply the range markings to an instrument dial face?

the manufacture

17- What is the purpose of a slippage mark on an instrument glass?

to indicate if the glass has moved

18- What references should be consulted to determine the proper range markings for
aircraft instruments?

the aircraft maintenance manual, flight manual and type certificate data
sheet

19- What is the meaning of a yellow arc on an aircraft instrument?

caution

20- What is the reason for swinging a compass and how is it accomplished?

to compensate for deviation and is accomplished by adjusting the

compensating magnet.

AIRFRAME 25
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION SYSTEM JEPPESEN #12

1- What are the basic components of a radio communication system?

A microphone, transmitter, transmitting and receiving antennas, receiver,

and speaker

2- What frequency range is used by most modern voice communications systems?

VHF band 118.o to 137.975 MHz

3- What does the term ADF stand for

Auxiliary direction finder

4- What is the function of VOR equipment?

navegation

5- Name the components of a typical airborne VOR system

a receiver, antenna, frequency selector and visual display indicator

6- At what interval must an ATC transponder system be certified?

every 24 calendar months

7- Why are two antennas usually required for an ILS system?

because localizer and glideslope signals are transmitted on different

frequencies

8- What information does the glideslope beam provide?

vertical guidance

9- What is the power source for an ELT

an internal battery

10- Describe one method of monitoring the signal output during an ELT test

tune the communication receiver to 121.5

AIRFRAME 26
11- How would you determine if the batteries in an ELT are due for recharge or
replacement?

by checking the expiration date for recharge and maintenance record

12- At what times is a test of an installed ELT permitted?

during the first 5 minutes after the hour and no more than 3 sweeps

13- Where on the aircraft would you expect to find a DME antenna?

at the bottom of the fuselage

14- Describe the shape and location of a transponder antenna

like a short blade at the bottom of the fuselage

15- Name the basic components of an autopilot system

Gyros, servos, a controller, and computer

16- What are the sensing elements of an autopilot system?

Attitude, directional, and turning gyros,

17- What is the function of the servos in the autopilot system?

to actuate flight control

18- What is the purpose of a bonding jumper from a radio shock mount to the airframe?

To provide a low impedance ground return

19- What does DME stand for?

Distance Measuring Equipment

AIRFRAME 27
AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEM JEPPESEN #13

1- Why do some aircraft have fuel jettison systems?

to allow the crew to reduce the weigh of the aircraft down

2- Is there any reason why a fuel jettison system might be required on a small
aircraft?

yes if the maximum takeoff weigh exceeds the maximum allowable

landing weight

3- What are some other names for a single-point fueling system?

Underwing.

4- Why do multi-engine airplanes have fuel crossfeed systems?

To allow any engine to draw fuel from any tank

5- The fuel selector valve for a multi-engine aircraft must have at least 3 positions,
what are they?

on- off and crossfeed

6- Why do some tanks have internal baffles?

to resist fuel surging

7- What are the two types of fuel cells?

integral and bladder

8- What does "wet-wing" mean?

a sealed portion of the aircraft wing structure form the fuel tank

9- How is the weight of the fuel supported when the bladder type fuel cells are used?

by the aircraft structure

10- Why do turbine engine aircraft have fuel temp indicating systems?

to indicated if the fuel is cold enough to form ice crystals

AIRFRAME 28
11- Name four types of fuel quantity gauges currently in use

sight gauge, mechanical, electric and electronic

12- Why are electronic (capacitance type) fuel quantity indicating systems more
accurate than other types?

They measure the mass of the fuel instead of the volume

13- What are drip gauges and sight gauges?

underwing, bayonet-type fuel gauges

14- What is the purpose of an in-transit light associated with an electrically operated
fuel tank shutoff valve?

to indicate that the valve is in motion between one position and another

15- For what reason is a fuel jettison system usually divided into two separate,
independent systems?

to help maintain lateral stability

16- What procedures should be followed regarding gaskets and seals when replacing
fuel system components?

old gasket and seals should be replace

17- Is it possible for a fuel system to develop a leak that has no visible evidence such
as a stain or spot, and if so, how?

yes, internals component such as a valve can develop a leak

18- How is a fuel tank checked for leaks following a patch or welded repair?

with a solution of soap and water

19- Name some advantages of a single point fueling system

reduce fueling time, chances of contamination and fire, and damage to

the aircraft skin

20- Why should you wait for a period of time after fueling an aircraft before checking
the fuel sumps?

to allow time for the water and contaminants to settle to the drain point

AIRFRAME 29
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS JEPPESEN #14

1- What could cause an AC motor to run too fast?

Excessive applied voltage

2- what tool is use to check a motor or generator armature for shorts and opens under
load conditions

A growler

3- When using a growler, what indication will occur when a short exists between an
armature segment?

the blade will begin to vibrate and chatter

4- How is the output voltage of an alternator controlled?

by varying the field current that excites the alternator

5- What instruments are used to monitor electrical system loads?

ammeters and voltmeters

6- How would you identify a specific wire in a wire bundle?

by the code mark on the wire

7- What tool would you use to determine the size of an unmarked wire?

a wire gauge

8- What color are the navigation lights on the wingtips?

the left wing tip is red and right is green

9-Name several types of electrical devices that would be considered intermittent loads
on an electrical system.

landing gears, cowl and wing flap motor, radio transmitters

10- Why would it be necessary to analyze an electrical system before increasing the load
on the system?

To determine the generator capacity, wire size, and protective device

capacity will not be exceeded.

AIRFRAME 30
11- What factors should be considered when determining the wire size for a particular
application?

The system voltage . Permissible voltage drop. Current to be carried.

12-What is the relationship between the inside diameter of a conduit and the outside
diameter of the wire bundle inside it?

the conduit must be 25 % larger than the wire bundle

13- What is the maximum number of terminal lugs that can be placed on a single
terminal strip stud?

four

14- What is the proper length for a bonded jumper?

as short as practical, but long enough to allow free movement of

component

15- Under what conditions must a switch be derated from its nominal rating?

When used inductive circuits with high in-rush current, and with DC
motors.

16- At what point do electric motors draw the most current?

when starting

17- Circuit breakers are designed to open before what condition occurs?

before the wire emits smoke

18- At what point in a circuit should the protective device be located?

close to the power source

19- What type of circuit breaker may not be used in an aircraft?

an automatic reseting type

20- What part of an aircraft is identified by a white navigation light?

the tail

AIRFRAME 31
21- What could cause an AC electric motor to run too slowly?

low applied voltage

22- What should be done when making bonding or grounding connections between
dissimilar materials?

use a suitable washer to prevent corrosion to the meterial

23- Prior to making a continuity check, what must be done to electrical circuit?

the power must be turned off

AIRFRAME 32
POSITION AND WARNING SYSTEMS JEPPESEN #15

1- What unit in an anti-skid system generates the anti-skid warning signal?

the control unit

2- How is a pilot alerted that an anti-skid system has automatically returned to a

manual brake system?

by a warning light

3- What is the significance of an anti-skid warning?

the system is off

4- By what usual means does the stall warning system in a small aircraft alert the
pilot of an impending stall?

by a warning light

5- What devices are used to provide warnings for a retractable landing gear system?

red warning light or lights

6- How can a pilot determine that the landing gear is down and locked?

by a green light

7- Name at least two conditions that would activate a takeoff configuration warning
system in a jet transport aircraft.

Speed brake not stowed and incorrect stabilizer position

8- What landing gear positions must be indicated by regulations?

down and lock and up and lock

9- Under what conditions will a landing gear aural warning sound?

When the throttle lever is retarted and any landing gears are not down
and lock

10- How does a takeoff configuration warning differ from a landing gear warning?

Takeoff warnings are usually an intermittent horns while gear warnings

are steady.

AIRFRAME 33
11- What is the function of a Mach airspeed warning system?

To alert the pilot that the never-exceed airspeed limit has been reached

12- What systems are commonly used to activate the landing gear warning system?

the throttles levers and wing flaps

13- Why do airplanes with bleed air anti-icing of the wing leading edge have an anti-
ice overheat light(s)?

To indicate an over-temperature condition

14- What warning system may be required when a nickel-cadmium battery is

installed in an aircraft?

a better temperature monitoring system

15- At what time would a check of a landing gear warning system normally be made?

during a landing gear retraction test

16- What is the purpose of an annunciator system?

to show by warning lights any problem to the crew

17- If an aircraft with retractable landing gear has only one green light to indicate the
gear is down and locked, how will the switches be connected, in series or in parallel?

in series

18- Where would you locate the procedures for checking and adjusting the landing
gear switches?

In the aircraft manufacturer's manual.

19- What is the usual means for alerting the crew of a jet transport that the cabin
doors are not properly closed?

A warning light

20- Why are transport category aircraft equipped with a master caution and warning
system?

To alert the crew that a malfunction has occurred and corrective action
may be required.

AIRFRAME 34
ICE AND RAIN CONTROL SYSTEMS JEPPESEN #16

1- What controls the temperature in a thermal anti-icing system?

hot and cold air mixed

2- What are the sources of heat for thermal anti-icing systems?

bleed air, exhaust heat exchangers and combustion heaters

3- What prevents overheating of the leading edges of a thermal anti-ice system

operated by engine bleed air?

Overheat sensors signal the anti-icing valves to close and shut off the hot
air.

4- What happens to the hot air used by a thermal anti-ice system after it has heated
the surface?

the air is dump overboard

5- Why is it necessary to provide overheat protection for anti-icing systems that use
turbine engine bleed air?

to prevent damage the aircraft structure

6- What are the effects of arcing on an electrically heated windshield?

to find overheating and windshield damage

7- Can the operation of an electrically heated pitot-tube be checked with the

aircraft's ammeter, and if so, how?

Yes, turn the pitot heater on and observe the deflection of the ammeter
needle

8- Describe several potential problems associated with electrically heated

windshields
arcing, delamination, scratches, and discoloration

9- Why do some pneumatic deicer boot systems have and electrically operated
timer?

to automatic cycle the boost, provide rest time, then recycle the boost

10- What are the two common methods of inflating deicer boots?

engine bleed air and exhaust from an engine driven pump

AIRFRAME 35
11- What procedure is used to hold deicer boots flat with the airfoil surface during
flight?

suction is applied to the boots

12- Why do some deicer boot systems incorporate an oil separator?

to prevent damage to the rubber by the oil

13- What methods are used to attach a deicer boot to the leading edges of the wing
and tail surfaces?

adhesive, fairing strips and screws

14- What important step should be taken prior to making a cold-patch repair to a
deicer

Consult the manufacturer's service manual and follow the repair

instructions explicitly.

15- Describe the methods commonly used to remove rain from a windshield

windshield wipers, blast of air or rain repellent

16- What power sources are used to operate windshield wipers?

electricity and hydraulic pressure

17- Name two problems associated with in-flight operation of aircraft windshield
wipers

Insufficient blade pressure caused by aerodynamic forces and failure to

oscillate fast enough

18- Describe the operation of a pneumatic rain removal system

high velocity air blast prevent the rain to touch the windshield

19- What are the effects of spraying rain repellant on a dry windshield?

reduce visibility, and it is hard to remove when dry

20- Where would you find information on the acceptable limits of windshield
delamination?

in the manufacture maintenance manual.

AIRFRAME 36
FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS JEPPESEN # 17

1- briefly describe the components of a thermal switch fire detection system

Temperature sensitive switches that complete a circuit at a specific

temperature and trigger a warning.

2- Are thermal switches wired in series or in parallel with each other

In Parallel

3- How are the detector units in double-loop fenwal system wired

In parallel between two complete loops of wire.

4- in what way is a the thermocouple fire warning system different from a thermal
switch system

thermocouple systems are sensitive to the rate of temperature change

5- briefly describe the components of a kidde continuous loop fire detection system

A kidde system has an Inconel tube with two wires imbedded in a

ceramic core . And the resistance changes with the temperature.

6- Briefly describe the components and operation of a Lindberg fire detection system

A stainless steel tube contains an inert gas and a discrete material.When

the tube heats up, some gas is released, which activates a pressure
switch.

7- describe the process or mechanism by which a photoelectric smoke detector

generates a warning of a possible fire

the photoelectric cell conduct electricity and trigger the alarm

8- How can the operation of a photoelectric smoke detector be tested

By actuating a test switch.

9- name two types of smoke detection system used in aircraft

photoelectric and ionization type

10- what are the usual locations where a carbon monoxide detector would be
installed

In the cabin

AIRFRAME 37
11- How does a carbon monoxide detector indicate the presence of this deadly gas

The tan spot on the detector change to gray or black

12- What are the possible effects of kinks and sharp bends in the sensing elements of
a fire warning system

False fire warning by a short circuit

13- How is a Freon container checked for proper pressure

By a gauge pressure reading based on the ambient tempeture

14- Name two types of fire extinguishing system

Conventional and high rate discharge

15- Name the extinguishing agent most commonly used by conventional fire
extinguishing

Carbon dioxide

16- Name the extinguishing agent most commonly used by high rate discharge fire
extinguishing system

halon 1301

17- How are Freon bottles protected from excessively high temperatures and how
can you tell that this has occurred

Protected with a thermal fuse (or blowout disk). This blows out a red
indicator disk when the bottle temperature exceed limit.

18- What condition is indicated if the yellow disk is missing in a fire extinguishing
system

That the system has been discharge.

19-describe the mechanism by which a Freon bottle is discharge

By and electrical signal, fires an explosive squib

20- How is the service life of a discharge cartridge calculated

From the date stamped by the manufacture

AIRFRAME 38
AIRFRAME 39