FT 01 Code C Solutions Phase 03 2

26/07/2023 Code-C_Phase-3
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456
MM : 720 Fortnightly Test for RM(P3)-2324_Test-01C Time : 200 Min.
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. (1) 19. (1)
2. (3) 20. (4)
3. (2) 21. (2)
4. (2) 22. (1)
5. (1) 23. (4)
6. (3) 24. (3)
7. (4) 25. (2)
8. (3) 26. (1)
9. (1) 27. (4)
10. (3) 28. (3)
11. (1) 29. (2)
12. (2) 30. (3)
13. (3) 31. (3)
14. (4) 32. (3)
15. (3) 33. (3)
16. (3) 34. (3)
17. (2) 35. (2)
18. (4)
SECTION-B
36. (1) 44. (3)
37. (2) 45. (1)
38. (1) 46. (2)
39. (1) 47. (4)
40. (2) 48. (4)
41. (1) 49. (2)
42. (1) 50. (2)
43. (1)
1
Fortnightly Test for RM(P3)-2324_Test-01C
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. (4) 69. (4)
52. (1) 70. (2)
53. (4) 71. (3)
54. (4) 72. (2)
55. (2) 73. (2)
56. (3) 74. (3)
57. (2) 75. (4)
58. (1) 76. (1)
59. (2) 77. (3)
60. (3) 78. (2)
61. (2) 79. (4)
62. (3) 80. (2)
63. (3) 81. (4)
64. (1) 82. (4)
65. (3) 83. (1)
66. (2) 84. (3)
67. (4) 85. (1)
68. (2)
SECTION-B
86. (2) 94. (3)
87. (3) 95. (2)
88. (2) 96. (4)
89. (3) 97. (2)
90. (1) 98. (1)
91. (2) 99. (2)
92. (4) 100. (1)
93. (2)
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. (2) 119. (4)
102. (4) 120. (3)
103. (3) 121. (4)
2
104. (3) 122. (4)
105. (3) 123. (2)
106. (4) 124. (4)
107. (2) 125. (2)
108. (2) 126. (1)
109. (1) 127. (1)
110. (2) 128. (1)
111. (2) 129. (4)
112. (1) 130. (1)
113. (3) 131. (2)
114. (3) 132. (4)
115. (1) 133. (3)
116. (1) 134. (1)
117. (2) 135. (2)
118. (3)
SECTION-B
136. (4) 144. (3)
137. (2) 145. (1)
138. (2) 146. (4)
139. (1) 147. (2)
140. (2) 148. (3)
141. (2) 149. (2)
142. (2) 150. (3)
143. (3)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. (1) 169. (3)
152. (1) 170. (3)
153. (3) 171. (3)
154. (4) 172. (3)
155. (2) 173. (1)
156. (3) 174. (1)
157. (3) 175. (2)
158. (2) 176. (2)
159. (3) 177. (4)
160. (3) 178. (4)
3
161. (1) 179. (3)
162. (3) 180. (1)
163. (2) 181. (4)
164. (2) 182. (4)
165. (3) 183. (4)
166. (3) 184. (4)
167. (2) 185. (2)
168. (3)
SECTION-B
186. (1) 194. (4)
187. (2) 195. (2)
188. (1) 196. (3)
189. (4) 197. (2)
190. (3) 198. (2)
191. (1) 199. (2)
192. (2) 200. (3)
193. (1)
4
Hints and Solutions
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
(1) Answer : (1)

Solution:
1 parsec = 3.26 ly
(2) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Ratio of strong nuclear force to that of electromagnetic force is about 102 : 1.
(3) Answer : (2)
Hint:
Electron microscope is based upon principle of wave nature of matter.
Solution:
Electron microscope is based upon principle of wave nature of matter.
(4) Answer : (2)

Solution:
th
Sn
S1 : S3 : S6 = (2 × 1 – 1) : (2 × 3 – 1) : (2 × 6 – 1)
= 1 : 5 : 11
(5) Answer : (1)
Solution:
Scattering of light
(6) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Light year is a unit of length.
(7) Answer : (4)

Hint:
Use principle of homogenity.
Solution:
[v] = [a] [t 2 ]
–1
LT
–3
⇒ [a] = 2
= LT
T
⇒ [b] = LT and [c] = [v] = [LT– 1 ]

–3 –2
LT LT 4
0 1 –
Now –1
=[M L T ]
LT
(8) Answer : (3)

Solution:
S.I units of solid angle is steradian.
(9) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Let
Rounding off to two significant digit
Y = 1.4 m

So, result should be 1.4 m ± 0.2 m
(10) Answer : (3)

Solution:
5
= 3 × 3% = 9%
(11) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Absolute error is 0.01
(12) Answer : (2)

Solution:
According to principle of homogeneity
(13) Answer : (3)

Solution:
v = sa db λc
[LT–1 ] = [MT–2 ]a [ML–3 ]b [L]c
(14) Answer : (4)

Solution:
nu = constant ⇒ .
(15) Answer : (3)

Solution:
[Bt] = [M0 L0 T0 ]
[B] × T = 1
[B] = [T–1 ]
[A] = [ML2 T–3 A–2 ]

(16) Answer : (3)
Solution:

(17) Answer : (2)

Solution:
∴ (a ± Δa) = (3.6 ± 0.2) m

(18) Answer : (4)
Solution:
[Q] = [It] = [AT]
(19) Answer : (1)
Solution:
[a] = [v] = [LT–1 ]
[b] = [LT–2 ]
(20) Answer : (4)

Solution:
x = 4t2
⇒ ⇒ v-t graph is straight line.
(21) Answer : (2)

Solution:
v = 2t2 – 2t
= 2t(t – 1)
t=1s
(22) Answer : (1)

Hint:
6
Solution:
So,
= area under vs x graph
At, x = 0,
And at x = 10,
t = area of trapezium
=
= 100 s
(23) Answer : (4)
Solution:
Total displacement
avg Total time
m s
(24) Answer : (3)

Solution:
and
⇒ S= 19.4 m
(25) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Area under v-t graph = Displacement = x – x0
x + 2 = 17.5 ⇒ x = 15.5 m
(26) Answer : (1)

Solution:
(27) Answer : (4)

Solution:
s
(28) Answer : (3)

Solution:

(29) Answer : (2)

Hint:
In the time duration, the particle changes direction of its motion.
Solution:
Displacement =
(30) Answer : (3)

Solution:
7
It will stop at at t = 0 x = 0

at t = 4 x = 8
0=4–t at t = 6, x = 6
⇒t=4s
Distance travelled in 6 second = 8 + 2 = 10 m
(31) Answer : (3)

Solution:
v = t2 + 2t + 2

m
(32) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Total distance
vav =
Total time
vav = and v1= = 10 ms–1
⇒ Vav = 10 ms–1
(33) Answer : (3)

Solution:
= 80 m
(34) Answer : (3)

Solution:
a = kt

(equation of upward parabola)
(35) Answer : (2)

Solution:
For velocity proportional to time, distance-time graph is a parabola. For a constant velocity, distance-time
graph is a straight line.
SECTION-B
(36) Answer : (1)

Hint:
Initially body accelerate, speed will increase and then there will be negative acceleration so speed start to
decrease.
Solution:
Initially body accelerate, speed will increase and then there will be negative acceleration so speed start to
decrease.
(37) Answer : (2)

Solution:
The two zeroes at the end are considered to be significant.
(38) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Velocity is a physical quantity which has unit as well as dimension.
(39) Answer : (1)
Solution:

8

m
(40) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Velocity = slope of x – t graph = tan(30°)
(41) Answer : (1)

Hint:
vmax =
Solution:
vmax =
= 12 m/s
(42) Answer : (1)

Solution:
T = t1 + t2
Step-1
∴T=3+7
= 10 s
(43) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Between O to A, is positive hence velocity is positive, but the slope of curve that is is decreasing hence
velocity is decreasing which means acceleration is negative.
(44) Answer : (3)

Solution:
The path followed by the particle as observed by the person standing on trolley would be straight line.
(45) Answer : (1)
Solution:
= 45 m
(46) Answer : (2)

Solution:
From t = 0 to 2, change in velocity =
i.e., velocity of body decreases
⇒
⇒ m/s
After t = 2, change in velocity is positive i.e., velocity increases therefore velocity becomes greater than 7 m/s.
(47) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Both gravitational and electromagnetic forces obey inverse square law.
(48) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Pitch
Least count
No. of divisions on circular scale
(49) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Smaller is least count, greater is precision.
(50) Answer : (2)

Solution:

Hint: Bulk modulus(B) =

9
Sol.: B =
=
= [ML–1 T–2 ]
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
(51) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Brass a homogeneous mixture of copper and zinc.
(52) Answer : (1)

Solution:

Total electrons = (No. of electrons in one ) × (No. of ions)
= (1 × 16 + 4 × 8 + 2) × 0.1 mol
= 50 × 0.1 mol
= 5 mol = 5 × NA
(53) Answer : (4)

Solution:
H2 O and H2 O2 formed by two elements
(54) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Mass percentage of sulphur
(55) Answer : (2)

Solution:
0.00016 = 1.6 × 10–4
(56) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Law of conservation of mass is not valid for nuclear reactions.
(57) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Moles of urea = 400 × 2.5 × 10–3
Number of urea molecules = 400 × 2.5 × 10–3 × 6.02 × 1023
= 6.02 × 10 23
(58) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Mole fraction (solvent) =
= = 0.95
(59) Answer : (2)

Solution:
For minimum molecular mass at least one Sulphur atom should be present.
Mass percentage of an element

⇒ Molecular mass = 400 u
(60) Answer : (3)

Solution:
No. of atoms = No. of molecules × atomicity

Remaining molecules of CO2 =
10
∴ No. of remaining atoms = 59.22 × 1020 × 3

= 1.77 × 10 22
(61) Answer : (2)
Solution:
CH4 + 2 O2 → CO2 +2 H2 O
Moles of
Moles of O2 required = 4
Mass of O2 required = 4 × 32
= 128 g
(62) Answer : (3)

Solution:
M = 0.56
(63) Answer : (3)

Solution:
1 molecule of Na2 CO3 = 3 atoms of ‘O’
No. of ‘O’ atoms in 10.6 g of

(64) Answer : (1)

Solution: Answer (1)
For XY2 ,
∵ 0.1 mole XY2 ≡ 10 g
∴ 1 mole XY2 ≡ 100 g
and X + 2Y = 100 …(i)
For X3 Y2 ,
∵ 0.05 mole X3 Y2 ≡ 9 g
∴ 1 mole X3 Y2 ≡ 180 g
and 3X + 2Y = 180 …(ii)
On solving,
X = 40 and Y = 30
(65) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Hint :
Hydrogen is limiting reagent
Sol. : N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3

Moles of ammonia produced
Mass of ammonia produced
= 45.3 g
(66) Answer : (2)

Solution:
If molecular formula is in simplest whole number ratio then molecular and empirical formula are same.
(67) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Average atomic mass =
(68) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Empirical formula is the simplest whole number ratio of elements present in a compound.
Element % Mole Ratio
C 40
H 6.67
11
O 53.3
Empirical formula is CH2 O
(69) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Number of nucleons present in 1 molecule of D2 O = 20.
Number of nucleons in 0.2 mol D2 O
= 20 × 0.2 × N A = 4.0 NA.
(70) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Answer (2)
Molecular mass = 6 × 12 + 1 × 12 + 6 × 16 = 180 u
(71) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Weight No. of moles No. of molecules
4.4 g CO2 0.1 NA
4.8 g O3 0.1 NA
4 g H2 2 NA
32 g SO2 0.5 NA
(72) Answer : (2)

Solution:

10 kg of CaCO3 produce = 5.6 kg CaO

of CaCO3 will produce
=
(73) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Answer (2)
Mass of metal (M) = 134.5 – 71 = 63.5 g
(74) Answer : (3)

Solution:
3BaCl2 + 2Na3 PO4 → Ba3 (PO4 )2 + 6NaCl
0.3 mole of BaCl2 combines with 0.2 moles of Na3 PO4 . Therefore, BaCl2 is limiting reactant.
0.3 mole of BaCl2 will produce 0.1 mole of Ba3 (PO4 )2 and 0.6 mole of NaCl.
(75) Answer : (4)

Solution:

Number of moles of atoms =

Molar mass =
(76) Answer : (1)

Solution:
For stock solution,
Now, M1 V1 = M2 V2
7. 5 × V1 = 0.1 × 2.5 × 1000
12
V1 = 33.33 ml
(77) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Cane sugar is C12 H12 O11 , Its one molecule has 12 carbon atoms.
(78) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Mass of CH4 = 5 × 16 = 80 g
(79) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Moles of Na+ = 2 × 25 × 0.1 × 10–3 = 5 × 10–3
(80) Answer : (2)

Solution:
In case of Ionic compounds, formula mass is preferred over molecular mass.
Hence, NaCl is the correct answer.
(81) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Mass of urea = 15 g
Mass of water = (100 –15) = 85 g
Molality
Molality = 2.94 m
(82) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Molecular mass = 2 × VD = 2 × 22 = 44

(83) Answer : (1)

Solution:
1 g = 1000 mg
1 nm = 10–9 m = 10–7 cm
1 Å = 10–8 cm = 10–10 cm
(84) Answer : (3)

Solution:
1 L of water weigh 1000 g
Molarity of water =
(85) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Zeros at the right of a number are significant if decimal point is present.
SECTION-B
(86) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Law of constant proportion: “A chemical compound always contains exactly the same proportion of elements
by mass”.
(87) Answer : (3)

Solution:
= 117 + 32
= 149
(88) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Mole of O2 produced =
Mole of KClO3 required = 1 ≡ 122.5 g
% purity of KClO3 = = 61.25.
(89) Answer : (3)

Solution:
One Avogram
13
(90) Answer : (1)

Solution:
For dilution, M1 V1 = M2 V2
0.2 × 500 = 0.1 × V2
∴ V2 = 1000 ml
So, volume of water added = V2 – V1
= 1000 – 500 = 500 ml
(91) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Mass of one atom of He = 4 u
No. of atoms in 200 u of He =
(92) Answer : (4)

Solution:
NH3 is limiting reactant

Number of moles of NO
Number of moles of NO = 1.5
(93) Answer : (2)

Solution:
(94) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Mole fraction is the ratio of moles hence it is unitless.
(95) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Ratio of moles and balancing coefficient is minimum for B
∴ Limiting reagent is B
(96) Answer : (4)
Solution:
Sugar solution and air are homogeneous mixtures.
(97) Answer : (2)

Solution:

(98) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Density
∴ S.I unit of density is kg m–3 .
(99) Answer : (2)

Hint:
Concentration terms involving volume are temperature dependent.
(100)Answer : (1)
Hint:
On dilution, number of moles of solute remains same.
Solution:
Mf M
14
BOTANY
SECTION-A
(101)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Cells in which protein synthesis occurs actively require more ribosomes and ribosomal subunits, so nucleoli in
such cells are more numerous and large.
(102)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Chromatin get stained with certain basic dyes.
(103)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Chromosomes which have centromere very close to its one end, are J-shaped chromosomes.
Chromosomes which have their centromere very close to one end are called acrocentric chromosomes.
(104)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Site for attachment of spindle fibre is a proteinaceous disc in centromere region.
This proteinaceous disc is called kinetochore.
(105)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Flagella of eukaryotes have 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules.
(106)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Centrioles are not found in higher plant cells.
(107)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Cytoskeleton is network of filamentous proteinaceous structures. They help in maintenance of cell shape.
(108)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Eukaryotic cell has 80S ribosome while the prokaryotic cell has 70S ribosome.
(109)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Ribosome were discovered by George Palade.
(110) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Aleuroplasts store proteins.
(111) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Thylakoid stack to form grana.
(112) Answer : (1)
Solution:
Animal cell is devoid of large vacuoles and plastids. Plant cells do not have centrioles.
(113) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Ribosomes present in the matrix of mitochondria are of 70 `S' type.
(114) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Infolding of the inner membrane of mitochondria are called cristae.
(115) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Ribosomes, microbodies, lysosomes do not increase in number by fission.
Mitochondria divide by fission.
(116) Answer : (1)

Solution:
SER is major site of steroidal hormone synthesis
15
(117) Answer : (2)

Solution:
RER is site of protein synthesis and secretion.
(118) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Golgi apparatus is site for synthesis of glycolipids and glycoproteins.
(119) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Peroxisome is a microbody and not part of endomembrane system.
(120)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Lysosomes has acid hydrolases enzymes.
(121)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Tonoplast is semipermeable membrane of vacuole.
(122)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Cell wall of algae is composed of cellulose, galactans and mannans.
(123)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Middle lamella is an amorphous layer of cementing material which holds adjacent cells in a plant tissue.
It is chiefly made up of calcium and magnesium pectate.
(124)Answer : (4)
Solution:
In symplastic pathway, intercellular water movement occurs through these structures.
A number of plasmodesmata or cytoplasmic strands are present in pit through which the cytoplasm of one cell
is in contact with other.
(125)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Na+/K+ pump in cells is an uphill movement of ions which require energy in the form of ATP. Therefore it is an
active transport.
(126)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Singer and Nicolson proposed fluid mosaic model of cell membrane.
(127)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Membrane of RBCs in human being has approximately 52% protein and 40% lipid.
(128)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Cell membrane is mainly composed of lipids and proteins.
(129)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Vacuole is single-membrane bound.
(130)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Secondary constriction is non staining region of SAT chromosomes.
(131)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Microbodies are found in both plant and animal cells.
(132)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Photosynthetic pigments are found in thylakoid membranes.
(133)Answer : (3)
Solution:
The fluid nature of cell membrane helps to perform functions like formation of intercellular junctions,
endocytosis, secretion and cell division
(134)Answer : (1)
Solution:
16
Chromatids of chromosomes are held together at primary constriction. Primary constriction is known as
centromere which holds the two halves of a chromosome.
(135)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Robert Brown discovered nucleus in 1831.
SECTION-B
(136)Answer : (4)
Solution:
A polysome has several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA. Polysome translates mRNA into protein.
(137)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Inclusion bodies are not surrounded by any membrane and lie freely in cytoplasm.
(138)Answer : (2)
Solution:
A bacterial flagellum is composed of filament, hook and basal body
(139)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Mesosomes are extensions of plasma membrane in prokaryotes. Chromatophores contain photosynthetic
pigments.
(140)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Glycocalyx in the form of a loose sheath is called slime layer. This layer protects the cell from loss of water and
nutrients.
(141)Answer : (2)
Solution:
In BGA, chromatophores are pigment containing membranous extensions.
(142)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Glycocalyx is the outermost layer of cell envelope in prokaryotic cell
(143)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Fimbriae present in bacteria are small bristle-like fibres sprouting out of the cell and help in attachment.
(144)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Bacteria those take up the gram stain are Gram positive and the other that do not, are called Gram negative
bacteria. This is due to difference in cell wall composition of different bacteria.
(145)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Cilia is found in eykaryotes.
(146)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Viruses do not hold good the cell theory as they are acellular.
(147)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Based on his studies on plant tissue, Theodore Schwann (a British zoologist) concluded that presence of cell
wall is unique feature of plant cells.
(148)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Robert Hooke studied and discovered the cell from a thin slice of cork but that was the dead cell.
Robert Brown discovered nucleus. Theodore Schwann studied different types of animal cells and reported that
cells had a thin outer layer which is known as plasma membrane.
Anton van Leeuwenhoek was the first person who observed few living cells such as bacteria, protozoa,
spermatozoa and red blood corpuscles under his own designed microscope.
(149)Answer : (2)
Solution:
The basic unit of life in all the organisms, either unicellular or multicellular, is cell.
(150)Answer : (3)
Solution:
17
Mycoplasma are smallest cells.
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
(151)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Fatty tissue also known as adipose tissue contains fat storing cells called adipocytes.
(152)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Connective tissue is the most abundant tissue in the body of complex animals.
(153)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Neuroglial cells protect and support the neurons and are more abundant than them.
(154)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Fibroblasts are cells that produce and secrete fibres. Mast cells secrete inflammatory mediators. Macrophages
are phagocytic cells. Chondrocytes are cells present in cartilage.
(155)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Fibres are absent in blood. Nucleated cells like WBCs are present in blood. Proteins like collagen, elastin,
fibrinogen and albumin are components of connective tissues.
(156)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Blood is a fluid connective tissue. Hormones are carried to the target organ by blood.
(157)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Endocrine glands are ductless glands and their products are called hormones which are secreted directly into
fluid bathing the gland.
(158)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Collagen fibres provide strength to bones.
(159)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Due to storage of fat granules in cytoplasm, nucleus is shifted to peripheral part of cytoplasm in adipocytes.
(160)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Dendrites carry nerve impulses towards the cyton whereas axon carries impulses away from the cyton.
(161)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Intercalated disc joins two muscle fibres in cardiac muscles.
(162)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Sarcolemma is the fine transparent tubular sheath which envelopes the fibres of skeletal muscles.
(163)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Epithelial tissue has
– Little intercellular matirx
– Does not cover all part of body
(164)Answer : (2)
Solution:
In neural tissues, neurons coordinate between different organs through nerve impulses and it reacts or adjusts
the body with respect to change in the environment.
(165)Answer : (3)
Solution:
In columnar epithelium, nuclei are located at the base of cells.
18
(166)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Tight junctions prevent leakage of substances across a tissue.
(167)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed in the dense connective tissues. Orientation of fibres show a
regular or irregular pattern and are called dense regular and dense irregular tissues.
(168)Answer : (3)
Solution:
The columnar epithelium is found in the lining of stomach and intestine and help in secretion and absorption.
(169)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Ligaments connect bone to bone, tendons connect muscle to bone.
(170)Answer : (3)
Solution:
In dense regular connective tissue, the fibroblasts are present in rows between many parallel bundles of
collagen fibres.
(171)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Lamellae is the arrangement of matrix around osteocyte
Each lacuna has a single osteocyte.
(172)Answer : (3)
Solution:
In tissue, a group of similar cells alongwith intercellular substances perform a specific function.
(173)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective tissue.
(174)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Skin has dense irregular connective tissue. Blood and lymph are fluid connective tissues.
(175)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Macrophages have pseudopodia to perform phagocytosis.
(176)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Nissl’s bodies are found in dendrites and cyton of neurons.
(177)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Lymph is a derivative of blood which is fluid connective tissue.
(178)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Adhering junctions perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together. Gap junctions facilitate the cells to
communicate with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells.
(179)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Gap junctions are present at some fusion points of cardiac muscle fibres.
(180)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Squamous epithelium is involved in functions like diffusion across the wall of alveoli.
(181)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Ovum is non-motile. Dust particles move towards nostrils (outside the body).
Main functions of cuboidal epithelium are secretion and absorption.
(182)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Chondrocytes are present in cartilage.
(183)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Answer (4)
19
In skeletal muscles (e.g., Biceps) many nuclei occur at irregular intervals and are peripheral in position. These
fibres are multinucleated responsible for structural syncytium.
(184)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Biceps is a skeletal muscle present in arm.
(185)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Ciliated epithelium – Inner lining of oviduct
Squamous epithelium – Walls of blood vessels
Cuboidal epithelium – PCT of nephron
Compound epithelium – Moist surface of buccal cavity
SECTION-B
(186)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Hydra is an example of multicellular animal.
(187)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Elastic cartilage is present in the tip of nose and outer ear joints.
(188)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Gap junctions make cardiac muscle functionally syncytial.
(189)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Cuboidal or columnar cells form glandular epithelium.
(190)Answer : (3)
Solution:
When two or more organs perform a common function by their physical and/or chemical interaction, they
together form organ system, e.g., digestive system, respiratory system, etc.
(191)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Smooth muscles are ‘involuntary’ as their functioning cannot be directly controlled. We usually are not able to
make it contract merely by thinking about it as we can do with skeletal muscles.
(192)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Goblet cells are unicellular glands which secrete mucus.
(193)Answer : (1)
Hint:
Nissl's granules are clusters of RNA & ribosomes.
Solution:
Nissl's granules are site of protein synthesis located in cell body of neuron/soma & in dendrites (afferent
processes). They are absent in efferent processes also called axons.
(194)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Smooth muscle fibres do not show any light and dark bands. That is why, they are called smooth or unstriped
or non-striated muscles.
(195)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Calcium salts are found in bones and in calcified cartilage.
(196)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Cardiac muscle fibres are cylindrical in shape, striated, uninucleated, involuntary and branched.
(197)Answer : (2)
Hint:
Cartilage is a skeletal connective tissue.
Solution:
Cartilage is found in the body of adult vertebrates but is more abundant in foetus. Cartilage is present in the tip
of nose, outer ear joints, between adjacent bones of the vertebral column, limbs and hands in adults. Most of
the long bones are cartilaginous bones.
(198)Answer : (2)
20
Hint:
Identify the hardest tissue of the body.
Solution:
Bone marrow found in some bones is the site of production of blood cells (erythropoeisis).
(199)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Cells of cartilage (chondrocytes) are enclosed in small cavities within the matrix secreted by them called
lacunae.
(200)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Neurotransmitters may be excitatory or inhibitory.
21
26/07/2023 Code-C_Phase-3
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456
MM : 720 Fortnightly Test for RM(P3)-2324_Test-01C Time : 200 Min.
Topics Covered:
Physics : Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Botany : Cell: The Unit of Life
Zoology : Structural Organisation in Animals–Animal Tissues
General Instructions :
1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. 1 parsec is equal to 3. The scientific principle on which electron

(1) 3.26 ly microscope is based, is
(2) 2.26 ly (1) Bernoulli’s Principle
(3) 1.16 ly (2) Wave nature of matter
(4) 6.26 ly (3) Photoelectric Effect
(4) Superconductivity
2. The ratio of strength of strong nuclear force
to that of electromagnetic force is about 4. A ball is released from a sufficient height.
(1) 104 :1 The distance covered by the ball in 1st, 3rd
(2) 1013 :1 and 6th seconds are in ratio
(1) 1 : 3 : 5
(3) 102 :1
(2) 1 : 5 : 11
(4) 1039 :1
(3) 3 : 5 : 9
(4) 1 : 2 : 3
1
5. Sir C.V. Raman got Nobel prize in physics 12. In the equation
for
(P =
(1) Scattering of light
Pressure, V = Volume, T = Absolute
(2) Dispersion of light
temperature). Then which of the following
(3) Reflection of light does not have the dimensions of energy?
(4) Refraction of light (1)
(2) ab
6. Light year is a unit of
(3) PV
(1) Time
(4) nRT
(2) Mass
(3) Length
13. The speed (v) of ripple on the surface of
(4) Luminous intensity water depends upon the surface tension (s),
density (d) and wavelength (λ). The speed v
7. If the velocity of a moving particle is given by is proportional to
v = at2 + bt + c, where t is time, then the (1) dλs
dimensional formula of is (2)
(1) [M0 LT3 ] (3)

(2) [M0 LT4 ]
(4)
(3) [M0 LT–3 ]
(4) [M0 LT–4 ]
14. A physical quantity is measured and its
value is found to be nu, where n = numerical
8. S.I unit of solid angle is value and u = unit. Then which of the
(1) metre following graph is correct?
(2) ampere (1)
(3) steradian
(4) radian
9. Two quantities are measured as A = 1.0 m ±

0.2 m and B = 2.0 m ± 0.2 m. The correct
value of should be reported as
(2)
(1) 1.4 m ± 0.2 m
(2) 1.4 m ± 0.1 m
(3) 1.41 m ± 0.15 m
(4) 1.4 m ± 0.4 m
10. If the error in the measurement of radius of a

sphere is 3% then the percentage error in (3)
the determination of volume of the sphere
will be
(1) 6%
(2) 8%
(3) 9%
(4) 3%
(4)
11. Time period of a simple pendulum is
measured to be T = (0.8 ± 0.01) s, then
mean absolute error in the measurement is
(1) 0.01 s
(2) 0.02 s
(3) 0.05 s
(4) 0.8 s
2
15. The electric current I in a circuit as a function 21. A particle initially at rest moves along a
of time t is given by , straight line with acceleration given by a = 4t
(where V is voltage). The dimensional – 2 (where a is in m/s2 and t is in s). The
formula of A and B, are respectively particle will be again at rest, at time t =
(1) [ML–2 T3 A2 ], [T] (1) 3 s
(2) 1 s
(2) [M–1 L2 T3 A–2 ], [T–1 ]
(3) 2 s
(3) [ML2 T–3 A–2 ], [T–1 ]
(4) 4 s
(4) [M2 L2 T–2 A–3 ], [T–1 ]
22. Graph of versus x of a particle, where v
16. is speed (in m/s) and x is position moving
Dimension of is (y = kinetic energy and x
along a straight line is as shown in figure.
is displacement) The time taken by particle to move from x = 0
(1) [ML–1 T–2 ] m to x = 10 m is
(2) [ML2 T–2 ]
(3) [ML0 T–2 ]
(4) [ML–2 T–2 ]
17. In an experiment, measurement of the length

of rod are 3.9 m, 3.5 m, 3.5 m and 3.4 m.
What is the length of rod with error limits?
(1) (3.6 ± 0.12) m
(2) (3.6 ± 0.2) m (1) 100 s
(3) (3.6 ± 0.22) m (2) 75 s
(4) (3.6 ± 0.15) m (3) 60 s
(4) 50 s
18. Dimensional formula for electric charge is
(1) [A0 T] 23. Position of a particle varies as
(2) [AT–1 ] where x is in metres and t is
(3) [A–1 T] in seconds, the average velocity of the body
during t = 0 s to t = 1 s is
(4) [AT] (1) 2 m/s
(2) 1 m/s
19. The velocity v of a particle depends upon the (3) 1.5 m/s
time t according to the equation v = a + bt.
The dimensions of a and b are (4) 0.5 m/s
(1) a = [LT–1 ], b = [LT–2 ]
24. A stone is dropped from top of a tower and
(2) a = [LT], b = [LT–1 ]
travels 14.7 m in the last second of its
(3) a = [LT–1 ], b = [L2 T–2 ] journey. The height of tower is
(4) a = [LT–2 ], b = [LT–2 ] (1) 39.2 m
(2) 14.7 m
(3) 19.4 m
20. The graph between velocity and time, if the
(4) 24.5 m
position of the particle varies as x = 4t2 , will
be
(1) Hyperbola
(2) Ellipse
(3) Parabola
(4) Straight line
3
25. An object is initially at x = –2 m. It starts 29. A particle is projected vertically upwards

moving with variable velocity and its v-t from ground with an initial speed of 57 m/s. If
graph is shown in the figure. What is the acceleration due to gravity is taken to be
position of particle at t = 4 s? equal to 10 m/s2 , then the displacement of
the particle in the sixth second of its motion
will be
(1) 2.9 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 1.2 m
(4) 4.2 m
30. The position of a particle is given by

m. The distance travelled by
(1) 10.5 m
particle in first 6 second is
(2) 15.5 m
(1) 8 m
(3) 13.5 m
(2) 6 m
(4) 19.5 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 12 m
26. Two bodies A and B are moving on a same
straight line with velocity-time (v-t) relation
as shown in the graph. The ratio of 31. Velocity of a moving particle varies with time
accelerations of A and B is is given by v = t2 + 2t + 2 (where v is in m/s
and t is in second). If position of the particle
at t = 0 is 2 m then the position of the particle
at t = 2 second will be
(1) 32
m
3
(2) 10 m
(3) 38
m
3
(4) 40
(1) 1 : 3 m
3
(2) 3 : 2
(3)
32. A body covers half of the distance with
(4) speed 10 m/s. The other half of the distance
is travelled in two equal time intervals with
speeds 12 m/s and 8 m/s respectively. The
27. A parrot is flying parallel to a railway track at average speed of the particle during the
speed 18 km/h. A train is also moving on the motion is
track opposite to bird with speed 15 m/s. If
(1) 15 m/s
length of train is 200 m then time taken by
the parrot to cross the train is (2) 12 m/s
(1) 40 s (3) 10 m/s
(2) 20 s (4) 8 m/s
(3) 25 s
(4) 10 s 33. A body starts from rest, with constant
acceleration 8 m/s2 along x-axis. The
distance travelled by the body between t = 4
28. A body has speed V, 2V and 3V in first of s to t = 6 s is
distance S, seconds of distance S and (1) 16 m
(2) 20 m
third of distance S respectively. Its
(3) 80 m
average speed will be
(1) V (4) 216 m
(2) 2 V
(3)
(4)
4
34. The acceleration-time graph of a body is 35. The velocity-time graph of a particle
shown below undergoing straight line motion is as shown
in the figure. The corresponding distance-
time graph can be best represented by
The most probable velocity-time graph of the

body is
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
5
SECTION-B
36. The acceleration time (a–t) graph for a 39. The distance travelled by an object starting
particle starting from rest moving along x- from rest and moving with an acceleration
axis is as shown in figure. The 2
m/s , in the 3rd second is
corresponding position-time (x–t) graph of
the particle may be represented by (1) m
(2) m
(3) m
(4) m
40. The velocity of a particle whose position-

time graph is as shown in the figure is
(1)
(2)
(1) 2 m/s
(2)
(3)
(4)
(3)
41. A particle accelerates from rest with
acceleration of 3 m/s2 and then immediately
retards at the rate of 2 m/s2 and finally
comes to rest after travelling a distance of 60
m along a straight line path. The maximum
speed of the particle during its motion can
be
(4)
(1) 12 m/s
(2) 6 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 24 m/s
42. A ball is projected in vertically upward

direction at time t = 0 from the ground.
37. The number of zero(s) which are significant During its flight, it is at the same height from
in the measured value 0.02300 g is ground at t = 3 s and t = 7 s. The total time of
(1) 4 flight of the ball is
(1) 10 s
(2) 2
(2) 5 s
(3) 3
(3) 12 s
(4) 1
(4) 6 s
38. The quantity having both unit and

dimensions, is
(1) Velocity
(2) Plane angle
(3) Strain
(4) Specific gravity
6
43. A particle has a rectilinear motion and the 46. If a particle is moving in a straight line at t =
figure gives its displacement as a function of 0, x = 0, velocity is 9 ms–1 . The graph shows
time. Which of the following statements are the variation of acceleration (a) with time (t)
true with respect to the motion? of a moving particle, then
(1) In motion between O to A, the velocity

is positive and acceleration is negative
(1) Its velocity can become zero
(2) Between A and B, the velocity and
acceleration are positive (2) Its velocity can never become zero
(3) Between B and C, the velocity is (3) Minimum velocity possible is 5 ms–1
negative and acceleration is negative (4) Minimum velocity possible is 6 ms–1
(4) Between D and E, the velocity is
negative and acceleration is positive
47. Which of the following forces obey inverse
square law?
44. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with
(1) Strong nuclear force
velocity 10 m/s from a trolley moving
horizontally with velocity of 8 m/s. A person (2) Gravitational force
standing on trolley observes its motion. The (3) Electromagnetic force
path followed by ball as observed by the (4) Both (2) and (3)
person standing on trolley is
(1) Parabola
48. Correct relation between pitch and least
(2) Circular
count (LC) of a screw gauge is
(3) Straight line (1) L.C
(4) Ellipical Pitch =
100
(2) Pitch = 100 × LC

45. A stone dropped from the top of the tower (3) 1
touches the ground in 3 s. The height of Pitch =
L.C
tower is (g = 10 m/s2 ) (4) Pitch
(1) 45 m L.C =
Number of divisions on circular scale
(2) 30 m
(3) 40 m 49. The true value of length of a plank is 10.2 m.
(4) 80 m If three instruments P, Q and R are used to
measure the length are giving the readings
as 10.26 m, 10.245 m and 10.01 m
respectively. Which of these instruments is
more precise?
(1) P
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) P, R both
50. The dimensional formula of Bulk Modulus is

(1) [ML–2 T–2 ]
(2) [ML–1 T–2 ]
(3) [M0 L0 T0 ]
(4) [M–1 L–2 T–1 ]
7
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. Which of the following is not a pure 57. Number of urea molecules present in 400
substance? mL of 2.5 M aqueous solution of urea is
(1) Water (1) 3.01 × 1022
(2) Sugar (2) 6.02 × 1023
(3) Aluminium (3) 6.02 × 1026
(4) Brass
(4) 3.01 × 1024
52. Number of electrons in 9.6 g of SO4 2– ions is

58. Mole fraction of solvent in an aqueous
approximately
solution having 10% by mass NaOH is
(1) 5 NA
(1) 0. 95
(2) 3 NA (2) 0.59
(3) 2.5 NA (3) 0.89
(4) 4 NA (4) 0.78
53. Which of the following pair of compounds 59. A compound contains 8% sulphur by mass.
illustrate the law of multiple proportion? Minimum molecular mass of the compound
(1) BaO and Ba(OH)2 is
(1) 200 u
(2) H2 O and H2 S
(2) 400 u
(3) PbO and SnO
(3) 600 u
(4) H2 O and H2 O2
(4) 1200 u
54. Mass percentage of sulphur in SO3 is

60. From 440 mg of CO2 , 1020 molecules of
(Atomic mass of sulphur = 32 u)
CO2 are removed. The total number of
(1) 25%
remaining atoms will be
(2) 60%
(1) 1.51 × 1020
(3) 50%
(2) 2.89 × 1021
(4) 40%
(3) 1.77 × 1022
55. 0.00016 can be written in scientific notation (4) 1.46 × 1023
as
(1) 0.16 × 10–3
61. Mass of oxygen required to completely burn
(2) 1.6 × 10–4 32 g of methane gas is
(3) 16.0 × 10–5 (1) 64 g
(2) 128 g
(4) 160 × 10–6
(3) 256 g
(4) 32 g
56. Law of conservation of mass does not hold
good for
(1) Exothermic reactions 62. 60 ml, 0.4 M NaOH is mixed with 40 ml, 0.8
M NaOH solution. The molarity of resultant
(2) Neutralisation reactions mixture is
(3) Nuclear reactions (1) 0.2 M
(4) Endothermic reactions (2) 0.4 M
(3) 0.56 M
(4) 0.64 M
8
63. How many atoms of oxygen are present in 69. Number of nucleons present in 0.2 mol D2 O
10.6 g of Na2 CO3 ? is
(1) NA (1) 2 NA
(2) 0.2 NA (2) 0.4 NA
(3) 0.3 NA (3) 3.2 NA
(4) 1.5 NA (4) 4.0 NA
64. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to 70. Molecular mass of glucose C6 H12 O6
form two compounds XY2 and X3 Y2 . When molecule is
0.1 mole of XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole (1) 80 g
of X3 Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X (2) 180 u
and Y respectively are
(3) 96 g
(1) 40, 30
(4) 96 u
(2) 60, 40
(3) 20, 30
71. Which among the following has maximum
(4) 30, 20 number of molecules?
(1) 4.4 g CO2
65. In the synthesis of ammonia, 42 g of nitrogen (2) 4.8 g O3
gas is reacted with 8 g of hydrogen gas.
Mass of ammonia produced in the process is (3) 4 g H2
(1) 50 g (4) 32 g SO2
(2) 36.5 g
(3) 45.3 g 72. Mass of lime (CaO) that can be produced by
(4) 48 g heating 10 kg of limestone (CaCO3 ) which is
75% pure, is
66. Which of the following has same molecular (1) 5.6 kg
and empirical formula? (2) 4.2 kg
(1) CH3 COOH (3) 6.5 kg
(2) HCOOH (4) 2.4 kg
(3) C6 H12 O6
(4) H2 O2 73. 134.5 g of metal chloride contain 71 g of
chlorine. The equivalent weight of the metal
is
67. An element E has following three isotopes (1) 63.5 g
100 E : 80%, 99 E : 16%, 101 E : 4%.
(2) 31.75 g
The average atomic mass of element E is
(3) 35.5 g
approximately
(1) 97.9 (4) 13.45 g
(2) 96.8
(3) 98.8 74. If 0.3 mole of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.4 moles
of Na3 PO4 , then maximum number of moles
(4) 99.9
of Ba3 (PO4 )2 and NaCl formed are
respectively
68. An organic compound contains carbon, (1) 0.2 and 1.6
hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis
gave C = 40% and H = 6.67%. The empirical (2) 0.3 and 1.8
formula of the compound would be (3) 0.1 and 0.6
(1) HCO (4) 0.4 and 2.4
(2) H2 CO
(3) HC2 O 75. The mass of 3.01 × 1024 atoms of triatomic
(4) H2 C2 O gas is 80 g. The molecular mass of gas is
(1) 240
(2) 40
(3) 26.67
(4) 48
9
76. The density of a stock solution of 49 % (w/w) 81. If the mass percentage (w/w) of urea in an
H2 SO4 is 1.5 g/ml. The volume of this stock aqueous solution is 15% then the molality of
solution required to prepare 2.5 L of 0.1 M urea in the solution will be (Molar mass of
H2 SO4 solution is urea = 60 g mol–1 )
(1) 33.33 ml (1) 6.25 m
(2) 25.55 ml (2) 1.84 m
(3) 43.23 ml (3) 4.21 m
(4) 38.25 ml (4) 2.94 m
77. A : A mole of sugar contains 6.02 × 1023 82. If vapour density of certain gas is 22, then
number of sugar molecules. possible gas is/are
R : Number of carbon atoms present in 1 (1) N2 O
molecule of cane sugar is 6. (2) CO2
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of (3) CH4
the assertion (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct 83. Which of the following is correct relation?
explanation of the assertion
(1) 1 L = 1000 mL
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(2) 1 g = 10–3 mg
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (3) 1 nm = 10 cm
statements (4) 1 Å = 10–8 m
78. The mass of 5 mole of CH4 is 84. Molarity of pure water in nearly
(1) 50 g (1) 1 M
(2) 80 g (2) 18 M
(3) 150 g (3) 55.5 M
(4) 40 g (4) 10–7 M
79. What will be the number of moles of Na+ 85. Number of significant figures in 98.020500
ions in 25 ml of 0.1 M Na2 CO3 solution? (1) 8
(1) 2.0 × 10–3 (2) 2
(2) 1 × 10–3 (3) 6
(3) 2.5 × 10–3 (4) 4
(4) 5 × 10–3
80. In which of the following, formula mass is

preferred over molecular mass?
(1) H2 O
(2) NaCl
(3) CH4
(4) NH3
SECTION-B
86. Natural and synthetic sample of cupric 87. A water bath has temperature 65°C. Its value
carbonate both contain 51.35% of copper. in °F scale will be
This data is in accordance with (1) 142°F
(1) Law of conservation of mass (2) 165°F
(2) Law of constant proportion (3) 149°F
(3) Law of multiple proportion (4) 155°F
(4) Gay-Lussac’s law
10
88. 200 g of impure sample of KClO3 on heating 94. Which of the following term is unitless?
gives 48 g of O2 . (1) Molarity
2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2 (2) Molality
The percentage purity of KClO3 is (Molar (3) Mole fraction
mass of KClO3 = 122.5 g mol–1 ) (4) Normality
(1) 80.5%
(2) 61.25% 95. Which of the following acts as limiting
reagent if 3 mole of A, 1 mole of B, 2 mole of
(3) 75% C and 3 mole of D react according to given
(4) 68.2% equation?
2A + 4B + 5C + D 4x + y + 3z
89. One AVOGRAM is numerically equal to (1) A
(Given, NA = Avogadro's number) (2) B
(1) NA (3) C
(2) (4) D
(3) 96. Heterogeneous mixture among the following

is/are
(4) (1) Mixture of O2 (g) and N2 (g)
(2) Sugar solution
90. The volume of water required to prepare 0.1 (3) Brass
M H2 SO4 solution from 0.2 M, 500 ml H2 SO4 (4) Mixture of grains and pulses
solution is
(1) 500 ml
97. If 56 g N2 and 64 g CH4 are mix with 80 g
(2) 1000 ml
SO3 gas, then mole fraction of CH4 is
(3) 250 ml
(1) 0.52
(4) 1500 ml
(2) 0.57
(3) 0.42
91. How many atoms are present in 200 u of
(4) 0.24
He?
(1) 25
(2) 50 98. S.I. unit of density is
(1) kg m–3
(3) 100
(4) 50 NA (2) kg L–1
(3) g L–1
92. In the reaction, (4) g dm–3
4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2 O(g)
When 1.5 moles of ammonia and 2 moles of
O2 are made to react to completion 99. Which concentration term is independent of
temperature?
(1) 2 moles of H2 O is produced
(1) Molarity
(2) 2 moles of NO will produced (2) Mole fraction
(3) 1.5 moles of H2 O is produced (3) (w/v)%
(4) 1.5 moles of NO is produced (4) Normality
93. Mole fraction of Na2 CO3 in 5 molal aqueous 100. 500 mL of an aqueous solution contains 2
Na2 CO3 solution is moles of NaOH, if the solution is diluted so
(1) 0.05 that the final volume becomes 2 L, then the
molarity of resultant solution will be
(2) 0.083
(1) 1 M
(3) 0.917
(2) 0.5 M
(4) 0.95
(3) 2 M
(4) 1.5 M
11
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. Read below given statements and select the 106. Which one is not related to centriole?
correct option. (1) Forms spindle fibres
A : Cells actively involved in protein
(2) 9 + 0 arrangement of tubulin fibrils
synthesis have large more numerous
nucleoli. (3) Forms basal body of cilia
B : Outer nuclear envelope is often (4) Found only in higher plant cells
connected with RER.
(1) Only statement A is correct
107. Cytoskeleton
(2) Both statements are correct (1) Helps in protein synthesis
(3) Only statement B is correct (2) Is network of filamentous
(4) Both statements are incorrect proteinaceous structures
(3) Does not help in maintenance of the
102. Select the wrong statement about chromatin shape of the cell
(1) They are nucleoprotein fibres (4) Is made up of lipids only
(2) Named by Flemming
(3) Composed of DNA and histone 108. Cell organelle common to both prokaryotes
proteins and eukaryotes is
(4) Does not get stained with any dye (1) Lysosome
(2) Ribosome
103. Read the following statements and select (3) Chloroplast
the correct option. (4) Mitochondria
Statement A : The ribosomes of
chloroplasts are smaller than the
109. Ribosomes were discovered by
cytoplasmic ribosomes.
Statement B : If the centromere is very close (1) George Palade
to one end of chromosome, it is called (2) Flemming
telocentric chromosome. (3) Strausberger
(1) Both the statements are correct (4) Van Benedin
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement B is incorrect
110. Colourless plastids that store proteins is
(4) Only statement A is incorrect (1) Elaioplasts
(2) Aleuroplasts
104. On a chromosome, site for attachment of (3) Amyloplasts
spindle fibres is
(4) Chromoplasts
(1) Secondary constriction
(2) Primary constriction
111. Thylakoids stack to form
(3) Kinetochore
(1) Stroma lamellae
(4) Satellite
(2) Grana
(3) Matrix
105. Flagella of eukaryotes
(4) Cristae
(1) Have 11 + 0 arrangement of
microtubules in filament
(2) Is devoid of axoneme 112. Presence of which of the following structures
is common in animal and higher plant cells?
(3) Is composed of tubulin protein
(1) Mitochondria
(4) Are not involved in locomotion
(2) Plastids
(3) Centrioles
(4) Large central vacuole
12
113. The matrix of mitochondria contains all, 121. Tonoplast is found in

except (1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(1) RNA molecules (2) Golgi apparatus
(2) Single circular DNA molecule (3) Lysosomes
(3) 80S ribosomes (4) Vacuoles
(4) 70S ribosomes
122. Cell wall of algae is mainly composed of
114. The infoldings of inner membrane of (1) Cellulose and pectin
mitochondria are called
(2) Chitin
(1) Matrix
(3) Hemicellulose and mannans
(2) Cisternae
(4) Cellulose, galactans and mannans
(3) Cristae
(4) Pili
123. In plant cells, middle lamella is chiefly made
up of
115. Division by fission occurs in (1) Cellulose and starch
(1) Mitochondria (2) Calcium pectate
(2) Ribosomes (3) Chitin and suberin
(3) Microbodies (4) Calcium carbonate
(4) Lysosomes
124. The cytoplasm of two neighbouring cells is
116. A major site for synthesis of lipid like connected through
steroidal hormone in animal cell is (1) Primary cell wall
(1) SER (2) Secondary cell wall
(2) RER (3) Middle Lamella
(3) Golgi apparatus (4) Plasmodesmata
(4) Ribosomes
125. Na+/K+ pump in the living cells is an
117. Main function of RER is example of
(1) Storage of starch (1) Energy releasing process
(2) Secretion of proteins (2) Active transport
(3) Respiration (3) Osmosis
(4) Breakdown of fats (4) Passive transport
118. Site for glycoprotein synthesis is 126. Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was
(1) Lysosomes proposed by
(2) Ribosomes (1) Singer and Nicolson
(3) Golgi apparatus (2) Schleiden and Schwann
(4) SER (3) R. Virchow
(4) R. Brown
119. Choose the odd one w.r.t. cell organelle of
endomembrane system. 127. In human beings, the membrane of the
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum RBCs has approximately
(2) Golgi body (1) 52% protein and 40% lipid
(3) Lysosome (2) 40% protein and 52% lipid
(4) Peroxisome (3) 50% protein and 50% lipid
(4) 40% protein and 60% lipid
120. Acid hydrolases enzymes are found in
(1) RER 128. Cell membrane is mainly composed of
(2) Golgi apparatus (1) Lipids and proteins
(3) Lysosomes (2) Proteins and cholesterol
(4) SER (3) Lipids and carbohydrates
(4) Proteins and nucleic acid
13
129. All of the following cell organelles is 133. The fluid nature of cell membrane helps to
surrounded by double membrane, except perform functions like
(1) Chloroplast a. Formation of intercellular junctions
b. Endocytosis
(2) Mitochondria
c. Secretion
(3) Nucleus d. Cell division
(4) Vacuole Select the correct option
(1) b & c only
130. Secondary constriction is (2) All except b
(1) Non staining region of chromosome (3) a, b, c & d
(2) Also called centromere (4) Only a
(3) Found in all chromosomes
(4) Seen in humans only 134. Primary constriction of a chromosome is
known as
(1) Centromere
131. Membrane bound minute vesicles found in
both plant and animal cells that contain (2) Kinetochore
various enzymes is termed as (3) Centrosome
(1) Vacuole (4) Satellite
(2) Microbody
(3) Nucleus 135. Nucleus as a cell organelle was first
(4) Plastid described by
(1) Fleming
132. Stroma of chloroplast possess all except (2) Robert Brown
(1) Thylakoids (3) George Palade
(2) Stroma lamellae (4) Camillo Golgi
(3) Enzymes required for the synthesis of
carbohydrates
(4) Cristae containing photosynthetic
pigments in its lumen
SECTION-B
136. A polyribosome is 139. Mesosomes

(1) Association of larger and smaller (1) Help in replication and respiration
subunit of ribosome process
(2) Chain of ribosomes attached to ER (2) Are found in eukaryotes
(3) Inclusion bodies of prokaryotes (3) Are extensions of slime layer
(4) Several ribosomes attached to a single (4) Contains pigments for photosynthesis
mRNA
140. Glycocalyx in bacteria could be a loose
137. Inclusion bodies sheath called the
(1) Are found only in eukaryotes (1) Capsule
(2) Are the forms of stored reserve material (2) Slime layer
(3) Are double membrane bound (3) Cell wall
(4) Include vacuole with a tonoplast (4) Cell membrane
138. A bacterial flagellum is composed of 141. In cyanobacteria, membranous extensions

(1) Inclusion bodies, filament and hook into cytoplasm which contain pigments are
(2) Filament, hook and basal body (1) Mesosomes
(3) Filament, cell wall and cell membrane (2) Chromatophores
(4) Filament, mesosomes and basal body (3) Chromoplasts
(4) Chloroplasts
14
142. What is the outermost layer of cell envelope 146. Choose odd one out w.r.t. cell theory.
in prokaryotic cell? (1) Proposed by Schleiden and Schwann.
(1) Cell wall (2) All living organisms are composed of
(2) Glycocalyx cells and their products.
(3) Plasma membrane (3) All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
(4) Mesosomes (4) Subcellular entities like viruses also
follow the cell theory.
143. The fimbriae present in bacteria are
(1) Elongated tubular structures of lipids 147. Conclusion that the presence of cell wall is a
unique character of plant cells was given by
(2) Involved in movement of bacteria
(1) Schleiden
(3) Small bristle-like fibres sprouting out of
the cell (2) Schwann
(4) Involved in photosynthesis (3) R. Virchow
(4) R. Brown
144. Basis of Gram staining of bacteria is
in bacteria. Here A is 148. A live cell was first seen and described by
(1) Robert Hooke
(1) Difference in ribosomes
(2) Robert Brown
(2) Unique DNA sequence.
(3) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
(3) Difference in cell wall composition
(4) Theodore Schwann
(4) Presence of plasmid.
149. In all organisms, basic unit of life is

145. Which of the following is not a surface
structure of bacteria? (1) DNA
(1) Cilia (2) Cell
(2) Fimbriae (3) Protoplasm
(3) Pili (4) Cytoplasm
(4) Flagella
150. Mycoplasma are
(1) Eukaryotes
(2) Multicellular
(3) Smallest cells
(4) Devoid of DNA
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. Complete the analogy by selecting the 152. ‘This tissue is the most abundant and widely
correct option. distributed tissue in the body of complex
Chondrocytes : Cartilage : : ___ : Fatty tissue animals’.
(1) Adipocytes Which tissue is here being referred to?
(2) Osteocytes (1) Connective tissue
(3) Osteoblast (2) Epithelial tissue
(4) Oligodendrocytes (3) Nervous tissue
(4) Muscular tissue
15
153. More than half of the neural tissue is made 159. Cells, whose nuclei are present in the
up of peripheral part of cytoplasm are
(1) Neurons (1) Mast cells
(2) Nerve cells (2) Macrophages
(3) Neuroglial cells (3) Adipocytes
(4) Dendrites (4) Goblet cells
154. A type of cell not present in areolar tissue is 160. ‘A’ carry nerve impulses towards the cyton
(1) Mast cell whereas ‘B’ carries impulses away from the
cyton. Identify A and B and select the
(2) Fibroblast
correct option.
(3) Macrophage (A) (B)
(4) Chondrocyte
(1) Axon – Dendrites
(2) Neuroglial cells – Axon
155. All of the following are present in all (3) Dendrites – Axon
connective tissues without exception,
except (4) Dendrites – Nissl’s granules
(1) Nucleated cells
(2) Fibres (1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) Matrix
(4) Proteins (3) (3)
(4) (4)
156. Read the following statements.

i. Blood is a type of connective tissue. 161. Intercalated discs are found in
ii. Blood is a fluid connective tissue. (1) Cardiac muscles
iii. Blood is an epithelial tissue. (2) Smooth muscles
iv. Blood helps in hormone transport.
Select the option with incorrect (3) Non-striated muscles
statement(s). (4) Visceral muscles
(1) i, ii, iv
(2) ii, iii 162. Select the odd one w.r.t. neuron.
(3) iii only (1) Cyton
(4) i only (2) Dendrites
(3) Sarcolemma
157. Choose the odd one w.r.t secretion of (4) Axon
exocrine glands.
(1) Earwax 163. In epithelial tissue
(2) Milk (1) Cells are compactly packed with large
(3) Hormones amounts of intercellular matrix
(4) Digestive enzymes (2) A free surface is present which faces
either a body fluid or the outside
environment
158. Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground
substance rich in (3) The tissue provides a protective
covering or lining for all parts of the
body
(4) The cells are always loosely packed
and with little intercellular matrix
.
164. Which tissue exerts the greatest control over
Fill the blanks A and B with suitable option.
the body’s responsiveness to changing
(1) A-magnesium salts, B-collagen fibres conditions?
(2) A-calcium salts, B-collagen fibres (1) Muscle tissue
(3) A-calcium salts, B-elastin fibres (2) Neural tissue
(4) A-magnesium salts, B-elastin fibres (3) Connective tissue
(4) Specialized connective tissue
16
165. Select the statement which is not true w.r.t. 172. Read the following statements A and B and
simple columnar epithelium. choose the correct option
(1) It is found in the lining of stomach and A. Cells, tissues, organs and organ systems
intestine split up the work in a way that exhibits
division of labour in our body.
(2) It is composed of a single layer of tall
B. In multicellular animals, a group of similar
and slender cells
cells alongwith intercellular substances
(3) Nuclei are located at the apices of the performing a specific function is known as
cells tissue.
(4) It helps in secretion and absorption of (1) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
substance
(2) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
166. Which of the following junctions performs (4) Both the statements are incorrect
cementing to keep neighbouring cells
together?
(1) Gap junction 173. The excess of nutrients which are not used
immediately are converted into fats and are
(2) Tight junction
mainly stored in which of the following types
(3) Adhering junction of tissue?
(4) Zona occludens (1) Loose connective tissue
(2) Dense connective tissue
167. Dense connective tissue and loose (3) Specialised connective tissue
connective tissue are differentiated on the (4) Muscular tissue
basis of :
a. Presence of fibroblast
b. Presence of blood vessels 174. Select a structure or location from the
c. Amount of intercellular matrix options given below where dense irregular
d. Number of fibres connective tissue is found
(1) a, b, c, d (1) Skin
(2) c, d only (2) Blood
(3) b, c only (3) Ligaments
(4) d only (4) Lymph
168. All the cells present in the epithelium lining 175. Cells of areolar tissue which ingest cellular
of the following structures have centrally debris, bacteria and foreign matter with the
located nucleus, except help of pseudopodia are
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule (1) Plasma cells
(2) Air sacs of lungs (2) Macrophages
(3) Intestine (3) Mast cells
(4) Distal convoluted tubule (4) Adipocytes
169. Ligaments connect 176. Nissl's bodies are mainly composed of free
(1) Muscle to bone ribosomes and RER. They are associated
with
(2) Muscle to muscle
(1) Epithelial cells
(3) Bone to bone
(2) Nerve cells
(4) Muscle to skin
(3) Muscular cells
(4) Adipose cells
170. Choose the correct option w.r.t. examples of
dense regular connective tissue.
(1) Cartilage & bone 177. Lymph is an example of
(2) Tendon & blood (1) Skeletal connective tissue
(3) Ligament & tendon (2) Dense irregular connective tissue
(4) Blood & bone (3) Areolar tissue
(4) Fluid connective tissue
171. Bone cells called osteocytes are present in
fluid filled spaces, known as
(1) Acetabulum
(2) Coelom
(3) Lacunae
(4) Lamellae
17
178. Choose the type of junction in epithelial 183. Structural syncytium is seen in muscles
tissues which stop substances from leaking (1) Of myocardium
across a tissue
(2) Present in all blood vessels
(1) Gap junction
(3) Present in intestinal wall
(2) Communication junction
(4) Associated with bones
(3) Adhering junction
(4) Tight junction
184. Select the correct match between the type
of muscles, its action and location.
179. Gap junctions are present in
(1) Muscles of abdominal wall
(2) Biceps muscle
(3) Cardiac muscle
(4) Skeletal muscles
180. A single thin layer of flattened cells with (1) (1)

irregular boundaries make up (2) (2)
(1) Squamous epithelium (3) (3)
(2) Cuboidal epithelium (4) (4)
(3) Columnar epithelium
(4) Ciliated epithelium 185. Match the tissue with their location and
select the correct option.
181. The function of cilia on surface of ciliated Tissue Location
epithelium is to Ciliated
a. (i) PCT of nephron
(1) Allow the movement of motile ovum in epithelium
fallopian tube
Squamous Moist surface of
(2) Facilitate secretion, absorption and b. (ii)
epithelium buccal cavity
easy diffusion
Cuboidal Walls of blood
(3) Move dust particle on the surface of c. (iii)
epithelium vessels
hollow organs from nostrils towards
bronchioles Compound Inner lining of
d. (iv)
epithelium oviduct
(4) Move mucus in specific direction over
the epithelium (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
182. Select the cell exclusive to specialized (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
connective tissue (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(1) Fibroblast
(2) Macrophage
(3) Mast cell
(4) Chondrocyte
SECTION-B
186. Multicellular organism among following is 187. The type of tissue which forms the
(1) Hydra supportive skeletal structures in the tip of
nose and outer ear joints in human are
(2) Amoeba
example of
(3) Paramecium (1) Bone
(4) Euglena (2) Cartilage
(3) Ligament
(4) Tendon
18
188. Consider the following statements. 193. Site of protein synthesis in neuron are not
A. In cardiac muscle, communication likely to be found in
junctions allow all the cells to contract as a (1) Efferent processes
unit.
(2) Afferent processes
B. In cardiac muscle when one cell receives
a signal to contract, its neighbours are also (3) Dendrites
stimulated to contract. (4) Cyton
Select the correct option.
(1) Both A and B are true
194. Smooth muscle cells are not
(2) A is true but B is false (1) Spindle shaped
(3) Both A and B are false (2) Uninucleated
(4) A is false but B is true (3) Contractile
(4) Striated
189. Read the following statements and choose
the correct option.
(A) Some of the squamous and columnar 195. How many substances / structures given
cells get specialised for secretion and form below in the box are present in human
glandular epithelium. cartilage?
(B) Salivary glands are example of Lacuna, Matrix, Lamellae, Collagen fibres,
multicellular glands. Calcium salts
(1) Both the statements (A) and (B) are (1) Two
correct
(2) Three
(2) Both the statements (A) and (B) are
(3) Four
incorrect
(4) Five
(3) Only statement (A) is correct
(4) Only statement (B) is correct
196. Cardiac muscle fibres are
(1) Unbranched, involuntary and
190. When two or more organs perform a multinucleated
common function by their physical and/or
chemical interaction, they together form (2) Fusiform shaped, non-striated and
a/an uninucleated
(1) Compound epithelium (3) Involuntary, striated and uninucleated
(2) Junction (4) Voluntary, cylindrical shaped and
uninucleated
(3) Organ system
(4) Endothelium
197. Read the following statements and choose
the correct option.
191. Assertion (A) : Smooth muscles are Statement A – Cartilage is more abundant
considered as involuntary muscles of the in intra uterine life of vertebrates than adult
body. life.
Reason (R) : The functioning of smooth Statement B – Most of the cartilages in
muscles cannot be directly controlled by our vertebrate embryos are replaced by bones
will. in adults.
In the light of above statements, select the (1) Both statements are incorrect
correct option.
(2) Both statements are correct
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of the (3) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
assertion. (4) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of 198. Haemopoietic tissue in humans is present
the assertion. in
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (1) Blood
is false.
(2) Bones
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements. (3) Areolar tissue
(4) Cartilage
192. Which one is not a multicellular gland?

(1) Mammary gland
(2) Goblet cell of the alimentary canal
(3) Salivary gland
(4) Sweat gland
19
199. Fluid filled spaces in the matrix of cartilage

are
(1) Lamellae
(2) Lacunae
(3) Perichondrium
(4) Chondrocytes
200. Read the following statements.

Statement A : Neurons are excitable cells of
neural tissue.
Statement B : Arrival of the disturbance at
the neurons endings, triggers events that
always cause stimulation of adjacent
neurons.
From above statements
(1) Both are correct
(2) Both are incorrect
(3) Only A is correct
(4) Only B is correct
20

FT 01 Code C Solutions Phase 03 2

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

FT 01 Code C Solutions Phase 03 2

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

FT 01 Code C Solutions Phase 03 2

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

26/07/2023 Code-C_Phase-3

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

MM : 720 Fortnightly Test for RM(P3)-2324_Test-01C Time : 200 Min.

2. (3) 20. (4)

3. (2) 21. (2)

4. (2) 22. (1)

5. (1) 23. (4)

6. (3) 24. (3)

7. (4) 25. (2)

8. (3) 26. (1)

9. (1) 27. (4)

10. (3) 28. (3)

11. (1) 29. (2)

12. (2) 30. (3)

13. (3) 31. (3)

14. (4) 32. (3)

15. (3) 33. (3)

16. (3) 34. (3)

17. (2) 35. (2)

36. (1) 44. (3)

37. (2) 45. (1)

38. (1) 46. (2)

39. (1) 47. (4)

40. (2) 48. (4)

41. (1) 49. (2)

42. (1) 50. (2)

51. (4) 69. (4)

52. (1) 70. (2)

53. (4) 71. (3)

54. (4) 72. (2)

55. (2) 73. (2)

56. (3) 74. (3)

57. (2) 75. (4)

58. (1) 76. (1)

59. (2) 77. (3)

60. (3) 78. (2)

61. (2) 79. (4)

62. (3) 80. (2)

63. (3) 81. (4)

64. (1) 82. (4)

65. (3) 83. (1)

66. (2) 84. (3)

67. (4) 85. (1)

86. (2) 94. (3)

87. (3) 95. (2)

88. (2) 96. (4)

89. (3) 97. (2)

90. (1) 98. (1)

91. (2) 99. (2)

92. (4) 100. (1)

101. (2) 119. (4)

102. (4) 120. (3)

103. (3) 121. (4)

104. (3) 122. (4)

105. (3) 123. (2)

106. (4) 124. (4)

107. (2) 125. (2)

108. (2) 126. (1)