45.

B
MCN MT2 NOV. 2023 46.
47.
A
A
NLE INTENSIVE
48. A
49. B
ANSWER: 50. C
1. D 51. D
2. B 52. D
3. B 53. A
4. B 54. B
5. C 55. A
6. C 56. D
7. A 57. A
8. A 58. C
9. B 59. B
10. C 60. B
11. A 61. A
12. A 62. A
13. C 63. B
14. D 64. A
15. C 65. C
16. D 66. D
17. C 67. D
18. A 68. D
19. A 69. B
20. D 70. D
21. A 71. D
22. A 72. A
23. A 73. A
24. B 74. A
25. B 75. B
26. A 76. B
27. D 77. D
28. D 78. C
29. A 79. B
30. A 80. A
31. D 81. D
32. C 82. C
33. B 83. B
34. A 84. C
35. A 85. A
36. C 86. B
37. A 87. D
38. B 88. C
39. A 89. C
40. C 90. D
41. C 91. C
42. C 92. A
43. A 93. A
44. C 94. C
 95. C
96. B
97. D A. Latent phase
98. D B. active phase
99. D C. transition phase
100. D D. pushing phase

SITUATION:   May, 25 years old, G2P1, 36- 4.  The fetus in cephalic presentation is in
37 wks. AOG was admitted to the labor what type fetal lie?
room in USTH, because greenish watery A. transverse
vaginal discharge. Upon admission, initial B. longitudinal
C. perpendicular
IE was done by OB-ROD and reveals:
D. Oblique
cephalic presentation, station 0, (-) BOW,
cervix: 4-5cms dilated, 70% effaced. May 5.     Doing Leopold’s Maneuver on Maya in
was ordered to observe strict bedrest.  the labor room, the nurse assesses the fetal
position to be left. Occipito-anterior. In this
1.  Based on the data given on the situation,
position, the fetal heart tones can be best
which among the following data is NOT
heard in which quadrant of the maternal
normal?
abdomen?
A. RUQ
A. station 0 B. LUQ
B. cervix 4-5cms dilated C. RLQ
C. cephalic presentation D. LLQ
D. greenish watery vaginal discharge
6.       During labor, when the fetus is above
2.   May was placed on a strict bedrest to
the ischial spines, the nurse recognizes that
prevent:
the head is said to be a station:
A. +1
1.prolapse of the cord B. -3
2. uterine rupture C. dipping
3. infection D. station 0
4. uterine inversion
A. 1,2 7.  Which of the following statement
B. 1,3
describes the diagonal conjugate?
C. 2,4
D. 1,2,3,4 A. widest diameter of the pelvic inlet
B. most important pelvic diameter
3.  May’s contractions are every 3-5 C. 2cm less than the size obstetric conjugate
minutes and lasting 45-60 seconds. She D. the distance from the right to left ischium
appears irritable and states that she is
8. What should be the priority nursing
quite nauseated. She is most likely in what
intervention knowing that the color of May’s
phase of labor?
amniotic fluid is greenish?
A. assess fetal heart tones 13. In which of the following result shows
B. assess uterine contraction
abnormal score and will require close follow
C. start giving oxygen inhalation
D. position her to left side lying up after BPS is done?
A. Reactive NST
9.  What is the antero posterior diameter of
B. Amniotic fluid volume > 2 cm in a single
the fetal skull in vertex presentation as it vertical pocket
enters the pelvic inlet during delivery? C. < 2 body or limb movements in 30 minutes
D. > 1 episode of rythmic breathing lasting > 30
A. 9.25cms
sec within 30 min
B. 9.5 cms
C.12cms 14. The following fetal surveillance test can
D. 13.5 cms
be done on a patient at 31-32 weeks AOG
10. Which among the following would be except:
the main indication why May needs to A. BPS
undergo an “E”CS? B. Fetal movement counting
C. NST
A. breech presentation
D. CST
B. uterine inertia
C. fetal compromise 15. Favorable outcome of an NST is:
D. persistent occiput posterior
A. 2 accelerations in FHR with fetal movement
11. While May is prepared for cesarean of 15 beats per minute lasting 15 minutes or
delivery, which among the following position more over 20 minutes observation period.
B. 2 decelerations in FHR with fetal movement
would maintain optimal perfusion of
of 15 beats per minute lasting 15 minutes or
oxygenated blood to the fetus, more over 20 minutes observation period.
A. Trendelenburg position C. Non-reactive test result
B. Semi-fowler’s position D. None of the above
C. Supine position with wedge under the right
16. The following deceleration in FHR is
hips
D. Prone position suggestive of the following:

12. The client is scheduled for BPS in  other

A. Early deceleration: Fetal head compression
to assess the fetal wellbeing,  knowing that
B. Late deceleration: uteroplacental
this procedure has 5 variables, which in the compromise
following is NOT included in the variable: C. Variable deceleration: umbilical cord
compression
A. Fetal breathing movement
D. All are correct
B. Fetal tone
C. Amniotic volume 17. Which among the following is/are
D. CST result
characteristic of a favorable uterine
contraction?
1. involuntary
2. regular 22. Nancy, a G4P3, is in labor. The nurse
3. intermittent
would suspect possible precipitous labor if
4. increasing comfort to the mother
A. 1 only the cervical dilatation of Nancy is at least_
B. 1,2 A. 1 cm/hr
C. 1,2,3 B. 1.2 cm/hr
D. 1,2,3,4 C. 1.5cm/hr
D. 2.5 cm/hr
18. The following could lead to possible
dystocia except: 23. While hooked on an electronic fetal
A. Low self-esteem monitor during the first stage of labor, the
B. Presence of physiologic retraction ring nurse noted variable fetal heart rate
C. anthropoid pelvis decelerations on her client’s tracing and
D. fetal malposition
suspects cord prolapse. In such condition,
19. The following are management of the client should assume:
hypertonic contractions: A. Knee-chest position
1. Darkening room lights B. Doral-recumbent position
2. Rest and pain relief C. Semi-Fowler’s position
3. Decreasing noise and stimulation D. Upright position
4. Administer analgesic as ordered
24. What nursing action has the highest
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3, 4 priority for a client in the second stage of
C. 1, 2, 4 labor?
D. All
A. check the fetal position
20. The plan of care for a client undergoing B. coach the client to push effectively
C. administer medication for pain as ordered
an induction of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin)
D. instruct the client to do rapid pant blow
because of hypotonic uterine contraction, breathing
should include strategies to:
25.Persistent occiput posterior is a risk
A. Maintain complete bed rest
condition, if the fetus fails to rotate internally
B. Notify the neonatal resuscitation team
C. Administer antibiotics as ordered during the second stage labor, which
D. Maintain continuous electronic fetal among the following manifestations is
monitoring expected from the mother if such condition
21. Which term refers to discrepancy in occurs?
maternal pelvis and fetal head? A. vomiting
B. severe backache
A. Cephalopelvic disproportion. C. palpitation
B. Band’s ring. D. leg cramps
C. Uterine intertia
D. Contracted pelvis 26. Upon admission, IE was done & reveals
+BOW, Station 0. Repeat IE was done by
the OB-ROD an hour and 2 hours after A. leaking fluid from the vagina
B. leaking blood from the vagina
admission. The fetus is still on station 0.
C. nitrazine paper turns blue
Which among the following condition the D. nitrazine paper turns red
nurse would suspect the patient to have?
31. The following are true in the
A. arrest disorder in decsent
management of a woman with diabetes
B. protraction disorder in descent
C. arrest disorder in dilatation mellitus, except:
D. arrest disorder in dilatation A. A diet between 2,000-2,500 cal/day is given
during pregnancy.
27. Inversion of the uterus commonly
B. No oral hypoglycemics are given throughout
occurs at what stage of labor? the course of pregnancy.
A. 1st C. Insulin dosage during the 3rd trimester is
B. 2nd maintained until the 1st -24 hours of the post-
C. 3rd partum period.
D. 4th D. Breastfeeding is contraindicated if the
woman is taking antihyperglycemics.
28. Fundal check every 15 minutes is an
32.  The nurse gives patient health
important nursing concern on the 4th stage
education on cardiovascular signs and
of labor to check presence of bleeding that
symptoms during pregnancy.   Which of the
might be due either to:
following is normal during pregnancy?

1. uterine atony
2. hematoma A. Clubbing
3. laceration B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
4. retained placental fragments C. Peripheral edema
A. 1,2 D. Neck vein distention
B. 1,3
33. Health history of pre-pregnancy cardiac
C. 2,4
D. 1,2,3,4 status includes:

29. Nancy is asking if vaginal delivery is still

1. level of exercise performance
possible after her ‘LTCS’, the nurse best
2. physical symptoms she experiences
response is: 3. presence of infection
4. edema and cough
A. 1, 2, 3
A. Your OB will discuss it with you.
B. 1, 2, 4
B. Yes! Anytime
C. 2, 3, 4
C. No, expect all the time CS
D. All
D. maybe
34. If a woman with cardiac disease is
30. Pre term labor rupture of the membrane
diagnosed to have pulmonary edema, the
is suspected if:
patient is placed on:
A. Left-side lying position 39. Upon admission, MgSO4 was given.  As
B. High Fowler’s position
a precaution, the following assessment
C. Prone position
D. Trendelenburg findings must be observed prior to
administration, EXCEPT:
35. A woman with cardiac disease may
A. RR- 15/min
deliver thru:
B. absent patellar reflex
A. NSD C. urine output >30ml/hr
B. CS D. BP=160/110
C. Low Forceps
D. Pregnancy is contraindicated 40. As a precaution, what medication
should be readily available if patient is
36. A woman with cardiac disease under being given MgSO4?
this classification should avoid heavy
A. Diazepam
exertion and should stop   any activity that
B. Hydralazine
causes even minor sign of cardiac C. Calcium gluconate
decompensation. D. Phenytoin

41. Which of the following symptoms are

A. Class I present in ectopic pregnancy?
B. Class II
C. Class III 1. Cullen’s sign 3. Vaginal bleeding
D. Class IV 2.Lower unilateral abdominal pain 4.
Amenorrhea
37. Jane was diagnosed to have BP A.1, 2, 3
elevation, which was detected first time B. 1, 2, 4
C. 2, 3, 4
after mid-pregnancy without proteinuria.
D. ALL
Jane is classified as:
42. Which of the following medications will
be given to patient who has unruptured
A. Gestational hypertension
B. Transient hypertension ectopic which is a folic acid analogue that
C. Preeclampsia destroys rapidly dividing cells?
D. Chronic hypertension

38. Which of the following manifestations A. Inderal

maybe present in client with severe B. Yutopar
C. Methotrexate
preeclampsia?
D. Carboprost
A. Systolic pressure of 140mmHg and above
B. Proteinuria 2+ to 3+ on random urinalysis 43. Sharp one-sided pain radiating to the
C. urine output <650ml/hr shoulder in ectopic pregnancy is caused by:
D. Proteinuria ≥0.3 g in a 24-hr
A. Irritation of the peritoneum caused by C. Superimposed hyperemesis
bleeding D. Passage of fluid-filled vesicles
B. Death of the fetus
C. Sloughing of the decidua’s 48. Erika, G1P0, 16 weeks AOG, was
D. Low HCG level admitted because of minimal bleeding.
Internal examination was done revealed
44. Serum progesterone level was done on
closed cervix.  Nurse Pauline should have
a pregnant client. A 4ng/ml result indicates:
which clinical impression?
A. Threatened abortion
A. Viable uterine pregnancy
B. Incomplete abortion
B. Hydramnios
C. Inevitable abortion
C. Possible ectopic pregnancy
D. Missed abortion
D. Twin pregnancy
49. Based on the above condition, the
45. With the above result, the patient knows
following are included in the plan of care
that one of the following procedures will be
EXCEPT:
done to confirm the diagnosis.

A. Bedrest
A.X-ray
B. Administer Pitocin as ordered
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Avoidance of stress and orgasm
C. amniocentesis
D. Administer tocolytics as ordered
D. Placental grading
50. With incompetent cervix, the etiologic
46. Molar pregnancy is characterized by
factors include:
which of the following?
1. Previous cervical laceration during childbirth
2. excessive cervical dilation for biopsy
1.There is an abnormal development of the 3. mother’s ingestion of DES
placenta 4. short cervix
2.There is proliferation of trophoblastic tissue A. 1,2, 3
3.There is a possible development of B. 2, 3, 4
choriocarcinoma C. 1, 2, 4
4.It results in loss of pregnancy D. ALL
A.1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4 51. After prophylactic cerclage is
C. 2, 3, 4 performed, the following instructions must
D. ALL
be emphasized to patients:
47. Upon assessment, which of the
following findings is least expected in a 1. Refrain from intercourse
client with molar pregnancy? 2. Avoid prolonged standing
3. Bedrest
A. Bright-red vaginal discharge
4. Avoid heavy lifting
B. Uterine enlargement greater than expected
A. 1, 2, 3
for gestational age
B. 2, 3, 4 56. The nurse is caring for a group of
C. 1, 2, 4
postpartum clients. What places a client at
D. ALL
increased risk for postpartum hemorrhage?
52. Risks involved with cerclage placement
a. Breastfeeding in the birthing room
includes the following, EXCEPT: b. Receiving a pudendal block for the birth
c. Having a third stage of labor that lasts 10
minutes
A. Rupture of membranes
d. Giving birth to a baby weighing 9.5 pounds
B. chorioamnionitis
C. Preterm labor 57. While assisting with the delivery of a
D. abortion
term newborn, which intervention would a
53. The client is diagnosed with partial nurse anticipate to prevent postpartum
placenta previa. In explaining the diagnosis, hemorrhage during the third stage of labor?
the nurse tells the client that the usual
treatment for partial placenta previa is: a. Administration of intravenous oxytocin
b. Application of fundal pressure
c. Clamping the umbilical cord before
A. Bed rest
pulsations stop
B. Administration of platelets
d. Administration of subcutaneous terbutaline
C. Immediate Cesarean section delivery
sulfate
D. Induction of labor with Oxytocin
58. A nurse is caring for a client who has
54. A nurse is assessing a client in the
experienced severe postpartum
fourth stage of labor and notes that the
hemorrhage. Which of the following
fundus is firm, but that bleeding is
intervention should be the last option in the
excessive. Which of the following would be
management?
the initial nursing action?

a. Administration of prostaglandins
a. Record the findings
b. Surgical technique, such as creating an
b. Notify the physician
obstruction, to block the uterine artery
C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
c. Hysterectomy
D. Massage the fundus
d. Radiological interventions, such as blocking
55. While assessing a primipara during the the uterine artery with gel foam

immediate postpartum period, the nurse in 59. A postpartum client, who has chosen to
charge plans to use both hands to assess bottle feed, has developed painful breast
the client’s fundus to: engorgement. In preparation for discharge,
a. Prevent uterine inversion a nurse educates the client on ways to
b. Promote uterine involution decrease engorgement. Which statement
c. Hasten the puerperium period
made by the client indicates a need for
d. Determine the size of the fundus
further education?
 successfully gave birth to a healthy baby
a. “I’m going to put ice on my breast when I get boy. When asked what is wrong, the client
home” replies. “Nothing really. I’m not in pain or
b. “I’m going to take a shower and let warm anything, but I just seem to cry a lot for no
water run on my sore breasts”
reason.” Based on this information, what
c. . “I’m going to take ibuprofen for the pain”
d. “I’m going to wear a sports bra continuously should be the nurse’s first intervention?
until the pain is gone.” a. Call the client’s support person to come and
sit with her
60. A nurse is caring for a 30 year old b. Remind the client that she has a healthy baby
female (G2P2) with red hair who just and there is nothing to cry about
delivers a 10 pound term infant after a 36- c. Call the health-care provider immediately and
hour labor that was induced with oxytocin. report the incidence
d. Ask the client to discuss her birth experience
The nurse is aware that this client is at risk
for uterine atony. In the data given, how 63. While completing an assessment of a
many risk factors does this client has that postpartum client, a nurse notes a
will predisposed her to develop uterine positive Homan’s sign on the right leg.
atony? Which should be a nurse’s first response to
this finding?
a. One a. Document the findings
b. Two b. Call the care provider to report the findings
c. Three c. Examine the leg for redness and tenderness
D. Four d. Ambulate the client

61. A client who has been diagnosed with 64. A postpartum client is admitted to a
mastitis asks a nurse if she should stop hospital 1 week after delivery with a
breastfeeding at this time. Which of the diagnosis of endometritis. Considering this
following should be the most appropriate diagnosis, which notations should the nurse
response by the nurse? expect to find in the client’s healthcare
a. “Continous breastfeding will decrease the record?
duration of the mastitis”
b. “Breastfeeding should only be continued if
a. History of membranes ruptured 36 hours
symptoms decrease”
prior to delivery
c. “It is a good idea to discontinue feeding 24
b. History of pregnancy-induced hypertension
hours until antibiotic therapy begins to take
c. Infant birth weight 4,200g
effect”
d. Administration of intravenous oxytocin
d. “It is appropriate to discontinue
immediately after the delivery
breastfeeding because the infant may become
infected” 65. A nurse was assigned to a client who
62. The nurse was assigned to a crying had postpartum bleeding due to a fourth-
client on her immediate postpartum, who degree perineal laceration. In response to
this information, which intervention should b. Encourage her to lie on her stomach until the
cramping stops
the nurse add to the client’s plan of care?
c. Instruct the client avoid ambulation while
a. Limit ambulation to bathroom privileges only having pain
b. Monitor the uterus for firmness every 2 hours d. Check her lochia flow, as pain can sometimes
c. Instruct the client on a high-fiber diet and precede hemorrhage
administer stool softeners
d. Decrease fluid intake to 1,000mL 24 hours 68. A nurse writes the following outcome for
a postpartum client who is 2 hours post
66. A postpartum client expresses to a
cesarean delivery. “The client will remain
nurse an overwhelming sense of happiness
free of thrombophlebitis.” Which
regarding her infant. The client states, “I
intervention should the nurse add to the
cannot ever imagine developing the ‘baby
client’s plan of care to accomplish the
blues’ ” which response by the nurse is
outcome?
most accurate regarding psychological
concerns after birth?
a. Limit oral fluids to 1,000mL per day
b. Utilize the knee patch on the bed to lower the
a. “All women develop behavioral and emotional legs while the client is in a supine position
concerns after the birth of a child, but most do c. Avoid the use of pneumatic compression
not require treatment” stocking
b. “The rate of admission of psychiatric care is d. Encourage early ambulation
greater during the year after childbirth than at
any other time in a woman’s life.” 69. Three days after delivering a full-term
c. “Postpartum psychiatric concerns occur only infant, a breastfeeding client tells a nurse
in women who have had mental illness before that her nipples are sore. Upon examination
pregnancy”
of the nipples, the nurse notes bilateral
d. “If a woman has not had any psychiatric
concerns during her pregnancy, she is not at erythema. Considering this information,
risk to develop any postpartum psychological what should be the nurse’s first action?
problems.”

67. A nurse enters the room of a a. Recommend the use of a breast shield
postpartum, multiparous client and b. Observe the next breastfeeding
c. Educate the client about the reasons for
observes the client rubbing her abdomen.
nipple soreness
The nurse asks the client is she is having d. Instruct the client to decrease the number of
pain. The client says she feels like she is times the infant breastfeeds during a 24 hour
having menstrual cramps. In response to period.
this information, which intervention should 70. A nursing student is assigned to care for
be implemented by the nurse? a postpartum client.  The nursing instructor
reviews the nursing care plan developed by
a. Offer a warm blanket for her abdomen the student and asks the student to
describe the process of involution.  Which
of the following is an accurate description of a. Try to start and stop the flow of urine
b. Bear down as though having a bowel
the process?
movement
c. Gently squeeze the uterus while pushing
a. “Involution refers to the inverted uterus that is downward on the fundus
beginning to return to normal.” d. Straighten the leg and point the toes toward
b. “Involution refers to the gradual reversal of the head
the uterine muscle into the abdominal cavity
74. The nurse is caring for a client who
c. “Involution refers to the progressive descent
of the uterus into the pelvic cavity occurring at delivered vaginally 2 hours ago. The client’s
rate of 1 cm per day. “ fundus is firm at 1 centimeter below the
d. “Involution of the uterus will never completely umbilicus and vital signs are stable. She
return to its pre-pregnancy state. Immediately
received morphine IV 4 hours ago for labor
after birth, the uterus weighs about 1000g. At
the end of the first week, it weighs 500 g. After pain. The nurse should question which new
4 weeks, involution is complete; it will weigh 50 order from the physician?
g, its pre-pregnant weight

71. A nurse should monitor which A. Sitz bath 20 minutes TID

complication from a client who delivered B. Bathroom privileges
C. Regular diet
vaginally assisted through forceps
D. RhoGAM for an Rh-negative client
extraction?
75. In preparation to the nurse first morning
a. Placental abruption
b. Seizure round in the LR, she identifies patient who
C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia are at risk to develop hematoma during
D. Infection delivery. Which among the list below has
72. When the nurse performs Homan’s the greatest risk for this complication?
sign, a client complains of severe pain in
her left calf. Which of the following a. A 17-year old client who gave birth to a small-
responses by the nurse is appropriate at for–gestational age
b. A 26- year old client with gestational diabetes
this time?
and forceps delivery of a large-for-gestational
age infant
a. Notify the client’s physician. c. A 35-year old client having twins.
b. Teach the client to massage her leg d. A 40-year old client having her first infant
C. Apply ice packs to the client’s leg
76. A client, who is G5P4, delivered a 6-
D. Encourage the client to ambulate.
pound 5-ounce baby 2 hours ago. The
73. A postpartum client asks the nurse how client is complaining of severe uterine
to strengthen her perineal muscles. The cramping while breastfeeding. A nurse
nurse teaches the client to do which of the knows that these symptoms are most likely
following? due to:
 This condition is an abnormality in the
A. Mastitis menstrual cycle known as:
B. Uterine involution
C. Uterine atony
A. Metrorrhagia
D. Postpartum endometritis
B. Menorrhagia
77. A client is to be discharged 12 hours C. Amenorrhea
D. Dysmenorrheal
after delivery. The nurse should delay the
discharge and notify the physician if which 81. One factor of having a normal delivery
of the following is observed? is the size of the pelvis. Pelvis serves as the
passageway for the passenger (fetus)
A. Moderate lochia rubra during childbirth. The most ideal pelvis for
B. Fundus firm at umbilicus childbirth is:
C. Pulse 62 betas per minute
D. Total UO of 150 cc in 12 hours
A. Android
78. A client has an episiotomy and B. Anthropoid
complains of perineal discomfort. She is C. Platypelloid
D. Gynecoid
also afraid to have bowel movement. Which
of the following nursing diagnoses is the 82. An important landmark of the pelvis that
highest priority for this client at this time? determines the distance of the descent of
the head is known as:
A. Activity intolerance
B. Deficient knowledge A. Linea terminalis
C. Pain B. Sacrum
D. Risk for constipation. C. Ischial spines
D. Ischial tuberosities
79. Estrogen, one of the hormones
regulating cyclic activities in female 83. What is the term used to pertain to
reproductive system is responsible for permanent cessation of menstruation?
which effect?
A. Amenorrhea
A. Increases the quantity and pH of cervical B. Menopause
mucus, causing it to become thin and watery C. Oligomenorrhea
and can be stretched to a distance of 10-13 cm. D. Hypomenorrhea
B. Inhibits the production of LH
84.  Nurse Mia is conducting a class to a
C. Increases endometrial tortuosity
D. All of the above group of women about pregnancy, labor
and delivery. Choose the best answer to
80. Jessa, 17 years old, is bleeding
each question. Which of the following
between periods of less than two weeks.
statements if made by a woman indicates a
positive sign of pregnancy? A. 4 weeks
A. I am nauseated every morning and I feel that B. 8 weeks
my breasts are larger than usual C. 12 weeks
B. I have missed period for a month now D. 16 weeks
C. I was scheduled to undergo transvaginal
88. A pregnant woman asks the nurse how
ultrasound and showed a positive fetal
heartbeat she can manage ankle edema. Which of the
D. I feel something is moving in my tummy following statements by the nurse is most
appropriate?
85. A pregnant woman asks Nurse Mia
about the purpose of the placenta. Which of
the following is the most appropriate A. Changing position slowly
B. Exercising regularly
response of the nurse?
C. Elevating the legs twice a day and wearing
supportive stockings
A. The placenta provides an exchange of D. Using correct body mechanics
nutrients and waste products between the
89. Which of the following statements is
mother and the fetus
B. The placenta surrounds and cushions the incorrect about physiological changes
fetus during pregnancy?
C. The placenta is used to measure fetal kidney
function
D. The placenta prevents bacteria to pass A. Diaphragm may be elevated because of the
through to the fetus enlarged uterus
B. Heart size increases and is elevated upward
86. Nurse Mia is teaching about fetal and to the right because of the displacement of
circulation. Which of the following statement the diaphragm as the uterus enlarges
C. The cervix becomes shorter and more elastic
by the mother indicates that the teaching
D. Poor appetite may occur due to decreased
has been effective? gastric motility

90. A primigravida asks the nurse how often

A. The fetal heart rate is about thrice the
she will visit the physician for prenatal
maternal heart rate
B. The umbilical cord contains two arteries and checkup. The most accurate response of
one vein the nurse would be?
C. The umbilical cord contains one artery and
two veins
D. The fetal heart rate is about 170-180 per A. Every 8 weeks for the first 28 to 32 weeks,
minute near or at term every 4 weeks from 32 to 36 weeks and every 2
weeks from 36 to 40 weeks
87. A primigravida asks Nurse Mia when B. Every 4 weeks for the first 28 to 32 weeks,
can the sex of the baby be visually every 2 weeks from 32 to 36 weeks and every
week from 36 to 40 weeks
recognizable?
C. Every 2 weeks for the first 28 to 32 weeks, 94. Which of the following indicates an
every week from 32 to 36 weeks and every
abnormal finding during the second
other day from 36 to 40 weeks
D. Every 4 weeks for the first 28 to 36 weeks trimester of pregnancy?
and every week from 36 to 40 weeks

91.The average expected weight gain A. Quickening

B. Braxton Hicks contractions
during pregnancy is 25 to 35 lbs for women
C. Fetal heart rate of 180 bpm
with normal pregnancy weight. The nurse D. Consistent increase in fundic height
teaches the pregnant mothers to increase
95. Carlota is admitted in active labor. The
their caloric intake for about how many?
nurse locates fetal heart sounds in the
A. 100
lower left quadrant of the mother’s
B. 200
C. 300 abdomen. The nurse is correct if she
D. 400 mentioned, which of the following?

92. A physician prescribed transvaginal a. Carlota will probably deliver with too much
pain
ultrasonography during the first trimester.
b. This indicates Carlota will probably have
Which of the following is true about this breech delivery
procedure? c. The fetus is in the most common left anterior
fetal positions
d. This position is referred to as being sacrum
A. It is necessary to hold the urine during the posterior
procedure
B. A transducer is placed over the abdomen to 96. Which of the following findings on a
obtain the picture newly delivered woman’s chart would
C. The procedure takes about 1-2 hours
indicate the client is at risk for developing
D. The probe is covered with a disposable cover
and is inserted into the vagina early postpartum hemorrhage?
a. Post-term delivery
93. Estrogen, one of the hormones
b. Retained placental fragments
regulating cyclic activities in female c. Premature rupture of membranes
reproductive system is responsible for d. Grand multiparity
which effect?
97. The nurse is conducting health teaching
on a pregnant client that complains of
A. Increases the quantity and pH of cervical constipation. The following statements are
mucus, causing it to become thin and watery
correct regarding constipation in pregnancy.
and can be stretched to a distance of 10-13 cm.
B. Inhibits the production of LH Select all that apply.
C. Increases endometrial tortuosity
D. All of the above i.  It is due to the effects of Relaxin
ii.  May be associated with iron 100. In contrast with the patient for
supplements taken by the mother ultrasound. What instruction would you give
the client before conducting amniocentesis?
iii.  Effects brought by Estrogen.

a. The intravenous fluid infused to dilate your

iv.  Due to decrease motility of the
uterus does not hurt the fetus.
intestines b. The x-ray used to reveal your fetus’ position
has no long term effects.
c. No more amniotic fluid forms afterward,
a. i, ii, iv
which is why only a small amount is removed.
b. ii, iii
d. Void immediately before the procedure to
c. i, ii, iii
reduce your bladder size.
d. ii, iv

98. The method utilizes a well-defined, step Submit

by step system of education and instruction
Clear form
with the idea of painless childbirth is
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a. Bradley method
b. Lamaze method
c. Kegel's exercise  Forms
d. Dick-read method

99. A client is scheduled to have an

ultrasound examination. She is worried on
what will happen during the ultrasound. The
nurse went to the room and conducts some
teaching to the client. What instruction
would the nurse give the client before
examination?

a. Void immediately before the procedure to

reduce your bladder size.
b. You can have medicine for pain for any
contractions caused by the test.
c. The intravenous fluid infused to dilate your
uterus does not hurt the fetus.
d. Drink at least 3 glasses of fluid before the
procedure.