Instructors Guide

Instructor’s Guide

Medium/Heavy Duty Truck Engines, Fuel & Computerized Management Systems
Fourth Edition
Sean Bennett
Chapter 2
Answer Key - End of Chapter Review Questions
1. When the spindle contacts the anvil on a standard 0–1" micrometer, it should
read:
a. 0
b. 0.001"
c. 0.025"
d. 1"
2. How many complete rotations must the thimble of a standard micrometer be

turned to travel through a reading of zero to a reading of 1 inch?
a. 25
b. 40
c. 50
d. 100
3. How many complete rotations must the thimble of a metric micrometer be turned
to travel through a reading of zero to a reading of 25 mm?
a. 25
b. 40
c. 50
d. 100
4. When the thimble of a metric micrometer

is turned through one full revolution the dimension between the anvil and the
spindle has changed by:
a. 0.1 mm
b. 0.5 mm
c. 2.5 mm
d. 5.0 mm
5. When using a dial indicator to check the concentricity of a flywheel housing, dur-
ing a single rotation of the flywheel the reading on the positive side of the zero on
the dial peaks at 0.003 while the reading on the negative side peaks at 0.006.
What is the TIR?
a. 0.003"
b. 0.006"
c. 0.009"
d. 0.018"
6. Which of the following precision measuring instruments would be required to

measure a valve guide bore?
a. Dial indicator
b. Inside micrometer
c. Split ball gauge and micrometer
d. Dial bore gauge
7. If 300 kPa is converted to pounds per square inch, the result would be closest to
which of the following values?
a. 15 psi
b. 30 psi
c. 45 psi
d. 300 psi
8. To which of the following values would 1.5 mm be closest?

a. 0.0625"
b. 0.125"
c. 0.250"
d. 1.50"
9. Convert 550° Fahrenheit into Celsius.

a. 240
b. 288
c. 385
d. 550
10. A wrench with box and open ends at either end, both of the same nominal dimen-
sion, is known as a(n):
a. Torque wrench
b. Combination wrench
c. Box-end wrench
d. Adjustable wrench
11. Which of the following is used to identify an SAE Grade 8 bolt?

a. 3 radial strokes on the capscrew head
b. 5 radial strokes on the capscrew head
c. 6 radial strokes on the capscrew head
d. 8 radial strokes on the capscrew head
12. If a 12" linear extension is used on a torque wrench with a 24" bar, calculate the
reading on the torque wrench scale required to produce an actual torque value of
250 lb-ft.
a. 36 lb-ft.
b. 120 lb-ft.
c. 167 lb-ft.
d. 323 lb-ft.
13. Convert 250 lb-ft. to Newton-meters and select the closest value from the answers
below.
a. 167 N·m
b. 340 N·m
c. 410 N·m
d. 500 N·m
14. Convert 600 hp into kW and select the closest value from the answers below.
a. 350 kW
b. 450 kW
c. 550 kW
d. 650 kW
15. The cutting fluid recommended for use when cutting threads in mild steel is:
a. Soluble oil and water
b. Lard
c. Dry
d. Kerosene
16. When drilling into cast iron, the correct method calls for the procedure to be per-
formed:
a. With kerosene
b. With lard
c. Preheated
d. Dry
17. A bolt designed so that the shoulder has a small interference fit with the bore it is
to be fitted to is called a(an):
a. SAE #5
b. SAE #8
c. Body bound bolt
d. Huck fastener
18. The working load of a chain is normally what percentage of the rated tensile
strength of the chain material?
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
19. Which Plastigage color code should be selected to measure a main bearing clear-
ance that the manufacturer specifies must be between 0.0023 and 0.0038?
a. Red
b. Green
c. Blue
20. After Plastigage checking a main bearing, using red Plastigage, the measuring
strip has not been deformed. Technician A states that the bearing clearance must
be greater than 0.006". Technician B states that a strip of green-coded Plastigage
must be used to perform the measurement. Who is correct?
a. Technician A only
b. Technician B only
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 3
1. Materials that have either high acidity or alkalinity are described as:
a. Flammable
b. Toxic
c. Radioactive
d. Corrosive
2. Materials that may emit toxic fumes or explode when brought into contact with
other materials are described as:
a. Reactive
b. Toxic
c. Radioactive
d. Corrosive
3. Which of the following is required to have a left-hand thread?

a. Oxygen cylinder fitting
b. Acetylene cylinder fitting
c. Cutting nozzle fitting
4. Which of the following would be the most serious condition when operating oxy-
acetylene cutting equipment?
a. Flashback
b. Backfire
c. Popping
5. Which of the following grades of eye protection filter would be recommended

when performing oxyacetylene cutting?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 10
d. 13
6. Which type of fire extinguisher would effectively snub a runaway engine without
itself causing any damage?
a. Foam
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Dry chemical powder
d. Water
7. The reason the exhaust pipe of an engine run inside the shop must always be con-
nected to the shop exhaust system is to protect:
a. The employees
b. Paintwork on the trucks
c. Paintwork within the building
8. What is a carcinogen?
a. A cancer-causing agent
b. A respiratory illness
c. A fire hazard
d. A skin irritant
9. Where should the ground clamp be placed when preparing to perform electric arc
welding on a chassis?
a. On the front bumper
b. On the rear cross member
c. As far from the weld as possible
d. As close to the weld as possible
10. Technician A states that the location of oxygen bottles on the shop floor does not
matter so long as the fire department is aware of where acetylene bottles are
stored. Technician B states that the safety device on an oxygen bottle is a rupture
disc. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 4
1. A popular six-cylinder Navistar diesel engine has a bore of 120 mm and a stroke
of 155 mm. What is the engine displacement?
a. 9.4 liters
b. 10.5 liters
c. 12.4 liters
d. 13.6 liters
2. Which of the following accurately describes engine displacement?

a. Total piston swept volume
b. Mean effective pressure
c. Peak horsepower
d. Peak torque
3. Engine breathing in the two-stroke cycle is usually referred to as:

a. Inertial
b. Scavenging
c. Exhaust displacement
4. The tendency of an object in motion to want to stay in motion is known as:

a. Kinetic energy
b. Dynamic friction
c. Inertia
d. Mechanical force
5. When a modern diesel engine is running at optimum efficiency, the percentage of

rejected heat would typically be:
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 80%
6. What percentage of the potential heat energy of the fuel does the modern diesel
engine convert to kinetic energy when it is operating close to optimum efficiency?
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 80%
7. In which of the four strokes of the cycle is the cylinder pressure at its highest in a
running diesel engine?
a. Intake
b. Compression
c. Power
d. Exhaust
8. Where does scavenging take place on a four-stroke cycle diesel engine?

a. BDC after the power stroke
b. TDC after the compression stroke
c. Valve overlap
d. 10 to 20 degrees ATDC on the power stroke
9. Ideally, where should peak cylinder pressure occur during the power stroke?
a. TDC
b. 10 to 20 degrees ATDC
c. 90 degrees ATDC
d. At gas blowdown
10. Which of the seven subcircuits of the engine deals with the camshaft,
valvetrains, and mechanical actuation of injectors and fuel pumping apparatus?
a. Powertrain
b. Feedback assembly
c. Lubrication circuit
d. Engine housing circuit
11. A Cummins ISB engine has a displacement of

6.7 liters. Convert this to cubic inches.
a. 365 cubic inches
b. 409 cubic inches
c. 444 cubic inches
d. 530 cubic inches
12. A 2007 Caterpillar ACERT C13 engine has an

actual total cylinder swept volume of 12.5 liters. Convert this to cubic inches.
a. 454 cubic inches
b. 555 cubic inches
c. 610 cubic inches
d. 762 cubic inches
13. A 2011 six-cylinder, Paccar MX 360 engine has a bore of 130 mm and stroke of
162 mm. Calculate the displacement of this engine.
a. 11.1 liters
b. 11.9 liters
c. 12.9 liters
d. 14 liters
14. A six-cylinder engine has a bore of 4.875" and a stroke of 6.5". Calcu-
late the total
displacement and express it in cubic
inches.
a. 530 cubic inches
b. 610 cubic inches
c. 728 cubic inches
d. 855 cubic inches
15. A Volvo six-cylinder engine has a bore of 144 mm and a stroke of 165 mm. Cal-
culate the total displacement and express it in liters.
a. 11.1 liters
b. 12.7 liters
c. 14.8 liters
d. 16.1 liters
16. When running an engine at idle speed, which would typically be the optimum lo-
cation to peak the cylinder pressure?
a. 20 degrees BTDC
b. 10 degrees BTDC
c. TDC
d. 15 degrees ATDC
17. When running an engine at rated speed and load, which would typically be the
optimum location to peak the cylinder pressure?
a. 30 degrees BTDC
b. 15 degrees BTDC
c. TDC
d. 15 degrees ATDC
18. At which point in the engine cycle does the crank throw leverage peak?
a. TDC
b. Around 15 degrees ATDC
c. Just before 90 degrees ATDC
d. BTDC
19. Which law states that all energy forms are convertible?
a. The first law of thermodynamics
b. The second law of thermodynamics
c. Boyle’s law
d. Charles’s law
20. The energy of motion is known as:
a. Inertia
b. Kinetic
c. Thermal
d. Potential
21. A six-cylinder engine has a bore of 5.69 inches and a stroke of 6.5 inches. Calcu-
late the total displacement and express it in liters.
a. 11.1 liters
b. 12.7 liters
c. 14.8 liters
d. 16.1 liters
22. A six-cylinder engine has a bore of 4.875" and a stroke of 6.5". Calculate the total
displacement and express it in liters.
a. 10.3 liters
b. 11.9 liters
c. 12.5 liters
d. 12.8 liters
Chapter 5
1. Who invented the first heat engine?

a. Otto
b. da Vinci
c. Hero
d. Diesel
2. Which of the following properly describes the first heat engine?

a. Internal combustion
b. Two-stroke cycle
c. Four-stroke cycle
d. Reaction turbine
3. Who invented the term horsepower?

a. Papin
b. Watt
c. Stephenson
d. Diesel
4. Who built the world’s first useful steam engine?

a. Savery
b. Newcomen
c. Watt
d. Carnot
5. Who designed the first centrifugal governor?

a. da Vinci
b. Watt
c. Bosch
d. Diesel
6. In what year did Diesel patent his compression

ignition engine?
a. 1864
b. 1892
c. 1896
d. 1912
7. Who patented the first high-pressure liquid fuel

injection pump for a diesel engine?
a. Otto
b. Diesel
c. Ricardo
d. Bosch
8. Who is known as the “father of the highway diesel engine?”
a. Diesel
b. Bosch
c. Cummins
d. Roosa
9. What are the U.S. inventors Eckert and Mauchly known for?
a. The first electronic digital computer
b. The first turbocharger
c. The first internal combustion engine
d. The first dry cell battery
10. The world’s first automobile was built by:

a. Trivithick
b. Watt
c. Carnot
d. Cugnot
Chapter 6
1. Calculate the brake power of an engine producing, 1,150 lb-ft. of torque at the
flywheel when it is turning at 2,000 rpm. 438 BHP.
2. Use the PLANC formula to calculate the indicated power of a six-cylinder, four-
stroke cycle engine run at 1,800 rpm using the following data:
Stroke: 6.0 inches
Bore: 5.5 inches
MEP: 220 psi
428 BHP.
3. Which of the following is required to produce peak torque in a diesel engine?

a. Peak brake power
b. Peak cylinder pressure
c. Peak volumetric efficiency
d. Peak mechanical efficiency
4. In most hydromechanical fuel systems, when maximum engine rpm is increased,

the engine brake power potential will also increase.
a. True
b. False
5. Which of the following statements helps explain why an engine develops peak
brake power at a higher rpm than peak torque?
a. Cylinder pressures are highest.
b. More power strokes per second occur.
c. More time for combustion.
d. Better volumetric efficiency at high rpm.
6. Which of the following is true of an engine described as having high torque rise
when comparing it with its standard version with the same nominal rated power?
a. It will produce higher brake power.
b. It will have a higher maximum speed.
c. It will provide a wider operating rpm range.
d. It will be more fuel efficient.
7. A group of cyclists all weighing 80 kg (175 lb) and riding on bicycles of equal
weight ride a 10 kilometer (6.4 mile) race and all finish it. Which of the cyclists
has performed the most work?
a. The winner
b. All have performed equal work
c. The loser
8. Usable power at the flywheel of an engine is known as:
a. BSFC
b. Brake power
c. Indicated power
d. Torque
9. When engine power is calculated rather than tested, it is known as:

a. Mean effective pressure
b. BSFC
c. Brake power
d. Indicated power
10. Which of the following expresses 1 HP correctly?

a. 33,000 lb-ft. of work per second
b. 550 lb-ft. of work per second
c. 5,252 lb-ft. of work per minute
11. Convert a torque value of 25 lb-ft. into Newton-

meters.
a. 19.8
b. 21.3
c. 33.9
d. 38.1
12. A Cummins ISX 11.9 liter engine, programmed to 330 HP, produces a peak torque
value of 1,350 ft.-lb at 1,300 rpm. Convert the torque value to Newton-
meters.
a. 1,007 N·m
b. 1,275 N·m
c. 1,830 N·m
d. 2,225 N·m
13. A Detroit Diesel DD16 is rated at 600 HP. Express this in kilowatts.
a. 400 kW
b. 448 kW
c. 464 kW
d. 488 kW
14. A Navistar MaxxForce 13 produces 355 kW of power at 1,800 rpm. Convert the
kW to an HP value.
a. 276 HP
b. 355 HP
c. 455 HP
d. 475 HP
15. When comparing truck engine brake power measured at the flywheel to that
measured at the drive wheels, which one of the following should be true about
brake power?
a. There is no difference if the transmission and drive carrier are functioning
properly.
b. Power at the wheels exceeds that at the flywheel by 10% to 25%.
c. Power can only be measured at the drive
wheels.
d. Power at the flywheel exceeds that at the drive wheels by 20% to 25%.
Chapter 7
1. Which of the following engine conditions would be the likely cause of a tensile
failure of a connecting rod?
a. Engine overspeed
b. High cylinder pressures
c. Prolonged lug down
d. Prolonged engine idling
2. Which of the following is a disadvantage of an articulating piston assembly when

comparing it to an aluminum alloy trunk piston?
a. Piston slap control
b. Highest possible location of an upper ring groove
c. Service life
d. Increased tensile loading on the connecting rods
3. Where would a Ni-Resist insert be located?

a. Upper ring belt, aluminum trunk piston
b. Upper ring belt, crosshead piston
c. Steel trunk piston, pin boss
d. Lower ring belt, articulating piston
4. Under which of the following conditions would a piston ring seal more effective-
ly?
a. High engine temperatures
b. Low engine temperatures
c. High cylinder pressures
d. Low cylinder pressures
5. A crankshaft has a fracture failure that appears to have initiated at a throw journal
oil hole. Which of the following would be the more likely cause?
a. A broken main cap
b. Excessive cylinder pressure
c. A failed vibration damper
d. A spun rod bearing
6. Which of the following journal surface hardening methods would provide the
highest machinability margin?
a. Flame hardening
b. Nitriding
c. Shot peening
d. Induction hardening
7. Rod and main journal bearing clearances are properly measured with:
a. Tram gauges
b. Dial indicators
c. Plastigage
d. Snap gauges
8. What type of piston is favored by diesel engine OEMs in post-2007 products?

a. Forged steel trunk
b. Aluminum trunk
c. Two-piece articulating
d. Two-piece crosshead
9. When observing a disassembled engine, the outer crown edges of all six
pistons show signs of melting and erosion. This could be caused by:
a. Advanced timing
b. A dribbling injector
c. Retarded timing
d. Fuel with high sulfur content
10. Which of the following types of pistons use bushingless pin bosses?
a. Ferrotherm
b. Monotherm
c. Crosshead
d. Aluminum alloy
11. What would be the consequence of a misdirected piston oil cooling jet?
a. Fuel in lube
b. Torched piston
c. Low oil pressure
d. Overheated engine lube
12. Technician A states that keystone rings are most common in current diesel
engines. Technician B states that keystone connecting rods have a wedge-
shaped big end. Who iscorrect?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
13. What should be used to install piston rings onto a piston?

a. The thumb and index finger
b. A ring contractor
c. A ring expander
d. Snapring pliers
14. Which of the following operating modes would be more likely to result in a com-
pressional failure of a connecting rod?
a. Prolonged low idle running
b. Hydraulic lock caused by head gasket failure
c. Prolonged high idle running
d. Overspeeding engine
15. Which of the following would be the more likely outcome of running an engine
with a failed vibration damper?
a. Increased fuel consumption
b. Increased cylinder blowby
c. Crankshaft failure
d. Camshaft failure
16. In what area of a Mexican hat combustion chamber are the injected droplets of
fuel directed?
a. Center of the cone protrusion
b. Crater
c. Piston leading edge
d. Upper compression ring
17. The upper face of a piston assembly is called the:
a. Skirt
b. Boss
c. Trunk
d. Crown
18. Technician A states that a cam ground piston is circular when cold and expands to
an elliptical shape at operating temperature. Technician B states that the reason the
cam ground piston is elliptical when cold is to accommodate the thermal expansion
of the greater mass of material at the piston boss as it is raised to operating temper-
ature. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
19. The most commonly used piston crown design by OEMs in today’s highway die-
sel engines is the:
a. Mexican hat
b. Mann type
c. Dished
d. Barrel face
20. Which term is used to describe the cylinder volume between the piston upper
compression ring and its leading edge?
a. Dead volume
b. Headland volume
c. Toroidal recess
d. Clearance volume
21. Which of the following is true of a CFA piston?
a. The ring belt reinforcement insert extends up into the leading edge of
the piston.
b. It is a type of Ni-Resist insert.
c. It is used only on articulating pistons.
d. The ring belt operates at higher temperatures.
22. When crankshaft thrust surfaces are reground, which of the following would be
true?
a. Undersize thrust bearings are required.
b. Oversize thrust bearings are required.
c. The thrust washers must be shimmed.
d. The thrust washers must be machined to a smaller dimension.
23. Technician A states that main bearing shells are usually interchangeable and may
be installed in either the upper or lower position. Technician B states that the main
bearing shell with an oil hole must always be installed in the main bearing cap.
Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
24. Excessive clearance at the crankshaft main bearings could result in which of the fol-
lowing conditions?
a. Aerated oil
b. Fluctuating oil pressures
c. High oil pressure
d. Low oil pressure
25. Technician A states that the most commonly used type of vibration damper used
on truck diesel engines is the viscous type. Technician B states that the inertia ring
drive medium on a viscous-type vibration damper is a rubber compound. Who is
correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 8
1. The location on a cam profile that is exactly opposite the toe is referred to as the:
a. Nose
b. Ramp
c. Heel
d. Sole
2. On a cam profile described as mostly inner base circle, the profiles between IBC
and OBC are known as:
a. Cam geometry
b. Ramps
c. Ridges
d. Heels
3. Which of the following dimensions would be consistent with a typical engine tim-
ing gear backlash setting?
a. 0.002"
b. 0.008"
c. 0.014"
d. 0.024"
4. In which direction must a camshaft be rotated on a diesel engine with a crankshaft

that is rotated clockwise?
a. Either clockwise or counterclockwise depending on the engine
b. Clockwise
c. Counterclockwise
5. Which tool would be required to measure the cam lift of a cylinder block-
mounted camshaft in position?
a. A dial indicator
b. An outside micrometer
c. A depth micrometer
d. Thickness gauges
6. A camshaft gear is usually precisely positioned on the camshaft using a(n):

a. Interference fit
b. Key and keyway
c. Captured thrust washer
d. Dial indicator
7. When grinding a valve face to remove pitting, the critical specification to monitor
during machining would be the:
a. Shank diameter
b. Stem
c. Poppet diameter
d. Margin
8. Which of the following operating conditions would be more likely to cause a

valve float condition?
a. Engine lug down
b. Operating in the torque rise profile
c. Engine overspeed
d. Operating in the droop curve
9. When grinding a new set of cylinder valve seats, which of the following should be
performed before the machining?
a. Install the valves.
b. Install the rockers.
c. Adjust the valve yokes.
d. Install the valve guides.
10. The reason for using a pair of oppositely wound valve springs is to:
a. Minimize valve dynamic flutter
b. Double the closing force of two similarly wound valves
c. Increase the valve closing velocity
d. Diminish valve noise
11. Technician A states that the backlash in timing gearsets can be measured with a dial
indicator. Technician B states that if the gear backlash is insufficient, the result can
be gear whine. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
12. Technician A states that helical cut gears are often used in engine timing gear-
trains because they operate more quietly. Technician B states that shaft thrust
loads are much higher when helical cut gears are used. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
13. Technician A states that when installing an interference-fit gear to a shaft, the gear
should not be heated above 400°F. Technician B states that
if an oxyacetylene rosebud is not available, an interference-fit gear should be
pressed to the shaft using a hydraulic press. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
14. Technician A states that it is good practice to lubricate the inside bores of camshaft
bushings to facilitate camshaft installation. Technician B states that if the cam bushing
oil holes are not properly aligned an immediate camshaft failure could be the result.
Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
15. Which of the following methods is used to transfer drive from the crankshaft to
the camshaft on most commercial diesel engines?
a. Belt and pulley
b. Timing chain and sprocket
c. Gears
d. Fluid coupling
16. Technician A states that variable valve timing (VVT) is used on some diesel engines
to delay the closing of intake valves on the compression stroke. Technician B states
that VVT is used to open the intake valves early during the power stroke. Who is cor-
rect?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
17. What type of cam geometry is required if the objective is to load the train that
rides it for most of the cycle?
a. Mostly OBC profile
b. Mostly IBC profile
c. Symmetrical OBC and IBC profiles
18. Technician A states that the camshaft on a two-stroke cycle engine turns through
one complete rotation per complete engine revolution. Technician B states that the
camshaft on a four-stroke cycle diesel engine rotates through one revolution per
two engine revolutions. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
19. Technician A states that to check cam lift, the camshaft must be removed from the
engine to obtain a valid reading. Technician B states that to check for a bent cam-
shaft, the camshaft should be removed from the engine and runout tested in V-
blocks. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
20. Technician A states that valves machined with 45-degree seats breathe with higher
efficiencies than those machined with 30-degree seats. Technician B states that
valves machined with 30-degree seats run cooler than those machined with 45-
degree seats. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 9
1. Which of the following cylinder block designs would be the most common in me-
dium and heavy duty truck diesel engines?
a. Eight-cylinder, 90-degree V-configuration
b. Inline six cylinder
c. Six-cylinder, 60-degree V-configuration
d. Inline eight cylinder
2. The main reason for bench pressure testing a diesel engine cylinder head is to:
a. Test cylinder gas leakage
b. Check for air leaks
c. Check for exhaust leaks
d. Check for coolant leaks
3. When selective fitting a set of dry liners to a cylinder block, which of the follow-
ing statements should be true?
a. The liner with the largest od is fitted to the bore with the largest id.
b. The liners are installed with an interference fit.
c. The liner with the smallest od is fitted to the bore with the largest id.
d. The liners are installed with a fractionally loose fit.
4. Which of the following is the recommended method of pulling dry liners from a
cylinder block?
a. The arc welding method
b. A puller and shoe assembly
c. Heat and shock cool method
d. Fracture the liner in position
5. Which of the following tools is recommended for checking cylinder block line
bore?
a. Straightedge and thickness gauges
b. Dial bore gauge
c. Dial indicator
d. Master line bore bar
6. When boiling out a cylinder block, why is it critical that all the scale in the water
jacket be removed?
a. Scale is an effective insulator.
b. Scale may contaminate the engine lubricant.
c. Scale can accelerate coolant silicate drop-out.
d. Scale causes cavitation of wet liners.
7. Which of the following tools should be used to check a cylinder block deck for
warpage?
a. Master bar
b. Dial indicator
c. Laser
d. Straightedge and thickness gauges
8. Which of the following tools should be used to check a cylinder head for warp-
age?
a. Master bar
b. Dial indicator
c. Laser
d. Straightedge and thickness gauges
9. Technician A states that all the machined surfaces of a cylinder block should be
checked to specification with a straightedge and thickness gauges. Technician B
states that cylinder blocks should be boiled in a soak tank at every major over-
haul. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
10. When cavitation damage is evident on a set of wet liners, which of the following
is more likely to be responsible?
a. Lubrication breakdown
b. High cylinder pressures
c. Coolant breakdown
d. Cold engine operation
11. When cylinder block counterbores are machined, which of the following would be
required?
a. Oversize fire ring
b. Shims
c. Undersize liner flange
d. Cylinder head resurfacing
12. Technician A states that it is good practice to magnetic flux test a cylinder block
for cracks at each major overhaul. Technician B states that before performing a
magnetic flux test, the cylinder block should be boiled in a soak tank. Who is
correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
13. Most current heavy duty, diesel engine cylinder blocks are manufactured from:
a. Cast aluminum alloy
b. Cast iron alloys
c. Composite fibers
d. Compacted graphite iron (CGI)
14. Once a cylinder head gasket fire ring has been torqued to its yield point, it should:
a. Not be reused after removal
b. Be immediately heated to operating temperature
c. Deform and no longer seal effectively
15. Technician A states that all cylinder heads on current engines should be hot
torqued after a rebuild procedure. Technician B states that cylinder head bolts
should be soaked in engine lubricating oil before installation. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 10
1. Which of the following SAE multigrade oils would likely be recommended by

most highway diesel engine OEMs for year-round use in North America?
a. 5W-30
b. 15W-40
c. 20W-20
d. 20W-50
2. Which of the following API classifications indicates that the oil is formulated for
diesel engines meeting 2010 emissions standards?
a. GF
b. CC
c. CI-4
d. CJ-4
3. Which of the following conditions could result from a high crankcase oil level?
a. Lube oil aeration
b. Oil pressure gauge fluctuations
c. Friction bearing damage
d. All of the above
4. When investigating a low oil pressure complaint, which of the following should
be performed first?
a. Perform a rod and main bearing rollover.
b. Install a master gauge to verify the complaints.
c. Test the oil for fuel contamination.
d. Check the crankcase oil level.
5. A full flow oil filter has become completely plugged. What is the likely outcome if
the engine is running?
a. A bypass valve diverts the oil around the filter.
b. Engine lubrication ceases.
c. The oil pump hydraulically locks.
d. The engine seizes.
6. Which of the following statements would usually correctly describe the relative
temperatures of the coolant and lubricant when the engine is at operating tempera-
ture?
a. Coolant temperatures are higher than engine oil temperatures.
b. Engine oil temperatures are higher than coolant temperatures.
c. Coolant and engine oil temperatures should be equal.
7. Which type of oil pump is most commonly used in current highway diesel en-
gines?
a. External gear
b. Plunger
c. Centrifugal
d. Vane
8. Which of the following is usually the preferred OEM method of testing an oil
cooler bundle?
a. Pressure test using shop air and a bucket of water
b. Vacuum test
c. Die penetrant test
9. When interpreting a used engine oil analysis profile, which of the following con-
ditions would be most likely to cause high silicon levels?
a. Oil cooler bundle disintegration
b. Plugged air cleaner
c. Turbocharger bearing failure
d. Air cleaner perforation
10. Which of the following correctly identifies the source of diesel engine oil?
a. Vegetable-based oil
b. Crude petroleum
c. Asphalt tars
11. Engine oil service classifications are standardized by which of the following or-
ganizations?
a. SAE
b. API
c. ASTM
d. EPA
12. Technician A states that the operating temperature of an engine oil should be with-
in 5°F of that of the engine coolant operating temperature. Technician B
states that engine oil temperatures are probably a more accurate means of as-
sessing actual engine operating temperature than the coolant temperature reading.
Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
13. An auxiliary oil pump designed to feed oil to the lubrication circuit on a vehicle
that operates at extreme working angles is known as a(n):
a. Gerotor pump
b. Scavenging pump
c. Vane pump
d. Emergency pump
14. Oil that has a milky, clouded appearance is probably contaminated with:
a. Fuel
b. Engine coolant
c. Dust
d. Air
15. Which of the following statements best describes viscosity?

a. Resistance to temperature
b. Lubricity
c. Resistance to flow
d. Breakdown resistance
16. Technician A states that an oil cooler operates by having coolant pumped through
the bundle tubes and oil circulated around the tubes. Technician B states that a
leaking oil cooler core must always be replaced. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
17. Technician A states that 15W-40 is the most commonly used truck engine oil.
Technician B states that 15W-40 oil is not an appropriate all-season oil, because
winter temperatures are often much lower than the SAE recommended ambient
temperature window for this oil. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
18. Technician A states that the device used to signal oil pressure values to the ECM
on most electronically managed engines uses a variable capacitance operating
principle. Technician B states that an oil pressure sensor usually requires a V-Ref
source from the engine ECM. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
19. Technician A states that an engine equipped with EGR and DPF must use API CJ-
4 engine oil. Technician B states that engines manufactured before 2007 may use
API CI-4 engine oil. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
20. A diesel engine dash oil pressure gauge displays low and fluctuating oil pressure
values when the vehicle is operated. Technician A states that this could be caused
by low engine oil level. Technician B states that this could be caused by high en-
gine oil level. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 11
1. Which type of diesel engine coolant is regarded as potentially the most harmful to
humans?
a. EG
b. PG
c. WEC
d. ELC
2. Which of the following cooling media would transfer heat most efficiently?
a. EG
b. PG
c. Pure water
d. ELC
3. Wet liner cavitation is caused by:

a. Aerated coolant
b. Combustion gas leakage
c. Air in the radiator
d. Vapor bubble collapse
4. The cooling system hoses on an engine collapse when the unit is left parked over-
night. Which of the following is the likely cause?
a. This is normal.
b. A defective thermostat.
c. Improper coolant.
d. A defective radiator cap.
5. If a radiator cap pressure valve fails to seal, which of the following would be the
likely outcome?
a. Coolant boil-off
b. Cooler operating temperatures
c. Higher HC emissions
d. Cavitated cylinder liners
6. Which would be the warmest portion of a typical downflow-type radiator when

the engine is at operating temperature?
a. The top tank
b. The surge tank
c. The bottom tank
d. The center of the core
7. The temperature rating of a thermatic viscous fan hub is a nominal 155°F
(68°C). At approximately what equivalent coolant temperature will this pro-
duce minimum slip drive as temperatures rise?
a. 155°F (68°C)
b. 165°F (74°C)
c. 190°F (88°C)
d. 225°F (107°C)
8. In a typical diesel-powered highway truck at operating temperature, which of the

following should be true?
a. Coolant temperatures run cooler than lube oil temperatures.
b. Coolant temperatures run warmer than lube oil temperatures.
c. Coolant temperatures should be equal to lube oil temperatures.
9. Which of the following properly describes the operating principle of a typical

coolant pump on a highway diesel engine?
a. Positive displacement
b. Centrifugal
c. Constant volume
d. Gear type
10. Which of the following controls the drive efficiency of a thermatic, viscous drive
fan hub?
a. Bimetal strip
b. Viscosity of the silicone drive medium
c. Fanstat
d. Solenoid
11. When the thermostat routes the coolant through the bypass circuit, what is hap-
pening?
a. The coolant is cycled primarily through the radiator.
b. The coolant is cycled primarily through the engine.
c. The coolant is cycled primarily through auxiliary heat exchangers.
12. Fiberglass fans with flexible pitch blades are designed to drive air at greatest effi-
ciency at:
a. Low speeds
b. All speeds
c. High speeds
13. Coolant silicate drop-out usually causes:

a. Scaling
b. Gooey sludge
c. High TDS readings
14. In the event of an engine overheating, where is the coolant likely to boil first?
a. At the engine water jacket
b. At the top of the radiator tank
c. At the inlet to the coolant pump
d. At the thermostat housing
15. What instrument do most OEMs recommend for checking the degree of antifreeze
protection in heavy duty diesel engine coolants?
a. Hydrometer
b. Refractometer
c. Spectrographic analyzer
d. Color-coded test coupon
16. Technician A states that premixed ELC has an approved service life of up to 6
years. Technician B states that water should never be added to premixed ELC even
when it is distilled. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
17. Technician A states that when an ECM controls fan cycles, the fan is usually driven
for longer periods than an equivalent on-off fan management system. Technician B
states that when an ECM controls fan cycles, the fan is driven at lower speeds than an
equivalent on-off fan management system. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
18. Technician A states that a double pass radiator offers higher cooling efficiencies
than a similarly sized single-pass radiator. Technician B states that crossflow radi-
ators are often used in aerodynamic low hood and grille designs. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
19. Which of the following is true of an APCS?

a. Coolant boil temperature is raised.
b. Cooling system pressure is raised by compressed air.
c. Helps the cooling system function with higher heat loads.
d. All of the above.
20. Which of the following strategies is a requirement of starting diesel engines in
subzero (below −17°C) temperatures?
a. Use of an auxiliary diesel coolant heater
b. Discharge a can of ether into the engine while cranking
c. Avoid shutting the engine off
d. All of the above
Chapter 12
1. The tool of choice to accurately check the inlet restriction of a dry air filter would
be a:
a. Mercury-filled manometer
b. Trouble light
c. Water-filled manometer
d. Restriction gauge
2. A typical maximum specified inlet restriction for an air filter on a turbocharged

diesel would be:
a. 25 inches H2O restriction
b. 25 inches Hg (mercury) restriction
c. 25 psi
d. 25 kPa
3. Which of the following types of filters has the highest filtering efficiencies?
a. Centrifugal precleaners
b. Oil bath
c. Dry, positive
4. Which of the following should be performed first when checking an engine that
produces black smoke under load?
a. Injection timing
b. Plugged DPF
c. Fuel quality by chemical lab analysis
d. Air filter restriction test
5. Which of the following best describes the intended function of a C-EGR system
on a diesel engine?
a. It increases engine breathing efficiency.
b. It dilutes intake charge with cooled dead gas.
c. It preheats the intake charge to the cylinder.
d. It assists the turbocharger in boosting intake pressure.
6. Which of the following best describes the function of a wastegate in a current tur-
bo-boosted diesel engine?
a. Bleeds down intake boost air when excessively high
b. Allows exhaust gas to bypass the turbine
c. Adjusts the volute flow area
d. Holds the exhaust valves open during low boost requirement
7. When series turbocharging is used on a current diesel engine, which of the follow-
ing should be true?
a. A single CG turbocharger is used.
b. Twin turbos are arranged in series.
c. The VG actuator is in series with the EGR mixer.
Twin turbos are arranged in parallel.
d.
8. What is the critical flow area managed by a VG turbo using a variable nozzle op-
erating principle?
a. Compressor diffuser
b. Impeller inlet throat
c. Turbine volute
d. EGR gate
9. To produce peak manifold boost from a VN-type turbocharger, which of the fol-
lowing should be true?
a. Vanes are in the nearly closed position.
b. Vanes are in the fully open position.
c. Wastegate is fully open.
d. Wastegate is fully closed.
10. The constant geometry turbocharger used in a current highway diesel engine with
turbo-compounding is designed to produce optimum efficiency at which rpm?
a. Rated speed and load
b. Top engine limit (TEL)
c. Peak torque
d. High idle
11. Technician A states that a dry air filter functions at optimum entrapment efficien-
cy when it is new and that by the time it requires replacing, it has lower filtering
efficiencies. Technician B states that oil bath filters are seldom used with today’s
highway diesel engines because they have low filtering efficiencies. Who is cor-
rect?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
12. Technician A states that turbo-compounded diesel engines such as the DDC DD15
use CG turbos to supply boost air to the intake manifold. Technician B states that
turbo-compounding allows the turbo to directly contribute drive torque to the engine
drivetrain by means of reduction gearing. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
13. Technician A states that the term manifold boost is used to describe breathing on a
turbocharged engine. Technician B states that turbine speeds on truck diesel en-
gines can exceed 100,000 rpm. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
14. Technician A states that using a lightbulb inside an air filter element is a reliable
means of determining whether the filter is plugged. Technician B states that air fil-
ters are best left untouched between service intervals unless the filter restriction
gauge indicates an out-of-specification reading. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
15. Technician A states that the first item to be checked when an engine produces
black smoke should be the air filter inlet restriction gauge. Technician B states that
whenever an engine produces black smoke the air filter should automatically be
changed. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
16. Which of the following methods would identify the location of a hole or tear in an
air filter element?
a. Lightbulb test
b. Air inlet restriction gauge
c. Manometer test
d. Regulated air pressure test
17. When is a diesel engine turbocharger capable of highest rotational speeds?

a. At peak engine rpm
b. When rejected heat is greatest
c. At peak torque
d. When exhaust manifold pressure is greatest
18. Which of the following components would be located in a diesel exhaust gas af-
tertreatment canister?
a. DPF
b. SCR
c. Oxidation converter
d. Any or all of the above
19. Which of the following best describes the function of a VG turbocharger?
a. It behaves like a large turbocharger when engine load is high.
b. It behaves like a small turbocharger when engine load is high.
c. It reroutes NOx back into the engine cylinders.
d. It reroutes EGR gas into the DPF.
20. Technician A states that the function of a turbocharger wastegate is to divert ex-
haust gas around the turbine directly into the exhaust system. Technician B states
that a wastegated turbocharger can improve turbine efficiencies at lower loads and
rpms. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 13
1. Which type of engine brake uses the compression stroke of the piston as its retard-
ing stroke?
a. Internal compression brake
b. External compression brake
c. Hydraulic retarder
d. Volvo EPG
2. Which type of engine brake uses the exhaust stroke of the piston as its retarding
stroke?
a. Internal compression brake
b. External compression brake
c. Hydraulic retarder
3. Technician A states that the Cummins Intebrake on pre-2010 ISX is capable of

optioning engine braking on just one engine cylinder. Technician B states that the
Cummins Intebrake on post-2010 ISX functions as both an internal and external
engine compression brake. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
4. The effective braking cycle on most internal engine compression brakes fitted to
hydromechanical engines is actuated by using which of the following?
a. Electric over hydraulic
b. Electric over pneumatic
c. Pneumatic over hydraulic
d. Hydraulic over electric
5. When will any kind of engine brake usually operate at peak efficiency?
a. At idle rpm
b. At peak torque rpm
c. At rated speed rpm
d. At the highest rpm
6. Technician A states that on most internal engine compression brakes, the effective
braking stroke of the piston is the compression stroke. Technician B states that on
some engine brake systems, both the compression and exhaust strokes can deliver
retarding force. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
7. The operating principle of an internal engine compression brake is to convert the
engine into an:
a. Energy-absorbing compressor
b. Energy-releasing machine
c. Inertia-absorbing device
d. Inertia-producing device
8. The energy of vehicle motion is ultimately converted to what energy form when
an engine compression brake is used?
a. Kinetic energy
b. Heat energy
c. Chemical energy
d. Potential energy
9. Technician A states that the force used to actuate the hydraulic circuit in a typical
Jacobs brake is delivered by an electrically actuated solenoid. Technician B states
that Jacobs brake solenoids act as a pilot switch to control oil flow to the hydrau-
lic actuation circuit. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
10. When an internal engine compression brake is actuated, where does gas blow-
down occur?
a. At valve overlap
b. Close to BDC following the power stroke
c. At the beginning of the exhaust stroke
d. Close to TDC at the completion of the compression stroke
11. Which of the following engine brakes offers progressive step braking using from
one to all six cylinders?
a. Cummins Intebrake on pre-2010 ISX
b. Mercedes-Benz CTV
c. Mack Trucks Jacobs on E-Tech
d. Caterpillar BrakeSaver
12. When a Caterpillar BrakeSaver is used, which of the following is also true?
a. External exhaust brake principles apply.
b. A larger capacity engine oil sump is used.
c. It must be controlled by the vehicle ECM.
d. Retarding efficiency can never be modulated.
Chapter 14
1. Which of the following engine lubricants must be used if an engine is equipped

with a DPF?
a. Any synthetic lubricant
b. Any biodiesel lubricant
c. API CI-4
d. API CJ-4
2. Which of the following would best describe the color of DEF?

a. Blue
b. Clear
c. Amber
d. Red
3. What quantity of oil does the distance from the top to the bottom of the crosshatch
area on a typical heavy duty diesel engine represent?
a. 1.0 quart (0.95 L)
b. 2.0 quarts (1.9 L)
c. 4.0 quarts (3.8 L)
d. 8.0 quarts (7.5 L)
4. Technician A says that the fastest way to break in a diesel engine is to add a charge
of aftermarket break-in solution to the engine oil. Technician B says that most truck
engine OEMs recommend adding fuel conditioners to diesel fuel tanks to improve
the winter drivability of diesel engines. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
5. What color is used to denote a DEF fill cap?

a. White
b. Green
c. Red
d. Blue
6. Which of the following solutions would provide the highest level of antifreeze
protection?
a. Pure distilled water
b. A 50/50 solution of EG and distilled water
c. A 100% solution of PG
d. A 100% solution of EG
7. Technician A says that EG is always colored green. Technician B says that PG is
always colored red. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
8. Technician A says that DEF is available at most diesel refueling stations. Techni-
cian B says that DEF can be obtained from most manufacturer dealerships. Who
is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
9. Which of the following is the correct course of action when a WIF alert is posted
to the DDU?
a. Drain the water separator sump
b. Replace the fuel filters
c. Replace the water separator
d. All of the above
10. When should a diesel engine air filter be changed?

a. At every engine wet service
b. Every time the oil filter is changed
c. Every six months
d. When the restriction gauge indicates it is beginning to plug
Chapter 16
1. Technician A states that a truck rebuilt diesel engine run-in procedure usually re-
quires that the engine be operated at medium to low loads for the first 1,000 miles
(1,600 km) of operation. Technician B argues that it is usually essential to run a
rebuilt diesel engine at full load for a short period after a rebuild to seat the piston
rings. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
2. Technician A states that an engine dynamometer is likely to produce a brake

power rating closer to the OEM-specified power than a chassis dynamometer
test. Technician B states that the chassis dynamometer produces brake power
readings at the wheels that are always lower than OEM-rated power. Who is cor-
rect?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
3. If all three options were available and time is not a consideration, which of the
following options would be the preferred method of running-in a rebuilt engine?
a. Engine dynamometer
b. Chassis dynamometer
c. Road test
4. Technician A states that when performing dynamometer testing of an engine, the

altitude of the test location must be considered when analyzing the power. Tech-
nician B states that ambient temperature variations have a greater effect on brake
power produced than altitude. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
5. Which of the following electronic controllers would have to be disabled before

performing a chassis dynamometer test?
a. Engine ECM
b. Transmission ECM
c. Automatic traction control (ATC)
d. Collision warning system (CWS)
Chapter 17
1. Which of the following statements correctly describes air?

a. A mixture of nitrogen, oxygen, and inert gases
b. A compound of nitrogen, oxygen, and inert gases
c. A molecule of nitrogen, oxygen, and inert gases
d. An element of nitrogen, oxygen, and inert gases
2. A cubic centimeter of a typical diesel fuel would require approximately what vol-
ume of air at sea level to completely oxidize it?
a. 12 cc
b. 15 cc
c. 1,000 cc
d. 12,000 cc
3. The smallest particle of a compound that can exist in the free state and retain the
chemical identity of the compound is known as a(n):
a. Quark
b. Nucleus
c. Atom
d. Molecule
4. The theory that explains the atomic differences in the three states of matter is
known as:
a. Covalent bonding
b. Kinetic molecular theory
c. Atomic theory
d. Plasma theory
5. The most abundant element found in the known universe is:

a. Oxygen
b. Carbon
c. Hydrogen
d. Nitrogen
6. The most abundant element found in the earth’s crust is:

a. Oxygen
b. Carbon
c. Hydrogen
d. Nitrogen
7. Oxygen has a valence of:
a. 0
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
8. Proportionately, the largest ingredient in an in-engine cylinder, combustion reac-

tion is:
a. HC fuel
b. Oxygen
c. Water
d. Nitrogen
9. The term used to describe a combustion reaction in which the exact proportions of
fuel and air are present is:
a. Stoichiometric
b. Perfect burn
c. Afterburn
d. Gas blowdown
10. Combustion in an engine cylinder that takes place with more than one flame front is
correctly known as:
a. Stoichiometric
b. Normal
c. Detonation
d. Afterburn
11. Calculate the stoichiometric requirement of a fuel composed of 84% carbon, 15%
hydrogen, and 1% sulfur when combusted in pure oxygen. 3.34: 1
12. Calculate the stoichiometric requirement of a fuel composed of 84% carbon, 15%
hydrogen, and 1% sulfur when combusted in ambient air. 14.96: 1
13. How many protons would a balanced atom of oxygen contain?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 8
d. 16
14. How many electrons would a balanced atom of carbon contain?

a. 2
b. 6
c. 12
d. 24
15. The atomic number of an element indicates the number of ___ in an atom of the
element.
a. Electrons
b. Neutrons
c. Protons
d. Quarks
16. Technician A states that the stoichiometric requirement of a gasoline combusted

in air at sea level must be precisely 14.7:1. Technician B states that the stoichi-
ometric requirement of a diesel fuel ranges between 14.5:1 and 15.1:1. Who is
correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
17. Technician A states that when diesel fuel is combusted one of the products of
combustion is water. Technician B states that carbon dioxide results from burning
diesel fuel. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
18. Technician A states that most electronically managed diesel engines are run at
precise stoichiometric ratios of air and fuel after the engine is at operating tem-
perature. Technician B states that most diesel engines are managed to run at rich
fuel-to-air ratios. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
19. Technician A states that hydrogen is an inert element. Technician B states that
carbon can be classified as a reactive element. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
20. Technician A states that the end products of both an explosion and a combustion
reaction are similar. Technician B states that an explosion is an oxidation reaction
that occurs in much less time than what would be described as combustion in an
engine cylinder. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 18
1. As the octane rating value of a gasoline increases, what can be said of its burn
rate?
a. It is not affected.
b. It decreases.
c. It increases.
2. As the CN value of a diesel fuel increases, what happens to its ignition tempera-
ture?
a. It is not affected.
b. It decreases.
c. It increases.
3. The temperature at which a fuel evaporates sufficient flammable vapor to momen-

tarily ignite when a flame is brought close to its surface is known as:
a. Flash point
b. Fire point
c. Boil point
4. What is the minimum CN requirement of 1D or 2D on-highway diesel fuel?

a. 30
b. 40
c. 45
d. 50
5. Which of the following specific gravity values would correspond to that of a typi-
cal 2D diesel fuel?
a. 0.710
b. 0.840
c. 0.970
d. 1.170
6. Which of the following diesel fuel additives is a commonly used cetane improver?
a. Isopropyl alcohol
b. Kerogen
c. Kerosene
d. Cyclohexanol nitrate
7. The temperature at which a diesel fuel begins to form paraffin wax crystals is
known as:
a. Cloud point
b. Pour point
c. Flash point
8. The lowest temperature at which a diesel fuel can be pumped through a fuel sys-
tem is known as:
a. Cloud point
b. Pour point
c. Gel point
9. If an additive were required to prevent freeze-up of a fuel crossover pipe, which

of the following would be the preferred option?
a. Add 8 oz. (250 cc) of fuel conditioner to the tanks.
b. Add 8 oz. (250 cc) of methyl hydrate to the tanks.
c. Add 8 oz. (250 cc) of gasoline to the tanks.
d. Add 8 oz. (250 cc) of cetane improver to the tanks.
10. Current diesel fuel formulated for on-highway use and classified as ULS is re-
quired to have what maximum sulfur content?
a. 0.0015%
b. 0.005%
c. 0.300%
d. 0.500%
11. Technician A states that 2D diesel fuel will, in most cases, produce slightly better
fuel mileage from a highway truck engine than a 1D fuel. Technician B states that
2D usually has more heat energy than a 1D fuel. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
12. Technician A states that all 1D and 2D fuels must be sold with a CN number of
exactly 40. Technician B states that refiners and fuel suppliers seasonally adjust
the ignition quality of fuels. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
13. Which of the following best describes the term octane rating when applied to a
fuel?
a. Volatility
b. Burn rate
c. Antiknock resistance
d. Ignition temperature
14. Which of the following components would be more likely to fail if LS fuel were
used instead of ULS in a highway diesel engine manufactured after 2007?
a. Exhaust gas recirculation (EGR) circuit
b. NOx reduction catalyst
c. Diesel particulate filter (DPF)
d. Selective catalytic reduction (SCR) system
15. Technician A states that a catalyst is a substance that enhances or enables a chem-
ical reaction without itself undergoing any change. Technician B states that the
laws of thermodynamics dictate that a catalytic reaction must involve a change in
the state of the catalyst. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
16. Technician A states that denser fractions of crude petroleums tend to command
higher prices than lighter fractions. Technician B states that diesel fuel tends to be
more volatile than gasoline. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 19
1. On the typical truck diesel fuel subsystem, which of the following is usually sub-
ject to the lowest pressure in the circuit?
a. Fuel heater
b. Primary filter
c. Secondary filter
d. Charging gallery
2. A secondary filter is located:

a. Upstream from the transfer pump
b. On the charge side of the transfer pump
c. In the fuel rail
d. In the return gallery
3. The main reason for filling vehicle fuel tanks before overnight parking is:
a. To minimize moisture condensation within the tank
b. To minimize fuel evaporation
c. To help cool down onboard fuel
d. Drivers may forget the next morning
4. Besides fuel storage, the fuel tank may play an important role in a high-flow fuel
system as a(n):
a. Heat exchanger
b. Fuel heating device
c. Ballast equalizer
d. Aerodynamic aid
5. Approximately how much does 100 U.S. gallons of 2D diesel fuel weigh?
a. 500 lb
b. 730 lb
c. 1,000 lb
d. 2,000 lb
6. The correct instrument for testing the low-pressure side of most fuel subsystems
for inlet restriction is a(n):
a. Diagnostic sight glass
b. H2O manometer
c. Hg manometer
d. Accurate pressure gauge
7. The correct instrument for testing fuel subsystem charging pressure is a(n):
b. H2O manometer
c. Hg manometer
8. The correct instrument to use for checking for the admission of air to a fuel sub-
system is a(n):
b. H2O manometer
c. Hg manometer
9. Which type of fuel charging/transfer pump is more commonly used by today’s

electronically managed engine/fuel systems?
a. Plunger pumps
b. Centrifugal pumps
c. Diaphragm pumps
d. Gear pumps
10. What type of pumping principle is used by a typical hand primer pump?
a. Single-acting plunger
b. Double-acting plunger
c. Rotary gear
d. Cam-actuated diaphragm
11. Technician A states that when servicing fuel filters on a fuel subsystem with a pri-
mary and a secondary filter, a transfer pump located, hand primer pump can be used
to prime both filters. Technician B states that if a transfer pump located, hand pri-
mer pump is used to prime the secondary filter after installation, it reduces the
chances of dirt contamination downstream from the filter. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
12. Charging pressure rise is usually directly related to which of the following?
a. Throttle position
b. Engine load
c. Peak power
d. Increased rpm
13. Technician A states that in current truck dual fuel tanks, fuel pickup tubes are located in
each tank. Technician B states that some older dual fuel tanks used a single pickup tube
located in one of the tanks that were connected by a crossover pipe. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
14. Technician A states that the water in fuel tanks can be detected using a probe and
water detection paste. Technician B states that the presence of water in the fuel
subsystem can usually be detected by a WIF sensor. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
15. Technician A states that some water-separator units use a centrifuge to separate water
from fuel. Technician B states that because fuel is heavier than water, fuel can be eas-
ily separated from the water because it always settles under the water. Who is cor-
rect?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
16. Technician A states that gear pumps are of the positive displacement type. Technician B
states that plunger pumps are positive displacement. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
17. If the fuel tank vent valve on a diesel-powered vehicle is plugged, which of the
following would be the likely outcome when running the engine?
a. The tank would explode.
b. The engine would run away due to excess fuel.
c. The tank would implode.
d. The engine would shut down due to fuel starvation.
18. Technician A states that diesel engine fuel tank caps are fitted with a two-way
valve that permits both fuel vapor seepage and air admission to the tank. Techni-
cian B states that most commercial truck diesel engines use a vane-type transfer
pump located in the fuel tank to pump fuel to the transfer pump. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
19. Technician A states that diesel fuel can combine with air to form potentially ex-
plosive mixtures. Technician B states that diesel fuel CN is likely to degrade more
quickly during the winter than in the heat of summer. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
20. At refueling on the completion of a journey, fuel is steaming in the tanks. Techni-
cian A states that this condition is a result of normal operation in some fuel sys-
tems. Technician B states that such a condition can be a result of running the tanks
low on fuel in a high-flow fuel system. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 20
1. The precise control of injected fuel quantity is known as:

a. Timing
b. Metering
c. Atomization
d. Spray dispersion
2. Which two factors define the emitted droplet sizings from a nozzle assembly?
a. Injection pressure and orifice size
b. Load and rpm
c. Accelerator position and governor
d. Cylinder pressure and crank angle
3. Given unlimited fuel a diesel engine may accelerate at a rate up to:

a. 60 rpm per second
b. 120 rpm per second
c. 120 rpm per minute
d. 1,000 rpm per second
4. If a four-stroke cycle engine is run at 1,000 rpm, approximately how many power
strokes per second will occur in any one of its cylinders?
a. 1,000
b. 8
c. 17
d. 32
5. In what position through the power stroke is crank throw leverage at its maxi-
mum?
a. TDC
b. 10 degrees BTDC rod-to-throw angle
c. 10–20 degrees ATDC rod-to-throw angle
d. 90 degree rod-to-throw angle
6. An ideal fuel system manages fueling to produce peak cylinder pressure at which
location on the power stroke to produce optimum performance on any given en-
gine cycle?
a. TDC
b. 15 degrees ATDC
c. 90 degrees ATDC
d. BDC
7. When the term pilot injection is used to describe the initial shot of fuel in a
multipulse injection system, which of the following best describes its function?
a. It lubricates the cylinder walls.
b. It doses the diesel particulate filter.
c. It initiates the flame front for the main pulse.
d. It cools the piston crown.
8. In which engine position does the crank throw provide the least amount of lever-
age?
a. TDC
b. 15 degrees ATDC
c. 90 degrees ATDC
d. 120 degrees BTDC
9. Technician A states that the degree of atomization is controlled by managing in-

jection pressure. Technician B states that atomized droplets are in a gaseous state.
Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
10. What units are typically used to express duty cycle in electronically managed die-
sel engines?
a. Crank angle degrees
b. Microns
c. Milliseconds
d. Microseconds
11. What acronym is commonly used to display duty cycle on electronic service tools
(ESTs)?
a. PW
b. PWM
c. DC
d. IRT
12. Technician A states that some multipulse diesel fuel injection systems can break
up an injection pulse into seven separate injection events in one cycle. Technician
B states that multipulse diesel fuel injection can be hard on powertrain compo-
nents because it produces spiked cylinder pressures. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
13. When attempting to cold start an electronically controlled diesel engine in subzero
(lower than −17°C) conditions, which of the following would provide the most
help?
a. Larger than normal fuel droplet sizing
b. Smaller than normal fuel droplet sizing
c. Substantial advance to injection timing
d. Pushing the accelerator to the floor
14. Rhythmic fluctuation in engine rpm is known as:

a. Governor overrun
b. Governor underrun
c. Dieseling
d. Hunting
15. An engine run at a speed exceeding rated, but less than high-idle, speed would be
operating:
a. In the torque rise profile
b. At peak torque
c. In the droop curve
d. In an overrun condition
16. When an engine is rapidly accelerated and momentarily exceeds the nominal
high-idle speed, the condition is known as:
a. Runout
b. Governor cutoff
c. Speed drift
d. Overrun
17. Technician A states that an LS governor is designed to produce accelerator re-

sponse close to that of an automobile throttle. Technician B states that a VS gov-
ernor is capable of increasing and decreasing fuel quantity per cycle without mov-
ing the accelerator pedal. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
18. Technician A states that an isochronous governor could be used on a vehicle en-
gine providing it had a fluid clutch. Technician B states that an isochronous gov-
ernor is normally used to manage a genset. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
19. Technician A states that a high-speed diesel engine given unlimited fuel will ac-
celerate to self-destruction. Technician B states that a governor is designed to de-
rate engine fueling as altitude increases. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
20. Technician A states that when governed high-idle speed is increased in an on-
highway engine, an increase in brake horsepower is a more likely result than a de-
crease. Technician B states that drivers are more likely to complain about a lack
of power on an engine with a short torque rise profile than one with high torque
rise. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 21
1. Which type of injection nozzle would be found on most DI truck diesel engines
before 2007?
a. Poppet
b. Pintle
c. Throttling
d. Multi-orifii
2. When injector back leakage is bench checked, which of the following is being
tested?
a. NOP
b. Nozzle seat seal
c. Valve-to-body clearance
d. Injector spring
3. When nozzle forward leakage is bench checked, which of the following is being
tested?
a. NOP
b. Ability of nozzle valve seat to seal
c. Valve-to-body clearance
d. Injector spring
4. Setting the injector NOP value in hydraulic injector nozzles is accomplished by:
a. Adding or subtracting shims
b. An adjusting screw
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
5. An injector spring in a hydraulic injector nozzle that is fatigued would likely pro-
duce which of the following conditions?
a. Higher NOP
b. Higher NOP and retarded injection timing
c. Nozzle chatter
d. Lower NOP and advanced injection timing
6. Replacing a single high-pressure injection pipe on a multicylinder engine by one

of greater length would likely have what effect on injection timing in the affected
cylinder?
a. Advance
b. Retard
c. None
d. Decrease the fuel pulse width
7. Technician A states that nozzle chatter while bench testing an injector is an indi-
cation of a fatigued injector spring. Technician B states that a high injector back
leakage rate is an indicator of excessive nozzle valve-to-nozzle body clearance.
Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
8. What is the distinguishing feature of a VCO nozzle?

a. The sac is eliminated.
b. High spring location.
c. Low spring location.
d. Used only in IDI engines.
9. What type of fuel injector nozzles are required on almost all on-highway diesel
engines that are certified for EPA 2010?
a. Poppet
b. Hydraulic multiple orifice
c. Electrohydraulic
d. Pintle
10. Which of the following resistance values indicates a typical within-specification

for a current EHI solenoid actuator?
a. 1 ohm
b. 5 ohms
c. 10 ohms
d. 1,000 ohms
11. Technician A states that hydraulic injector nozzles are designed so that the pres-
sure required to open the nozzle valve is greater than the pressure required to hold
it open. Technician B states that after NOP, the nozzle line pressure steadily de-
creases until the nozzle closes at the end of the injection pulse. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
12. Nozzle differential ratio is a ratio of:

a. Nozzle seat sectional area and total nozzle sectional area
b. The high-pressure pipe sectional area and the orifii flow area
c. The nozzle pressure chamber sectional area and the high-pressure pipe
sectional area
d. The ratio of mechanical spring force and hydraulic pressure
13. Which of the following factors does most to prevent secondary injections?
a. Pressure wave reflection
b. Nozzle differential ratio
c. The nozzle sac
d. The pressure chamber sectional area
14. Which of the following is another way of stating the NOP specification?
a. Not operating properly
b. Residual line pressure
c. Peak pressure
d. Popping pressure
15. Most diesel engine OEMs recommend that injectors be installed into the cylinder
head injector bore:
a. Dry
b. Coated with engine oil
c. Coated with Never-Seize
d. Coated with lubriplate
16. Technician A states that when a hydraulic multi-orifii injector is used in an elec-
tronically managed fuel system, nozzle opening and closing are switched hydrau-
lically. Technician B says that the opening and closing of an EHI are controlled
by the ECM. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
17. Excessive fuel returned into the leak-off lines from a set of hydraulic injector
nozzles is an indication of:
a. Nozzle seat leakage
b. Wear in the nozzle-body-to-nozzle-valve fit
c. Wear in the nozzle seat
d. A weak injector spring
18. Technician A states that EHI injector nozzles using solenoid actuators should test
at resistance values of 1 ohm or less. Technician B states that EHIs using the
most common type of piezoelectric actuators should test at resistance values of
0.6 ohms or less. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
19. Technician A states that the injector nozzles used on pre-2007 EUIs and HEUIs
use the same operating principles as those on any hydraulic pump-line-nozzle sys-
tem. Technician B states that hydraulic injector nozzles use a soft value NOP.
Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
20. Which of the following types of injectors would be best suited to multipulse injec-
tion?
a. Hydraulic poppet
b. Hydraulic multi-orifii
c. EHI with solenoid actuator
d. EHI with piezoelectric actuator
Chapter 22
1. The beginning of the injection pump effective stroke is known as:

a. Port closure
b. Port opening
c. Injection lag
d. Afterburn
2. The ending of injection pump effective stroke is known as:

a. Port closure
b. Port opening
c. NOP
d. Flame quench
3. The device used to rotate the injection pump plungers in unison is known as a:
a. Barrel
b. Tappet
c. Rack
d. Control sleeve
4. Charging pressures in a port-helix metering injection pump are created by a(n):

a. Supply pump
b. Accumulator
c. Vane pump
d. Centrifugal pump
5. What component replaces the governor housing at the rear of a port-helix meter-
ing injection pump if it is managed by a computer?
a. Electronic governor
b. Rack actuator housing
c. ECM
d. Module
6. Static timing can also be referred to as:

a. Port closure timing
b. NOP timing
c. Point of ignition
d. Completion of injection
7. Which of the following components would limit engine fueling at high altitudes?
a. Barometric capsule
b. Aneroid
c. Governor
d. Variable timing
8. A port-helix metering injection pump managing a direct-injected diesel engine
would typically be port closure timed to what position on the engine?
a. 50 degrees BTDC
b. 50 degrees ATDC
c. 20 degrees BTDC
d. 20 degrees ATDC
9. 360 degrees of pump rotation is equal to how many degrees of engine rotation?
a. 120 degrees
b. 180 degrees
c. 360 degrees
d. 720 degrees
10. Which type of cam geometry is used to actuate the high-pressure pump elements
in most inline port-helix metering injection pumps?
a. Symmetrical of mostly inner base circle design
b. Asymmetrical of mostly outer base circle design
c. Anti–back kick
d. Double lobe
11. What is the function of the flutes machined into a typical delivery valve core?
a. Guide the valve in the body
b. Permit the valve to seal before it seats
c. Define the residual line pressure
d. Define valve core travel in the valve body
12. What is the function of the retraction collar/piston on the delivery valve core?
a. Guide the valve in the body
b. Permit the valve to seal before it seats
c. Limit pressure wave reflection
d. Limit back leakage to the pump chamber
13. An electronically managed port-helix metering injection pump has ECM-

managed variable timing with a 20-degree window statically timed at
8 degrees BTDC. What is the timing window within which the ECM can se-
lect the port closure event?
a. 28 degrees BTDC to 8 degrees BTDC
b. 8 degrees BTDC to 12 degrees ATDC
c. 8 degrees BTDC to 28 degrees ATDC
d. 12 degrees ATDC to 8 degrees BTDC
14. Which of the following components inputs data to the ECM that defines metered
fuel quantity in any given moment of operation?
a. Rack actuator
b. Rack position sensor
c. Reference coil
d. Timing event marker
15. Which of the following components could be described as a linear magnet?

a. Rack actuator
b. Rack position sensor
c. Reference coil
d. Pulse wheel
16. How many fuel pump elements are required on a Bosch 8500 injection pump fuel-
ing an inline six-cylinder engine?
a. One
b. One per cylinder head
c. Three
d. Six
17. Technician A states that a Bosch rack actuator can be described as a linear propor-
tioning solenoid. Technician B states that the rack position sensor is a piezoelec-
tric device. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
18. Technician A says that the reference coil in a Bosch RE30 rack actuator housing
moves when the rack moves. Technician B says that the only rotating component
within an RE30 rack actuator housing is the Econovance. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
19. When both lights illuminate on a PE pump electronic timing tool fitted to a PE
8500 pump, which of the following should be true?
a. #1 engine cylinder is at TDC
b. #1 pump element is at PC
c. #6 engine cylinder is at TDC
d. #6 pump element is at PC
20. What type of voltage signal is triggered by the TEM notch on the pulse wheel
within a RE30 rack actuator?
a. V-Ref
b. AC
c. DC
d. PWM
Chapter 23
1. If a four-stroke cycle diesel engine fueled by an inlet-metering, opposed-plunger

fuel pump is rotated through a complete cycle, how many times is the pump rotat-
ed?
a. One-half revolution
b. One revolution
c. Two revolutions
d. Four revolutions
2. What actuates the plungers of an inlet-metering, opposed-plunger fuel injection

pump to create fuel injection pressures?
a. Metered fuel quantity
b. Charging fuel pressure
c. External cam profile
d. Internal cam ring
3. In an inlet-metering, opposed-plunger fuel pump, what causes the outward move-

ment of the opposed plungers in the pump chamber during metering?
a. Centrifugal force
b. Metered fuel quantity
c. Spring force
d. Pump housing backpressure
4. How is an inlet-metering, opposed-plunger fuel pump lubricated?

a. With a dedicated supply of engine lubricating oil
b. With pressurized engine lubrication oil
c. With fuel from the vane pump
d. Prelubed on assembly
5. Technician A states that when a mechanical governor is used on an inlet-metering,

opposed-plunger fuel pump, metering valve rotational position determines how
much fuel is metered to the pump element. Technician B states that the metering
valve determines the pressure value developed by the vane-type transfer pump.
Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
6. When an inlet-metering, opposed-plunger fuel pump fuels an automotive eight-
cylinder diesel engine, how many delivery valves would be used?
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Eight
7. Technician A states that on an inlet-metering, opposed-plunger fuel pump, plunger

actual stroke is constant regardless of fuel requirement. Technician B states that in
the same pump, plunger effective stroke is determined by vane pump pressure.
Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
8. How is the timing advance mechanism on a hydromechanical, inlet-metering, op-

posed-plunger fuel pump actuated?
a. Hydraulically by the vane pump fuel pressure
b. Hydraulically by engine oil pressure
c. Pneumatically by manifold boost
d. By manifold vacuum
9. What limits the maximum fuel metered to the pump chamber in an inlet-metering,
opposed-plunger fuel pump?
a. Vane pump pressure
b. Metering valve flow area
c. Leaf spring stops
d. Roller outboard travel
10. Technician A states that pintle-type injector nozzles are commonly used with an
inlet-metering, opposed-plunger fuel pump system. Technician B states
that this type of fuel system is more likely used on indirect-injected diesel engines
rather than direct-injected engines. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 24
1. When a Bosch sleeve-metering, rotary distributor pump is used to fuel a four-

stroke cycle engine, at what speed is the fuel pump driven?
a. Engine camshaft speed
b. Engine crankshaft speed
c. Two times engine speed
d. Four times engine speed
2. Technician A states that Bosch sleeve-metering, rotary injection pumps can be

used to fuel high-speed diesel engines of up to eight engine cylinders. Techni-
cian B states that when this type of pump is used on a V-configured engine, two
distributor heads are used. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
3. When a Bosch sleeve-metering, rotary distributor pump is used on a six-cylinder,

four-stroke cycle diesel engine, how many delivery valves would be required?
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Six
4. Technician A states that the pumping plunger used on a Bosch sleeve-metering,

rotary distributor pump reciprocates. Technician B states that the pumping plunger
used in this fuel system rotates. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
5. What determines plunger stroke in a Bosch sleeve-metering, rotary distributor

pump?
a. Position of the sleeve-metering collar
b. Cam geometry
c. Rotational speed of the pump
d. Metered fuel quantity
6. Technician A states that the cam geometry used on a Bosch sleeve-metering, rota-
ry distributor pump is specific to the engine that it fuels. Referring to the same
pump, Technician B states that the cam ring rotates at engine camshaft speed.
Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
7. How is timing advance achieved in a Bosch hydromechanical, sleeve-metering,

rotary distributor pump?
a. Centrifugal force generated by flyweights
b. Hydraulic pressure generated by the vane pump
c. Spring force relayed by the governor
d. Mechanical force from the accelerator linkage
8. Technician A states that a variable-speed governor on a Bosch sleeve-metering,

rotary distributor pump functions by defining a specific fuel quantity that corre-
sponds to throttle lever angle. Technician B states that a variable-speed governor
will attempt to maintain a specific rpm value as engine load changes. Who is cor-
rect?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
9. Technician A states that most Bosch sleeve-metering, rotary distributor pumps use
a shutoff solenoid known as an ELAB. Technician B states that an ELAB does not
latch so in the event of a loss of electrical power, the fuel system will shut the en-
gine down. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
10. Which of the following could address the problem of a Bosch sleeve-metering, rotary
distributor pump fueled engine that functioned well at peak torque but was overfueling
and smoking when run at rated speed?
a. Positive torque control
b. Negative torque control
c. Trim back maximum speed stop screw
d. Replace the aneroid
Chapter 25
1. Which of the following sets of pressure values would be typical of typical fuel
subsystem charging pressure in a single-actuator EUI fuel system?
a. 15–45 psi (100–300 kPa)
b. 60–125 psi (400–862 kPa)
c. 500–600 psi (3.4–4.14 MPa)
d. 1,200–5,000 psi (8.3–35 MPa)
2. Which of the following tests would be most likely to identify a functional but
weak EUI that was causing a cylinder balance problem?
a. Single-cylinder cutout
b. Sequential mechanical EUI train shortout
c. Four-cylinder cutout
d. Solenoid SOH
3. How many actuators are used on a two-terminal EUI?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
4. What force creates injection pressure values in a two-terminal EUI?

a. Electrical
b. Hydraulic
c. Spring
d. Mechanical
5. What defines the hard limit window available to the engine ECM managing an
EUI fuel system within which an effective stroke must occur?
a. Accelerator position
b. Road speed
c. Cam geometry
d. Engine rpm
6. Where would you expect to find the injector drivers in most single-actuator EUI
fuel systems?
a. Integral with the ECM
b. On the firewall bulkhead
c. Under the dash
d. Integral with each EUI
7. Which of the following values would represent a typical EUI hydraulic nozzle
NOP?
a. 60 psi (400 kPa)
b. 120 psi (800 kPa)
c. 3,700 psi (255 bar)
d. 5,000 psi (345 bar)
8. Peak injection pressures from a typical two-terminal EUI may reach:

a. 5,000 psi (345 bar)
b. 15,000 psi (1,034 bar)
c. 25,000 psi (1,724 bar)
d. 30,000 psi (2,000 bar)
9. Caterpillar MEUIs are switched by the injector drivers at:

a. 5 V-DC
b. 12 V-DC
c. 24 V-DC
d. 108 V-DC
10. Technician A states that peak injection pressures produced by an EUI are a hard
value. Technician B states that EUI nozzle opening pressure (NOP) in single-
actuator EUIs is a soft value. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
11. A single-actuator, EUI-fueled engine is at its usual operating temperature but at

idle rpm appears to have an audible engine miss. Under load the engine appears to
function normally. Technician A states that an EST should be connected to the da-
ta bus to identify the misfiring cylinder. Technician B states that the condition is
probably normal, as the management electronics are designed to cycle the engine
on three cylinders under certain conditions. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
12. Technician A states that the force that creates injection pumping pressures in a
two-terminal EUI-fueled engine is electrical. Technician B states that the nozzle
valve in a two-terminal EUI is opened hydraulically. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
13. After an EUI is identified as “Not OK” after performing a four-cylinder cutout
test, what should be the next step?
a. Immediately change out the EUI.
b. Check that there is no other reason for the EUI failure.
c. Reprogram the E-Trim code.
d. Change out all six EUIs.
14. If an EUI is removed without first draining the charge rail supply gallery, where is
the fuel in the gallery likely to drain?
a. Directly to the oil pan
b. Into the cylinder head water jacket
c. Directly into the engine cylinder
d. Into the lube oil circuit
15. Which of the following must occur to no-fuel and therefore shut down a single-
actuator, EUI-fueled engine?
a. Control cartridge in the EUI is not energized.
b. Cylinder valves are held open by the engine brake.
c. Control cartridge in the EUI is energized.
d. Fuel supply at charge pump is shut off.
Chapter 26
1. What is a typical charging pressure used by Volvo in its EUI fuel subsystem?
a. 15 psi (105 kPa)
b. 60 psi (415 kPa)
c. 300 psi (2,070 kPa)
d. 1,200 psi (8,270 kPa)
2. Which type of injector is required in all post-2007 Volvo and Mack Trucks EUI-
fueled engines?
a. Two-terminal EUI
b. Two-terminal EUP
c. Four-terminal EUI
d. Four-terminal EUP
3. How many actuators are used in a four-terminal EUI?

a. None
b. One
c. Two
d. Four
4. Which of the following is the closest common platform relative of the Volvo VE-
D16 engine?
a. Volvo VE-D11
b. Volvo VE-D13
c. Mack Trucks MP-8
d. Mack Trucks MP-10
5. Which of the following metric values would be closest to the engine displacement of
a Mack MP-7 engine?
a. 7 liters
b. 10 liters
c. 11 liters
d. 13 liters
6. Which of the following correctly describes the two engine controllers used in an
E3-fueled Series 60 with DDEC VI electronics?
a. CPC and MCM
b. ECM and EECU
c. ECU and VPM
d. DDEC and DDC
7. Where is the fuel pressure sensor located in a Mack Trucks MP-8 engine?
a. In the fuel tank
b. Upstream from the primary filter
c. Upstream from the secondary filter
d. Downstream from the secondary filter
8. What does the fuel pressure sensor on a MP-8 measure?

a. Fuel inlet restriction
b. Charging pressure to the EUIs
c. Injection pressure
d. EUI pump chamber pressure.
9. Dual actuator E3 injectors in Volvo-Mack applications are switched by the injec-

tor drivers at:
a. 5V
b. 12 V
c. 24 V
d. ±100 V
10. Which of the following values would represent a typical NOP for an E3 injector
equipped with an electrohydraulic nozzle?
a. This generation of EUIs uses soft value NOPs
b. 3,800 psi
c. 5,000 psi
d. 22,000 psi
11. Technician A states that when a four-terminal EUI is injecting fuel into the engine
cylinder, the SV actuator must be energized. Technician B states that for fuel in-
jection to take place in an E3 injector, the NCV actuator must be energized. Who
is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
12. Technician A states that E3 EUI calibration codes must be reprogrammed to the
ECM/EECU whenever one is changed out. Technician B states that the four-terminal
EUI NCV control cartridge is located outside the cylindrical body of the injector.
Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
13. When the WIF sensor alerts the driver that there is water in the fuel, what should
be done?
a. Stop the truck and depress the dash water separator purge switch.
b. Pull over to the side of the road and manually purge the separator.
c. Pull over to the side of the road and await mechanical assistance.
d. Pull over to the side of the road and pour a pint of alcohol into the fuel
tanks.
14. Technician A states that if the NCV actuator fails on a four-terminal EUI, fuel in-
jection can still take place because the SV actuator provides redundancy. Techni-
cian B states that the EUI pump chamber cannot produce injection pressures until
the SV actuator is energized. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
15. Technician A says that failure to reprogram E3 calibration codes to the ECM/EECU
following an injector change-out can result in unbalanced cylinder fueling. Techni-
cian B says that the E3 EUI is a “smart” injector that automatically reprograms its
cal codes to the ECM/EECU following a change-out. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 27
1. What force creates injection pressure values in an HEUI injector?

a. Pneumatic
b. Mechanical
c. Electrical
d. Hydraulic
2. What type of pump is used to increase engine lube oil pressure to the values re-
quired by HEUI?
a. Gear
b. Plunger
c. Swash plate
d. Diaphragm
3. Oil pressure values within the HEUI actuation circuit are controlled by a(n):
a. Pressure relief valve
b. IPR
c. Accumulator
d. IDM
4. What type of injector nozzle is used in an HEUI?

a. Pintle type
b. Poppet type
c. Multi-orifii, VCO
d. Electrohydraulic
5. Which of the following components is used by HEUI electronics to signal the ac-
tuating oil pressure to the ECM?
a. Transducer
b. IPR spool valve
c. Relief valve
d. IAP sensor
6. PROM data in Caterpillar and Navistar HEUI systems is retained in:

a. Personality module
b. IDM
c. Identification module
d. ICR
7. The HEUI amplifier piston increases actuation pressures by approximately how
many times in the injection pump chamber of the unit?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 7
d. 10
8. Siemens-manufactured HEUIs are switched at:

a. 12 V-DC
b. 48 V-DC
c. 90 V-AC
d. 115 V-AC
9. Navistar fault codes may be read from the vehicle dash when the STI button is de-
pressed using which lights?
a. Check engine and Stop engine
b. Warn engine and Oil/water
c. Electronic malfunction and Shutdown engine
10. Technician A states that the actual oil pressure acting on the HEUI amplifier pis-
ton will influence the sizing of droplets emitted from the injector nozzle. Techni-
cian B states that the HEUI effective stroke is not limited by any hard parameters
such as those that limit effective stroke in EUIs. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
11. Technician A states that Caterpillar has always used a three-module controller
system on its ACERT C7 engine with HEUI fueling. Technician B states that the
Navistar single module controller is known as a CEC. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
12. Technician A states that Siemens-manufactured HEUIs use a transverse spool valve
shuttled from side to side by a pair of coils. Technician B states that Siemens-
manufactured HEUIs use an external control cartridge to actuate the spool. Who is
correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
13. Technician A states that Ford HEUI-fueled engines used up to 2010 are manufac-
tured by Navistar. Technician B states that Caterpillar stopped using the HEUI
system on highway diesel engines after 2007. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
14. Technician A states that the Caterpillar intensifier piston and the Navistar amplifi-
er piston both refer to the same HEUI component. Technician B states that an
amplifier piston will produce fuel pressures seven times the value of the actuating
oil pressure. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
15. Technician A states that a swash plate–type pump and ECM-controlled pressure reg-
ulator are used to supply the HEUIs with the engine oil used as hydraulic medium.
Technician B states that the hydraulic medium used to actuate the HEUI pumping
plunger is high-pressure diesel fuel. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 28
1. What force creates injection pressure values in an EUP-managed engine?

a. Electrical
b. Hydraulic
c. Spring
d. Mechanical
2. What defines the fueling window available to the ECM within which it can select an
effective EUP stroke?
a. Engine rpm
b. Accelerator position
c. Road speed
d. Cam profile
3. In which of the following engines would you be likely to find an EUP-fueling sys-
tem equipped with EHI injectors?
a. Pre-2007 Mack E-Tech
b. Pre-2007 MBE-900
c. Pre-2007 MBE-4000
d. Post-2010 Paccar MX 375
4. How is EUP effective stroke controlled?

a. By varying the pump plunger stroke
b. By switching the EUP solenoid
c. By varying the EUP charging pressure
d. By controlling the rotational position of the plunger
5. Peak injection pressure values in EUP-fueled engines up to 2007 may reach:

a. 4,700 psi (324 bar)
b. 12,500 psi (862 bar)
c. 18,000 psi (1,241 bar)
d. 26,000 psi (1,793 bar)
6. Mack Trucks V-MAC III engine position and RPM/TDC sensors must be precise-
ly gapped using:
a. Shims
b. An offset cam key
c. A torque wrench
d. Plastigage
7. Fuel is delivered to the EUP by the transfer pump at what pressure?
a. 5,000 psi (345 bar)
b. Charging pressure
c. 26,000 psi (1,793 bar)
d. Peak pressure
8. Technician A states that Bosch EUPs are mounted above and actuated directly by
the engine camshaft. Technician B states that duty cycle in an EUP is controlled
by the ECM. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
9. Technician A states that the EUP functions similarly to an EUI, with the exception
that the injector function is remote. Technician B states that the EUP to nozzle
lines on a multicylinder engine must be of identical length. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
10. When removing a set of EUPs from an engine that you intend to reinstall, which
of the following should be performed first?
a. Mark the EUPs by cylinder number with a paint stick.
b. Reprogram the fuel flow code.
c. Ensure that the actuating cam profile under the EUP is on an inner base
circle.
d. Drain the fuel supply gallery.
11. Technician A states that hydraulic injectors used with pre-2007 EUP-fueled en-
gines have soft opening and closing pressure values. Technician B states that hy-
draulic injectors used with pre-2007 EUP-fueled engines are not serviceable using
standard shop equipment. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
12. What software is required to read, program, and troubleshoot the first generation
of Mercedes-Benz 900 and 4000 engines?
a. ServiceLink
b. Electronic Technician
c. INSITE
d. MackNet
13. Which of the following is required to open an EHI?
a. NOP pressure
b. ECM control pulse
c. EHI actuating cam ramping to OBC
d. EHI actuating cam ramping to IBC
14. Which of the following is an advantage of using EHIs in place of hydraulic injec-
tors?
a. Soft NOPs
b. Rapid response multipulse injection events
c. Elimination of collapse phase
d. All of the above
15. Which of the following OEMs uses the EUP fuel system on highway diesel en-
gines sold after the U.S. 2010 Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) model
year?
a. Mercedes-Benz
b. Detroit Diesel
c. Mack Trucks
d. Paccar
Chapter 29
1. How is a Cummins HPI-TP injector actuated?

a. Hydraulically
b. Electrically
c. Electronically
d. Mechanically
2. Which of the following describes how an ISX ECM prevents moisture from enter-
ing the housing?
a. Vacuum sealed
b. WeatherPac sealed
c. Vented with a Gore-Tex seal
d. WeatherProof II technology
3. Which of the following would approximate actuator rail pressure in an HPI-TP

fuel system?
a. 50 psi (3.4 bar)
b. 150 psi (10.3 bar)
c. 285 psi (19.6 bar)
d. 5,000 psi (344 bar)
4. How many timing actuators are used on the HPI-TP system used on an ISX en-
gine?
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Six
5. How many metering actuators are used on the HPI-TP system used on an ISX en-
gine?
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Six
6. What happens to fuel charged to the HPI-TP injector timing chamber following an ef-
fective pumping stroke?
a. It is spilled to the rocker housing.
b. It is directed to the drain circuit.
c. It is flowed into the injector cup.
d. It is routed back to the transfer pump.
7. What component in an ISX engine is used to impart drive to the HPI-TP external
gear transfer pump?
a. Flywheel ring gear
b. Idler concept gear
c. Right side camshaft
d. Left side camshaft
8. Which of the following is true of the moving components of an HPI-TP injector

after the actuating cam profile has been ramped to OBC?
a. They are returned by the injector spring.
b. They are loaded into the cup with mechanical crush.
c. Timing and pumping plungers are separated by fuel in the timing chamber.
d. The injector push tube is under compression.
9. Technician A states that the timing actuator on an HPI-TP fuel system deter-
mines injected fuel quantity by the amount of time it is energized and held open.
Technician B states that each metering actuator used on the same engine is re-
sponsible for fueling three engine cylinders. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
10. Fuel that passes through the metering actuator is routed to what component on the
HPI-TP injector?
a. Hydraulic nozzle assembly
b. Timing chamber
c. Cup
d. Accumulator
11. Which of the following best describes an HPI-TP injector?

a. Open nozzle, mechanically actuated
b. Closed nozzle, electronically actuated
c. Mechanically actuated, hydraulic nozzle
d. PWM controlled and actuated
12. What type of fuel transfer pump is used on the HPI-TP system on ISX engines?
a. External gear
b. Double-acting plunger
c. Vane
d. Single-acting plunger
13. What software is used by Cummins to troubleshoot an ISX, HPI-TP fueled en-
gine?
a. Electronic Technician
b. INSITE
c. DeNet
d. ServiceLink
14. What is the function of the pulsation dampers used in the HPI-TP actuator rail cir-
cuit?
a. Dampens pressure waves produced by actuator switching and the
transfer pump
b. Insulates the ECM from vibration
c. Dampens drive torque oscillation produced by the gear pump
d. Insulates the transfer pump from shock loading
15. What defines the window, measured in crank angle degrees, within which the ISX
ECM can select an effective stroke of an HPI-TP injector?
a. Infinitely variable
b. Cam profile
c. Engine rpm
d. Injector timing height
16. How is the mechanical stroke of an HPI-TP injector actuated?

a. Lobes on the left side camshaft
b. Lobes on the right side camshaft
c. Front bank by the left side camshaft, rear bank by the right side
d. Front bank by the right side camshaft, rear bank by the left side
17. What type of pistons do the later generations of HPI-TP fueled ISX engines use?
a. Aluminum trunk type
b. Two-piece, articulating
c. Crosshead (Ferrotherm)
d. Steel trunk type (Monotherm)
18. Which of the following best explains why ISX, HPI-TP fueled engines use cooled
EGR?
a. To improve fuel economy
b. To improve power
c. To reduce HC emissions
d. To reduce NOx emissions
19. Technician A states that the lower plunger seals the cup orifii at the completion of
each injection stroke in an HPI-TP injector. Technician B states that at the com-
pletion of the injection cycle, the HPI-TP lower plunger is loaded into the cup
with mechanical crush created by the injection train. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
20. Technician A states that the ISX Intebrake on HPI-TP fueled engines is actuated
by the injector cam profile on the right side camshaft. Technician B states that in-
take and exhaust valves are both actuated by the right side camshaft. Who is cor-
rect?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 30
1. What type of fuel transfer pump is used on Caterpillar CR fuel systems that man-
age C7 and C9 engines?
a. Reciprocating plunger
b. Inline piston
c. Vane
d. External gear
2. Which of the following best describes the type of injectors used with CR fuel sys-
tems?
a. Pintle injectors
b. Electrohydraulic injectors (EHIs)
c. Poppet injectors
d. Electronic unit injectors (EUIs)
3. How many high-pressure pump elements are used on a Bosch radial piston pump
fueling a six-cylinderengine with a CR (common rail) fuel system?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Six
4. In a Bosch CR fuel system, the rail could also be known as a(n):

a. Charging gallery
b. Accumulator
c. Jumper pipe
d. Injector tube
5. What is the normal peak rail pressure used by Caterpillar on its C7 and C9 CR-
fueled engines when the system is functioning properly?
a. 5,000 psi (345 bar)
b. 12,000 psi (827 bar)
c. 27,550 psi (1,900 bar)
d. 33,300 psi (2,296 bar)
6. What is required to initiate the energization of a solenoid actuator on a typical CR

EHI?
a. Around 100 volts
b. Around 12 volts
c. V-Ref
d. Less than 1.5 volts
7. Which of the following are advantages of multipulse injection cycles?
a. Lower cold-start emissions
b. Lower noise levels
c. Better fuel economy
d. All of the above
8. Which of the following best describes the means by which the ECM drivers con-
trol the actuation of CR EHIs?
a. V-Ref signal
b. V-Bat signal
c. Distributor spike
d. Pulse width modulation (PWM)
9. How many pumping elements are used on a Caterpillar CR high-pressure pump

fueling a C7 engine?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Six
10. Which of the following is the key component used to signal actual rail pressure to
the ECM?
a. Rail pressure sensor
b. Rail pressure control valve
c. Pressure limiter valve
d. Flow limiter valve
11. What device on a typical CR system prevents constant fueling of a cylinder if one
of the EHIs sticks in the open position?
a. Flow limiter
b. Pressure limiter valve
c. Pressure control valve
d. Collapse of accumulator
12. Technician A states that most CR systems are capable of multipulse injection.
Technician B states that although multipulse fuel injection events improve fuel
economy, they tend to increase combustion noise, especially at start-up. Who is
correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
13. Technician A states that first-generation CR diesel fuel systems used solenoid ac-
tuators. Technician B states that some current CR diesel fuel systems use piezo in-
jectors because they can be switched at higher speeds. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
14. What force is used to hold a CR EHI nozzle valve in its closed and seated posi-
tion?
a. Spring force only
b. Electrical force only
c. Combined hydraulic and electrical forces
d. Combined hydraulic and spring forces
15. When the control plunger in an EHI is energized, what should happen to the rail
pressure charged to the injector?
a. Significant decrease
b. Significant increase
c. Remains almost unchanged
d. First increases then drops off
16. What electronic principle is used in the rail pressure sensor fitted to most CR die-
sel fuel systems?
a. Piezo resistive
b. Thermister
c. Potentiometer
d. Differential pressure
17. Technician A states that to purge a typical CR system, the line nuts on the pipes
connecting the rail to the EHIs should be cracked and re-torqued to spec after
priming. Technician B states that some OEMs suggest that high-pressure pipes on
CR systems be used once only because the seats deform to seal when torqued.
Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
18. Which of the following best describes the electrical principle that makes a piezo-
type actuator on an EHI operate?
a. Electromagnetism
b. Piezoelectric effect
c. Reversibility of piezoelectric effect
d. Inductive capacitance
19. Which of the following is another way of saying injection quantity calibration
data?
a. Fuel flow codes
b. E-trim codes
c. Quick-response (QR) codes
d. All of the above
20. Technician A states that CR systems that use adaptive trim do not require repro-
gramming of injection quantity calibration data when EHIs are replaced. Techni-
cian B states that CR systems with adaptive trim routinely evaluate EHIs perfor-
mance and can make minor adjustments to the fuel trim. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 31
1. In an ACRS which of the following is true of injection pressures?

a. They are always one-half of the rail pressure.
b. They are always more than double the rail pressure.
c. They may be at either rail pressure or more than double rail pressure.
d. They are not correlated with rail pressure.
2. What type of high-pressure pump is used on the DD-Series ACRS?

a. Twin piston, inline pump
b. Triple piston, rotary pump
c. Vane-type pump
d. Single element, reciprocating pump
3. Technician A states that DD-Series ACRS are capable of peak injection pressures
as high as 2,000 bar (29,000 psi). Technician B states that the highest pressure at-
tainable in a HADI in non-amplification mode is 900 bar (13,053 psi). Who is
correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
4. Technician A states that DDC permits reuse of rail to HADI high-pressure pipes.
Technician B states that when ACRS high-pressure pipes are reused, they must be
carefully monitored after being torqued. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
5. What is the entrapment rating of an ACRS pre-filter?

a. 100 microns
b. 50 microns
c. 10 microns
d. 3 to 5 microns
6. What means is used to energize HADI actuators by the MCM?

a. Hydraulic pressure rise
b. AC voltage spike
c. PWM signal
d. DC system voltage
7. What electronic principle is used in the rail pressure sensor in the ACRS rail?
a. Variable capacitance
b. Thermister
c. Potentiometer
d. Differential pressure
8. Technician A states that to purge an ACRS, the line nuts on the pipes connecting
the rail to the HADIs should be cracked and re-torqued after priming. Technician
B states that DDC prefers the use of a priming canister when reestablishing prime
after servicing the fuel filter module. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
9. How is the fuel quantity control valve controlled by the MCM?

a. Directly from the accelerator pedal
b. PWM signal
c. V-Ref signal
d. System voltage
10. What term is used by DDC service literature to describe the rate at which a HADI
flows fuel?
a. Cal code
b. E-trim code
c. Quick-response (QR) code
d. Injector quantity compensation coding (IQCC)
11. If the IQCC was not reprogrammed after an injector change-out, which of the fol-
lowing would be the likely outcome?
a. Engine runaway
b. Misfire
c. Unbalanced cylinder fueling
d. Failure of the other five injectors
12. Where is the IQCC specification on a HADI?

a. Upper side of the injector
b. Lower side of the injector
c. On the nozzle of the injector
d. In the connector socket
13. How many digits are there in an IQCC?

a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. Eight
14. Which of the following must be used to reprogram an IQCC to the MCM?
a. ProLink iQ
b. DDDL
c. An electric pencil
d. A smart phone
15. Technician A says that HADIs are field serviceable injectors. Technician B says
that at the present moment, all ACRS injectors should be returned to DDC for re-
conditioning. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 32
1. A material described as an insulator would have how many electrons in its outer
shell?
a. Less than 4
b. 4
c. More than 4
2. Which of the following is a measure of electrical pressure?

a. Amperes
b. Ohms
c. Voltage
d. Watts
3. Which of the following units of measurement quantitatively expresses electron

flow in a circuit factored with time?
a. Coulombs
b. Watts
c. Farads
4. How many electrons does the element silicon have in its outer shell?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
5. Who originated the branch of electricity generally described as electromagnetism?

a. Franklin
b. Gilbert
c. Thomson
d. Faraday
6. Which of the following elements could be described as being electrically inert?

a. Oxygen
b. Neon
c. Carbon
d. Iron
7. Which of the following is a measure of charge differential?

a. Voltage
b. Wattage
c. Amperage
d. Ohm
8. An element classified as a semiconductor would have how many electrons in its
outer shell?
a. Less than 4
b. 4
c. More than 4
d. 8
9. Which of the following describes resistance to movement of magnetic lines of

force?
a. Reluctance
b. Inductance
c. Counterelectromotive force
d. Capacitance
10. Use Ohm’s law to calculate the current flow in a series circuit with a 12 V power
source and a total circuit resistance of 6 ohms. 2 amps
11. Calculate the power consumed in a circuit through which 3 amperes are flowed at
a potential difference of 24 V. 72 watts
12. A farad is a measure of:

a. Inductance
b. Reluctance
c. Charge differential
d. Capacitance
13. The term pulse width modulation refers to:

a. Waveforms shaped to transmit data
b. Unwanted voltage spikes
c. Electronic noise
14. To form a P-type semiconductor crystal, the doping agent would be required to
have how many electrons in its outer shell?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 8
15. To form an N-type semiconductor crystal, the doping agent would be required to
have how many electrons in its outer shell?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 8
16. The positive terminal of a diode is correctly called a(an):
a. Electrode
b. Cathode
c. Anode
d. Emitter
17. Which of the following terms best describes the role of a typical transistor in an
electronic circuit?
a. Check valve
b. Relay
c. Rectifier
d. Filter
18. When testing the operation of a typical transistor, which of the following should
be true?
a. High resistance across the emitter and base terminals
b. Continuity across the emitter and collector terminals
c. Continuity across the base and emitter terminals
19. What would be the outcome in an OR gate if one of two switches in the circuit
was closed?
a. Off
b. On
20. How many different data codes could be represented by a byte?

a. 2
b. 8
c. 64
d. 256
21. A potentiometer is a:
a. Two-terminal, mechanically variable resistor
b. Three-terminal, mechanically variable resistor
c. Two-terminal, thermally variable resistor
d. Three-terminal, thermally variable resistor
22. Which of the following devices can be used to block AC and pass DC?
a. Rheostat
b. Inductor
c. Capacitor
d. Thermistor
23. Which of the following components is typically used in a half-wave rectifier?
a. Rheostat
b. Transformer
c. Diode
d. Zener diode
24. An N-type semiconductor crystal is doped with:

a. Trivalent atoms
b. Pentavalent atoms
c. Carbon atoms
d. Germanium atoms
25. A pulse width modulated (PWM) signal is:

a. Analog
b. Digital
c. Either analog or digital
d. Neither analog or digital
26. Which one of the following can store energy in the form of an electric charge?
a. Thermocouple
b. Induction coil
c. Potentiometer
d. Capacitor
27. Which of the following can store energy in the form of an electromagnetic
charge?
a. Thermocouple
b. Induction coil
c. Potentiometer
d. Capacitor
28. In which of the following devices is polarity always important?

a. Coil
b. Capacitor
c. Resistor
d. Diode
29. Which of the following is a three-terminal device?

a. Zener diode
b. Transistor
c. Capacitor
d. Diode
30. Which of the following is a two-terminal device?
a. Potentiometer
b. Thermocouple pyrometer
c. NPN transistor
d. PNP transistor
Chapter 33
1. Which of the following is best described as a network of networks?

a. Internet
b. Intranet
c. E-mail
d. LAN
2. Which of the following components can be used to condition the output of a com-
puter for transmission through the telephone system?
a. CPU
b. Transponder
c. CRT
d. Modem
3. What is the transmission medium used by the telephone companies for local tele-
phone service?
a. Microwave
b. Copper wire
c. Radio waves
d. Telecommunications satellites
4. In what format is data transmitted using fiber-optic technology?

a. Analog
b. Pulses of voltage
c. Digital
d. Nodes and antinodes
5. What altitude from the earth’s surface would describe a geosynchronous orbit?
a. 160 miles (257 km)
b. 22,300 miles (35,888 km)
c. 35,900 miles (57,775 km)
d. 56,700 miles (91,250 km)
6. The first telecommunications satellite was called:

a. Sputnik I
b. Apollo XI
c. Telstar
d. Discovery
7. The Earth-based station responsible for broadcasting microwave signals to a tele-
communications satellite is called a(n):
a. Modem
b. Uplink
c. Downlink
d. Footprint
8. The uplink/downlink component used on trucks equipped with GPS technology is

often called a(n):
a. Aerial
b. Transponder
c. Modem
d. Footprint
9. Technician A states that a telecommunications satellite orbits the earth at a dis-

tance of 35,900 miles. Technician B states that all telecommunications satellites
use fuel to maintain a fixed orbit on the earth’s equator. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
10. Technician A states that telecom satellites in geosynchronous orbit are required to
park at about 2 degrees apart from one another. Technician B states that the earth
surface geographic zone over which a telecom satellite’s signals are effective is
known as its footprint. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
11. Technician A states that the hardwired telephone system can only handle analog
transactions. Technician B states that most telecommunications systems in North
America rely on hardwired mediums for at least some of the transmission. Who is
correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
12. Technician A states that a LAN is sometimes known as a network of networks.
Technician B states that the Internet is owned by the Microsoft Corporation. Who
is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
13. What is a transponder?

a. An uplink/downlink device
b. A satellite dish
c. A footprint
d. A CB antenna
14. Which of the following means the same thing as network star?
a. Internet
b. Intranet
c. Remote node
d. Data hub
15. Which of the following broadcast mediums relies on modulating high-frequency

radio waves?
a. Hardwired telephone system
b. Microwave
c. Fiber optics
16. The software tool capable of finding information on the Internet and on data-
bases is known as a(n):
a. Search engine
b. Operating system
c. Mouse
d. Scanner
17. Technician A states that microwaves travel in geometrically straight lines.

Technician B states that the point-to-point communications distance of micro-
waves is indefinite and a signal should be able to travel halfway around the
world. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
18. Which of the following mediums should be able to transmit the most data given a
similar radial diameter of each?
a. Aluminum wire
b. Copper wire
c. Coaxial cable
d. Fiber-optic cable
19. What is the minimum number of GPS satellites a vehicle GPS system must locate
to identify both vehicle position and altitude?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
20. To calculate a specific position on a flat map using trilateration geometry, what is
the minimum number of coordinates required?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
Chapter 34
1. The acronym that describes the internal computer component that executes pro-
gram instructions is the:
a. CRT
b. RAM
c. CPU
d. ROM
2. Which of the following data retention media is electronically retained?

a. RAM
b. ROM
c. PROM
d. EEPROM
3. To which of the following memory categories would the master program for en-
gine management be written in a typical truck engine ECM?
a. RAM
b. ROM
c. PROM
d. EEPROM
4. To which of the following memory categories would customer data programming

be written from an electronic service tool?
a. RAM
b. ROM
c. PROM
d. EEPROM
5. Which of the following components conditions V-Ref?

a. ECM
b. Voltage regulator
c. EUI
d. Personality module
6. A thermistor is responsible for signaling data concerning:

a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Rotational speed
d. Rotational position
7. A Hall-effect sensor is usually responsible for signaling data concerning:
a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Fluid flow
d. Rotational or linear position
8. Induction pulse generators are used to input data concerning:

a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Rotational speed
d. Altitude
9. Which of the following components uses a voltage divider principle and can be
used to signal accelerator pedal travel?
a. Pulse generator
b. Potentiometer
c. Thermistor
d. Galvanic sensor
10. Which of the following input components would more likely use a variable capaci-
tance-type sensor?
a. CPS
b. TRS
c. VSS
d. MAP
11. In a full authority diesel engine management system, EUI switching is performed
by:
a. A personality module
b. Injector drivers
c. V-Ref
d. FIC module
12. Technician A states that a disadvantage of a piezo actuator is that it requires a

much higher current draw than comparable solenoid actuators. Technician B
states that an advantage of piezo actuators is that they are much less bulky than
comparable solenoids. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
13. Technician A states that Hall-effect TPSs use a noncontact principle that makes
them more reliable than potentiometer types. Technician B states that a Hall-effect
TPS does not require an input voltage to function. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
14. Technician A states that V-Ref and the injector driver voltage are usually man-
aged by the ECM to the same voltage values. Technician B states that V-Ref is
controlled by the vehicle battery and is not conditioned by the ECM. Who is cor-
rect?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
15. Technician A states that in some of the earliest engine management ECMs, the
only method of changing customer options, such as idle shutdown duration and
transmission ratios, was to replace the ECM PROM chip. Technician B states that
in most current vehicle management systems, customer programmable options are
written to ROM. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
16. Technician A states that in most diesel engine ECMs, RAM data is lost whenever
the engine is shut down. Technician B states that some systems write data to a
special type of RAM that is nonvolatile because it connects directly to the battery.
Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
17. Technician A states that engine overspeed rpm is usually programmed to the ECM
as a hard value. Technician B states that the engine oil/coolant overheat tempera-
ture value was usually programmed to the ECM as a soft value because it would
depend on the ambient temperatures. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
18. Technician A states that it is not unusual for the vehicle maximum speed to be
programmed at a lower speed than maximum cruise speed. Technician B states
that because fuel economy is so important in trucking operations, soft cruise is a
popular option. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
19. Which of the following customer data programming fields could be described as a
toggle option?
a. Road speed limit
b. Transmission ratios
c. Tire rolling radii
d. Governor type
20. When a Wheatstone bridge-type sensor is referred to, which of the following
would correctly de-scribe it?
a. Hall-effect sensor
b. Piezoresistive sensor
c. Variable capacitance sensor
d. Voltage divider
Chapter 35
1. Which EST is used to read blink/flash codes?

a. Dash diagnostic lights
b. HH-ESTs
c. Diagnostic fork
d. PCs
2. The appropriate EST for performing a hardwire resistance test on a potentiometer-

type TPS isolated from its circuit is a:
a. DMM
b. Scanner
c. Generic HH-EST
d. PC
3. Which of the following is usually required to hardwire connect a diagnostic PC

with a truck data bus?
a. Modem
b. Jumper wires
c. Data connector and CA
d. Parallel link connector
4. When resistance and continuity tests are made on electronic circuit components,
the circuit should be:
a. Energized
b. Not energized
5. DMM test lead resistance should never exceed:

a. 0.2 ohm
b. 1.0 ohm
c. 10 ohms per inch
d. 100 ohms per inch
6. The output (signal) of an inductive pulse generator, shaft speed sensor is meas-
ured in:
a. V-DC
b. Ohms
c. V-AC
d. Amperes
7. Which of the following cannot be performed by an HH-EST?

a. Erase historic fault codes
b. Customer data programming
c. Snapshot testing
d. Proprietary data programming
8. Which of the following procedures cannot be performed using a PC and the OEM
software?
a. Erasing historic fault codes
b. Customer data programming
c. Erasing active fault codes
d. EUI cutout tests
9. Technician A states that when a laptop is hardwire connected to a chassis data

bus a CA is required. Technician B states that a PC with appropriate OEM
software and wireless connectivity can communicate with a truck data bus.
Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
10. When reading an open TPS circuit, which FMI would be broadcast to the data
bus?
a. 0
b. 3
c. 5
d. 9
11. How many counts of resolution can be displayed by a 4½ -digit DMM?
a. 1,999
b. 19,999
c. 9,995
d. 99,995
12. The specification that indicates how fine a measurement can be made by a DMM
is known as:
a. rms (root mean square)
b. Percentage deviation
c. Resolution
d. Hysteresis
13. When a DMM is set to read AC, which is the term used to describe the averaging
of potential difference to produce a reading?
a. rms (root mean square)
b. Percentage averaging
c. Resolution
d. Sawtoothing
14. What was the main reason for the addition of FMI fields in 2007?
a. To make system access easier
b. To accommodate increased number of sensors
c. To make life tougher for technicians
d. To evaluate imminent failures
15. Which of the following components is used to test energized circuit conditions
without risk of damaging the wiring?
a. Cycling breakers
b. Alligator clips and jumper wire
c. Breakout boxes
d. Test light with a sharp probe
16. Which electrical pressure value does a DMM output when in diode test mode?
a. 0.3 V
b. 0.6 V
c. 0.9 V
d. 1.1 V
17. Technician A states that the accuracy of an analog meter is usually no better than
3%. Technician B states that most DMMs have an accuracy factor that is within
0.1% of the reading. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
18. Which of the following is the preferred source for service literature covering a
repair procedure?
a. Hard-copy service manual
b. Technical service bulletin
c. Online SIS
d. DVD base service literature
19. Technician A states that using the snapshot test mode on an EST to troubleshoot
an intermittently occurring fault code could help identify the conditions that pro-
duced the code. Technician B states that the snapshot test mode can only analyze
historic codes on an audit trail. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
20. Which of the following is the correct address for an engine ECM on a chassis data
bus?
a. MID 128
b. MID 130
c. MID 164
d. MID 178
21. Confirming the signal produced by a powered-up potentiometer-type TPS, the

DMM test mode selected should be:
a. V-AC
b. V-DC
c. Diode test
d. Resistance
22. Which of the following are HD-OBD monitored fields?

a. DEF level
b. Manifold boost pressure
c. SCR efficiency
d. All of the above
Chapter 36
1. What color is used to designate a ground circuit in a standard SAE-coded wiring

harness?
a. Red
b. Gray
c. White with an orange chaser
d. Black
2. What color is used to designate an unprotected circuit in a standard SAE-coded

wiring harness?
a. Red
b. Gray
d. Black
3. What color is used to designate a protected circuit in a standard SAE-coded wir-

ing harness?
a. Red
b. Gray
d. Black
4. When an SAE code is used on a wire, where is the system identifier located?
a. First letter
b. Second letter
c. Last alpha character in the sequence
d. Last numeric character in the sequence
5. When the letter E appears as the system identifier in a standard SAE code, what
system is being referred to?
a. Electronics
b. Air conditioning
c. Diesel particulate filter
d. Engine accessories
6. Weather-Pack terminals are retained in the connector unit by:

a. A clamp
b. A jam bridge
c. A locking tang
d. Silicone
7. The correct tool for installing Weather-Pack terminals to the wiring is a(n):
a. Crimping tool
b. Electrical pliers
c. Wire strippers
d. Tang release tool
8. Which type of connector is the industry standard data link connector?

a. Weather-Pack
b. Metri-Pack
c. Siemens
d. Deutsch
9. When using solder to splice repair wiring, which type should be used?
a. 50/50
b. Rosin core
c. Silver solder
d. Liquid set
10. When repairing a break through a section of a multiple wire cable, which of the
following would be good practice?
a. Use shrink cable on each individual wire.
b. Stagger the splices.
c. Twist the bared wires at each connection before soldering.
d. Write “temporary repair” on the work order hard copy.
11. What numeric code is used to represent the common terminal on a standard relay?
a. 30 (3)
b. 85 (1)
c. 86 (2)
d. 87 (5)
12. Which of the following describes the function of numeric code 87a on a standard
relay?
a. Common
b. Coil
c. Normally open
d. Normally closed
13. Which metric wire gauge size is equivalent to 18 gauge AWG?

a. 18 mm
b. 00,22
c. 00,8
d. 05,0
14. What does ghost voltage usually indicate when testing a circuit with a DMM?
a. Short
b. Open
c. Low resistance
d. High current
15. When testing a 12-volt truck electrical circuit component, 12.5 volts are meas-
ured immediately on the positive side of the load, 8.9 volts are dropped across
the load, and 3.6 volts are measured on the negative side of the load. Which of
the following is true?
a. The circuit is functioning properly.
b. The load component is defective.
c. There is a defect on the positive side of the circuit.
d. There is a defect on the negative side of the circuit.
Chapter 37
1. What is used to rate the speed of transmission on a

data bus?
a. Bandwidth
b. K-baud
c. Protocol
d. CAN
2. Which of the following terms is used to rate the data volume that can be transmit-
ted on a data bus?
a. Bandwidth
b. K-baud
c. Frequency
d. Bus arbitration
3. How many fields are used in a data packet in a J1939 data transaction?
a. One
b. One or two
c. Five
d. Seven
4. Which of the fields in a data packet contains the message identifier?

a. Start of frame
b. Arbitration
c. Control
d. Cyclic redundancy
5. Which field in a data packet is used by receiver stations to indicate that they have
received an uncorrupted message?
a. Arbitration
b. Control
c. Cyclic redundancy
d. Ack
6. What is used to indicate the end of a data packet message?

a. CRC field
b. Ack field
c. EOI
d. EOF field
7. What current SAE J standard is used as the backbone of a multiplex data
bus in current medium and heavy duty highway trucks?
a. CAN-C
b. J1939
c. J1930
d. J1667
8. Which of the following describes the role of an FET in a smart switch transac-
tion?
a. Transformer
b. Electronic noise suppression
c. Relay or amplifier
d. Signal filter
9. What will result if a smart switch is disconnected at the connector?

a. The vehicle will stop.
b. The data bus will shut down.
c. Operation is in default mode.
d. A fault code will be logged.
10. How many cavity pins are in a J1939 Deutsch connector used to connect an elec-
tronic service tool (EST) to a truck data bus?
a. One
b. Four
c. Six
d. Nine
11. Technician A states that after connecting a generic EST to the chassis data con-
nector, you must first identify the MID you want to work with. Technician B
states that FMIs are used to categorize the different types of component failure.
Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
12. Technician A states that a J1708 data connector uses nine-pin assignments. Tech-
nician B states that a current J1939 Deutsch data connector also has a J1587/1708
data backbone. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
13. How many resistors are contained in a typical ladder switch?
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
14. Which of the following would best describe the means used to identify a twisted
wire pair on an electrical schematic?
a. Circle
b. Triangle
c. Figure eight
d. Trapezoid
15. Technician A states that voltage values on a data bus are usually 2.5 volts or lower.
Technician B states that the twist frequency on a J1939 data bus is one complete cycle
per 1 centimeter of length. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
16. When using a DMM set at min-max, to read voltage differential between CAN-
high and CAN-low on J1939, what should most of the packet read at if it is func-
tioning normally?
a. V-Ref
b. V-Bat
c. 2.5 volts
d. 2.0 volts
17. When you observe a 3-volt differential between CAN-high and CAN-low on
J1939, at the end of a packet message, which of the following is likely?
a. CAN-high is shorted to power.
b. CAN-low is shorted to ground.
c. CAN-high and CAN-low are dead shorted.
d. It is the end of message stop bit indicator.
18. What letter code is used for the CAN-low pin cavity on a J1939 data connector?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Chapter 38
1. Which of the following is a correct description of a B5 fuel?

a. 95% biodiesel cut with 5% petroleum-based diesel
b. 95% petroleum-based diesel cut with 5% biodiesel
c. Biodiesel rated with a CN of 50
d. Petroleum-based diesel with an ignition temperature of 500°C
2. What would a B100 fuel be composed of?

a. 100% petroleum-based diesel fuel
b. 100% alcohol-based stock
c. Even mixture of petroleum- and vegetable-based stock
d. 100% vegetable-based stock
3. Which of the following makes pure biodiesel (B100) less suitable for use in cooler
geographic locations?
a. Pour point
b. Cetane number
c. Sulfur content
d. Particulate emissions
4. Which of the following noxious emissions tends to increase when the combustion
of pure biodiesel (B100) is compared with the combustion of petroleum-based
diesel fuel?
a. Sulfur oxides
b. Particulate matter
c. Hydrocarbons
d. Nitrogen oxides
5. Technician A states that NG fuels will not auto-ignite at compression temperatures.

Technician B states that LPG fuels will not auto-ignite at cylinder compression tem-
peratures. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
6. Which of the following has the most amount of heat energy by mass (weight)?
a. Propane
b. Natural gas
c. Hydrogen
d. Diesel fuel
7. When propane or natural gas is used as the only fuel in an internal combustion
engine designed for diesel fuel, what must also be provided?
a. Particulate trap
b. Means of igniting the fuel
c. Cooled EGR
d. Distributor
8. Technician A states that a disadvantage of alcohol as an internal combustion engine

fuel is its low octane rating. Technician B states that an advantage of LPG over
gasoline as an internal combustion engine fuel is its high calorific value. Who is
correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
9. Which of the following fuels has the most heat energy (calorific value/Btus by
mass)?
a. Alcohol
b. Natural gas
c. Propane
d. Diesel fuel
10. What is natural gas (NG) mainly composed of?

a. Hydrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Methane
d. Carbon dioxide
11. Which of the following fuels is often a by-product of crude petroleum?

a. Biodiesel
b. Propane
c. Alcohol
d. Hydrogen
12. Which of the following is true of the post-2010 Westport HPDI NG fuel system?
a. It uses a cryogenic fuel tank.
b. The injectors use piezo actuators.
c. The injectors deliver both NG and diesel fuel.
13. Which of the following terms best describe the term cryogenic?
a. Extreme heat
b. Extreme cold
c. Explosive
d. Unreactive
14. Which of the following is true of a Westport HPDI injector?
a. It injects diesel fuel
b. It injects natural gas
c. It uses piezo-actuator technology
15. Technician A says that a Westport Mono injector requires a continuously operat-
ing glow plug to ignite the gas charge after injection to the engine cylinder.
Technician B says that a Westport HPDI injector is supplied by a common rail.
Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 39
1. What is the fuel required by a fuel cell?

a. Nitrogen only
b. Hydrogen and oxygen
c. Hydrogen only
d. Water
2. What results from the electrochemical reaction in a fuel cell?

a. Electricity only
b. Water only
c. Hydrogen and oxygen
d. Electricity and water
3. Which type of fuel cell is currently being used in trials in city buses?
a. Proton membrane exchange
b. Alkaline
c. Solid oxide
d. Phosphoric acid
4. When a regenerative braking cycle is engaged in an HEV (diesel electric) hybrid

drive system, which of the following should be true?
a. The diesel engine turns in reverse.
b. The diesel engine compression retarder is actuated.
c. The AC motor-generator reverses.
d. The DC motor magnetic field is reversed.
5. Technician A states that an advantage of a parallel hydraulic hybrid (PHH) drive

system is that a small diesel engine can be used in place of a larger one. Technician
B states that a PHH system can only impart hydraulic drive torque so that in the
event of a leak, the vehicle would be crippled. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
6. Which type of batteries tends to be used in the most recent generation of HEV
transit buses?
a. Lead acid
b. Nickel cadmium (Ni-cad)
c. Alkaline
d. Lithium-ion (Li-on)
7. When a blended torque transmission is used on an HEV transit bus, which of the
following features are possible?
a. Input torque from more than one source
b. Continuously variable output ratios
c. Infinitely variable output speeds
d. All of the above
8. Which of the following is true of a motor/generator used in an HEV transit bus?

a. It produces three-phase AC power.
b. It requires the use of an inverter.
c. Output must be rectified to DC to charge battery banks.
9. What type of hydraulic accumulator is used in an Eaton PHH and an SHH drive
system?
a. Mechanically loaded with a maxi-spring rated at 3,000 psi (207 bar)
b. Nitrogen gas loaded at 5,000 psi (345 bar)
c. Hydraulically loaded at 29,000 psi (2,000 bar)
d. Any of the above, depending on application
10. Technician A says that UCs will sustain up to a million charge and discharge cy-
cles. Technician B says that UCs can hold large amounts of electrical energy but
discharge it more slowly than most types of batteries. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
11. Which of the following cities has entirely eliminated diesel engines from its trans-
it bus fleet?
a. Chicago
b. New York City
c. Houston
d. Los Angeles
12. Technician A says that HEV buses can use NG-fueled engines. Technician B says
that blended torque transmissions are used in most HEV city buses. Who is cor-
rect?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 40
1. Technician A states that Bosch online service information is required to work with
the Bosch CR system used on ISB engines. Technician B states that Rapido diag-
nostic software is required to troubleshoot Paccar MX engines. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
2. Which company partnered with Bosch to develop CAN 2.0 architecture?

a. Microsoft
b. Google
c. Motorola
d. Intel
3. What is the Bosch proprietary name for their DPF management system?
a. EDC
b. PLD
c. Departronic
d. Denoxtronic
4. What is the Bosch proprietary name for their SCR management system?
a. EDC
b. PLD
c. Departronic
d. Denoxtronic
5. Technician A says that to access ISB engine electronics a J1962 connector may be
required. Technician B says to access ISB electronics, a J1939 connector may be
required. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 41
1. What is the Caterpillar online service information system known as?

a. ET
b. SIS
c. ISIS
d. QSOL
2. What is Caterpillar diagnostic software known as?

a. Master Diagnostics (MD)
b. Insite
c. Caterpillar diagnostic link (CDL)
d. Electronic technician (ET)
3. What engine management system was used to manage port-helix metering injec-
tion pumps on 3406 engines?
a. PEEC
b. ACERT
c. ADEM
d. HEUI
4. What type of signal does a Caterpillar throttle position sensor send back to the
ECM?
a. V-Ref
b. Analog DC
c. Analog AC
d. PWM
5. What is the emissions management technology on post-2004 Caterpillar engines

known as?
a. ADEM
b. PEEC
c. ACERT
d. MEUI-C
6. Which of the following is an ACERT engine?

a. 3406E
b. 3176
c. C-15
d. C13
7. Where are Cat ADEM injector drivers located?
c. Under the dash
d. Integral with each MEUI
8. What voltage is sent to a Caterpillar TPS?

a. V-Ref
b. 8 V-DC
c. V-Bat
d. 108 V-DC
9. Caterpillar injectors are switched by the ECM drivers at:

a. 5 V-DC
b. 12 V-DC
c. 24 V-DC
d. 108 V-DC
10. Caterpillar’s electronic theft deterrent option is a feature of which of the following
options?
a. Cat SIS
b. Cat LED
c. ET
d. Cat ID
11. Which of the following systems uses wireless technology to download vehicle
performance data such as fuel economy?
a. Highway Master
b. Global positioning satellite (GPS) unit
c. ET
d. Cat ID
12. Which of the following is the Caterpillar ADEM driver digital display?
a. Highway Master
b. Qualcomm
c. ET
d. Cat ID
13. Technician A states that Cat ADEM electronics permit the programming of the cruise
control speed limit at a higher value than maximum vehicle speed limit. Technician B
states that VSL is always a hard-value parameter that cannot be exceeded. Who is
correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
14. Technician A states that ET is required to program injector E-Trim codes to an
ADEM ECM. Technician B says that failure to correctly program an E-Trim code to
the ECM on injector change-out can result in unbalanced engine fueling. Who is cor-
rect?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
15. Technician A says that all Caterpillar C9 engines use a CR fuel system. Techni-
cian B says that a post-2007 C15 uses MEUI-C dual actuator EUIs. Who is cor-
rect?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 42
1. What is the Cummins online service information system known as?

a. QSOL
b. ISX
c. INSITE
d. SIS
2. What is Cummins diagnostic software known as?

a. Master Diagnostics (MD)
b. INSITE
c. QSOL
d. Electronic Technician (ET)
3. What was the partial authority engine management system used on Cummins PT-
fueled engines known as?
a. PACE
b. IS
c. QS
d. NTC
4. What electronic management system is used to manage current industrial and off-
highway Cummins diesel engines?
a. PACE
b. IS
c. QS
d. CELECT
5. What electronic management system is used to manage post-2010 EPA highway-

compliant diesel engines?
a. PACE
b. IS
c. QS
d. CELECT
6. Which of the following describes how an IS ECM prevents moisture from enter-
ing the housing?
a. Vacuum sealed
b. WeatherPac sealed
c. Vented with a Gore-Tex seal
d. WeatherProof II technology
7. Which of the following Cummins IS input sensors could be categorized as a
“command” input?
a. Ambient pressure
b. Oil pressure
c. Coolant level
d. Throttle position
8. The Cummins IS boost pressure sensors would be described electrically as:

a. Piezoresistive
b. Potentiometer
c. Variable capacitance
d. Thermistor
9. At what electrical pressure are Cummins electrically actuated injectors switched?

a. 5V
b. 12 V
c. 78 V
d. 100 V
10. The “smart” road speed governing option used by Cummins electronics is called:
a. Echeck
b. ESP
c. INSITE
d. RSG tailoring
11. Which of the following will prevent ESP operation?

a. Any logged fault code
b. Any active fault code
c. TPS, VSS, or EPS active code
d. 1:1 transmission drive ratio
12. Technician A states that IS engine position sensors use a magnetic pulse generator
principle. Technician B states that the IS engine position sensors are located on the
engine crankshaft. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
13. Technician A states that IS engine position sensor signals are sourced from the
engine camshaft. Technician B states that a typical Cummins engine position sen-
sor is fitted with 24 evenly spaced recesses with a dowel indicating the #1 piston,
TDC position. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
14. What on-highway engine management system is used by current Cummins West-
port natural gas-fueled engines?
a. CELECT Plus
b. PACE
c. INSITE
d. IS
15. Technician A says that all Cummins EPA highway-compliant post-2010 diesel
engines use CR fueling. Technician B says that there is almost no difference be-
tween a 2009 ISX and the 2010 version. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 43
1. What is the Detroit Diesel online service information system known as?
a. DDEC
b. SIS
c. ISIS
d. PSL
2. What is Detroit Diesel latest reprogramming and diagnostic software known as?
a. MD
b. DDRS
c. DDEC
d. ET
3. What version of DDEC is used with post-2010 DD-Series engines?

a. DDEC I
b. DDEC IV
c. DDEC VI
d. DDEC10
4. Which of the following versions of DDEC uses a two-module system?

a. DDEC10
b. DDEC V
c. DDEC IV
d. DDEC III
5. What is the primary function of the SRS?

a. Signal engine position data
b. Signal engine rpm data
c. Signal vehicle road speed data
d. Signal ambient temperature
6. How many teeth does the TRS pulse wheel have on a typical DDEC system?
a. 6
b. 12
c. 24
d. 36
7. Which dash diagnostic light is used to flash active DDEC fault codes in systems
without ProDriver?
a. Oil pressure warning
b. SEL
c. Electronic malfunction
d. CEL
8. What is the primary objective when the progressive shifting option is selected?
a. To extend the service life of the transmission
b. To improve fuel economy
c. To frustrate the driver
d. To ensure that engine oil temperature remains stable
9. When a DDEC engine programmed for ramp down as a failure strategy detects a
low oil pressure condition, which dash light(s) will illuminate?
a. CEL
b. SEL
c. CEL and SEL
d. Ignition
10. The reason for programming DDEC ECMs with IQCC is to:
a. Enable the ECM to balance cylinder fueling
b. Maintain charging pressure values
c. Synchronize EUI solenoid valve closure
d. Maintain the same IRT for each injector solenoid
11. Technician A states that one of the reasons DDEC VI electronics uses a two-module
system is that the electronic management system is also used on three engines with
different fuel systems. Technician B states that in DDEC10 the injector drivers are
located in the MCM. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
12. In the DDEC VI management system, which module uses the MID 128 address
on the chassis data bus?
a. ECM
b. CPC
c. MCM
d. EDU
13. Technician A states that during an injector speed balance (ISB) test, an EHI dis-
playing a positive value of plus 100 is likely to be defective. Technician B states
that an EHI displaying a negative value of minus 100 has no problems with fuel
flow. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
14. Where is the EDU located on a 2004 Series 60 engine?
a. Within the DDEC ECM
b. On the firewall
c. On the dash
d. Within the CPC
15. What do DDEC electronics use as the basis for determining the rate of EHI fuel
flow compensation required as a result of idle speed compensation (ISC) analy-
sis?
a. Voltage wave produced by EHIs
b. Crankshaft sector speed variations
c. Cylinder pressure values
d. Injector response time (IRT)
Chapter 44
1. What is the online SIS used for Navistar engines manufactured before 2007
known as?
a. SIS
b. ISIS
c. NSI
d. Oracle
2. What is the dealership level, online SIS used for working on Navistar engines
manufactured after 2007 known as?
a. SIS
b. ISIS
c. NSI
d. HEUI
3. Technician A says that Diamond Logic is a Navistar term for their chassis multiplexing
system. Technician B says that Diamond Logic electronics are used to manage cur-
rent Navistar engines. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
4. What is the Navistar online SIS especially designed for fleet applications known
as?
a. SIS
b. ISIS
c. NSI
d. OnCommand
5. What is Master Diagnostics software used for?

a. Troubleshooting pre-2007 Navistar engines
b. Troubleshooting post-2010 Navistar engines
c. Training diesel technicians
d. Training parts personnel
6. If you had to troubleshoot a problem on a MaxxForce 13 engine, which of the fol-

lowing software packages would be the most help?
a. MD
b. SM
c. ISIS
d. ICR
7. Which engine manufacturer has a connection with the development of the Maxx-
Force 11 engine?
a. MAN
b. Caterpillar
c. Ford
d. DDC
8. Siemens-manufactured HEUIs are switched at:

a. 12 V-DC
b. 48 V-DC
c. 90 V-AC
d. 115 V-AC
9. Navistar fault codes may be read from the vehicle dash when the STI button is de-
pressed using which lights?
a. Check engine and stop engine
b. Warn engine and oil/water
c. Electronic malfunction and shutdown engine
10. Technician A states that in a Navistar two-box engine controller, the ECM and IDM
are incorporated in one module, and the personality module in the other. Technician
B states that a Navistar single-box system can be known as a CEC system. Who is
correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
11. Technician A states that the MaxxForce 15 engine is based on a Caterpillar C15 engine
platform. Technician B states that MaxxForce 15 engine uses the Caterpillar ACERT
system and SCR. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
12. Technician A states that processing logic desired pressure relates to the ECM cal-
culated rail pressure in a CR fuel system. Technician B states that actual pressures
in an HEUI or CR system are always values signaled to the engine controller by
means of sensors. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
13. Technician A states that the MaxxForce 11 uses an HEUI fuel system. Technician
B states that the MaxxForce 15 uses a CR fuel system. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
14. What is the post-2010 version of the Navistar 466 engine known as?
a. MaxxForce 10
b. MaxxForce DT
c. DT 466E
d. VT 466 E
15. What engine configuration is used in a MaxxForce 7 engine?

a. V-8
b. V-6
c. I-6
d. I-4
Chapter 45
1. What is the Paccar online service information system known as?

a. ET
b. DAVIE
c. RAPIDO
d. PacNet
2. What is Paccar diagnostic software known as?

a. ET
b. DAVIE
c. RAPIDO
d. Electronic Technician (ET)
3. Which of the following Paccar chassis engines uses an EUP fuel system?
a. Cummins ISX
b. Paccar PX-Series
c. Cummins ISC
d. Paccar MX-Series
4. Where is the Paccar ECM located on an MX-Series engine?

a. Lower left side
b. Upper right side
c. Under the bell housing
d. Above the rocker covers
5. Where are the Paccar EUP drivers located?

c. Under the dash
d. Integral with each EUP
6. Technician A states that to access Paccar MX-Series engine electronics, a Paccar

CA must be used. Technician B states that MX-Series engines use a two-module
ECM system. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
7. Technician A says Paccar DAVIE is a free Web download. Technician B states
that Paccar RAPIDO diagnostics are required to troubleshoot MX engines. Who is
correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
8. Technician A says that all Paccar engines use an EUP fuel system. Technician B
says that all post-2010 Paccar engines use a CR fuel system. Who is correct?
a. Technician A only.
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
9. Which of the following is the Paccar catalog system?

a. web ECAT
b. RAPIDO
c. DAVIE
d. MX
10. Technician A says that a Paccar MX engine uses six EUPs. Technician B says that a
Paccar MX engine uses six SMART injectors. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 46
1. What is the Volvo engine management system known as?

a. V-CADs
b. VECTRO
c. V-MAC
d. Virtual Volvo
2. What is the Mack SIS known as?

a. EIS
b. MSIS
c. IMPACT
d. EMS
3. What is the Volvo SIS known as?

a. EIS
b. VSIS
c. IMPACT
d. EMS
4. What generation of V-MAC was used to manage Mack E-Tech, EUP-fueled en-
gines used until 2007?
a. V-MAC I
b. V-MAC II
c. V-MAC III
d. V-MAC IV
5. What version of Volvo VECTRO is used to manage 2010 twin-actuator EUI-

fueled Volvo engines?
a. VECTRO I
b. VECTRO II
c. VECTRO III
d. VECTRO IV
6. Which of the following metric values would be closest to the engine displacement of
a Mack MP-7 engine?
a. 7 liters
b. 10 liters
c. 11 liters
d. 13 liters
7. What color lamp is used on Volvo and Mack chassis to fill the functions of the
check engine lamp (CEL) used by other OEMs?
a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. Clear
d. Red
8. Which module on a current Volvo or Mack truck receives the TPS signal (PID
91)?
a. Fuel module
b. EECU
c. VCU
d. Both b and c
9. Where is the humidity sensor located on a Mack Trucks MP-7 engine?

a. Exhaust manifold
b. Turbocharger
c. EGR manifold
d. Intake pipe
10. Volvo and Mack twin-actuator EUIs are switched by the injector drivers at:
a. 5V
b. 12 V
c. 24 V
d. 100 V
11. What is required to diagnose system problems on any post-2007 Mack Trucks en-
gine?
a. Mack service manual
b. VCADs
c. Premium Tech Tool (PTT)
d. Mack CoPilot
12. If a driver wanted to inhibit a DPF regeneration using DID, which of the follow-
ing menu headers would he have to route through?
a. Maintenance
b. Diagnostics
c. Road connect
d. Electronic faults
13. Technician A states that twin-actuator EUI calibration codes must be repro-
grammed to the EECU whenever one is changed out. Technician B states that the
twin-actuator EUI uses a four-digit code. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
14. Technician A states that when the dash warning yellow lamp illuminates on a
2007 Mack Trucks chassis, the driver should immediately pull over to the side of
the road. Technician B says that when the dash warning red light illuminates, a
buzzer is usually activated. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
15. Technician A states that current Mack Trucks EECUs are mounted on the right
side of the engine. Technician B states that current Volvo Trucks EECUs are bus
connected to a VCU. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 47
1. Which of the following compounds is classified by the EPA as a pollutant?

a. Oxides of nitrogen
b. Hydrocarbons
c. Carbon dioxide
d. All are pollutants
2. Which of the following are GHGs?

a. CO2
b. Methane
c. NOx
d. All are GHGs
3. Which exhaust gas emission does an NOx adsorber catalyst attempt to reduce?
a. Particulate matter (PM)
b. Oxides of nitrogen
c. Hydrocarbons
d. All of the above
4. Which of the following engine OEMs is not using SCR on its post-2010 diesel
engines?
a. DDC
b. Cummins
c. Navistar
d. Volvo
5. Which of the following would properly describe atmospheric oxygen at ground

level?
a. O
b. O2
c. O3
d. O4
6. Which two compounds would result from theoretically “perfect” combustion of

an HC fuel reacted with oxygen?
a. Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
b. Carbon dioxide and nitrogen dioxide
c. Nitrogen dioxide and water
d. Carbon dioxide and water
7. When a diesel engine is operated at lower than normal combustion temperatures,
which of the following categories of noxious exhaust emissions is likely to in-
crease?
a. Hydrocarbons
b. Oxides of nitrogen
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Ozone
8. Which of the following best describes what happens in an oxidation-type catalytic

converter?
a. Nitrogen in NOx is combusted.
b. CO and HCs are combusted.
c. HCs are entrapped on substrate.
d. Particulate matter is filtered out.
9. Technician A states that DPFs can run up to 8 hours in a linehaul diesel engine
before regeneration. Technician B states that some DPFs must be removed from
the vehicle for cleaning on a weekly basis. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
10. Technician A states that photochemical smog formation requires both HC and
NOx plus a period of exposure to sunlight. Technician B states that the presence of
ozone is a requirement for creating photochemical smog. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
11. What is the 2018 target percentage reduction for GHGs emitted by highway diesel
powered trucks over 2010 standards?
a. 6%
b. 9%
c. 17%
d. 50%
12. If the Administration’s target for fuel economy for commercial trucks in 2018 is
met, fuel consumption per ton-mile hauled should decrease by:
a. 6%
b. 9%
c. 15%
d. 40%
Chapter 48
1. Which of the following exhaust gas test instruments uses a light extinction princi-
ple to measure smoke density?
a. CVA sampler
b. Seven-gas analyzer
c. Two-gas analyzer
d. Opacity meter
2. When a diesel engine is operated without a thermostat(s), which of the follow-

ing categories of noxious exhaust emissions is likely to increase?
a. Oxides of nitrogen
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Ozone
d. Hydrocarbons
3. Which method of EGR cooler cleaning tends to produce the best results?
a. Ultrasonic bath
b. Power washing
c. Steam cleaning
d. Mineral spirits soaking
4. Which SAE standard defines the guidelines for testing diesel engine exhaust
opacity emissions?
a. J1587
b. J1667
c. J1708
d. J1939
5. Technician A states that advancing the static timing of a fuel injection pump by 1
crank degree can increase NOx emission. Technician B states that retarding static tim-
ing could produce higher HC emissions. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
6. Technician A states that the maximum puff test when using an opacity meter can
be performed with the vehicle stationary and zero load on the engine. Technician
B states that the full acceleration test when using an opacity meter is a throttle
snap test that can be performed with the vehicle stationary. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
7. Technician A states that DPFs can run up to 8 hours in a linehaul diesel engine be-
fore regeneration is required. Technician B states that some DPFs must be removed
from the vehicle for cleaning on a weekly basis. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
8. Technician A states that most DPF regeneration in highway diesel engines should
occur as passive regeneration. Technician B states that DPF active regeneration
cycles usually require the injection of fuel upstream from the DPF. Who is cor-
rect?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
9. How many official throttle snaps are required when performing a J1667 opacity
test?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
10. An (older) hydromechanically managed, diesel-powered truck is road tested and

produces a puff of smoke at each upshift. Which of the following devices should
be checked out first?
a. Shift tower air signal
b. Aneroid
c. Turbocharger wastegate
d. Governor torque trim spring
11. Which of the following smoke control devices is not an aneroid?

a. DDC throttle delay cylinder
b. Caterpillar AFRC
c. Mack Trucks puff limiter
d. Cummins AFC
12. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of too-frequent DPF re-
generation cycles?
a. Engine running too hot
b. Ash buildup in the DPF
c. Long uphill full power hauls
d. Prolonged use of cruise control
Chapter 49
1. An aluminum trunk-type piston has failed with a hole burned through the center
of the crown. Technician A states that this might be due to a retarded timing con-
dition. Technician B states that such a failure could occur caused by a dribbling
injector nozzle. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
2. Which of the following conditions could cause carbon buildup on pistons?

a. Overfueling
b. Injector nozzle failure
c. Retarded injection timing
d. All of the above
3. Which of the following conditions is the more likely result of advanced timing in
a diesel engine?
a. Erosion near the center of the piston crown
b. Erosion pitting above the top compression ring land
c. Overall piston scuffing
d. Fractured rings
4. Which of the following operating modes would be most likely to result in a tensile
conn rod failure?
a. Overfueling
b. Lugdown
c. Ether abuse
d. An overspeeding engine
5. Etched main bearings could be caused by all of the following conditions except:
a. Fuel in lube
b. Coolant in lube
c. Sulfur in lube
d. Particulate in lube oil
6. Evidence of cavitation erosion on a set of wet liners would most likely be caused
by:
a. High cylinder pressures
b. Incorrect coolant chemistry
c. Piston spalling
d. Liner O-ring failure
7. Which of the following might result in glazed cylinder sleeves?
b. Prolonged engine idling
c. Ether usage
d. Engine lugging
8. When observing a disassembled engine, the outer edges of all the pistons have
evidence of melting and erosion. This would most likely be caused by:
a. Advanced timing
b. A dribbling injector
c. Retarded timing
d. High sulfur content fuel
9. When examining a set of pistons from a disassembled engine, scuffing is ob-

served on the thrust sides of all of the pistons. Which of the following would be
the more likely cause?
b. Overheating
c. Contaminated engine lube
d. High sulfur content fuel
10. Which of the following components when worn may cause lower oil pressures?
a. Main bearings
b. Valve guides
c. Oil control rings
d. All of the above
11. What is the most common cause of EUI failure?

a. Cavitation
b. Internal leakage
c. Metal fatigue
d. Fried stator
12. You have determined that a set of EUIs has failed due to cavitation. Which of the
following would be the more likely root cause of the failure?
a. Restricted secondary filter
b. Prolonged high-load operation
c. Incorrect injector timing setting
d. Double gasketing the EUI seat
13. Technician A states that B-life is used as a means of reckoning costs over the life
of an engine. Technician B states that the letter B in the term B-life references pre-
dicted bearing longevity. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
14. Which of the following is the correct technical description of what we call scuff-
ing?
a. Scraping
b. Adhesive failure
c. Thermal failure
d. Catastrophic
15. Technician A states that B10 life is used by some fleets to determine how long
they should keep trucks before dealing them. Technician B states that Bx life is a
prediction of engine life before major repair. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Chapter 50
1. Which of the following instruments would check dry air filter restriction with the
highest accuracy?
a. Pyrometer
b. Trouble light
c. H2O manometer
d. Dash restriction gauge
2. A typical maximum inlet restriction specification on a turbo-boosted diesel engine

would be:
a. 25-inch (635-mm) H2O
b. 25-inch (635-mm) Hg
c. 25 psi (172 kPa)
d. 250 kPa (36 psi)
3. Which of the following conditions would least likely cause black smoke emis-
sion?
a. Restricted air filter
b. Retarded injection timing
c. Restricted diesel particulate filter
d. Excessive use of cetane improver
4. Technician A states that excessive idling can result in plugging of the EGR heat
exchanger. Technician B states that low oil pressure can cause some types of EGR
gate valves to stick. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
5. Operating an engine without a coolant thermostat would most likely result in an

increase of which noxious emission?
a. HC
b. NOx
c. SO2
d. CO2
6. Which of the following should be done first when investigating a poor fuel mile-
age complaint?
a. Overhaul the engine
b. Change the air filter
c. Run a lab test on the fuel
d. Connect an EST and check for codes
7. Technician A states that an excessive amount of oil in the crankcase can produce
a low oil pressure problem in a diesel engine. Technician B states that the first
thing to check when oil pressures fluctuate is the crankcase oil level. Who is
correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
8. Technician A states that a small dent in a viscous-type vibration damper is not a

concern unless there is visible leakage. Technician B states that some compressors
have to be timed to the engine or a vibration will result. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
9. There is evidence of soot in the intake manifold of a boosted truck diesel engine.
Which of the following conditions would be most likely to contribute to this con-
dition?
a. Engine lugdown
b. High-idle operation
c. Rated speed operation
d. Running at low speed with low loads
10. Technician A states that white smoke emission can be caused by air starvation to
the engine. Technician B states that blue smoke is associated with an engine that
is burning oil in its cylinders. Who is correct?
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

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2. How many complete rotations must the thimble of a standard micrometer be

4. When the thimble of a metric micrometer

6. Which of the following precision measuring instruments would be required to

8. To which of the following values would 1.5 mm be closest?

9. Convert 550° Fahrenheit into Celsius.

11. Which of the following is used to identify an SAE Grade 8 bolt?

3. Which of the following is required to have a left-hand thread?

5. Which of the following grades of eye protection filter would be recommended

2. Which of the following accurately describes engine displacement?

3. Engine breathing in the two-stroke cycle is usually referred to as:

4. The tendency of an object in motion to want to stay in motion is known as:

5. When a modern diesel engine is running at optimum efficiency, the percentage of

8. Where does scavenging take place on a four-stroke cycle diesel engine?

11. A Cummins ISB engine has a displacement of

12. A 2007 Caterpillar ACERT C13 engine has an

1. Who invented the first heat engine?

2. Which of the following properly describes the first heat engine?

3. Who invented the term horsepower?

4. Who built the world’s first useful steam engine?

5. Who designed the first centrifugal governor?

6. In what year did Diesel patent his compression

7. Who patented the first high-pressure liquid fuel

10. The world’s first automobile was built by:

3. Which of the following is required to produce peak torque in a diesel engine?

4. In most hydromechanical fuel systems, when maximum engine rpm is increased,

9. When engine power is calculated rather than tested, it is known as:

10. Which of the following expresses 1 HP correctly?

11. Convert a torque value of 25 lb-ft. into Newton-

2. Which of the following is a disadvantage of an articulating piston assembly when

3. Where would a Ni-Resist insert be located?

8. What type of piston is favored by diesel engine OEMs in post-2007 products?

13. What should be used to install piston rings onto a piston?

4. In which direction must a camshaft be rotated on a diesel engine with a crankshaft

6. A camshaft gear is usually precisely positioned on the camshaft using a(n):

8. Which of the following operating conditions would be more likely to cause a

1. Which of the following SAE multigrade oils would likely be recommended by

15. Which of the following statements best describes viscosity?

3. Wet liner cavitation is caused by:

6. Which would be the warmest portion of a typical downflow-type radiator when

8. In a typical diesel-powered highway truck at operating temperature, which of the

9. Which of the following properly describes the operating principle of a typical

13. Coolant silicate drop-out usually causes:

19. Which of the following is true of an APCS?

2. A typical maximum specified inlet restriction for an air filter on a turbocharged

17. When is a diesel engine turbocharger capable of highest rotational speeds?

3. Technician A states that the Cummins Intebrake on pre-2010 ISX is capable of

1. Which of the following engine lubricants must be used if an engine is equipped

2. Which of the following would best describe the color of DEF?

5. What color is used to denote a DEF fill cap?

10. When should a diesel engine air filter be changed?

2. Technician A states that an engine dynamometer is likely to produce a brake

4. Technician A states that when performing dynamometer testing of an engine, the

5. Which of the following electronic controllers would have to be disabled before

1. Which of the following statements correctly describes air?

5. The most abundant element found in the known universe is:

6. The most abundant element found in the earth’s crust is:

8. Proportionately, the largest ingredient in an in-engine cylinder, combustion reac-

13. How many protons would a balanced atom of oxygen contain?

14. How many electrons would a balanced atom of carbon contain?

16. Technician A states that the stoichiometric requirement of a gasoline combusted