MARY CHILES COLLEGE OF ARTS AND SCIENCES, INC.

Sandico St., Poblacion, Pulilan Bulacan

SEMI-FINAL EXAM
4th QUARTER
GRADE 7 – SCIENCE
Name: ______________________________________________________ Score: ___________
Teacher: Ma’am Monique Joy G. Reyes Date: ___________
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each item carefully. On the answer sheet blacken the circle that
corresponds to the letter of the correct answer.

1. Which color in the visible spectrum of light has the longest wavelength?
A. Orange B. Red C. Green D. Violet
2. How does frequency vary with wavelength?
A. The higher the frequency, the shorter the wavelength.
B. The higher the frequency, the longer the wavelength.
C. The lower the frequency, the shorter the wavelength.
D. Frequency does not vary with wavelength.
3. Which statement is incorrect based on the table below?

A. Different colors of light have different wavelengths.

B. Different colors of light have different frequencies.
C. When the wavelength is long, the frequency is low.
D. When the wavelength is long, the frequency is high.
4. The separation of visible light into its different colors is ___________.
A. dispersion B. absorption C. diffusion D. transmission
5. How do you call objects that emit light?
A. luminous B. non-luminous C. opaque D. transparent
6. Which of the following items best describes the nature of light?
A. current and wave C. point and wave
B. mass and particle D. wave and particle
7. The following are natural sources of light in the surroundings, EXCEPT__________.
A. sun B. flashlight C. firefly D. lightning
8. Which of the following are the correct reasons why we see a clear image of our face when we
look on the mirror?
A. Incident light rays to a mirror get bent when it strikes a mirror.
B. Incident light rays to a mirror get diffracted when it strikes a mirror.
C. Incident light rays to the mirror get refracted on the surface of mirror.
D. Incident light rays to a mirror get reflected when it strikes on plane surface.
9. If a light ray is shown on a plane mirror with an angle of incidence of 45 degrees, what is the
angle of reflection?
A. 35 B. 40 C. 45 D.50
10. Which of the following visible light colors have the longest wavelength and highest
frequency?
A. Blue and red B. Red and violet C. Red and green D. Orange and violet
11. The intensity of light is inversely proportional to the distance from the eye of the observer.
Which of the following statements explain the relationship between intensity and
distance?
I. As the distance increases, the intensity of light decreases because it spreads out
over a larger area.
II. When the distance increases, the intensity of light increases because the light
rays compressed in larger surface area.
III. If the distance increases, the intensity of light decreases because light waves

spread out more in its surrounding.

A. I, II, and III B. I and II only C. I and III only D. II and III only
For items 12 to 13, refer to the illustration below. Suppose two identical kinds of light
sources, A and B, shines on a surface of a board when placed 100 cm to the left and 50 cm to the
right of the board, respectively.

12. Will the light intensity measured on the cardboard facing light source A is higher than the
side facing light source B?
A. No, because light source A is farther from the cardboard than light source B.
B. Yes, because light source A is farther from the cardboard than light source B.
C. Yes, because light source B is much closer to the cardboard than light source A.
D. No, because the distance of light sources has no effect on their light intensities.
13. How does the amount of light intensity of light source B compare to light source A as
measured on the surface of the cardboard?
A. They have equal light intensities.
B. They have varying light intensities per time.
C. The side facing light source A has greater light intensity.
D. The side facing light source B has greater light intensity.
14. The following electromagnetic waves are invisible to the human eye, EXCEPT_____
A. infrared B. microwave C. visible spectrum D. X-rays
15. Which of the following statements are INCORRECT about the behavior of light?
A. Light can travel through vacuum.
B. Light can travel in a straight line.
C. Light does not need a medium in order to propagate.
D. Light does not bend when crossing the boundary of two media.
16. Which of the following order of the visible spectrum show the increasing order of
wavelength?
A. Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Indigo, Violet, Blue
B. Violet, Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Indigo, Blue
C. Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, Violet
D. Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red

17. Which of the following order of the Electromagnetic waves shows the increasing order of
frequency?
A. Gamma, X-ray, Ultraviolet, Visible light, Infrared, Microwave, Radio
B. Visible light, Microwave, Infrared, Ultraviolet, X-ray, Gamma, Radio
C. Microwave, Radio, Visible light, Infrared, Ultraviolet, X-ray, Gamma
D. Radio, Microwave, Infrared, Visible light, Ultraviolet, X-ray, Gamma
18. Which waves are the type that can give us suntans and sunburns?
A. ultraviolet radiation B. visible light C. radio waves D. infrared radiation

19. Which rays can be felt as heat?

A. ultraviolet radiation B. visible light C. radio waves D. infrared radiation
20. Which section of the spectrum is the only one we can see?
A. microwaves B. visible light C. radio waves D. x-rays

21. Which electromagnetic wave is used to destroy or damage cancer cells?

A. gamma rays B. infrared radiation C. radio waves D. x-rays
22. Which explains why the pencil looks different under water?
A. light is refracted at an angle
B. light can't pass through the glass
C. the wavelength of light lengthens
D. the amount of light increases when going through water
23. Which type of waves are used in broadcasting?
A. ultraviolet radiation B. visible light C. radio waves D. infrared radiation
24. If an object allows all light to pass through it then it is ____.
A. translucent B. opaque C. transparent D. dense
25. An object that blocks all of the light from passing through is ____.
A. translucent B. opaque C. transparent D. dense
26. The science of measuring the intensity or brightness of light is called
A. illuminance B. reflection C. luminous D. photometry
27. It refers to the transfer of heat that occurs within a body or between two bodies in contact.
A. conduction B. fusion C. convection D. radiation

28. Which of the following is TRUE about conductors?

A. Conductors are the materials that conduct heat well
B. Conductors are the materials that conduct heat poorly.
C. Conductors refers to the process of heat transfer from one object to another.
D. Conductor refers to the process in which heat is carried from place to place by the bulk
movement of a fluid.
29. This describes the one direction, natural flow of heat.
A. hot to cold B. cold to hot C. both a and c D. none of the above
30. The substance where heat transfer by convection occurs due to different temperatures.
A. gases and liquids B. gases only C. liquids only D. solids only

31. The transfer of heat due to electromagnetic waves and does not need a material medium.
A. conduction B. convection C. fusion D. radiation
32. It is described as the hotness or coldness of a body.
A. Heat B. Insulator C. Radiation D. Temperature

33. What mode of heat transfer takes place in fluids because their particles can move around?
A. Conduction B. Convection C. Heat D. Radiation

34. When a pot of water on the stove is heated up to form steam this phase change is called
A. condensation B. evaporation C. sublimation D. melting
35. When steam from water rises up and hits the side of the cup and makes tiny droplets of water
this is called
A. condensation B. evaporation C. sublimation D. melting
36. The drops of water that appear on the outside of a glass of cold juice on a warm day are an
example of?
A. condensation B. evaporation C. sublimation D. deposition
37. The naphthalene balls (mothballs) keep on forming naphthalene vapors slowly which
disappear into the air. The changing of a solid directly into vapors on heating, is known
as ___.
A. condensation B. evaporation C. sublimation D. deposition

38. Is when a substance in gas form changes states to become a solid; example formation of frost
A. condensation B. evaporation C. sublimation D. deposition

39. You wake up on a Saturday morning and are glad since you don’t have to go to school. You
sit outside in the sun because you don’t really feel like doing anything at all. The heat
from the sun is starting to make you sweat. Is the heat transfer caused by radiation?
A. Yes, because radiation is transfer of heat by means of rays.
B. Yes, because radiation is transfer of heat by direct contact.
C. No, because radiation is the transfer of heat by direct contact.
D. No, because radiation is the transfer of heat through fluid and gases.
40. When a metal spoon with a temperature of 25°C is placed in a cup of hot water with a
temperature of 95°C, how is the temperature of the two objects affected by the
contact?
A. The temperature of the spoon decreases; for hot water, it increases
B. The temperature of the spoon increases; for hot water, it decrease
C. The temperature of the spoon increases; for hot water, it is unaffected
D. The temperature of the spoon is unaffected; for hot water, it decreases
41. Why does conduction occur between objects?
A. Objects in contact must have different temperatures.
B. Objects in contact must have the same temperature.
C. Objects not in contact must have different temperatures.
D. Objects not in contact must have the same temperature.
42. Despite the sun's distance from the Earth, it is still able to keep the Earth warm. Why is this
possible?
A. The sun warms the particles nearest it creating convection currents
B. The sun's heat is transferred through the electromagnetic waves
C. The sun conducts heats using the plants by photosynthesis
D. The sun condenses water vapor in the clouds as rain
43. When the temperature of matter decreases the particles ___.
A. speed up and move farther apart C. slow down and move farther apart
B. speed up and move closer together D. slow down and move closer together
44. The temperature scale on which water freezes at 32 degrees and boils at 212 degrees
A. Celsius B. Fahrenheit C. Kelvin D. Joule
45. A measure of how hot or cold something is; a measure of the average kinetic energy or
particles in an object
A. temperature B. waves C. heat D. energy
46. _____ is where an object expands and becomes larger due to a change in its temperature. 
A. Energy explosion B. Thermal Expansion C. Thermal Extension D. Wave
Expansion
47. A person with hypothermia has a body temperature of 34.8°C. What is that temperature in
°F?
A. 94.6°F B. 62.6°F C. 34.8°F D. 1.8 °F

48. A pepperoni pizza is baked at 455°F. What temperature is needed on the Celsius scale?
A. 239°C B. 235°C C. 265°C D. 263°C
49. On a cold winter, the temperature is -15 °C. What is that temperature in °F?
A. 19 °F B. 59°F C. 5°F D. 55°F

50. What is normal body temperature of 37°C in Kelvin?

A. 310 K B. 321 K C. 301 K D. 311 K

MARY CHILES COLLEGE OF ARTS AND SCIENCES, INC.

Sandico St., Poblacion, Pulilan Bulacan

SEMI-FINAL EXAM
4th QUARTER
GRADE 8 – SCIENCE
Name: ______________________________________________________ Score: ___________
Teacher: Ma’am Monique Joy G. Reyes Date: ___________
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each item carefully. On the answer sheet blacken the circle that
corresponds to the letter of the correct answer.

1. What part of our cells holds our DNA?

A. nucleus B. cytoplasm C. centrosome D. ribosomes
2. All organisms contain DNA and RNA. What are the building blocks of DNA and RNA?
A. nucleotides B. amino acids C. lipids D. nucleic acids
3. What is the difference between DNA and RNA in terms of bases?
A. RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
B. RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
C. RNA contains uracil in place of guanine
D. RNA contains uracil in place of cytosine
4. What is the difference between the sugars found in DNA and RNA?
A. DNA contains sucrose while RNA deoxyribose
B. DNA contains deoxyribose while RNA ribose
C. DNA contains glucose while RNA contains sucrose
D. DNA contains ribose while RNA contains sucrose
5. What are the three components of a nucleotide?
A. sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base C. sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
B. sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base D. sugar, phosphate, protein
6. Which two scientists are accredited with correctly deducing the double helix model of DNA?
A. Watson and Crick C. Wilkins and Crick
B. Wilkins and Franklin D. Watson and Franklin
7. During a cell cycle, when is a cell’s DNA replicated?
A. Mitosis B. S phase C. G1 phase D. G2 phase
8. In which stage of the cell cycle does a eukaryotic cell spend most of its life?
A. Mitosis B. Interphase C. Cytokinesis D. Metaphase
9. During their biology class Krishna was asked by her classmate to explain what happens during
mitosis. Krishna explained that during mitosis, a single cell divides into two daughter
cells that are genetically identical to itself. Do think Krishna’s explanation is correct?
A. No, a single cell divides during cytokinesis.
B. No, two parent cells combine to form many daughter cells.
C. Yes, mitosis is a cell division process but it results into four daughter cells not two.
D. Yes, mitosis is a cell division process that results to two daughter cells each with the
same kind and number of chromosomes.
10. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the stages of mitosis?
A. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
B. Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase, Prophase
C. Telophase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase
D. Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Metaphase
11. Which of the following cell bodies do NOT undergo mitotic division?
A. nerve cells B. skin cells C. sperm cells D. muscle cells
12. The diploid chromosome number of humans is 46. How many chromosomes would normally
be found in a bone cell of humans?
A. 23 B. 33 C. 46 D. 92
13. How many chromosomes will be found in each of the two new cells formed because of
mitotic cell division?
A. Twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell
B. The same number of chromosomes as the parent cell
C. Three times as many chromosomes as the parent cell
D. Only one-half as many chromosomes as the parent cell
14. What is the role of the spindle microtubules during mitosis?
A. They duplicate the DNA. C. They help separate the chromosomes.
B. They make the chromosomes visible. D. They break down the nuclear membrane.
15. Which phase of mitosis do chromosomes line up at the middle of the dividing cell?
A. Anaphase B. Metaphase C. Prophase D. Telophase
16. Which of the following statements is true about mitosis?
A. Mitosis produces 2 diploid daughter cells.
B. Mitosis produces 4 diploid daughter cells.
C. Mitosis produces 2 haploid daughter cells.
D. Mitosis produces 4 haploid daughter cells.
17. The following are functions of mitosis, EXCEPT
A. cell repair B. cell growth C. cell duplication D. sex cells
production
18. What is the process by which cytoplasm divides into two daughter cells, each with a nucleus?
A. Cytokinesis B. Duplication C. Replication D. Reproduction
19. Which of the following type of cells undergo meiosis?
A. Blood B. Muscle C. Skin D. Sperm
20. Metaphase I is the second stage of meiosis I. Which of the following describes this phase?
A. Chiasma formation
B. Pairing of chromosomes
C. Crossing over of the chromosomes
D. Homologous chromosomes alignment in the center of the cell
21. (I) Mitosis produces 2 diploid daughter cells while (II) meiosis produces two haploid
daughter cells. Which of the statement/s is/are true?
A. I but not II B. II but not I C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II
22. Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material. When does crossing over take place?
A. Prophase I B. Metaphase I C. Prophase II D. Metaphase II
23. Chromosome A contains genes for hair color of Selena and chromosome B contains genes
for her eye color. Chromosome C contains genes for the eye color of Jared and
chromosome D for his hair type. Which are homologous chromosomes?
A. A and B B. A and C C. B and C D. C and D
24. How many times does the cell divide during meiosis?
 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
25. Which of the following cell structures is responsible for pulling the chromatids towards the
opposite poles?
A. Golgi apparatus C. Nuclear membrane
B. Spindle microtubules D. Plasma membrane

26. In meiosis, crossing over occurs in prophase 1. What is the significance of this event?

A. This process can lead to genetic variation in daughter cells.
B. This process can create gaps in the chromosome DNA for RNA to bind.
C. This process ensures that chromosomes are evenly divided into daughter cells.
D. This process allows for spindles to connect to the chromosomes in order to pull
chromosomes apart.
27. Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____
chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined)
would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
A. 23, 46 B. 46, 23 C. 2, 4 D. 50, 100
28. An allele whose trait always shows up in the organism when the allele is present.
A. recessive allele B. dominant allele C. hidden allele D. present allele
29. The Law of Independent Assortment states: 
A. most genes are inherited together
B. only dominant genes are inherited
C. recessive genes can never be expressed
D. genes that control different characteristics are inherited separately and are not related
30. Gregor Mendel's "P" generation consisted of homozygous purple flower plants crossed with
homozygous white flower plants. What were the results of this cross?
A. 50% purple flowers and 50% white flowers
B. 100% homozygous white flower offspring since white is recessive.
C. 100% homozygous purple flower offspring since purple is dominant.
D. 100% heterozygous purple flower offspring since purple is dominant.
31. A __________ is a segment of DNA that codes for a particular protein, which leads to a
particular trait.
A. allele B. gene C. protein D. nucleotides
32. Mendel's law of dominance states that:
A. recessive genes can never be expressed
B. genes that control different characteristics are inherited separately and are not related
C. during gamete formation, the alleles for each gene segregate from each other so that
each gamete carries only one allele for each gene.
D. some alleles, which are variants of a particular gene found at the same chromosomal
locus or location, are dominant over the other alleles for a given gene
33. The law of segregation states that:
A. recessive genes can never be expressed
B. genes that control different characteristics are inherited separately and are not related
C. during gamete formation, the alleles for each gene segregate from each other so that
each gamete carries only one allele for each gene.
D. some alleles, which are variants of a particular gene found at the same chromosomal
locus or location, are dominant over the other alleles for a given gene
34. A different version of a gene (variant), such a gene that codes for blue eyes versus a gene that
codes for green eyes is known as
A. allele B. loci C. chromosome D. nucleotides
35. Diagram that is used to predict the genotypes of a particular cross or breeding experiment.
A. Punnet square B. Karyotype C. Amniocenteses D. Replication
36. It is the study of genes to determine traits inherited by the offspring from the parents?
A. Botany B. Histology C. Genetics D. Zoology
37. Which genotype of an organism is with the same alleles for a trait?
A. Genes B. Homozygous genotype C. Heterozygous genotype D. Polygenes

38. A monohybrid cross is a cross using _________.

A. two factors or characters C. several factors or characters
B. a single trait or character D. a combination of characters
39. Homozygous dominant allele is represented by the letters ____________.
A. RR B. Rr C. Sr D. rr
40. Which does not describe Gregor Mendel?
A. An Austrian monk C. devised of Punnet Square
B. Father of Genetics D. Proponent of Law of Dominance
For items 41 & 42 refer to the situation. In dogs, stickup ears (E) is dominant over dropped ears
(e). A homozygous stickup-eared dog is mated with a homozygous dropped-eared dog.
41. What is the genotype resulting offspring?
A. Ee B. EE C. ee D. Ea
42. What is the phenotype of resulting offspring?
A. Heterozygous stickup ears C. Homozygous dropped ears
B. Homozygous stickup ears D. Heterozygous dropped ears
For items 43 & 45 refer to the situation below.

Bren met Joy at a dance. They are both heterozygous for Brown (Bb) skin color. Should they get
married, what would be the possible skin color of their children? B – brown skin color
(dominant) b – white skin color (recessive)
43. What is the genotypic ratio of resulting offspring?
A. 1BB:2Bb:1bb B. 2BB:2Bb C. 3Bb:1BB D. 3BB:1bb
44. What is the probability that this couple will have brown skin color?
A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%
45. What is the probability that this couple will have white skin color?
A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%
For items 46 & 48 refer to the situation. In humans, being a tongue roller (R) is dominant over
non-roller (r). A man who is non-roller marries a woman who is heterozygous for tongue rolling.
46. What is the genotypic ratio of resulting offspring?
A. 1RR:2Rr:1rr B. 2Rr:2rr C. 3RR:1rr D. 2RR:2rr
47. What is the probability that this couple having a child is tongue roller?
A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%
48. What is the probability that this couple having a child is non-tongue roller?
A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%
For items 49 & 50 refer to the situation. A hornless (H) in cattle is dominant over horned (h). A
homozygous hornless bull is mated with homozygous horned cow.
49. What is/are the genotype/s of resulting offspring?
A. HH, Hh B. Hh C. hh D. HH, hh, Hh
50. What is the probability of the offspring with horns?
A. 0% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

MARY CHILES COLLEGE OF ARTS AND SCIENCES, INC.

Sandico St., Poblacion, Pulilan Bulacan

SEMI-FINAL EXAM
4th QUARTER
GRADE 10 – SCIENCE
Name: ______________________________________________________ Score: ___________
Teacher: Ma’am Monique Joy G. Reyes Date: ___________
I. I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each item carefully. On the answer sheet blacken the circle
that corresponds to the letter of the correct answer.
1. What part of our cells holds our DNA?
A. nucleus B. cytoplasm C. centrosome D. ribosomes
2. What is the difference between the sugars found in DNA and RNA?
A. DNA contains sucrose while RNA
B. DNA contains deoxyribose while RNA ribose
C. DNA contains ribose while RNA contains sucrose
D. DNA contains glucose while RNA contains sucrose
3. What are the three components of a nucleotide?
A. sugar, hydrogen, nitrogenous base C. sugar, phosphate, nitrogenous
base
B. sugar, oxygen, nitrogenous base D. sugar, phosphate, protein
4. What are the building blocks of proteins?
A. amino acid B. fatty acid C. glucose D. nucleotides
5. Which is the correct complement pairing of bases in DNA?
A. adenine-guanine, cytosine-guanine C. adenine-thymine, cytosine-guanine
B. adenine-cytosine, guanine-thymine D. uracil adenine, cytosine-guanine
6. Which of the following sequences of DNA bases is complementary to the sequence:
ATC-GTG-CCC
A. TAG-CAC-GGG B. TAG-TAT-GGG C. AUG-CAC-GGG D. AUG-TAT-GGG
7. The codes for the production of proteins need to leave the nucleus of the cell. This can be
accomplished by using _______to take messages out of the nucleus.
A. DNA B. amino acids C. RNA D. lipids

8. Which of the following is NOT a stop codon?

A. UAA B. UAG C. UGA D. GGA
9. Which molecule carries a copy of the genetic information out of the nucleus?
A. sRNA B. rRNA C. mRNA D. tRNA
10. What do you call the sequence of three bases in mRNA that corresponds to an amino acid?
A. exon B. intron C. anticodon D. codon
11. What do you call the sequence of three bases in tRNA that corresponds to an amino acids?
 A. exon B. intron C. anticodon D. codon
12. Where does transcription take place?
A. Golgi bodies B. nucleus C. mitochondria D. ribosome
13. Which of the following is directly involved in translation phase of protein synthesis?
A. cytoplasm B. nucleus C. mitochondria D. ribosome
14. During the process of transcription, which of the following is produced?
A. rRNA B. tRNA C. DNA D. mRNA

15. Enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication

A. polymerase III B. topoisomerase C. helicase D. ligase
16. To prevent supercoiling, which enzyme would play it role?
A. Single-strand protein C. Topoisomerase
B. Primase D. polymerase III

17. It prevent the reformation of double helix

A. Single-strand protein C. Topoisomerase
B. Primase D. polymerase III
18. The synthesize of DNA by DNA polymerase occurs in _____.
A. 3' to 5' direction C. 5' to 3' direction
B. 5' to 5' direction D. 3' to 3' direction
19. Which is the strand that replicates just as quickly as the replication fork opens up?
A. Leading strand C. Parent strand
B. Lagging strand D. Okazaki strand
20. Fills in the gaps left from the RNA primer
A. DNA Ligase C. DNA Polymerase
B. DNA Helicase D. RNA Primase
21. Removes the RNA primer
A. Single-Stranded Bind Protein C. RNA Primase
B. Exonuclease D. Topoisomerase
22. Enzyme that replaces the RNA primer with DNA and proofreads the new DNA
A. DNA Ligase C. DNA Polymerase
B. DNA Helicase D. RNA Primase
23. The process of DNA replication is called semi conservative because it results in
A. two exact copies with new strands
B. one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
C. two identical molecules, each with 1 original strand and one new
D. two DNA molecules.  One original molecule and one with two new strands
24. An enzyme that is responsible for copying a DNA sequence into an RNA sequence, during
the process of transcription.
A. RNA polymerase B. RNA primase C. DNA polymerase D. DNA primase
25. a process that removes the intervening, non- coding sequences of genes from pre-mRNA and
joins the protein-coding sequences together in order to enable translation of mRNA into a
protein.
A. RNA merging B. RNA interweaving C. RNA intertwining D. RNA splicing

26. The process by which the genetic code in mRNA is read to make a protein.
A. replication B. translation C. termination D. transcription
27. Each mRNA have a start codon which is
 A. AUU B. AUC C. ACU D. AUG
28. A chemical, form of radiation or physical agent capable of inducing changes in DNA
A. mutant B. mutagens C. mutagenesis D. mutation
29. A genetic alteration in which a single base pair substitution alters the genetic code in a way
that produces an amino acid that is different from the usual amino acid at that position
A. missense mutation C. nonsense mutation
B. frameshift mutation D. silent mutation

30. Occurs in DNA when a sequence change gives rise to a stop codon rather than a codon
specifying an amino acid the presence of the new stop codon results in the production of
a shortened protein that is likely non-functional
A. missense mutation C. nonsense mutation
B. frameshift mutation D. silent mutation
31. A form of mutation that does not cause a major change in the amino acid. As a result, the
protein remains active and functional.
A. missense mutation C. nonsense mutation
B. frameshift mutation D. silent mutation
32. An insertion or deletion involving a number of base pairs that is not a multiple of three,
which consequently disrupts the triplet reading frame of a DNA sequence
A. missense mutation C. nonsense mutation
B. frameshift mutation D. silent mutation
33. A type of mutation that involves the loss of one or more nucleotides from a segment of DNA
A. Deletion B. translocation C. Inversion D. Duplication
34. Type of chromosomal mutation that occurs when a section of a chromosome is repeated
A. Nondisjunction B. translocation C. Inversion D. Duplication
35. Type of chromosomal abnormality in which a chromosome breaks and a portion of it
reattaches to a different chromosome
A. Deletion B. translocation C. Inversion D. Duplication
36. Occurs when a chromosome breaks in two places; the resulting piece of DNA is reversed and
re-inserted into the chromosome
A. Nondisjunction B. translocation C. Inversion D. Duplication
37. The failure of the chromosomes to separate, which produces daughter cells with abnormal
numbers of chromosomes
A. Nondisjunction B. translocation C. Inversion D. Duplication
38. Persons with Down syndrome usually have __ copies of chromosome 21.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
39. Where can most of the fossils be found?
A. sedimentary rock B. igneous rock C. lava flows D. black soil
40. All of these are true about fossils EXCEPT?
A. They indicate that life has a history.
B. They are pieces of evidence of life in the past.
C. The older the fossils, the less they resemble modern-day species.
D. They look precisely like modern-day species, regardless of their age.

41. Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests
that organisms share a common ancestry

A. Analogous B. Vestigial C. Embryology D. Homologous

42. The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age
of these fossils is most likely correct?
A. Fossil A and C are the same age
B. Fossil B is older than fossil C
C. Fossils A is older than fossil B
D. Fossil D is older than fossil C

43. According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to: 
A. Species I C. Species III
B. Species II D. Species IV

44. Whales are aquatic mammals that contain a pelvis bone.  Even though it does not aid in its
movement, the function must have been used by a common ancestor of the whale.  Thus,
the pelvis is referred to as a(n) ___.
A. analogous B. vestigial C. embryology D.
homologous
45. The earliest stages of development in a chicken and fish have gill slits and a tail.
A. fossil evidence C. analogous structures 
B. molecular evidence D. comparing embryo structure
46. Which of the following is not a vestigial structure?
A. human appendix C. wisdom tooth
B. coccyx D. chromosome
47. How would you differentiate divergent and convergent evolution? 
A. Divergent evolution results in the formation of homologous structures
while convergent evolution results in the formation of analogous structures. 
B. Divergent evolution results in the formation of analogous structures while convergent
evolution results in the formation of homologous structures. 
C. In species that are exposed to the same environment, divergent and
convergent evolution occurs. 
D. Occurrence of divergent and convergent evolution will depend mainly on the strength
of the species
48. How do scientists determine the age of fossils through relative dating? 
A. Studying different layers of rock where the oldest fossils are located in the deepest
layers 
B. The study of various rock layers in which the oldest fossils are located in the newest
layers 
C. Study of various rock layers in which the oldest fossils are in the middle layers 
D. The study of various rock layers where the oldest fossils have to be confirmed by
other tests, regardless of the location of the rock layer.
49. Based on their genetic information, which of the following best explains the evolutionary
relationship of humans and chimpanzees? 
A. Humans and chimpanzees have around a 1.2% difference in their genetic makeup.
Hence, they are distantly related. 
B. Humans and chimpanzees have around a 1.2% difference in their genetic makeup.
Hence, they are closely related. 
C. The genetic makeup difference in humans and chimpanzees is 30% 
D. Humans and chimpanzees have a genetic makeup difference of around 1.2%
50. Which of the following describes evolution? 
 A. When there is a change in the characteristics and adaptive traits of the organism from
one generation to another 
B. When there are differences in the characteristics of an organism from other organisms 
C. Natural catastrophe causes the disappearance of an organism 
D. It happens because we were able to inherit the good traits from our ancestors.

MARY CHILES COLLEGE OF ARTS AND SCIENCES, INC.

Sandico St., Poblacion, Pulilan Bulacan

SEMI-FINAL EXAM
4th QUARTER
GRADE 11 & 12 (STEM) – GENERAL BIOLOGY 2
Name: ______________________________________________________ Score: ___________
Teacher: Ma’am Monique Joy G. Reyes Date: ___________
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each item carefully. On the answer sheet blacken the circle that
corresponds to the letter of the correct answer.

1. Where can most of the fossils be found?

A. sedimentary rock B. igneous rock C. lava flows D. black soil
2. All of these are true about fossils EXCEPT?
A. They indicate that life has a history.
B. They are pieces of evidence of life in the past.
C. The older the fossils, the less they resemble modern-day species.
D. They look precisely like modern-day species, regardless of their age.

3. Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests

that organisms share a common ancestry

B. Analogous B. Vestigial C. Embryology D. Homologous

4. The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of
these fossils is most likely correct?
A. Fossil A and C are the same age
B. Fossil B is older than fossil C
C. Fossils A is older than fossil B
D. Fossil D is older than fossil C

5. According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to: 
C. Species I C. Species III
D. Species II D. Species IV

6. Whales are aquatic mammals that contain a pelvis bone.  Even though it does not aid in its
movement, the function must have been used by a common ancestor of the whale.  Thus,
the pelvis is referred to as a(n) ___.
B. analogous B. vestigial C. embryology D.
homologous
7. The earliest stages of development in a chicken and fish have gill slits and a tail.
C. fossil evidence C. analogous structures 
 D. molecular evidence D. comparing embryo structure
8. Which of the following is not a vestigial structure?
A. human appendix C. wisdom tooth
B. coccyx D. chromosome
9. Vertebrate forelimbs are most likely to be studied in _______.
A. Ecology B. Embryology C. Biogeography D. Comparative anatomy
10. An adaptation promotes ________.
A. chance to survive and develop C. chance to survive and reproduce
B. chance to reproduce and replicate D. chance to grow and develop
11. Occurs when a group within a species separates from other members of its species and
develops its own unique characteristics. 
A. Mutation B. genetic drift C. speciation D. natural selection
12. How do scientists determine the age of fossils through relative dating? 
A. Studying different layers of rock where the oldest fossils are located in the deepest
layers 
B. The study of various rock layers in which the oldest fossils are located in the newest
layers 
C. Study of various rock layers in which the oldest fossils are in the middle layers 
D. The study of various rock layers where the oldest fossils have to be confirmed by
other tests, regardless of the location of the rock layer.
13. How would you differentiate divergent and convergent evolution? 
A. Divergent evolution results in the formation of homologous structures
while convergent evolution results in the formation of analogous structures. 
B. Divergent evolution results in the formation of analogous structures while convergent
evolution results in the formation of homologous structures. 
C. In species that are exposed to the same environment, divergent and
convergent evolution occurs. 
D. Occurrence of divergent and convergent evolution will depend mainly on the strength
of the species
14. Based on their genetic information, which of the following best explains the evolutionary
relationship of humans and chimpanzees? 
A. Humans and chimpanzees have around a 1.2% difference in their genetic makeup.
Hence, they are distantly related. 
B. Humans and chimpanzees have around a 1.2% difference in their genetic makeup.
Hence, they are closely related. 
C. The genetic makeup difference in humans and chimpanzees is 30% 
D. Humans and chimpanzees have a genetic makeup difference of around 1.2%
15. Which of the following describes evolution? 
A. When there is a change in the characteristics and adaptive traits of the organism from
one generation to another 
B. When there are differences in the characteristics of an organism from other organisms 
C. Natural catastrophe causes the disappearance of an organism 
D. It happens because we were able to inherit the good traits from our ancestors.

16. There are three species of birds on an island.  Bird A has a heavy bill for eating seeds.  Bird
B has a pointed bill for eating insects.  Bird C has a sharp bill for eating both insects
and seeds.  If all insects on the island suddenly disappeared, which bird or birds would
be the least affected? 
A. Bird A B. Bird B C. Bird C D. Bird A and C

17. Which of the following statements best explains the Theory of Natural Selection?
A. Acquired characteristics of parents can be passed on to offspring.
 B. Organisms develop desirable structures to survive in a given environment.
C. Organs that are not used may disappear, while organs that are constantly used may
develop.
D. In nature, the organism with desirable characteristics may survive, while those with
weaker traits may not.
18. Which of the following statements explains Lamarck’s Theory of Use and Disuse?
A. Body structures develop because of mutation.
B. Body structures develop because of competition.
C. Body structures develop because they are not in use.
D. Body structures develop because they are used extensively.

19. These are characteristics that help living things survive and reproduce in their environment.
A. speciation B. transformation C. adaptation D. evolution
20. A genetic alteration in which a single base pair substitution alters the genetic code in a way
that produces an amino acid that is different from the usual amino acid at that position
A. missense mutation C. nonsense mutation
B. frameshift mutation D. silent mutation
21. Occurs in DNA when a sequence change gives rise to a stop codon rather than a codon
specifying an amino acid the presence of the new stop codon results in the production
of a shortened protein that is likely non-functional
A. missense mutation C. nonsense mutation
B. frameshift mutation D. silent mutation
22. A form of mutation that does not cause a major change in the amino acid. As a result, the
protein remains active and functional.
A. missense mutation C. nonsense mutation
B. frameshift mutation D. silent mutation
23. An insertion or deletion involving a number of base pairs that is not a multiple of three,
which consequently disrupts the triplet reading frame of a DNA sequence
A. missense mutation C. nonsense mutation
B. frameshift mutation D. silent mutation
24. A type of mutation that involves the loss of one or more nucleotides from a segment of DNA
A. Deletion B. translocation C. Inversion D. Duplication
25. Type of chromosomal mutation that occurs when a section of a chromosome is repeated
A. Nondisjunction B. translocation C. Inversion D. Duplication
26. Type of chromosomal abnormality in which a chromosome breaks and a portion of it
reattaches to a different chromosome
A. Deletion B. translocation C. Inversion D. Duplication
27. Occurs when a chromosome breaks in two places; the resulting piece of DNA is reversed and
re-inserted into the chromosome
A. Nondisjunction B. translocation C. Inversion D. Duplication
28. A new river forms and splits two populations, causing ______________ speciation
A. Sympatric B. Allopatric C. Peripatric D. Parapatric
29. Resident and transient orca (killer whales) forms in the northeast Pacific, despite living in the
same habitat, some are avoiding each other and do not interbreed. They have different
diets, vocal behavior, and social structures. What type of speciation is this?
A. Sympatric B. Allopatric C. Peripatric D. Parapatric
30. Explains how two or more organisms could evolve similar traits even though they are not
related to each other
A. Convergent B. Divergent C. Transform D. Derived
31. What type of evolution is the woolly mammoth and Asian elephant?
A. Convergent B. Divergent C. Transform D. Derived
32. All dogs have the common ancestor the wolf. This is an example of ___.
A. Convergent B. Divergent C. Transform D. Derived
33. Birds flying south 800 miles to find food and to escape cold winters is an example of _.
A. Hibernating B. migration C. camouflage D. mimicry

34. What is sympatric speciation?

A. Occurs when species into a new species at random
B. Occurs when species evolve into a new species without a physical barrier
C. Occurs when a physical barrier divides one population into two or more populations
D. Occurs when a reproductive barrier divides one population into two or more
populations
35. What is genetic drift?
A. A small, random change in the DNA
B. The movement of genes in/out of a population
C. Any change in the allelic frequencies in a population that is due to chance
D. The process in which humans select for or against particular features in organisms
36. An example of a structural adaptation is ___.
A. Penguins huddle together to stay warm  C. a rabbit burrowing underground
B. The spikes on a porcupine fish D. a viper biting when threatened
37. Polar bears have thick fur with hollow hair. How does this feature help them survive in the
arctic region?
A. it helps the animal locate prey
B. it helps the animal store body fat
C. it traps air that keeps the animal warm
D. it controls water loss from the animal's skin
38. Young deer have reddish-brown coats with white spots that help them blend in with the trees
where they live. What is an advantage of this adaptation?
A. it helps the young deer stay warm in cold weather
B. it helps the parents find food in the woods quickly
C. it helps the parents locate their young ones quickly
D. it helps the young deer avoid being spotted by predators
39. Humans cross-breed two types of strawberry plants to get strawberries that are dark red and
extra sweet. What is this an example of? 
A. Adaptation D. Metamorphosis
B. Natural selection C. artificial selection
40. Which one of these is a behavioral adaptation?
A. A snake unhinges its jaw to eat a rabbit it just caught.
B. A long beak of hummingbird used to extract nectar from flowers.
C. A hognose snake rolls over, slows its breathing, and hangs its tongue out to pretend to
be dead.
D. A salamander is born with the skin pattern that makes them camouflage in their forest
environment.
41. A human appendix is a ___.
A. vestigial because it is similar to structures in other species
B. homologous structure because humans no longer need or use it
C. homologous structure because it is similar to structures in other species
D. homologous structure because it is a structure that humans no longer need or use
42. In a population of ladybugs, black bugs are more successful in escaping predators. Overtime,
this gene becomes more popular in the population and the ladybug population loses its
red color.  
A. Natural Selection B. Mutation C. Genetic Drift D. Gene Flow
43. What kind of populations does genetic drift affect the most?
A. Large populations C. marine populations
B. Small populations D. terrestrial populations

44. A population of flowers on one side of a river transports pollen to the flowers on the other
side of the river, producing offspring.
A. Natural Selection B. Mutation C. Genetic Drift D. Gene Flow
45. This mechanism of evolution occurs when populations migrate.
A. Natural Selection B. Mutation C. Genetic Drift D. Gene Flow

46. What does the image represent?

A. Natural Selection
B. Mutation
C. Genetic Drift
D. Gene Flow

47. What does the image represent?

A. Natural Selection
B. Mutation
C. Genetic Drift Green Beetles Brown Beetles
D. Gene Flow

48. What does the image represent?

A. Natural Selection
B. Mutation
C. Genetic Drift
D. Gene Flow

49. The model below shows a how populations

of organisms can change.
Which of the following concepts
is best illustrated by this demonstration?
A. Natural Selection
B. Mutation
C. Genetic Drift
D. Gene Flow
50. Ten years ago, in a small population of ducks, two sizes of eyes were observed, large and
small. Three ducks have large eyes and 7 have small.  2 of the large-eyed ducks are
randomly hit by cars and killed. Today, no large-eyed ducks are present in the
population.
A. Natural Selection B. Mutation C. Genetic Drift D. Gene Flow

MARY CHILES COLLEGE OF ARTS AND SCIENCES, INC.

Sandico St., Poblacion, Pulilan Bulacan

SEMI-FINAL EXAM
4th QUARTER
PHYSICAL SCIENCE
GRADE 11 – ABM, GAS & HUMSS STRAND
Name: ______________________________________________________ Score: ___________
Teacher: Ma’am Monique Joy G. Reyes Date: ___________
I. I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each item carefully. On the answer sheet blacken the circle
that corresponds to the letter of the correct answer.

1. Which of the following states that atoms or molecules must collide with enough energy in
order for chemical reaction to occur?
A. Activated Complex C. Collision Theory
B. Activation Energy D. Law of Conservation of Mass
2. The rate of chemical reaction is affected by several factors. Which of the following would not
increase the rate of reaction?
A. adding catalyst C. increasing the volume of the container
B. increasing the concentration of reactants D. raising the temperature
3. The reacting molecules should possess the minimum energy called activation energy. How
does the activation energy work?
A. It breaks the bonds between the reacting molecules.
B. It converts the reactants into the activated complex.
C. It forms the bonds between the product molecules.
D. It makes the reacting particles collide.
4. Which refers to the measure of the number of particles of solute contained in a given volume
of solution?
A. Concentration B. temperature C. Catalyst D. particle size
5. Why does the rate of reaction increase when the temperature is also increased?
A. Activation energy is lowered.
B. Reactant molecules collide less frequently.
C. Reactant molecules collide less frequently and with greater energy per collision.
D. Reactant molecules collide more frequently and with greater energy per collision.
6. Some reactions take place very slowly even with a high concentration of reactants. These
reactions are hastened using a substance. What do you call the substance that increases
the rate of reaction without being used up during the chemical reaction?
A. concentration B. reactant C. Catalyst D. particle size
7. Particle size is one of the factors which affects reaction rates. Which statement(s) is/are true
about particle size?
I. As the temperature rises, the molecules move faster and therefore collide more and
have greater chances to react with each other.
 II. The smaller pieces have a greater surface area, thus, providing much greater contact
among the reactants and affecting more collisions. When solid reactants are present in
small pieces, reaction rates increase.
III. As the temperature rises, the molecules move faster and therefore collide more and
have greater chances to react with each other.

A. I only B. II and III only C. II only D. I, II and III

8. Which of the following statements about rates of reactions is false?

A. Adding a catalyst speeds up chemical reaction.
B. Bigger size particles of the reactants lead to faster reaction rates.
C. Higher temperature reactions result to faster reaction rates.
D. Increasing the concentration of a reactant may increase the rate of reaction.
9. Collisions may occur between any two molecules at any given time. Which of the following is
not a key concept of the collision theory?
A. Particles must collide in order to react.
B. Particles must collide with the proper orientation.
C. Particles must collide with sufficient energy to reach the activated complex in order.
D. Particles must move slowly when they collide, otherwise they simply “bounce off” one
another.

10. What is the catalyst?

A. A substance added to slow down the chemical reaction.
B. A substance added to speed up the chemical reaction.
C. A substance added to form hydrogen bond in a chemical reaction
D. A substance added to disrupt the bonded atoms.
11. Explain why the temperature of reaction increases and the rate of reaction increases as well.
A. The particles are in contact and have less activation energy
B. The reactant molecules collide more frequently and with high energy per collision
C. The activation energy is decreased
D. The reactant molecules collide less frequently and with low high energy per collision
12. The collisions which bring about a chemical reaction are called:
A. Excentric collisions C Ineffective collisions
B. Effective collisions D. Destructive collisions
13. The Law of Conservation of Mass states __.
A. that matter exists in all states and reacts the same
B. that matter exists in the same state throughout any chemical change
C. that matter can only be changed into new substances by introducing a catalyst
D. that matter cannot be created or destroyed and that the mass of the products must
equal the mass of the reactants
14. In a chemical reaction, how quickly or slowly reactants turn into products is called the
A. Catalyst B. Reaction Rate C. concentration D. surface
area
15. Why does a higher concentration increase the rate of reaction?
A. it increases the amount of reactants
B. it lowers the activation energy
C. it increases the energy of particle collisions
D. it increases the frequency of particle collisions
16. Hydrochloric acid can react with sodium thiosulfate solution to form a sulfur precipitate. The
equation is:
 Na2S2O3(aq) + 2HCl(aq) → 2S(s) + SO2(g) + 2NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
Which list below contains only changes that will decrease the rate of this reaction?

A. Decrease the temperature and add a catalyst

B. Decrease in temperature, decrease in concentration of the hydrochloric acid, addition
of water to the sodium thiosulfate
C. Decrease the concentration of the sodium thiosulfate solution and increase the
temperature
D. Increase the temperature, increase the hydrochloric acid concentration and add a
catalyst

17. For the Balanced Reaction: 3 Mg + Fe2O3 → 3 MgO + 2 Fe;

What is the Ratio of moles of MgO to moles Fe?
A. 3mol Mg / 2 mol Fe C. 2 mol Mg/ 3 mol Fe
B. 1 mol Fe/ 2 mol Fe D. 3 mol MgO / 2 mol Fe

18. What is the molar mass of table salt (NaCl)?

A. 116.89 g/mol B. 35.45 g/mol C. 22.99 g/mol D. 58.44
g/mol
19. What is the molar mass of NaOH?
A. 39.99 g/mol B. 23.99 g/mol C. 93.99 g/mol D. 1.99 g/mol
20. In the equation,          2Mg + O2  2MgO, which are the reactants?
A. Mg and O B. MgO C. Mg and MgO D. O and MgO
21. When balancing equations a ____ can be placed to the left of a formula of a substance to
make the equations balanced
A. coefficient B. subscript C. charge D. factor
22. Balance this equation,            Al2O3  Al + O2 
A. 2Al2O3 ---> 2Al + 3O2  C. 3Al2O3 ---> 2Al + O2 
B. 2Al2O3 ---> 4Al + 3O2  D. 2Al2O3 ---> 6Al + 3O2 
23. What coefficient should be used to make the following equation balanced?
N2+O2  _NO 
A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1
24. What is the total number of atoms present in 5Na3PO4?
A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 60

25. Balance this equation,           FeBr3 + H2SO4  Fe2(SO4)3 + HBr

A. 2FeBr3 + 3H2SO4  Fe2(SO4)3 + 6HBr
B. 2FeBr3 + 3H2SO4  2Fe2(SO4)3 + 4HBr
C. 4FeBr3 + 2H2SO4  Fe2(SO4)3 + 6HBr
D. 2FeBr3 + 3H2SO4  2Fe2(SO4)3 + 4HBr
26. How many moles of O2 are produced by the decomposition of 6 moles of potassium chlorate?
2KClO3  2KCl + 3O2
A. 3 mol O2 B. 9 mol O2 C. 6 mol O2 D. 2 mol O2
27. What is the mass of potassium chlorate needed to produce 2.50 moles of oxygen?
A. 200 g KClO3 B. 202g KClO3 C. 204 g KClO3 D. 206 g KClO3
28. Calculate the mass of oxygen gas (in grams) that can be obtained from 46.0 g of KClO3
 A. 18 g O2 B. 16 g O2 C. 14 g O2 D. 12 g O2
29. In the preparation of a mini roast, there are 16 button mushrooms, 12 hotdogs, and 4 skewers
are available. Each skewer should contain 3 mushrooms and 3 hotdogs. How many
mini roasts can be assembled?
A.3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

30. In a balanced equation, the ratio between the coefficients of any two substances is called the
__.
A. mole ratio B. molar mass C. coefficient ration D. reactant ratio

For Items 31-34. Refer to the problem and balanced equation below.
In an experiment, 3.25 g of NH3 are allowed to react with 3.50 g of O2.
4NH3 + 5O2  4NO + 6H2O
31. Which is the limiting reagent?
A. O2 B. NH3 C. NO D.H2O
32. Which reactant is the excess reagent?
A. O2 B. NH3 C. NO D.H2O
33. How many grams of NO are formed?
A. 2.36 g of NO B. 2.62 g of NO C. 2.26g of NO D. 2.63g of NO
34. How much of the excess reactant remains in grams after the reaction
A. 1.49 g B. 1.76 g C. 1.47 g D. 1.48 g

For Items 35-38. Refer to the problem and balanced equation below.
What is the greatest amount of AlCl3 (in grams) that can be made with 114 grams of Al
and 186 grams of Cl2? Which is the limiting reactant? Which reactant is in excess, and how many
grams of it are left over?
2Al + 3Cl2  2AlCl3
35. Which is the limiting reagent?
A. AlCl3 B. Cl3 C. Al D. Cl2
36. Which reactant is the excess reagent?
A. AlCl3 B. Cl3 C. Al D. Cl2
37. How many grams of AlCl3 are formed?
B. 332 g of AlCl3 B. 323 g of AlCl3 C. 232g of AlCl3 D. 233g of AlCl3
38. How much of the excess reactant remains in grams after the reaction
B. 2.48 g B. 66.9 g C. 2.62 D. 69.6 g
39. The study of quantitative relationships between the amounts of reactants used and products
formed by a chemical reaction; is based on the law of conservation of mass
A. Law of Conservation C. Chemical Reaction
B. Stoichiometry D. Rate of Reaction

40. Balance this equation,           N2 + H2  NH3

A. N2 + 3H2  2NH3 C. 2N2 + H2  2NH3
B. 2N2 + 3H2  2NH3 D. 3N2 + H2  2NH3
41. A reactant that is totally consumed during a chemical reaction, limits the extent of the
reaction, and determines the amount of product
 A. Confining reactant C. Preventive reactant
B. Limiting Reactant D. Restraining reactant
42. The coefficients in a chemical equation represent the ____
A. masses, in grams, of all reactants and products
B. number of atoms in each compound in a reaction
C. relative numbers of moles of reactants and products
D. number of valence electrons involved in the reaction
43. A chemical reaction involving substances A and B stops when B is completely used.  B is the
___.
A. Excess reactant C. Preventive reactant
B. Limiting Reactant D. Restraining reactant

44. Stoichiometry is based on _____________.

A. Law of Constant Ratio C. Law of Conservation of Mass
B. Law of Conversion of Mass D. Law of Transformation
For Items 45-48. Refer to the problem and balanced equation below.

2 NaCl + Pb(NO3)2  2 NaNO3 + PbCl2

How many grams of lead II chloride are produced from the reaction of 15.3 g of NaCl and 60.8 g
of Pb(NO3)2? What is the limiting reactant? How much excess is left over?

45. Which is the limiting reagent?

A. NaCl B. Pb(NO3)2 C. NaNO3 D. PbCl2
46. Which reactant is the excess reagent?
A. NaCl B. Pb(NO3)2 C. NaNO3 D. PbCl2
47. How many grams of PbCl2 are formed?
A. 36.4 g B. 33.4 g C. 34.6 g D. 63.4g
48. How much of the excess reactant remains in grams after the reaction
A. 14.7 g B. 17.4 g C. 74.1 g D. 71.4 g

49. What is the molar mass of AuCl3?

A. 303.3 g/mol B. 203.2 g/mol C. 330.3 g/mol D. 233.3 g/mol

50. Fluorine is diatomic. What is the molar mass of fluorine gas?

A. 36. 978 g/mol B. 18.998 g/mol C. 18.098 g/mol D. 37.996 g/mol
 MARY CHILES COLLEGE OF ARTS AND SCIENCES, INC.
Sandico St., Poblacion, Pulilan Bulacan

SEMI-FINAL EXAM
4th QUARTER
GENERAL CHEMISTRY 2
GRADE 12-STEM STRAND
Name: ______________________________________________________ Score: ___________
Teacher: Ma’am Monique Joy G. Reyes Date: ___________
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each item carefully. On the answer sheet blacken the circle that
corresponds to the letter of the correct answer.

1. Adding salt to water will make the freezing point of the resulting solution ______0oC.
A. equal to C. lower than
B. higher than D. greater than or equal to
2. Colligative properties depend on the _____ of solute particles in solution.
A. type B. number C. nature pH
3. The freezing point of a solution is ____ the freezing point of the pure solvent.
A. equal to C. lower than
B. higher than D. greater than or equal to
4. The boiling point of a solution is ______ the boiling point of the pure solvent.
A. equal to C. lower than
B. higher than D. greater than or equal to
5. What is the van't Hoff factor for the compound Na2SO4?
A. 6 B. 5 C. 7 D. 3

6. When KCl (potassium chloride) is dissolved in water, how many particles are in solution for
each unit?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
7. What type of substance dissolves in water but does not form ions or conduct electricity?
A. Electrolyte B. Non-Electrolyte C. Insoluble D. Saturated
8. Adding a nonvolatile solute to a liquid will ___.
A. depress both the freezing point and the boiling point
B. elevate both the freezing point and the boiling point
C. depress the freezing point and elevate the boiling point
 E. elevate the freezing point and depress the boiling point
9. The vapor pressure of a pure solvent is ___________ that of a solution
A. equal to C. lower than
B. higher than D. greater than or equal to
10. While making homemade ice cream, you add rock salt to the ice. Which choice below
provides the best explanation for why this is done?
A. Adding salt to the ice will lower the freezing point by creating a solution that's freezing
point is lower than just the ice.
B. Adding salt to the ice will lower the freezing point by creating a solution that's freezing
point is higher than just the ice.
C. Adding salt to the ice will raise the freezing point by creating a solution that's freezing
point is lower than just the ice.
D. Adding salt to the ice will raise the freezing point by creating a solution that's freezing
point is higher than just the ice.

11. Molality is _____.

A. the moles of solute in 1g of solvent C. the moles of solute in 1kg of solvent
B. the moles of solute in 1g of solution D. the moles of solute in 1kg of solution
12. What is the van't Hoff factor for the compound CH3OH?
A. 1 B. 4 C. 6 D. 5
13. What is the van't Hoff factor for the compound Mn3(PO4)4
A. 7 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
14. Container A is on the left-side and container B is on the right-side. Which of the following
containers most likely contains sugar?
A. Container A because it forms ions.
B. Container B because it forms ions.
C. Container A because it does not form ions.
D. Container B because it does not form ions.

15. Which solute is an electrolyte in solution?

A. CH3CH2OH B. FeCl2 C. SO2 D. N2
16. When solutions of two ionic compounds are combined and a solid forms, the process is
called ___.
A. dissociation B. hydration C. precipitation D.
concentration
17. When aqueous solutions of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and iron (III) nitrate (Fe(NO2)2) are
mixed, what red gelatinous precipitate forms ?
A. iron (III) hydroxide B. sodium nitrate C. sodium oxide D. iron (III) oxide
18. In writing the chemical equation for a precipitation reaction, what abbreviation of the
physical state must appear with one of the products?
A. (Pd) B. (l) C. (s) D. (g)
19. In the reaction
2Ca(s) + O2(g) --> 2CaO(s), calcium is __________
A. Reduced B. oxidized C. synthesized D. condensed

20. If an atom loses electrons during a chemical reaction, the atom was:
A. Reduced B. oxidized C. synthesized D. condensed
21. During an oxidation-reduction reaction, the number of electrons gained is
 A. equal to the number of electrons lost
B. equal to the number of protons gained
C. less than the number of electrons lost
D. less than the number of protons gained
22. Which statement is true: Mg → Mg2+ + 2e–
A. Mg gains 2 electrons C. Mg loses 1 electron
B. Mg2+ loses 2 electrons D. Mg loses 2 electrons
23. A technique which makes use of a solution of known concentration to determine the
concertation of a substance in an unknown solution
A. Acid-Base Titration C. Redox Analysis
B. Gravimetric Analysis D. Precipitation Analysis
24. In chemical analysis the ________ is a solution of known concentration that is added to
another solution to determine the concentration of a second chemical species. 
A. analyte B. triton C. titrant D. analytic
25. An analyte is a substance or chemical constituent that is determined in an analytical
procedure
A. analyte B. triton C. titrant D. analytic

For Items 26-27. Refer to the situation below.

In a titration experiment, a student finds the 23.5 mL of a NAOH solution are needed to
neutralize 0.547 g of KHP (potassium hydrogen phthalate – C8H5KO4).
26. What is the number of moles of KHP consumed in titration?
A. 0.00286 mol B. 0.00628 mol C. 0.00268 mol D. 0.00682 mol
What is the concentration, in molarity, of the NaOH solution?
27. A. 0.141 mol/L B. 0.144 mol/L C. 0.411 mol/L D. 0.114 mol/L
For Items 28-30. Refer to the situation below.
A 0.5662-g sample of an ionic compound containing chloride ions and an unknown metal is
dissolved in water and treated with an excess of AgNO 3. If 1.0882 g of AgCl precipitate forms,
what is the percent by mass of Cl in the original compound?
28. Calculate the % of Cl in AgCl
A. 24.72% B. 22.74% C. 47.72% D. 42.72%
29. Calculate the mass of Cl in the given mass of AgCl precipitate.
A. 0. 2609 g B. 0. 2299 g C. 0.2690 g D. 0.2960 g
30. Calculate the % m of Cl in the original compound.
A. 47.51% B. 45.71% C. 51.47% D. 55.71%
For Items 31-34. Refer to the situation below.
The vapor pressure of pure water at 26° C is 25.21 torr. What is the vapor pressure of a solution
which contains 20.0g of glucose, C6H12O6 (I80.156 g MM) in 70,0 g of water (18.015 g MM)?
31. No. of moles of solute
A. 0.1110 moles B. 0.1010 moles C.0.0110 moles D. 0.1100 moles
32. No. of moles of solvent
A. 3.5578 mole B. 3.8857 moles C. 3.7785 moles D. 3.5778 moles
33. What is the mole fraction of solvent in the solution?
A. 0.972 B. 0.729 C. 0.297 D. 0.927
34. What is the vapor pressure of a solution?
A. 24.5 torr B. 42.5 torr C. 54.2 torr D. 45.2 torr
For Items 35-37. Refer to the situation below.
 What is the boiling point of an aqueous sugar solution containing 100.0 g sucrose
(C12H22O11) in 500.0 g of water? Kb(H2O) = 0.52 °C/m ; 342.299 g MM
35. What is the molality of the solution?
A. 0.854 m B. 0.584 m C. 0.485 m D. 0.548 m
36. What is boiling point elevation?
A. 0.304 °C B. 0.340 °C C. 0.403 °C D. 0.344 °C
37. What is the boiling point of an aqueous sugar solution?
A. 100.40 °C B. 100.30 °C C. 100.20 °C D. 100.60 °C
For Items 38-40. Refer to the situation below.
What will be the freezing point of an aqueous sugar solution containing 100.0 g sucrose
(C12H22O11) in 500.0 g of water? Kf (H20) = 1.86 °C/m ; sucrose 342.299 g MM
38. What is the molality of the solution?
A. 0.854 m B. 0.584 m C. 0.485 m D. 0.548 m
39. What is freezing point depression?
A. 1.086 °C B. 1.068°C C. 1.608°C D. 1.068 °C
40. What is the freezing point of an aqueous sugar?
A. -1.086 °C B. -1.068°C C. -1.608°C D. -1.068 °C
For Items 41-43. Refer to the situation below.
15.0 g of sucrose (C12H22O11, MM=342.299 g) was dissolved in a 125.0mL solution. What is the
osmotic pressure of the solution at 30.0°C? (gas constant 0.0821 L atm/mol K)
41. No. of moles of solute
A. 0.0438 mol B. 0.0348 mol C. 0.0483 mol D. 0.0834 mol

42. What is the molarity?

A. 0.530 mol/L B. 0.350 mol/L D. 0.305 mol/L D. 0.0053 mol/L

43. What is the osmotic pressure of the solution?

A.8.27 atm B. 7.28 atm C. 28.7 atm D. 8.72 atm

For Items 44-45. Refer to the situation below.

A solution that is isotonic with blood cells was prepared by dissolving 0.860 g of NaCl
(MM=58.44 g/mol) in 99.5 mL soultion. Calculate the osmotic pressure of this saline (NaCl)
soultion at 37° (gas constant 0.0821 L atm/mol K)
44. What is the molarity?
A. 0.184 M B. 0.148 M C. 0.418 M D. 0.418 M
45. What is the osmotic pressure of the solution?
A. 7.53 atm B. 7. 35 atm C. 5.73 atm D. 5.37 atm
For Items 46-47 Refer to the situation below.
What is the freezing point of solution when 66.5g of water (K f (H20) = 1.86 °C/m) is mixed
with 14.75 grans of NaNO3 (MM=85.0 g/mol)? The normal freezing point of water is 0°C
46. What is the molality of the solution?
A. 2.26 m B. 62.2 m C. 2.62 m D. 66. 2 m
47. What is the freezing point of solution?
A. -9.75 °C B. -7.95°C C. -9.57 °C D. -7.59 °C
48. The branch of thermodynamics which deals with the interconversion of energy between heat
and work.
A. thermochemistry B. Kinetics C. thermodynamics D. stoichiometry
49. The First Law of Thermodynamics is the Law of __________________
A. Conservation of energy C. Conservation of mass
 B. Conservation of work D. Conservation of heat
50. When gasoline burns in a car engine, the heat released causes the products CO 2 a d H2O to
expand, which pushes the pistons outward. Excess heat is removed by the car’s cooling
system. If the expanding gases do 451 J of work on the pistons and the system loses
325 J to the surroundings as heat, calculate the change in energy (∆E) in J.
A. 776 J B. 767 J C.-776 D. -767 J

MARY CHILES COLLEGE OF ARTS AND SCIENCES, INC.

Sandico St., Poblacion, Pulilan Bulacan

SEMI-FINAL EXAM
4th QUARTER
GRADE 9 – SCIENCE
Name: ______________________________________________________ Score: ___________
Teacher: Ma’am Monique Joy G. Reyes Date: ___________
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each item carefully. On the answer sheet blacken the circle that
corresponds to the letter of the correct answer.

1. Which of the following BEST describes climate? 

A. The condition that occurs in the atmosphere within a day. 
B. The pattern of weather that occurs in a region over a long period. 
C. The pattern of weather that occurs in a region over a short period. 
D. The disturbance in the atmosphere happens for an extended period. 
2. What happens to the temperature of the air when latitude increases? 
A. It remains the same B. Increases C. Decreases D. Varies 
3. Benedict's house is located up on a hill and has a colder climate. It is located near the equator.
What will most likely affect the climate of the place? 
A. Latitude B. Altitude C. Topography D. All of these 
4.  Which side of the mountain often receives the most precipitation? 
A. Leeward side B. Windward side. C. Rain shadow D. Peak 
5. How does the windward side differ from the leeward side of a highland? 
A. The windward receives more precipitation than the leeward. 
B. The leeward side has more vegetation than the windward side. 
C. The windward side receives more heat than the leeward side. 
D. The leeward side receives more precipitation than the windward side. 
6. Why does cloud formation disappear as the air moves slowly towards the leeward side of a
mountain? 
A. The air condenses as it moves to the leeward side. 
 B. The amount of water vapor is not enough. 
C. The temperature becomes lower. 
D. There is too much water vapor. 

7. Why are the coldest places on Earth found at the poles? 

A. A great amount of gaseous particles trap heat from the surface 
B. A great amount of thermal radiation is received by these areas 
C. Less amount of thermal radiation is received by these areas 
D. Less amount of gaseous particles trap heat from the surface
8. Why do mountain climbers bring thick jackets when they go up the mountain? 
A. The temperature increases as the altitude increases 
B. The temperature decreases as the altitude increases 
B. The altitude increases as the temperature increases 
D. The altitude decreases as the temperature increases. 
9. How does latitude affect climate? 
A. Temperature increases as latitude decreases, resulting in a warm climate. 
B. Temperature decreases as latitude increases, resulting in a cold climate. 
C. Temperature increases as latitude increases, resulting in a warm climate. 
D. Both A and B are correct.
10. When there is urbanization, there is an increase in greenhouse gas emissions due to all of the
following, except for ____________.
A. Urban dwellers requiring higher energy consumption for household activities (eg.
heating, lighting, cooling, cooking).
B. Urban dwellers using public transport instead of private transport.
C. More ownership of cars and usage of other motor vehicles in urban areas, which are
powered by burning of fossil fuels. 
D. More industrial activities (eg. manufacturing and construction) in urban areas which
lead to more fossil fuels burnt for energy consumption. 
11. How does an increase in carbon dioxide affect global temperature?
A. Decreases C. increases
B. does not affect temperature D. temperature stays the same
12. Which one is NOT a way of lessening impact of climate change?
A. Recycle your home’s waste.
B. Replace incandescent with fluorescent bulbs.
C. Plant native, drought resistant trees and shrubs around your house
D. Buy food and other products with non-recyclable packaging or container
13. Which of the following is not an impact of climate change?
A. Occurrence of heavy rainfalls
B. Some species of plants bloom earlier than it is expected.
C. Some animals that supposedly still hibernating are already up
D. Melting of glaciers that cover the land causes the decrease in sea level
14. Which human activity contributes the most carbon dioxide to the atmosphere?
A. Farming B. Burning Fossil Fuels C. Fishing D. breathing
15. One of the impacts of climate change is energy use. How will energy use be impacted?
A. More heat waves, there will be problem of irrigation
B. Melting of glaciers that cover the land causes the increase in sea level
C. As there are more forest fires, heat energy can be used to warm people during winter.
D. With less rainfall, dams will dry up causing shortage of hydroelectricity supply and
more heat waves, more electricity used for air conditioning.
16. The average temperature of the surface of Earth has increased approximately 1°C in the past
century. Which reason best explains this increase in temperature?
A. lower levels of ozone in the atmosphere
 B. lower levels of nitrogen in the atmosphere
C. higher levels of oxygen in the atmosphere
D. higher levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
17. How is the rise in global temperature affecting coral reefs?
A. Increase in coral reefs C. Leads to the death of coral reefs
B. Greater variety of coral reefs D. Improvement in breeding grounds for fish
18. Pulilan, Bulacan is planning to launch a program that aims to promote awareness on energy
conservation as a means to mitigate climate change. The program is supported by the
DENR (Department of Environment and Natural Resources) and DOE (Department of
Energy). This will also be funded by a private Japanese company. What eco-friendly
strategies should be included in this program?
I. Giving flyers to all the residents of Pulilan, Bulacan about the launching of the program
II. Giving away 2 free energy-efficient compact fluorescent light (CFL) bulbs for every
incandescent bulb surrendered by the city’s residents or 1 free CFL bulb to a resident
who simply comes to the city hall and registers during the week-long event
III. Conducting free seminars on how to save and earn money from conserving energy
and using energy-efficient technology at home, in school and at work
IV. Announcing the launching of the program through text messaging, television, radio
and the internet
A. I, II and III only C. II, III and IV only
B. II and III only D. I, II, III and IV
19. You observed that your school service, which is a jeepney, has been smoke belching for the
past 2 months. You are aware of the possible effects of this smoke from vehicles to
human health as well as to the environment. What should you do?
A. Ask the driver what is wrong with his jeepney and tell him to fix it.
B. Report the jeepney driver to LTFRB.
C. Speak with the driver about the cause of his jeepney’s smoke belching and tell him its
possible effects if he doesn’t know yet how it contributes to climate change, suggest
ways to help then follow up on the action he has taken to fix the problem.
D. Have a chat with the driver about the cause and effects of smoke belching. Tell him
that you will report him to LTFRB and request the school to ban his jeepney from
entering the campus if he will not fix the problem.
20. What is the measure of distance in degrees north and south from the equator?
A. altitude B. longitude C. elevation D. latitude
21. What causes some areas of Earth to receive less intense solar energy than others?
A. the mass of earth C. the elevation of earth
B. the axial tilt of earth D. the density of earth

22. What is the difference between climate and weather?

A. Climate averages the weather conditions in a specific place over a long period of
time, while weather describes the state of the atmosphere at a specific moment in
time.
B. Weather averages the weather conditions in a specific place over a long period of
time, while Climate describes the state of the atmosphere at a specific moment in
time.
C. Climate describes the weather conditions at night, while weather describes the
conditions during the daytime.
D. There is not a difference between climate and weather
23. If you live near the ocean, in a marine climate, what kind of winters would you expect?
A. Harsh, extreme winters C. No winters at the beach.
B. Mild winters D. Really warm winters
24. What region receives the least amount of solar radiation?
A. Polar Region C. Equatorial Region
 B. Temperate Region D. Tropical Region
25. Large bodies of water affect climate because
A. water heats up and cools more slowly than land
B. water heats up and cools faster than land
C. water and land cool at the same time
D. water and land heat at the same rate
26. Which BEST describes why latitudes closest to the equator have warmer climates?
A. they are at lower elevations
B. they receive high angle sunlight
C. they are nearer to ocean currents
D. they get more winds that carry energy in the form of heat
27. What effect does a large body of water usually have on a nearby landmass?
A. The water causes cooler summers and colder winters. 
B. The water causes cooler summers and warmer winters. 
C. The water causes hotter summers and warmer winters. 
D. The water causes warmer summers and colder winters. 

28. Which of the following is true about latitude?

A. Places located at high latitude receives less sunlight than places at low latitude.
B. Places located at high latitude receives greater sunlight than places at low latitude.
C. Places located at low latitude receives less sunlight than places at high latitude.
D. Places in each latitude receives equal amount of sunlight
29. Why most of mountains in higher altitude have snow on top?
A. Cooler temperatures in higher altitude translates to less evaporation and more moisture
in the air.
B. Warmer temperatures in higher altitude translates to less evaporation and more
moisture in the air.
C. Cooler temperatures in higher altitude translates to more evaporation and more
moisture in the air.
D. Warmer temperatures in higher altitude translates to less evaporation and less moisture
in the air.

30. How do ocean currents affect climate?

A. Ocean currents that bring along cold water inland make the climate cold, while ocean
currents that take along warm water to coastal areas makes the climate warm.
B. Ocean currents that bring along warm water inland make the climate cold, while ocean
currents that take along cold water to coastal areas makes the climate warm.
C. As the temperature of water increases, temperature of air also increases.
D. Ocean currents bring cold and warm water around the world.
31. What does the color of stars reveal? 
A. composition B. mass C. diameter D. surface temperature 

32. Stars appear to move in the sky because 

A. The Earth is rotating on its axis C. The night sky is rotating
B. The universe is expanding D. New galaxies are formed

33. In which direction do stars appear to move in the night sky? 

A. From East to West C. From West to East 
B. From North to South D. From South to North 
34. A group of stars that form a pattern in the sky are called __.
A. zenith B. constellation C. asteroid D. meteoroid
35. Why do other stars appear so much smaller than the sun?
A. they are much smaller C. They are not as bright
 B. they are so far away D. They are dwarf stars
36. Which star is the hottest?
A. red star B. yellow star C. blue star D. white star 
37. Which star is very similar to our sun?
A. red star B. yellow star C. blue star D. white star
38. Which is the coolest star?
A. red star B. yellow star C. blue star D. white star
39. A star’s brightness as it appears from earth is a star’s __.
A. absolute brightness C. apparent brightness
B. parallax angle D. surface temperature
40. Why do stars have colors?
A. It is because of the presence of oxygen
B. It is because of the presence of carbon dioxide
C. It is because of varied temperature
D. It is because of the different locations

41. How many constellations are there?

A. 12 B. 24 C. 88 D. 78

42. How bright a star actually is, is called __.

A. absolute brightness C. apparent brightness
B. parallax angle D. surface temperature
43. The Hertzsprung-Russell diagram shows that main-sequence stars
A. are mostly hot and dim.
B. are mostly cool and bright.
C. increase in brightness as they increase in temperature.
D. decrease in brightness as they increase in temperature.
44. Stars are formed from big clouds of gas and dust is known as:
A. Main Sequence B. Nebula C. Protostar D. Black Dwarf
45. Which of the following gases are major components of star?
A. Hydrogen only C. Hydrogen and Sodium
B. Hydrogen and Lithium D. Hydrogen and Helium
46. Why do massive stars have a shorter lifespan than average stars?
A. They have less fuel to burn C. They are excited to burn all their fuel
B. They burn their fuel faster D. They have less stages in their life cycle
47. Characteristics used to classify stars include
A. distance, size, and color. C. color, brightness, and distance.
B. size, distance, and brightness. D. size, brightness, and temperature.
48. Heavier elements are made by this type of star.
A. Low mass stars C. High mass stars
B. Very low mass stars D. White dwarf stars
49. Stars produce their own light and energy by a process called nuclear fusion
A. nuclear fission C. nuclear parallax
B. nuclear fusion D. nuclear schism
50. A _________ is what happens when a star has reached the end of its life and explodes in a
brilliant burst of light. 
A. super nebulae C. black hole
B. supernova D. black dwarf
 MARY CHILES COLLEGE OF ARTS AND SCIENCES, INC.
Sandico St., Poblacion, Pulilan Bulacan

SEMI-FINAL EXAM
4th QUARTER
GENERAL PHYSICS 2
GRADE 12-STEM STRAND
Name: ______________________________________________________ Score: ___________
Teacher: Ma’am Monique Joy G. Reyes Date: ___________
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each item carefully. On the answer sheet blacken the circle that
corresponds to the letter of the correct answer.