Chapter 24

Multiple-Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is not a condition for a contingent liability to exist?

easy a. There is a potential future payment to an outside party that would result
d from a current condition.
b. There is uncertainty about the amount of the future payment.
c. The outcome of an uncertainty will be resolved by some future event.
d. The amount of the future payment is reasonably estimable.

2. Auditors often integrate procedures for presentation and disclosure

easy objectives with:
d
Tests for planning Tests for balance-related
objectives objectives
a. Yes Yes
b. No No
c. Yes No
d. No Yes

3. If a potential loss on a contingent liability is remote, the liability usually is:

easy a. disclosed in footnotes, but not accrued.
b b. neither accrued nor disclosed in footnotes.
c. accrued and indicated in the body of the financial statements.
d. disclosed in the auditor’s report but not disclosed on the financial
statements.

4. Which of the following is an incorrect combination of the “likelihood of

easy occurrence” and financial statement treatment?
c a. Remote: no disclosure.
b. Probable (amount is estimable): financial statements are adjusted.
c. Reasonably possible (amount is estimable): financial statements are
adjusted.
d. Probable (amount is not estimable): footnote disclosure is required.

5. One of the auditor’s primary concerns relative to presentation and

easy disclosure-related objectives is:
c a. accuracy.
b. existence.
c. completeness.
d. occurrence.

6. At the completion of the audit, management is asked to make a written

easy statement that it is not aware of any undisclosed contingent liabilities. This
d statement would appear in the:
a. management letter.
b. letter of inquiry.
c. letters testamentary.
d. letter of representation.

7. The responsibility for identifying and deciding the appropriate accounting

easy treatment for contingent liabilities rests with a company’s _____.

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c a. auditors.
b. legal counsel.
c. management.
d. management and the auditors.

8. SFAS 5 describes _____ levels of likelihood of occurrence.

easy a. one
c b. two
c. three
d. four

9. The auditor has a responsibility to review transactions and activities

easy occurring after the year-end to determine whether anything occurred that
d might affect the statements being audited. The procedures required to
verify these transactions are commonly referred to as the review for:
a. contingent liabilities.
b. subsequent year’s transactions.
c. late unusual occurrences.
d. subsequent events.

10. Which of the following is not a contingent liability with which an auditor is
easy particularly concerned?
a
Notes receivable Product warranties
discounted
a. Yes Yes
b. No No
c. Yes No
d. No Yes

11. Audit procedures related to contingent liabilities are initially focused on:
easy a. accuracy.
d b. completeness.
c. existence.
d. occurrence.

12. Which type of subsequent event requires consideration by management and

easy evaluation by the auditor?
a Subsequent events that have Subsequent events that have no
a direct effect on the financial direct effect on the financial
statements and require statements but for which
adjustment. disclosure is considered.
a. Yes Yes
b. No No
c. Yes No
d. No Yes

13. Whenever subsequent events are used to evaluate the amounts included in
easy the statements, care must be taken to distinguish between conditions that
b existed at the balance sheet date and those that come into being after the
end of the year. The subsequent information should not be incorporated
directly into the statements if the conditions causing the change in
valuation:
a. took place before year-end.
b. did not take place until after year-end.

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 c. occurred both before and after year-end.
d. are reimbursable through insurance policies.

14. Auditors will generally send a standard inquiry letter to:

easy a. only those attorneys who have devoted substantial time to client
b matters during the year.
b. every attorney that the client has been involved with in the current or
preceding year, plus any attorney the client engages on occasion.
c. those attorneys whom the client relies on for advice related to
substantial legal matters.
d. only the attorney who represent the client in proceeding where the
client is defendant.

15. Who may identify matters to be included in a letter of inquiry sent to a

easy client’s legal counsel?

a Auditors. Company management.

a. Yes Yes
b. No No
c. Yes No
d. No Yes

16. Which of the following is not one of the three main reasons why it is
easy essential that audit files be thoroughly reviewed by another member of the
d audit firm at the completion of the audit?
a. To evaluate the performance of inexperienced personnel.
b. To counteract the bias that frequently enters into the auditor’s
judgment.
c. To make sure that the audit meets the CPA firm’s standard of
performance.
d. To evaluate the accuracy of the auditing firm’s time budget for the
engagement.

17. Which of the following subsequent events is most likely to result in an

easy adjustment to a company’s financial statements?
b a. Merger or acquisition activities.
b. Bankruptcy (due to deteriorating financial condition) of a customer
with an outstanding accounts receivable balance.
c. Issuance of common stock.
d. An uninsured loss of inventories due to a fire.

18. With which of the following client personnel would it generally not be
easy appropriate to inquire about commitments or contingent liabilities?
c a. Controller.
b. President.
c. Accounts receivable clerk.
d. Vice president of sales.

19. At what stages of the audit must analytical procedures be used?

easy a. Planning and testing.
c b. Testing and completion.
c. Planning and completion.
d. Planning, testing, and completion.

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20. Which of the following procedures and methods are important in assessing a
medium company’s ability to continue as a going concern?

c Discussions with management Reviewing quarter on the internal

regarding future plans related to control questionnaire specifically
sales activities, cost controls, asking the client to evaluate the
and marketing efforts. ability to continue.
a. Yes Yes
b. No No
c. Yes No
d. No Yes

21. Inquiries of management regarding the possibility of unrecorded

medium contingencies will be useful in uncovering:

b Management’s intentional When management does not

failure to disclose existing comprehend accounting
contingencies. disclosure requirements.
a. Yes Yes
b. No No
c. Yes No
d. No Yes

22. Which of the following procedures might be useful in discovering a

medium contingent liability for a lawsuit that management is intentionally neglecting
b to disclose?
a. Inquiries (orally and in writing) of management.
b. Analyzing legal expense and review invoices and statements from
outside legal counsel.
c. Reviewing current and previous years’ internal revenue agent reports.
d. Obtaining a letter of representation from management that it is aware
of no undisclosed contingent liabilities.

23. Commitments include all but which of the following?

medium a. Agreements to purchase raw materials.
d b. Pension plans.
c. Agreements to lease facilities at set prices.
d. Each of the above is a commitment.

24. The standard letter of inquiry to the client’s legal counsel should be
medium prepared on:
d a. plain paper (no letterhead) and be unsigned.
b. lawyer’s stationery and signed by the lawyer.
c. auditor’s stationery and signed by an audit partner.
d. client’s stationery and signed by a company official.

25. Which of the following items would ordinarily not be included in the standard
medium letter of inquiry to the client’s attorney?
d a. A list, prepared by management, of pending threatened litigation of
material amounts.
b. A request that the attorney furnish information or comment about the
likelihood of an unfavorable outcome of litigation.
c. A request that the attorney furnish an estimate of the amount or range
of the potential loss.
d. A request that the attorney confirm the amount of outstanding fees

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 which client owes for legal services.

26. The letter of representation obtained from an audit client should be:
medium a. dated as of the end of the period under audit.
b b. dated as of the audit report date.
c. dated as of any date decided upon by the client and auditor.
d. dated as of the issuance of the financial statement.

27. When should auditors generally assess a client’s ability to continue as a

medium going concern?
c a. Upon completion of the audit.
b. During the planning stages of the audit.
c. Throughout the entire audit process.
d. During testing and completion phases of the audit.

28. The audit procedures for the subsequent events review can be divided into
medium two categories: (1) procedures integrated as a part of the verification of
c year-end account balances, and (2) those performed specifically for the
purpose of discovering subsequent events. Which of the following
procedures is in category 1?
a. Inquiries of client regarding contingent liabilities.
b. Obtain a letter of representation written by client.
c. Subsequent period sales and purchases transactions are examined to
determine whether the cutoff is accurate.
d. Review journals and ledgers of year 2 to determine the existence of
any transaction related to year 1.

29. The audit procedures for the subsequent events review can be divided into
medium two categories: (1) procedures normally integrated as a part of the
a verification of year-end account balances, and (2) those performed
specifically for the purpose of discovering subsequent events. Which of the
following procedures is in category 2?
a. Correspond with attorneys.
b. Test the collectability of accounts receivable by reviewing subsequent
period cash receipts.
c. Subsequent period sales and purchases transactions are examined to
determine whether the cutoff is accurate.
d. Compare the subsequent-period purchase price of inventory with the
recorded cost as a test of lower-of-cost-or-market valuation.

30. Which of the following is not a matter that is typically included in the letter
medium of representation obtained from an audit client?
d a. Availability of all financial records and related data.
b. Absence of unrecorded transactions.
c. Compliance with aspects of contractual agreements that may affect
the financial statements.
d. Assessment of management’s efficiency of decision making.

31. SAS No. 59 requires the auditor to evaluate whether there is a substantial
medium doubt about a client’s ability to continue as a going concern for at least:
c a. one quarter beyond the balance sheet date.
b. one quarter beyond the date of the auditor’s report.
c. one year beyond the balance sheet date.
d. one year beyond the date of the auditor’s report.

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32. SAS No. 59 requires auditors to evaluate whether there is a substantial
medium doubt about a client’s ability to continue as a going concern. One of the
a most important types of evidence to assess the going concern question is:
a. analytical procedures.
b. confirmations of creditors.
c. statistical sampling procedures.
d. inquiries of client and its legal counsel.

33. Which of the following statements regarding the letter of representation is

medium not correct?
d a. It is prepared on the client’s letterhead.
b. It is addressed to the CPA firm.
c. It is signed by high-level corporate officials, usually the president and
chief financial officer.
d. It is optional, not required, that the auditor obtain such a letter from
management.

34. If an auditor concludes there are contingent liabilities, then he or she must
medium evaluate the:

a Nature of the disclosure to be

Materiality of the potential included in the financial
liability. statements.
a. Yes Yes
b. No No
c. Yes No
d. No Yes

35. Refusal by a client to prepare and sign the representation letter would
medium require a(n):
a a. qualified opinion or a disclaimer.
b. adverse opinion or a disclaimer.
c. qualified or an adverse opinion.
d. unqualified opinion with an explanatory paragraph.

36. A client representation letter is:

medium a. prepared on the CPA’s letterhead.
c b. addressed to the client.
c. signed by high-level officials (e.g. the president and chief financial
officer).
d. dated as of the client’s year-end.

37. Which of the following is not a purpose of the client letter of representation?
medium a. To impress upon the audit firm its responsibility for the audit.
a b. To impress upon management its responsibility for the financial
statement assertions.
c. To remind management of potential misstatements or omissions in the
financial statements.
d. To document the responses from management to inquiries about
various aspects of the audit.

38. Which of the following is not one of the categories of items included in the
medium client letter of representation?
d a. Subsequent events
b. Completeness of information

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 c. Recognition, measurement, and disclosure
d. Materiality

39. SAS No. 99 and SAS No. 54 require the auditor to communicate all
medium management frauds and illegal acts to the audit committee:
d a. only if the act is immaterial.
b. only if the act is material.
c. only if the act is highly material.
d. regardless of materiality.

40. The auditor is responsible for communicating significant internal control

medium deficiencies to the audit committee, or those charged with governance. This
c communication:
a. may be oral or written.
b. must be oral.
c. must be written.
d. must be oral via direct communication.

41. Which of the following audit procedures would most likely assist an auditor
medium in identifying conditions and events that may indicate there could be
a substantial doubt about an entity’s ability to continue as a going concern?
a. Review compliance with the terms of debt agreements.
b. Confirmation of accounts receivable from principal customers.
c. Reconciliation of interest expense with debt outstanding.
d. Confirmation of bank balances.

42. Which of the following statements is correct?

medium a. A letter of representation is documentation of management’s
c acceptance of responsibility for the financial statements and is deemed
to be reliable evidence.
b. A letter of representation is not deemed to be reliable evidence
because of the potential incompetence of management.
c. A letter of representation is not deemed to be reliable evidence
because of the lack of independence of the preparers.
d. A letter of representation is documentation of the CPA’s acceptance of
responsibility for the audit of the financial statement and is deemed to
be reliable.

43. When a client will not permit inquiry of outside legal counsel, the audit
medium report will ordinarily contain a(n):
a a. disclaimer of opinion.
b. qualified opinion.
c. standard unqualified opinion.
d. unqualified opinion with a separate explanatory paragraph.

44. Which of the following would be a subsequent discovery of facts which

medium would not require a response by the auditor?
d a. Discovery of the inclusion of material nonexistent sales.
b. Discovery of the failure to write off material obsolete inventory.
c. Discovery of the omission of a material footnote.
d. Decrease in the value of investments.

45. Which of the following auditing procedures is ordinarily performed last?

medium a. Reading minutes of the board of directors’ meetings.
c b. Confirming accounts payable.

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 c. Obtaining a client representation letter.
d. Testing the purchasing function.

46. Which of the following is the most efficient audit procedure for the detection
medium of unrecorded liabilities at the balance sheet date?
d a. Obtain an attorney’s letter from the client’s attorney.
b. Confirm large accounts payable balances at the balance sheet date.
c. Examine purchase orders issued for several days prior to the close of
the year.
d. Compare cash disbursements in the subsequent period with the
accounts payable trial balance at year-end.

47. As part of an audit, a CPA often requests a representation letter from the
medium client. Which one of the following is not a valid purpose of such a letter?
c a. To provide audit evidence.
b. To emphasize to the client the client’s responsibility for the correctness
of the financial statements.
c. To satisfy the CPA by means of other auditing procedures when certain
customary auditing procedures are not performed.
d. To provide possible protection to the CPA against a charge of
knowledge in cases where fraud is subsequently discovered to have
existed in the accounts.

48. In connection with the annual audit, which of the following is not a
medium “subsequent events” procedure?
a a. Review available interim financial statements.
b. Read available minutes of meetings of stockholders, directors, and
committees and, for meetings where minutes are not available, inquire
about matters dealt with at such meetings.
c. Make inquiries with respect to the financial statements covered by the
auditor’s previously issued report if new information has become
available during the current examination that might affect that report.
d. Discuss with officers the current status of items in the financial
statements that were accounted for on the basis of tentative,
preliminary, or inconclusive data.

49. An auditor performs interim work at various times throughout the year. The
medium auditor’s subsequent events work should be extended to the date of:
a a. the auditor’s report.
b. a post-dated footnote.
c. the next scheduled interim visit.
d. the final billing for audit services rendered.

50. Which event that occurred after the end of the fiscal year under audit but
medium prior to issuance of the auditor’s report would not require disclosure in the
c financial statements?
a. Sale of a bond or capital stock issue.
b. Loss of plant or inventories as a result of fire or flood.
c. A significant decline in the market price of the corporation’s stock.
d. Settlement of litigation when the event giving rise to the claim took
place after the balance sheet date.

51. Which of the following determines the sufficiency of evidence?

medium a. Generally Accepted Auditing Standards.
c b. Securities and Exchange Commission regulations.

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 c. Auditor judgment.
d. Adherence to the audit program.

52. Which of the following material events occurring subsequent to the balance
medium sheet date would require an adjustment to the financial statements before
c they could be issued?
a. Loss of a plant as a result of a flood.
b. Sale of long-term debt or capital stock.
c. Settlement of litigation in excess of the recorded liability.
d. Major purchase of a business that is expected to double the sales
volume.

53. While there is no professional requirement to do so on audit engagements,

medium CPAs frequently issue a formal “management” letter to clients. The primary
c purpose of this letter is to provide:
a. evidence indicating whether the auditor is reasonably certain that
internal accounting control is operating as prescribed.
b. a permanent record of the internal accounting control work performed
by the auditor during the course of the engagement.
c. a written record of discussions between auditor and client concerning
the auditor’s observations and suggestions for improvements.
d. a summary of the auditor’s observations that resulted from the
auditor’s special study of internal control.

54. If the auditor determines that a subsequent event that affects the current
challenging period financial statements occurred after fieldwork was completed but
before the audit report was issued, what date(s) may the auditor use on the
report?

The date of the The date of The date on which the last day
original last the of fieldwork occurred along
day of subsequent with the date of the
fieldwork only. event only. subsequent event.
a. Yes Yes No
b. Yes No Yes
c. No Yes No
d. No No Yes

55. Why must audit documentation be reviewed?

challenging a. To ensure that the audit meets the CPA firm’s standard of performance.
d b. To evaluate the performance of inexperienced personnel.
c. To counteract bias that often enters into the auditor’s judgment.
d. All of the above are reasons for review of audit documentation.

56. If the auditor concludes that there are contingent liabilities, he or she must
challenging evaluate the significance of the potential liability and the nature of the
d disclosure needed in the financial statements. Which of the following
statements is not true?
a. The potential liability is sufficiently well known in some instances to be
included in the financial statements as an actual liability.
b. Disclosure may be unnecessary if the contingency is highly remote or
immaterial.
c. Frequently, the CPA firm obtains a separate evaluation of the potential
liability from its own legal counsel rather than relying on management
or management’s attorneys.

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 d. Answers b and c are correct, but answer “a” is not.

57. The auditor’s responsibility for “reviewing the subsequent events” of a

challenging public company that is about to issue new securities is normally limited to
d the period of time:
a. beginning with the balance sheet date and ending with the date of the
auditor’s report.
b. beginning with the start of the fiscal year under audit and ending with
the balance sheet date.
c. beginning with the start of the fiscal year under audit and ending with
the date of the auditor’s report
d. beginning with the balance sheet date and ending with the date the
registration statement becomes effective.

58. The process of “final evidence accumulation” is always done late in the
challenging engagement. Which one of the following would be done the earliest in the
b engagement?
a. Final analytical procedures.
b. Search for contingent liabilities.
c. Evaluate the going concern assumption.
d. Acquire the client’s letter of representation.

59. Which of the following is not a reason why the auditor requests that the
challenging client provide a letter of representation?
d a. Professional auditing standards require the auditor to obtain a letter of
representation.
b. It impresses upon management its responsibility for the accuracy of
the information in the financial statements.
c. It provides written documentation of the oral responses already
received to inquiries of management.
d. It provides written documentation, which is a higher quality of
evidence than management’s oral responses to inquiries.

60. Which of the following is not required to be communicated to the audit

challenging committee or similarly designated body under auditing standards?
a a. All material frauds and illegal acts of a material nature.
b. Disagreements with management about the scope of the audit,
applicability of accounting principles, or wording of the audit report.
c. Difficulties encountered in performing the audit, such as lack of
availability of client personnel and failure to provide necessary
information.
d. Auditor’s responsibilities under generally accepted auditing standards,
including responsibility for evaluating internal control and the concept
of reasonable rather than absolute assurance.

61. A CPA has received an attorney’s letter in which no significant

challenging disagreements with the client’s assessments of contingent liabilities were
b noted. The resignation of the client’s lawyer shortly after receipt of the letter
should alert the auditor that:
a. an adverse opinion will be necessary.
b. undisclosed unasserted claims may have arisen.
c. the auditor must begin a completely new examination of contingent
liabilities.
d. the attorney was unable to form a conclusion with respect to the
significance of litigation, claims, and assessments.

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62. Management furnishes the independent auditor with information concerning
challenging litigation, claims, and assessments. Which of the following is the auditor’s
b primary means of initiating action to corroborate such information?
a. Request that client lawyers undertake a reconsideration of matters of
litigation, claims, and assessments with which they were consulted
during the period under examination.
b. Request that client management send a letter of inquiry to those
lawyers with whom management consulted concerning litigation,
claims, and assessments.
c. Request that client lawyers provide a legal opinion concerning the
policies and procedures adopted by management to identify, evaluate,
and account for litigation, claims, and assessments.
d. Request that client management engage outside attorneys to suggest
wording for the text of a footnote explaining the nature and probable
outcome of existing litigation, claims, and assessments.

63. An attorney is responding to an independent auditor as a result of the

challenging client’s letter of inquiry. The attorney may appropriately limit the response
d to:
a. asserted claims and litigation.
b. asserted, overtly threatened, or pending claims and litigation.
c. items which have an extremely high probability of being resolved to
the client’s detriment.
d. matters to which the attorney has given substantive attention in the
form of legal consultation or representation.

64. A company guarantees the debt of an affiliate. Which of the following best
challenging describes the audit procedure that would make the auditor aware of the
a guarantee?
a. Review minutes and resolutions of the board of directors.
b. Review prior year’s audit files with respect to such guarantees.
c. Review the possibility of such guarantees with the chief accountant.
d. Review the legal letter returned by the company’s outside legal counsel.

65. Elise-Greer, LLP is an affiliate of the audit client and is audited by another
challenging firm of auditors. Which of the following is most likely to be used by the
b auditor to obtain assurance that all guarantees of the affiliate’s
indebtedness have been detected?
a. Send the standard bank confirmation request to all of the client’s lender
banks.
b. Review client minutes and obtain a representation letter.
c. Examine supporting documents for all entries in intercompany
accounts.
d. Obtain written confirmation of indebtedness from the auditor of the
affiliate.

66. An auditor must obtain written client representations that might be signed
challenging by all but which of the following?
c a. Treasurer
b. Chief financial officer
c. Vice president of operations
d. Chief executive officer

67. An auditor must obtain written client representations that normally should
challenging be signed by:

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c a. the treasurer and the internal auditor.
b. the president and the chairperson of the board.
c. the chief executive officer and the chief financial officer.
d. the corporate counsel and the audit committee chairperson.

68. Subsequent events affecting the realization of assets ordinarily will require
challenging adjustments of the financial statements under examination because such
b events typically represent the:
a. culmination of conditions that existed at the balance sheet date.
b. discovery of new conditions occurring in the subsequent events period.
c. final estimates of losses relating to casualties occurring in the
subsequent events period.
d. preliminary estimate of losses relating to new events that occurred
subsequent to the balance sheet date.

69. An auditor’s decision concerning whether or not to “dual date” the audit
challenging report is based upon the auditor’s willingness to:
a a. extend auditing procedures and assume responsibility for a greater
period of time.
b. accept responsibility for subsequent events.
c. permit inclusion of a footnote captioned: event (unaudited) subsequent
to the date of the auditor’s report.
d. assume responsibility for events subsequent to the issuance of the
auditor’s report.

70. After an auditor has issued an audit report on a nonpublic entity, there is no
challenging obligation to make any further audit tests or inquiries with respect to the
d audited financial statements covered by that report unless:
a. material adverse events occur after the date of the auditor’s report.
b. final determination or resolution was made of a contingency which had
been disclosed in the financial statements.
c. final determination or resolution was made on matters which had
resulted in a qualification in the auditor’s report.
d. new information comes to the auditor’s attention concerning an event
that occurred prior to the date of the auditor’s report that may have
affected the auditor’s report.

71. A client has a calendar year-end. Listed below are four events that occurred
challenging after December 31. Which one of these subsequent events might result in
c adjustment of the December 31 financial statements?
a. Sale of a major subsidiary.
b. Adoption of accelerated depreciation methods.
c. Write-off of a substantial portion of inventory as obsolete.
d. Collection of 90% of the accounts receivable existing at December 31.

72. The auditor’s responsibility with respect to events occurring between the
challenging balance sheet date and the end of the audit examination is best expressed
b by which of the following statements?
a. The auditor is fully responsible for events occurring in the subsequent
period and should extend all detailed procedures through the last day
of fieldwork.
b. The auditor is responsible for determining that a proper cutoff has been
made and performing a general review of events occurring in the
subsequent period.
c. The auditor’s responsibility is to determine that a proper cutoff has

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 been made and that transactions recorded on or before the balance
sheet date actually occurred.
d. The auditor has no responsibility for events occurring in the
subsequent period unless these events affect transactions recorded on
or before the balance sheet date.

Essay Questions

73. Distinguish between contingent liabilities and commitments.

easy
Answer:
Contingent liabilities are future obligations to an outside party for an
unknown amount resulting from activities that have already taken
place. Commitments are agreements to commit the company to a set
of fixed conditions in the future regardless of what happens to profits
or the economy as a whole.

74. Discuss the purposes of performing analytical procedures during the audit
easy completion phase.

Answer:
Analytical procedures performed during the completion phase are
useful as a final review for material misstatements or financial
problems not noted during other testing, and to help the auditor take a
final objective look at the financial statements.

75. With what types of contingencies might an auditor be concerned?

easy
Answer:
The auditor is generally concerned with contingencies arising from
pending litigation for patent infringement, income tax disputes,
product warranties, notes receivable discounted, guarantees of
obligations of others, and unused balances of outstanding letters of
credit.

76. What are the three required conditions for a contingent liability to exist?
medium
Answer:
1. There is potential for future payment to an outside party or the
impairment of an asset that resulted from an existing condition.
2. There is uncertainty about the amount of the future payment or
impairment.
3. The outcome will be resolved by some future event or events.

77. List four contingent liabilities that auditors are concerned about in most
medium instances.
Answer:
Pending litigation for patent infringement, product liability or other
actions; income tax disputes; product warranties; notes receivable

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 discounted; guarantees of obligation of others; and unused balances of
outstanding letters of credit.

78. Characterize the auditor’s role in preparing the financial statements.

medium
Answer:
The auditor acts in the role of advisor when preparing the financial
statements, but management retains the final and ultimate
responsibility for approving the issuance of the statements.

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79. State the two primary types of subsequent events that require consideration
medium by management and evaluation by the auditor, and give two examples of
each type.

Answer:
 Events that have a direct effect on the financial statements and
required adjustment. Examples include declaration of bankruptcy by
a customer with an outstanding accounts receivable balance due to
deteriorating financial condition; settlement of litigation at an
amount different from the amount recorded on the books.
 Events that have no direct effect on the financial statements but for
which disclosure is advisable. Examples include a decline in the
market value of securities held for temporary investment or resale
during the subsequent period; issuance of bonds or equity securities
during the subsequent period.

80. Discuss three audit procedures commonly used to search for contingent
medium liabilities.

Answer:
 Inquire of management (orally and in writing) about the possibility of
unrecorded contingencies.
 Review current and previous years’ internal revenue agent reports
for income tax settlements.
 Review the minutes of directors’ and stockholders’ meetings for
indications of lawsuits or other contingencies.
 Analyze legal expense for the period under audit, and review
invoices and statements from legal counsel for indications of
contingent liabilities.
 Obtain a letter from each major attorney performing legal services
for the client as to the status of pending litigation or other
contingent liabilities.
 Review audit files for any information that may indicate a potential
contingency.
 Examine letters of credit in force as of the balance sheet date and
obtain a confirmation of the used and unused balance.

81. (SOX) Discuss the three matters which Sarbanes-Oxley requires auditors of public
medium companies to report to the audit committee.

Answer:
The three items that must be reported to the audit committee are:
 All critical accounting policies and practices to be used.
 All alternative treatments of financial information within generally
accepted accounting principles that have been discussed with
management, ramifications of the use of such alternative disclosures
and treatments, and the treatment preferred by the auditor, and
 Other material written communications between the auditor and
management, such as any management letter or schedule of
unadjusted differences.

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82. State the three purposes of the client letter of representation.
medium
Answer:
 To impress upon management its responsibility for the assertions in
the financial statements.
 To remind management of potential misstatements or omissions in
the financial statements.
 To document the responses from management to inquiries about
various aspects of the audit.
83. List four specific matters that should be included in a client representation
medium letter.

Answer:
 Management’s acknowledgment of its responsibility for the fair
presentation in the statements of financial position, results of
operations, and cash flows in conformity with generally accepted
accounting principles or other comprehensive basis of accounting.
 Availability of all financial records and related data.
 Completeness and availability of all minutes of meetings of
stockholders, directors, and committees of directors.
 Information concerning related-party transactions and related
amounts receivable or payable.
 Plans or intentions that may affect the carrying value or
classification of assets or liabilities.
 Disclosure of compensating balances or other arrangements
involving restrictions on cash balances, and disclosure of line-of-
credit or similar arrangements.

84. (Public) Provide several representations that auditors of public companies may seek
medium from management regarding internal control.
Answer:
Possible representations include:
 Management’s acknowledgement of its responsibilities for
establishing and maintaining effective internal control over financial
reporting.
 Management’s conclusion about the effectiveness of internal control
over financial reporting as of the end of the fiscal period.
 Disclosure to the auditor of all deficiencies in the design or operation
of internal control over financial reporting.
 Management’s knowledge of any material fraud or other fraud
involving senior management or other employees who have a
significant role in the company’s internal control over financial
reporting.

85. State three lists or requests that should be included in a standard “inquiry of
challenging attorney” letter.

Answer:
 A list, prepared by management, of (1) pending threatened litigation

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 and (2) asserted or unasserted claims or assessments with which
the attorney has had significant involvement. An alternative is for
the letter to request the attorney to prepare the list.
 A request that the attorney furnish information or comment about
the progress of each item listed, the legal action the client intends
to take, the likelihood of an unfavorable outcome, and an estimate
of the amount or range of the potential loss.
 A request for the identification of any unlisted pending or threatened
legal actions or a statement that the client’s list is complete.
 A statement by the client informing the attorney of his or her
responsibility to inform management whenever in the attorney’s
judgment there is a legal matter requiring disclosure in the financial
statements. The letter of inquiry should also request the attorney to
respond directly to the auditor that he or she understands this
responsibility.
 A request that the attorney identifies and describes the nature of
any reasons for any limitations in the response.

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86. Besides the search for contingent liabilities and the review for subsequent
challenging events, the auditor has four important final evidence accumulation
responsibilities, all of which are required by current professional auditing
standards. Discuss each of these four responsibilities.

Answer:
 Final analytical procedures performed as a final review for material
misstatements or financial problems and to help the auditor take a
final objective look at the financial statements.
 Evaluate the going concern assumption.
 Obtain a client representation letter documenting management’s
most important oral representations during the audit.
 Read information included in published annual reports pertaining
directly to the financial statements.

Other Objective Answer Format Questions

87. The fieldwork for the December 31, 2007 audit of Schmidt Corporation
medium ended on March 17, 2008. The financial statements and auditor’s report
were issued and mailed to stockholders on March 29, 2008. In each of the
material situations (1 through 5) below, indicate the appropriate action (a, b,
c, d, or e). The possible actions are as follows:

a. Adjust the December 31, 2007 financial statements.

b. Disclose the information in a footnote in the December 31, 2007
financial statements.
c. Request the client revise and reissue the December 31, 2007 financial
statements. The revision should involve an adjustment to the December
31, 2007 financial statements.
d. Request the client revise and reissue the December 31, 2007 financial
statements. The revision should involve the addition of a footnote, but
no adjustment, to the December 31, 2007 financial statements.
e. No action is required.

The situations are as follows:

d 1. On April 5, 2008, you discovered that, on February 16, 2008, a

flood destroyed the entire uninsured inventory in one of
Schmidt’s warehouses.

b 2. On February 17, 2008, you discovered that, on February 16,

2008, a flood destroyed the entire uninsured inventory in one of
Schmidt’s warehouses.

a 3. On February 17, 2008, you discovered that, on November 30,

2007, a flood destroyed the entire uninsured inventory in one of
Schmidt’s warehouses.

e 4. On April 5, 2008, you discovered that, on March 30, 2008, a fire

destroyed one of Schmidt’s 13 plants.

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c 5. On April 7, 2008, you discovered that a debtor of Schmidt went
bankrupt on January 6, 2008, due to gradual declining financial
health.

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88. The fieldwork for the December 31, 2007 audit of Tribble Corporation ended
challenging on March 17, 2008. The financial statements and auditor’s report were
issued and mailed to stockholders on March 29, 2008. In each of the
material situations (1 through 5) below, indicate the appropriate action (a, b,
c, d, or e). The possible actions are as follows:

a. Adjust the December 31, 2007 financial statements.

b. Disclose the information in a footnote in the December 31, 2007
financial statements.
c. Request the client revise and reissue the December 31, 2007 financial
statements. The revision should involve an adjustment to the December
31, 2007 financial statements.
d. Request the client revise and reissue the December 31, 2007 financial
statements. The revision should involve the addition of a footnote, but
no adjustment, to the December 31, 2007 financial statements.
e. No action is required.

The situations are as follows:

b 1. On January 16, 2008, a lawsuit was filed against Tribble for a

patent infringement action that allegedly took place in early
2005. In the opinion of Tribble’s attorneys, there is a reasonable
(but not probable) danger of a significant loss to Tribble.

a 2. On February 19, 2008, Tribble settled a lawsuit out of court that

had originated in 2002 and is currently listed as a contingent
liability.

e 3. On March 30, 2008, Tribble settled a lawsuit out of court that had
originated in 2004 and is currently listed as a contingent liability.

b 4. On February 2, 2008, you discovered an uninsured lawsuit

against Tribble that had originated on August 30, 2007.

d 5. On April 7, 2008, you discovered that a debtor of Tribble went

bankrupt on January 22, 2008, due to a major uninsured fire that
occurred on January 2, 2008.

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89. Match seven of the terms (a-p) with the description/definitions provided
medium below (1-7):
a. Commitments
b. Completing the engagement checklist
c. Contingent liability
d. Dual-dated audit report
e. Financial statement disclosure checklist
f. Independent review
g. Inquiry of client’s attorneys
h. Letter of representation
i. Other information in annual reports
j. Review for subsequent events
k. Subsequent events
l. Unadjusted misstatement worksheet
m. Management letter
n. Pending claim
o. Unasserted claim
p. Audit documentation review

f 1. A review of the financial statements and the entire set of audit

files by an independent reviewer to whom the audit team must
justify the evidence accumulated and the conclusions reached.

c 2. A potential future obligation to an outside party for an unknown

amount resulting from activities that have already taken place.

h 3. A written communication from the client to the auditor

formalizing statements that the client has made about matters
pertinent to the audit.

o 4. A potential legal claim against a client where the condition for a

claim exists but no claim has been filed.

k 5. Transactions that occurred after the balance sheet date, which

affect the fair presentation or disclosure of the statements
being audited.

a 6. Agreements that the entity will hold to a fixed set of conditions,

such as the purchase or sale of merchandise at a stated price.

d 7. The use of one audit report date for normal subsequent events
and a later date for one or more subsequent events.

90. An independent review must be performed of all audits.

easy a. True
b b. False

91. A lawsuit has been filed against your client. If, in the opinion of legal
easy counsel, the likelihood your client will lose the lawsuit is remote, no financial
a statement accrual or disclosure of the potential loss is required.
a. True
b. False

92. Current professional auditing standards require the performance of

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easy analytical procedures during the planning and completion phases of the
a audit.
a. True
b. False

93. Current professional auditing standards require the performance of

easy analytical procedures during the testing phase of the audit.
b a. True
b. False

94. If an auditor discovers that previously issued financial statements are

easy misleading, the most desirable approach to follow is to request that the
a client issue an immediate revision of the financial statements containing an
explanation of the reasons for the revision.
a. True
b. False

95. The issuance of bonds by the client subsequent to year-end would require a
easy footnote disclosure in, but no adjustment to, the financial statements under
a audit.
a. True
b. False

96. SAS 59 directs the auditor’s assessment of going-concern issues.

medium a. True
a b. False

97. Auditors are not required to evaluate the going concern assumption as part
medium of each audit.
b a. True
b. False

98. Although the letter of representation is typed on the client’s letterhead and
medium signed by the client, it is common for the auditor to prepare the letter.
a a. True
b. False

99. (Public) Auditors of public companies must obtain certain representations from
medium management regarding internal control over financial reporting.
a a. True
b. False

100. Current professional auditing standards make it clear that management, not
medium the auditor, is responsible for identifying and deciding the appropriate
a accounting treatment for contingent liabilities.
a. True
b. False

101. At the completion of the audit, management is typically asked to make a

medium written statement as a part of the engagement letter that it is aware of no
b undisclosed contingent liabilities.
a. True

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 b. False

102. When preparing a standard inquiry of client’s attorney letter, the client’s
medium letterhead should be used, and the letter should be signed by the client
a company’s officials.
a. True
b. False

103. In a standard inquiry of client’s attorney letter, the attorney is requested to

medium communicate about contingencies up to the balance sheet date.
b a. True
b. False

104. If an attorney refuses to provide the auditor with information about material
medium existing lawsuits or unasserted claims, current professional standards
b require that the auditor issue an adverse opinion to reflect the lack of
available evidence.
a. True
b. False

105. Auditors are required to communicate orally with the audit committee about
medium internal control weaknesses.
b a. True
b. False

106. Auditors must communicate in writing about internal control weaknesses to

medium the audit committee or those charged with governance.
a a. True
b. False

107. Auditors are required to obtain a letter of representation that describes

medium management’s planned solutions to all internal control weaknesses
b identified during an audit.
a. True
b. False

108. The letter of representation is prepared on the CPA firm’s letterhead,

medium addressed to the client’s chief executive officer, and signed by the audit
b engagement partner.
a. True
b. False

109. If the client refuses to prepare and sign a letter of representation, the
medium auditor would be required to issue either a qualified opinion or a disclaimer
a of opinion.
a. True
b. False

110. Because a client representation letter is a written statement from a non-

medium independent source, it cannot be regarded as reliable evidence.
a a. True
b. False

111. If, during the completion phase of the audit, the auditor determines that he

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medium or she has not obtained sufficient evidence to draw a conclusion about the
b fairness of the client’s financial statements, there are two choices:
additional evidence must be obtained, or either a qualified or an adverse
opinion must be issued.
a. True
b. False

112. Client representation letters are required by professional auditing standards,

medium whereas management letters are optional.
a a. True
b. False

113. Subsequent events which require adjustment to the financial statements

medium provide additional information about significant conditions/events which did
b not exist at the balance sheet date.
a. True
b. False

114. Subsequent events for which disclosure, but no adjustment, is required

medium provide information about significant events/conditions which existed at the
b balance sheet date.
a. True
b. False

115. When testing for contingent liabilities, the primary objective at the initial
challenging stage of the tests is to determine the existence of contingencies.
a a. True
b. False

116. Subsequent discoveries of facts requiring the reissuance of financial

challenging statements arise from events occurring after the date of the auditor’s
b report.
a. True
b. False

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