FORM CODES 4E and 4V SECTION 1 l

Time— 30 minutes
45 QUESTIONS
For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence as a whole.
consider all the choices before deciding which is best. Example:
Example : ^ Although its publicity has been — , the film itself
GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
(D) hot (E) ugly (C)© red CD CD CD and altogether — .
(A) tasteless, .respectable (B) extensive, .moderate
1. HEFTY: (A) arid (B) smooth (C) shapely (E) sophisticated,
(C) perfect, .spectacular
.amateur (D) *risque",
® CD .crude
CD CD
(D) horizontal (E) lightweight
2. CRUCIAL: (A) inaccurate (B) unessential 16. Although it seems to have been a fixture of the
(C) uninspiring (D) preferential (E) reputable square since the city's origin, the produce market
actually opened only — .
3. RUFFLE: (A) enlarge (B) censor
(C) avoid (D) calm (E) eject (A) enthusiastically (B) recently
(C) frequently (D) illegally (E) graciously
4. CONGLOMERATE: (A) retract (B) darken 17. The grave problems that afflicted him were the
(C) separate (D) reveal (E) stir
purely — ones of hunger, pain, and fatigue.
5. MONUMENTAL: (A) biased (B) vacant (A) physical (B) imaginary (C) irrelevant
(C) trivial (D) ambiguous (E) ingenious (D) hereditary (E) coincidental
6. BRAWN: (A) frailness (B) silence 18. Her ability to analyze issues fairly and competently
(C) innocence (D) foolishness has earned her the — of even her most — peers.
(E) sluggishness (A) solicitation, .unbiased
7. DISLODGE: (A) amass (B) befriend (B) attention, .sympathetic
(C) validate (D) solicit (E) entrench (C) suspicion, .discerning
(D) reputation, .knowledgeable
8. ADVOCACY: (A) disrepute (E) respect, .exacting
19.
(B) opposition (C) ascendancy
Until the mid-1800's, the occasional reports by
(D) justice (E) unconsciousness European explorers of the existence of gorillas were
9. COGNATE: (A) impartial (B) unrelated generally disbelieved and swiftly — - the realm of
tall tales.
(C) unlikely (D) inconvenient (E) expendable
10. QUIXOTIC: (A) fortunate (B) practical (A) extracted from (B) confused with
(C) devoted (D) proud (E) kindly (C) relegated to (D) compared to
(E) exalted to
11. WORKADAY: (A) superficial
20. The historian's assertion that there is a — of
(B) competitive (C) extraordinary verifiable information about nineteenth-century
(D) confidential (E) deceptive Native Americans is — , for there exist many
12. DISTENSION: (A) proximity (B) regularity transcripts of authentic oral accounts of their
activities.
(C) pleasure (D) contraction (E) repulsion
(A) wealth, .fallacious
13. BEMUSE: (A) enlighten (B) pervade (B) shortage, .legitimate
(C) savor (D) return promptly (C) depletion, .irrefutable
(E) make responsible
(D) paucity, .erroneous
14. PROCLIVITY: (A) emptiness (E) surfeit, .implausible
(B) recklessness (C) inactivity
(D) negligence (E) disinclination GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
15. IMPECUNIOUS: (A) rich (B) strong >
(C) guilty (D) rude (E) hazardous 257

Copyright © 1984 by Educational Testing Service.

All rights reserved. Princeton, NJ 08541
1
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of
what is stated or implied in that passage.

Public officials are now considering both the separate 21. The passage is chiefly concerned with
and additive effects on humans of lead, mercury, and (A) comparing the effect of lead with that of other
cadmium, along with a variety of other chemicals in our atmospheric pollutants
atmosphere. Each of these materials, regarded separately (B) discussing the harm that can result from the
or together, is known to interfere with several systems of absorption of lead
the human body. The first of these, lead, poses a partic- (C) suggesting how society can protect itself from
ular threat to large numbers of people. The quantity of chemical poisoning
lead that the average American absorbs suggests the prob- (D) presenting a new theory to explain the fall of
able emergence of as yet undiscovered disorders. the Roman Empire
Even before 650 B.C., lead ore was mined on a small (E) showing the additive toxicity of lead with other
scale in order to extract the silver from it. With the inven- environmental poisons
tion of coinage, the demand for silver led to an enormous
increase in the amount of available lead ore. At the time 22.
The passage suggests that by Roman times lead con-
of the Roman Empire, the wealthy used elegant metal tainers were widely used for which of the following
containers for food and drink. Since acidic wine leached reasons?
copper from bronze or copper vessels, producing obvious I. Lead was in abundant supply.
toxic effects, containers came to be lined with lead, which II. Lead imparted a pleasant taste to food and
did not cause vomiting and actually tasted good. In fact, drink.
however, lead is more toxic than copper, and yet the III.I onlyLead was considered an antidote to copper
members of the Roman aristocracy added lead to their
diets in more than a dozen ways. poisoning.
II only
During the second century A. D., the Roman aristoc- (A)
racy began to show signs of an inability to reproduce; it (C)
(B) I and II only
was gradually replaced by a new leadership, which adopted
a similar way of life. This new aristocracy also failed to (D) II and III only
reproduce, and today we surmise that lead may have con- (E) I, II, and III
tributed to this failure. We know that lead causes miscar- 23.
riages and sterility, and that human bones store ninety The author's primary point in discussing the Roman
aristocracy is best summarized by which of the
percent of the body's total burden of lead. The fact that following axioms?
poisonous levels of lead have been measured in the ex-
humed bones of Roman aristocrats should give us pause, (A) When in Rome, do as the Romans do.
for per capita use of lead by the Romans apparently (B) Power corrupts; absolute power corrupts
absolutely.
reached only fifty percent of what it is in the United
States today. (C) Every cloud has a silver lining.
Our bodies absorb up to ten percent of the lead we eat, (D) The past is prologue.
but up to fifty percent of the lead we breathe. In contrast (E) No news is good news.
to the atmosphere surrounding those Roman aristocrats, 24. On the basis of the information in the passage,
the atmosphere of our metropolitan areas is filled with which of the following would do most to reduce
lead, mostly from the exhaust of automobiles. This cloud the hazards currently associated with exposure to
of pollution seems to be increasing in area rather than lead?
density.
Much of the lead we take in is usually excreted in the (A) Banning the use of metal containers for food
and beverages
urine, but a portion accumulates in the bones, replacing
some of the calcium there. Under certain conditions, that (B) Increasing the amount of calcium in daily
lead may be released into the blood at toxic levels. Lead diets
(C) Drinking large amounts of water
poisoning symptoms can appear in different parts of the (D)
body: the gastrointestinal tract, the central nervous sys- Reducing the number of lead smelting plants
tem, the heart, the kidneys, and the liver. Apparently any (E) Reducing the amount of lead in gasoline
amount of lead in the human body does some damage, but 25. The tone of the passage is best described as
the effects of subclinical toxicity are difficult to identify.
Uncertainty about the nature of low-level lead poisoning (A) cautionary
makes action to combat the problem frustratingly difficult
to generate. (B) defensive
(C) cynical
(D) conspiratorial
The reading passages in this test are brief excerpts or adaptations of ex- (E) inspirational
cerpts from published material. The ideas contained in them do not neces-
sarily represent the opinions of the College Board or Educational Testing
Service. To make the text suitable for testing purposes, we may in some
cases have altered the style, contents, or point of view of the original. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
258 >
 The decision to use the Black man as a soldier 26.
1
According to the passage, Halleck's order to Grant
against the Confederacy did not really grow out of was motivated by considerations best described as
any broad humanitarian resolve. General Halleck (A) capricious (B) ideological
Line put the thing quite bluntly in a message to General (C) compassionate (D) vengeful
(5) Grant in March 1863. It was good policy, he said,
to withdraw as many slaves from the South as possi- (E) pragmatic
ble; and an equally good policy, having withdrawn 27. According to the passage, in his message to Grant,
them, to use them to help win the war. If Grant Halleck anticipated which of the following diffi-
found— as he undoubtedly would— that many of the culties?
(10) people in his army objected, he must ride down (A) Reluctance of Black men to enlist
their objections and see that this new policy was
carried out. (B) Grant's objections to the proposal
(C) Strong disapproval from White soldiers
This new policy was a good deal more far-reach- (D) Inadequate time to ready the new recruits
ing than Halleck dreamed. To accept the Black man for battle
(15) as a soldier in the Union army was to state, in a
(E) The public outcry against the policy
backhanded but decisive way, that the base of
membership in the American community had been 28. The author probably considers Lorenzo Thomas
immeasurably widened. Once widened, it could not
"a rather unlikely hero" (line 32) because Thomas
again be narrowed. The war henceforth would be
(20) fought for this expanded base, even though some of (A) was known to lack courage
the men who were most effectively fighting it had (B) seemed a dull bureaucrat
no idea that the base needed to be expanded. (C) wielded no political clout
Grant dutifully went to work, ordering his staff (D) was opposed to Halleck and Grant
(E) had little regard for army procedure
not only to organize Black regiments and render
(25) them effective, but also to remove prejudice against 29. All of the following can be inferred from the passage
them. Removing that prejudice would not be easy, to be measures taken by the Union army to accom-
for some officers and enlisted men had vowed that modate Black soldiers EXCEPT
they would throw down their arms and go home if
(A) providing the necessities of life
Black men became soldiers. This anarcfuc opposi- (B) training them for combat missions
(30)
tion was quickly put down, partly because of Grant's (C) supplying them with needed weaponry
orders and partly because of the unexpected inter- (D) granting them a voice in setting strategy
vention ofa rather unlikely hero— lanky, dry-as-dust (E) punishing those who mistreated them
Lorenzo Thomas, adjutant general of the army, the
paper shuffler from Washington. Part of Thomas' 30. The author attributes such success as Halleck's
(35) job was to speed the raising of Black regiments, and policy had to
he took to this with crusty enthusiasm. He called (A) military ingenuity
troops together and warned them that Blacks fleeing
(B) urgency of need
from slavery were to be made welcome: "They are (C) strong high-level support
to be received with open arms; they are to be fed
(40) (D) good fortune
and clothed; they are to be armed." He was empow-
ered, he added, to dismiss from the army "any man, (E) general good will
be his rank what it may, whom I find maltreating the
freedmen. This part of my duty I will most assuredly
perform if any case comes before me."
(45) One discontented army division was specially
addressed by Thomas. Men who left the army | GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE >
because of the recruiting of Blacks, he warned, would
be considered guilty of treason and would be shot,
and there would be courts-martial for all who inter-
(50) fered with the program. The men talked it over
around campfires afterward and decided to co-
operate.

259
1
Select the word or set of words that best completes each Each question below consists of a related pair of words
of the following sentences. or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a
31. This book has neither merit nor distinction, and relationship
Example: similar to that expressed in the original pair.
it all but — whatever prestige the author may once
have had.
YAWN : BOREDOM : : (A) dream: sleep
(A) challenges (B) maximizes (C) epitomizes (B) anger: madness (C) smile : amusement
(D) nullifies (E) encompasses (D) face : expression (E) impatience
CD CD: rebellion
• CD CD
32. Far from exercising a counterinfluence to intellec-
tual orthodoxy, the movement itself has become a
center of — . 36. GRAPE: VINE:: (A) wire: pole (B) snail: shell
(C) cherry: pie (D) pumpkin: seed
(A) conformity (B) notoriety (C) enmity
(D) theology (E) idealism (E) apple: tree
37. SUIT: OVERCOAT:: (A) wig: hairdo
33. People, being prisoners of — , have made falling a (B) finger: glove (C) parasol: sun
basic metaphor for failure, from the fall of the stock (D) shoes : galoshes (E) uniform : costume
market to the fall of a government.
38. BAT: MAMMAL:: (A) pine: tree
(A) politics (B) gravity (C) greed
(B) pup: seal (C) butterfly: insect
(D) turbulence (E) emotion (D) starfish : clam (E) ram: sheep
34. The movie avoids many of the — - of the novel, 39. PLAGIARIZE: WORDS:: (A) embezzle : funds
bringing into sharper focus characters who (B) imagine: visions (C) renovate : repairs
originally were amiable or disagreeable (D) paint: colors (E) edit publications
(A) subtleties, .monsters 40. ENDURE: SURVIVOR:: (A) condemn : culprit
(B) excellences, .stereotypes
(C) allusions, .individuals (B) applaud: performer (C) evade : guardian
(D) excel: imitator (E) compete : rival
(D) particulars, .nonentities
(E) shortcomings, .blurs 41. PROGRAM: DRAMA:: (A) scale: map
35. Even the most insulated and — - government has (B) agenda : meeting (C) footnote: article
to be concerned today about the popular mind; (D) amendment: bill (E) ticket : performance
some systems may be less — - than others, but at 42. VENDETTA : REVENGE ::
some point all must pay attention. (A) exploration : discovery
(A) parochial, .vociferous (B) excitement : frenzy
(B) corrupt, .theoretical (C) investment: deficit
(C) arbitrary, .sensitive (D) mistake : correction
(D) obscure, .refined (E) insomnia : nightmare
(E) vibrant, .responsive 43. PREMISE: ARGUMENT::
(A) location : filming
(B) profit : contract
(C) foundation : edifice
(D) presentation : package
(E) referee: dispute
44. SUBJUGATE : OBEDIENCE : :
(A) think : intelligence (B) arrest : illegality
(C) frighten : apprehension (D) annoy : mistake
(E) describe : event
45. TEMPER: ACTION:: (A) breathe: air
(B) soothe : pleasure (C) soften : blow
(D) operate : machine (E) shock : audience

STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
260 DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
 2
SECTION 2
Time — 30 minutes
25 QUESTIONS
In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide which is the best
of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = irr2; Circumference = lirr Triangle: The sum of the measures in
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360 degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: If LCDA is a right angle, then
= is equal to ^ is less than or equal to AB X CD
=£ is unequal to ^ is greater than or equal to (1) area of A ABC =
< is less than || is parallel to
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to (2) AC2 = AD2 + DC2
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

1. If (2 +3)0 +5) =30, then n =

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 5 (E) 6

Arthur Bob
15 47
Round 1
15
Round 2 11
47 49
Round 3
Round 4 60 3
Round 5 17 34
Total 150 148
In the grid of squares above, each small square has
2. Arthur and Bob played five rounds of a card game. side of length 1 . What is the sum of the areas of
The table above shows their scores in the individual the shaded regions?
rounds. By how many points was Bob leading
Arthur at the end of the first three rounds? (A) 48 (B) 40 (C) 32 (D) 24 (E) 16

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 32 (D) 38 (E) 48

5. If the first and last digits are interchanged in each
of the following numbers, which will yield the
number with the least value?
3. If 32 +32 +32 _ 3^ tjien x
(A) 4,321 (B) 3,241 (C) 2,431
(A) (D) 4,231 (E) 3,421
(B)
(C)
(D) 27
(E) 81
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
>

261
2 2x
:2-7jc+6

x- 1 rounded to
10. If x =9.000001, then
6. If =j = 8, then 4x =
the nearest whole number is
(A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 24 (D) 32 (E) 48

Entry (A) 3
(B) 6
Card (C) 8
(D) 15
A n
B NX 2 (E) 24
C
D (NX 2) + 3
E [(7VX 2)^-3] +15
[(7VX 2) + 3] +15-1
According to the table above, which card has the
entry with the greatest value when N = 1 5 ?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E

8. If x and y are positive numbers, xy = 24, and

x 3
— = — , what is the value of x ? 11. In the figure above, C is perpendicular to m and
y V
p is parallel to q. What is the value of x +y +z ?
(A) 3 (A) 180 (B) 220 (C) 230
(B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 270 (E) 310
(D) 8
(E) 12
12. Jean worked x hours and earned $20. Pam worked
9. If the lengths of two sides of an isosceles triangle y hours and earned $40. If they both earn the
are 5 and 9, what is the length of the third side? same hourly wage and x +y = 15, how many
hours did Jean work?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9
(E) It cannot be determined from the information
given. (A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 8
(E) 10

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

>

262
13.
0
2
The average (arithmetic mean) of Pat's scores for
3 rounds of golf was 75. If the average of her scores /
of the first 2 rounds was also 75, what was her score 5
/
for the third round? //
3
5
(A) 70
(B) 75 3
(C) 80 1 /
(D) 85
(E) It cannot be determined from the information
given. The figure above is formed by connecting perpen-
14. If 5m +4n = 14 and 4m+3w = ll, then dicular line segments that have lengths as shown.
What is the length of the dashed line segment?
7(m+n) =
(A) 5 (B) 2V7 (C) 4^2
(A) 7
(B) 14 (D) V34 (E) \/4T
(C) 21
(D) 28
(E) 35 19. The operation © is defined for all numbers s
15. If 5 people share a cash prize equally, what percent and t by the equation s0f = s/ + l. For
of the prize do 2 of them together receive?
example, 405=4-5 + 1=21. If s=£0
(A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 20% and r is a number such that j0r = l, then r
(D) 25% (E) 40%
16. Two circles with radii r and r + 2 have areas that
differ by 87T. What is the radius of the larger circle?

(A) 1 (B) 0
(B) 2 (C) -s + 1
(C) 3
(D) 8
(E) 9
17. For how many two-digit positive numbers will (E) s + 1
doubling the tens' digit yield a two-digit number
that is double the original number?
(A) None (B) One (C) Two
(D) Three (E) Four
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
>

263
2
Questions 20-21 refer to the following game.

A computer generates "words," and points are assigned

as shown in the table below each time any of the four
letter pairs given appears in a word. 22. In the figure above, the area of the square with two
sides tangent to the circle is 4a2 it. What is the area
of the circle?
Letter Pair Number of Points
(A) air2 (B) a2ir2 (C) a2ir (D) 2a2 it
"AA" 10 (E) It cannot be determined from the information
"AB" 4
"BA" 3
"BB" 5 given.
The sum of n consecutive positive integers is
23.
always an even integer if n is a multiple of
For example, the word BABT is assigned 3 points for
"BA" and 4 more for "AB," making a total of 7 points.
20. Which of the following words would be assigned (A) 2
the most points? (B) 3
(C) 4
(A) SABBAQ (D) 5
(B) BUBBLZ 24. The ratio of John's allowance to Mary's is 2 to 5.
(E) 6
The ratio of John's allowance to Bill's is 3 to 7.
(C) TABBYL
(D) BARNAB What is the ratio of Mary's allowance to Bill's ?
(E) AARDVA
(A) 15 to 14
21. If 1 2 points are assigned to a certain word, which (B) 14to 15
of the following statements must be true? (C) 10 to 21
I. AA is not in the word. (D) 35 to 6
6 to 35
II. AB and BA are both in the word. (E)
III. If BB is in the word, then AB is in the If the volume of a cube is 1 cubic centimeter, then
word. 25.
the distance from any vertex to the center point
inside the cube is
(A) I only (B) II only (C) III only
(D) I and III only (E) I, II, and III

(A) - cm
(B) ^cm

(C) \/2 cm
(D) ^ cm

(E) V3 cm

STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

264
 4
SECTION 4
Time — 30 minutes
40 QUESTIONS
For each question in this section, choose the best answer and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

Each question below consists of a word in capital letters, Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath
word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words.
to the word in capital letters. Since some of the ques- Choose the word or set of words that best fits the
tions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, meaning of the sentence as a whole.
consider all the choices before deciding which is best. Example:
Example: Although its publicity has been — , the film itself
GOOD: (A) sour (B) bad (C) red is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely produced,
(D) hot (E) ugly and altogether
CD ♦ <p CD CD
(A) tasteless, .respectable (B) extensive, .moderate
(C) sophisticated, .amateur
(E) perfect, .spectacular (D) risque, .crude
m & & &CD
1. SINCERE: (A) puzzled (B) depressed
(C) repetitive (D) dishonest
(E) unimaginative
1 1 . Explanations given to the patient by the anesthetist
2. ANCHOR: (A) release from restraint
prior to surgery often — - anxiety and — - the need
(B) ease anxiety (C) gauge accurately for analgesics.
(D) board carefully (E) prevent spoilage
(A) intensify, .counteract
3. QUACK:
(B) parallel, .assume
(A) wealthy inventor (C) explore, .prepare
(B) popular politician (D) relieve, .reduce
(C) qualified physician (E) ignore, .preclude
(D) well-known writer
(E) entertaining actor 12. The jellyfish's slow pulsing action propels it in a
graceful, seemingly -— drift, but its tentacles contain
4. IRREPARABLE: (A) amiable (B) mendable a poison potent enough to stun a swimming human.
(C) grateful (D) confusing (E) divisible (A) sinister (B) rhythmic (C) murky
(D) harmless (E) patient
5. BARBARISM: (A) acceptable diction
(B) pious excuse (C) liberating action 13. The production's slight romantic appeal depends on
(D) vague definition (E) antagonistic gesture its two stars, who are — - to watch even when they
are delivering ---- speeches.
6. DITHER: (A) repeat (B) blame
(C) act with assurance (D) respond as expected (A) overbearing, .innocent
(E) record with accuracy (B) farcical, .complex
(C) attractive, .creative
7. COPIOUS: (A) selfish (B) unholy (D) impossible, .dull
(C) spoiled (D) outrageous (E) sparse (E) pleasant, .empty
8. SUBTLE: (A) gross (B) brave (C) convincing
(D) determined (E) overcautious
9. ACCOLADE: (A) sobriety (B) debate GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(C) reproach (D) disorder (E) refreshment
>
10. INVETERATE: (A) nervous (B) unthinking
(C) ambiguous (D) naturally skeptical
(E) readily changeable

265
4
14. The murderous capriciousness of Nero infused the 19. PSEUDONYM: NAME:: (A) disguise : identity
Roman Empire with such pervasive — - that not even (B) motive : purpose (C) talent : stardom
the most — citizens felt safe. (D) mission : dedication (E) prestige : fame
(A) distaste, .vulgar 20. EXCLAIM: UTTER:: (A) suppose : describe
(B) paranoia, .suspicious (B) conceal: destroy (C) hurl: throw
(C) enthusiasm, .apathetic (D) blink: stare (E) adore: spoil
(D) unease, .oppressed
21. FLEDGLING: BIRD:: (A) sty: pig
(E) panic, .distinguished
(B) kitten: cat (C) fodder: cow
15. His inclination to succumb to flattery made him (D) school: fish (E) stallion : horse
— - to the -— of people who wished to take
advantage of him. 22. OSTENTATIOUS : APPAREL : :
(A) immune, .predilection (A) proud : character
(B) prejudicial, .intentions (B) palatable : food
(C) bombastic language
(C) susceptible, .cajolery
(D) voluminous correspondence
(D) resistant, .blandishments
(E) amenable, .rejection (E) bedecked : flowers
23. INDOLENT: WORK:: (A) inquisitive : learn
Each question below consists of a related pair of words (B) judgmental : accuse (C) blithe: laugh
or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of words or (D) confident : win (E) modest: boast
phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a 24. REPAST : NOURISHES ::
relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
Example: (A) theory : verifies
(B) severance : attaches
YAWN: BOREDOM:: (A) dream: sleep (C) remedy : diagnoses
(B) anger : madness (C) smile : amusement (D) inoculation : immunizes
(D) face expression (E) impatience : rebellion (E) exhaustion : refreshes
CD CD • CD CD
25. NEFARIOUS : VIRTUE::
(A) remorseless: pity
16. SPILL: POUR:: (A) lose: find (B) ingenuous: youth
(B) stutter: hear (C) neglect: care (C) altruistic: money
(D) stumble: walk (E) ponder: forget (D) melancholy: sympathy
(E) seductive : motivation
17. INTRUDER: PRIVACY:: (A) blot: ink
(B) ripple: calm (C) noise: clamor
(D) animal : forest (E) hermit : solitude
18. FADED: COLOR:: (A) humid : moisture
(B) livid: anger (C) pungent : smell GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
(D) muted : sound (E) cloying : taste >

266
 4
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of
what is stated or implied in that passage.

Science fiction gives expression to thoughts and 27. The author uses the story of the ship to do which of
emotions that I think it valuable to entertain. It is the following?
sobering and cathartic to remember, now and then, (A) Introduce an unpopular idea
Line our collective smallness, our apparent isolation, the (B) Revoke a belief formerly held by the author
(5) seeming indifference of nature, the slow biological, (C) Provide an example of a confusing problem
geological, and astronomical processes that may, in (D) Dramatize a typical science fiction episode
the long run, make many of our hopes (and some of (E) Illustrate a belief held by the author
our fears) ridiculous.
Science fiction stories of this type may explain 28. Part of what the author means in saying that the
(10) the hardly disguised political rancor I detected in ship has "a whither and a whence" (line 21) is that
one article on science fiction. The insinuation was
(A) individuals in a state should not argue
that those who read or wrote it were probably
hostile to the state. What lurks behind such a hint (B) politicians have sought and will seek office
because they desire power
is probably something like this. If we were all on (C) we lack a clear conception of our own reason
(15) board ship and there were trouble among the stew- for existence
ards, can
I just conceive the chief steward looking (D) we should not forget that the world has a past
with disfavor on anyone who stole away from the and a future
fierce debates in the pantry to take a breather on (E) what has occurred and what will occur in
deck. For up there one would taste the salt, would society is inevitable
(20) see the vastness of the water, would remember that
the ship had a whither and a whence. What had
seemed, in the hot, lighted rooms down below, to
be the scene for a political crisis would appear once
more as a tiny eggshell moving rapidly through an
(25) element in which humanity cannot survive. It would TO THE NEXT PAGE
not necessarily change the steward's convictions >
about the rights and wrongs of the dispute down
below, but it would probably show them in a new
light. [ GOON

26. The author asserts that readers and writers of science

fiction can most accurately be described as
(A) seekers after an implausible dream
(B) those who view humanity in the largest perspec-
tive
(C) refugees from a harsh reality
(D) those who are best qualified to make moral
judgments
(E) enemies of the established order

267
4
There is such an incalculable amount of sand— wet and 30. The results of the laboratory experiments were
dry— in the world that geologists have had a hard time significant because they
accounting for it. Sandstone is a minor source; most sand (A) proved that moving water is the sole agent in
starts as tiny crystals of quartz which break off granite and the creation of sand
other hard igneous rocks. Gypsum is still another source; (B) revised current beliefs that scientists held about
some of the dunes at White Sands National Monument in the size of sand grains
New Mexico are almost pure gypsum from a dried-up lake (C) enabled elaborate calculations to take place
bed.
(D) called into question a previously accepted
Wind-borne sand particles scud along the ground, col- model
liding with each other, bouncing off obstructions and
wearing off their rough irregularities. Eventually, (E) provided controversial evidence of the makeup
of sand
smoothed and rounded, they approach a perfectly spher-
ical shape— and may keep it, without further wearing, for 3 1 . The passage indicates that grains of sand assume
millions of years. It was once believed that sand grains their final shape primarily through which of the
following?
were rounded while washing down river beds, but labora-
tory experiments showed that they are too lightweight to
abrade each other in water. A cube of quartz a fiftieth of (A) Debilitation (B) Sedimentation
(C) Fragmentation (D) Compounding
an inch across, it was estimated, would have to be trans-
ported bywater a distance equivalent to 50 times around (E) Weathering
the world before it became fully rounded, but wind 32. The passage is most probably an excerpt from which
abrasion would round it off 100 to 1 ,000 times more of the following?
rapidly. Thus it is evident that most of the rounded sand
grains in the world have been exposed to wind abrasion (A) An informal article written for a general
audience
at one time or another.
(B) A proposal for a complex research project
(C) A college textbook that explains the laws of
29. The author's reference to White Sands National
Monument does which of the following?
(D) A discovery
report by a scientist who made a dramatic
(A) Illustrates a general statement physics
(B) Resolves an apparent paradox (E) An impressionistic memoir by a distinguished
(C) Raises a new question
(D) Emphasizes a contrast geologist
(E) Proves a theory

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

>

268
 4
(This passage was written in 1855.) 33. It can be inferred from the passage that which of
the following can be found in Woman in the Nine-
It would seem to us that the late edition of teenth Century ?
Margaret Fuller's Woman in the Nineteenth Century I. Reasoned arguments
has been unduly thrust into the background by less II. Lucid assessments
Line comprehensive and candid productions on the same III. Hazy discourses
(5) subject. Notwithstanding certain defects of taste
and a sort of vague spiritualism and grandiloquence (A) I only
that belong to all but the very best American writers, (B) II only
the book is a valuable one. There is no exaggeration (C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
of woman's moral excellence or intellectual capabili-
ty 0;
ties; no injudicious insistence on her fitness for this (E) I, II, and III
or that function hitherto engrossed by men; but a 34 In context, the word "engrossed" (line 1 1) is best
calm plea for the removal of unjust laws and artificial interpreted to mean
restrictions, so that the possibilities of her nature
may have room for development. (A) avoided
(15) So far as the difference in date allows, there is a
(B) pondered
striking similarity in the trains of thought of (C) monopolized
Margaret Fuller and of Mary Wollstonecraft , who (D) collected
wrote The Rights of Women sixty years before (E) mismanaged
Woman in the Nineteenth Century was written. Both 35 According to the author, Margaret Fuller and Mary
(20) writers communicate a strong understanding of the Wollstonecraft are alike in that they
subject ; but Margaret Fuller's mind is like some (A) have similar literary styles
regions of her own American continent, where you
are constantly stepping from the sunny clearings into (B) belonged to the same generation
the mysterious twilight of the tangled forest— she (C) became writers for similar reasons
(25) often passes in one breath from forcible reasoning (D) have both been unduly overlooked
to dreamy vagueness. Mary Wollstonecraft, on the (E) express many of the same ideas
other hand, is nothing if not rational; her grave
pages are lit up by no ray of fancy. Margaret Fuller
is more of the literary woman, who would not have
(30) been satisfied without intellectual production; Mary
Wollstonecraft, we imagine, wrote not at all for GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
writing's
motives. sake, but from the pressure of other >

269
4 In describing the assault of the English fire ships, the
At midnight it was so dark that the most prac- 36.
ticed eye could barely pierce the gloom. But a faint author does NOT explain why
drip of oars struck the ears of the Spaniards as they (A) Medina-Sidonia was not surprised by the English
Line watched from the decks. A few moments afterward, tactics
(5) the sea became suddenly luminous, and six flaming (B) the Spanish sailors were terrified
galleons appeared at a slight distance, bearing (C) it was useless for Medina-Sidonia to issue
steadily down upon them before the wind and tide. commands
The Spanish captain, Medina-Sidonia, and most (D) a search party had been sent out that morning
of his sailors had engaged in King Philip's siege of (E) Medina-Sidonia had failed to forewarn his men
(10) Antwerp three years before. They realized with
horror that the flaming devil-ships designed by 37. It can be inferred from the passage that the
Gianibelli on that earlier occasion were now turned "despised Mantuan" (line 34) is
against them, rending sky and ocean in their wake.
The Spaniards knew that the famous engineer was at (A) the English admiral
(15) that moment in the employ of Queen Elizabeth and (B) Medina-Sidonia
the English navy. (C) Gianibelli
In a moment, panic spread with contagious (D) the captain of one of the "devil-ships"
(E) the king of Spain
rapidity among Medina-Sidonia's men. There were
shouts throughout the fleet, "The fire ships of 38. The phrase "riders of the storm" (line 48) refers to
(20)
Antwerp, the fire ships of Antwerp!" In an instant, (A) the English sailors
every cable was cut and every galleon made frantic
attempts to escape imminent destruction. The con- (B) the Spanish sailors
(C) the English ships
fusion was beyond description. Four of the clum-
siest ships became entangled with each other. Two (D) the Spanish ships
(25) others were consumed by the flaming vessels. (E) Gianibelli's sailors
Medina-Sidonia, who had been warned by King 39, All of the following can be inferred about Medina-
Philip's spies that some such artifice might be at- Sidonia EXCEPT that he
tempted, and who had, early that morning, sent out
a party of sailors to search for indications of the (A) suspected an assault by the English fire ships
(30) scheme, was not dismayed. He commanded every (B) ordered his fleet to surrender
ship to return to its post and await further orders (C) remained calm in the face of attack
when the danger was past. But it was useless in that (D) was in the employ of King Philip
moment of unreasonable panic to issue commands. (E) had been present at the siege of Antwerp
The despised Mantuan had met with many 49 According to the passage, the primary cause of the
(35) rout of the Spanish fleet was the
rebuffs from the Spaniards at King Philip's court.
Owing to official incredulity, he had been but
partially successful in engineering the Spanish (A) Spanish sailors' lack of experience
offensive at Antwerp. But now he had his revenge, (B) bravery of the English seadogs
for by the mere terror of his reputation, he inflicted (C) fear inspired by Gianibelli's reputation
(40) (D) rigors of a storm at sea
more damage on Philip's fleet than had been accom-
(E) unreasonable orders of Medina-Sidonia
plished byall of Queen Elizabeth's seadogs:
Howard, Drake, Hawkins, and Frobisher.
While darkness lasted, the uproar continued.
When Monday morning dawned, several of the huge
(45) Spanish vessels lay disabled, while the rest of the
once-mighty fleet drove on toward the Flemish
coast. The threatened gale had begun to blow, and
those awkward riders of the storm floundered in the
heavy seas. Meanwhile, the small but mobile English
(50) fleet was all astir to pursue the Spaniards, now
drifting into the North Sea.

STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

270
 SECTION 5 5
Time — 30 minutes
35 QUESTIONS
In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for scratchwork. Then decide which is the best
of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
The following information is for your reference in solving some of the problems.
Circle of radius r: Area = irr2; Circumference = 2irr Triangle: The sum of the measures in
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. degrees of the angles of a
The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. triangle is 180.
Definitions of symbols: If LCD A is a right angle, then
ss
is equal to < is less than or equal to AB X CD
* is unequal to > is greater than or equal to
< is less than II is parallel to (1) area of A ABC =
> is greater than 1 is perpendicular to (2) AC2 = AD2 + DC2
Note: Figures which accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems.
They are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to
scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. All numbers used are real numbers.

1. What number increased by 8 equals 3 times the 5. Jeff is taller than Kim, but he is shorter than Mary.
number? If /, k, and m are the heights in inches of Jeff,
Kim, and Mary, respectively, which of the following
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6 is true?

2. If it was 3:15 four hours ago, what time will it be

— hour from now? (A) / < k < m
(B) k <j<m
(C) k<m<)
(A) 3:45 (B) 6:45 (C) 7:15 (D) m<j<k
(D) 7:45 (E) 11:45 (E) m<k<j

Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

3. In the figure above, if C2 is parallel to the X-axis,
which of the following points lies in the shaded
region? 6. In A ABC above, if DE II AC, then x =
(A) 70 (B) 50 (C) 40 (D) 30 (E) 20
(A) (2,4) (B) (-2,4) (C)(2,6)
(D) (4, 2) (E) (6, 2)
(A )y
7. On a pool table there are 15 balls, each labeled with
a different integer from 1 to 1 5 inclusive. If 3 even-
numbered balls are removed, what fraction of the
4. Of the following, the closest approximation to remaining balls are even numbered?
0.512(198.7)
— loi — is
(A) 5 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 100 (E) 2,500 >i (C)
^i{-, (D)i
(D) j (E) 1

| GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE "^

271
5
Questions 8-27 each consist of two quantities, one in Column A and one in Column B. You are to
compare the two quantities and on the answer sheet blacken space
A if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C if the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Notes: 1. In certain questions, information concerning one or both of the quantities to be compared is centered
above the two columns.
2. In a given question, a symbol that appears in both columns represents the same thing in Column A as it
does in Column B.
3. Letters such as x, n, and k stand for real numbers.

EXAMPLES Column A Column B

Column A Column B Answers
El. 2X6 2 + 6
*/ • CD CD ®

<P
E2. y I CD CD • CD
Kil«a
180 - x
E3. 1 CD CD CO •
p - q q - p r+s
13. 90

Column A Column B
14. 150X250 200 X 200
34- 2n=6
20

One face of a solid cube is white and the remaining

faces are blue.

9. The number of faces of

the cube that are blue
15. 2 _!_//. „\2
(3*)z +(4a)
10. V3T+V63 6+8
n >0
1 1. The number of days in y days
x years 16. n +2
n +4
x is an odd integer and 6 < x < 9.

12. x + 1 8 x>l
(So)'
17. The average speed when The average speed when
x kilometers is traveled 1 kilometer is traveled
in 1 hour in x hours

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

>

272
 SUMMARY DIRECTIONS FOR COMPARISON QUESTIONS
5
Answer: A if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C if the two quantities are equal;
D if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Column A Column B Column A Column B

In A ABC, AC is 5 and CB is 8. p, q, r, s, and t are all positive integers.

18. Area AABC 20 p<q< r<s< t
pXq = 3 and s X t = 50
24. r 4
For all positive x, /x\ = —

Of 100 workers, exactly 90 percent pick pears,

For all negative x, /x\ = x
exactly 80 percent pick apples, and exactly 60 per-

A
cent pick peaches.
A
40
19.
25. The number of workers
who pick both apples
-x
and peaches
j_ i_

20. 2 ~ 2X

21. Length of AC Length of BC

Points P, Q, R, S, and T are equally spaced on
the circumference of the circle with center O.
n is a positive integer and 0 < x < 1.
y
26.
22.

a, b, and c are positive.

The average (arithmetic mean) of x and y is 4
and x - y + 2 = 0. 27. a +b +c o + b + c
23.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

>

273
5Solve each of the remaining problems in this section using any available space for scratchwork. Then decide which is the
best of the choices given and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

x + v N O P Q R
I t I I I

32. In the figure above, NS is divided into five equal

segments as shown. A circle, not shown, with
28. The rectangle above has width x and length center O and radius — the length of NS will
x + y. What is its perimeter in terms of x and y ? PQ
intersect NS between
(A) x2 +xy
(B) 4x + 2y (A) N and 0
(C) 4x+y (B) 0 and P
(D) 2x+2y (C) P and Q
(E) 2x+y (D) Q and R
(E) R and S

29. If x and y are positive integers and x + 2y = 9, + QP

then the greatest possible value of x is
TPT
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 9
33. Each of the three letters in the sum above represents
30. If * and y are negative numbers, which of the
a different digit. What is the value of P ?
following must always be negative?
I. x+y (A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2 (E) 1
II. x •y
III. x- y 20
10 10
(A) I only 34. 19
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only 1
10 109 (C)
(E) I, II, and III (A) 7Z (B) 10 20
3 1 . Alice has saved $39 in 6 weeks. If she continues 20
to save at the same weekly rate, in how many more
weeks will her total savings be $104 ?
35. The average (arithmetic mean) of three integers p,
(A) 22
(B) 16 r, and 6 is 8. Which of the following could NOT be
the value of the product pr ?
(C) 14
(D) 12
(E) 10 (A) 17 (B) 18 (C) 77 (D)-80 (E) 81

STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

274
 Correct Answers for Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Codes 4E and 4V
VERBAL MATHEMATICAL

Section 1 Section 4 Section 2 Section 5

1. E 1. D 1. B 1. C
2. B 2. A 2. D 2. D
3. D 3. C 3. A 3. A
4. C 4. B 4. C 4. C
5. C 5. A 5. D 5. B
6. A 6. C 6. E 6. E
7. E 7. E 7. B 7. D
8. B 8. A
8. C *8. B
9. B 9. C
9. E *9. A
10. B 10. E
10. A *10. B
11. C 11. D 11. D Ml. D
12. D 12. D 12. C M2. C
13. A 13. E 13. B M3. C
14. E 14. E 14. C M4. B
15. A 15. C
15. E *15. C
16. B 16. D
16. C *16. A
17. A 17. B 17. E M7. A
18. E 18. D
18. C *18. D
19. C 19. A 19. B M9. C
20. D 20. C
20. A *20. A
21. B 21. B
21. D *21.
*26. B B
22. C 22. C
22. B *22.
*27. A D
23. D 23. E
23. C *23. C
24. E 24. D
24. A *24. C
25. A 25. A
25. D *25. D
26. E 26. B
27. C 27. E
28. B 28. D 28. B
29. D 29. A 29. D
30. C 30. D 30. A
31. D 31. E 31. E
32. A 32. A 32. C
33. B 33. E 33. D
34. E 34. C 34. B
35. C 35. E 35. B
36. E 36. E
37. D 37. C
38. C 38. D
39. A 39. B
40. E 40. C
41. B
42. A
43. C
44. C
45. C

'Indicates four-choice questions. (All of the other questions

are five-choice.)

275
 The Scoring Process Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
number of incorrect answers for section 4 and record
Machine-scoring is done in three steps: the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
sheet. To determine subtotal B, use the formula:
• Scanning. Your answer sheet is "read" by a scanning
machine and the oval you filled in for each question number correct - number 4incorrect = subtota| B
is recorded on a computer tape.
• Scoring. The computer compares the oval filled in for Step C: To obtain C, add subtotal A to subtotal B, keep-
each question with the correct response. Each cor- ing any decimals. Enter the resulting figure on the
rect answer receives one point; omitted questions do worksheet.
not count toward your score. For each wrong answer, Step D: To obtain D, your raw verbal score, round C to
a fraction of a point is subtracted to correct for ran- the nearest whole number. (For example, any number
dom guessing. For questions with five answer from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.) Enter the resulting
choices, one-fourth of a point is subtracted for each figure on the worksheet.
wrong response; for questions with four answer
choices, one-third of a point is subtracted for each Step E: To find your reported SAT-verbal score, look up
wrong response. The SAT-verbal test has 85 ques- the total raw verbal score you obtained in step D in the
tions with five answer choices each. If, for example, conversion table on page 278. Enter this figure on the
a student has 44 right, 32 wrong, and 9 omitted, the worksheet.
resulting raw score is determined as follows:
SAT-Mathematical Sections 2 and 5
44 right - 32 wron9 = 44 - 8 = 36 raw score points
Step A: Count the number of correct answers and the
Obtaining raw scores frequently involves the round- number of incorrect answers for section 2 and record
ing of fractional numbers to the nearest whole num- the numbers in the spaces provided on the work-
ber. For example, a raw score of 36.25 is rounded to sheet. To determine the subtotal A, use the formula:
36, the nearest whole number. A raw score of 36.50 is
rounded upward to 37. «,.mK«r^«rr^*
number correct n umber i- ncorrect .,..„,.. A.
= subtotal
4
• Converting to reported scaled score. Raw test scores
are then placed on the College Board scale of 200 to Step B: Count the number of correct answers and the
800 through a process that adjusts scores to account number of incorrect answers for the five-choice
for minor differences in difficulty among different questions (questions 1 through 7 and 28 through 35)
editions of the test. This process, known as equat- in section 5 and record the numbers in the spaces
ing, is performed so that a student's reported score provided on the worksheet. To determine the sub-
is not affected by the edition of the test taken nor by total B,use the formula:
the abilities of the group with whom the student number incorrect ,„
takes the test. As a result of placing SAT scores on number correct - '
4 = subtotal B
the College Board scale, scores earned by students
at different times can be compared. For example, an Step C: Count the number of correct answers and the
SAT-verbal score of 400 on a test taken at one admin- number of incorrect answers for the four-choice
istration indicates the same level of developed ver- questions (questions 8 through 27) in section 5 and
bal ability as a 400 score obtained on a different edi- record the numbers in the spaces provided on the
tion of the test taken at another time. worksheet. To determine the subtotal C, use the for-
mula:
How to Score the Test
number correct - number incorrect = subtQta| c
You can verify the College Board SAT scores reported
Step 0: To obtain D, add subtotal A, subtotal B, and
to you recently by using the information in this booklet
subtotal C, keeping any decimals. Enter the resulting
along with the copy of your answer sheet. Before you
begin, check that the first two characters (number and figure on the worksheet.
letter) of the form code you marked in item 3 on your an- Step E: To obtain E, your raw mathematical score,
swer sheet are the same as the form code printed on round D to the nearest whole number. (For example,
the front of this booklet. Compare the responses any number from 44.50 to 45.49 rounds to 45.) Enter
shown on the copy of your answer sheet with the list of the resulting figure on the worksheet.
correct answers.
Step F: To find your reported SAT-mathematical score,
SAT-Verbal Sections 1 and 4 look up the total raw mathematical score you obtained
in E in the conversion table on page 278. Enter this
Step A: Count the number of correct answers for sec- figure on the worksheet.
tion 1and record the number in the space provided
on the worksheet on the next page. Then do the same
for the incorrect answers. (Do not count omitted an-
swers.) To determine subtotal A, use the formula:
number incorrect .. . . A
number correct : = subtotal A

276
 SATSCORING WORKSHEET FORM CODES 4E and 4V
SAT-Verbal Sections
- Va (.

A. Section 1:
no. correct - Va (.no. incorrect subtotal A
-) =
B. Section 4:
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal B

C. Total unrounded raw score

(Total A + B) C

D. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number) D

E. SAT-verbal reported scaled score

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-verbal score

SAT-Mathematical - Sections
Va (_

A. Section 2:
no. correct no. incorrect subtotal A
- Va (. -) =
B. Section 5:
Questions 1 through 7 and
no. incorrect subtotal B
28 through 35 (5-choice) no. correct - 1/3 (.
-) =
C. Section 5:
Questions 8 through 27
no. incorrect subtotal C
(4-choice) no. correct
.) =
D. Total unrounded raw score
(Total A + B + C)

E. Total rounded raw score

(Rounded to nearest whole number)

F. SAT-mathematical reported scaled score

(See the conversion table on the back cover.)
SAT-math score

277
 Score Conversion Table
Scholastic Aptitude Test
Form Codes 4E and 4V
College Board Reported Score 40 College Board Reported Score
SAT-Verbal SAT-Math
Raw Score SAT-Verbal SAT-Math Raw Score 450
800 440 590
85 780 440
39 580
770
83 38 430 570
84 760
420 560
82 750
36
37 550
81 740 420
410
80 35 540
730
79
78 410 530
720 400
33 530
710
77 520
700 34
76 32 390 510
75 490
690 30 390 500
480
74
73 680 29
31 380
72 680 28 370 470
670 370 460
71 660 26
25
27 360
70 450
650 440
69 650 23 350
350 430
63 640 340 420
410
24
630 22 330
67
66 620 330
410
65 610 19
21
20 320 400
610 18 310
64
63 600 310 390
62 590 16
15
17 300
580 290 380
370
280
60
61 580 780
800 280
570 760 13 360
59 14 340
58 560 12 270 350
750 260
560
57 740
550 11
10 260 340
330
56 730
55 540 250
540 720 9 240 320
310
710 230
54
53 530 8 310
700
520 7 230 300
52 520 690 6 -1 220 290
49
51 -2
510 680 5 -3 210 280
50
48 500 670 4 210 280
500 660 3 -4-5 200
200 270
260
490
47
46 490 650 2
640 1 -6 200 250
45 480
470 640 0 200
200 250
44
43 470 630 240
42 460 620 200
200 230
450 610 230
600
41 200 220
200 210
200 200
or below

278