Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Schools Division of Negros Oriental
NEGROS ORIENTAL HIGH SCHOOL
Kagawasan Ave., Daro, Dumaguete City, Negros Oriental

GRADE 10 - SCIENCE
3rd Quarter Assessment Test

Direction: Read each item carefully and choose the letter of the best answer.

1. What hormone is responsible for the development of male secondary sex characteristics such as
deepening of voice and growth of facial hair?
a. Estradiol c. Progesterone
b. Estrogen d. Testosterone
2. Which group of cells is responsible in facilitating spermatogenesis?
a. Leydig Cells c. Sertori Cells
b. Red Blood Cells d. White Blood Cells
3. What hormone facilitates the re-growth of endometrium and inhibition of FSH and LH in female
reproductive system?
a. Estrogen c. Progesterone
b. Prolactin d. Testosterone
4. What hormone stimulates the development of follicles into egg cells?
a. Estrogen c. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
b. Follicle Stimulating hormone (FSH) d. Progesterone
5. Mentrual cycle consists of 4 phases. In which phase the hormones prompt the creation of follicles on
the ovaries?
a. Follicular c. Menstruation
b. Luteal d. Ovulation
6. What phase of the menstrual cycle occurs when the mature egg is released from the follicle and is
ready for fertilization?
a. Follicular c. Menstruation
b. Luteal d. Ovulation
7. Which hormone when present in urine suggests pregnancy?
a. Gonadotrophin Releasing Hormone (GnRH)
b. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
c. Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG)
d. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
8. What part of the female reproductive system produces hormones?
a. Fallopian Tube c. Ovaries
b. Hypothalamus d. Uterus
9. What part of the male reproductive system produces hormones?
a. Prostate c. Scrotum
b. Seminal vesicles d. Testes
10. How many days are in an average menstrual cycle?
a. 14 c. 28
b. 20 d. 38
11. Why is the scrotum located outside the human body?
a. To decrease the size of scrotum
b. To increase the production of testes
c. To protect the testicles from the antibodies
d. To keep the temperature of testicles cooler than the core body temperature
12. Which of the following is most likely to occur in a boy during puberty stage?
a. His facial hair will grow
b. His eye color will change
c. His hips will become wider
d. His skin complexion will whiten
13. What is the basic unit of communication in the nervous system?
a. Axon c. Neuron
b. Dendrites d. Nucleus
14. What function of the nervous system enables the important body functions to be maintained without
being aware of it?
a. Autonomic c. Sensory
b. Cognitive d. Somatic
15. What are the two divisions of the nervous system?
a. Autonomic and Central c. Central and Peripheral
b. Central and Functional d. Somatic and Sympathetic
16. Which of the major functions of the nervous system helps us to detect stimuli from internal and external
environment?
a. Autonomic c. Sensory
b. Cognitive d. Somatic
17. What chemicals are stored in neurons and released when the cell is stimulated by a signal?
a. Chemokines c. Neurotransmitters
b. Cytokines d. Toxins
18. Which of the following organs composes the central nervous system?
a. Brain and muscles c. Sensory organs and muscles
b. Brain and spinal column d. Sensory organs and spinal cord
19. What process involves the transfer of information from DNA to the messenger RNA?
a. Protein Synthesis c. Transcription
b. Replication d. Translation
20. What process involves a sequence of nucleic acids in RNA that is used to direct the production of
amino acids?
a. Protein Synthesis c. Transcription
b. Replication d. Translation
21. Where does the protein synthesis occur?
a. Cytoplasm c. Nucleus
b. Golgi Bodies d. Ribosome
22. What are the building blocks of DNA and RNA?
a. Amino Acids c. Nucleotides
b. Nitrogenous Bases d. Nucleic Acids

For number 23, 24 and 25. The following is the base sequence on one strand of a DNA molecule:

AGCTCGGGCAAT
23. If this strand is replicated, what is the sequence of the resulting strand?
a. ACG UCG GGC AAU c. UGC AGC CCG UUA
b. TCG AGC CCG TTA d. AGC TCG GGC AAT
24. If this strand is transcribed into an mRNA, what would be the resulting strand?
a. UCG AGC CCG UUA c. GAT CAA CCG TTA
b. TCG AGC CCG TTA d. UGC UGC GGC AAU
25. During translation, the tRNA sequence of nucleotides arranged linearly is ______.
a. AGC TCG GGC AAT c. AGC UCG GGC AAU
b. TCG AGC CCG TTA d. UCG AGC CCG UUA
26. What molecule carries the genetic information of an organism?
a. DNA c. rRNA
b. mRNA d. tRNA
27. Which of the following refers to change in the genetic material of an organism?
a. Mutagens c. Mutant
b. Mutate d. Mutation
28. It refers to the type of mutation caused by parts of chromosomes breaking off or incorrect combination.
a. Cell mutation c. Gene mutation
b. Chromosomal mutation d. Body mutation
29. It refers to the type of mutation caused by high energy radiation or chemicals resulting to permanent
change in the DNA sequence.
a. Body mutation c. Chromosomal mutation
b. Cell mutation d. Gene mutation
30. All of the following are kinds of chromosomal mutation EXCEPT one:
a. Deletion c. Translocation
b. Inversion d. Point mutation
31. What genetic condition is caused by deletion of part of the short arm of chromosome 5 characterized
with high-pitched cries.
a. Cri du chat c. Klinefelter’s syndrome
b. Edward’s syndrome d. Turner’s syndrome
32. A genetic disorder caused by an additional X chromosome which interferes in the development of
testicles, which usually results to sterility in men.
a. Cri du chat c. Edward’s syndrome
b. Down’s syndrome d. Klinefelter’s syndrome
33. What type of dating method predicts the age of fossil based on the layers of rocks?
a. Nitrogen dating c. Radiocarbon dating
b. Radioactive dating d. Relative dating
34. What is half-life process?
a. The amount of time for an atom to release energy
b. The amount of time for a radioactive substance to reach half its amount
c. The amount of time for a radioactive substance to emit its charged particles
d. The amount of time for an atom to undergo absorption and emission process
35. What type of structures refers to when organisms have parts of similar functions but of different
arrangement and origin?
a. Analogous structures c. Heterogenous structures
b. Homologous structures d. Symmetrical structures
36. What kind of fossils refers to the actual remains of the organism such as teeth and bones?
a. Body fossils c. Resin fossils
b. Molecular fossils d. Trace fossils
37. If Fossil A is found in an upper layer of rock while Fossil B is found in a lower layer of rock. We can infer
that ________.
a. Fossil A is younger than Fossil B c. Fossil A and B have the same age
b. Fossil B is younger than Fossil A d. Fossil A and B are of different origins
38. Which of the following statements explains Lamark’s Theory of Use and Disuse?
a. Body structures develop because of heredity
b. Body structures develop because of mutation
c. Body structures develop because they are not in use
d. Body structures develop because they are used extensively
39. Why do organisms with close biochemical similarities show stronger evolutionary relationships?
a. They have varied and different ancestry
b. They have similar pattern during their early stage of development
c. They have a common ancestor and have the same kind of proteins
d. They posses same vestigial structure that made their evolutionary relationship closer.
40. What is the theory of Natural Selection?
a. It explains that heredity is driven by a natural force
b. It explains the ability of organism to adapt and change for survival
c. It explains that an environmental condition is likely caused by humans
d. It explains that an organism is capable of reproduction to increase chances of survival
41. What might happen to a group of organisms, having no slight differences in characteristics, when
exposed to a certain kind of deadly disease?
a. All members will survive and continue to reproduce
b. All members will die and their species will be extinct
c. Some members will survive, and some members will die
d. Most members will survive and will become carriers of the disease
42. It refers to the disappearance of a particular population from a given area, but not the entire species.
a. Annihilation c. Extirpation
b. Destruction d. Extinction
43. A branch of biodiversity that provides 60% of all the world’s medicine.
a. Animals c. Fungi
b. Bacteria d. Plants
44. Which of the following causes a decrease in wildlife population in our country?
a. Lack of food supply c. Pollution
b. Loss of habitat d. Unhealthy lifestyle
45. A person breeds Koi fishes in an aquarium. After few months, the breeder notices that the Koi fishes
are fighting each other, and the young ones are less healthy. What do you think will happen to the
population of the guinea pigs?
a. The population will increase c. The population will not be affected
b. The population will decrease d. The population will remain the same.
46. It refers to the number of individuals of a single species per unit area.
a. Carrying capacity c. Population growth
b. Logistics growth d. Population density
47. What happens if a population grows larger than the carrying capacity of its environment?
a. Birthrate will increase c. Immigration rate will increase
b. Death rate will increase d. Immigration rate will not be affected
48. All of the following are density-dependent factors EXCEPT one:
a. Competition c. Flood
b. Disease d. Predation
SCIENCE 10 – 3rd QUARTERLY ASSESSMENT
ANSWERS KEY:

1. D 25. C
2. C 26. A
3. C 27. D
4. B 28. B
5. A 29. D
6. D 30. D
7. C 31. A
8. C 32. D
9. D 33. D
10. C 34. B
11. D 35. A
12. A 36. A
13. C 37. A
14. A 38. D
15. C 39. C
16. C 40. B
17. C 41. C
18. B 42. C
19. C 43. D
20. D 44. B
21. D 45. B
22. C 46. D
23. B 47. B
24. A 48. C