L5m15 questions

1. BATNA stands for (1 point)

a. best alternative to a negotiated agreement.

b. BATNA stands for none of the above.
c. best alternative to a negative agreement
d. best alternative to a negative assignment
e. best assignment to a negotiated agreement

2. When it is not possible for both sides to satisfy their interests or obtain their objectives
under the current conditions, a simple solution is to add resources by "expanding the pie" so that
both sides can achieve their objectives. (1 point)

a. True
b. False

3. Field Analysis should be conducted prior to a negotiation. (1 point)

a. True
b. False

4. Multiple communication channels should not be used as they inevitably pass along
inaccurate and confusing information (1 point)

a. True
b. False

5. Distributive bargaining strategies and tactics are useful when a negotiator wants to
maximize the value obtained in a single deal. (1 point)

a. True
b. False

6. MIL is the same as ZOPA (1 point)

a. True
b. False

7. Conflict can never be constructive (1 point)

a. True
b. False

8. The five conflict management style orientations are: (1 point)

a. Competing, accommodating, avoiding, collusion, and conflict.

 b. Competing, accommodating, avoiding, competition, and compromising.
c. Competing, accommodating, avoiding, cooperation, and compromising
d. Competing, accommodating, avoiding, collaborating, and compromising.

9. Which of the following is not a major source of power from one of the five different
groupings named by Lewicki? (1 point)

a. Personal sources of power.

b. Organizational sources of power.
c. Relationship-based sources of power
d. Contextual sources of power.
e. Informational sources of power

10. Which one of the following is not true of win-lose negotiations? (1 point)

a. Distributive
b. Goal is victory
c. Value claiming
d. Use reason
e. low information sharing
f. Make threats
g. Focus on positions

11. “_____ analysis” can be used to assess all the key parties in a negotiation. (1 point)

a) Positional
b) Field
c) STEEPLED
d) Financial

12. Principled negotiation (Win-win) consists of:

Separating ____ from the problem

Focus on _____, not ______

Invent _____ for Mutual Gain

Insist on Using Objective _______ (5 points)

people interests positions options criteria

13. In a partnerhsip relationship buyer and supplier work together to achieve _____ benefits.
Each party is committed to continuous improvement, and elimination of _____ in the supply chain.
The relationship is designed to achieve rewards that will be shared by both parties. (2 points)

Select the missing words.

mutual waste many inventory

14. "What are the other's real underlying interests and needs?" is a question that can facilitate
which of the following processes. (1 point)

a. expanding the pie

b. nonspecific compensation
c. logrolling
d. bridging
e. cost cutting

15. There are THREE forms of power in buyer-supplier relationships.- Overt, covert and ______
(1 point)

a) Role
b) structural
c) Subvert
d) Reward

16. The Mendelow Matrix is a useful matrix for determining the potential influence of the
stakeholder groups of an organisation. It looks at two dimensions –the level of ______ the group has
in the organisation, and the level of _____ they have over the project. (1 point)

interest power

17. ZOPA stands for zone of probable agreement (1 point)

a. True
b. False

18. A zero-sum situation is also known by another name. Which of the following is that? (1
point)

a. negotiative
b. win-lose
 c. distributive
d. integrative

19. A relationship with a supplier can be either competitive or collaborative. The study guide
places them in this order:

Adverserial, Arms-length, Transactional, Closer tactical ,Single sourced ,Outsourcing, , Partnerhship,

Strategic alliance and Co-destiny. (1 point)

a. True
b. False

20. Which of the following best represents what happens at the post-negotiation stage? (1
point)

a. You arrange the next negotiation

b. You review the negotiation performance.
c. You revise your original objectives
d. You attempt to renegotiate terms

21. A situation in which solutions exist so that both parties are trying to find a mutually
acceptable solution to a complex conflict is known as which of the following? (1 point)

a. mutual gains
b. win-lose
c. zero-sum
d. win-win
e. None of the above

22. Internal stakeholders of a company exercise their power via which of the following? (1
point)

a. Their position within the company

b. Their control of resources
c. Their personal influence
d. Their knowledge and skills
e. All of the above

23. In integrative negotiation, the goals of the parties are mutually exclusive. (1 point)
 a. True
b. False

24. Negotiation may be used throughout the sourcing process (1 point)

a. True
b. False

25. Nearly 50 years ago French & Raven claimed there were five major types of sources of
power that could be exercised. Which of the following is not part of that group? (1 point)

a. Organisational power.
b. Referent power.
c. Legitimate power.
d. Personal power.
e. Reward power.

26. Referent power-This is based on a person's high levels of skill and knowledge (1 point)

a. True
b. False

27. An adversarial relationship means that buyer and supplier attempt to get the best possible
deal for their respective organisations, even if the gains they achieve are matched by losses for the
other party. The relationship will be characterised by a minimal amount of _____, information
exchange, and flexibility in dealing with requirements. (1 point)

trust

28. To negotiate with another party success-fully, a team must first negotiate internally to ____
its members’ interests and develop a disciplined bargaining strategy. (1 point)

align

29. In which major step of the integrative negotiation process of identifying and defining the
problem would you likely find that if the problem is complex and multifaceted the parties may not
even be able to agree on a statement of the problem? (1 point)

a. state the problem with an eye toward practicality and comprehensiveness.

 b. depersonalizing the problem.
c. separate the problem definition from the search for solutions.
d. define the problem in a way that is mutually acceptable to both sides.
e. state the problem as a goal and identify the obstacles to attaining this goal

30. Which of the following are the five styles of managing conflict? (1 point)

a. Cooperating
b. Avoiding
c. Compromising
d. Arbitration
e. Competing
f. Coercing
g. Collaborating
h. Accommodating
i. Obliging

31. In order to effectively manage its stakeholders, an organisation should map them out
according to which of the following? (1 point)

a. Their shareholding status and position in the hierarchy

b. Their shareholding status and level of interest
c. Their level of power and interest
d. Their power and personality
e. None of the above

33. The resistance point is the point at which a negotiator would like to conclude negotiations.
(1 point)

a. True
b. False

34. Negotiation is ‘A ______ through which parties move from their initially _______ positions
to a point where agreement may be reached.’- Steele 1989 (2 points)

process divergent

35. A 'key player' is a stakeholder with which of the following? (1 point)

a. High interest and low power

 b. High interest and high power
c. Medium interest and high power
d. Medium interest and medium power
e. Low interest and low power

36. What are the two axes on the Thomas Kilmann model (1 point)

a. Assertiveness & Cooperativeness

b. Concern for results & Concern for relationship
c. Power & Effectiveness
d. Attitude & Competiveness

37. Which of the following are sources of conflict. Select all correct answers. (1 point)

a. Interdependence and shared resources

b. Strategies and tactics
c. Power imbalance
d. Differences in goals, values and perceptions
e. Body language
f. Ambiguity
g. Position
h. Tactics

38. Which of the following is not a characteristic of integrative negotiations? (1 point)

a. Invent options for mutual gain

b. Commit to meeting the needs of all involved parties
c. Use subjective criteria for standards of performance
d. Focus on commonalities rather than differences.
e. Exchange information and ideas

39 'The culture of any group of people is that set of _____, customs, practices and ways of
thinking that they have come to share with each other through being and working together. It is a
set of assumptions people simply accept without question as they interact with each other. At the
visible level the culture of a group of people takes the form of ritual behaviour, symbols, myths,
stories, sounds and artefacts.' Ralph Stacey (1996) (1 point)

a) beliefs
b) feelings
c) values
d) assumptions
40 Select all the key behaviours that are part of the opening stage of a negotiation. (6 points)

a. Using questions to illicit information

b. Seek ratification
c. Creating a conducive atmosphere
d. Offer concessions
e. Assertive communication
f. Make threats
g. Using verbal and non verbal signals to condtion other party
h. Rapport building
i. Using your BATNA
j. Use closure tactics
k. Make concessions
l. Listening actively

41 Nonspecific compensation can be used in an integrative negotiation (5 points)

a. True
b. False

42 Logrolling requires the parties to establish (or find) one issue in conflict; the parties then
agree to trade off among these issues so that one party achieves a highly preferred outcome on the
first issue and the other person achieves a highly preferred outcome on the second issue.

a. True
b. False

43. How would you classify this question?

“So do I understand that you are saying you don’t see any merit in this proposal at all?” (1 point)

a. Reflective
b. Window
c. Open
d. Treat

44 The Pull style is characterised by concentration upon three different behaviours- these are
testing, understanding, seeking _______ and building (1 point)
 a) information
b) weaknesses
c) agreement
d) concessions

45 Tactics used in integrative negotiations are the same as those for distributive negotiation
(5 points)

a. True
b. False

46. In passive listening

a. the receivers restate or paraphrase the sender's message in their own language
b. the receivers restate or paraphrase the sender's message in their own language
c. the receiver provides no feedback to the sender about the accuracy or completeness
of reception.
d. senders may misinterpret acknowledgments as the receiver's agreement with their
position, rather than that they are simply receiving the message.
e. None of the above occurs in passive listening.

Q47 Q1. Which of the following is likely to be the best course of action when an important
negotiation meeting with a strategic supplier reaches a deadlock?

a. Call a recess

b. Threaten to walk away

c. Read the contract

d. Use forcing techniques

LO: 1AC: 1.2

Q48 Q2. A category manager is negotiating with an important supplier and is concerned that
progress is too slow. The supplier has already offered a significant pricing reduction. In response,
the buyer agrees to modify the specification to suit the supplier's processes. Both have moved
further than they had planned. The buyer's response could be described as ...

a. an implied threat

b. a reciprocated concession

c. a take it or leave it reply

d. an authoritative position
LO: 1AC: 1.2

Q49 Q3.The CPO of a major organisation has a meeting with a key internal stakeholder who the CPO
has not previously met. The CPO is meeting with them to build rapport and to find out the
stakeholder's needs, to ensure these will be satisfied by the future procurement strategy. Which
type of question will the CPO be likely to use the most in this situation?

a. Leading

b. Closed

c. Direct

d. Open

LO: 1AC:1.2

Q50 Q4.Mutual trust is most important in which types of relationships?

1. Joint venture

2. Closer tactical

3. Partnership

4. Multi-sourced

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 3 and 4 only

d. 2 and 4 only

LO: 2AC: 2.1

Q51 Q5. When entering into negotiation with a supplier as a buying team, which of the following
should the team consider before the negotiation. Select THREE that apply.

a) What are the roles

b) Who will take minutes

c) When will we rehearse

d) Who will compromise

e) Negotiation review outcomes

f) Contract authority
LO: 1AC: 1.1

Q52 Q10. Leadership style and supply chain factors can influence employees, their decisions and
actions. There are four category heads each with a different style of leadership. They are
running team meetings to discuss supply chain issues.

Category 1 –The category head starts the meeting by explaining the challenge and saying ‘so, let’s
have a vote on what we should do next’. The issue they are concerned with is how to find out if
anyone in the supply chain is giving or taking an inducement to influence another party.

Category 2 –This category manager has already made the decision and starts the meeting saying
‘OK, this is how we’re going to do it’. Their concern focuses on the abuse of power for gain, often for
personal gain, within the supply chain.

Category 3 –This category manager is very relaxed. After some general discussion and a
coffee they say to team members ‘We all know the issue -you decide how to tackle it’. They have
been informed by an independent third party of possible supply chain activities which amount to
deliberate deception with the specific intention of gaining an advantage.

Category 4 –This category manager opens the meeting with a question ‘Let me know what you think
we should do about this’. He goes on to explain that some supply chain behaviours are not
aligned with the procurement organisation’s own moral principles. You are required to match each
leadership style and supply chain factor to each category, based on the descriptions provided.
Choose from these options and drag and drop your answers into the table below.

Supply chain factor

 Bribery
 Corruption
 Ethics
 Fraud

Leadership style

1. Laissez-faire
2. Democratic
3. Consultative
4. Autocratic

Category Supply chain factor Leadership style

1
2
3
4
LO: 2 and 3AC: 2.2 and 3.2

LO3.0
These are new questions for motivation theories

Question 1.

According to Mitchell, the purpose of motivational theories is to:

Change behaviour
Control behaviour
Organise behaviour
Predict behaviour
Question 2.

Needs and expectations at work are sometimes divided into two types:

Social/spiritual
External/internal
Effort/reward
Extrinsic/intrinsic
Question 3.

Mullins proposes a three-fold classification of motivation as a starting point for discussion which
comprises:

Intrinsic satisfaction, social relationships and organisational affiliation

Organisational affiliation, economic rewards and social relationships
Social relationships, organisational affiliation and economic rewards
Economic rewards, intrinsic satisfaction and social relationships

Question 4.

Which of the following is a positive reaction to the blockage of a desired goal?

Problem-solving
Regression
Withdrawal
Fixation
Question 5.

Negative responses to the blockage of a desired goal include:

Aggression
Withdrawal
Fixation
All three of the above
Question 6.

Managers can attempt to reduce levels of frustration in organisation members by:

Participative management
Effective recruitment
All of the above
None of the above

Question 7.

Aldefer and McClelland are two examples of ___________ theories of motivation.

Process
Equity
Expectancy
Content
Question 8.

Maslow suggests that human needs are arranged in a series of levels, a hierarchy of importance.
Which of the following statements are relevant to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory?

The hierarchy is not necessarily in a fixed order

A satisfied need is no longer a motivator
A need is not necessarily fully satisfied before a subsequent need arises
All of the above
Question 9.

Steers and Porter’s model relates the _____________ level of Maslow’s Hierarchy to organisational
factors that include a cohesive work group and friendly supervision.

Self-actualization
Social
Esteem
Safety

Question 10.

According to Herzberg, which of the following may be regarded as hygiene/maintenance factors?

Company policy
Working conditions
Salary
All of the above

Question 11.

McClelland’s achievement motivation theory states that people with a high achievement need have
a preference for:

Clear and unambiguous feedback

Attaining success through their own efforts rather than through teamwork
Both of the above
Neither of the above
Question 12.

Vroom and Porter and Lawler developed examples of __________ models of motivation:

Content
Attribution
Goal
Expectancy

Question 13.

Equity theory of motivation focuses on:

People’s expectation of the different outcomes for a given action

The motivational force involved in a person’s actions at work
The fact that people are influenced by the expected results of their actions.
People’s perception of how they should perform in a given situation at work
Question 14.

Which of the following statements is true about the Goal Theory of motivation?

People with difficult goals will perform better than people with easier goals.
People with easier goals will perform better than people with difficult goals.
A person’s level of commitment to a goal will not regulate the level of effort expended.
Research has shown that there is little support for the Goal Theory and its effects on
motivation with regard to the relationship between goal-setting and performance.

Question 15.

Which of the following is not a core job dimension as summarised by Mullins?

Task significance
Skill variety
Autonomy
Potential
None of the above

Q16. According to recognised theory, which of the following are generally regarded as providing
sources of motivation for employees?

1. Technology

2. Recognition

3. Policies

4. Empowerment

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2 and 4 only

d. 1 and 4 only

LO: 3AC: 3.2

Q17. KV Banking Group (KVBG) is going through a large change programme. Contracts with existing
suppliers are being renegotiated. KVBG's management is offering suppliers longer term contracts in
return for price reductions. For those that do not reduce their pricing notice is being served to
terminate contracts and new suppliers will be recruited. Which tools are KVBG's management
using?

1. Logic

2. Bargaining

3. Authority

4. Coercion

a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 3

c. 3 and 4

d. 2 and 4

LO: 3 AC: 3.3

Q18. Which of the following are recognised differences between cultures that should be considered
when negotiating? Select ALL that apply

a. Uncertainty avoidance

b. Preparation

c. Power distance

d. Individualism versus collectivism

e. Terms and conditions

f. Financial analysis

g. Appraisal techniques
Q19. A recently appointed category manager has a meeting with an important stakeholder who
needs to be influenced. They are of an equivalent seniority level. The category manager is planning
to meet them first over a coffee in the staff canteen to get to know them. Is this the right course of
action?

a. No, first meetings should always be more formal

b. Yes, this will build rapport and make influencing more effective

c. Yes, buying someone a coffee is a form of bargaining

d. No, meeting in the staff canteen is unprofessional

LO: 3AC: 3.1

Q20. There has been a significant breach of contract by a supplier. Extensive negotiations over many
months have not resolved the issue and the procurement organisation has incurred substantial
additional costs as a result of the supplier's failure. Must the procurement organisation pursue
litigation next?

a. Yes, for serious breaches once negotiation has failed the matter must be decided by the courts

b. Yes, because this will ensure the supplier continues to deliver the rest of the contract

c. No, there are likely to be other remedies that could be explored before using the legal process

d. No, the courts will check to see that negotiations have been explored fully first

LO: 3AC: 3.1

Q20. A negotiation meeting is taking place at the global headquarters of Parr, Loades & Zach (PLZ), a
leading marketing agency, and one of its clients, GANV Bank (GANVB). The meeting is between a
senior PLZ partner and the marketing director from GANVB. The PLZ partner starts by saying 'Thanks
for coming to New York. First things first, I'd like to show you some of things we're doing online for
our other clients'. After a short demonstration the PLZ partner says to the GANVB marketing
director '.....and I forgot to mention, if you would like us to do the same type of online marketing for
GANV you'll need to place a confirmed order with us by the end of the week because our specialist
team has very limited capacity'. Which influencing tools is the PLZ partner using?

1. Social proof

2. Reciprocity

3. Authority

4. Scarcity

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2 and 4 only

d. 1 and 4 only

LO: 3AC: 3.1

Q21. Upon first entering the office of the purchasing manager of a company with whom you would
like to do business, you notice a picture of the team mascot of your alma mater on the wall. You
should:

a. Mention that you went to the same university prior to discussing business.

b. Mention that you went to the same university after discussing business.

c. Not mention this personal similarity in a business meeting.

d. Discuss the fact that you went to the same university only if the client brings up the topic.

Explanation: The Liking Principle is activated by uncovering genuine similarities; discussing these first
facilitates business discussions.

Q22 What do you call a style of leadership that takes account of others' views, opinions and ideas?

a) Laissez-faire
b) People-oriented
c) Democratic
d) Autocratic

Q23

Which of the following is a reason for an individual’s resistance to change

Habit
Selective perception
Economic implications
Security in the past
All of the above
None of the above

Q24
How can organisational structures that are characterised by democratic and inclusive styles
of management be described?
 a) Hierarchical
b) Bureaucratic
c) Flat
d) Functional

Q25
Functional structures help to create…...

a) teamwork
b) specialisation
c) project work groups
d) multi-skilled employees

q26 Work specialization is also known as _____.

a) span of control
b) chain of command
c) formalization
d) division of labour

q27
_____ is the basis by which jobs are grouped together.

a) Formalization
b) Specialization
c) Departmentalization
d) Chain of command

Q28
The _____ is an unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to
the lowest level and clarifies who reports to whom.

a) chain of command
b) span of control
c) formalization
d) organizational structure
Q29 Question
_____ refers to the number of employees that can be directed by one manager.
a) Formalization
b) Span of control
c) Authority
d) Centralization

Q30 Question
_____ is the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the
organization.

a) Chain of command
b) Centralization
c) Formalization
d) Departmentalization

Q31 Question
The key concept that underlies all bureaucracies is _____.

a) flexibility
b) decentralization
c) standardization
d) creativity

Q32 Question.
The _____ combines two forms of departmentalization: functional and product.

a) simple structure
b) virtual organization
c) bureaucracy
d) matrix structure
Q33 Question 9.
Which of the following is an advantage of a matrix organization?

a) Clear organizational structure.

b) Coordination of complex and interdependent activities.
c) Elimination of power struggles.
d) All of the above.
Q34
A _____ relies primarily on outsourcing.

a) team structure
b) boundary less organization
c) virtual organization
d) strategic alliance

q35
The _____ model has extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a limited
information network, and little participation by low-level members in decision making.

a) mechanistic
b) strategy
c) organic
d) routine

q36
A(n) _____ organization uses flat, cross-hierarchal and cross-functional teams, has low
formalization, possesses a comprehensive information network, and involves high
participation in decision making.
a) mechanistic
b) strategy
c) organic
d) routine

Q37
Organizations that pursue a cost-minimization strategy are more likely to choose a(n) _____
structure.
a) functional
b) mechanistic
c) departmentalized
d) organic

Q38 Question
When one or more parties are aware of the existence of the antecedent conditions, conflict
may be _____, but it is not personalized.
 a) perceived
b) assumed
c) felt
d) experienced

q39 Question 8.
_____ refers to the degree to which one party attempts to satisfy the other party's concerns.

a) Assertiveness
b) Cooperativeness
c) Agreeableness
d) Collaboration

Q40 Question 9.
In _____, the intention of the parties is to solve the problem by clarifying differences rather
than accommodating various points of view.

avoiding
competing
collaborating
accommodating

Q41 Question
The conflict-handling intention of _____ is midrange on both assertiveness and
cooperativeness.

a) competing
b) compromising
c) collaborating
d) accommodating

q42 Question
_____ bargaining presumes zero-sum conditions.

a) Collective
b) Integrative
c) Distributive
 d) Negotiated

Q43 Question 12.

In negotiating, the _____ is the point that both parties would like to achieve.

a) resistance point
b) endgame
c) goal point
d) target point

q44 Question 13.

_____ bargaining assumes there are one or more settlements that can create a win-win
situation.

a) Integrative
b) Consensus
c) Relational
d) Distributive

Q45 Question
Which of the following is NOT a step in the negotiation process?

a) Preparation and planning

b) Evaluation and feedback
c) Clarification and justification
d) Definition of ground rules

Q46 Which of the following would not be considered a function of the informal
organization?

a) provides a sense of friendships and social contact for members

b) informal groups diminish how employees feel informed and connected with
what is going on in the firm
c) informal organization can provide status and recognition the formal organization
cannot
d) the network of relationships can aide the socialization of new employees.

Q47 One of the key disadvantages of a narrow span of control is:

a) more levels of management; therefore, more expensive management costs

b) high degree of control of activities
c) better familiarity with each individual supervised
d) the ability to provide more immediate feedback to subordinates
Which of the following is a motivational factor, according to Herzberg's two-factor theory?

a) quality of supervisions
b) recognition
c) pay
d) relations with others