Dea-1tt5 V12.35

IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way!
Exam : DEA-1TT5
Title : Associate - Information

Storage and Management
Exam
Vendor : EMC
Version : V12.35
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NO.1 Which Converged Network Adapter (CNA) component encapsulates Fibre Channel (FC) frames
into Ethernet frames?
(A). PCIe Bus
(B). Fibre Channel HBA
(C). Fibre Channel Forwarder
(D). FCoE ASIC
Answer: D
NO.2 What is an example of a Performance Management task?

(A). Selecting an appropriate RAID type for a storage pool.
(B). Removing unused resources from a service and reassigning them to another.
(C). Scanning applications and databases to identify vulnerabilities.
(D). Planning and architecting data backup and replication solutions.
Answer: A
NO.3 DRAG DROP

Match the Fibre Channel (FC) Layers with their respective functions.
Answer:
FC0-physical
FC1-encode/decode
FC2-routing, flowcontrol
FC3-Common service
FC4-mapping
NO.4 What is a key advantage of implementing FCIP?

(A). Provides a disaster recovery solution by replicating data across data centers.
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(B). Enables migration of VMs across data centers by using existing FC networks.
(C). Ensures lossless transmission of FC traffic across data centers over Ethernet.
(D). Provides a dedicated network for transmission of storage traffic within a data center.
Answer: A
NO.5 Which technology is used in the media and entertainment industry to enable content-based
search activity and to create video subtitles using natural language processing?
(A). Machine learning
(B). Social networking
(C). Cloud computing
(D). Internet of Things
Answer: A
NO.6 What happens when the size of a write I/O request exceeds the configured write aside size in a
block-based storage system?
(A). Cache is bypassed and I/O is written directly to storage
(B). Write aside size is automatically reconfigured to the new write I/O size
(C). Warning message to reduce the size of write I/O is displayed
(D). Write data is lost and a re-write request is sent to the compute system
Answer: A
NO.7 What creates a large-scale SAN without storage systems and uses local storage of existing
compute systems?
(A). Compute-based SAN
(B). Software-defined compute
(C). Storage-based SAN
(D). Software-defined network
Answer: A
NO.8 Which technology decouples the OS, applications, and user state from a physical compute
system?
(A). Application virtualization
(B). Storage virtualization
(C). Thin client virtualization
(D). Desktop virtualization
Answer: D
NO.9 A company's Finance department needs 200 GB of storage for their business applications. A
LUN is created with 200 GB and RAID 1 is configured to support the applications.
If the cost of storage per GB is $2, what is the chargeback cost to the department for application
storage?
(A). $ 200
(B). $ 400
(C). $ 800
(D). $ 1500
Answer: C
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NO.10 DRAG DROP

In a recovery operation, what is the correct sequence of steps after the backup client sends a restore
request to the backup server?
Answer:
(1) Backup client requests backup server for data restore
(2) Backup server scans backup catalog to identify data to be restored and the client that will receive
data
(3) Backup server instructs storage node to load backup media in the backup device
(4) Data is then read and sent to the backup client
(5) Storage node sends restore metadata to the backup server (6) Backup server updates the backup
catalog
NO.11 Which Dell EMC product is a disk-based backup and recovery solution that provides inherent
source-based deduplication?
(A). Data Domain
(B). SRDF
(C). TimeFinder
(D). Avamar
Answer: D
NO.12 When using a bridged iSCSI connection, which components facilitate communication between
gateways?
(A). Compute system with iSCSI ports and the storage system with Ethernet ports.
(B). Compute system with iSCSI ports and the storage system with only FC ports.
(C). Compute system with FC HBA ports and the storage system with only FC ports.
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(D). Compute system with FCoE ports and the storage system with iSCSI ports.
Answer: B
NO.13 Which Internet of Things (IoT) component is responsible for the automation of operations by
applying a force based on the dynamics of data?
(A). Actuator
(B). Switch
(C). Sensor
(D). Gateway
Answer: A
NO.14 Which technology combines NAND flash memory into a hard disk drive and is a single,
integrated device incorporating both types of storage?
(A). Solid-state drive
(B). Dual drive
(C). Fibre Channel drive
(D). Solid-state hybrid drive
Answer: D
NO.15 Why is it important for organizations to store, protect, and manage their data?
(A). Reduce the amount of data to be replicated, migrated, and backed up.
(B). Rapidly develop and deploy modern applications for business improvement.
(C). Develop new business opportunities by leveraging existing data.
(D). Reduce the complexity in managing the data center environment.
Answer: C
NO.16 Why are organizations moving towards a modern data center implementation?
(A). Develop modern applications in the public cloud without having the right skill set in-house.
(B). Ability to be agile, operate in real time, and develop intelligent products.
(C). Deploy only unified and converged IT resources to reduce the management complexity.
(D). Reduce the cost of managing data center components by using a self-service catalog.
Answer: B
NO.17 What is determined by the amount of space configured for the journal in continuous data
protection (CDP) replication?
(A). Length of time required to recover the data
(B). Length of time the recovery points can go back
(C). Amount of data that can be restored to a specific point
(D). Amount of space the source and replica volumes require
Answer: B
NO.18 Which functionality does a Control layer provide in a software-defined networking

architecture?
(A). Defining the network behavior through various policies.
(B). Making decisions on how the packets should be forwarded.
(C). Establishing communications between the Infrastructure and Interface layers.
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(D). Forwarding data packets based on the requirements from the Application layer.
Answer: B
NO.19 In the event of a disk failure, which RAID level enables quick data reconstruction?
(A). RAID 3
(B). RAID 5
(C). RAID 6
(D). RAID 10
Answer: D
NO.20 What is an impact of a Denial-of-Service attack?

(A). Privileges are intentionally misused to compromise data security
(B). User's credentials are eavesdropped by the attacker
(C). Computing resources are exhausted and made unavailable to users
(D). User's accounts and data are compromised by malicious insiders
Answer: C
NO.21 An Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours, from
Monday through Friday.
However, a failure of Port4 occurs as follows:
* Monday = 8 PM to 9 PM
* Wednesday 7 PM to 9 PM
* Thursday = 6 AM to 9 AM
* Saturday = 4 PM to 7 PM
What is the MTTR of Port 4?
(A). 2 hours
(B). 3 hours
(C). 28 hours
(D). 38 hours
Answer: A
NO.22 Which layer contains services that define network behavior through policies and resource
requirements in a software-defined networking architecture?
(A). Interface
(B). Control
(C). Application
(D). Infrastructure
Answer: C
NO.23 What does the "X" represent in the exhibit?
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(A). E_port
(B). F_port
(C). N_port
(D). NL_port
Answer: C
NO.24 An organization wants to use an application for their business communication. However, they
do not have the skills or the time to deploy and manage an application in-house.
Which recommended cloud service model will meet their requirement?
(A). Infrastructure as a Service
(B). Database as a Service
(C). Software as a Service
(D). Platform as a Service
Answer: C
NO.25 What is a characteristic of the Orchestration layer in a modern data center architecture?
(A). Interacts directly with physical components across layers to begin provisioning tasks
(B). Enables automatic updates of offerings listed in the service catalog with pre-defined workflows
(C). Allows centralized, automated, and policy-driven management of heterogeneous resources
(D). Enables automated arrangement, coordination, and management of resource provisioning tasks
Answer: D
NO.26 When using the erasure coding technique in an object-based storage system, data is divided
into 12 data segments and 4 coding segments.
What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by the
configuration?
(A). 3
(B). 4
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(C). 8
(D). 12
Answer: B
NO.27 What is a key advantage of cloning a virtual machine (VM)?

(A). Ability to run new VMs simultaneously with the same IP address.
(B). Reduces the time required to create multiple copies of a VM.
(C). Improves the performance of an existing VM and new VMs.
(D). Eliminates the need to create multiple snapshots for a VM.
Answer: B
NO.28 Match the Fibre Channel (FC) layers with their respective features
Answer:
NO.29 Which type of zoning does the "X" represent?
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(A). Fabric zoning

(B). WWN zoning
(C). Mixed zoning
(D). Port zoning
Answer: B
NO.30 Which type of zoning does the "X" represent?
(A). Fabric zoning

(B). WWN zoning
(C). Mixed zoning
(D). Port zoning
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Answer: B
NO.31 Why is it important to deploy virtual machine (VM) storage migration in a data center
environment?
(A). Enable efficient management of storage capacity across storage systems
(B). Improve the security of applications running inside VMs on the migrated storage system
(C). Reduce a company's overall storage system capacity requirements
(D). Enable VMs to continue functioning even if the source data is lost due to a failure
Answer: A
NO.32 Which exhibit represents a Type 2 hypervisor?
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(A). Option A
(B). Option B
(C). Option C
(D). Option D
Answer: C
NO.33 What is an accurate statement about variable prefetching?

(A). Many blocks that have recently been written to storage by the compute system are retrieved and
placed in cache.
(B). Many non-contiguous blocks that are not currently required can be retrieved from cache in
advance.
(C). Storage system prefetches data in multiples of the original I/O request size from the compute
system.
(D). Storage system prefetches many non-contiguous blocks of data, with varied sizes, from cache.
Answer: C
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NO.34 A company plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application
requires 2 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate 4500
IOPS with a typical I/O size of 4 KB. The capacity of each available disk drive is 250 GB. In addition, the
maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with a 70% utilization is 90 IOPS.
What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application's capacity and
performance requirements for a RAID 0 configuration?
(A). 8
(B). 40
(C). 50
(D). 70
Answer: C
NO.35 A Fibre Channel switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational 24*7.
However, a failure of Port 5 occurs on a particular week as follows:
* Monday = 11 AM to 12 PM
* Thursday = 7 AM to 11 AM
* Saturday = 11 AM to 1 PM
What is the availability of Port 5 in that week?
(A). 93%
(B). 94.1%
(C). 95.8%
(D). 97%
Answer: C
NO.36 An organization plans to deploy a deduplication solution in their data center environment
They are concerned about the application servers' performance and a long backup window during
backups. However, they want to retain their existing backup application.
Which deduplication solution(s) should be recommended?
(A). Target-based deduplication
(B). Source-based with variable-length deduplication
(C). Source-based with fixed-length block deduplication
(D). Source-based global deduplication
Answer: B
NO.37 Based on the exhibit,
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What does the "X", "Y", and "Z" represent in a NAS environment?
(A). X = FC SAN, Y = IP Network, and Z = NAS Gateway
(B). X = IP Network, Y = FC SAN, and Z = NAS Gateway
(C). X = FC SAN, Y = NAS Gateway, and Z= IP Network
(D). X = IP Network, Y = NAS Gateway, and Z = FC SAN
Answer: B
NO.38 Which file system uses a MapReduce framework to run applications and a NameNode for
managing the file system?
(A). New Technology File System (NTFS)
(B). Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS)
(C). Network File System (NFS)
(D). Common Internet File System (CIFS)
Answer: B
NO.39 What does an area ID represent in Fibre Channel (FC) addressing?

(A). Group of switch ports
(B). Switch within a group
(C). Port within a group
(D). Group of switches
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Answer: A
NO.40 Which Dell EMC product is a software-defined storage platform that abstracts, pools, and
automates a data center's physical storage infrastructure?
(A). XtremIO
(B). ViPR Controller
(C). VxFlex OS
(D). PowerMax
Answer: B
NO.41 What is an accurate statement about stretched VLANs?

(A). Reduces network bandwidth requirements during VM migration across sites.
(B). Requires a change in the VMs' IP addresses to match the addressing scheme at the other sites.
(C). Enables automatic modification of VLAN addresses during VM migration across sites.
(D). Supports migration of VMs across sites without the need to change their network configurations.
Answer: D
NO.42 DRAG DROP

In a backup operation, what are the correct sequence of steps after the backup server initiates the
scheduled backup process?
Answer:
Backup server instructs the storage node to load the backup media in the backup device Backup
client send the data to the storage node and updates the backup catalog on the backup server
Storage node sends data to the backup device Storage node sends metadata and media information
to the backup server Backup server updates the backup catalog
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NO.43 Which operation is represented in the exhibit?
(A). Write-back Cache

(B). Read Cache Miss
(C). Write-through Cache
(D). Read Cache Hit
Answer: B
NO.44 If a company has experienced a passive attack on its IT infrastructure, how is the company's
security impacted?
(A). Access to services is denied.
(B). Availability of data is affected.
(C). Information privacy is compromised.
(D). Data is altered by an unauthorized user.
Answer: C
NO.45 In a compute-based storage area network (SAN), what is a function of the metadata
manager?
(A). Holds cluster-wide mapping information and load balancing in a compute-based SAN.
(B). Performs the I/O operations on the local storage of a compute system as requested by a client.
(C). Provides an interface to the software-defined storage controller.
(D). Controls all data read and write operations in a compute-based SAN.
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Answer: A
NO.46 Which product provides an organization with the power to search and analyze vast amounts
of data in one place and helps administrators to discover suspicious event trends?
(A). Dell InTrust
(B). Dell Change Auditor
(C). VMware AppDefense
(D). VMware AirWatch
Answer: A
NO.47 Which VMware product has pre-defined workflows that helps to automate and coordinate
the service delivery and operational functions in a storage infrastructure?
(A). NSX
(B). vSphere ESXi
(C). vRealize Orchestrator
(D). Horizon
Answer: C
NO.48 A consumer is interested in a service that provides multiple operating systems and
programming frameworks for application development and deployment.
Which recommended cloud service model will meet these requirements?
(A). Storage as a Service
(B). Platform as a Service
(C). Infrastructure as a Service
(D). Software as a Service
Answer: B
NO.49 Based on the exhibit, which type of storage does the "X" represent?
(A). File-based
(B). Block-based
(C). Object-based
(D). Unified-based
Answer: C
NO.50 An Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours; from
However, a failure of Port 5 occurs as follows:
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Tuesday = 6 AM to 7 AM
Thursday = 5 PM to 9 PM
Friday = 8 AM to 9 AM
What is the MTBF of Port 5?
(A). 30 hours
(B). 32 hours
(C). 40 hours
(D). 38 hours
Answer: D
NO.51 When implementing a full mesh topology in a Fibre Channel (FC) SAN environment, what is
the effect when there is an increase in the number of switches?
(A). Reduces the available node ports for ISL connectivity.
(B). Increases the load on the ISLs due to traffic aggregation.
(C). Increases the hop count for compute to storage traffic.
(D). Reduces the available switch ports for node connectivity.
Answer: D
NO.52 Which file system uses only UNIX systems for a client-server application protocol and Remote
Procedure Call (RPC) for file sharing?
(A). New Technology File System (NTFS)
(B). Common Internet File System (CIFS)
(C). Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS)
(D). Network File System (NFS)
Answer: D
NO.53 A company is using an intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS) to scan and analyze
intrusion events.
Which IDPS technique uses a database that contains known attack patterns?
(A). Role-based
(B). Profile-based
(C). Signature-based
(D). Anomaly-based
Answer:
C
Reference: https://pdfs.semanticscholar.org/e874/32283e90da5bceb3b17550570ec3a210f43c.pdf
NO.54 In an archiving environment, how is a content address created in a content addressable

storage (CAS) system to store an object?
(A). From the metadata of an object.
(B). By using the logical address of the memory space.
(C). From the binary representation of an object.
(D). By using the physical address of the storage device.
Answer: C
NO.55 Which management function involves configuring LUN masking to restrict hosts from
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accessing a specific LUN in a data center environment?

(A). Performance Management
(B). Change Management
(C). Security Management
(D). Configuration Management
Answer: C
NO.56 DRAG DROP

To authenticate a user using OpenID authentication control, what are the correct sequence of steps?
Answer:
Step 1: Login request using OpenID
Step 2: Authentication request is redirected to OpenID provider
Step 3: Consent to profile sharing
Step 4: Authentication response is redirected to organization providing services
NO.57 What is an accurate statement about a virtual SAN (VSAN)?

(A). Events causing traffic disruptions in one VSAN are propagated to other VSANs
(B). Nodes that are present in different VSANs should not have the same FC address
(C). Every VSAN created on a physical SAN must have the same fabric configuration
(D). Each VSAN has its own fabric services, configuration, and set of FC addresses
Answer: D
NO.58 What is a function of the metadata service in an object-based storage device (OSD)?
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(A). Generates the file system namespace from the file contents.
(B). Manages both physical and logical disks on which the user data is stored.
(C). Manages the storage space for all remote clients.
(D). Maintains the object IDs and file system namespace mappings.
Answer: D
NO.59 In a RAID 6 array with four disks, what is the total usable data storage capacity on the array if
the disk size is 200 GB?
(A). 200 GB
(B). 400 GB
(C). 600 GB
(D). 800 GB
Answer: B
NO.60 Which layer of the OSI model provides the functional and procedural methods to transfer
data between network entities?
(A). Data link
(B). Presentation
(C). Session
(D). Application
Answer: A
NO.61 DRAG DROP

Match the types of attack with their respective description.
Answer:
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NO.62 A company has virtualized their data center and wants to deploy a recovery-in-place backup
approach.
What is the advantage of this type of approach?
(A). Acquires backup services through a self-service portal
(B). Eliminates the backup impact on the application servers
(C). Reduces the recovery point objective to restore the data to any previous point-in-time using
backed up VMs
(D). Eliminates the need to transfer the image from the backup device to the primary storage before
it is restarted
Answer: D
NO.63 What is a benefit of link aggregation?

(A). Optimizes fabric performance by distributing network traffic across ISLs.
(B). Improves ISL utilization by increasing the network traffic on a specific ISL.
(C). Yields a higher throughput by combining two parallel ISLs into a single physical ISL.
(D). Saves bandwidth by restricting traffic to a specific potentially congested ISL.
Answer: A
NO.64 What is an accurate statement about scale-out NAS?

(A). Creates a different file system for each node in the cluster
(B). Stripes data across nodes with mirror or parity protection
(C). Supports only data replication for protecting data
(D). Pools node resources in a cluster to work as multiple NAS devices
Answer: B
NO.65 Which technology uses the concept that real-life objects can independently share and
process information with minimal human interaction?
(A). Deep Learning
(B). Cloud computing
(C). Internet of Things
(D). Artificial Intelligence
Answer: C
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NO.66 A company plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application
requires 5 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate 3000
IOPS with a typical I/O size of 3 KB. The capacity of each available disk drive is 750 GB. In addition, the
maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with a 70% utilization is 90 IOPS.
What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application's capacity and
performance requirements for a RAID 0 configuration?
(A). 7
(B). 34
(C). 50
(D). 40
Answer: C
NO.67 Why is it important for organizations to implement a multi-site remote replication solution?
(A). Ensure data protection is always available if there are any single site failures
(B). Provide consistent near-zero RPO in the event of source and remote site failures
(C). Perform synchronous replication with low network bandwidth
(D). Recover data to any point-in-time in the event of a remote site failure
Answer: A
NO.68 DRAG DROP

Match the functionality of a security goal with its description.
Answer:
Authentication: User proves identity to the provider in order to access the stored data
Audit: Recording all transactions for the purpose of assessing the effectiveness of the security
control. Authorization: Determining the privileges that a user has to access a particular service.
Accountability: Users are responsible for the actions that are performed on the systems.
NO.69 Which product enables employees to enroll their mobile devices in an enterprise
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environment and ensures secure access from the devices to the enterprise resources?
(A). Dell PowerEdge
(B). Dell InTrust
(C). VMware AirWatch
(D). VMware AppDefense
Answer: C
NO.70 Which data archiving component scans primary storage to find the files that meet the
archiving policy?
(A). Archive storage
(B). Archive database server
(C). Archive agent
(D). Archive stub file
Answer: C
NO.71 What is a key benefit for performing local replication?

(A). Reduce the time to perform data backups
(B). Enable operational recovery of data if there is a data loss
(C). Provide disaster recovery as a service offering
(D). Enable data recovery in the event of a site-level disaster
Answer: B
NO.72 Based on the exhibit, what does the "X" represent in the FCIP tunnel configuration?
(A). VX_port
(B). EX_port
(C). F_port
(D). VE_port
Answer: D
NO.73 What accurately describes hypervisor-based continuous data protection?

(A). Virtual appliance is running on a hypervisor.
(B). Journal is stored in a virtual machine.
(C). Virtual appliance runs on a storage system.
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(D). Replica volumes are created in the hypervisor.

Answer: A
NO.74 What is the objective of security control?

(A). Minimize the attack surfaces and minimize the work factors
(B). Maximize the attack surfaces and minimize the attack vector
(C). Minimize the attack surfaces and maximize the work factors
(D). Maximize the attack surfaces and maximize the attack vector
Answer: C
NO.75 What is an accurate statement about Storage Class Memory (SCM)?

(A). SCM is faster than DRAM
(B). SCM read and write speeds are slower than flash
(C). SCM can be addressed at the bit or word level
(D). SCM has volatile memory
Answer: C
NO.76 What accurately describes an iSCSI HBA?

(A). Performs both iSCSI and TCP/IP processing
(B). Requires CPU cycles for TCP/IP processing
(C). Requires a software adapter with built-in functionality
(D). Enables transmission of data through iSCSI tunneling
Answer: A
NO.77 Which Dell EMC product creates a server and IP-based SAN from direct-attached server
storage to deliver flexible and scalable performance and capacity on demand?
(A). PowerMax
(B). VxFlex OS
(C). ViPR Controller
(D). XtremIO
Answer: B
NO.78 In an SDS environment, which protocol supports the resource-oriented architecture for the
development of scalable and lightweight web applications while adhering to a set of constraints?
(A). FTP
(B). NFS
(C). CIFS
(D). REST
Answer: D
NO.79 DRAG DROP

Match the software-defined storage (SDS) attributes with their respective description.
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Answer:
NO.80 In a Fibre Channel (FC) protocol stack, what is the function of the FC-2 layer?
(A). Provides transmission words, primitive signals, and link initialization
(B). Provides FC addressing, structure, and organization of data
(C). Provides standards for the physical interface, media, and transmission of bits
(D). Provides application interfaces and maps several protocols to FC layers
Answer: B
NO.81 Which parameters define information availability in an IT environment?

(A). Capacity, Availability, and Performance
(B). Reliability, Integrity, and Performance
(C). Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability
(D). Reliability, Accessibility, and Timeliness
Answer: D
NO.82 What is a key objective to performing continuous replication?

(A). Avoid performing data archiving.
(B). Reduce the RPO to near-zero.
(C). Reduce the deduplication ratio.
(D). Avoid performing data backups.
Answer: B
NO.83 DRAG DROP

What is the correct sequence of steps that need to be performed in storage system-based
synchronous remote replication?
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Answer:
1.The write I/O is received from production compute system into cache of source and placed in
queue
2.The write I/O is transmitted to the cache of the target storage
3.Receipt acknowledgment is provided by target storage back to cache of the source
4.Source storage system sends an acknowledgment back to the production compute system
NO.84 What is a function of a continuous data protection (CDP) appliance?

(A). Migrates deduplicated data from the source volume to the target volume during replication
(B). Manages both local and remote replications within and across data centers
(C). Stores all data that has changed from the time the replication session started
(D). Intercepts writes to the production volume and splits each write into two copies
Answer: A
NO.85 A backup administrator has defined a backup policy. The policy requires full backups to be
performed at 10 PM every Sunday and incremental backups performed at 10 PM the remaining days.
If files were accidentally deleted Wednesday morning, how many backup copies are required to
restore the files?
(A). 2
(B). 3
(C). 4
(D). 5
Answer: B
NO.86 Why are organizations moving towards a modern data center implementation?
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(A). Develop modern applications in the public cloud without having the right skill set in-house.
(B). Ability to be agile, operate in real time, and develop intelligent products.
(C). Deploy only unified and converged IT resources to reduce the management complexity.
(D). Reduce the cost of managing data center components by using a self-service catalog.
Answer: B
NO.87 DRAG DROP

What is the correct sequence of steps to authenticate an initiator and a target using one-way
Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) after the initiator performs a login to the
target?
Answer:
NO.88 Based on the exhibit, what does the "X" represent?
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(A). NACK SYN

(B). ACK SYN
(C). SYN NACK
(D). SYN ACK
Answer: D
NO.89 Which compute system component enables dynamic extension of file system capacity and
efficient storage management?
(A). Logical Unit Number
(B). Logical Unit Number Masking
(C). Logical Volume Manager
(D). Virtual Memory Manager
Answer: C
NO.90 Which security mechanism ensures secure access to internal assets while enabling Internet-
based access to selected resources?
(A). Virtual local area network
(B). Demilitarized zone
(C). Virtual private network
(D). Discovery domain
Answer: B
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NO.91 Match the object-based storage device (OSD) features with their descriptions.
Answer:
NO.92 What accurately describes an object-based storage device (OSD)?

(A). One object can be placed inside another object
(B). Objects are created based on the name and location of the file
(C). Objects exist at the same level in the address space
(D). Numerous objects can be stored in a single namespace
Answer: C
NO.93 What is an advantage of implementing file-level virtualization in a data center environment?

(A). Provides non-disruptive file mobility across file servers or NAS devices.
(B). Provides automated scaling of file systems across NAS servers.
(C). Provides the capability to access files from any device.
(D). Provides dynamic distribution of files across NAS clients.
Answer: A
NO.94 What is a benefit of using an existing IP-based network infrastructure for storage
connectivity?
(A). Provide a dedicated network for storage
(B). Provide the ability to extend the network over long distances
(C). Ensure lossless transmission of FC traffic over Ethernet
(D). Ensure security by allowing only localized data movement
Answer: B
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NO.95 DRAG DROP

If the client requests authorization from the resource owner, what are the remaining sequence of
steps to authenticate a user using OAuth control?
Answer:
The client requests an access token by authenticating with the authorization server and presenting
the authorization grant.
The authorization server authenticates the client and validates the authorization grant, and if valid,
issues an access token.
The client requests the protected resource from the resource server and authenticates by presenting
the access token.
The resource server validates the access token, and if valid, serves the request
NO.96 What is the goal of a business continuity solution?

(A). Reduce the amount of investment in protecting an organization's business-related data.
(B). Avoid a disaster in a data protection environment to control the loss of data.
(C). Ensure information availability that is required to conduct vital business operations.
(D). Eliminate security threats in a data protection environment for continuous access to data.
Answer: C
29
NO.97 What accurately describes a shared pool in virtual provisioning?

(A). Should contain only homogeneous disk drive types.
(B). Supports a single RAID protection level.
(C). Consists of only a virtual storage volume.
(D). Should contain only physical drives with different sizes.
Answer: B
NO.98 What does the "variability" characteristic of big data signify?

(A). Importance in obtaining the right information from data at all possible contexts
(B). Cost-effectiveness and business value obtained from massive volumes of data
(C). Diversity in the formats and types of data generated from various sources
(D). Importance in the quality of data gathered from a number of sources
Answer: A
NO.99 Which functionality is provided by a process login in a Fibre Channel (FC) SAN environment?
(A). Exchanges service relevant parameters between an N_port and an N_port
(B). Establishes a connection to the fabric between an N_port and an F_port
(C). Exchange ULP-related parameters between two N_ports
(D). Establishes a session that occurs between two E_ports
Answer: C
NO.100 A company is planning to perform a cloud-based backup. They want to send their data over
a public network to a cloud backup device.
Which security control mechanism helps to protect the data from an attacker?
(A). Multi-factor authentication
(B). Demilitarized zone
(C). Data shredding
(D). Encryption
Answer: D
NO.101 What accurately describes an Incident in a storage infrastructure?

(A). Unknown root cause of one or more disruptions to service.
(B). Any event that may lead to the disruption of a service.
(C). Support request to help access an IT resource.
(D). Any event that may create a change in correcting a known error.
Answer: B
NO.102 A company wants to implement a Fibre Channel (FC) SAN topology. The implementation will
involve deploying four switches for localized compute and storage system connectivity. In addition, to
meet their applications' performance requirements, they need a maximum of one ISL and redundant
connections for their compute to storage traffic.
Which topology should be recommended?
(A). Full mesh topology
(B). Bus topology
(C). Partial mesh topology
(D). Single-switch topology
30
Answer: A
NO.103 Why is it important for organizations to implement a backup solution in a data center
environment?
(A). Improve the integrity of critical data
(B). Ensure the availability of production data
(C). Minimize the cost of data protection
(D). Reduce redundant data in a production environment
Answer: B
NO.104 Which Dell EMC product is a hyper-scale storage infrastructure that provides universal
accessibility with support for object and HDFS?
(A). ViPR Controller
(B). PowerMax
(C). Isilon
(D). Elastic Cloud Storage
Answer: D
NO.105 What accurately describes an iSCSI HBA?

(A). Performs both iSCSI and TCP/IP processing
(B). Requires CPU cycles for TCP/IP processing
(C). Requires a software adapter with built-in functionality
(D). Enables transmission of data through iSCSI tunneling
Answer: A
NO.106 Why is it important for organization to deploy intelligent storage systems in their data
centers?
(A). Reduce the complexity of managing information by creating silos of storage
(B). Effectively migrate data from a data center to the cloud at no cost
(C). Reduce the amount of data to be replicated, migrated, and backed up
(D). Effectively store and manage information across data centers
Answer: D
NO.107 What accurately describes the scale-out storage architecture?

(A). Scales the capacity only within a single storage system.
(B). Provides a fixed capacity ceiling that limits scalability beyond a storage system.
(C). Provides the capability to maximize its capacity by adding nodes to the cluster.
(D). Restricts scalability to the limits of the storage controllers.
Answer: C
NO.108 Which cloud deployment model allows provisioning of a cloud infrastructure only for use by
a single organization having multiple consumers?
(A). Public cloud
(B). Multi-cloud
(C). Hybrid cloud
(D). Private cloud
31
Answer: D
NO.109 What accurately describes a software-defined architecture?

(A). Supports only central management of private cloud resources using a pre-defined policy.
(B). Provides a unified management platform for centralized monitoring and administration.
(C). Uses only converged and hyperconverged infrastructures to offer services to companies.
(D). Provides decentralized, manual, and policy-driven IT resource management.
Answer: B
NO.110 In an FCoE switch, which function is provided by the Fibre Channel Forwarder (FCF)?
Answer: D
NO.111 What is an advantage of deploying a purpose-built, disk-based backup appliance in a data

center environment?
(A). Eliminate the need for performing source-based deduplication.
(B). Convert the capital expenditure to an operational expenditure.
(C). Lower the recovery time objective of an organization.
(D). Retain the fixed content for longer periods in the data center.
Answer: C
NO.112 A Fibre Channel switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational from 8 AM to 8 PM,
However, a failure of Port 2 occurs on a particular week as follows:
Monday = 10 AM to 12 PM
Wednesday = 4 PM to 9 PM
Thursday = 4 PM to 7 PM
Friday = 3 PM to 6 PM
Saturday = 9 AM to 1 PM
What is the availability of Port 2 in that week?
(A). 70%
(B). 71.6%
(C). 78.3%
(D). 80%
Answer: D
NO.113 Why is it important for organizations lo deploy business continuity solutions in their data
center environment?
(A). Avoid security risks that destroy the business data
(B). Employ compliance requirements for data protection
(C). Eliminate the time required for maintenance of IT resources in the data center
(D). Reduce the cost of protecting data within and outside data centers
Answer: B
32
NO.114 Which Dell EMC product enables continuous protection for any PIT recovery and offers
multi-site support?
(A). RecoverPoint
(B). Avamar
(C). SourceOne
(D). SRDF
Answer: A
NO.115 DRAG DROP

Match the virtual machine (VM) file with its description.
Answer:
Configuration file: Stores information, such as VM name, BIOS information, guest OS type, memory
size
Virtual disk file: Stores the contents of the VM's disk drive Memory state file: Stores the memory
contents of a VM in a suspended state
Snapshot file: Stores the VM settings and virtual disk of a VM
Log file: Keeps a log of the VM's activity and is used in troubleshooting
NO.116 Which product delivers virtualized or hosted desktops and applications through a single
platform?
(A). VMware Horizon
(B). Dell EMC VxRail Appliance
(C). VMware NSX
(D). Dell PowerEdge servers
Answer: A
NO.117 Which exhibit represents a Type 1 hypervisor?

A)
33
B)
C)
D)
34
(A). Option A
(B). Option B
(C). Option C
(D). Option D
Answer: A
NO.118 Which Dell EMC product provides a software-defined platform that supports both block and
file storage services?
(A). XtremIO
(B). PowerMax
(C). FAST VP
(D). VPLEX
Answer: B
NO.119 Which state change notifications (SCNs) are issued by an iSNS server to the registered
devices?
(A). CPU events
(B). Output events
(C). Input events
(D). Network events
Answer: D
NO.120 in a NAS environment, which file system provides a public or open variation of the Server
Message Block (SMB) protocol and uses the TCP/IP protocol?
(A). Common Internet File System (CIFS)
(B). New Technology File System (NTFS)
(C). Network File System (NFS)
(D). Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS)
Answer: A
NO.121 What is the primary advantage of RAID 6 compared to RAID 5?
35
(A). High available storage capacity

(B). Low write penalty
(C). High resiliency
(D). Low rebuild time for data
Answer: C
NO.122 What is an accurate statement about Governance?

(A). Restrict access to certain users
(B). Ensure removal of security risks
(C). Authorize policy-making decisions
(D). Demonstrate adherence to polices
Answer: C
NO.123 Which data deduplication method increases the probability of identifying duplicate data
even when there is only a minor difference between two documents?
(A). Variable-length segment
(B). Single-instance
(C). File-level
(D). Object-level
Answer: A
NO.124 What accurately describes virtual SAN (VSAN) trunking?

(A). Reduces the utilization of ISLs by removing all the ISLs configured between the FC switches.
(B). Increases the number of E_ports used for the ISLs to transfer multiple VSAN traffic.
(C). Increases the complexity of managing the FC SAN with an increase in the number of ISLs.
(D). Reduces the number of ISLs between switches that are configured with multiple VSANs.
Answer: D
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IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way!

Title : Associate - Information

NO.2 What is an example of a Performance Management task?

NO.3 DRAG DROP

NO.4 What is a key advantage of implementing FCIP?

NO.10 DRAG DROP

NO.18 Which functionality does a Control layer provide in a software-defined networking

NO.20 What is an impact of a Denial-of-Service attack?

NO.23 What does the "X" represent in the exhibit?

NO.27 What is a key advantage of cloning a virtual machine (VM)?

NO.29 Which type of zoning does the "X" represent?

(A). Fabric zoning

NO.30 Which type of zoning does the "X" represent?

(A). Fabric zoning

NO.32 Which exhibit represents a Type 2 hypervisor?

NO.33 What is an accurate statement about variable prefetching?

NO.37 Based on the exhibit,

NO.39 What does an area ID represent in Fibre Channel (FC) addressing?

NO.41 What is an accurate statement about stretched VLANs?

NO.42 DRAG DROP

NO.43 Which operation is represented in the exhibit?

(A). Write-back Cache

NO.54 In an archiving environment, how is a content address created in a content addressable

accessing a specific LUN in a data center environment?

NO.56 DRAG DROP

NO.57 What is an accurate statement about a virtual SAN (VSAN)?

NO.61 DRAG DROP

NO.63 What is a benefit of link aggregation?

NO.64 What is an accurate statement about scale-out NAS?

NO.68 DRAG DROP

NO.71 What is a key benefit for performing local replication?

NO.73 What accurately describes hypervisor-based continuous data protection?

(D). Replica volumes are created in the hypervisor.

NO.74 What is the objective of security control?

NO.75 What is an accurate statement about Storage Class Memory (SCM)?

NO.76 What accurately describes an iSCSI HBA?

NO.79 DRAG DROP

NO.81 Which parameters define information availability in an IT environment?

NO.82 What is a key objective to performing continuous replication?

NO.83 DRAG DROP

NO.84 What is a function of a continuous data protection (CDP) appliance?

NO.87 DRAG DROP

NO.88 Based on the exhibit, what does the "X" represent?

(A). NACK SYN

NO.92 What accurately describes an object-based storage device (OSD)?

NO.93 What is an advantage of implementing file-level virtualization in a data center environment?

NO.95 DRAG DROP

NO.96 What is the goal of a business continuity solution?

NO.97 What accurately describes a shared pool in virtual provisioning?

NO.98 What does the "variability" characteristic of big data signify?

NO.101 What accurately describes an Incident in a storage infrastructure?

NO.105 What accurately describes an iSCSI HBA?

NO.107 What accurately describes the scale-out storage architecture?

NO.109 What accurately describes a software-defined architecture?

NO.111 What is an advantage of deploying a purpose-built, disk-based backup appliance in a data

NO.115 DRAG DROP

NO.117 Which exhibit represents a Type 1 hypervisor?

NO.121 What is the primary advantage of RAID 6 compared to RAID 5?