Ami MCQ

SESSION 1
1. Which property of an electromagnetic wave, depends on the medium in which it is travelling?
a) Velocity
b) Frequency
c) Time period
d) Wave length
Answer: a
Explanation: The frequency, wavelength and time period can all vary according to the wave producing
source. But, the velocity of an electromagnetic wave depends upon the medium through which it is
travelling. The velocity of wave in a vacuum is termed as speed of light, which is assumed to be 3 x 108
m/s.
2. Electromagnetic waves are represented in which of the following format?
a) Longitudinal waves
b) Transverse waves
c) Sinusoidal waves
d) Surface waves
Answer: c
Explanation: A sinusoidal wave describes the oscillation periodically. Since the electromagnetic wave is
represented in the form of sine curve it is named after it as sinusoidal wave.
3. For increasing accuracy, high frequency of propagation is used.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In order to increase accuracy, it is recommended to use an extremely high frequency of

propagation. However, the available phase comparison techniques cannot be used at frequencies
greater than 5* Hz, which corresponds to a wavelength of 0.6 m.
4. Electromagnetic waves are produced by
A static charge
An accelerated charge
A moving charge
Charged particles
Answer: b An accelerated charge
5. Which of the following rays are not electromagnetic waves?
a. Gamma rays
b. Beta rays
c. Heat rays
d. X rays
Answer: b Beta rays
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SESSION 2
1. Which type of Quantum Transition takes place in Ultra Violet and Visible spectroscopy?
a) Rotation of molecules
b) Nuclear
c) Bonding electrons
d) Spin of nuclei in a magnetic field
Answer: c
Explanation: In UV and Visible Spectroscopy, type of Quantum Transmission is Bonding electrons. The
rest of the options are Quantum Transmission type of other spectroscopic methods.
2. Which of the following is not a property or parameter of electromagnetic radiation?
a) Wavelength
b) Voltage
c) Wave number
d) Amplitude
Answer: b
Explanation: Wavelength, Amplitude and Wavenumber are parameters of electromagnetic radiation.

Other parameters are Velocity and Frequency.
3.The inability of a lens to form a white image of a white object is known as ________
a) Spherical Aberration
b) Chromatic Aberration
c) Monochromatic Aberration
d) Coma
Answer: b
Explanation: If a lens forms colored images of an object with white light, it is known as chromatic
aberration. Because since that the refractive index of the material of the lens is different for different
wavelengths of light.
4. Which of the following is the wavelength of microwave radiation?
a) 10 – 780nm
b) 0.78 – 30µm
c) 0.6 – 10 m
d) 0.75 – 3.75 mm
Answer: d
Explanation: The wavelength of Microwave radiation is 0.75 – 3.75 mm. The rest of the options are the
wavelength of other Electro Magnetic radiations.
5. Velocity of electromagnetic radiation is more in a vacuum than in any medium.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Velocity of electromagnetic radiation tends to decrease when a medium is present. Hence,
it attains maximum speed in a vacuum.
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SESSION 3
1. How is the wave number of electromagnetic radiation related to wavelength?
a) It is the reciprocal of wavelength
b) It is directly proportional to wavelength
c) It is not related to wavelength
d) It is equal to wavelength
Answer: a
Explanation: Wave number is the number of waves spread in a length of one centimeter. It is the
reciprocal of wavelength.
2. Which of the following is the wavenumber of UV and Visible radiation?
a) 1 x 106 to 1.3 x 104 m-1
b) 1 x 106 to 1.3 x 104 m
c) 13 – 27 m-1
d) 1 x 106 to 1.3 x 104 m2
Answer: a
Explanation: Wave number of UV, Visible radiation is 1 x 106 to 1.3 x 104 m-1. Wave number is the
reciprocal of wavelength. So, the unit is m-1.
3. If the magnification of a lens is dependent on the distance from the principal axis, the aberration that
arises is called __________
a) Coma
b) Astigmatism
c) Curvature
d) Distortion
Answer: d
Explanation: Distortion is the defect that arises when the images of equal parts of an object will not be
of the same length. In such a case, the magnification of the lens is dependent on the distance from the
principal axis.
4. Which of the following materials are used as the insulation between the inner and outer electrodes of
the ion chamber?
a) Polythene
b) Plastic
c) Polytetrafluoroethylene
d) Polyacrylamide
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Polytetrafluoroethylene is used as the insulation between the inner and outer electrodes of
the ion chamber. The material has very high resistance.
5. Liquid samples must be counted using ionization chamber by placing them in which of the following?
a) Test tube
b) Curvette
c) Ampoules
d) Flask
Answer: c
Explanation: Liquid samples must be counted using ionization chamber by placing them in ampoules.
The ampoules are placed in the chamber.
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SESSION QUIZ 4
1. Which of the following is not a source used in Mid Infrared Spectrophotometer?
a) Nernst glower
b) High pressure mercury arc lamp
c) Globar
d) Nichrome wire
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: High pressure mercury arc lamp is used as the source for Far IR Spectrophotometer. Rest of
the options are used as a source in Mid Infrared Spectrophotometer.
2. Which of the following is the wave number of near infrared spectrometer?
a) 4000 – 200 cm-1
b) 200 – 10 cm-1
c) 12500 – 4000 cm-1
d) 50 – 1000 cm-1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The wave number of near infrared spectrometer ranges between 12500 – 4000.
Wavenumber is the reciprocal of wavelength.
3. Which of the following options are correct in terms of wavelength for the different types of IR
spectrometer?
a) Near IR: 0.8 – 2.5 mm
b) Mid IR: 0.8 – 2.5 mm
c) Far IR: 2.5 – 50 mm
d) Mid IR: 50 – 100 mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wavelength of near IR is 0.8 – 2.5 mm and for mid IR it is 2.5 – 50 mm. The wavelength of
far IR is 50 – 1000 mm.
4. Which of the following is not a technique for preparing solid samples in IR spectroscopy?
a) Solids run in solution
b) Mull technique
c) Solid films
d) Thin films
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Four techniques are generally used to prepare solid samples. They are: Solids run in
solution, Mull technique, Solid films and pressed pellet techniques.
5. Which of the following is not used as pyroelectric material used in pyroelectric transducers in Infrared
spectroscopy?
a) TriglycineSulphate
b) DeutratedTriglycineSulphate
c) Some Polymers
d) Tetraglycinesulphate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pyroelectric materials are deutratedtriglycinesulphate, triglycinesulphate and some

polymers. They give rise to potential when subjected to a heating or cooling effect.
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SESSION QUIZ 5
1. ____________ limits receiver sensitivity.
a) Noise
b) Depletion layer
c) Avalanche
d) Current
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Receiver noise affects receiver sensitivity. It can dictate the overall system design. The
noise can be temperature, environmental factor or due to components.
2. A ____________ performs the linear conversion of the received optical signal into an electric current.
a) Receiver
b) Converter
c) Detector
d) Reflector
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An optical signal is always fed to a detector. A detector is an optoelectronic converter

which linearly converts the received optical signal into an electric current.
3. __________ are provided to reduce distortion and to provide a suitable signal shape for the filter.
a) Detector
b) Equalizer
c) Filters
d) Amplifier
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical detectors are linear devices. They do not introduce distortion themselves but other
components may exhibit nonlinear behaviour. To compensate for distortion, an equalizer is provided in
the receiver circuit
4. A _________ maximizes the received signal-to-noise ratio in the receiver circuitry.
a) Filter
b) Equalizer
c) Detector
d) Reflector
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A filter reduces the noise bandwidth as well as inbounds noise levels. A filter maximizes the
received signal-to-noise ratio while preserving the essential features of the signal. It also reduces ISI.
5. ________ can be operated in three connections.

a) Reflectors
b) Diodes
c) LED’s
d) FET’s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: FET’s or bipolar transistors are operated in three useful connections. These are the
common emitter, the common base or gate, and the emitter or source follower.
SESSION QUIZ 6
6. How many structures of pre-amplifiers exist?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) One
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The basic structures of pre-amplifiers are observed in three forms. These are low-
impedance, high-impedance and trans-impedance front end preamplifier structures.
What is the main factor contributing to the choice of the operational amplifier?
a) Gain
b) Impedance
c) Conductance
d) Gain-Bandwidth product
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A TTL interface stage is always used with the operational amplifier. A device that requires
higher accuracy often tends to depend on gain-bandwidth product.
The choice of amplifier for receiver accuracy is dependant on gain-bandwidth product.
8. The multiplication factor for the APD varies with the device temperature.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Optimum multiplication factor is required for smooth voltage variance. The multiplication
factor for APD varies with the device temperature thus making provision of fine control for bias voltage.
9. How many categories of dynamic gain equalizers are available?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dynamic gain equalizers are categorized into two types. These are single-channel and
multichannel equalizers, thus providing operation using single or multiple wavelengths.
10. How many simultaneous channels can be provided in a band DGE(Dynamic gain equalizer)?
a) Six
b) Two
c) Eight
d) Ten
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally, eight channels are provided simultaneously in a band DGE. These are for the
attenuation purpose of channels along with gain equalization.
SESSION QUIZ 7
1. Mass spectrometers are used to determine which of the following?
a) Composition in sample
b) Concentration of elements in sample
c) Relative mass of atoms
d) Properties of sample
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mass spectrometers are used to determine the relative mass of atoms and molecules.
Aston made the instrument more accurate.
2. Who invented mass spectrometers?
a) J.J Thompson
b) Goldstein
c) Nikola Tesla
d) Aston
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: J.J Thompson introduced mass spectrometers. Aston modified the instrument to make it
more accurate
3.The inability of a lens to form a white image of a white object is known as ________
a) Spherical Aberration
b) Chromatic Aberration
c) Monochromatic Aberration
d) Coma
Answer: b
4. Which of the following options are correct in terms of wavelength for the different types of IR
spectrometer?
a) Near IR: 0.8 – 2.5 mm
b) Mid IR: 0.8 – 2.5 mm
c) Far IR: 2.5 – 50 mm
d) Mid IR: 50 – 100 mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wavelength of near IR is 0.8 – 2.5 mm and for mid IR it is 2.5 – 50 mm. The wavelength of
far IR is 50 – 1000 mm.
5. In mass spectrometer, the sample that has to be analysed is bombarded with which of the following?
a) Protons
b) Electrons
c) Neutrons
d) Alpha particles
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In mass spectrometer, the sample which is to be analysed is bombarded with electrons. As
a result, ions are produced.
SESSION QUIZ 8
The noise due to random behaviour of charge carriers is
a. Shot noise
b. Partition noise
c. Industrial noise
d. Flicker noise
ANSWER: (a) Shot noise
2) Transit time noise is
a. Low frequency noise
b. High frequency noise
c. Due to random behavior of carrier charges
d. Due to increase in reverse current in the device
ANSWER: (b) High frequency noise

3. Figure of merit γ is
a. Ratio of output signal to noise ratio to input signal to noise ratio
b. Ratio of input signal to noise ratio to output signal to noise ratio
c. Ratio of output signal to input signal to a system
d. Ratio of input signal to output signal to a system
ANSWER: (a) Ratio of output signal to noise ratio to input signal to noise ratio
4. The noise voltage (Vn) and the signal bandwidth (B) are related as
a. Vn is directly proportional to bandwidth
b. Vn is directly proportional to √bandwidth
c. Vn is inversely proportional to absolute temperature
d. Vn is inversely proportional to bandwidth
ANSWER: (b) Vn is directly proportional to √bandwidth
5. Noise factor for a system is defined as the ratio of

a. Input noise power (Pni) to output noise power (Pno)
b. Output noise power (Pno) to input noise power (Pni)
c. Output noise power (Pno) to input signal power (Psi)
d. Output signal power (Pso) to input noise power (Pni)
ANSWER: (b) Output noise power (Pno) to input noise power (Pni)
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SESSION QUIZ 9
1. The noise temperature at a resistor depends upon

a. Resistance value
b. Noise power
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (b) Noise power
2) Notch filter is a
a. Band pass filter
b. Band stop filter
c. Low pass filter
d. High pass filter
ANSWER: (b) Band stop filter
3) Noise is added to a signal in a communication system
a. At the receiving end
b. At transmitting antenna
c. In the channel
d. During regeneration of the information
ANSWER: (c) In the channel
4) Noise power at the resistor is affected by the value of the resistor as

a. Directly proportional to the value of the resistor
b. Inversely proportional to the value of the resistor
c. Unaffected by the value of the resistor
d. Becomes half as the resistance value is doubled
ANSWER: (c) Unaffected by the value of the resistor
5) Low frequency noise is

a. Transit time noise
b. Flicker noise
c. Shot noise
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (b) Flicker noise
UNIT 2
SESSION QUIZ 10
1. Which of the following is the principle of Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy?
a) Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in vapour state and are excited to higher states
b) Medium absorbs radiation and transmitted radiation is measured
c) Colour is measured
d) Colour is simply observed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Atoms in gaseous state absorb the radiation and are excited to a higher state.
Since the higher state is unstable the atom returns the ground state with the emission of
radiation which is measured.
2. In Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy, which of the following is the generally used radiation
source?
a) Tungsten lamp
b) Xenon mercury arc lamp
c) Hydrogen or deuterium discharge lamp
d) Hollow cathode lamp
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hollow cathode lamp is the source used in Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy. It
emits stable and intense radiation.
3. In Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy, with what material is the cathode in Hollow cathode
lamp constructed?
a) Tungsten
b) Quartz
c) Element to be investigated
d) Aluminium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cathode in Hollow cathode lamp is constructed of the element to be

investigated. The anode is made of tungsten
4. How can the intensity of radiation be increased in Hollow cathode lamp?
a) Addition of non-conductive protective shield of mica
b) Addition of nitrogen to neon or argon in the lamp
c) Increasing the pressure of the filling gas
d) Changing the metal of the anode
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The intensity of radiation is increased in Hollow cathode lamp by the addition of a
non-conductive protective shield of mica. The protective shield can be made of glass too.
5. Which of the following is the function of the chopper in Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy?
a) To split the beam into two
b) To break the steady light into a pulsating light
c) To filter unwanted components
d) To reduce the sample into atomic state
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The function of the chopper in Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy is to break the
steady light into pulsating light. It is a rotating wheel placed between the flame and the source.
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SESSION QUIZ 11
1. Which of the following is the function of the Flame or Emission system in Atomic Absorption
Spectroscopy?
b) To break the steady light into pulsating light
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The function of Flame or Emission system in Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy is to

reduce the sample into atomic state. In Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy, the production of
atomic vapour by flame is the most important phase.
2. Atomic absorption spectroscopy is also called as Absorption Flame Photometry.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy, sample is sprayed into the flame. Hence, it is
called Absorption Flame Photometry.
3. Which of the following is not a component of the emission system in Flame photometer?
a) Burner
b) Atomiser
c) Fuel gases and their regulation
d) Chopper
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Chopper is not a component of the emission system in Flame photometer. The
parts of flame photometer are burner, atomiser, fuel gases and their regulation and flame.
4. Which of the following is the function of the atomiser in the emission system of Atomic
Absorption Spectroscopy?
b) To break the steady light into pulsating light
c) To break large mass of liquid into small drops
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The function of atomiser in the emission system of Atomic Absorption

Spectroscopy is to break large mass of liquid into small drops. It also introduces liquid sample
into the flame at a stable rate.
5. Which of the following is not a fuel used in flame photometry?
a) Acetylene
b) Propane
c) Hydrogen
d) Camphor oil
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The commonly used fuel gases in flame photometry are acetylene, propane and
hydrogen. Oxygen supply is given to the fuel gases.
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SESSION QUIZ 12
1. Which of the following is not the requirement of a good flame in flame photometer?
a) Liquid sample must be evaporated to form solid residue
b) Solid residue must decompose to form atoms
c) Atoms must be produced such that they have the ability to get excited to higher states
d) Atoms must be produced such that they are in stable state
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Atoms must be produced such that they have the ability to get excited to higher
states. These atoms in higher states return to ground state with the emission of photons.
2. Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy is used for the analysis of metals.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy is used for the analysis of metals.
3. Which of the following options explains the process of ‘sputtering’ that occurs in Hollow
Cathode Lamp?
a) Positive ions collide with cathode surface and metal atoms from cathode are ejected
b) Negative ions collide with cathode surface and metal atoms from anode are ejected
c) Positive ions collide with negative ions and metal atoms from anode are ejected
d) Positive ions collide with negative ions and photons are ejected
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When potential is applied across the electrode, the gas filled in tube ionises and
flow of current occurs. Positive ions collide with negatively charged cathode surface and metal
atoms from a cathode are ejected.
4. At what pressure should the gases in the sealed tube be maintained in the Hollow cathode
lamp?
a) 1 to 5 torr
b) 20 to 30 torr
c) 40 to 50 torr
d) 50 to 55 torr
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It consists of a cylindrical cathode and an anode made of tungsten. The tube is
sealed and neon and argon are filled at a pressure of 1 to 5 torr.
5. How can the intensity of radiation be increased in Hollow cathode lamp?

a) Addition of non-conductive protective shield of mica
b) Addition of nitrogen to neon or argon in the lamp
c) Increasing the pressure of the filling gas
d) Changing the metal of the anode
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The intensity of radiation is increased in Hollow cathode lamp by the addition of a
non-conductive protective shield of mica. The protective shield can be made of glass too.
SESSION QUIZ 14
1. Raman effect is scattering of ________
a) Atoms
b) Molecules
c) Protons
d) Photons
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The inelastic scattering of a photon by a molecule that is raised to higher
energy levels is called the Raman effect. It was discovered by C.V. Raman.
2. The elastic scattering of photons is called as ______

a) Atmospheric scattering
b) Rayleigh Scattering
c) Conserved Scattering
d) Raman Scattering
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The elastic scattering by a material is called the Rayleigh Scattering. The
inelastically scattered photons are called as Raman scattered photons.
3. Which of the following cannot be conserved during Raman scattering?

a) Total Energy
b) Momentum
c) Kinetic Energy
d) Electronic Energy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Raman scattering is the inelastic scattering of a photon by a molecule. In
inelastic scattering, the Kinetic energy is not conserved.
4. How many degrees of freedom does a chemical compound of N atoms have?

a) 2N
b) 2N + 1
c) 3N
d) 3N + 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For any given chemical compound, there are a total of 3N degrees of freedom,
where N is the number of atoms in the compound.
5. In Raman spectroscopy, the radiation lies in the ________

a) Microwave Region
b) Visible Region
c) UV Region
d) X-ray Region
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The radiations used in the Raman spectroscopy lie in the visible region or the
low infrared region. They are high intensity beams. He-Ne laser is used in Raman
spectroscopy for the production of high intensity light.
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SESSION QUIZ 15
1. The change in frequency is due to the transition between vibrational or rotational energy
levels.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Raman effect, 99 % of the light has the same frequency while less than 1%
of the light’s frequency is changed due to the transition between vibrational or rotational
energy levels.
2. The Raman spectrum is said to consist of Strokes lines when ________

a) Δv> 0
b) Δv< 0
c) Δv = 0
d) Does not depend on Δv
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: We know, Δv = vi – vs. Thus, when Δv> 0, the Raman effect is said to consist of
Strokes lines and when it is negative Raman effect is said to consist of anti-strokes lines.
3. The Rama shift generally lies between ________

a) 100 – 1000 cm-1
b) 100 – 2000 cm-1
c) 100 – 3000 cm-1
d) 100 – 4000 cm-1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Rama effect generally lies between the range 100 – 4000 cm -1, which falls
in far and near infrared regions of the spectrum.
4. Raman lines are ________

a) Weak
b) Strong
c) Curved
d) Blurry
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The lines observed in the Raman effect are generally weak. Thus, long
exposures are required with conventional light source.
5. Which of the following stands for the Rayleigh scattering in the Raman spectra shown
below?
a) X
b) Y
c) Z
d) None
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the shown spectra, X stands for the Strokes lines, Y stands for the Rayleigh
scattering and Z stands for the anti-strokes lines.
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SESSION QUIZ 16
1. The most commonly used laser for Raman spectroscopy is ___________

a) ND: YAG
b) Ruby laser
c) He-Ne laser
d) Semiconductor Laser
Answer: c
Explanation: The most commonly used laser in Raman spectroscopy is He-Ne laser (632.8
nm). Lasers are used as they possess the advantages of providing high intensity of light
collimated in a particular direction.
2. Which of the following lines are most intense?

a) Stokes lines
b) Rayleigh-scattered lines
c) Anti-strokes lines
d) All have same intensity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Rayleigh-scattered radiations are considerably more intense than either of
the other two types – Strokes lines and Anti-Strokes lines.
3. For a particular vibrational mode to appear in the Raman spectrum, what must change?
a) Frequency of radiation
b) Intensity of radiation
c) Molecule’s shape
d) Molecule’s polarizability
Answer: d
Explanation: For a particular vibrational mode to appear in the Raman spectrum, the
molecule’s polarizability must change during the course of the vibration.
4. Infrared and Raman spectra are complementary to each other.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The given statement is true because of their different selection rules for
activity. A change in polarizability must occur for a vibration to be Raman-active, but for a
vibration o be Infrared-active, there should be a change in dipole moment.
5. Mass spectrometers are used to determine which of the following?
a) Composition in sample
b) Concentration of elements in sample
c) Relative mass of atoms
d) Properties of sample
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mass spectrometers are used to determine the relative mass of atoms and molecules.
Aston made the instrument more accurate.
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SESSION QUIZ 17
1. Which of the following organic compound with molecular formula C 3H C12 exhibits only
one signal in the IH NMR spectrum?
a) 2, 2-dichloropropane
b) 1, 2-dichloropropane
c) 1, 3-dichloropropane
d) 1, 1-dichloropropane
Answer: a
Explanation: Only (a) compound has all chemically equivalent hydrogen. So, give only one
peak.
2. The 1H NMR spectrum of CH3OCHCICH2Cl will exhibit ________

a) A three proton doublet. One proton singlet and a two proton doublet
b) A three proton singlet. One proton singlet and a two proton doublet
c) A three proton singlet. One proton triplet and a two proton doublet
d) A three proton triplet. One proton triplet and a two proton triplet
Answer: c
Explanation: The 1H NMR spectrum of CH3OCHCICH2Cl will exhibit three proton singlet,
one proton triplet and two proton doublet.
No. of peaks = n + 1
(n = no. of neighbouring chemically equivalent Hydrogen nuclii)
3. Which of the following 1H-NMR spectrum of compound with molecular formula

C4H9NO2 shows delta 5.30 (broad, IH), 4.10(q, 2H), 2.80 (d, 3H), 1.20 (t, 3H) ppm?
a) CH3NHCOOCH2CH3
b) CH3CH2NHCOOCH3
c) CH3OCH2CONHCH3
d) CH3CH2OCH2CONH2
Answer: a
Explanation: C4H9NO2;
chemical shift = 5.30 (broad, 1H)
chemical shift = 4.10 (q, 2H)
chemical shift = 2.80 (d, 3H)
chemical shift = 1.20 (t, 3H)
4. The distance between the centers of the peaks of doublet is called as?
a) Coupling constant
b) Spin constant
c) Spin-spin coupling
d) Chemical shift
Answer: a
Explanation: When the proton under observation is split into several peaks by neighboring
protons, the distance between these peaks is a constant called the coupling constant (J).
Any two sets of protons that exhibit the same coupling constant are most likely splitting
eachother signals and are said to be coupled.
5. H2, CH4, C2H6 and C6H6 exhibit which PMR spectra?

a) Singlet
b) Doublet
c) Triplet
d) Quintet
Answer: a
Explanation: All structures have only one type of hydrogen. So, all give single peak.
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SESSION QUIZ 18
1. Which of the following is not a type of NMR spectrometer?

a) Minimal type
b) Maximal type
c) Multipurpose type
d) Wideline type
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximal type is not a type of NMR spectrometer. Minimal type, Multipurpose type
and Wideline type are types of NMR spectrometer.
2. Which of the following NMR spectrometers have stressed reliability and ease of operation?
a) Minimal type
b) Maximal type
d) Wideline type
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Minimal type has stressed the reliability and ease of operation. It uses a permanent
magnet.
3. Which of the following type of NMR spectrometer uses a frequency synthesizer to generate
RF fields?
a) Minimal type
b) Maximal type
d) Wideline type
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wideline type NMR spectrometer uses a frequency synthesizer to generate RF
fields. It is a type of continuous wave NMR spectrometer.
4. In wideline NMR spectrometers, which of the following has to be supplied to the

electromagnet?
a) Slowly varying low voltage
b) Rapidly varying low voltage
c) Slowly varying scan voltage
d) Rapidly varying scan voltage
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In wideline NMR spectrometers, slowly varying scan voltage has to be
supplied to the electromagnet. This is injected using a regulator.
5. Which among the following NMR spectrometer is the more diverse spectrometer?
a) Minimal type
b) Maximal type
d) Wideline type
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Multipurpose type NMR spectrometer is more diverse. These instruments are
designed mainly for research.
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 19-21.09.21
1. Permanent magnet cannot be used in wideline type NMR spectrometer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Permanent magnet can be used in wideline type NMR spectrometer. Compact,
light-weight electromagnet can also be used.
2. Which of the following NMR spectrometer emphasises on high performance versatility

with cost being a secondary consideration?
a) Minimal type
b) Maximal type
d) Wideline type
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Multipurpose type is mainly used for research. Hence, it emphasises on high
performance versatility with cost being a secondary consideration.
3. Which of the following NMR spectrometer does not require a power supply and cooling
system?
a) Minimal type
b) Maximal type
d) Wideline type
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Minimal type NMR spectrometer uses a permanent magnet. Hence, it does not
require a power supply and cooling system.
4. Minimal type of NMR spectrometer is inexpensive.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Minimal type of NMR spectrometer is inexpensive. It uses a permanent
magnet and does not require a power supply.
5. Which of the following is used as a coolant for magnets in continuous-wave NMR

spectrometer?
a) Water
b) Liquid He
c) Liquid Na
d) Heavy water
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Water is used as a coolant for magnets in continuous-wave NMR
spectrometer. Liquid He is used for FT-NMR spectrometers.
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SESSION QUIZ 20
1. NMR spectroscopy is used for determining structure in which of the following materials?
a) Radioactive materials
b) Insoluble chemical compounds
c) Liquids
d) Gases
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: NMR spectroscopy is used for determining structure in liquids. It is also used
for determining the structure in soluble chemical compounds.
2. NMR is the study of the absorption of __________ by nuclei in a magnetic field.
a) Radioactive radiation
b) IR radiation
c) Radio frequency radiation
d) Microwaves
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: NMR is the study of absorption of radio frequency radiation by nuclei in a
magnetic field. For a particular nucleus, an NMR absorption spectrum may consist of one to
several groups of absorption lines.
3. NMR spectrometer provides ____________ and _____________ method of determining

structure in soluble chemical compounds.
a) Accurate, destructive
b) Accurate, non-destructive
c) Inaccurate, destructive
d) Inaccurate, non-destructive
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: NMR spectrometer provides an accurate and non-destructive method of
determining structure in soluble chemical compounds. For a particular nucleus an NMR
absorption spectrum may consist of one to several groups of absorption lines.
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4. NMR spectroscopy indicates the chemical nature of the __________ and spatial
positions of _______
a) Electrons, Protons
b) Neutrons, electrons
c) Nuclei, electrons
d) Nuclei, neighbouring nuclei
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: NMR spectroscopy indicates the chemical nature of the nuclei and spatial
positions of neighbouring nuclei. It is one of the most powerful techniques for chemical
analysis.
5. In NMR spectroscopy, the spinning nuclei in a strong magnetic field must be irradiated by
which of the following?
a) Perpendicular and stronger field
b) Perpendicular and weaker field
c) Parallel and stronger field
d) Parallel and weaker field
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In NMR spectroscopy, the spinning nuclei in a strong magnetic field must be
irradiated by a weaker field which is perpendicular to it. This permits the identification of
atomic configurations in molecules.
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SESSION QUIZ 21
1. Interaction between matter and electromagnetic radiation can be observed by subjecting

a substance to magnetic fields in which of the following manner?
a) Both fields should be stationary
b) Both fields should be varying
c) One field should be stationary and the other should be varying
d) It must be subjected to only one field
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Interaction between matter and electromagnetic radiation can be observed by
subjecting a substance to two magnetic fields. One magnetic field must be stationary and
the other field must be varying at some radio frequency.
2. When energy is absorbed by the sample, the absorption can be observed as a change in
signal developed by which of the following components?
a) Amplifier
b) Photodetector
c) GM counter
d) Radiofrequency detector
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When energy is absorbed by the sample, the absorption can be observed as a
change in signal developed by a radiofrequency detector. It is then given to an amplifier.
3. Which of the following are considered to be the lowest form of Electromagnetic radiation?
a) IR radiation
b) Micro waves
c) UV radiation
d) Radio waves
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Radio waves are considered to be the lowest form of Electromagnetic
radiation. NMR uses radio frequency radiation for detection of the structure of substances.
4. The amount of energy available in radio frequency radiation is sufficient for which of the
following?
a) Excite an atom
b) Vibrate an atom
c) Vibrate a molecule
d) Affect the nuclear spin of an atom
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The amount of energy available in radio frequency radiation is sufficient for
affecting the nuclear spin of an atom. It constitutes the most fundamental part of
spectroscopy.
5. Nuclei having either the number of protons or neutrons as odd have _______ spin.
a) Integral spin
b) Half integral spin
c) Zero spin
d) Positive spin
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Nuclei having either the number of protons or neutrons as odd have half-
integral spin. Examples are H1 and B11.
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SESSION QUIZ 22
1. If the number of protons or neutrons is even the spin of the nucleus will be which of the
following?
a) Integral spin
c) Zero spin
d) Positive spin
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the number of protons or neutrons is even the spin of the nucleus will be
zero. Examples are C12 and O16.
2. The difference between the field necessary for resonance in the sample and in some
arbitrary a chosen compound is which of the following?
a) Field shift
b) Matrix effects
c) Chemical shift
d) Resonance shift
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The difference between the field necessary for resonance in the sample and in
some arbitrary chosen compound is called a chemical shift. Chemical shift is expressed in
parts per million.
3. Chemical shift allows a chemist to obtain the idea of how atoms are joined together.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Chemical shift allows a chemist to obtain the idea of how atoms are joined
together. It is also possible to know the number of particular atoms present in a molecule.
4. Elementary particles such as electrons and nucleus have the property of spin.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Elementary particles such as electrons and nucleus have the property of spin.
They are known to behave as if they rotate about an axis.
View Answer
Answer: b
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1. Electron spin resonance involves detecting the detection of a physical phenomenon of
_________ of electromagnetic radiation.
a) Adsorption
b) Absorption
c) Radiation
d) Reflection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electron spin resonance uses the detection of a physical phenomenon of

absorption of electromagnetic radiation. Paramagnetic species absorb EM radiation.
2. Electron spin resonance is also known as which of the following?
a) Electron paramagnetic resonance
b) Electron diamagnetic resonance
c) Electron paramagnetic reoccurrence
d) Electron diamagnetic reoccurrence
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electron spin resonance is also known as electron paramagnetic resonance. It is a
valuable research analysis tool.
3. The value of the magnetic moment is known as which of the following?
a) Thompson magneton
b) Bohr magneton
c) Goldstein magneton
d) Rutherford magneton
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electron spin resonance is based on the spin associated with the electron. There is
a magnetic moment the value of which is known as Bohr magneton.
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4. When a strong magnetic field is applied to the unpaired spins of an electron, the electrons
will be split into two groups.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When a strong magnetic field is applied to the unpaired spins of an electron, the
electrons will be split into two groups. Electron spin resonance is based on the spin associated
with the electron.
5. When the electrons are aligned either parallel or antiparallel to the direction of the external
magnetic field, the electrons will precess about the axis at a frequency that is proportional to
a) Applied magnetic field
b) Electron magnetic moment
c) Applied magnetic field and electron magnetic moment
d) Neither applied magnetic field not electron magnetic moment
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the electrons are aligned either parallel or antiparallel to the direction of
external magnetic field, the electrons will start to precess about the axis at a frequency that is
proportional to both applied magnetic field and electron magnetic moment.
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1. If a weaker radiofrequency alternating magnetic field, having the frequency of precession of

the electron is applied at right angles to fixed magnetic field, which of the following occurs?
a) Fragmentation
b) Scattering
c) Resonance
d) Absorption
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Resonance occurs when a weaker radiofrequency alternating magnetic field with
the frequency of precession of the electron is applied at right angles to a fixed magnetic field.
2. If the population of ground state exceeds the population of the excited state a net absorption
of __________ radiation takes place.
a) Infrared
b) Ultraviolet
c) Microwave
d) X-ray
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the population of ground state exceeds the population of the excited state a net
absorption of microwave radiation takes place. The signal would be proportional to the
population difference.
3. The population ratio can be given by which of the following laws?
a) Bohr law
b) Beer-Lambert law
c) Kelvin law
d) Boltzmann law
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The population ratio can be given by Boltzmann law. ‘k’ is the Boltzmann constant.
4. The sensitivity of measurement is greatly enhanced by using which of the following?
a) High magnetic field
b) Low magnetic field
c) High electric field

d) Low electric field
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sensitivity of measurement is greatly enhanced by using a high magnetic field.
Low magnetic field reduces sensitivity.
5. ESR sensitivity increases with __________ temperature and with _________ magnetic field
strength.
a) Increasing, increasing
b) Increasing, decreasing
c) Decreasing, increasing
d) Decreasing, decreasing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: ESR sensitivity increases with decreasing temperature and with increasing
magnetic field strength. ESR sensitivity means net absorption.
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1. ESR is remarkably sensitive when compared with NMR.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ESR is remarkably sensitive when compared with NMR. NMR stands for Nuclear
Magnetic Resonance spectroscopy.
2. Reflex klystron is used in which of the following frequency ranges?
a) 1000 to 2000 MHz
b) 1000 to 10000 MHz
c) 1000 to 15000 MHz
d) 1000 to 20000 MHz
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Reflex klystron is used in the frequency range of 1000 to 20000 MHz. It is a low
power device.
3. Under ideal conditions, a commercial X-band spectrometer can detect of the order of which
of the following number of spins at room temperature?
a) 101
b) 105
c) 1010
d) 1012
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Under ideal conditions, a X-band spectrometer is capable of detecting of the order
of 1012 spins at room temperature. ESR is very sensitive.
4. Waveguides look like _________ cross-section pipes with dimensions of the order of the
wavelength to be transmitted.
a) Triangular
b) Circular
c) Rectangular
d) Square
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Waveguides look like rectangular cross-section pipes with dimensions of the order
of the wavelength to be transmitted. Waveguides cannot be too small or too large.
5. Klystron can generate power in which of the following ranges?
a) 10 – 100 mW
b) 10 – 200 mW
c) 10 – 500 mW
d) 100 – 400 mW
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Klystron can generate power in the range of 10-500 mW. It is a low power device
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1. Which of the following is used as detector crystal in ESR spectrometer?

a) Silicon rectifier
b) Silicon tungsten rectifier
c) Silicon boron rectifier
d) Silicon quartz rectifier
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Silicon tungsten rectifier is used as detector crystal in ESR spectrometer. This is the
commonly used detector.
2. After detection, the resulting signal will have which of the following frequencies?
a) 1 kHz
b) 10 kHz
c) 100 kHz
d) 1000 kHz
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: After detection, the resulting signal will have 100 kHz. It contains ESR information.
3. Which of the following is the modulation amplitude range of ESR spectrometer?
a) 1mG to 10G
b) 2mG to 15G
c) 3mG to 20G
d) 5mG to 40G
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 5mG to 40G is the modulation amplitude range of ESR spectrometer. It is applied
in steps.
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4. In which of the following ranges will the receiver time constant of the ESR spectrometer lie?
a) 0 to 10 s
b) 0.3 to 1 s
c) 0.03 to 10 s
d) 0.003 to 100 s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The receiver time constant of the ESR spectrometer lies from 0.003 to 100 s. It is
one of the important parameters of ESR spectrometer.
5. Which of the following is the oscilloscope field width of the ESR spectrometer?
a) 0.2 to 40 G
b) 0.1 to 20 G
c) 0 to 10 G
d) 0.01 to 20 G
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The oscilloscope field width of the ESR spectrometer lies between 0.2 to 40 G. it is
one of the important parameters.
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1. The magnet used in ESR spectrometer provides a magnetic field which can be varied from
________ to _______
a) 20 mgauss, 100mgauss
b) 200 mgauss, 20kgauss
c) 20 mgauss, 20kgauss
d) 100 mgauss, 10kgauss
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The magnet used in ESR spectrometer provides a magnetic field which can be
varied from 200 mgauss to 20kgauss. It is calibrated in steps.
2. Which of the following sensor is used in ESR spectrometer?
a) Hall-effect sensor
b) Load cell
c) Strain gauge
d) Bourdon gauge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hall-effect sensor is used in ESR spectrometer. It is given as an input to the

summation circuit.
3. Which of the following oscillator is used as 1230 Hz oscillator?

a) Hartley oscillator
b) Crystal oscillator
c) RC oscillator
d) Wien bridge oscillator
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Wien bridge oscillator is used as 1230 Hz oscillator. The output level is internally
regulated.
4. What does AFC stand for?
a) Auto frequency correct
b) Automated frequency correct
c) Automatic frequency control
d) Automatic frequency circuit
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: AFC stands for automatic frequency control. A 70 kHz AFC is used.
5. Klystron requires _______ for the klystron beam and up to _____ for the klystron reflector.
a) +400 V, -730 V
b) +650 V, -400 V
c) +200 V,-530 V
d) +180 V,-270 V
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Klystron requires +650 V for the klystron beam and up to -400 V for the klystron
reflector. Klystron is also known as reflex oscillator.
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1. The klystron body is insulated from ground by an insulating gas casket.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The klystron body is insulated from ground by an insulating gas casket. It is placed
between klystron flange and water cooling flange.
2. The 100 kHz oscillator acts as which of the following?
a) Transmitter
b) Receiver
c) Modulator
d) Transmitter and receiver
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The 100 kHz oscillator acts as the transmitter and receiver. It is crystal controlled.
3. Which of the following removes residual harmonics from the phase-detected signal?
a) High-pass filter
b) Low-pass filter
c) Band-pass filter
d) Chopper
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Low-pass filter removes residual harmonics from the phase-detected signal. It
removes the residual 100 kHz if any.
4. The oscilloscope is used to display the klystron mode.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The oscilloscope is used to display the klystron mode. It provides visual
observation of rapidly changing signals.
5. In the sample cell, which of the following is selected to give maximum optical transmission in
the UV-visible region?
a) Tungsten
b) Quartz
c) Phosphor
d) Potassium
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the sample cell, quartz is selected to give maximum optical transmission in the
UV-visible region. Aqueous sample cells are specially designed
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 29
1. The chromatographic method of separating biochemical mixture of compounds, based on
highly specific biological interactions is referred to as ______________
a) thin layer chromatography
b) ion-exchange chromatography
c) affinity chromatography
d) gel permeation chromatography
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Affinity chromatography is a method based on separation of molecules based on

specific biological interaction such as antigen-antibody, enzyme-substrate etc. Thin layer
chromatography is a technique which separates molecule based on their solubility in stationary
or mobile phase. Ion-exchange chromatography is a technique based on separation of
molecules using the ions present in them. Gel permeation chromatography is based on
separation of molecules based on their size.
2. Which of the following is not a highly specific biological interaction to be used in affinity
chromatography?
a) Cations-anions
b) Antigen-antibody
c) Enzyme-substrate
d) Receptor-ligand
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cations-anions are used in ion-exchange chromatography to separate molecules

based on the ions present in them. Antigen-antibody, enzyme-substrate, receptor-ligand are
used in affinity chromatography to separate highly specific biological interactions molecules.
3. Which of this is not true while selecting a solid matrix or column during affinity
chromatography?
a) The matrix should interact weakly with enzymes
b) The matrix should be based on inorganic compounds
c) The matrix should exhibit good flow property
d) The matrix should be highly porous
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The matrix should be based on inorganic compounds is true in case of ion-
exchange chromatography. The following are true in case of matrix selection during affinity
chromatography.
• The matrix should interact weakly with enzymes in order to minimize non-specific adsorption
of other enzymes.
• The matrix should exhibit good flow property.
• The matrix should be highly porous when there is relatively weak affinity between the ligand
and protein.
• The matrix should be chemically and mechanically stable.
• The matrix must possess certain chemical groups.
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4. In affinity chromatography, the matrix should be chemically and mechanically stable.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In affinity chromatography, the matrix selected should be chemically and

mechanically stable because of coupling conditions and varying conditions pH, ionic strength,
temperature and presence of denaturants which may be needed for adsorption or elution. Due
to this, it permits the repeated use of certain specific adsorbents. Hence the above statement is
true.
5. The matrix selected during affinity chromatography must possess certain chemical groups.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In affinity chromatography, the matrix must possess certain chemical groups which
can be activated or modified in order to allow the chemical linkage of variety of ligands under
conditions which are harmful to the matrix. Hence the above statement is true.
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 30
1. The first step in preparation of affinity chromatography column is _____________
a) ligand attachment to matrix
b) coupling of aromatic amines to matrix

c) activation process
d) precipitation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Activation process is the first step in preparation in affinity chromatography

column which involves introduction of reactive groups into the chemically inert polymeric
matrix material. The second step is attaching the ligand to the matrix covalently. After the
activation, the activated matrix may be coupled to primary aliphatic or aromatic amines. Elution
is the process of removing the adsorbed material from the column. This is the last step in
affinity chromatography.
2. __________ refers to eluting a compound by creating a competition between the bounded

enzymes with its suitable complimentary protein in solution.
a) Specific elution
b) Nonspecific elution
c) Filtration
d) Dialysis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In affinity chromatography, when the elution is done by creating a competition

between the bounded enzymes with its suitable complementary protein in solution, the elution
is referred to as specific elution. Nonspecific elution is done when specific ligand fail to elute
desired enzyme. Filtration is separation method based on the size. Dialysis is a separation
technique in which large molecules are retained in the membrane eluting the smaller
molecules.
3. Which among these is not a way of non-specific elution?
a) Solvent change
b) pH change
c) Reversible denaturation
d) Competition to suitable complementary protein
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Nonspecific elution can be done by using solvent or buffer changes, pH or ionic
strength changes, the application of chaotropic reagents, temperature changes, reversible
denaturation and destruction of spacer arm. Competition to suitable complementary protein is
a type of specific elution.
4. Acetylcholine esterase can be purified by using affinity chromatography with the use of
_______ as a ligand.
a) ATP
b) NADP
c) Acrdinium
d) Con A
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For acetylcholine esterase, acrdinium can be used as ligand. ATP can be used as
ligand to purify adenosine kinase. Alcohol dehydrogenase is purified by using NADP as a ligand.
Con A and mannose is used to purify acid phosphatase.
5. Acid phosphatase: Mannose:: Alpha amylase: ______________
a) KCl
b) Glycogen
c) Adenosine
d) Methyl-D-mannoside
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For purifying acid phosphatase, the eluent used is Mannose. In the same way,
alpha amylase can be purified by using glycogen as an eluent. Adenosine is used as an eluent
for purifying adenosine kinase and methyl-D-mannoside is used as an eluent for acetylcholine
esterase.
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 31
1. Which of the following is not true about High pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC)?
a) It requires high pressure for the separation of the specious
b) There is no need to vaporise the samples
c) It is performed in columns
d) It has high sensitivity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In High pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC), samples need to be vaporised. It

has high sensitivity.
2. High pressure liquid chromatography can be performed only in columns.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: High pressure liquid chromatography can be performed only in columns. This is
because the application of high pressure in the open bed will not be effective.
3. Which of the following is not an advantage of Syringe type pumps used in High pressure
liquid chromatography?
a) Independent of viscosity
b) Pulse-less flow
c) High pressure capability
d) Unlimited solvent capacity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The limitation of Syringe type pump is that it has a limited solvent capacity and is
inconvenient when solvents are to be changed.
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4. Which of the following is not true about solvent programming which is done in high
performance liquid chromatography?
a) It provides unequal bandwidths
b) It provides fast overall separation
c) It provides maximum resolution
d) It provides maximum sensitivity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solvent programming is done to provide equal bandwidths. It provides maximum
sensitivity for every solute in the sample.
5. Which of the following pulse damper takes up some amount of the pulsation energy which is
released to provide smooth pressure without pulsations?
a) Flexible bellows or compressible gas passed through tee columns
b) Flexible inert diaphragm
c) Electronic pulse damper
d) Electrical pulse damper
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flexible bellows or compressible gas passed through tee columns take up some of
the pulsation energy which is released to provide smooth pressure without pulsations. Its main
purpose is to avoid pulses.
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 32
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the syringe pump used in high pressure liquid
chromatography?
a) Pressure capability is high
b) Maintenance is frequent
c) Limited reservoir capability
d) Slight change of flow rate when extremely high pressure compresses the solvent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In syringe pumps, maintenance is infrequent. However, it has high pressure
capability.
2. Syringe pumps used in High pressure liquid chromatography are most suitable for which of
the following columns?
a) Capillary columns
b) Guard columns
c) Short-fast columns
d) Small bore columns
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Syringe pumps used in High pressure liquid chromatography are most suitable for
small bore columns. It is the most commonly used piston type pump.
3. Gravity feed method for solvent delivery is not used with narrow bore columns packed with
fine mesh particles.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gravity feed method for solvent delivery is not used with narrow bore columns
packed with fine mesh particles. This is because they cannot deliver solvent at high pressure.
4. Which of the following cannot be done to reduce ripple in High pressure liquid
chromatography?
a) Using bellows
b) Using restrictors
c) Using long nylon tube between pump and column
d) Avoiding the use of the solvent pump
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solvent pumps have to be used to reduce pulses in a solvent flow. When there is a
pulsed flow, the efficiency of column decreases.
5. Which of the following is not true about Hydraulic capacitance flow control system used in
HPLC?
a) It can be used only for liquids with low viscosity
b) It is irrespective of solvent compressibility
c) It maintains a constant flow
d) It smoothens high pressure pump pulsations
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydraulic capacitance flow control system used in HPLC is irrespective of the
solvent viscosity. It is also irrespective of the solvent compressibility.
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 33
SESSION QUIZ 21
1. Interaction between matter and electromagnetic radiation can be observed by subjecting

a substance to magnetic fields in which of the following manner?
a) Both fields should be stationary
b) Both fields should be varying
c) One field should be stationary and the other should be varying
d) It must be subjected to only one field
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Interaction between matter and electromagnetic radiation can be observed by
subjecting a substance to two magnetic fields. One magnetic field must be stationary and
the other field must be varying at some radio frequency.
2. When energy is absorbed by the sample, the absorption can be observed as a change in
signal developed by which of the following components?
a) Amplifier
b) Photodetector
c) GM counter
d) Radiofrequency detector
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When energy is absorbed by the sample, the absorption can be observed as a
change in signal developed by a radiofrequency detector. It is then given to an amplifier.
3. Which of the following are considered to be the lowest form of Electromagnetic radiation?
a) IR radiation
b) Micro waves
c) UV radiation
d) Radio waves
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Radio waves are considered to be the lowest form of Electromagnetic
radiation. NMR uses radio frequency radiation for detection of the structure of substances.
4. The amount of energy available in radio frequency radiation is sufficient for which of the
following?
a) Excite an atom
b) Vibrate an atom
c) Vibrate a molecule
d) Affect the nuclear spin of an atom
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The amount of energy available in radio frequency radiation is sufficient for
affecting the nuclear spin of an atom. It constitutes the most fundamental part of
spectroscopy.
5. Nuclei having either the number of protons or neutrons as odd have _______ spin.
a) Integral spin
c) Zero spin
d) Positive spin
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Nuclei having either the number of protons or neutrons as odd have half-
integral spin. Examples are H1 and B11.
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 34
SESSION QUIZ 22
1. If the number of protons or neutrons is even the spin of the nucleus will be which of the
following?
a) Integral spin
c) Zero spin
d) Positive spin
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the number of protons or neutrons is even the spin of the nucleus will be
zero. Examples are C12 and O16.
2. The difference between the field necessary for resonance in the sample and in some
arbitrary a chosen compound is which of the following?
a) Field shift
b) Matrix effects
c) Chemical shift
d) Resonance shift
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The difference between the field necessary for resonance in the sample and in
some arbitrary chosen compound is called a chemical shift. Chemical shift is expressed in
parts per million.
3. Chemical shift allows a chemist to obtain the idea of how atoms are joined together.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Chemical shift allows a chemist to obtain the idea of how atoms are joined
together. It is also possible to know the number of particular atoms present in a molecule.
4. Elementary particles such as electrons and nucleus have the property of spin.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Elementary particles such as electrons and nucleus have the property of spin.
They are known to behave as if they rotate about an axis.

View Answer
Answer: b
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 35

1. Electron spin resonance involves detecting the detection of a physical phenomenon of
_________ of electromagnetic radiation.
a) Adsorption
b) Absorption
c) Radiation
d) Reflection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electron spin resonance uses the detection of a physical phenomenon of

absorption of electromagnetic radiation. Paramagnetic species absorb EM radiation.
2. Electron spin resonance is also known as which of the following?
a) Electron paramagnetic resonance
b) Electron diamagnetic resonance

c) Electron paramagnetic reoccurrence
d) Electron diamagnetic reoccurrence
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electron spin resonance is also known as electron paramagnetic resonance. It is a

valuable research analysis tool.
3. The value of the magnetic moment is known as which of the following?
a) Thompson magneton
b) Bohr magneton
c) Goldstein magneton
d) Rutherford magneton
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electron spin resonance is based on the spin associated with the electron. There is
a magnetic moment the value of which is known as Bohr magneton.
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4. When a strong magnetic field is applied to the unpaired spins of an electron, the electrons
will be split into two groups.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When a strong magnetic field is applied to the unpaired spins of an electron, the
electrons will be split into two groups. Electron spin resonance is based on the spin associated
with the electron.
5. When the electrons are aligned either parallel or antiparallel to the direction of the external
magnetic field, the electrons will precess about the axis at a frequency that is proportional to
a) Applied magnetic field
b) Electron magnetic moment
c) Applied magnetic field and electron magnetic moment
d) Neither applied magnetic field not electron magnetic moment
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the electrons are aligned either parallel or antiparallel to the direction of
external magnetic field, the electrons will start to precess about the axis at a frequency that is
proportional to both applied magnetic field and electron magnetic moment.
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 36
1. An electrochemical cell can only convert electrical energy to chemical energy.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An electrochemical cell can convert electrical energy to chemical energy and can
also convert electrical energy to chemical energy. There are two types of electrochemical cells-
Galvanic cell and Electrolytic cell.
2. An electrochemical cell generally consists of a cathode and an anode. Which of the following
statements is correct with respect to the cathode?
a) Oxidation occurs at the cathode
b) Electrons move into the cathode
c) Usually denoted by a negative sign
d) Is usually made up of insulating material
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cathodes are usually metal electrodes. It is the electrode where reduction takes
place. The cathode is the positive electrode in a galvanic cell and a negative electrode in an
electrolytic cell. Electrons move into the cathode.
3. When equilibrium is reached inside the two half-cells of the electrochemical cells, what is the
net voltage across the electrodes?
a) > 1
b) < 1
c) = 0
d) Not defined
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A half-cell is half of an electrochemical cell (electrolytic or galvanic), where either

oxidation or reduction occurs. At equilibrium, there is no transfer of electrons across the half
cells. Therefore, the potential difference between them is nil.
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4. Which of the following is not a generally used electrolyte in the salt bridges used to connect
the two half-cells of an electrochemical cell?
a) NaCl
b) KNO3
c) KCl
d) ZnSO4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A salt bridge is a device used to connect the oxidation and reduction half-cells of a
galvanic cell (a type of electrochemical cell). Strong electrolytes are generally used to make the
salt bridges in electrochemical cells. Since ZnSO4 is not a strong electrolyte, it is not used to
make salt bridges.
5. When no current is drawn through an electrochemical cell, the sum of the electrode
potentials of the two electrodes is called cell emf. True or False?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Emf of a cell is equal to the maximum potential difference across its electrodes,
which occurs when no current is drawn through the cell. It can also be defined as the net
voltage between the oxidation and reduction half-reactions.
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 37
1. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Electrochemical cells?
a) Cell potential is an extensive property
b) Cell potential is an intensive property
c) The Gibbs free energy of an electrochemical cell is an intensive property
d) Gibbs free energy is undefined for an electrochemical cell
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cell potential is an intensive property as it is independent of the amount of

material present. Gibbs free energy is defined for an electrochemical cell and is an extensive
property as it depends on the quantity of the material.
2. Which of the following factors does not affect the electrode potential of an electrode?
a) Nature of the electrode (metal)
b) Temperature of the solution
c) Molarity of the solution
d) Size of the electrode
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Electrode potential is the tendency of an electrode to accept or to lose electrons.

Electrode potential depends on the nature of the electrode, temperature of the solution and
the concentration of metal ions in the solution. It doesn’t depend on the size of the electrode.
3. Why are the saturated solutions of electrolytes for the salt bridge prepared in agar-agar jelly
or gelatin?
a) The jelly acts as an electrolyte

b) It helps the electrolytes to mix with the contents of the half cells
c) It helps maintain the electrical polarity between the two half-cell solutions
d) It keeps the electrolyte in semi-solid phase and prevents it from mixing with the two half-cell
solutions
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The salt bridge connects the two half-cell solutions to complete the circuit of the
electrochemical cell. The electrolytes of the salt bridge are generally prepared in agar-agar or
gelatin so that the electrolytes are kept in a semi-solid phase and do not mix with the half-cell
solutions and interfere with the electrochemical reaction.
4. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of a salt bridge?
a) Salt bridge joins the two halves of an electrochemical cell
b) It completes the inner circuit
c) It is filled with a salt solution (or gel)
d) It does not maintain electrical neutrality of the electrolytic solutions of the half-cells
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A salt bridge is a junction that connects the anodic and cathodic compartments in
a cell or electrolytic solution. It maintains electrical neutrality within the internal circuit,
preventing the cell from rapidly running its reaction to equilibrium.
5. Which of the following is not a type of electrochemical cell?
a) Voltaic cell
b) Photovoltaic cell
c) Electrolytic cell
d) Fuel Cell
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A Voltaic or Galvanic cell is a type of electrochemical cell that converts chemical
energy into electrical energy. Photovoltaic cells are used to convert light energy into electrical
energy. An Electrolytic cell is a type of electrochemical cell that converts electrical energy into
chemical energy. A fuel cell is an electrochemical cell that converts the chemical energy of a
fuel and an oxidizing agent into electricity.
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 38
1. What is the direction of flow of electrons in an electrolytic cell?
a) Anode to cathode externally
b) Anode to cathode internally
c) Cathode to anode externally
d) Cathode to anode in the solution
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An electrolytic cell is a type of electrochemical cell. An electrolytic cell converts

electrical energy into chemical energy. Electrons flow from anode to cathode through the
external supply in an electrolytic cell. In the solution, only ions flow and not the electrons.
2. Which of the following is a not a secondary cell?
a) Nickel-cadmium cell
b) Lead storage cell
c) Mercury cell
d) Leclanche cell
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A secondary battery (a series of cells) is one which can be charged, discharged into
a load, and recharged many times. Nickel-cadmium cell, Lead storage cell and Mercury cell are
examples of secondary cells. Leclanche cell is an example of a primary cell.
3. Which of the following statements regarding primary cells is false?
a) Primary cells cannot be recharged
b) They have low internal resistance
c) They have an irreversible chemical reaction
d) Their initial cost is cheap
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Primary cells cannot be used again and again. Since there is no fluid inside, these
cells are also known as dry cells. The internal resistance is high and the chemical reaction is
irreversible. Their initial cost is cheap.
4. What is the observation when the opposing external applied potential to an electrochemical
cell is greater than the cell’s potential?
a) The electrochemical cell behaves like an electrolytic cell
b) The electrochemical cell stops functioning
c) Only oxidation reactions occur in the cell
d) Only reduction reactions occur in the cell
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In an electrochemical cell, when an opposing externally potential is applied and

increased slowly, the reaction continues to take place. When the external potential is equal to
the potential of the cell, the reaction stops. Once the externally applied potential is greater
than the potential of the cell, the reaction goes in the opposite direction and the cell behaves
like an electrolytic cell.
5. Which of the following conditions are satisfied when the cell reaction in the electrochemical
cell is spontaneous?
a) ΔG° > 0
b) E°cell< 0
c) E°cell = 0
d) ΔG° < 0
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For all spontaneous chemical reactions, the change in Gibbs free energy (ΔG°) is
always negative. For a spontaneous reaction in an electrolytic cell, the cell potential (E°cell)
should be positive.
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 39
1. Which of the following is not a type of NMR spectrometer?
a) Minimal type
b) Maximal type
d) Wideline type
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximal type is not a type of NMR spectrometer. Minimal type, Multipurpose type
and Wideline type are types of NMR spectrometer.
2. Which of the following gas permeable membrane is used for carbon dioxide gas sensing
electrode?
a) Silicon rubber
b) PVC membrane
c) Fluorocarbon
d) Polythene
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gas permeable membrane used for carbon dioxide sensing electrode is silicon
rubber membrane. For each gas different membranes are used.
3. The response time of the biocatalytic membrane electrode is poor when used with complex
organic molecules.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The response time of the biocatalytic membrane electrode is good even when
used with complex organic molecules. But, the membrane is costly.
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4. Which of the following reference electrode is placed in the solution of carbon dioxide
electrode?
a) Calomel electrode
b) Silver/silver chloride electrode
c) Mercury/mercury sulphate electrode
d) Glass electrode
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A silver/silver chloride reference electrode is placed in the solution. A glass

electrode is also placed in the solution but it is not a reference electrode.
5. Biocatalytic membrane electrode cannot be used for the measurement of which of the
following gases?
a) Ammonia
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Hydrogen
d) Nitrogen
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Biocatalytic membranes cannot be used for the measurement of nitrogen. It can
be used for the measurement of other three gases.
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 40
1. The biocatalytic membrane used in the ammonia selective electrode is which of the
following?
a) Urea
b) Urease
c) Acrylamide
d) Polyacrylamide
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The biocatalytic membrane used in the ammonia selective electrode is urease. It is
used for the detection of ammonia.
2. Which of the following materials are used as a gel to which biocatalytic membrane is fixed in
ammonia selective electrode?
a) Urea
b) Urease
c) Acrylamide
d) Polyacrylamide
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The material used as a gel to which biocatalytic membrane is fixed in ammonia
selective electrode is acrylamide. This is attached to the ion selective electrode directly.
3. The biocatalytic membrane is attached to the glass electrode using which of the following
materials?
a) Nylon mesh
b) Teflon
c) Silicon rubber
d) Polythene
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The biocatalytic membrane is attached to the glass electrode using nylon mesh.
Cellophane film can also be used.
4. The response time of the biocatalytic electrode is a function of the thickness of the enzyme
layer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The response time of the biocatalytic electrode is a function of the thickness of the
enzyme layer. It is also a function of diffusion of the layer in the sample solution.
5. In carbon dioxide electrode, the membrane separates which of the following?
a) Sodium carbonate, magnesium chloride
b) Magnesium hydrogen carbonate, sodium chloride
c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate, sodium chloride
d) Magnesium carbonate, magnesium chloride
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In carbon dioxide electrode, the membrane separates sodium hydrogen carbonate
and sodium chloride. Sodium hydrogen carbonate is the internal electrolyte.
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 41
1. In electrochemical reduction method, one of the species present in the melt constituents
during electrolysis undergoes______________
a) Reduction
b) Methylation
c) Carboxylation
d) Hydrolysis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: During electrochemical reduction method for the formation of single crystals, one
of the melt constituents undergoes reduction during electrolysis like reduction of transition
metal ions to lower valence states and the reduction of oxyanions etc.
2. Which of the following is the main component required to carry out the process of
electrolysis?
a) AC current
b) Metal vessel
c) Wires
d) DC current
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Electrolysis is a method where DC current i.e. direct electric current is passed
through an ionic substance which is either in molten state or may be dissolved in a solvent, thus
chemical reactions take place at the electrodes.
3. During electrochemical reduction method, the melt constituents are composed of which of
the following materials?
a) Non metal oxide, alkali nitride, sulphide
b) Metal nitride, nonmetal halide, carbide
c) Nonmetal sulphide, alkali carbide, nitride
d) Metal oxide, alkali borate, alkali halide
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In electrochemical reduction method, electrolysis of melt constituents
take place resulting in a crystalline compound formation. These melt constituents are
made up of metal oxide, alkali borate (or phosphate or carbonate, etc) and an alkali
halide.
4. Which of the following compound is formed when CaTiO3, CaCl2 undergoes electrolysis,
during the process of electrochemical reduction?
a) Ca4Ti7O6
b) CaTi2O4
c) CaTiO
d) CaTi9O3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: During electrochemical reduction method, the melt constituents CaTiO3, CaCl2
when undergoes electrolysis, the resulting crystal formed is CaTi2O4 at temperature 850◦C, the
product formed is a new titanium (III) compound.
5. Which of the following compounds is formed when Na2MoO3, MoO3 undergoes electrolysis?
a) Na2Mo3
b) Na3Mo7
c) MoO2
d) Nab2O
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The melt constituents Na2MoO3, MoO3 when undergoes electrolysis, the resulting
crystalline compound formed is MoO2, at temperature 675◦C, the crystals of MoO2 formed are
very large in size.
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 42
1. Which one of the following options shows the property of an electrolyte that can be used in
the electrolysis process?
a) Non conducting
b) Conducting
c) Solid conductor
d) Solid non conductor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An electrolyte which is used to achieve electrolysis, is an ion conducting polymer

which contains free ions that are able to carry the current in the electrolysis process, if the
electrolyte is a solid conductor like solid salts then it will not contain free ions hence it will not
be able to carry current, thus electrolysis will not take place.
2. Which of the following statements is appropriate for the electrodes to be used in the
electrolytic process?
a) Electrodes provide necessary energy to create or discharge the ions during electrolysis
b) Electrodes are the ion conducting polymer that contains free ions to carry the current
c) Electrodes are the solid conducting materials which allows to carry the current during
electrolysis
d) Electrodes provide physical interface between the electrolyte and electrical circuit that
provides energy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: One of the main components of the electrolytic process is electrodes, it provides
the physical interface between the electrolyte and electrical circuit that provides the energy.
Electrodes of metals, graphite, semiconductors are widely used. Choice of suitable electrodes
depends on the electrolyte, electrodes and the manufacturing cost.
3. For the process of electrolysis which of the following statements is appropriate?
a) Oxidation occurs at the anode and reduction occurs at the cathode
b) Oxidation occurs at the cathode and reduction occurs at the anode
c) Oxidation occurs at the anode and reduction doesn’t take place
d) Reduction occur at the cathode and oxidation doesn’t take place
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: During the process of electrolysis, oxidation which means gaining oxygen atoms or
loosing hydrogen or loosing electrons take place at the anode. Whereas reduction which means
losing oxygen atoms or gaining hydrogen or gaining electrons take place at cathode.
4. What is the first law of electrolysis according to which the electrolytic processes take place?
a) Ohm’ s law
b) Henry’s law
c) Faraday’s law
d) Einstein’s equation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The first law of electrolysis is given by Faraday’s first law which states that the
quantity of the element separated by electric current through a molten or dissolved salt is
directly proportional to the quantity of the electric charge passed through the circuit. The
equation for this law is given by m=eQ, where e=electrochemical equivalent and Q=charge.
5. Which of the following states the second law of electrolysis reaction?
a) Henry’s law
b) Einstein equation
c) Archimedes principle
d) Faraday’s law
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Second law of electrolysis based on Michael Faraday’s second law which states
that when the same amount of current is passed through different electrolytes or elements
which are connected in series then the mass of the substance liberated or deposited at the
electrode is directly proportional to their equivalent weight.
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 43

1. Which of the following is used as detector crystal in ESR spectrometer?
a) Silicon rectifier
b) Silicon tungsten rectifier
c) Silicon boron rectifier
d) Silicon quartz rectifier
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Silicon tungsten rectifier is used as detector crystal in ESR spectrometer. This is the
commonly used detector.
2. After detection, the resulting signal will have which of the following frequencies?
a) 1 kHz
b) 10 kHz
c) 100 kHz
d) 1000 kHz
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: After detection, the resulting signal will have 100 kHz. It contains ESR information.
3. Which of the following is the modulation amplitude range of ESR spectrometer?
a) 1mG to 10G
b) 2mG to 15G
c) 3mG to 20G
d) 5mG to 40G
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 5mG to 40G is the modulation amplitude range of ESR spectrometer. It is applied
in steps.
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4. In which of the following ranges will the receiver time constant of the ESR spectrometer lie?
a) 0 to 10 s
b) 0.3 to 1 s
c) 0.03 to 10 s
d) 0.003 to 100 s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The receiver time constant of the ESR spectrometer lies from 0.003 to 100 s. It is
one of the important parameters of ESR spectrometer.
5. Which of the following is the oscilloscope field width of the ESR spectrometer?
a) 0.2 to 40 G
b) 0.1 to 20 G
c) 0 to 10 G
d) 0.01 to 20 G
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The oscilloscope field width of the ESR spectrometer lies between 0.2 to 40 G. it is
one of the important parameters.
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 44
1. The magnet used in ESR spectrometer provides a magnetic field which can be varied from
________ to _______
a) 20 mgauss, 100mgauss
b) 200 mgauss, 20kgauss
c) 20 mgauss, 20kgauss
d) 100 mgauss, 10kgauss
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The magnet used in ESR spectrometer provides a magnetic field which can be
varied from 200 mgauss to 20kgauss. It is calibrated in steps.
2. Which of the following sensor is used in ESR spectrometer?
a) Hall-effect sensor
b) Load cell
c) Strain gauge
d) Bourdon gauge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hall-effect sensor is used in ESR spectrometer. It is given as an input to the
summation circuit.
3. Which of the following oscillator is used as 1230 Hz oscillator?
a) Hartley oscillator
b) Crystal oscillator
c) RC oscillator
d) Wien bridge oscillator
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Wien bridge oscillator is used as 1230 Hz oscillator. The output level is internally
regulated.
4. What does AFC stand for?
a) Auto frequency correct
b) Automated frequency correct
c) Automatic frequency control
d) Automatic frequency circuit
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: AFC stands for automatic frequency control. A 70 kHz AFC is used.
5. Klystron requires _______ for the klystron beam and up to _____ for the klystron reflector.
a) +400 V, -730 V
b) +650 V, -400 V
c) +200 V,-530 V
d) +180 V,-270 V
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Klystron requires +650 V for the klystron beam and up to -400 V for the klystron
reflector. Klystron is also known as reflex oscillator.
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AMI-SESSION QUIZ 45
1. Which of the following is not true about the galvanic method of oxygen analysis?
a) Electrodes are composed of noble and base metals
b) It can measure dissolved content of oxygen
c) Its principle is based on electrolysis
d) It utilizes an electronic cell
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Galvanic method of oxygen analysis is based on the reverse of electrolysis. In this
method, the electrical current developed is related to the rate of oxygen uptake by the cell.
2. Which of the following is true about Hersch cell which is one of the arrangements of a
galvanic cell?
a) Cell is spherical in shape
b) Cathode is made of porous material
c) Cathode is placed centrally
d) Cathode is formed by gauze which surrounds the anode
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In Hersch cell, cell is cylindrical in shape. Anode is placed centrally and is made of
porous material. Cathode is formed by gauze which surrounds the anode.
3. Polarographic cells type of electrochemical method uses which of the following concepts?
a) Cyclic reactions
b) Exothermic reactions
c) Reversible reactions
d) Redox reactions
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Polarographic cells type of electrochemical method uses redox reactions. It is used
to measure the partial pressure of the percentage of oxygen.
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4. Which of the following methods, is the widely used method for trace gas analysis?
a) Galvanic methods
b) Conductometric method
c) Polarographic cells
d) Thermal conductivity method
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Conductometric method is the widely used method for trace gas analysis. This
method is very convenient.
5. In the conductometric method, the difference in gas conductivity before and after passing
sample gas denotes which of the following?
a) Efficiency of the cell
b) Quantity of reagent
c) Concentration of gas
d) Density of the reagent
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the conductometric method, the difference in gas conductivity before and after
passing sample gas denotes the concentration of gas. The sample gas is passed through the
liquid reagent.
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SESSION 1

1. Which property of an electromagnetic wave, depends on the medium in which it is travelling?

2. Electromagnetic waves are represented in which of the following format?

3. For increasing accuracy, high frequency of propagation is used.

Explanation: In order to increase accuracy, it is recommended to use an extremely high frequency of

Answer: b An accelerated charge

5. Which of the following rays are not electromagnetic waves?

d) Spin of nuclei in a magnetic field

2. Which of the following is not a property or parameter of electromagnetic radiation?

Explanation: Wavelength, Amplitude and Wavenumber are parameters of electromagnetic radiation.

4. Which of the following is the wavelength of microwave radiation?

5. Velocity of electromagnetic radiation is more in a vacuum than in any medium.

a) It is the reciprocal of wavelength

b) It is directly proportional to wavelength

c) It is not related to wavelength

2. Which of the following is the wavenumber of UV and Visible radiation?

a) 1 x 106 to 1.3 x 104 m-1

b) 1 x 106 to 1.3 x 104 m

d) 1 x 106 to 1.3 x 104 m2

b) High pressure mercury arc lamp

2. Which of the following is the wave number of near infrared spectrometer?

a) 4000 – 200 cm-1

c) 12500 – 4000 cm-1

a) Near IR: 0.8 – 2.5 mm

b) Mid IR: 0.8 – 2.5 mm

c) Far IR: 2.5 – 50 mm

d) Mid IR: 50 – 100 mm

a) Solids run in solution

Explanation: Pyroelectric materials are deutratedtriglycinesulphate, triglycinesulphate and some

1. ____________ limits receiver sensitivity.

Explanation: An optical signal is always fed to a detector. A detector is an optoelectronic converter

4. A _________ maximizes the received signal-to-noise ratio in the receiver circuitry.

5. ________ can be operated in three connections.

6. How many structures of pre-amplifiers exist?

The choice of amplifier for receiver accuracy is dependant on gain-bandwidth product.

9. How many categories of dynamic gain equalizers are available?

b) Concentration of elements in sample

c) Relative mass of atoms

2. Who invented mass spectrometers?

a) Near IR: 0.8 – 2.5 mm

b) Mid IR: 0.8 – 2.5 mm

c) Far IR: 2.5 – 50 mm

d) Mid IR: 50 – 100 mm

The noise due to random behaviour of charge carriers is

ANSWER: (a) Shot noise

2) Transit time noise is

a. Low frequency noise

b. High frequency noise

c. Due to random behavior of carrier charges

d. Due to increase in reverse current in the device

ANSWER: (b) High frequency noise

5. Noise factor for a system is defined as the ratio of

1. The noise temperature at a resistor depends upon

4) Noise power at the resistor is affected by the value of the resistor as

5) Low frequency noise is

b) Medium absorbs radiation and transmitted radiation is measured

d) Colour is simply observed

b) Xenon mercury arc lamp

c) Hydrogen or deuterium discharge lamp

3. NMR spectrometer provides and _ method of determining