Local Exam of Obs & Gynae: Dr. Mohamed Yahia Abuelgasem

LOCAL EXAM OF OBS & GYNAE
120 questions with explanation

Produced by:
Dr. MOHAMED YAHIA ABUELGASEM
Registrar of obs & gynae R6

RECALL DECEMBER 2018
PHYSIOLOGY:
1. When a person standing up and leans to one side the other side
stretches and the same side contracts, stretch reflex is descibed as:
A. Short fiber to obtain good contraction

B. Monosynaptic
C. Polysynaptic
D. Contain type 2fiber
E. Ocurr in higher center
The answer is: B … stretch reflex is a reflex occur in response to muscle

stretch leading to muscle contraction and it is monsynaptic reflex control
muscle contraction
2. A 35 years old athletic women has amenorrhea she took GnRH

and ovulation return which of the following hormones responsible
from ovulation:
a. FSH
b. LH
c. Estrogen
d. Progesterone
e. hCG
The answer is: B … ovulation occur due to LH surge after 16 – 24 hour
3. The hormone involved in the ejection of milk from a lactating

mammary gland is
a. Prolactin
b. FSH
c. LH
d. Growth hormone
e. Oxytocin
The answer is: E … oxytocin cause milk ejection by formation of

myoepithelium and it is stimulated by suckling
2 ‫صفحة‬ Dr. MOHAMED YAHIA 0900987639

4. Functions of the Sertoli cells in the seminiferous tubules include
a. Secretion of FSH into the tubular lumen

b. Secretion of testosterone into the tubular lumen
c. Maintenance of the blood-testis barrier
d. Synthesis of estrogen after puberty
e. Expression of surface LH receptors
The answer is: C … blood testis barrier produce by sertoli cells
5. The principal androgen responsible for transforming

undifferentiated fetal external genitalia into male external genitalia is
a. Müllerian-inhibiting substance
b. Androstenedione
c. Dihydrotestosterone
d. Testosterone
e. Androsterone
The answer is: C … DHT produced by 5 alpha reductase is the main

hormone for external genitalia and sexual activity
6. Myocardial contractility may be defined as the intrinsic ability of

cardiac muscle fibres to do work with a given preload and afterload.
Which of the following is the best measure of left ventricular (LV)
contractility?
a. Ejection fraction
b. LV end-diastolic pressure
c. LV end-diastolic volume
d. LV end-systolic pressure
e. Stroke volume
The answer is: A … ejection fraction = SV / EDV. Normally = 0.6 and it

is used to assess heart function and contractility

7. Pt has large hand and foot, gynecomastia and hirstism. the causes
is due to tumor in:
a. Posterior pituitary gland

b. Anterior pituitary gland
c. Hypothalamus
d. Adrenal gland
e. Thyroid gland
The answer is: B … deficiency of growth hormone and prolactine
8. Prolactin in non pregnant women is inhibited by:
a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. dopamine
d. FSH
e. LH
The answer is: C … Prolactin is tonically inhibited by dopamine from

hypothalamus
9. Decrease in Chloride conduction through cell wall will cause :
a. Hyperpolarisation if outside increase more than inside

b. hyperpolarization if inside increase more than outside
c. nochange
d. it increase depolarization
e. None of the above
The answer is: B … increase negativity
10. Opening of the cl- channel will lead to:
a. Hyperpolrization of the membrane potential

b. depolrization of the membrane
c. repolarization

d. increase stimulation
e. become close to threshold
The answer is: A … leads to Cl- influx
11. If the RMP was -60 and after opening of cl channels became -30.
Which of the following is true:
a. RMP increase by +30

b. RMP decrease by +30
c. RMP increase by -30
d. RMP decrease by -30
e. RMP become hyperpolarized
The answer is: A …
12. Physiologically active thyroxine exists in which of the following

forms?
a. Bound to albumin
b. Bound to prealbumin
c. Bound to globulin
d. As a glucuronide
e. Unbound
The answer is: E …
13. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. About 100 mg of iron is absorbed per day

b. Iron is absorbed rapidly from the small intestine
c. Iron is transported in the blood bound to ferritin
d. Ferrous sulfate iron is 3 to 4 times has better availablability and
better absoprtion than the iron from ferric sulfate.
e. Iron absorption is a passive process regulated by plasma iron levels
The answer is: D …

14. Which of the following is similarity between myoglobin and

hemoglobin:
a. Has the same affinity to oxygen

b. Has the same P50
c. Has the same saturation
d. Has the same dissociation curve shape
e. Has the same 2,3 DPG content
15. The effect of insulin on glucose transport is to
a. Permit transport against a concentration gradient

b. Enhance transport into adipocytes
c. Enhance transport across the tubular epithelium of the kidney
d. Enhance transport into the brain
e. Enhance transport through the intestinal mucosa
The answer is: B …
16. Hyperactivity in the bone marrow is indicated by:
a. jaundice
b. anaemia
c. leucocytosis
d. thrombocytosis
e. reticulocytosis
The answer is: E … reticulocytosis indicate erythropoiesis and bone

marrow hyperactivity
17. Microcytic hypochromic anemia occurs due to:
a. acute renal failure

b. hepatic cirrhosis
c. congestive heart failure

d. chronic peptic ulcer

e. filariasis
MICROBIOLOGY:
18. Which of the following cells affected by Rabies virus:
a. Asterocyte
b. Ganglia
c. Neurons
d. Nk cell
e. Oligodendrocytes
The answer is: A … astrocytes is the main star shape cells found in the
brain. It is infected with rabies and cause fatal encephalitis
19. VIRULANCE factor that associated with strain of E.coli that

cause UTI is:
a. endotoxine
b. alpha hemolysine
c. K antigen
d. capsule
e. pilli
The answer is: E … pilli is a virulence factor used by bacteria for

attachment. It is needed for all bacteria that infect epithelium of GIT and
respiratory system
20. Transfer of antibiotic resistance between tow bacteria through

abridge(sex pillus) is called:
a. transduction
b. transformation
c. conjugation

d. transversion
e. transition
The answer is: C … conjugation between two bacteria and transduction

between virus and bacteria
21. Leishmania affect all of the following organs except:
a. Skin
b. CNS
c. GIT
d. lymph node
e. liver
The answer is: B … leishmania affect hematopoietic system and cause

visceral leishmaniasis. Also affect skin and mucous membrane causing
mucocutaneous leishmaniasis
22. HIV pt complain of high grade fever, investigation reveal

mycobacterium which type of mycobacterium mostly associated:
a. mycobacterium leprosy
b. mycobacterium avium
c. mycobacterium bovis
d. mycobacterium tuberculosis
The answer is: B … mycobacterium avium is the mycobacterium

associated with HIV
23. On x-ray done for 65 years old patient from suffering

schistosomiasis small areas of calcification in his liver this
calcification is
a. Cercaria
b. Eggs
c. Adult worms
d. Small worms

e. None of the above
The answer is: B … schistosoma enter the body in cercaria forms then
develop to adult worm and cause periportal fibrosis and the put the egg or
ova in liver which produce immunological response appear as multiple
area of calcifications on X ray then adult worm develop to colonize either
bladder or intestine
24. Which of the following is share characteristic between

ureaplasma urealyticum and mycoplasma hominis:
a. Both cause vaginitis

b. Both cause urethritis
c. Both are non lactose fermenter
d. Both are bactercin sensitive
25. Syndrome of mycoplasma pneumonia:
a. lobar pneumonia
b. bollus maryngitiis
c. tracheobronchitis
The answer is: A … atypical pneumonia or walking pneumonia can

affect one lobe
26. Severe complicated Dengue fever differ from the uncomplicated

one in that it :
a. Cause haemorrhagic form meningitis

b. enhance the immune response
c. neuron destruction
d. shock
The answer is: D … severe fatal dengue hemorrhagic fever cause dengue
shock syndrome

27. Influenza haemaglutnin is important for virus replication for:
a. Uncoating
b. adsorption
c. assembly
d. sythesized MRNA
The answer is: B … influenza heamaglutinin responsible for binding of

virus to cells on the membrane and also responsible for fusion of viral
envelop with the endosome membrane
28. HIV patient after the infection will convert from seronegative to
seropositive in :
a. 2_3 weeks
b. Days
c. 3-6 months
d. 10 yrs
The answer is: C … ( 1 – 4 weeks ) is from infection to primary

seroconversion illness. ( 3 – 6 monthes ) to form anti HIV antibodies and
convert from seronegative to seropositive. ( 10 – 20 years ) is the
incubation period to develop symptoms
29. Which of the following viruses is enterovirus:
a. hepatitis A
b. hepatitis C
c. rota virus
d. rabies virus
e. hepatitis E
The answer is: C … most common cause of gasteroenteritis

30. Which of the following is the active and infectious form of

Chlamydia:
a. reticulate form
b. elementary form
c. dividing form
d. collateral form
The answer is: B … infectious form is elementary. Replication form is

reticulate
31. Which of the following is not true about trichomonous:
a. Cyst is the stage of transmission

b. Trophozoite is the stage of transmission
c. It produce greenish frothy discharge
d. The cyst contain 4 nuclei
The answer is: B … cyst for transmission and trophozoite for infection
32. Which of the following is the most common cause of genital tract
infection:
a. Nisseria gonorrhea
b. Chlamydia trachomatis
c. Mycoplasma homins
d. Trichomonas vaginalis
e. Herpes simplex II
BIOCHEMISTRY & GENETICS:

33. The following are purine nucleotides?
a. CTP and GDP
b. NAD and TDP
c. ATP and CMP

d. GMP and ADP

e. UDP and GTP
The answer is: D … the purine nucleotides are adenine and guanine
34. Which of the following amino acids is glucogenic but not

ketogenic;
a. Tyrosine
b. Tryptophan
c. Valine
d. Phenylalanine
e. Isoleucine
The answer is: C … 13 aminoacids are glucogenic only: glycine,

alanine, serine, aspartate, asparagines, glutamate, glutamine, proline,
valine, cysteine, methionine, histidine and arginine. 5 aminoacids are
ketogenic and glucogenic: tryptophan, tyrosine, phenylalanine, isoleucine
and threonine. 2 aminoacids are ketogenic only: lysine and leucine
35. Beriberi?
a. is not common in alcoholics
b. the deficient vitamin never affect the brain
c. the deficiency of riboflavin
d. affect the nerves and the heart
e. is the combination of diarrhea ,dementia, dermatitis
The answer is: D … beriberi is neurological disorder occur due to
vitamin B1 deficiency and it affects nerves and heart
36. Clotting factor VIII synthesize from:
a. Hepatocyte
b. Kupffer cells
c. Endothelial cells
d. Skin
e. Splenic cells

The answer is: C … factor VIII which is called von willbrand factor
synthesized from endothelium
37. Which one of the following is associated with prolonged fasting (3

or more days)?
a. Decreased lipolysis
b. Increased urinary excretion of nitrogen
c. Increased glucose utilization by the brain
d. Increased secretion of insulin
e. Decreased gluconeogenesis
The answer is: E … in starvation gluconeogenesis and aminoacid

degradation decrease but lipolysis increase
38. Which phase of meiosis we found DNA coupled and cross over:
a. Metaphase1
b. Metaphase 2
c. Anaphase
d. Prophase1
e. Telophase
The answer is: D … prophase: condensation, coupling and cross over.

Metaphase: align in equatorial position. Anaphase: separation into two
poles. Telophase: separation of nuclear membrane
39. Synthetic nucleotide analogs?

a. can inhibit DNA synthesis
b. Are always modified purine nucleotides
c. lack phosphate group
d. allow replicaton to proceed at faster rate
e. they cause denaturation of DNA
The answer is: A … used to inhibit DNA replication at lab

40. All the following use ketone bodies oxidation as significant source
of energy except:
a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. RBC
d. Heart
e. Skeletal muscle
The answer is: C … RBC has no mitochondria so it cannot utilize fats
41. Arachidonic acid?

a. is branched fatty acid
b. contains 3 double bond
c. is a precursor for eicosanoids
d. contain 5 double bonds
e. is a20-carbon saturated fatty acid
The answer is: C … arachidonic acid is linear unsaturated fatty acids and
it is precursor for eicosanoids
42. Hypoxic injury in cells occur due to:
a. reduce in ATP
b. low blood
c. glycogen depletion
d. Na leak outside cell
e. Decrease anaerobic glycolysis
The answer is: A … hypoxia cause increase in anaerobic glycolysis and

decrease ATP which lead to accumulation of Na intracellularly
43. The portion of DNA which is transcribed but not translated is

called:
a. Insert

b. Intron
c. Vector
d. Exon
e. Ribozyme
The answer is: B … the introns are transcribed and removed during
processing before translation
44. Transcriptional Activator Proteins:
a. Transcribe a messenger off a DNA template

b. Bind to ribosomes to activate the production of specific proteins
c. Are produced during an infection of bacteria by a phage
d. Are essential to function of transfer RNA's during translation
e. Bind regions near a eukaryotic gene and allows an RNA
polymerase to transcribe a gene
The answer is: E … these proteins bind RNA polymerase to DNA

promoter site to initiate transcription
45. The bonds that stabilize the structure of DNA are:
a. Hydrogen bonds and peptide bonds

b. Phosphodiester bonds and hydrogen bonds
c. Glycosidic bonds and thioester bonds
d. Disulphide bonds and hydrogen bonds
e. Van dar Waals forces
The answer is: E … stabilization of DNA is a function of hydrogen bond

only ( van dar waal forces ) and it can be broken by heat. Phosphodiester
bond make the main skeleton not just stabilization and it can be only
broken by enzymes
46. A Lipoprotein lipase:
a. Hydrolyses cholesteryl ester

b. Is present in the cytosol of adipocytes

c. Is active during starvation

d. Hydrolyses TAG in chylomicrons and VLDL
e. Is activated by glucagon
The answer is: A … lipoprotein lipase is mainly act on feeding state

under control of insulin and its function is to hydrolyze cholesterol and
TAG in VLDL for storage in adipose tissues
47. Waston and crick model of DNA structure implied that:

a. Thymine base pairs with adenine
b. Thymine base paires with cytosine
c. DNA is a single strand
d. The purine content is not equal to the pyrimidine content
e. The nitrogenous bases from the backbone of the molecule
The answer is: A … adenine with thyamine & guanine with cytosine
48. Lactic acidosis caused by deficiency of?

a. thymine
b. B1
c. folic acid
d. Biotin
The answer is: B … Lactic acidosis is occur due to deficiency of vitamin
B1 ( thiamine not thymine ) due to its effect on pyruvate dehydrogenase
49. Which of the following statement about galactosemia is correct?

a. treatment involves restriction of glucose in the diet
b. A deficiency of glucokinase is the major cause
c. is treated by elimination of galactose from the diet
d. can be treated by restricting sucrose in the diet
e. is inherited as autosomal dominant character
The answer is: C … galactosemia can be complicated by cataract so it
can be treated by elimination of galactose from diet
50. Pyruvate carboxylase:

a. Converts acetyl CoA to pyruvate

b. Requires carnitine
c. Converts pyruvate to oxaloacetate
d. Is activated by high fructose 1,6 bisphosphate
e. Requires pyridoxal phosphate
The answer is: C … main enzyme of gluconeogenesis
51. Nucleosome:
a. Contain negatively charged protein
b. Is coiling of each single strand of DNA and histone
c. Is association of each DNA and arginine rich protein
d. Is combination of DNA and chromatin
e. Is association of DNA ,RNA,and non histone protein
The answer is: C … nucleus is DNA molecule coiled with histones
52. During prolonged fasting?
a. B-Oxidation of fatty acid is initiated

b. glycogenesis is very active
c. blood glucose level is maximum
d. ketogenesis is maximum
e. bicarbonate is high in the blood
53. After chromosomal study of one person with heterogenous alleles

each allele has probability 0.2. what is the total probability:
a. 0.4
b. 0.04
c. 0.16
d. 0.32
e. 0.64
The answer is: B … 0.2 * 0.2 = 0.04

54. All of the following is true regarding X chromosome inactivation

in mammalians, EXCEPT:
a. the X chromosome inactivation prevent females from having twice

as many gene products as males
b. One of the x chromosomes is inactivated in female
c. the X chromosome once inactivated remains inactive throughout the
life in all the cells of the body
d. The inactivated X chromosome remains in this altered state in all the
somatic cells
e. all genes on the inactivated X chromosome are transcriptional silent
The answer is: D … it is also called lyonization
55. All of the following are consumed in urea cycle except :
a. aspartate
b. Co2
c. Ornithine
d. NH3
e. ATP
The answer is: C … ornithine is cycling not consumed
56. In experiment a poison was injected and caused disruption to

rough endoplasmic reticulum. Which of the following will be affected
:
a. Protein synthesis
b. DNA replication
c. Transcription
d. Transformation
e. Protein storage

57. Which of the following is most significant in the diagnosis of

early acute myocardial infarction:
a. ESR
b. ASO titre
c. Troponin
d. LDH
e. CK-MB2
The answer is: E … appear within 2-4 hours
58. Which of the following is true about DNA ligase:
a. it link DNA fragments

b. it act in leading strands
c. act to recoil strands
d. act only in 5 to 3 direction
e. make template strand
The answer is: A … link kwazaki fagments in lagging strand
59. Question about hartnup disease ………
Hartnup disease: also known as pellagra like dermatosis. Is an

autosomal recessive disorder affecting the absorption of non polar
aminoacids particularly tryptophan which converted to serotonin,
melatonin and niacin
60. Vonwillbrand factor deficiency mode of inheritance:
a. Autosomal dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. X linked dominant
d. X linked recessive
e. Mitochondrial

61. Question about Germinal disc of antibodies
Monoclonal antibodies
62. Question about Duplication in genetics:
Duplication mutation: a type of mutation in which a portion of a genetic

material or chromosomes are duplicated resulting in multiple copies of
that gene
63. Question about Polyploidy in genetics:
Polyploidy is increase in number of genetic material to 69 chromosomes.

Occur in incomplete molar pregnancy
65. Which of the following is type of mutation occur in change amino

acid with another:
a. Missense
b. Nonsense
c. Shift
d. Translocation
66. Which of the following is not true about free radicals :
a. lead to enzymatic denaturation

b. lead to DNA cross-linking
c. may cause uncontrolled growth of cells
d. may cause vascular degeneration

67. Cholesterol :
a. Normal cell membrane constituent

b. Precursor of sphingilipids
c. Main source of energy in the body
d. Produced by HMG lyase
PATHOLOGY:
68. In which of the following conditions does Exudate occur:
a. CHF
b. Decrease protein level
c. Increase permeability of vessels
d. Renal failure
e. Increase hydrostatic pressure
The answer is: C … exudate is high protein content fluid that caused
minly by increase permeability of vessels which commonly associated
with inflammation
69. Which of the following cells synthesize heparin:
a. Monocytes
b. Eisnophil
c. Lymphocytes
d. Basophil
e. Plasma cells
The answer is: D …heparin by basophil and histamine by mast cells
70. Which of the following bleeding profile consistent with DIC:
a. prolonged PT and APTT increase fibrinogen

b. normal PT and APTT reduced fibrinogen

c. normal PT and prolonged APTT reduced fibrinogen
d. prolonged PT and APTT reduced fibrinogen
e. normal bleeding time
The answer is: D … DIC is the lesion in which clotting factors and
platelets are consumed which lead to prolonged PT, PTT and bleeding
time with reduced fibrinogen
71. Which of the following is true about reversible cell injury?

a. cell membrane fragmentation
b. clumping of chromatin
c. chromatin condensation
d. mitochondrial swelling
e. loss of ribosome
The answer is: D … swelling, acidosis, ribosomal detachment all are
signs of reversible cell injury
72. Which of the following is responsible for the regression of the

uterus size after delivery :
a. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Golgi appararus
c. Nucleus
d. Mitochondria
e. Lysosomes
The answer is: E … regression of the uterus size after delivery is an

example of apoptosis and the main organelles mediate apoptosis is
lysosomes
73. Which one of the following is a metastatic calcification :
a. Shistosomasis
b. Pulmonary tuberculosis
c. Bening prostatic hyperplasia

d. Lung carcinoma
e. Chronic pancreatitis
The answer is: D … metastatic calcifications caused by hypercalcaemia

for example: hyperparathyroidism, cancers, mets ….
74. Which of the following is true about DKA:
a. occur in type II
b. hypokalemia is feature
c. acidosis occur due to hyperglycemia
d. increase anion gap with increase lactate
The answer is: D … DKA is the main complication of DM type I. in

which acidosis occur due to accumulation of ketone bodies. Hypokalemia
is due to treatment. Anion gap increase with increase in lactate and
phosphate
75. Which of the following immunoglobulin is the largest:
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgD
d. IgE
e. IgA
The answer is: A … IgM antibody is the largest one and it is pentamer
76. Patient with chronic renal failure has normocytic normochromic

anemia what is the best treatment to correct anemia:
a. erythropiotein
b. ferrous sulphate
c. folic acid
d. vit B6
e. vit B12

77. Which of the following mediator is likely to cause pain and

increase in vascular permeability?
a. bradykinin
b. prostaglandins
c. Il-1
d. Leuckotrien
78. which of the following is the major and most abundant

immunoglobulin in body:
a. IgM
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgD
e. IgE
The answer is: C … because it is the main antibody in secondary or

chronic immunity
79. Which of the following indicates defect in synthetic function of

the liver:
a. Hyperbilirubinaemia
b. High AST
c. Prolonged prothrombin time
d. Vit k deficieny
e. High ALP
The answer is: C … defect in clotting factors synthesis
80. Early sign detected in diabetic nephropathy is?
a. Pyeurea
b. microalbuminurea

c. high urea
d. high creatinin
e. persistant glucosurea
The answer is: B … the first sign is microalbuminuria which produce

periorbital edema
81. After delivering a baby a sample was taken from the umbilical
cord and electrophoresis done. We found abundant Immunoglobulin
in the sample. This is :
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgE
d. IgA
e. IgD
The answer is: B … passive natural immunity
82. Enzyme that increase due to liver damage is :
a. GoD
b. GGT
c. ALP
d. Bilirubin
e. Serine hydroxyamelase
83. Nephrotic syndrome:
a. High cholesterol levels

b. Oliguria is a feature
c. mild proteinurea
d. high blood albumin
e. no swelling

The answer is: C … nephrotic syndrome characterize by: proteinuria,

hypoalbuminemia, polyuria, hyperlipidemia and significant swelling
84. All of the following are examples of physiological cells

death(apoptosis)except :
a. Thymic aplasia
b. Menstruation
c. RBCs at spleen
d. development of digits
e. Viral hepatitis
The answer is: E … apoptosis not include inflammation
85. Lymphedema caused by:
a. congestive heart failure

b. accumulation of lymph extracellularly
c. filariasis
d. increase hydrostatic pressure
e. all of the above
The answer is: C …
86. Which of the following occur with acute renal failure:
a. decrease serum urea

b. hypokalemia
c. hypocalcemia
d. decrease creatinine clearance
e. hyponatremia
87. Which of the following is type of necrosis in malignant

hypertension:

a. Coagulative
b. Liquifactive
c. Fat
d. Fibrinoid
e. Gangrene
88. In Biochemical changes in chronic renal failure, all are not true
except :
a. decrease HCO3 protection

b. high intracellular hydrogen
c. high intracellular pH
d. Normal serum calcium
e. Decrease clearance of creatinine
89. Benefit of acute inflammation include:
a. fibrosis
b. vasoconstriction
c. initiate immunity
d. abscess formation
e. lymphocytosis
ANATOMY:
90. Which of the following is Blood supply to head of femur in adults:
a. Profunda artery
b. Retinacular Artery
c. Obturatur artery
d. superoior gluteal artery

e. femoral artery
The answer is: B … retinacular artery is a branch from medial and

lateral circumflex artery that supply the head of femur in adults.
Obturator artery is main in children
91. 60 year old female known case of ovarian CA presented with

medial thigh Parasethia the nerve involved by CA is
a. obturator N
b. medial cutaneous N of the thigh
c. intermediate cutaneous N of the thigh
d. femoral trunk
e. lumbosacral trunk
The answer is: A … obturator nerve innervate medial part of thigh and it
cross ovaries medially whereas femoral innervate anterior part. Medial
cutaneous nerve innervate medial part of knee joint
92. Hip joint characterize by huge capsule. Which of the following is

attached to it posteriorly:
a. greater trochanter
b. lesser trochanter
c. femoral neck
d. acetabulum
e. intertubercular line
The answer is: C … the hip joint capsule attach proximally to

acetabulum and distally to intertubercular line and crest and anteriorly to
greater trochanter and posteriorly to femoral neck. It is also reinforced
posteriorly by ischiofemoral ligament
93. Ischiorectal fossa is clinically important space. Which of the

following is site of their connection:
a. Anteriorly

b. Lateraly
c. Medially
d. Posteriorly
e. In front
The answer is: D … ischiorectal fossa is a space bounded medially by

anal canal and laterally by obturator internus muscle and fascia and
inferiorly skin and fascia. It is clinically important because it transmit
infection posteriorly
94. 2 years old boy has hernia sac that lying above and medial to the
pubic tubercle. Which of the following is diagnosis:
a. Femoral hernia
b. Umbilical hernia
c. Post surgical hernia
d. Direct inguinal hernia
e. Indirect inguinal hernia
The answer is: E … indirect inguinal hernia enter through deep ring and
exit through superficial ring which lie above and medial pubic tubercle
95. Venous drainage of lower limb is mainly by :

a. short saphenous vien
b. great saphenous vien
c. deep vien
d. perforators
e. superficial viens
The answer is: C … deep vein mainly drain muscles and deep fascia of
lower limbs and it follow same branches of femoral artery
96. In a patient with small volume of fluid collection in the abdomen

likely site for fluid collection in the erect position is:
a. Iesser sac
b. Greater sac
c. Douglas pouch

d. Rt hepatorenal pouch
e. Paraduedenal recesses
The answer is: C … the lowest space in peritoneum
97. Femoral pulsation is detected best at which point:
a. midpoint in inguinal ligament

b. 2/3 away from the pubic tubercle.
c. Inferior and lateral to pubic tubercle
d. Lateral to femoral nerve
e. Medial and above pubic tubercle
The answer is: C … site of femoral ring at which femoral artery can be
palpated for pulsation and arterial sampling
99. Which of the following Muscles not attached to perineal body:
a. Levator ani
b. Puborectalis
c. Pubovaginalis
d. superficial Transverse perineal muscle
e. External anal sphincter
100. Cancer from pelvic viscera can deposits cancerous cells in the
vertebrae this communication occur between the internal iliac veins
and the vertebral veins the through the :
a. Lateral sacral veins
b. Lumbar vein
c. Prostatic plexus
d. Umbilical veins
e. Pudenal vein

101. Epiploic foramen bounded anteriorly by:
a. Inferior vena cava

b. Caudate lobe
c. First part duodenum
d. portal vein
e. stomach
The answer is: D … epiploic foramen bounded antriorly by porta

hepatis, posteriorly by inferior vena cava, superiorly by caudate lobe and
inferiorly by first part of duodenum
102. Which of the following structures lies lateral to femoral vein

within femoral canal:
a. Femoral nerve
b. Femoral artery
c. Femoral sheath
d. Lymph nodes
e. Fats
The answer is: B … from medial to lateral: sheath, vein, artery and nerve
103. Concerning urinary bladder

a. Against fascia of levator ani
b. Detruser muscle supplied by sympathetic motor fibre
c. Connected to remnant of cloaca
d. In female is completely pelvic organ
e. Its sphincter vesicae has parasympathetic motor supply
The answer is: D … because of the effect of uterus on bladder
104. Muscle of urogenital diaphragm include:

a. Sphincter urethrae
b. Sphincter vesicae
c. Levator ani

d. Ischiocavernosus
e. Obturator internus
105. Concerning the peritoneum:

a. Right sub-hepatic pouch also called the lesser sac
b. The medial umbilical ligament contains the urachus
c. It’s a mucous membrane
d. Left sub-hepatic pouch is the hepatorenal pouch of morris
e. The epiploic foramen is bounded anteriorly by the portal vein
106. Regarding the anterior abdominal wall:

a. Superficial tissues of the anterolateral wall above theumbilicus to
axillary nodes
b. Intertubercular plane lies at the level of L4
c. Mid-inguinal point lying halfway between the pubic tubercle and
Anterior Superior Iliac Spine
d. Posterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by the transversalis
muscle
e. Sugrical incision at linea alba heals faster than that along
paramedian abd wall
107. Which of the following is a content of deep perineal pouch:
a. Bulbospongiosus muscle
b. Ischiocavernosus crura
c. Bulbourethral gland
d. Colles fascia
e. Superficial transverse muscle

108. Which of the following is inferior border of hunter canal:
a. Vastus medialis
b. Aductor magnus
c. Sartorius
d. Adductor longus
e. Vastus lateralis
The answer is: D … hunter canal or subsartorial canal or adductor canal

is bounded medially by adductor magnus and laterally by vastus medialis
and superiorly by Sartorius and inferiorly by adductor longus. It end at
adductor hiatus
109. A 60 years old female has cancer at buttocks. Which of the

following lymph nodes is the lymph drainage of the skin of the
buttock:
a. Axillary nodes
b. Superior gluteal nodes
c. Vertical group of superficial inguinal nodes
d. Horizontal group of superficial inguinal nodes
e. Internal iliac nodes
110. Which of the following is the inferior wall of inguinal canal:
a. external abdominal muscle

b. inguinal ligament
c. internal abdominal muscle
d. transvasalis fascia
e. conjoint tendon
111. Which of the following is true about anal canal:

a. the upper part is sensitive to pressure and heat

b. the lower part is ectodermal origin
c. the upper part is innervated by pudendal nerve
d. the lower part drain to portal circulation
e. hemorrhoids of upper part is painful
112. All of the following are parts of levator ani muscles, EXCEPT:
a. Puborectalis muscle
b. Pubococcygeous muscle
c. Coccygeous muscle
d. Iliococcygeous muscle
e. Levator vaginae
PARMACOLOGY:
113. Which of the following Substances do not relay on to topical
administration:
a. nasal spray
b. nicotin patch
c. estrogen ointment
d. insulin pen
e. antidandrouf shampoo
The answer is: D … topical administration is the route in which drugs

apply to skin or mucous membrane. Insulin cannot be topically
administered

115. A patient with chronic renal failure receiving an intravenous

diamorphine infusion has had a respiratory arrest. Which of the
following is the most likely cause?
a. Decreased plasma clearance of diamorphine

b. Decreased plasma volume following dialysis leading to increased
plasma concentration of diamorphine
c. Impaired renal excretion of diamorphine
d. Increased plasma concentration of 6-monoacetyl morphine
e. Increased plasma concentration of morphine-6-glucuronide
116. An experiment is being designed to assess speed of gastric

emptying. It is planned to administer a standard dose of a marker
drug orally to healthy volunteers and then measure plasma drug
concentrations at standard times after the oral dose. Which of the
following drugs is likely to be most useful in this experiment?
a. Aspirin
b. Morphine
c. Paracetamol
d. Propranolol
e. Vancomycin
117. An intravenous infusion of a drug is administered to a 60 kg

subject and, at steady state, urine is collected over four hours from a
urinary catheter. The following data are obtained:
Plasma concentration at steady state = 25 mcg ml
Urinary concentration = 2.5 mg ml
Total urinary volume = 240 ml
What is the renal clearance of the substance?

a. 24 ml min
b. 60 ml min
c. 100 ml min
d. 120 ml min
e. 240 ml min
STATISTICS:
118. Which of the following is correct?
a. A large sample size always ensure that our sample size is accurate
and precise
b. in random samples the randomization ensure that stimate
c. we do not need to randomize if our sample size is sufficiency
enough
d. if all other things are equal, we need a larger sample size
e. in a properly chosen sample, an estimate will be less and more
precise
119. In statistic the measurement used for comparison between 2 or

more group and measured in different unit?
a. Mode
b. Coeficent
c. t test
d. z test
e. analysis of variance(ANOVA)
120. 2group of patients followed for period of 10 yrs to study the

effect of cigarette smoking in lung cancer ,type of study?
a. Cohort study
b. Cross sectional study
c. Case control study

d. Experimental study
e. Descriptive study
‫أللهم وفق و نجح جميع الممتحنين يا هللا‬

:‫مع تحياتي‬
‫ محمد يحيى أبوالقاسم‬.‫د‬

Local Exam of Obs & Gynae: Dr. Mohamed Yahia Abuelgasem

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LOCAL EXAM OF OBS & GYNAE

120 questions with explanation

Registrar of obs & gynae R6

A. Short fiber to obtain good contraction

The answer is: B … stretch reflex is a reflex occur in response to muscle

2. A 35 years old athletic women has amenorrhea she took GnRH

The answer is: B … ovulation occur due to LH surge after 16 – 24 hour

3. The hormone involved in the ejection of milk from a lactating

The answer is: E … oxytocin cause milk ejection by formation of

2 ‫صفحة‬ Dr. MOHAMED YAHIA 0900987639

4. Functions of the Sertoli cells in the seminiferous tubules include

a. Secretion of FSH into the tubular lumen

The answer is: C … blood testis barrier produce by sertoli cells

5. The principal androgen responsible for transforming

The answer is: C … DHT produced by 5 alpha reductase is the main

6. Myocardial contractility may be defined as the intrinsic ability of

The answer is: A … ejection fraction = SV / EDV. Normally = 0.6 and it

3 ‫صفحة‬ Dr. MOHAMED YAHIA 0900987639

a. Posterior pituitary gland

The answer is: B … deficiency of growth hormone and prolactine

8. Prolactin in non pregnant women is inhibited by:

The answer is: C … Prolactin is tonically inhibited by dopamine from

9. Decrease in Chloride conduction through cell wall will cause :

a. Hyperpolarisation if outside increase more than inside

The answer is: B … increase negativity

10. Opening of the cl- channel will lead to:

a. Hyperpolrization of the membrane potential

4 ‫صفحة‬ Dr. MOHAMED YAHIA 0900987639

The answer is: A … leads to Cl- influx

a. RMP increase by +30

The answer is: A …

12. Physiologically active thyroxine exists in which of the following

The answer is: E …

13. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a. About 100 mg of iron is absorbed per day

The answer is: D …

5 ‫صفحة‬ Dr. MOHAMED YAHIA 0900987639

14. Which of the following is similarity between myoglobin and

a. Has the same affinity to oxygen

The answer is: D …

15. The effect of insulin on glucose transport is to

a. Permit transport against a concentration gradient

The answer is: B …

16. Hyperactivity in the bone marrow is indicated by:

The answer is: E … reticulocytosis indicate erythropoiesis and bone

17. Microcytic hypochromic anemia occurs due to:

a. acute renal failure

6 ‫صفحة‬ Dr. MOHAMED YAHIA 0900987639

d. chronic peptic ulcer

The answer is: D …

19. VIRULANCE factor that associated with strain of E.coli that

The answer is: E … pilli is a virulence factor used by bacteria for

20. Transfer of antibiotic resistance between tow bacteria through

7 ‫صفحة‬ Dr. MOHAMED YAHIA 0900987639

The answer is: C … conjugation between two bacteria and transduction

21. Leishmania affect all of the following organs except:

The answer is: B … leishmania affect hematopoietic system and cause

22. HIV pt complain of high grade fever, investigation reveal