11/04/2022 RM_CODE-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 REVISION TEST SERIES Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

(for NEET-2022)
Test - 4
Answers
1. (3) 41. (1) 81. (4) 121. (1) 161. (2)
2. (1) 42. (1) 82. (1) 122. (1) 162. (2)
3. (1) 43. (1) 83. (2) 123. (2) 163. (2)
4. (3) 44. (3) 84. (1) 124. (4) 164. (3)
5. (4) 45. (4) 85. (2) 125. (3) 165. (4)
6. (3) 46. (2) 86. (4) 126. (3) 166. (4)
7. (1) 47. (4) 87. (3) 127. (2) 167. (4)
8. (3) 48. (2) 88. (3) 128. (1) 168. (1)
9. (2) 49. (2) 89. (3) 129. (4) 169. (3)
10. (4) 50. (4) 90. (3) 130. (1) 170. (2)
11. (3) 51. (3) 91. (2) 131. (1) 171. (2)
12. (1) 52. (2) 92. (3) 132. (2) 172. (2)
13. (4) 53. (4) 93. (3) 133. (2) 173. (2)
14. (2) 54. (1) 94. (4) 134. (3) 174. (4)
15. (1) 55. (2) 95. (2) 135. (1) 175. (2)
16. (4) 56. (1) 96. (1) 136. (4) 176. (4)
17. (3) 57. (4) 97. (2) 137. (1) 177. (4)
18. (1) 58. (1) 98. (3) 138. (3) 178. (4)
19. (1) 59. (1) 99. (4) 139. (2) 179. (3)
20. (4) 60. (2) 100. (1) 140. (3) 180. (1)
21. (4) 61. (1) 101. (2) 141. (4) 181. (3)
22. (3) 62. (2) 102. (1) 142. (1) 182. (2)
23. (3) 63. (1) 103. (4) 143. (2) 183. (4)
24. (2) 64. (1) 104. (2) 144. (4) 184. (3)
25. (2) 65. (1) 105. (1) 145. (3) 185. (3)
26. (3) 66. (2) 106. (4) 146. (4) 186. (1)
27. (3) 67. (3) 107. (1) 147. (4) 187. (4)
28. (3) 68. (3) 108. (1) 148. (2) 188. (2)
29. (3) 69. (1) 109. (4) 149. (3) 189. (2)
30. (3) 70. (1) 110. (1) 150. (2) 190. (4)
31. (2) 71. (2) 111. (3) 151. (1) 191. (2)
32. (3) 72. (3) 112. (2) 152. (3) 192. (2)
33. (3) 73. (1) 113. (4) 153. (2) 193. (3)
34. (2) 74. (3) 114. (3) 154. (1) 194. (2)
35. (3) 75. (2) 115. (3) 155. (2) 195. (2)
36. (1) 76. (2) 116. (4) 156. (3) 196. (3)
37. (2) 77. (2) 117. (3) 157. (1) 197. (1)
38. (2) 78. (2) 118. (2) 158. (2) 198. (2)
39. (4) 79. (1) 119. (2) 159. (4) 199. (3)
40. (3) 80. (3) 120. (3) 160. (2) 200. (1)

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 11/04/2022 RM_CODE-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 REVISION TEST SERIES Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

(for NEET-2022)
Test - 4

Answers & Solutions

PHYSICS
SECTION-A 7. Answer (1)
1. Answer (3) d
e
Initially right end of solenoid is N-pole, later it will dt
be S-pole.
 e = –4t
2. Answer (1)
8. Answer (3)
Circuit behaves like pure resistive at resonance.
In ideal transformer,
3. Answer (1)
Pinput = Poutput and transformer does not change
50
i ... (i) frequency.
R
9. Answer (2)

 i 
50
... (ii)
R 2 m  B·A

V  i R = 4 × 0.04 = 0.16 weber

10. Answer (4)
 V  25 2 volt
L  N2 A
4. Answer (3)
 = 80 11. Answer (3)

2 1 esquare  Bvl
T   s
80 40 Ering = varies as ring enters the field.
1 12. Answer (1)
In s , current becomes zero two times
40
In 2 s current will become zero 160 times.
 B.dA  0
5. Answer (4) (Gauss’s law in magnetism)
13. Answer (4)
di di 80
8  0.2    40 A/s
dt dt 2   NBA  constant

6. Answer (3) d
e= 0
 = Li = 2 × 4 = 8 Wb dt

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-4_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
14. Answer (2) 24. Answer (2)
di
i 22 V  –L
 irms = i12  dt
2
25. Answer (2)
15. Answer (1) Transformer does not work on DC.
E0 i0 26. Answer (3)
 Paverage = cos 
2 P = Vrms irms cos 
E02R E02R 27. Answer (3)
Paverage = 
2z 2
 1  Vrms
2  2 2  R2  i rms   8A
 C  R
16. Answer (4) VL  i rms  X L  8  50
For step up transformers = 400 V
Ns > Np 28. Answer (3)
17. Answer (3) T
V02
V02 = VL02 + VR02 Vrms  2
T
VR0 = 60 V & VR0 = i0R
V0
i0 = 4 A & irms = 2.8 A =
2
18. Answer (1)
29. Answer (3)
1 L Lenz’s law
Q
R C
30. Answer (3)
19. Answer (1) E0
B0 
To move with constant velocity c
Frequired = Fmagnetic Direction of propagation will be along E  B
2 2 31. Answer (2)
B l v
Frequired = iBl =
R The direction of EM wave is along the direction of
20. Answer (4) E B .
32. Answer (3)
Effective circuit is
Power out 140
   0.8333
Power in (240  0.7)
33. Answer (3)
I
 VM – VN = – L d
t i d  0
dt
21. Answer (4)
A
 E
 e0 = NBA =  2
22. Answer (3) q
E
A0
0 2
L l
2R A 1 dq
i d  0 
23. Answer (3) 2 A0 dt

 1 dq
Q 
R 2 dt

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Test-4_Code-A_Answers & Solutions Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
34. Answer (2) 38. Answer (2)
From 0 to t1 emf is zero because  is constant 1
and from t1 to t2 emf is positive constant because  0 E02
2
d
is negative constant. 39. Answer (4)
dt
Electromagnetic wave is combination of electric
35. Answer (3)
and magnetic field only therefore, it can be
produced only by the accelerating charge.
40. Answer (3)
Flux at any time (t)
 = BAcos
 I 
B   0  sin45  sin45   4 = BAcost
 4d 
 = B0a2 cost
0I 8
B  d
 a 
4   2
dt
 2
 = – B0a2 (– sint)
 I2 2
B 0
a  = B0a2 sint

 = BA B0a2
0I 2 2
  r 2 O t
a
– B0a 
2

 = MI
41. Answer (1)
0I 2 2r 2
MI 
a E0
c
B0
2 20 r 2
M
a E0 103
B0  
SECTION-B c 3  108
36. Answer (1) = 0.33 × 10–5 T
d B0  0.33  105 kˆ T

dt
42. Answer (1)

d
dt

4t 2 r02  Bo =
E0
c
 = – 8tr02

|| = 16r02 [at t = 2 s) c
k
16r02
I B0  = E0k
R
37. Answer (2) 43. Answer (1)
dB
dI E 2(2r )  (2r )2
VP – VQ = 10 + 4 (2t + 3) + 2 dt
dt
VP – VQ = 10 + 4 × 7 + 2 × 2 4r 2 x
E
VP – VQ = 10 + 28 + 4 4r
= 42 V = rx

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-4_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
44. Answer (3) V0 36 2
Peak current I0    5.1 A
The core of transformer is laminated to reduce z 10
eddy current.
48. Answer (2)
45. Answer (4)
Impedance is purely resistive phase differences
As per Lenz’s law, initially normal reaction between voltage and current is zero. So power
decreases. As current in solenoid increases to factor: cos0 = 1, average power will be equal to
attain constant-value, then normal reaction also
apparent power.
becomes constant.
49. Answer (2)
46. Answer (2)

Transformer works on principle of mutual Voltage leads current by rad in pure inductor
inductions.
2
connected to A.C.
47. Answer (4)
Inductive reactance is proportional to source
Impedance of circuit
frequency X L  L .
  8   6  10 
2 2
Z R  2
XL2 50. Answer (4)
Peak applied voltage  36 2 volt Microwaves are used for cooling food.

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 59. Answer (1)

51. Answer (3) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4  [Pt(NH3)6]4+ + 4Cl–
Solubility order: BeSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 > Its aqueous solution will have highest number of
BaSO4. ions in the solution.
52. Answer (2) 60. Answer (2)
Order of density; Li < K < Na. [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 + 2AgNO3 
(excess)
53. Answer (4)
[Co(NH3)5Cl](NO3)2 + 2AgCl
Concentrated solution of alkali metals in liquid
61. Answer (1)
ammonia is bronze in colour and diamagnetic in
nature. Compound Chemical nature

54. Answer (1) Cr2O3 Amphoteric

LiHCO3 does not exist in solid state. Mn2O7 Acidic

55. Answer (2) CrO Basic
Barium shows apple green colour in flame test. Cl2O7 Acidic
56. Answer (1) 62. Answer (2)
The given splitting pattern is observed in
tetrahedral complexes.
63. Answer (1)
57. Answer (4) 3MnO24  4H  2MnO4  MnO2  2H2O
Highest oxidation state of Os is + 8
2
58. Answer (1) 1 mole MnO42– will give mole MnO4 and
3
IUPAC name of [Cu(NH3)4][NiCl4] is 1
mole MnO2
tetraamminecopper(II) tetrachloridonickelate(II). 3

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Test-4_Code-A_Answers & Solutions Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
64. Answer (1) 74. Answer (3)
[MnCl6]3– is an outer orbital complex having sp3d2
2KMnO4 K2MnO4  MnO2  O2 (g) 
hybridisation.
65. Answer (1)
75. Answer (2)
Higher is the number of unpaired electrons higher
2MnO4– + H2O + I–  2MnO2 + 2OH– + IO3–
is the spin only magnetic moment.
76. Answer (2)
Species Unpaired electron (s)
[Ni(CO)4] 0 Ions hydH° (M2+) (kJ mol–1)

[Ti(H2O)6]2+ 2 Cu2+ –2121

[V(H2O)6]2+ 3
Ti2+ –1866
[Fe(H2O)6]2+ 4
Ni2+ –2121
66. Answer (2)
Complexes in which a metal is bound to more Cr2+ –1925
than one kind of donor groups, are known as
77. Answer (2)
heteroleptic complexes.
Most common oxidation state of Ti and V are + 4
67. Answer (3)
and + 5 respectively.
For repeating bidentate ligand bis term is
78. Answer (2)
introduced in naming of complexes.
68. Answer (3) Species Colour

In K4[Fe(CN)6], Fe does not exist as free Fe2+ ion. CrO42– Yellow

69. Answer (1)
Cr2O72– Orange
For low spin complex, splitting energy is large
(0 > P) as compared to pairing energy. [Ti(H2O)6]3+ Purple

70. Answer (1) MnO42– Green

For the same metal, the same ligands and metal-
79. Answer (1)
ligand distances, it can be shown that
4 Element Enthalpy of atomization (kJ mol–1)
 t    0 .
9
Co 425
71. Answer (2)
Mn 281
VBT predicts the geometry of a complex on the
basis of its magnetic behaviour. Cu 339
VBT does not deal with stability of complexes. It
Sc 326
cannot explain the colour exhibited by
coordination compounds and it makes 80. Answer (3)
predictions of geometry by means of magnetic
Back donation of electron from metal to vacant *
nature.
orbital of ligand in [Mn(CO)6]+ is weak hence C –
72. Answer (3) O bond order is more and the bond length is
[(Ph3P)3RhCl] is Wilkinson catalyst which is used shorter.
for the hydrogenation of alkenes. 81. Answer (4)
73. Answer (1) In Castner Kellner cell, cathode is made up of
Gd3+ : [Xe]4f7 mercury.

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-4_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
82. Answer (1)  Organometallic compounds contain at least
Be2+ has the greatest enthalpy of hydration one chemical bond between metal and
among all. carbon atom of an organic molecule.
83. Answer (2)  Grignard reagent: RMgBr
  Tetracarbonyl nickel: [Ni(CO)4]
Ti has the highest value of EM/M2+ .

84. Answer (1)

   
CFSE  0.4 nt2g  0.6 neg  0
 

 Ferrocene [Fe(η5 – C5H5)2]

94. Answer (4)

CFSE = – 6 × 0.4 Δ0 + 0 = –2.4 Δ0
Among alkali metal carbonates, only Li2CO3
85. Answer (2)
decompose on heating and thermal stability
In[Fe(H2O)6]2+, eg level is symmetrically filled.
increases down the group.
SECTION-B
95. Answer (2)
86. Answer (4)
Melting point : Cr > V > Ti >> Mn
Li+ is most heavily hydrated among all alkali
metal ions. Effective size of Li+ in aq solution is 96. Answer (1)
therefore, largest. So, moves slowest under [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]+ exists as cis-trans isomers.
electric field. Trans-isomer is optically inactive.
87. Answer (3)
Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III)
88. Answer (3)
Observed oxidation states for cobalt are +2, +3,
+4.
89. Answer (3)
With increase in oxidation state of central metal,
acidic nature increases.
90. Answer (3)
1
2LiNO3  Li2O + 2NO2 + O2 97. Answer (2)
2
2Cu2+ + 4I– 
 Cu2I2 + I2
91. Answer (2)
Oxalate ion is a bidentate chelating ligand. ECu2  /Cu  0.34 V
92. Answer (3)
2Cu (aq)  Cu2 (aq)  Cu(s)
Ionization isomers produced different ions on
ionization. EIE2 , Cu  1958 kJ/mol
93. Answer (3)
Hyd, Cu2  2121kJ/mol
 Wilkinson's catalyst is [(Ph3P)3 RhCl].
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Test-4_Code-A_Answers & Solutions Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
98. Answer (3) 99. Answer (4)
[Fe(CN)6]3– is an inner orbital complex and Zr+4 and Hf+4 has similar ionic radii due to
hybridisation of Fe is d2sp3.
lanthanoid contraction.
Co3+(d6) with Weak Field Ligand (WFL) like F it
forms sp3d2 and with ammonia it forms d2sp3 100. Answer (1)
complex.
Ni0(d10) in presence of a strong field ligand CO Actinoid contraction is more than lanthanoid
forms tetrahedral complex. contraction.

BOTANY

SECTION-A 110. Answer (1)

101. Answer (2) Somaclones are those plants which are
Micropropagation is the method of production of genetically identical to the original plant produced
during tissue culture.
large number of plants in very short duration.
111. Answer (3)
102. Answer (1)
Cereals are commonly deficient in lysine and
‘Sonalika’ and ‘Kalyan Sona’ are the varieties of
tryptophan.
wheat.
112. Answer (2)
103. Answer (4)
Resistance to yellow mosaic virus was
Pusa Sadabhar, Pusa Shubhra and Himgiri are
incorporated in Abelmoschus esculentus from a
the disease resistant varieties of chilli, cauliflower
wild species Abelmoschus manihot. The new
and wheat respectively.
resistant variety is called ‘Parbhani Kranti’.
104. Answer (2)
113. Answer (4)
Himgiri is bred by hybridisation and selection for
High aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sugar
resistance to leaf and stripe rust, hill bunt. Pusa
content in maize leads to resistance to maize
shubhra is bred by hybridisation and selection for
stem borers.
resistance to black rot and curl blight black rot.
114. Answer (3)
105. Answer (1)
Tropical canes grown in South India Saccharum
Gene responsible for dwarfing in rice, dee-geo- officinarum had thicker stem and higher sugar
woo-gen was reported in Taiwan. content.
106. Answer (4) 115. Answer (3)
In tissue culture, the optimum pH should be 5.7. Pusa Sawani is resistant to shoot and fruit borer.
107. Answer (1) 116. Answer (4)
Tomato, bitter gourd, bathua are vitamin C Both IARI and KVIC have developed the
enriched vegetable crop developed by IARI, New technology of biogas production in India.
Delhi.
117. Answer (3)
108. Answer (1)
Statins are produced by the yeast-Monascus
Somatic hybridisation is the fusion of protoplast of purpureus. Statins have been commercialised as
two plants belonging to different varieties, species blood-cholesterol lowering agent. Statins
and even genera. resemble mevalonate and is competitive inhibitor
109. Answer (4) of HMG CoA reductase.
The crucial step for the success of the breeding 118. Answer (2)
experiment is the selection and testing of superior Propionibacterium sharmanii is responsible for
recombinants. production of large holes in swiss cheese.

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-4_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
119. Answer (2) 131. Answer (1)
Acetobacter aceti produces acetic acid which can Pectinases and proteases help in clarifying fruit
be further used in preparation of vinegar. While, juices.
citric acid produced by Aspergillus niger is Lipases are used in detergent formulations.
employed in dyeing, inks, medicines, flavouring Amylases degrade starch, streptokinase is used
and preservation of food as clot buster.
120. Answer (3) 132. Answer (2)
Statin is used as blood-cholesterol lowering Natural predator, biological method are the
agents. Lipases are used in detergent common measures used by organic farmer to
formulations and help in removing oil stains from manage pest/pathogen.
laundry. 133. Answer (2)
121. Answer (1) Meristem is free from viruses and it is used for
Major component of biogas in methane (50-70%) recovery of healthy plants from diseased plant.
which is highly inflammable, other gases are CO2 134. Answer (3)
(30-40%) and mixture of other gases H2, H2S etc. ABA inhibits growth.
(10%). 135. Answer (1)
122. Answer (1) Antibiotics are obtained from bacteria and fungi.
Primary treatment in sewage treatment is a SECTION-B
physical process. The particles are physically
136. Answer (4)
removed through filtration and sedimentation.
SCP is rich in good quality of protein and poor in
123. Answer (2) fats.
Trichoderma species are effective biocontrol 137. Answer (1)
agent of several plant pathogens.
Himgiri and Pusa shubhra are developed through
124. Answer (4) conventional method of plant breeding.
The given figure is of bacteriophage. 138. Answer (3)
125. Answer (3) IARI, New Delhi has developed spinach which is
Biofertilisers are used in organic farming. rich in Vitamin A, Calcium and iron.

126. Answer (3) 139. Answer (2)

In anaerobic sludge digester, anaerobic LAB partially digest milk protein, produce acid at
methanogenic bacteria digest the bacteria and specific temperature.
fungi present in sludge. 140. Answer (3)
127. Answer (2) Filtration occurs at primary step in water
treatment plant. Chlorination occurs in tertiary
Dragonflies are useful to get rid of mosquitoes.
treatment w.r.t. waste water treatment.
128. Answer (1)
141. Answer (4)
During primary treatment, all solids that settle
Methanogens are present in gut of ruminants and
down form the primary sludge and the marshy area.
supernatant form primary effluent.
142. Answer (1)
129. Answer (4)
Classical plant breeding involves crossing pure
Dosa is prepared by using bacteria like lines.
Leuconostoc and Streptococcus sp.
143. Answer (2)
130. Answer (1)
The entire collection of plants or seeds having all
Puffed-up appearance of dough is due to the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is
production of CO2 during fermentation. called germplasm collection.

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Test-4_Code-A_Answers & Solutions Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
144. Answer (4) 147. Answer (4)
Bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria are main Bt-cotton plant with Bt toxin can control the
source of biofertilizer butterfly caterpillars easily.

145. Answer (3) 148. Answer (2)

Pusa Sem 2 and Pusa Sem 3 are resistant to Wine and beer are produced without distillation.
Jassids, aphids and fruit borer. 149. Answer (3)
146. Answer (4) Pusa Swarnim is a variety of Brassica.

Bacteria such as Azospirillum and Azotobacter 150. Answer (2)

can fix atmospheric nitrogen while free-living in Citric acid is mainly produced by a fungus named
the soil. Aspergillus niger

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A 161. Answer (2)

151. Answer (1) Opioids are used as analgesics. Amphetamine is
a synthetic stimulant.
Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder.
162. Answer (2)
152. Answer (3)
Macrophages act as HIV factory.
Female Culex mosquito is vector of filariasis.
163. Answer (2)
153. Answer (2)
Pap smear is for cancer of cervix.
IgA is mainly present in body secretions like
colostrum. 164. Answer (3)
Vinyl chloride causes liver cancer.
154. Answer (1)
165. Answer (4)
Parasite reproduces asexually within RBCs of
human. Alcohol is a diuretic substance.
155. Answer (2) 166. Answer (4)

Blood mixed stool with mucus is characteristic Adolescence is a very vulnerable phase of
finding in amoebic dysentery. mental and psychological development of an
individual.
156. Answer (3)
167. Answer (4)
Cancer cells do not show contact inhibition.
Withdrawal syndrome is characterized by
157. Answer (1) anxiety, shakiness, nausea and vomiting.
Carcinomas – Cancer of epithelial tissues 168. Answer (1)
Melanoma – Skin cancer Nicotine increases blood pressure and heart rate.
158. Answer (2) 169. Answer (3)
Extract of morphine is obtained from Papaver Secondary lymphoid organs are Peyer’s patches,
somniferum. appendix, spleen and lymph nodes.
159. Answer (4) 170. Answer (2)
Transmission of HIV infection generally occurs by Immunotherapy is for the treatment of cancer.
sharing infected needles as in the case of 171. Answer (2)
intravenous drug abusers.
Several genes called c-onc or proto-oncogenes
160. Answer (2) have been identified in normal cells. Activation of
Cannabinoids are obtained from plant Cannabis these genes under certain conditions could lead
sativa. to oncogenic transformation of the cells.

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-4_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
172. Answer (2) 180. Answer (1)
AIDS is an immuno deficiency syndrome. HIV Skin and mucous membrane are parts of
can pass from mother to her child but AIDS physical barriers of innate immunity.
occurs when the immune system of a person is
181. Answer (3)
compromised i.e., when T-lymphocyte count falls
below 200/mm3 of blood. Dengue is a viral disease which spreads via bite
of Aedes mosquito. Filariasis a helminthic
173. Answer (2)
disease that spreads via bite of Culex mosquito
Breast enlargement occurs in males, as steroids and malaria is a protozoan disease that spreads
are converted into estrogen in body which cause by bite of Anopheles mosquito.
men to develop unwanted breast tissue
182. Answer (2)
(adipose).
B-lymphocytes produce antibodies. These
174. Answer (4)
antibodies participate in humoral mediated
LSD (Lysergic acid diethyl amide) is an extract of immunity also known as antibody mediated
fruiting body of fungus Claviceps purpurea. Coke immunity. T-lymphocytes participate in cell
is another name for cocaine and is obtained from mediated immunity. Macrophages and
Erythroxylum coca. Marijuana is a hallucinogen neutrophils are phagocytic cells of the body.
obtained from plant Cannabis sativa. Heroin is an
opiate narcotic obtained from acetylation of 183. Answer (4)
morphine. Acquired immunity is pathogen specific.
175. Answer (2) Colostrum is an example of natural passive
immunity. Interferons are glycoproteins.
Cancer cells show high telomerase activity. High
telomerase activity in cancer cells prevents 184. Answer (3)
senescence and ageing. Depletion of ozone layer MRI uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising
causes increased penetration by UV rays which radiations to accurately detect pathological and
causes DNA damage and neoplastic physiological changes in the living tissue.
transformation of normal cells. Metastasis is
185. Answer (3)
shown by malignant tumors.
Viral DNA produced by enzyme reverse
176. Answer (4)
transcriptase is incorporated into host DNA.
Person suffering from insomnia has difficulty in
SECTION-B
falling asleep at night. Drugs that suppress the
activity of CNS are used to treat insomnia. 186. Answer (1)
Cocaine is a stimulant, which makes a person Wuchereria bancrofti causes filariasis
more wakeful and alert.
187. Answer (4)
177. Answer (4)
Interferons are secreted by virus infected cells of
Anti-cancer drugs inhibit the proliferation of hair the body to protect the non-infected cells.
follicle cells leading to hair loss. Alcohol addicts
188. Answer (2)
are more prone to liver cirrhosis. UV rays and
X-rays are physical carcinogens. Cancer is a Vaccination is an example of artificially acquired
non-infectious disease. active immunity.

178. Answer (4) 189. Answer (2)

Crack or cocaine is obtained from Erythroxylum Secondary/anamnestic response is always
coca. vigorous due to memory cells.
179. Answer (3) 190. Answer (4)
Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi.  -globulins which participate in immune response
Wuchereria is responsible for causing filariasis. of the body are called Immunoglobulins

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Test-4_Code-A_Answers & Solutions Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
191. Answer (2) 196. Answer (3)
Morphine is extracted from the latex of poppy Ringworms are caused by fungi belonging to the
genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and
plant. (Papaver somniferum) and is a very
Epidermophyton.
effective sedative and pain killer for those, who
have undergone surgery.
192. Answer (2)
Radiowaves are not carcinogenic.
197. Answer (1)
193. Answer (3)
Ascaris, an intestinal parasite causes ascariasis.
T-lymphocytes are responsible for graft rejection
198. Answer (2)
which is included in cell mediated immunity.
Yeast is used in the production of recombinant
194. Answer (2) Hepatitis-B vaccine.
Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium 199. Answer (3)
diphtheriae. IgG can cross the placenta and confer immunity
to the fetus.
195. Answer (2)
200. Answer (1)
Humoral immunity includes antibodies produced In pneumonia, the alveoli get filled with fluid
by B-cells. leading the severe problems in respiration.

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