Encircle The Best Option.: Final Term Examination Year II Semester IV Adult Health Nursing-II
Encircle The Best Option.: Final Term Examination Year II Semester IV Adult Health Nursing-II
Encircle The Best Option.: Final Term Examination Year II Semester IV Adult Health Nursing-II
Year II Semester IV
Adult Health Nursing-II
a) Placing the client on the back with a small pillow under the head.
b) Keeping portable suctioning equipment at the bedside.
c) Opening the client mouth with a padded tongue blade.
d) Cleaning the client’s mouth and teeth’s with a tooth brush.
Q2: A client arrives in the emergency department with an ischemic stroke and receives tissue
plasminogen activator (t-PA) administration. Which is the priority nursing assessment?
a) Current medication
b) Complete physical and medical history
c) Time of Onset of Current stroke
d) Upcoming surgical procedure
Q3: During the first 24 hours after thrombolytic therapy for ischemic stroke, the primary goal is to
control the client’s:
a) Respiration
b) Pulse
c) Blood Pressure
d) Temperature
Q4: What is a priority nursing assessment in the first 24 hours after admission of the client with a
thrombotic stroke?
a) Cholesterol Level
b) Pupil’s size and pupillary response
c) Bowels sounds
d) Echocardiogram
Q6: The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation has experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA).
Which medication would the nurse anticipate being ordered for the client on discharge?
a) A beta-blocker medication.
b) An anti-hyperuricemic medication
c) A thrombolytic medication
d) An oral anti-coagulation medication
Q7: Which assessment data would indicate to the nurse that the client would be at risk for a
hemorrhagic stroke?
Q8: A client with head trauma develops a urine output of 300 ml/hr, dry skin, and dry mucous
membranes. Which of the following nursing interventions is the most appropriate to perform
initially?
Q9: When evaluating an ABG from a client with a subdural hematoma, the nurse notes the PaCO2 is
30 mm Hg. Which of the following responses best describes this result?
Q10: A client who had a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy should be watched carefully for
hemorrhage, which may be shown by which of the following signs?
Q12: All of the following are the purposes of applying traction except:
Q13: During Assessment of a 65 years old lady the nurse observes a severely increased thoracic
curve or hump back. She documents her observation as:
a. Lordosis
b. Scoliosis
c. Kyphosis
d. Ankylosis
a. Blunt Trauma
b. IV Drug abuse
c. Immunosuppression
d. Pelvic surgery
a. Hip disarticulation
b. Knee disarticulation
c. Ankle disarticulation
d. Wrist disarticulation
Q16: When the fracture line occurs at 90 degrees angle of long bone, the fracture is also known as?
a. Linear
b. Longitudinal
c. Oblique
d. Transverse
Q18: Identify the bacteria not associated with the cause of bacterial meningitis:
a) Cryptococcus neoformans.
b) Haemophilus influenza
c) Neisseria meningitides
d) Streptococcus pneumonia
a) Bacterial
b) Viral
c) Aseptic
d) Fungal
Q20: One of the recommended antibiotics for patients with bacterial meningitis that could cross the
blood brain barrier is:
a) Penicillin
b) Vancomycin
c) Ciprofloxacin
d) All of the above
a) 0 to 15 mm Hg
b) 25 mm Hg
c) 35 to 45 mm Hg
d) 120/80 mm Hg
Q22: Problems with memory and learning would relate to which of the following lobes?
a) Temporal
b) Occipital
c) Frontal
d) Parietal
Q23: If a male client experienced a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) that damaged the hypothalamus,
the nurse would anticipate that the client has problems with:
Q24: Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for a client with Parkinson’s crisis?
Q25: Nurse Marty is monitoring a client for adverse reactions to dantrolene (Dantrium). Which
adverse reaction is most common?
a) Excessive tearing
b) Urine retention
c) Muscle weakness
d) Slurred speech
Q26: Which client is most likely to receive opioids for extended periods of time?
Q27: In caring for a young child with pain, which assessment tool is the most useful?
Q28: Which route of administration is preferred if immediate analgesia and rapid titration are
necessary?
a) Intraspinal
b) Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA
c) Intravenous (IV)
d) Sublingual
Q29: Which route of administration is preferable for administration of daily analgesics (if all body
systems are functional)?
a) Oral
b) I/V
c) I/M
d) S/L
Q30: A first day postoperative client on a PCA pump reports that the pain control is inadequate.
What is the first action you should take?
a) Accumulation of monocytes
b) Accumulation of mesophyll
c) Accumulation of albumin
d) Accumulation of cholesterol
a) Diseases of arteries
b) Diseases of bones
c) Diseases of liver
d) Diseases of kidneys
Q33: Disease in which cholesterol and fatty materials accumulates in wall of arteries is:
a) Diabetic syndrome
b) Tuberculosis
c) Arteriosclerosis
d) Atherosclerosis
a) Trauma
b) Syphilis
c) Atherosclerosis
d) Vacullitis
Q35: Which of the following signs and symptoms would most likely be found in a client with mitral
regurgitation?
a) Exertional dyspnea
b) Confusion
c) Elevated creatine phosphokinase concentration
d) Chest pain
Q37: A client has been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of suspected bacterial endocarditis.
The complication the nurse will constantly observe for is:
Q38: The nurse expects that a client with mitral stenosis would demonstrate symptoms associated
with congestion in the:
a) Aorta
b) Right atrium
c) Superior vena cava
d) Pulmonary circulation
a) An inflammatory diseases
b) Irreversible bronchospasm resulting from inflammation of airways.
c) Obstruction of airways by mucous plugs
d) Obstructive diseases caused by destruction of alveolar walls
Q42: Which of the following organism is mostly implicated in causing community acquired
pneumonia?
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Streptococcus pneumonia
d) Mycoplasma pneumonia
Q43: Which of the following diagnostic tests help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia?
a) Chest X-ray
b) Sputum culture
c) Blood culture
d) ABG analysis
Q44: Which of the following is the most important risk factor for lung cancer?
a) Cigarette smoking
b) Working in asbestos industry
c) Genetic predisposition
d) Exposure to low level radiation
a) Hemoptysis
b) Persistent pneumonia
c) Weight loss
d) Hoarseness
Q46: The nurse understand that the patient diagnosed with pulmonary embolism will be treated by:
a) Streptokinase
b) Tissue Plasminogen activator
c) IV Heparin sodium
d) Sodium Warfarin
a) 7.20 to 7.34
b) 7.35 to 7.45
c) 7.46 to 7.55
d) 7.56 to 7.65
Q48: A patient with the bicuspid valve disorder will have impaired blood flow between the:
Q49: Which of the following tests for iso-enzyme activity indicates cardiac damage?
a) CK-MM
b) CK-MB
c) CK-DB
d) CK-BB
a) Atherosclerosis
b) Embolism
c) Thrombosis
d) Vasospasm
a) Sclerotherapy
b) Laser therapy
c) Ligation and stripping
d) PTBA
Q52: Which of the following conditions commonly occur in a patient with most common form of
cardiomyopathy?
a) Heart failure
b) Sudden death
c) Cardiac tamponed
d) Pericardial effusion
Q53: Among the following risk factors for coronary artery diseases which one can be corrected?
a) Advanced age
b) Male sex
c) High blood pressure
d) Heredity
a) Hyperglycemia
b) Stress
c) Vasospasm
d) Atherosclerosis
Q55: The risk of coronary artery diseases increases when serum cholesterol level is more than:
a) 190 mg/dl
b) 200 mg/dl
c) 150 mg/dl
d) 125 mg/dl
Q56: The primary diagnostic tool for the evaluation of infective endocarditis is:
a) ECG
b) Echocardiography
c) Blood culture
d) Blood count
Q57: In teaching a newly diagnosed type-I diabetic “Survival skills” the nurse includes information
about:
Q58: A patient with type-1 diabetes is advised to avoid over the counter drugs. Which of the
following over the counter drugs the patient should avoid?
a) Valium
b) Ibuprofen
c) Antacids
d) Aspirin
Q59: The nurse is assessing a patient admitted with left-sided heart failure. Which of the following
the nurse should expect to find?
Q60: A patient is being treated with tab.Digoxin for supraventricular tachycardia. What signs and
symptoms are indicative of digoxin toxicity?
a) Convulsions
b) Yellow vision
c) Vertigo
d) Muscle cramping
Q61: A patient is admitted to the CCU with the complain of dizziness and fatigue and is diagnosed
SVT, The nurse is aware that due to rapid heart rate the patient is at risk of developing:
a) Unstable angina
b) Myocardial infarction
c) Heart failure
d) Hypertension
Q62: The nurse is auscultating the breath sound of a patient with cardiac failure. The breath sounds
what the nurse expected to hear are:
a) Crackles
b) Wheezes
c) Friction rub
d) Rhonchi
Q63: Which of the treatment modalities is appropriate for the management of cardiogenic shock?
Q64: A patient in the CCU has developed ventricular tachycardia. His heart rate is 160 beat/min, he
is hemodynamically stable. The nurse anticipates that the patient will be treated by:
a) Defibrillation
b) Administration of verapamil
c) Administration of Lidocaine
d) Administration of digoxin
Q65: When performing chest compressions on a adult, where should you place your hands on the
chest When you are performing chest compressions?
a) On the top half of the breastbone
b) Over the heart, on the left side of the chest at the nipple line
c) Over the very bottom of the breastbone, on the xiphoid
d) On the lower half of the breastbone, at the nipple line in the center of the chest
Q66: Which of the following types of angina is most likely to progress into M.I?
a) Stable angina
b) Unstable angina
c) Nocturnal angina
d) Variant angina
Q67: The sensation of pain that is described most commonly by the patient of angina is:
a) Knife like
b) Heaviness
c) Sharp
d) Tearing
a) Chin-lift, Head-tilt
b) Jaw Thrust
c) Head-tilt, Chin-lift
d) Head-tilt, Jaw Thrust
Q70: The most common complication after acute myocardial infarction is:
a) Cardiac tamponed
b) Cardiac failure
c) Pulmonary embolism
d) Dysrhythmias
Q71: The nurse is assessing a patient admitted with left-sided heart failure. Which of the following
the nurse should expect to find?
a) 1.5 cm
b) 2.5 cm
c) 3.5 cm
d) 1 cm
a) Auditory function
b) Vestibular function
c) Brainstem function
d) Cochlear function
Answer keys:
1. A 2. c 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. d 7. d
8. a 9. a 10. b 11. a 12. c 13. c 14. a
15. c 16. d 17. b 18. a 19. a 20. b 21. a
22. a 23. a 24. b 25. c 26. c 27. c 28. c
29. a 30. d 31. b 32. a 33. d 34. c 35. a
36. d 37. b 38. d 39. a 40. a 41. a 42. c
43. b 44. a 45. b 46. c 47. b 48. d 49. b
50. a 51. c 52. a 53. c 54. d 55. b 56. c
57. d 58. d 59. d 60. b 61. c 62. a 63. a
64. c 65. d 66. b 67. b 68. b 69. c 70. d
71. d 72. b 73. b 74. a 75. b