Mock Test Code-B
Mock Test Code-B
Mock Test Code-B
28/04/2020
Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456
Test - 12
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
SECTION-A
1. Young’s modulus of material of a wire can be looks at the pin and its inverted image from a
determined in laboratory by using distance keeping his eye in line with PA. When
(1) Post-office box (2) Searle’s apparatus he shift his eye towards left, the image appears to
the left of the object pin. Then,
(3) Meter bridge (4) Bomb calorimeter
(1) x > 2 f (2) x = 2 f
2. Which of the following sets cannot enter into the
list of fundamental quantities in any system of (3) f < x < 2 f (4) x < f
units?
A3 B1/3
(1) length, time, velocity 4. If Z= and percentage error in the
C D3/2
(2) length, mass, velocity measurement of A, B, C and D are 1%, 3%, 2%
(3) mass, time, velocity and 4% respectively, then relative error in the
(4) length, time, mass calculation of Z will be
3. In an experiment to determine the focal length (f) (1) 10 × 10–1 (2) 12 × 10–3
of a concave mirror by the U–V method, a (3) 1.2 × 10–1 (4) 10–3
student placed the object pin A on the principal
axis at a distance x from the pole P. The student
(1)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
5. A particle is projected from ground at an angle the centre of its base. Electric flux linked with the
with the vertical such that its horizontal range R is slant surface of the cone due to the charge is
related to its time of flight T as R = 6 T2. If
g = 10 m/s2 then value of tan is
3
(1) 3 (2)
4
6
(3) 4 (4)
5
(2)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
(2) P-type with electron concentration 16. A uniform chain of length 4 m is kept on a table
8
ne = 6.14 × 10 m–3 such that 120 cm hangs freely from the edge of
(3) N-type with electron concentration the table. The total mass of chain is
ne = 8.2 × 109 m–3 8 kg. The work done in pulling the entire chain on
the table slowly is
(4) P-type with electron concentration
ne = 2.89 × 1030 m–3 (1) 9.6 J (2) 3.6 J
13. A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion. (3) 7.2 J (4) 14.4 J
Its maximum acceleration and maximum velocity 17. Current passed through the switch ‘S’ after
are ‘P’ and ‘Q’ respectively. Then time period of closing it in the circuit shown in the figure is
oscillation will be
2Q 2 Q
(1) (2)
P 2P
Q 2 2 2Q
(3) (4)
P2 P
14. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength is
incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible
work function. If the photoelectrons emitted from (1) 1.77 A (2) 3.23 A
the surface have the de-Broglie wavelength 0 (3) 5.3 A (4) Zero
then is equal to
18. The escape velocity from a planet is ve. A tunnel
2mc 2mc 2 is dug along the diameter of the planet. If a small
(1) 0 (2) 0
h h body of mass m is dropped in to this tunnel then
2
the kinetic energy of the body as pass through
h 2mc the centre of the planet is
(3) 0 (4) 0
2mc h
1 1
15. A capacitor is made from two metallic squares
(1) mv e2 (2) mv e2
2 4
plates having side 1 m and at distance 8.85 mm
(3) mv e2 (4) Zero
apart. The plates are then lowered vertically in to
a medium of dielectric constant K = 11 at speed 19. Energy level A, B and C of a certain atom
of 1 mm/s. If neglecting resistance of connecting corresponds to increasing values of energy i.e.
wires, the current drawn from the battery during EA < EB < EC. If 1, 2 and 3 are wavelengths of
the process is radiations corresponding to transitions C to B,
( = 8.85 × 10–12 farad/m) B to A and C to A respectively, then which of the
following relation is correct?
1 2
(1) 3 =
1 + 2
(2) 1 + 2 = 3
(3) 3 = 12 + 22
1 1
(4) 3 = +
1 2
(3)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
surfaces are smooth then acceleration of block 25. The reading of the ammeter and voltmeters
‘B’ will be connected in the given circuit are respectively
(4)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
4 3
(1) 2 RT0 ln2 (2) 4 RT0 ln2 (1) (2)
3 8
(3) – 12 RT0 ln2 (4) – 4 RT0 ln2
1 5
31. A particle of mass 10 g is executing SHM (3) (4)
2 6
according to the equation y = 4 sin (4t + /3),
having time period T. Kinetic energy of the
particle at t = T/4, will be SECTION-B
(1) 9.6 unit (2) 0.48 unit 36. The potential energy of a particle having mass
(3) 1.92 unit (4) 0.96 unit 1 kg is given by U = (4x + 3y) Joule, where
32. A uniform ladder of mass m = 40 kg rests against x and y are in metre. If the particle was at rest at
a smooth vertical wall making an angle 30º with (16, 6) at time t = 0, then speed of the particle
horizontal. The lower end of ladder rests on a when it crosses x axis will be
1 (1) 10 m/s (2) 5 m/s
rough floor having = . An electrician having
3 (3) 2.5 m/s (4) 15 m/s
mass 80 kg attempt to climb the ladder to repair 37. Electromagnetic wave of intensity 1800 W/m2
house wiring. Fraction of length than can be falls on a completely absorbing spherical surface
encountered by the electrician before the ladder having radius R as shown in the figure
begins to slip, will be
1
(1) (2) 1
2
1 1 Force exerted by beam on the sphere is
(3) (4)
4 3 (1) 108 × 10–10 N (2) 54 × 10–10 N
33. The equation for a wave travelling in x-direction (3) 216 × 10–10 N (4) Zero
on a stretched string is given by
(5)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
38. Three waves of equal frequency having 43. A crane machine is used to lift cement slabs of
amplitudes 12, 4 and 8 unit meet at a point with weight w at Delhi metro site. Machine have to lift
the slabs from rest and have to put them on the
successive phase difference of . Amplitude of
2 elevated platform at a height ‘h’. If the maximum
resulting wave will be tension that the cable of crane machine can
tolerate is nw (n > 1), then minimum time in which
(1) 24 unit (2) 12 2 unit
ascent can be done by the machine is (Tmin = 0)
(3) 4 2 unit (4) 20 unit 1/2 1/2
2h 2 nh
39. The rate of emission of heat by a black body at (1) (2)
(n − 1)g (n − 1)g
temperature T is Q. Rate of emission of heat by
another body having emissivity half unit and 1/2
2(n − 1) 2h
same surface area at temperature 3T, is (3) (4)
n hg g
(1) 81 Q (2) 9 Q
44. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v
(3) 33.5 Q (4) 40.5 Q
making an angle of 45° with the horizontal. The
40. A block of mass 2 kg is projected on a rough magnitude of the angular momentum of the
horizontal surface with momentum 30 kg m/s. If projectile about the point of projection when the
block stopped after moving a distance 8 m on the particle is at its maximum height h is
surface then coefficient of friction between the
mv 3
block and the surface is (1) (2) m 2gh3
4 2g
(1) 1.4 (2) 0.4
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.25 mv 3
(3) (4) Both (1) and (2)
2 2g
41. A hemisphere of radius R and of mass 4m is at
rest on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in 45. When two waves with same frequency and
the figure. A small particle of mass m is released constant phase difference interfere,
from rest at the top of the hemisphere. The (1) There is gain of energy
angular velocity of the particle relative to centre of
(2) There is a loss of energy
hemisphere at an angular displacement , when
(3) The energy is redistributed and distribution
velocity of hemisphere is v, would be
remains constant in time
(4) The energy is redistributed and distribution
changes with time
46. A ball rolls on the top of stair way with a
5v horizontal velocity 4 m/s. If the steps are x m high
(1) and y m wide if the ball hits the edge of the nth
R cos
step. Then value of n will be
2v cos
(2) 2x 2u
R (1) n=
3v sin
gy
(3)
R xu 2
(2) n =
(4)
5v gy 2
R sin
2xu 2
42. Magnetic susceptibility for paramagnetic (3) n=
gy 2
substances is in order of
(1) 10–5 (2) 10–8 x 2u
(4) n=
(3) 10–3 (4) 105 gy
(6)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
(3) 9 10 s (4) 12 10 s
13 3
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 54. Correct order of ionisation energies is
(7)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
57. Equal weights of oxygen and methane are mixed 65. Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solution
in an empty vessel at 300 K. The fraction of total forms
pressure exerted by oxygen is
(1) Al ( OH)4 − (2) Al ( OH)6 3−
1 2
(1) (2) 3+
(4) Al (H2O )
3+
3 3 (3) Al (H2O )
6 4
1 2
(3) (4) 66. Heterocylic aromatic compound among the
2 5
following is
58. 2 mol of an ideal gas compressed reversibly and
isothermally from 10 L to 1 L at 300 K. The work
done during the process is (1) (2)
(1) 1.47 Kcal (2) 2.76 Kcal
(3) 5.52 Kcal (4) 6.9 Kcal
(3) (4)
59. Path function among the following is
(1) w (2) U 67. Most stable carbocation among the following is
(3) H (4) G
(1) (2)
60. Homogenous equilibrium among the following
is/are
(1) (3) (4)
(3)
(1) Same molecules (2) Chain isomers
(4) All of these
(3) Geometric isomers (4) Position isomers
61. pH of 0.01 M aqueous solution of CH3COOH is
69. Growth of fish gets inhibited when the
(pKa = 4.74)
concentration of dissolved oxygen of water is
(1) 3.37 below
(2) 5.05 (1) 6 ppm (2) 10 ppm
(3) 6.7 (3) 17 ppm (4) 5 ppm
(4) 6.99 70. Antiferromagnetic substance is
62. Example of electron deficient hydride is (1) MnO (2) Fe3O4
(8)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
75. For a chemical reaction rate constant is nearly (1) Geometrical isomerism
doubled with 10°C rise in temperature. If r is rate (2) Optical isomerism
of reaction at 25°C then rate of reaction at 55°C
(3) Structural isomerism
is
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) r (2) 2r
85. Which compound, undergoes fastest SN1 reaction
(3) 4r (4) 8r among the following?
76. Which of the following is/are true for
chemisorption?
(1) (2)
(1) Caused by chemical bond formation
(2) It is irreversible
(3) (4)
(3) Highly specific in nature
SECTION-B
(4) All of these
86. Which ether cannot be prepared by Williamson’s
77. In froth floatation process the froth stabiliser used
ether synthesis?
is
(1) Pine oil (2) Fatty acid
(1)
(3) Xanthates (4) Cresol
78. Mond process is used for refining of
(2) CH3 – CH2 – O – CH3
(1) Ti (2) Ni
(3)
(3) Ag (4) Zn
79. In Ostwald process which of the following is/are (4)
formed?
(1) NO (2) NO2
(3) HNO3 (4) All of these 87.
80. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis gives The product D is
(9)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
89. Benzaldehyde on reaction with 50% aq. NaOH
solution forms 96. In H-atom spectrum electron jumps from 5th
excited state to 1st excited state then total
(1) Benzyl alcohol (2) Sodium benzoate number of spectral lines, number of lines in
(3) Phenol (4) Both (1) and (2) Lyman series and Paschen series respectively
90. Which amine does not form sulphonamides on are
reaction with Hinsberg’s reagent? (1) 10, 4, 3 (2) 15, 0, 4
(3) 15, 4, 5 (4) 10, 0, 3
97. 100 mL of 0.04 M NaOH is mixed with 400 mL of
(1) (2) CH3NH2
0.02 M HCl solution. The pH of the resultant
(3) (CH3)2NH (4) (CH3)3N solution becomes
91. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI gives (1) 4.6 (2) 2.1
(3) 8.4 (4) 12.4
(1) n–Hexane (2) Gluconic acid
98. What amount of silver is deposited at cathode if
(3) Fructose (4) Saccharic acid
current of 10 ampere is passed for 965 sec
92. Night blindness is caused by the deficiency of through AgNO3 solution?
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B1 (1) 1.08 g (2) 10.8 g
BOTANY
101. Prokaryotic cells do not have a. Have ‘9+2’ organisation of microtubules
(1) Genetic material (2) Ribosomes b. Are surrounded by membrane
(3) Cell membrane (4) Nucleolus c. Help in locomotion
102. Eukaryotic flagella and cilia are similar to each d. Give cartwheel appearance with no
other as both microtubules in the centre.
(10)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
(1) Only a and b (2) Only c 109. Fungi differ from plants in
(3) Only a and d (4) Only a, b and c (1) Being multicellular (2) Having cell wall
103. Tubulin protein synthesis occurs in (3) Being heterotrophic (4) Being eukaryotic
(1) G1 phase (2) S phase 110. The correct floral formula for family fabaceae is
(3) G2 phase (4) M phase
(1)
104. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Prophase I – Condensation of chromatin (2)
material
(3)
(2) Metaphase I – Formation of double
metaphasic plate (4)
(3) Anaphase I – Splitting of centromere 111. Racemose inflorescence is characterised by
(4) Telophase I – Reappearance of nuclear presence of
membrane (1) Younger flowers towards the apex
105. The taxonomic category that belongs to wheat is (2) Limited growth of main axis
(1) Poaceae (2) Solanum (3) Basipetal order of flowers
(3) Sapindales (4) Anacardiaceae
(4) Terminal flower at main axis
106. Match the following columns and select the
112. Dicot stem and monocot stem cannot be
correct option
differentiated on the basis of presence of
Column I Column II
(1) Pith
a. Herbarium (i) Found in schools and
institutes (2) Endodermis
b. Botanical garden (ii) Analytical in nature (3) Endarch xylem
c. Museum (iii) Quick source of (4) Scattered vascular bundles
reference 113. Ground tissue does not include
d. Key (iv) Ex situ conservation (1) Mesophyll tissue (2) Cortex
strategy
(3) Epidermis (4) Endodermis
a b c d
114. Select the mismatched option
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(1) Salvinia – Heterosporous
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) Marchantia – Monoecious
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) Pinus – Monoecious
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) Chara – Multicellular sex organs
107. Viroids differ from viruses as the former
115. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Volvox is
(1) Have genetic material
respectively
(2) Have capsid
(1) Haplontic and haplodiplontic
(3) Are parasitic
(2) Diplontic and haplodiplontic
(4) Are devoid of protein coat (3) Haplodiplontic and haplontic
108. The sac fungi (4) Haplodiplontic and diplontic
(1) Have aseptate mycelium 116. In active absorption of water
(2) Produce exogenous asexual spores (1) A negative pressure is developed in xylem
(3) Produce exogenous sexual spores (2) OP and energy play the major role
(4) Include yeast, mushrooms and truffles (3) Rate of absorption is high
(4) Movement of water is apoplastic
(11)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
117. Water potential of a solution is 125. Read the following statements and choose the
(1) Any positive value (2) Always equal to p correct option.
124. Adenine derivative phytohormone 131. A man whose mother was colourblind marries a
normal woman who had colourblind father then
(1) Speed up the malting process
what percentage of their daughter would be
(2) Delays senescence colourblind?
(3) Is known as anti-transpirant (1) 25% (2) 75%
(4) Produce parthenocarpic fruits (3) 50% (4) 100%
(12)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
132. In pedigree analysis, what is the symbol used for 138. Cyclosporin A is a/an
sex unspecified? (1) Blood cholesterol lowering agent
(1) (2) (2) Clot buster
(3) Immunosuppressive agent
(3) (4) (4) Protease used for detergent formation
139. Read the following statements and select the
133. Match the given columns and choose the correct correct option.
option
Statement-A : Treatment of waste water is done
Column I Column II by heterotrophic microbes naturally present in
a. hnRNA (i) RNA pol I sewage
b. 5.8S rRNA (ii) RNA pol II Statement-B : Activated sludge contains flocs.
c. 5S rRNA (iii) RNA pol III (1) Only statement A is correct
a b c (2) Only statement B is correct
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (3) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) 140. In an interaction between two specieses, one
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) species is harmed and other species remains
134. i gene of lac operon unaffected. This relationship can be indicated by
(1) Protoplast culture (2) Anther culture (4) Temperature is more than 25°C
(3) Meristem culture (4) Pollen culture 144. Biodiversity increases from
(1) Equator to poles
(13)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 155. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. enzyme
151. Choose the correctly matched pair action
(1) Nose tip – Hyaline cartilage (1) Increasing the concentration of succinate
(2) Tendons – Areolar tissue reverses the inhibition of succinic
(3) Fallopian tube – Ciliated epithelium dehydrogenase by malonate
(4) Blood vessels – Transitional epithelium
(2) Enzymes are usually denatured at high
152. An exclusive feature of neurons is the presence
temperature except in some cases.
of
(1) Nucleus (2) Nissl’s granules (3) A non competitive inhibitor binds to the active
(3) Cell membrane (4) Cytoplasm site of enzyme thus blocking the binding of
153. Choose the incorrect statement. substrate
(1) Sucrose is a non reducing disaccharide (4) Formation of E–S complex is mandatory for
(2) Lecithin is a phosphorylated glyceride found all enzymatic reactions
in lung alveoli 156. Which of the following is least likely to occur in
(3) Only peptide bonds are involved in stabilizing case of parietal cell atrophy in a healthy human?
tertiary structure of proteins
(1) Megaloblastic anaemia
(4) Lipids are not polymeric compounds
154. An alcoholic amino acid is (2) Impaired protein digestion
(1) Glycine (2) Serine (3) Excessive acidity
(3) Alanine (4) Tryptophan (4) Iron deficiency anaemia
(14)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
157. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. absorption 162. Deposition of calcium, fats and cholesterol
of the following products leading to narrowing of lumen of coronary arteries
is termed
(1) Fructose is absorbed by facilitated transport
(1) Angina (2) Heart failure
(2) Glucose and glycine are absorbed by active
transport (3) Atherosclerosis (4) Hypertension
(3) Amino acids are always absorbed only by 163. Aldosterone secreted by A in response to B
simple diffusion blood pressure, cause C of D from E .
(4) Long chain fatty acids and glycerol cannot be Choose the option that fill the blank correctly.
absorbed directly into blood.
A B C D E
158. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t respiratory
volumes and capacities. (1) Adrenal High Secretion K+ PCT
medulla
(1) VC = IC + ERV (2) FRC = ERV + RV
(2) Pituitary Low Reabsorption K+ DCT
(3) TLC = IC + VC (4) EC = TV + ERV
gland
159. Inspiration occurs when
(3) Adrenal High Secretion Na+ PCT
(1) Volume of thoracic cavity decreases
cortex
(2) Volume of pulmonary cavity increases
(4) Adrenal Low Reabsorption Na+ DCT
(3) Pressure within pulmonary cavity increases cortex
(4) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
164. Excretion in prawns occurs through
relax
(1) Malpighian tubules (2) Green glands
160. Match the column I and column II
(3) Nephridia (4) Kidneys
Column – I Column – II
165. The muscle fibres of muscles of thigh exhibit all
(a) Pulmonary (i) pO2 = 40 mm Hg the following except
artery (1) Striations
(b) Systemic artery (ii) pCO2 = 45 mm Hg (2) Syncytium
(15)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
169. Choose the correct match w.r.t. receptors and (3) Osteichthyes – Cartilaginous endoskeleton
their stimulus (4) Amphibia – External fertilisation
(1) Nociceptors - Pain 174. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. parts of
(2) Proprioreceptors - Pressure reproductive system of male cockroach and their
functions
(3) Meissner’s corpuscles - Heat
(4) Gustatoreceptors - Olfaction (1) Seminal – Secrete outer layer
vesicles of spermatophore
170. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. hormones
(1) Protein hormones can cross the cell (2) Mushroom – Provide nutrition to
membrane easily and have intracellular gland sperms
receptors (3) Testes – Formation of
(2) Steroid hormones like estrogen regulate the sperms
gene expression or chromosome function
(4) Vas deferens – Transportation of
(3) Hormones are produced in large quantities sperms
and their secretion can not be controlled by
175. Periplaneta americana does not possess
feedback mechanisms
(1) Chitinous exoskeleton
(4) Two or more hormones produce same effect
in target cells to bring about antagonistic (2) Compound eyes
action (3) Enterocoelom
171. Amino acid tyrosine is the precursor of (4) Open circulatory system
(a) Thyroxine (b) Melanin 176. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. organism and
(c) Adrenaline (d) Melatonin its mode of reproduction
Choose the correct answer (1) Euglena - Gemmule formation
(16)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
must have normal shape and size and at least (1) Genetic drift
'C' % of them must show vigorous motility. (2) Random mating
(3) Gene flow
Choose the option that correctly identifies A, B
and C. (4) Genetic recombination
185. Two mya, an ancestor of Homo sapiens sapiens
A B C
who ate only fruits and hunted with stone
(1) 200 – 300 million 70 30 weapons was
(2) 200 – 300 million 60 40 (1) Homo habilis
(3) 200 – 300 million 40 60 (2) Homo erectus
(4) 200 – 300 million 30 70 (3) Australopithecus
(4) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis
179. A 28 year old woman whose menstrual cycle is of
44 days is trying to conceive. On roughly which SECTION-B
day of her cycle should she have sexual 186. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t.
intercourse for maximum chances of fertilisation? immunoglobulins
(1) 14th day (2) 24th day (1) IgA is present in colostrum
(3) 30th day (4) 40th day (2) IgM has ten antigen binding sites
180. A method of sterilization in which a part of (3) IgG is mainly responsible for primary immune
fallopian tube is cut or tied up is response
(1) Called vasectomy (4) Some immunoglobulins can cross placenta
(2) A barrier method of contraception and provide immunity to the foetus
(3) A method of inhibition of ovulation 187. Choose the correct feature w.r.t. the compound
(4) Highly effective for birth control shown below.
181. All the following are in vivo fertilisation techniques
except
(1) AI (2) IUI
(3) GIFT (4) ICSI
182. Industrial melanism is an example of
(1) Directional selection
(2) Balancing selection
(3) Stabilising selection
(4) Diversifying selection (1) One of its derivatives causes hallucinations if
183. Choose the incorrect match taken in large amounts
(2) Its receptors are not present in CNS
(1) Eyes of Octopus and Convergent
(3) Its acetylation results in the production of a
mammals evolution
white, crystalline compound
(2) Bones of forelimbs of Divergent (4) It acts as stimulant in lower doses
(17)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021
188. Choose the odd one w.r.t. fresh water fishes 195. If a gene of interest is inserted within the coding
(1) Hilsa (2) Catla sequence of an enzyme -galactosidase, the
(3) Labeo (4) Cirrhina recombinants will
189. Match column I and column II w.r.t. diseases and (1) Appear blue in colour
their causative agent (2) Be sensitive to ampicillin
Column – I Column – II (3) Be resistant to tetracycline
(a) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema (4) Appear white in colour
(b) Syphilis (ii) Anopheles 196. Choose the odd one w.r.t division
(c) Malaria (iii) Entamoeba Gnathostomata.
(d) Elephantiasis (iv) Plasmodium (1) Amphibia
(2) Osteichthyes
(v) Wuchereria
(3) Cyclostomata
Choose the correct option
(4) Chondrichthyes
(1) a (ii), b (iv), c (iii), d(v) 197. Which of the following reagents would be useful
(2) a (ii), b (iii), c (i), d(iv) for visualizing DNA fragments that have been
(3) a (iii), b (i), c (ii), d(v) separated by electrophoresis in an agarose gel?
(4) a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d(v) (1) Diphenylamine (2) Trypan blue
190. Complete the analogy (3) Methyl orange (4) EtBr
198. Which of the following is an example of fish-like
Molecular glue : Ligase : : Molecular scissors :
reptile?
(1) Taq polymerase
(1) Ichthyosaurs (2) Ichthyophis
(2) Restriction endonuclease (3) Tuataras (4) Stegosaurs
(3) Plasmids 199. Simple cuboidal brush bordered epithelium lines
(4) Alkaline phosphatase (1) PCT (2) Afferent arteriole
191. Which of the following is not a step of process of (3) Efferent arteriole (4) Henle’s loop
PCR? 200. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of
(1) Denaturation of DNA the sectional view of cochlea. Which of the
(2) Elution from agar plate following option correctly represents the label ‘A’
or ‘B’?
(3) Annealing of primer
(4) Extension using polymerase
192. The most appropriate vector used for cloning
genes into higher organisms is
(1) Bacteriophage (2) E. coli
(3) Retrovirus (4) pBR322
193. Golden rice has been developed to cure
(1) Scurvy (2) Night blindness
(3) Rickets (4) Beri beri
194. Tobacco plants have been made resistant to
(1) A-Scala tympani
nematode infection by a technique called
(2) A-Scala media
(1) RNAi (2) Gel electrophoresis
(3) B-Basilar membrane
(3) PCR (4) Blotting (4) B-Tectorial membrane
❑ ❑ ❑
(18)