Ascent Obj Iit Jee Esankalprn2125, Wa1 A4, R, Ecmsdonline2125a1 A2 C Ix p2 f1

f\f
FIITJEE
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
BATCHES – eSANKAL PRN2125,WA 1-A4,R, eC MSDONLINE2125A1 -A 2
IIT-JEE PATTERN CODE:

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 294
 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
 You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR
sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. SECTION-I is Physics, SECTION -II is Chemistry and SECTION -III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into three sections: PART-A, PART-B & PART-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided
for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR
sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each character
of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.
(i) Section-A (01 – 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each
question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) (09 - 14) 2 comprehension (3 questions each with single option correct). Each question carries +3
marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
(iii) (15 – 18) contains 4 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
(iv) Section-B (01 – 02) contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2 columns.
Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. Each question
carries +8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 marks will be awarded. There may be one
or more than one correct choice. No marks will be given for any wrong match in any question. There is no
negative marking.
(v) Section-C (01 – 06) contains 6 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from
0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking
Name of the Candidate :___________________________________________________
Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :__________________________
Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________________

2021-IIT-JEE_CLASS-IX-(P2)-(eSANKALPRN2125,WA1-A4,R,eCMSDONLINE2125A1-A2)-PCM-2
Useful Data Chemistry:

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol 1
= 1.987  2 Cal K1 mol 1
23
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023  10
Planck’s Constant h = 6.626  10–34 Js
-27
= 6.25 x 10 erg.s
1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 Joule
1 amu = 1.66 x 10-27 kg
-19
1 eV = 1.6 x 10 J
Atomic No : H=1, D=1, Li=3, Na=11, K=19, Rb=37, Cs=55, F=9, Ca=20, He=2, O=8,
Au=79.
Atomic Masses: He=4, Mg=24, C=12, O=16, N=14, P=31, Br=80, Cu=63.5, Fe=56, Mn=55,
Pb=207,
Au=197, Ag=108, F=19, H=1, Cl=35.5, Sn=118.6
Useful Data Physics:
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m / s2
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
SE
ECCT
TIION
N-- II:: PHYSIICS
S
SECTION – A (Total Marks : 24) (3, – 1)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A hanging body of mass m 1 is pulled by a force F = m 2g acting on the

massless inextensible smooth string. The acceleration of m 1 is
m2  m1 m1m 2
(A) g (B) g
m1  m2  m1  m2 
m1m2  m2  m1  m1
(C) 2
(D) g
 m1  m2  g m1 F= m2g
2. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in figure. The coefficient a
of static friction between the block and the cart is  . The acceleration ‘a’ of the
C m
cart that will prevent the block from falling satisfies
mg g
(A) a  (B) a 
 m
g g
(C) a  (D) a 
 
3. A man slides down a light rope whose breaking strength is  times his weight ( < 1). What should be
his maximum acceleration so that the rope just breaks?
(A) g (B) g(1  )
g g
(C) (D)
(1  ) (2  )
4. A man getting down a running bus falls forward because

(A) due to inertia of rest, road is left behind and he reaches forward
(B) due to inertia of motion upper part of body continues to be in motion in forward direction while feet
come to rest as soon as they touch the road
(C) he leans forward as a matter of habit
(D) of the combined effect of all the three factors stated in A, B and C
Space for rough work
5. Two satellites of masses m and 9 m respectively are revolving around a planet of radius R. Their period
of revolution will be in the ratio of
(A) 9 : 1 (B) 3 : 1
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 3
6. The distance of the centres of moon and earth is D. The mass of the earth is 81 times the mass of the
moon. At what distance from the centre of the earth, the gravitational force will be zero?
(A) D/2 (B) 2D/3
(C) 4D/3 (D) 9D/10
7. A body sliding on a surface, assuming that net force on this body is zero
(A) It will eventually come to rest (B) It will continue to move with same speed
(C) Its speed will decrease (D) Acceleration of body is negative
8. The two planets have radii r1 and r2 and their densities 1 and 2 respectively. The ratio of acceleration
due to gravity on them will be
(A) r11 : r22 (B) r1 12 : r2  22
(C) r12 1  r22 2 (D) r12 : r21
Paragraph Type (Total Marks : 18) (3, – 1)

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to two paragraphs with three questions on each
paragraph. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Questions 9 to 11
A ball of mass 200 g is thrown with a speed 20 m/sec. The ball strikes a bat and rebounds along the same line
at a speed 40 m/sec. Variation of the interaction force, as long as the ball remains in contact with the bat, is as
shown in figure.
F
F0
T
4 ms 6 ms
9. Maximum force F0 exerted by the bat on the ball is

(A) 4000 N (B) 5000 N
(C) 3000 N (D) 2500 N
10. Average force exerted by the bat on the ball is

(A) 5000 N (B) 2000 N
(C) 2500 N (D) 6000 N
11. What is the speed of the ball at the instant the force acting on it is maximum?
(A) 40 m/sec (B) 30 m/sec
(C) 20 m/sec (D) 10 m/sec
A satellite of mass ‘m’ is revolving around a planet of mass ‘M’ in a circular path of radius ‘R’. Now answer the
following questions.
m
12. What is the magnitude of acceleration of the satellite? (Take speed of the satellite as ‘v’)
Gm GM
(A) 2
(B)
R R2
2
Gm v GM v 2
(C) 2
 (D) 
R R R2 R
13. What is the frequency of revolution of the satellite?

GM Gm
(A) 3/2
(B)
2(R) 2(R)3/2
GM Gm
(C) (D)
2(R)3 2(R)3
14. What is the direction of net force acting on the satellite?

(A) Along the tangent, in the direction of velocity
(B) Along the tangent, in a direction opposite to the direction of velocity
(C) Radially inwards
(D) Radially outwards
(Multiple Correct Answers Type)

(Total Marks : 16) (4, 0)
which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
15. An earth satellite is moving round the earth in a circular orbit. For such a satellite, which of the following
statement is/are correct?
(A) It is a freely falling body. (B) It is moving with a constant speed.
(C) Its acceleration is zero. (D) Its areal velocity is constant
16. A block is kept on a rough inclined plane as shown in figure. The block is at rest 
w.r.t. plane.
(A) The force of friction acting on the block is directed towards AB B
m
(B) The force of friction acting on the block is directed towards BA
(C) The magnitude of friction force is greater than mg
A 
(D) The magnitude of friction force is less than mg.
17. Action and reaction forces

(A) always exist in pair (B) are equal in magnitude
(C) are unequal in magnitude (D) always act in opposite direction
18. The time period of a satellite in a circular orbit around a planet depends on
(A) The mass of the planet (B) The mass of the satellite
(C) Radius of the circular orbit (D) All of the above
SECTION –B
(Total Marks : 16) (+2, 0 for each row)
Matrix – Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and
four statements (p, q, r and s) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with
one or more statement(s) in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the
statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles
corresponding to q and r in the ORS.
1. A block of mass m is at rest over the rough

surface of the fixed wedge.
m

fixed
Column-I Column-II
(A) frictional force on block is (p) mg cos 
(B) normal reaction on block is (q) mg sin 
(C) contact force on block is (r)  mg cos 
(D) limiting value of frictional force (s) mg
2. Match the column I and column II

Column I Column II

(A) Newton’s first law (p) p  0
 
(B) Newton’s second law (q) FAB   FBA
(C) Newton’s third law (r) Force = mass × acceleration

(D) Principle of conservation of linear momentum (s) Law of Inertia
SECTION C
(Total Marks : 24) (+4, 0)
(Integer Answer Type)
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
1. A bullet moving with a velocity of 100 m/s can just penetrate two planks of equal thickness. Find the
number of such Planks penetrated by the same bullet, when the velocity is doubled. (assuming that
resistance offered by planks is uniform)
2. Three uniform spheres each having a mass M and radius ‘a’ are kept in such a way that each touch the
3GM2
other two. The magnitude of the gravitational force is on any of the spheres due to the other
Ka2
two. Find the value of K.
3. Time period of two planets round the sun are in the ratio 1 : 8 then radii will be in the ratio 1: R. Find ‘R’.
4. A man throws a ball weighing 500g vertically upwards with a speed of 10m/s. What would be its
momentum at the top most point of its flight?
6
5. Gravitational acceleration on the surface of a planet is g , where g is the gravitational acceleration
11
2
on the surface of the earth. The average mass density of the planet is times that of the earth. If the
3
escape speed on the surface of the earth is taken to be 11 km/sec, then find the escape speed on the
surface of the planet in km/sec
6. A block is moving on an incline plane making an angle 45° with the horizontal and the coefficient of
friction is . The force required to just push it up the inclined plane is three times the force required to
just prevent it from shiding down. If we define N = 2.5 , then N is
SE
ECCTIO
ONN -- III:: C
CHE
EMIS
STRY
Y
SECTION – A (Total Marks : 24) (3, – 1)
1. Separating funnel is useful in separating the following

(A) Miscible liquids with same density (B) Miscible liquids with same colour
(C) Miscible liquids with variable density (D) Immiscible liquids with variable density
2. Which one of the following does not involve coagulation?

(A) Peptization (B) Formation of delta regions
(C) Treatment of drinking water by potash alum (D) Clotting of blood by the use of ferric chloride
3. The movement of colloidal particles towards one of the electrodes under the influence of an electric
field is
(A) Electrolysis (B) Anodizing
(C) Catenisation (D) Electrophoresis
4. A student heats solid copper sulphate in a dry test tube and reports the following observations. The
observation which is correctly noticed is
(A) It breaks with crackling sound
(B) A reddish brown gas is evolved
(C) Water droplets collect in the cooler parts of the test tube
(D) Copper sulphate turns red.
5. How much water should be added to 16 ml acetone to make its concentration 50%(V/V)?
(A) 17.33 ml (B) 16 ml
(C) 50 ml (D) 32 ml
6. The process of purification of colloids by passing through semi permeable membrane is called:
(A) Filtration (B) Electrophoresis
(C) Dialysis (D) Ultra filtration
7. Size of colloidal particles in a solution is :

(A) More than 100 nm (B) Less than 1 nm
(C) Between 100 to 1000 nm (D) between 1 to 100 nm
8. Which is the correct statement in case of milk?

(A) Milk is an emulsion of protein in water (B) Milk is an emulsion of fat in water
(C) Milk is stabilized by fat (D) None of these

The concentration of a solution can be expressed in several different ways as in case of a solid dissolved in a
liquid, it is convenient to express the concentration of a solution in mass percentage. Mass percentage of a
component is defined as the mass percentage of the solute dissolved in 100 g of the solution.
Mass by volume percentage is defined as the amount of solute in grams dissolved in 100 ml of the solution.
If a solution is prepared by dissolving a liquid solute in a liquid solvent the concentration of a solution is usually
expressed in volume by volume percentage or simply volume percentage. (The volume of a solute in ml
dissolved in 100 ml of the solution).
9. 15 g of methyl alcohol is present in 100 ml of solution. If the density of solution is 0.96 g/ml, calculate
the mass percentage of methyl alcohol in solution.
(A) 15.625% (B) 25.625%
(C) 45.625% (D) 35.625%
10. Density of the solution of a salt X is 1.15 g/ml. 20 ml of the solution when completely evaporated gave a
residue of 4.6 g of the salt. Calculate the mass percentage of the solute in solution.
(A) 40% (B) 20%
(C) 80% (D) 60%
11. Aqueous urea solution is 20% by mass of solution. Calculate percentage by mass of solvent.
(A) 75% (B) 15%
(C) 25% (D) 65%
A change in which two or more substances (reactants) combine to produce one or more new substances
(products) that has / have different chemical properties than the reactants is called chemical change.
In a chemical change new products are formed. The characteristics of a chemical change are following:
A. Heat, light or any other radiation (ultraviolet) may be given off or absorbed.
B. Sound may be produced.
C. A change in smell may take place or a new smell may be given off.
D. A colour change may take place.
E. A gas may be formed.
Change in which only physical properties of any substance get changed such as shape, size, colour & state and
no new substance is formed is called a physical change. A physical change is mostly reversible.
12. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) In a chemical change, colour of the object may change
(B) In a chemical change, heat will always be released
(C) In a chemical change, either heat is released or absorbed
(D) Rusting of iron becomes faster when humidity is high
13. Which of the following is a chemical change?

(A) Foul smell comes when food gets spoiled
(B) Explosion of fireworks.
(C) Change in colour of a cut apple if left outside.
(D) All of the above.
14. The reason for a physical change to be named as such is that the
(A) Change occurs only in physical properties
(B) Transfer of energy occurs definitely
(C) Is a reversible change always.
(D) All the above are correct.


(Total Marks : 16) (4, 0)
15. Which of the following are characteristics of compound?

(A) Formation of a compound generally involves energy changes
(B) A compound cannot be separated into its constituent elements by physical processes
(C) A compound shows the characteristics of all its constituent elements
(D) A compound does not have definite melting point and boiling point
16. Which of the following is/are not correctly matched?

(A) Emulsion - smoke
(B) Solid sol- Ruby
(C) Aerosol – whipped cream
(D) Foam – mist
17. Scattering of light occurs when a beam of light is passed through

(A) Distilled water (B) Ink
(C) Copper sulphate solution (D) Blood
18. Select the correct statements among the following

(A) Milk is emulsion of fat in water
(B) An emulsifier stabilizes the emulsion
(C) Emulsifier forms a thin film around the droplets of dispersed phase
(D) Milk is an emulsion of protein in water
SECTION –B
1. Match the following:

Column A Column B
(A) Chromatography (p) Components of Air
(B) Centrifugation (q) Common salt + NH4Cl
(C) Fractional distillation (r) Cream from milk
(D) Sublimation (s) Components of ink
2. Match the column I with column II

Column – I Column – II
(A) Cheese (p) Dispersion of liquid in liquid
(B) Pumice stone (q) Dispersion of solid in liquid
(C) Milk (r) Dispersion of gas in solid
(D) Paints (s) Dispersion of liquid in solid
SECTION–C
(Total Marks : 24) (+4, 0)
1. By how many degrees the boiling points of liquid oxygen and liquid argon differ?
2. Identify the number of physical properties from the following :-

Corrosion, Fluidity, Rancidity, Ductility, Reactivity, Solubility, Malleability
3. A solution contains 5 ml of alcohol mixed with 95 ml of H2O. What will be the volume % of the solution?
4. Identify the total metalloids among the following : C, Si, O, Na, Cu, N, Ge, Ne, As,Sb.
5. How many of them are colloids:

Whipped cream, salt solution, cheese, hydrogen, pumice stone, Butter, Blood, Copper sulphate
solution, silica.
6. How many of the following are pure substances?

sodium, silver, slaked lime, coke, air, limestone, blood, carbon dioxide, silica.
S
SECTION - IIII:: M
MAATHEMA
ATIC
CS
SECTION – A (Total Marks: 24) (3, – 1)
1. If a = log354 and b = log224, then

(A) a = b (B) a > b
(C) a < b (D) Can’t be determined
2. O is any point in the interior of ABC, then which of the following is true?
1
(A) (OA + OB + OC) > (AB + BC + CA) (B) OA + OB + OC > (AB + BC + CA)
2
1
(C) (OA + OB + OC) < (AB + BC + CA) (D) None of these
2
3. In a ABC, sum of exterior angles at B and C

(A) 180 – A (B) 180 + A
(C) 180 – 2A (D) 180 + 2A
4. If log10 2 = 0.3010 and log10 3 = 0.4771, then log10 150 =

(A) 2.1761 (B) 2.8751
(C) 2.5762 (D) 2.6126
5. A triangle has sides of 5 cm, 12 cm, 13 cm. The length of perpendicular from the vertex to the smallest
side is
(A) 12 cm (B) 5 cm
(C) 13 cm (D) 10 cm
6. In ABC, B = 35°, C = 65° and the bisector AD of BAC meets BC A

at D. Then which of the following is true.
(A) AD > BD > CD (B) BD > AD > CD 40° 40°
(C) AD > CD > BD (D) None of these
35° 65°
B C
D
7. Distance between Circumcentre and Orthocentre of triangle formed by (3, 4) (3, –2) and (5, 4) is
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 2 5 (D) 2 10
log x log 49
8. If  , then the relation between x and y.
log y log7
3
(A) x = y (B) x = y
2 2
(C) y = x (D) x = y

In ABC, D is any point on the side BC, through A, EF || BC and EAB = FAC, AB = 5a – 2, AC = 3b – 1, BD
= |a – 3| and DC = |2 – b|, 2  a  3 and  2  b  3 where a and b are integers.
9. Triangle ABD and ACD are

(A) Congruent (B) Not congruent
(C) Data insufficient (D) None of these
10. Value of b is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
11. Length of BC is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
The point ‘P’ which divides line segment joining the points (x 1, y1) and (x 2, y2) internally in the ratio m : n is
 mx 2  nx1 my 2  ny1   mx 2  nx1 my 2  ny1 
 ,  , and externally in the ratio m : n is  ,  . The ratio of line segment
 mn mn   mn m n 
joining A(3, 4), B(–2, 1) divided by
12. x-axis is
(A) 3 : 2 (B) 3 : –2
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 4 : –1
13. y-axis is
(A) 3 : 2 (B) 3 : –2
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 4 : –1
 1 
14. Divided by the point P   , 2  is
 3 
(A) 3 : 2 (B) 2 : 3
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1

(Total Marks: 16) (4, 0)
15. The points of trisection of line segment joining (6, –3) (–3, 9) is
(A) (3, 1) (B) (0, 5)
(C) (–3, –1) (D) (0, –5)
16. Two opposite vertices of a square are (1, –2) and (–5, 6), then other vertices are
(A) (-5,-2) (B) (1,6)
(C) (–2, 5) (D) (6, 1)
17. If log2  1  x 2  14x  49   4 , then x is/are equal to

 
(A) 24 (B) –24
(C) 10 (D) –10
18. In ABC, AD is bisector of A, then

(A) AB > BD (B) AC > CD
(C) AB < BD (D) AC < CD
SECTION –B
1.
(A) In a triangle, side opposite to larger angle is (p) Shorter
(B) In a triangle, side opposite to shorter angle is (q) Larger
(C) Sum of any two sides of triangle is ____ third side (r) Greater than
(D) In a ABC, AB > AC, then B is ____ C (s) Less than
2. O is origin and B is a point on x-axis at a distance of 2 units from origin.

(A) If AOB is equilateral, then coordinates of A can be (p) 1, 3 
If AOB is isosceles such that OAB is 30°, then
(B)
coordinates of A can be
(q)  2  3, 1
If OB is one side of rhombus of area 2 3 units, then
(C)
one vertex can be
(r)  3, 3 
If OB is chord of circle with radius OB, then coordinates
(D)
of A such that AOB is isosceles and A lies on the circle
(s) 1, 2  3 
SECTION-C
(Total Marks: 24) (+4, 0)
2  1 2  1 1
1. If A = (t , 2t), B =  2 ,  , S = (1, 0), then   ____
t t  SA SB
2. If vertices of triangle are (3, –5) (–7, 4) and (10, –k) and Centroid is (k, –1), then k = ____
3. If the points [x 1 + t (x 2 – x 1), y1 + t (y2 – y1)] divides the join of (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) internally, then number
of integral values of t = ____
AC
4. If D is mid point of hypotenuse AC of right triangle ABC, then  ________
BD
5. If 2log5 .5log 2  2log x , then log5 4 x 2 is
6. ABC is an isosceles triangle, where AB = AC, ABC = 35, AD is median to BC, then
BAD
 ________
11
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

[Phase-2]
IIT–JEE STAGE – I
ANSWERS
Physics [SECTION-I]
SECTION–A
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. B
5. C 6. D 7. B 8. A
9. A 10. B 11. C 12. B
13. A 14. C 15. B,D 16. A,D
17. A,B,D 18. A,C
SECTION–B
1. A  (q), B  (p), C  (s), D  (r)
2. A  (s), B  (r), C  (q), D  (p)
SECTION–C
1. 8 2. 4 3. 4 4. 0
5. 3 6. 5
Chemistry [SECTION-II]
SECTION–A
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. C
5. B 6. C 7. D 8. B
9. A 10. B 11. C 12. B
13. D 14. A 15. A,B 16. A,C,D
17. B,D 18. A,B,C
SECTION–B
1. A  (s), B  (r), C  (p), D  (q)
2. A  (s), B  (r), C  (p), D  (q)
SECTION–C
1. 3 2. 4 3. 5 4. 4
5. 5 6. 7
Mathematics [SECTION-III]
SECTION–A
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. A
5. A 6. B 7. B 8. D
9. A 10. C 11. B 12. D
13. A 14. D 15. A,B 16. A,B
17. A,D 18. A,B
SECTION–B
1. A  (q), B  (p), C  (r), D  (s)
2. A  (p), B  (p,r,s), C  (p,r), D  (p,r,s)
SECTION–C
1. 1 2. 2 3. 0 4. 2
5. 1 6. 5

Ascent Obj Iit Jee Esankalprn2125, Wa1 A4, R, Ecmsdonline2125a1 A2 C Ix p2 f1

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Ascent Obj Iit Jee Esankalprn2125, Wa1 A4, R, Ecmsdonline2125a1 A2 C Ix p2 f1

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Ascent Obj Iit Jee Esankalprn2125, Wa1 A4, R, Ecmsdonline2125a1 A2 C Ix p2 f1

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

f\f

IIT-JEE PATTERN CODE:

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

Name of the Candidate :___________________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :__________________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________________

Useful Data Chemistry:

Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m / s2

1. A hanging body of mass m 1 is pulled by a force F = m 2g acting on the

4. A man getting down a running bus falls forward because

Space for rough work

Space for rough work

Paragraph Type (Total Marks : 18) (3, – 1)

Paragraph for Questions 9 to 11

9. Maximum force F0 exerted by the bat on the ball is

10. Average force exerted by the bat on the ball is

Space for rough work

Paragraph for Questions 12 to 14

13. What is the frequency of revolution of the satellite?

14. What is the direction of net force acting on the satellite?

Space for rough work

(Multiple Correct Answers Type)

17. Action and reaction forces

Space for rough work

1. A block of mass m is at rest over the rough

(A) frictional force on block is (p) mg cos 

(B) normal reaction on block is (q) mg sin 

(C) contact force on block is (r)  mg cos 

(D) limiting value of frictional force (s) mg

2. Match the column I and column II

(C) Newton’s third law (r) Force = mass × acceleration

Space for rough work

Space for rough work

1. Separating funnel is useful in separating the following

2. Which one of the following does not involve coagulation?

7. Size of colloidal particles in a solution is :

8. Which is the correct statement in case of milk?

Space for rough work

Paragraph Type (Total Marks : 18) (3, – 1)

Paragraph for Questions 9 to 11

Paragraph for Questions 12 to 14

12. Which of the following statements is not correct?

13. Which of the following is a chemical change?

Space for rough work

(Multiple Correct Answers Type)

15. Which of the following are characteristics of compound?

16. Which of the following is/are not correctly matched?

17. Scattering of light occurs when a beam of light is passed through

18. Select the correct statements among the following

Space for rough work

1. Match the following:

2. Match the column I with column II

Space for rough work

2. Identify the number of physical properties from the following :-

5. How many of them are colloids:

6. How many of the following are pure substances?

Space for rough work

Batch : Date of Examination :______