ME VIRTUAL & PHYSICAL ACADEMY

SUKKUR

1ST MOCK TEST

FOR DIRECT TEST PREPARATION OF SUKKUR IBA
UNIVERSITY

Conducted By:
ME TESTING AND COUNSELING
SERVICE

Dated: August 15th, 2021.

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General Instructions:
 This mock-test is designed as the preparatory direct test of Sukkur IBA University.
 This test is comprised of 100 questions from four subjects. The division of the question
according to subjects are as follows:
Section# 1: Mathematics_ 35 questions
Section# 2: English_ 40 questions
Section# 3 General Knowledge_ 15 questions
Section# 4 Intelligent Quotient _ 10 questions
 The question series of all four subjects is as under:
Section# 1: Mathematics_ Q1 to Q35
Section# 2: English_ Q36 to Q75
Section# 3 General Knowledge_ Q76 to Q90
Section# 4 Intelligent Quotient _ Q90 to Q100
 You will have 120 minutes (2 hours) to attempt this test. The suggested time for each
section is as follows:

Section# 1: Mathematics_ 42 minutes

Section# 2: English_ 48 minutes

Section# 3 General Knowledge_ 18 minutes

Section# 4 Intelligent Quotient _ 12 minutes

 Each question carries one mark, therefore 100 marks will be for 100 questions.
 You will get one mark for each correct answer.
 There is also negative marking of 0.25 for every wrong answer. Hence, if you answer
incorrectly 0.25 for each incorrect question will be deducted from your total marks. In
simple words, your 4 wrong responses will make you lose your one correct response
(0.25*4=1).
 However, no marks are awarded or deducted for un-attempted questions.
 You are not supposed to write the whole answer rather have to just choose the right key
from A to E.
 Read the question at least twice before attempting it on your answer sheet.
 Ensure good time management.

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 ‘Section# 1_Mathematics’
No. of Questions= 35 (1 mark on each question)
1. Which of the following is odd number?
a) (2𝑛 + 6)3 b) (3𝑛 + 4)3 c) (5𝑛 + 7)5 d) (2𝑛 + 5)2
2. What will be half of 8100 ?
a) 4100 b) 850 c) 299 d) 2299
3. 5 × 10−𝑏 = 0.0500, then b is equal to_______
a) -2 b) -1 c) 1 d) 2
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4. 7 1000 is equal to_________

a) 7.004 b) 7.0004 c) 7.04 d) 7.00425

5. What will be the value of x if 𝑥 3 = 𝑦 9 and y is equal to 2.
a) 8 b) 9 c) 3 d) 1
6. Unit digit [ (251)98 + (21)29 − (106)100 + (705)35 − 164 + 259] is_______
a) 1 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
7. Which of the following fraction is smallest?
7 7 4 5
a) b) c) d)
6 9 5 7

8. If n = 20.15 and 𝑛𝑏 = 16, b must be equal to _________

3 3 80
a) 80 b) 5 c) 4 d) 3

9. Which of the following is a multiple of 120 which lies between 400 and 500 where the digit at
tens place is double the digit at hundreds place?
a) 490 b) 470 c) 480 d) 460
10. 210 oranges, 252 apples and 294 pears are equally packed in cartoons so that no fruit is left.
What is the biggest possible number of cartoons needed?
a) 40 b) 42 c) 44 d) 46
11. (𝐴′ ∩ 𝐵)′ =?
a) B b) A c) { } d) 𝑩 ∩ 𝐴

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12. Following diagram shows_________________
a) (B∩ 𝐶)𝑈(𝐴 ∩ 𝐶)
b) AU(BUC)
c) (A∩ 𝐵) ∩ (𝐵𝑈𝐶)
d) NOT

13. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers is 3000, the smallest of these three numbers is
__________
a) 1002 b) 1001 c) 1000 d) 999
14. Which of the following is null set?
a) { 𝑥 ∈ 𝑍 ∶ 𝑥 3 = −1}

b) { 𝑥 ∈ 𝐼𝑟𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑙: √2 ≤ √3
c) {𝑥 ∈ 𝑍: 𝑥 ≠ 2 ∧ 𝑥 𝑖𝑠 𝑒𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑒}
d) { x ∈ 𝑍: 𝑥 2 = 1}
15. What is the rational number for recurring decimal 0.720720720……….
720720
a) 1000
67
b) 421
720
c) 999
d) None of these
16. Which of the following numbers is not a perfect square?
a) 6084
b) 9409
c) 3878
d) 12321
17. I the length of the rectangle is 6 times more than its breadth. If the area of rectangle is 486
then what will be the length of rectangle?
a) 9
b) 6
c) 36
d) 54

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 2𝑥 2𝑦 3
18. If x = 2 and y = 3 then what will be the answer of ?
𝑥 2𝑦 3

a) a) 16 b) 8 c) 4 d) 2
1 1 1 1
19. The value of (1+𝑥) (1+𝑥+1) (1+𝑥+2) (1+𝑥+3) will be ____
1
a) 1+𝑥+4
b) x + 4
1
c)
𝑥
𝑥+4
d) 𝑥

20. You are running a concession stand at a basketball game. You are selling hot dogs and sodas.
Each hot dog costs $1.50 and each soda costs $0.50. At the end of the night you made a total of
$78.50. You sold a total of 87 hot dogs and sodas combined. You must report the number of hot
dogs sold and the number of sodas sold. How many hot dogs were sold?
a) 35
b) 52
c) 60
d) 30
21. The ratio of number of boys and girls is 4 : 3, if there are 18 girls in a class, what will be
number of boys in the class?
a) 10 b) 14 c) 18 d) 24
22. If A : B = 2 : 3 and B : C = 3 : 4, then what will be 2A : 3B : 𝐶 2 ?
a) 4 : 9 : 6 b) 4 : 9 : 5 c) 4 : 9 : 16 d) NOT
23. A car covers a certain distance in 5 hours with speed of 50 km/h. In what time will it cover
he distance with the speed of 60 km/h?
25 25 25 25
a) b) c) d)
6 4 3 2

24. Rama and Pooja are partners in a business. Rama invests Rs. 5000 for 5 months and Pooja
invests Rs. 6000 for 6 months. If the total profit is Rs. 610, then Pooja’s share in the profit is?
a) 250 b) 360 c) 300 d) 200
25. If x < 20 and 20 < y then which of the following is right?
a) x > y b) x < y c) x ≥ y d) NOT

26. What will be the greatest integer value of y that satisfies inequality 3y < -24?
a) -5 b) -7 c) -9 d) not possible

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27. If f(x) = 2x and g(x) = x, then fg(x) = ?
a) 2𝑥 2 b) 2x c) 𝑥 2 d) NOT
28. Which of the following is not a function?
a) b) c) d)

29. If c + d = 3(a + b), then the average of a, b, c and d will be what?

a) 3a + 3b b) 3c + 3d c) a + b d) c + d
30. Average weight of 8 friends is 48kg. A girl of weight 62kg left the group. What will be the
average weight of remaining friends?
a) 46 b) 48 c) 50 d) 52
31. A father’s age is triple of her daughter’s age. In eight years the sum of their ages will be 72.
How old her daughter is?
A) 42 b) 10 c) 44 d) 14
32. What will be the area of triangle if the radius of this semicircle is 4 cm?
a) 9𝑐𝑚2
b) 12𝑐𝑚2
c) 16𝑐𝑚2
d) 32𝑐𝑚2

33. From following figure, what angle will come in question mark?
a) 40
b) 50
c) 60

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d) 70
34. From following figure, what angle will come in question mark?
a) 90
b) 95
c) 101
d) 109

35. A pipe can fill the tank in 5 hours. Due to leakage at the bottom it is filled in 6 hours. When
the tank is full, in how much time will it be empties by the leak?
a) 20 hours
b) 30 hours
c) 40 hours
d) None of these

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 ‘Section# 2_English’
No. of Questions= 40 (1 mark on each question)

Instructions for English Section:

 This section is comprised on 40 questions and having 9 sections from A to I.
 The question series is from 36 to 75.
 The division of the questions according to sections are as follows:
Section A= 10 Questions
Section B= 2 Questions
Section C= 2 Questions
Section D= 2 Questions
Section E= 2 Questions
Section F= 2 Questions
Section G= 5 Questions
Section H= 5 Questions
Section I= 10 Questions
 Each question is for one mark, therefore 40 marks for 40 questions.
 The cut off marking is same is that of general instructions.
 The suggested time to attempt this section is 45-48 minutes.
 You are not supposed to write the whole answer rather have to just choose
the right key from A to E.
 Read the question at least twice before attempting it on your answer sheet.
 Try to complete the section within the stipulated time.
__________________________________________________________

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Section# A (10 marks)
The following passage is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a passage,
choose the best answer to each question. Answer all the questions following a passage on the
basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
The public distribution system, which provides food at low prices, is a subject of vital concern.
There is a growing realization that though Pakistan has enough food to feed its masses three
squares meal a day, the monster of starvation and food insecurity continues to haunt the poor in
our country.
Increasing the purchasing power of the poor through providing productive employment leading to
rising income, and thus the good standard of living is the ultimate objective of public policy.
However, till then, there is a need to provide an assured supply of food through a restructured,
more efficient and decentralized public distribution system (PDS).
Although the PDS is extensive—it is one of the largest such systems in the world—it has yet to
reach the rural poor and the far off places. It remains an urban phenomenon, with the majority of
the rural poor still out of its reach due to lack of economic and physical access. The poorest in the
cities and the migrants are left out, for they generally do not possess ration cards. The allocation
of PDS supplies in big cities is larger than in rural areas. In view of such deficiencies in the system,
the PDS urgently needs to be streamlined. Also, considering the large food grains production
combined with food subsidy on one hand and the continuing slow starvation and dismal poverty
of the rural population on the other, there is a strong case for making PDS target group oriented.
The growing salaried class is provided for job security, regular income, and social security. It
enjoys almost a hundred per cent insulation against inflation. These gains of development have not
percolated down to the vast majority of our working population. If one compares only dearness
allowance to the employees in the public and private sector and looks at its growth in the past few
years, the rising food subsidy is insignificant to the point of inequity. The food subsidy is a kind
of D.A. to the poor, the self-employed and those in the unorganized sector of the economy.
However, what is most unfortunate is that out of the large budget of the so-called food subsidy,
the major part of it is administrative cost and wastages. A small portion of the above budget goes
to the real consumer and an even lesser portion to the poor who are in real need.
It is true that subsidies should not become a permanent feature, except for the destitute, disabled
widows and the old. It is also true that subsidies often create a psychology of dependence and
hence is Habit-forming, killing the general initiative of the people. By making PDS target group
oriented, not only the poorest and neediest would be reached without additional cost, but it will
actually cut overall costs incurred on large cities and for better off localities. When the food and
food subsidy is limited, the rural and urban poor should have the priority in the PDS supplies. The
PDS should be closely linked with programmers of employment generation and nutrition
improvement.

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36. Which of the following is the main reason for the insufficient supply of enough food to the
poorest?
A. Mismanagement of food stocks
B. Absence of proper public distribution system
C. Production of food is less than the demand
D. Government's apathy towards the poo
E. None of these

37. What, according to the passage, is the main purpose of public policy in the long run?
A. Reducing the cost of living index by increasing supplies
B. Providing enough food to all the citizens
C. Good standard of living through productive employment
D. Equalizing per capita income across different strata of society
E. None of these

38. Which of the following is true of the public distribution system?

A. It has improved its effectiveness over the years.
B. It has remained effective only in the cities.
C. It is unique in the world because of its effectiveness.
D. It has reached the remotest corner of the country.
E. None of these

39. The word 'square' as used in the passage 'means:

A. Rich
B. Sumptuous
C. Sufficient
D. Quality
E. None of these

40. Which of the following words is the same in meaning as 'power' as used in the passage?
A. Vigor
B. Energy
C. Influence
D. Capacity
E. None of these

41. What, according to the passage, is the main concern about the PDS?
A. It has not been able to develop confidence in the people at large.
B. It has not been able to utilize the entire food grains stock available.
C. It has effectively channelized the food grains to all sectors.
D. It has not been able to provide sufficient food to the poorer section of the society.
E. None of these

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 42. What should be an appropriate step to make the PDS effective?
A. To make it target group-oriented
B. To increase the number of food grains per ration card
C. To decrease the allotment of food grains to the urban sector
D. To reduce administrative cost
E. To increase the number of food grains available for distribution

43. Which of the following, according to the passage, is compared with dearness allowance?
A. Food for work programmed
B. Unemployment allowance
C. Food subsidy
D. Procurement price of food grains
E. Poverty Alleviation Programmed

44. Does food subsidy lead to which of the following?

A. Sense of insecurity
B. Increased dependence
C. Shortage of food grains
D. Decrease in food grains production.
E. None of these

45. What, according to the passage, would be the outcome of making the PDS target group-
oriented?
A. It will abolish the imbalance of the urban and rural sector.
B. It will remove poverty.
C. It will give food to the poorest without additional cost.
D. It will motivate the target group population to work more.
E. All of them.

Section# B (5 marks)
Choose the best answer from the given options that may correct the underline part of the
sentence.
46. If the wagon would have been moved on time, we would not have received the airplane
ticket.
A. If the wagon were moved on time
B. If the wagon would have been moved on time
C. If the wagon had been moved on time
D. If the wagon could have been on time

47. Neither Khalid nor Ayesha have been in this room whole week.
A. Have been in this room here
B. Have been in this room

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 C. Could have been in this room
D. Have been in this room

48. He spoke before I had completed my prayer, which annoyed me very much.
A. Prayer that annoyed me muchly
B. Prayer, which annoyed I much
C. Prayer, that annoyed me very much
D. Prayer. His impatience annoyed me very much

49. To drive a vehicle, your patience must match your skill.

A. To drive a vehicle, your patience should match your skill.
B. When you drive a vehicle, your patience must match your skill.
C. When driving a vehicle, your patience must match your skill.
D. To drive a vehicle; your patience must match your skill.

50. Noman is one of the participants who was to chosen to attend the seminar.
A. Which was chosen
B. Who were chosen
C. Whom were chosen
D. Who was to chosen
Section# C (2 marks)
Choose the best pair of analogy for the given questions.
51. FISH: SCHOOL ::
A. Puppy: Dog
B. Novel: Story
C. Cocks: Pride
D. Ear: Nose

52. PRICE: EXORBITANT ::

A. Listening: Boredom
B. Motion: Distance
C. Fire: Overshoot
D. Fatigue: Exhaustion
Section# D (2 marks)
Choose the best synonym for the given words.
53. DOCILE
A. Vague
B. Gentle
C. Stupid
D. Stubbed

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 54. SOMNAMBULIST
A. Sleepwalker
B. Escapist
C. Hypnotist
D. Charismatic

Section# E (2 marks)
Choose the best antonym for the given words.
55. CHAOTIC
A. Immersive
B. Orderly
C. Hectic
D. Steady

56. GARRULOUS
A. Barren
B. Funnel
C. Censored
D. Deaf
Section# F (2 marks)
Choose the best pair of words for the given statements.
57. Convict ____________ a long prisonment, when he __________.
A. was serving, escaped
B. served, escape
C. serving, escape
D. serves, escaped

58. No one _____________ television, so my father _________ it off.

A. watched, turned
B. was watching, turns
C. was watching, turned
D. watching, turned

Section# G (2 marks)
Choose the correct preposition for the given statements.
59. Cut the apple _______ four parts
A. Out

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 B. Into
C. Off
D. In

60. The firemen took several hours to _________ the fire.

A. Put in
B. Put off
C. Put out
D. Put up

Section# H (5 marks)
Detect the error in the following statements.
61. Her(A) and the other(B) participants quickly (C) supported the proposal written by (D) the

selection Committee. No Error (E)

62. During (A) the early days of hockey, before the development of the modern hockey, almost

(B) the only long passes attempted were those(C) that are (D) desperately thrown as time

expired. No Error (E)

63. The best manufactured dresses, although (A) not as (B) prestigious as designer clothing, is

(C) almost (D) its equal in elegance and flair. No Error (E)

64. Millions of (A) Pakistanis were introduced to classical music by Ustad Ghulam Ali, who

begun to (B) broadcast(C) his young people’s concert over(D) Pakistan radio.

No Error (E)

65. This is (A) my final idea that solution to (B) the problem lays(C) right before (D) our

eyes. No Error (E)

Section# I (10 marks)

Choose the best answer for the following questions.
66. Ahmed said to him, “I have been helping your son for years.” (change the narration)
A. Ahmed told him that he has helped his son for years
B. Ahmed told him that he have been helping his son for years.
C. Ahmed told him that he had been helping his son for years.

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 D. Ahmed told him that he has been helping his son for years.

67. He said, ‘Honesty is the best policy.” (change the narration)

A. He said that Honesty is the best policy.
B. He said that Honesty was the best policy.
C. He said that Honesty would be the best policy.
D. He said that Honesty will be the best policy.

68. The scheme permits investors to buy the shares from foreign companies.(change the voice)
A. Under the scheme the investors may be permitted to buy shares from the foreign
companies.
B. Under the scheme the investors have been permitted to buy shares from the foreign
companies.
C. Under the scheme the investors are permitted to buy shares from the foreign
companies.
D. Under the scheme the investors were permitted to buy shares from the foreign
companies.

69. You will be taken care of by me.(change the voice)

A. I will be taking care of you.
B. I would take care of you.
C. I will take care of you.
D. I will being take care of you.

70. In 6 months now, Talha _____ all these books. (use correct tense)
A. Will read
B. Is reading
C. Will have read
D. Read

71. They are very weak. I’m sure they __________ the match. (use correct tense)
A. Will lose
B. Lose
C. Are going to lose
D. lost

72. Ali! You ________ me in the last exam. Why didn’t you? (use correct form of verb)
A. Helped
B. Can help
C. Could help
D. Could have helped

73. After I _____ my breakfast. I went to school. (use correct form of verb)
A. Had

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 B. Has had
C. Had had
D. Have had

74. In the past, women used to ____________ at home and men go to work. (use correct form
of verb)
A. Stay
B. Are staying
C. Stayed
D. were staying

75. Students will have to get the Dean _______________ this form. (use correct form of verb)
A. Will sign
B. Will be signing
C. To sign
D. Will have signed

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 ‘Section# 3_General knowledge’
No. of Questions= 15 (1 mark on each question)
76. National flower of Pakistan is:
(A) Jasmine (B) Rose
(C) Sun Flower (D) Water Lily
77. Current Foreign Minister of Pakistan is:
(A) Raza Rabbani (B) Parvez Khattak
(C) Shah Mahmood Qureshi (D) Fawad Chaudhry
78. Olympic Games 2020 were being held in which country:
(A) China (B) USA
(C) Japan (D) Brazil
79. Which is the biggest planet of the Solar System?
(A) Jupiter (B) Venus
(C) Neptune (D) Uranus
80. Who is the current Secretary General of United Nations?
(A) Kofi Annan (B) Ban Ki-moon
(C) Trygve Lie (D) Antonio Guterres
81. “Adam-e-Sani” is title of which prophet?
(A) Prophet Noah (A.S) (B) Prophet Loot (A.S)
(C) Prophet Moosa (A.S) (D) Prophet Adam (A.S)
82. Which team won the title of Pakistan Super League?
(A) Peshawar Zalmi (B) Karachi Kings
(C) Multan Sultan (D) Islamabad United
83. Radio was invented by:
(A) Edison (B) Marconi
(C) John Logie Baird (D) Graham Bell
84. Capital city of Turkey is:
(A) Istanbul (B) Ankara

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 (C) Antalya (D) Konya
85. Where is the Headquarters of SAARC?
(A) New Delhi (B) Katmandu
(C) Dhaka (D) Thimbu
86. Who was the first president of Pakistan?
(A) Quad e Azam (B) Gen. Ayoub Khan
(C) Liaquat Ali Khan (D) Gen. Iskander Mirza
87. What is the currency of Iraq?
(A) Riyal (B) Dinar
(C) Dirham (D) Lira
88. What is the largest country (by area) in the world?
(A) Kazakhstan (B) Canada
(C) USA (D) Russia
89. Which is NOT official language of United Nations?
(A) Urdu (B) Chinese
(C) Russian (D) Arabic
90. Durand line in boundary between Pakistan and _______?
(A) Iran (B) India
(C) Afghanistan (D) China

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 ‘Section# 4_ IQ’
No. of Questions= 10 (1 mark on each question)
91. Which one of the following makes the best comparison?
i.e. Milk is to glass as letter is to:
a) STAMP b) BOOK c) ENVELOPE d) MAIL
92. Choose the correct figure from the following.

93. Choose the correct figure from the following.

94. What will come next?

4, 7, 12, 15, 20, ….. ?
a) 26 b) 21 c) 22 d) 23
95. What will come next?
2, 0, 4, 0, 8, 0, ?

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a) 0 b) 2 c) 4 d) 16
96. What will come in question mark?
1, 2, 5, ?, 9, 11
a) 13 b) 15 c) 6 d) 7

97. What is the following number in the series?

720 | 720 | 360 | ? | 30 | 6

a) 180 b) 120 c) 90 d) 60

98. What is the following number in the series?

0 | 3/4 | 8/9 | 15/16 | 24/25 | ?

a) 29/28 b) 33/32 c) 35/36 d) 37/38

99. What will come in empty box?

9 10

8 18

7 24

6 28

5 30

a) 20 b) 22 c) 24 d) 26

100. John’s father has 5 sons. Zaze, zeze, zize, zoze, fifth will be…

a) zooze b) zuze c) zeza d) None of these

__________________________________________________________________________

***** GOOD LUCK *****

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