1st Year Chemistry Complete Book Solved MCQ1
1st Year Chemistry Complete Book Solved MCQ1
1st Year Chemistry Complete Book Solved MCQ1
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Chapter No.
1
BASIC CONCEPTS
MCQs
Q.1 Smallest particle of an element which may or may not have
independent existence
(a) a molecule (b) an atom
(c) an ion (d) an electron
Q.2 Swedish chemist J. Berzelius determined the
(a) atomic no. (b) atomic volume
(c) atomic mass (d) atomic density
Q.3 The number of atoms present in a molecule determine its
(a) molecularity (b) basicity
(c) acidity (d) atomicity
Q.4 When an electron is added to a unipositive ion we get
(a) anion (b) cation
(c) neutral atom (d) molecule
Q.5 CO+ is an example of:
(a) free radical (b) cationic molecular ion
(c) an ionic molecular ion
(d) stable molecule
Q.6 Relative atomic mass is the mass of an atom of an element as compared
to the mass of
(a) oxygen (b) hydrogen
(c) nitrogen (d) carbon
Q.7 Isotopes are the sister atoms of the same element with similar
chemical properties and different
(a) atomic number (b) atomic mass
(c) atomic volume (d) atomic structure
Q.8 The instrument which is used to measure the exact masses of
different isotopes of an element called
(a) I.R. Spectrophotometer (b) U.V. Spectrophotometer
(c) Mass Spectrometer (d) Colourimeter
Q.9 Mass spectrometer separates different positive isotopic ions on the
basis of their
(a) mass value (b) m/e value
(c) e/m value (d) change value
1st year chemistry
notes
Q.10 Simplest formula that gives us information about the simple ratio
of atoms in a compound is called
(a) structural formula (b) molecular formula
(c) empirical formula (d) molar ratio
Q.11 Percentage of oxygen in H2O is
(a) 80% (b) 88.8%
(c) 8.8% (d) 9.8%
Q.12 More abundant isotope of an element is one with
(a) even atomic no. (b) odd atomic no.
(c) Even mass no. (d) odd mass no.
Q.13 Large no. of isotopes are known for the elements whose masses
are multiple of
(a) two (b) four
(c) six (d) eight
Q.14 When 0.01 kg of CaCO3 is decomposed the CO2 produced occupies
a volume at S.T.P.
(a) 2.2414 dm3 (b) 22.414 dm3
(c) 22414 dm3 (d) 224014 dm3
Q.15 The no. of covalent bond in 10gm of NH3 are
(a) 6.022 x 1023 (b) 1.062 x 1023
(c) 10.62 x 1024 (d) 1.062 x 1024
Q.16 No. of molecules present in 10gm of water are
(a) 3.37 x 1023 (b) 33.7 x 1023
(c) 3.37 x 1024 (d) 3.037 x 1024
Q.17 The no. of covalent bonds present in 10gm of water
are (a) 6.074 x 1023 (b) 6.74 x 1023
(c) 6.074 x 1024 (d) 6.74 x 1024
Q.18 The least no. of molecules present in 30 gm of
(a) N2O (b) NO
(c) NO2 (d) N2O3
Q.19 Which of the following has highest percentage of nitrogen
(a) (NH4)2SO4 (b) NH4H2PO4
(c) (NH4)2HPO4 (d) (NH4)3PO4
Q.20 0.1 mole of Na3PO4 completely dissociates in water to produce
Na+ (a) 6.02 x 1022 (b) 6.02 x 1023
(c) 1.806 x 1023 (d) 1.806 x 1022
Q.21 Efficiency of chemical reaction can be checked by calculating
(a) amount of limiting reactant
(b) amount of the reactant in excess
(c) amount of the product formed
1st year chemistry
notes
Answers
Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Answers b C d c b
Questions 6 7 8 9 10
Answers d b c b c
Questions 11 12 13 14 15
Answers b c b a d
Questions 16 17 18 19 20
1st year chemistry
notes
1st year chemistry
notes
Answers a b d d c
Questions 21 22 23 24 25
Answers c b d c d
Questions 26 27 28 29 30
Answers d d a b a
Questions 31 32 33 34 35
Answers a d c a d
Questions 36 37 38 39 40
Answers a c d d c
Questions 41 42 43 44
Answers c a a c
Questions 45 46 47 48 49
Answers d a a c b
1 year n0tes chemistry
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Chapter No. 2
EXPERIMENTAL TECHNIQUES IN CHEMISTRY
MCQs
Q.1 Science of the chemical characterization is stand under the heading of
ANSWERS
Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Answers c c a c b
Questions 6 7 8 9 10
Answers c a d a b
Questions 11 12 13 14 15
Answers c d c a b
Questions 16 17 18 19 20
Answers c b d d b
Questions 21 22 23 24 25
Answers b a d a a
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Chapter 3rd
GASES
MCQs
Q.1 The order of the rate of diffusion of gases NH3, SO2, Cl2 and
CO2 is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
ANSWERS
Question 1 2 3 4 5
s
Answers b c a a a
Question 6 7 8 9 10
s
Answers b a b d a
Question 11 12 13 14 15
s
Answers b d a d a
Question 16 17 18 19 20
s
Answers c c b a b
Question 21 22 23 24 25
s
Answers d a a a d
Question 26 27 28 29 30
s
Answers b a b d d
Question 31 32 33 34 35
s
Answers c a a c a
1 year n0tes chemistry
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Chapter 4rth
LIQUIDS AND SOLIDS
MCQs
CHAPTER 5
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
MCQs
Q.1 Splitting of spectral lines when atoms are subjected to strong
electric field is called
(a) Zeeman effect (b) Stark effect
(c) Photoelectric effect (d) Compton effect
Q.2 The velocity of photon is
(a) independent of its wavelength
(b) depends on its wavelength
(c) equal to square of its amplitude
(d) depends on its source
Q.3 The nature of positive rays depend on
(a) the nature of electrode
(b) the nature of discharge tube
(c) the nature of residual gas
(d) all of the above
Q.4 The wave number of the light emitted by a certain source is 2
x 106 m. The wavelength of this light is
(a) 500 nm (b) 500 m
(c) 200 nm (d) 5 x 10–1 m
Q.5 Rutherford’s model of atom failed because
(a) the atom did not have a nucleus and electrons
(b) it did not account for the attraction between protons and
neutrons
(c) it did account for the stability of the atom
(d) there is actually no space between the nucleus and the
electrons
Q.6 Bohr’s model of atom is contradicted by
(a) Planck’s quantum theory
(b) Pauli exclusion principle
(c) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
1
(d) All of the above
Q.7 Quantum number value for 2p orbitals are
(a) n = 2, l = 1 (b) n = 1, l = 2
(c) n = 1, l = 0 (d) n = 2, l = 0
Q.8 In the ground state of an atom, the electron is present
(a) in the nucleus (b) in the second shell
(c) nearest to the nucleus (d) farthest from the nucleus
Q.9 When the 6d orbital is complete the entering electron goes into
(a) 7f (b) 7s
(c) 7p (d) 7d
Q.10 Orbitals having same energy are called
(a) hybrid orbitals (b) valence orbitals
(c) degenerate orbitals (d) d–orbitals
Q.11 The e/m value for the positive rays is maximum for
(a) hydrogen (b) helium
(c) nitrogen (d) oxygen
Q.12 Neutron was discovered by Chadwick in
(a) 1935 (b) 1930
(c) 1932 (d) 1934
Q.13 The velocity of photon is
(a) equal to square of its amplitude
(b) independent of its wavelength
(c) Equal to its wave number
(d) equal to the velocity of light
Q.14 Quantum number values for 3p orbitals are
(a) n = 0, l = 3 (b) n = 3, l = 1
(c) n = 2, l = 1 (d) n = 1, l = 3
Q.15 The radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom
(a) 0.329 Ao (b) 0.429 Ao
(c) 0.529 Ao (d) 0.229 Ao
Q.16 All atoms are principally composed of few fundamental
particles which are in number
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
Q.17 Which scientist gave the name of electron to the cathode rays
(a) Planck (b) Einstein
(c) Stoney (d) Bohr
Q.18 The divisibility of atom was showed by
(a) Stoney (b) J.J. Thomson
(c) Millikan (d) Rutherford
Q.19 The nature of cathode rays remains the same irrespective of
the material used for
(a) gas (b) cathode
(c) glass (d) electrode
Q.20 Mass of electron is
(a) 9.1 x 10–31 kg (b) 9.109 x 10–32 gm
(c) 8.1 x 10–31 g (d) 9.1 x 10–31 mg
Q.21 The charge on an electron is
(a) 1.602 x 10–19 c (b) 1.602 x 10–18 c
(c) 1.602 x 10–19 c (d) 1.602 x 10–21 c
Q.22 The charge on the proton is
(a) + 1.602 x 10–19 c (b) zero
(c) – 1.602 x 1019 c (d) 1.602 x 10–19 c
Q.23 The charge on the neutron is
(a) 1.602 x 10–19 c (b) zero
(c) – 1.602 x 10–19 c (d) + 1.602 x 10–19 c
Q.24 The calculated e/m value of electron is
(a) 1.602 x 1019 c kg–1 (b) 1.7588 x 10–11 c kg–1
(c) 1.7588 x 10–13 c kg–1 (d) 1.759 x 109 c kg
Q.25 The mass of proton is
(a) 9.11 x 10–31 kg (b) 1.676 x 10–27 kg
(c) 1.60 x 10–19 kg (d) 1.675 x 10–27 kg
Q.26 The mass of neutron is
(a) 1.675 x 10–27 kg (b) 1.675 x 10–25 kg
(c) 9.11 x 10–31 kg (d) 1.60 x 10–19 kg
Q.27 The charge on electron was determined by
(a) J.J. Thomson (b) Millikan
(c) Rutherford (d) Bohr
Q.28 Alpha particles are identical to
(a) hydrogen atoms (b) helium atoms
(c) helium nuclei (d) fast moving electrons
Q.29 Bombardment of Beryllium with alpha particles generates
(a) proton (b) neutron
(c) electron (d) positron
Q.30 The colour of the glow produced in the discharge tube depends
upon
(a) gas (b) electrodes
(c) composition of gas (d) pressure
Q.31 When the pressure of the gas in discharge tube is reduced,
which of the following becomes more prominent
(a) gas glows (b) gas ionizes
(c) a discharge takes place (d) gas conducts
electricity
Q.32 Goldstein discovered that besides the cathode rays, another type
of rays are produced in the discharge tube which are called
(a) alpha rays (b) beta rays
(c) positive rays (d) gamma rays
Q.33 The e/m value for the positive rays in the discharge tube depends
upon
(a) nature of electrode use
(b) nature of gas used
(c) composition of the gas
(d) pressure
Q.34 The distance between the two adjacent crests or troughs is called
(a) wave number (b) frequency
(c) wavelength (d) amplitude
Q.35 The value of Planck’s constant “h” is
(a) 6.625 x 10–34 cal (b) 6.625 x 10–34 J sec
(c) 6.625 x 10–34 kJ (d) 6.625 x 10–34 k cal
Q.36 In the Bohr’s model of atom the electron in an energy level emits
or absorbs energy only when it
(a) remains in the same energy level
(b) dies out
(c) changes its energy level
(d) jumps away
Q.37 The energy associated with an electron resolving in first orbit is
(a) – 2.178 x 10–18 k J/mol
(b) – 1313.31 k J/mol
(c) – 328.32 k J/mol
(d) – 82.08 k J/mol
Q.38 The regions of spectrum are
(a) three (b) seven
(c) eight (d) five
Q.39 The dispersion of the components of white light when it is passed
through prism is called
(a) rainbow (b) light pattern
(c) refraction (d) spectrum
Q.40 Which of the following colours has the shortest wavelength in
the visible spectrum of light
(a) red (b) blue
(c) violet (d) green
Q.41 Which of the following colours has the longest wavelength in the
visible spectrum of light
(a) red (b) blue
(c) violet (d) green
Q.42 A spectrum containing wavelength of all wavelengths is called
(a) continuous (b) discontinuous
(c) line (d) atomic
Q.43 A spectrum showing only certain colours of light is called
(a) continuous (b) line
(c) discontinuous (d) band
Q.44 The wavelength range of visible spectrum is
(a) 400–750 nm (b) 300–400 nm
(c) 350–600 nm (d) 200–400 nm
Q.45 The spectral lines of Lyman series (uv region) are produced
when electron jumps from higher orbit to
(a) 1st orbit (b) 2nd orbit
(c) 3rd orbit (d) 4th orbit
Q.46 The spectral lines of Balmer series (visible region) are produced
when electron jumps from higher orbit to
(a) 1st orbit (b) 2nd orbit
(c) 3rd orbit (d) 4th orbit
Q.47 The spectral lines of Paschen series (visible region) are
produced when electron jumps from higher orbit to
(a) 1st orbit (b) 2nd orbit
(c) 3rd orbit (d) 4th orbit
Q.48 The spectral lines of Bracket series (visible region) are produced
when electron jumps from higher orbit to
(a) 1st orbit (b) 2nd orbit
(c) 3rd orbit (d) 4th orbit
Q.49 A dual character of matter particles in motion was postulated by
(a) De–Broglie (b) Planck
(c) Einstein (d) Schrodinger
Q.50 If an electron is moving with a velocity of 2.188 x 106 m/s then
its wavelength will be
(a) 0.33 x 106 nm (b) 0.33 x 10–2 nm
(c) 0.33 nm (d) 0.22 nm
Q.51 If a stone of 1gm is many with a velocity of 10m/s then
its wavelength will be
(a) 6.65 x 10–30 m (b) 6.65 x 10–25 m
(c) 6.65 x 10–28 m (d) 6.65 x 10–12 m
Q.52 The space around the nucleus where the probability of
finding the electron is maximum is called
(a) an orbital (b) an orbit
(c) energy level (d) a shell
Q.53 Which orbital has dumb–bell shape
(a) s–orbital (b) p–orbital
(c) d–orbital (d) f–orbital
Q.54 Which of the following quantum numbers describes energy of
an electron in an atom
(a) principal quantum (b) azimuthal quantum
(c) magnetic quantum (d) spin quantum
Q.55 Which of the following quantum numbers describes shape of an
electron in an atom
(a) principal quantum (b) azimuthal quantum
(c) magnetic quantum (d) spin quantum
Q.56 The degenerate orbital in p–subshell is
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 7
Q.57 When 4p orbital is complete the entering electron goes into
(a) 4d (b) 4f
(c) 5s (d) 5p
Q.58 x + l value for 3d will be
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
Q.59 Maximum number of electrons in 3f orbitals is
(a) 2 (b) zero
(c) 6 (d) 14
Q.60 Maximum number of electrons in M–shell is
(a) 2 (b) 8
(c) 18 (d) 32
Q.61 An orbital can have maximum electrons
(a) 2 (b) 8
(c) 18 (d) 6
Q.62 n + l value for 4f will
(a) 2 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d) 9
Q.63 When a spectrum of light is formed by the radiation given off by
a substance it is called
(a) line spectrum (b) continuous spectrum
(c) emission spectrum (d) absorption spectrum
Q.64 Neutron was discovered by
(a) Chadwick (b) Bohr
(c) J.J. Thomson (d) Einstein
Q.65 Cathode rays can drive a small paddle wheel which shows that
they
(a) are positively charged
(b) possess momentum
(c) do not possess momentum
(d) none of these
Q.66 Slow neutrons are generally more effective than fastness for the
purpose of
(a) effusion (b) fission
(c) penetration (d) absorption
Q.67 The wavelength associated with the moving stone
(a) can be measured by many methods
(b) cannot be measured by any method
(c) can be measure by some method
(d) none of these
Q.68 Radius of orbit of an electron and velocity of electron are
(a) directly proportional to each other
(b) inversely proportional to each other
(c) independent to each other
(d) none of these
Q.69 The values of magnetic quantum number give us information
about the number of orbitals in a
(a) small shell (b) orbit
(c) subshell (d) none of these
Q.70 Which of the following terms are used for the number of positive
charges on the nucleus of an atom
(a) atomic number (b) atomic mass
(c) nuclear charge (d) atomic charge
Q.71 The uncertainty principle was stated by
(a) de Broglie (b) Heinsenberg
(c) Einstein (d) Schrodinger
Q.72 When a pressure in a discharge tube is reduced, which of the
following phenomenon becomes very prominent
(a) gas conducts electricity
(b) a discharge takes place
(c) gas ionizes
(d) gas glows
Q.73 Atom bomb is based on the principle of
(a) nuclear fusion
(b) nuclear fission
(c) fusion and fission both
(d) radioactivity
Q.74 A spinning electron creates
(a) magnetic field (b) electric field
(c) quantum field (d) none of these
Q.75 The volume of space in which there is 95% chance of finding an
electron is
(a) orbit (b) atomic orbital
(c) degenerate orbital (d) quantized orbital
Q.76 Planck’s equation is
(a) E = mc2 (b) E = hv
(c) E = hv2 (d) E = mc
Q.77 In an atom, the electrons
(a) are stationary in various energy levels
(b) are distributed in three dimensional charge cloud around
the nucleus
(c) embedded in space around the nucleus
(d) revolve around the nucleus at random
Q.78 The mass number of an element is equal to
1 year n0tes chemistry
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ANSWERS
Question 1 2 3 4 5
s
Answers b a c a c
Question 6 7 8 9 10
s
Answers c a c c c
Question 11 12 13 14 15
s
Answers a c d b c
Question 16 17 18 19 20
s
Answers b c b d a
Question 21 22 23 24 25
s
Answers c a b b b
Question 26 27 28 29 30
s
Answers a b c b c
Question 31 32 33 34 35
s
Answers c c b c b
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1 year n0tes chemistry
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Question 36 37 38 39 40
s
Answers c b c d c
Question 41 42 43 44 45
s
Answers a a b a a
Question 46 47 48 49 50
s
Answers b c d a c
Question 51 52 53 54 55
s
Answers a a b a b
Question 56 57 58 59 60
s
Answers b c c b c
Question 61 62 63 64 65
s
Answers a c c a b
Question 66 67 68 69 70
s
Answers b b b c a
Question 71 72 73 74 75
s
Answers b b b a b
Question 76 77 78 79 80
s
Answers b b b b a
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1 year n0tes chemistry
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CHAPTER 6
CHEMICAL BONDING
MCQs
Q.1 An ionic compound A+ B– is most likely to be formed when
(a) The ionization energy of A is high and electron affinity
of B is low
(b) The ionization energy of A is low and electron affinity
of B is high
(c) Both the ionization energy and electron affinity of B are
high
(d) Both the ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B
are low
Q.2 The number of bonds in nitrogen molecules
(a) one and one
(b) one and two
(c) three sigma only
(d) two and one
Q.3 Which of the following statements is not correct regarding
bonding molecular orbitals?
(a) bonding molecular orbitals possess less energy than
atomic orbitals from which they are formed
(b) bonding molecular orbitals have low electron density
between the two nuclei
(c) every electron in the bonding molecular orbitals
contributes to the attraction between atoms
(d) bonding molecular orbitals are formed when the
electron waves undergo constructive interference
Q.4 Which of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?
(a) NH3 (b) CHCl3
(c) H2O (d) BF3
Q.5 Which of the hydrogen halides has the highest percentage of
ionic character
1
(a) HF (b) HBr
(c) HCl (d) HI
Q.6 Which of the following molecules has unpaired electrons in anti–
bonding molecular orbitals
(a) O2 (b) N2
(c) Br2 (d) F2
Q.7 Which of the following involve ionic bonding only?
(a) Li3N (b) NaCl
(c) NCl3 (d) O2
Q.8 Which of the following involve covalent bonding only?
(a) KF (b) KCl
(c) CH4 (d) MgCl2
Q.9 Which of the following molecules has a net dipole moment?
(a) CO2 (b) CS2
(c) SO2 (d) CCl4
Q.10 H2S has a net dipole moment while BeF2 has zero dipole
moment, because
(a) H2S molecule is linear while BeF2 is angular
(b) H2S molecule is angular, while BeF2 molecule is linear
(c) Fluorine has more electronegativity than S
(d) Be is more electronegative than S
Q.11 Which of the following ions has larger ionic radius?
(a) Na+ (b) K+
(c) Mg2+ (d) Al3+
Q.12 Which of the following bonds is least polar?
(a) H–Se (b) P–Cl
(c) H–Cl (d) N–Cl
Q.13 Which one has the least bond angle?
(a) NH3 (b) CH4
(c) H2O (d) BF3
Q.14 Coordinate covalent bonds are formed by
(a) sharing of electrons
(b) donation of electrons
(c) transference of electrons
(d) none of these
Q.15 Which of the following molecules would be expected to have
zero dipole moment?
(a) H2S (b) PF3
(c) TeF6 (d) H2O
Q.16 The bond formed between the elements of low ionization energy
and elements of high electron affinity is
(a) ionic (b) covalent
(c) metallic (d) coordinate
Q.17 The side ways overlap of two–p orbitals to form a bond is called
(a) sigma bond (b) pi () bond
(c) ionic bond (d) covalent bond
Q.18 The head overlap of p–orbitals of two atoms give rise to bond
called
(a) sigma bond (b) pi () bond
(c) ionic bond (d) covalent bond
Q.19 Which element would be the most electronegative element with
(a) high ionization energy (IE) and low electron affinity
(EA)
(b) low ionization energy (IE) and high electron affinity
(EA)
(c) low ionization energy and low electron affinity
(d) high ionization energy and high electron affinity
Q.20 Which element would be the least electronegative element with
(a) high I.E. and low E.A. (b) low I.E. and high E.A.
(c) low I.E. and low E.A. (d) high I.E. and low E.A.
Q.21 Which of the following substances has the least ionic character
in its bond?
(a) CCl4 (b) KCl
(c) BeCl2 (d) MgCl2
Q.22 Which of the following best describes ionization energy?
(a) energy needed to remove the most loosely bound
electron from its ground state
(b) it decreases from left to right across a period
(c) it increases down the periodic table
(d) it is represented by x + e– x– + energy
Q.23 Which one of the following characteristics is not usually
attributed to ionic substances
(a) high melting point (b) deform when struck
(c) crystalline in solid state
(d) well defined three dimensional structure
Q.24 Which of the following bond is less polar?
(a) B–Cl (b) C–Cl
(c) H–I (d) C–I
Q.25 Which type of the orbital hybridization and geometry is used by
the central atom of NH2–?
(a) sp2 hybridization and trigonal planar
(b) sp hybridization and tetrahedral geometry
(c) sp2 hybridization and trigonal planar
(d) sp3 hybridization and tetrahedral geometry
Q.26 Which of the following compounds has most likely been
formed by covalent bonding of atoms
(a) CaF2 (b) MgO
(c) SiH4 (d) NaCl
Q.27 Identify the compound below which has bonds formed by an
overlap of sp and p–orbitals
(a) BF3 (b) BeCl2
(c) NH3 (d) H2O
Q.28 The most electronegative of these group I element is
(a) Na (b) K
(c) Li (d) Cs
Q.29 The type of bonding in HBr is
(a) ionic (b) polar covalent
(c) non–polar covalent (d) coordinate covalent
1 year n0tes chemistry
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ANSWERS
Question 1 2 3 4 5
s
Answers b b b d a
Question 6 7 8 9 10
s
Answers a a c c b
Question 11 12 13 14 15
s
Answers b d c b c
Question 16 17 18 19 20
s
Answers a b a d c
Question 21 22 23 24 25
s
Answers a a b d d
Question 26 27 28 29 30
s
Answers c b c b b
Question 31 32 33 34 35
s
Answers b b a c b
Question 36 37 38 39 40
s
Answers c b c d a
Question 41 42 43 44 45
s
Answers c b a b b
Question 46 47 48 49 50
s
Answers d b d d b
Question 51 52 53 54 55
s
Answers b b a b c
Question 56 57 58 59 60
s
Answers c a b a b
Question 61 62 63 64 65
s
Answers d b d a c
Question 66 67 68 69 70
s
Answers c a a b a
Question 71 72 73 74 75
s
Answers c d b b c
Question 76 77 78 79 80
s
Answers c b b c a
Question 81 82 83 84 85
s
Answers d d a b c
Question 86 87 88 89 90
s
Answers a b c b a
1 year n0tes chemistry
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CHAPTER
7 THERMOCHEMISTRY
MCQs
ANSWERS
Question 1 2 3 4 5
s
Answers D a c c C
Question 6 7 8 9 10
s
Answers c d c c D
Question 11 12 13 14 15
s
Answers a d c a d
Question 16 17 18 19 20
s
Answers b c b b d
Question 21 22 23 24 25
s
Answers c b d c c
Question 26 27 28 29
s
Answers a d b b
1 year chemistry n0tes
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CHAPTER 8
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM
MCQs
Q.1 A reaction is reversible because
(a) reactants are reactive (b) products are reactive
(c) products are stable (d) reactants are stable
Q.2 A large value of Kc means that at equilibrium
(a) less reactants and more products
(b) more reactants and less product
(c) same amount
(d) none
Q.3 Extent to H2 + I2 2HI can be increased by
(a) increasing pressure (b) increasing product
(c) increasing temp (d) adding a catalyst
Q.4 Strength of an acid can be determined by
(a) PKa (b) PKp
(c) POH (d) PKw
Q.5 In an exothermic reversible reaction increase in temp shifts the
equilibrium to
(a) reactant side (b) product side
(c) remains unchanged (d) none
Q.6 Units of Kw are
(a) mole dm–3 (b) mole2 dm–3
(c) mole2 dm–6 (d) mole2 dm–3
Q.7 A basic Buffer solution can be prepared by mixing
(a) weak acid and its salt with strong base
(b) strong acid and its salt with weak base
(c) weak base and its salt with strong acid
(d) strong base and its salt with weak acid
Q.8 Buffer action can be explained by
(a) common ion effect (b) law of mass action
1
(c) Le–Chatlier’s principle (d) all above
Q.9 Ionization of weak acid is expressed in term of following
constant
(a) Kw (b) Kn
(c) Ka (d) Kb
Q.10 Solubility of Ca(OH)2 is exothermic. If solubility will increase
(a) at high temp (b) at low temp
(c) temp independent (d) none
Q.11 For which system does the equilibrium constant, Kc has units of
concentration
(a) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 (b) H2 + I2 2 HI
(c) 2NO2 N2O4 (d) 2HF H2 + F2
Q.12 Which statement about the following equilibrium is
correct 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) H = – 188.3 kJ mol–1
(a) the value of Kp falls with a rise in temp
(b) the value of Kp falls with increasing pressure
(c) adding V2O5 catalyst increase the equilibrium yield
of sulphur trioxide
(d) the value of Kp is equal to Kc
Q.13 The PH of 10–3 mole dm–3 of an aqueous solution of H2SO4 is
(a) 3.0 (b) 2.7
(c) 2.0 (d) 1.5
Q.14 The solubility product of AgCl is 2.0 x 10–10 mole2 dm–6. The
max concentration of Ag+ ions in the solution is
(a) 2.0 x 10–10 mol dm–3 (b) 1.41 x 10–5 mol dm–3
(c) 1.0 x 10–10 mol dm–3 (d) 4.0 x 10–20 mol dm–3
Q.15 An excess of aqueous silver nitrate to added to aqueous barium
chloride and precipitate is removed by filtration what are the main ions
in the filtrate
(a) Ag+ and NO only (b) Ag+ and Ba2+ and NO3
(c) Ba2+ and NO only (d) Ba+2 and NO and Cl–
Q.16 For N2 + 3H2 2NH3
(a) Kc = Kp (b) Kp = Kc RT
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ANSWERS
Question 1 2 3 4 5
s
Answers b a c a A
Question 6 7 8 9 10
s
Answers a a d c b
Question 11 12 13 14 15
s
Answers a a b b c
Question 16 17 18 19 20
s
Answers c a c b b
Question 21 22 23 24 25
s
Answers a a c a c
Question 26 27 28 29 30
s
Answers b b b d c
Question 31 32 33 34 35
s
Answers d d c d c
Question 36 37 38 39 40
s
Answers d c c d d
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CHAPTER 9
SOLUTIONS
MCQs
Q.1 Which of the following solutions has the highest boiling point?
(a) 5.85% solution of NaCl
(b) 18.0% solution of glucose
(c) 6.0% solution of urea
(d) all have same boiling point
Q.2 Two solutions of NaCl and KCl are prepared separately by
dissolving same amount of the solute in water. Which of the
following statements is true for these solutions
(a) KCl solution will have higher boiling point than NaCl
solution
(b) both the solutions have same boiling point
(c) KCl and NaCl solutions possess same vapour pressure
Q.3 Molarity of pure water is
(a) 1 (b) 18
(c) 55.5 (d) 6
Q.4 18 gm glucose is dissolved in 90 gm of water. The relative
lowering of vapour pressure is equal to
(a) (b) 5.1
(c) (d) 6
Q.5 The molar boiling point constant is the ratio of the elevation in
boiling point to
(a) molarity (b) molality
(c) mole fraction of solvent (d) less than that of
water
Q.6 An aqueous solution of methanol in water has vapour pressure
(a) equal to that of water (b) equation to that of
methanol
(c) more than that of water (d) less than that of
water
1
Q.7 An ozeotropic mixture of two liquids boils at a lower
temperature than either of them when
(a) it is saturated
(b) it shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(c) it shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law
(d) it is metastable
Q.8 In azeotropic mixture showing positive deviation from Raoult’s
law, the volume of mixture is
(a) slightly more than the total volume of components
(b) slightly less than the total volume of the component
(c) equal to the total volume of the components
(d) none of these
Q.9 A solution of glucose is 10%. The volume in which 1 gm mole
of it is dissolved will be
(a) 1 dm3 (b) 1.8 dm3
(c) 200 cm3 (d) 900 cm3
Q.10 Colligative properties are the properties of
(a) dilute solutions which behave as nearly ideal solutions
(b) concentrated solutions which behave as nearly non–ideal
solutions
(c) both (i) and (ii) (d) neither (i) nor (ii)
Q.11 The freezing mixture used in ice cream machine consists of ice
and
(a) NaCl (b) CaCl2
(c) KNO3 (d) both a & c
Q.12 1 kg of sea water contains 4.96 x 10–3 gm of dissolved oxygen.
The concentration of oxygen in sea water in ppm is
(a) 4.96 x 10–2 (b) 0.496
(c) 4.96 (d) 49.6
Q.13 A solution of sucrose is 34.2%. The volume of solution
containing one mole of solute
(a) 500 cm3 (b) 1000 cm3
(c) 342 cm3 (d) 3420 cm3
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Q.14 Salt of a weak acid with strong base when dissolved in water
gives
(a) acidic solution (b) basic solution
(c) neutral solution (d) none
Q.15 Mole fraction of 10% urea is
(a) 0.042 (b) 0.023
(c) 0.032 (d) 0.072
Q.16 Which of the following mixtures of liquids show negative
deviation
(a) ethyl alcohol ether (b) HCl and water
(c) phenol – water
(d) chlorobenzene – bromobenzene
Q.17 The term cryoscopy is used
(a) depression of freezing point
(b) elevation in boiling point
(c) lowering of vapour pressure
(d) osmotic pressure
ANSWERS
Question 1 2 3 4 5
s
Answers d b c c B
Question 6 7 8 9 10
s
Answers c b a b a
Question 11 12 13 14 15
s
Answers d c b b c
Question 16 17 18 19 20
s
Answers b a b c c
Question 21 22 23 24 25
s
Answers a c b e a
Question 26 27 28 29 30
s
Answers d c a c d
Question 31 32 33 34 35
s
Answers e a d d d
Question 36 37 38 39 40
s
Answers d a d c c
Question 41 42 43 44 45
s
Answers a a b b b
Question 46 47 48 49 50
s
Answers a b d a c
Question 51
s
Answers c
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CHAPTER 10
ELECTROCHEMISTRY
MCQS
Q.1 Electrolysis is the process in which a chemical reaction takes
place at the expense of
(a) chemical energy (b) electrical energy
(c) heat energy (d) none of these
Q.2 Standard hydrogen electrode has an arbitrarily fixed potential
(a) 0.00 volt (b) 1.00 volt
(c) 0.10 volt (d) none of these
Q.3 The oxidation number of chromium in K2Cr2O7 is
(a) 14 (b) 12
(c) 6 (d) none of these
Q.4 In the reaction 2 Fe + Cl2 ( 2FeCl3
(a) Fe is reduced (b) Fe is oxidized
(c) Cl2 is oxidized (d) none of these
Q.5 When fused PbBr2 is electrolyzed
(a) bromine appears at cathode
(b) lead is deposited at the cathode
(c) lead appears at the anode
(d) none of these happens
Q.6 When aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolysed
(a) Cl2 is evolved at the cathode
(b) H2 is evolved at cathode
(c) Na is deposited at the cathode
(d) Na appears at the anode
Q.7 During electrolysis of KNO3, H2 is evolved at
1
(a) anode (b) cathode
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these
Q.8 During electrolysis of CuSO4 (aq) using Cu electrodes Cu is
deposited at
(a) anode (b) cathode
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these
Q.9 During electrolysis of fused NaCl, which of the following
reaction occurs at anode
(a) Cl– ions oxidized (b) Cl– ions reduced
(c) Na+ ions oxidized (d) Na+ ions reduced
Q.10 An electrochemical cell is based upon
(a) acid–base reaction (b) redox reaction
(c) nuclear reaction (d) none of the above
Q.11 Which one of the following will be good conductor of electricity
(a) pure distilled water (b) molten NaCl
(c) dilute solution of glucose
(d) chloroform
Q.12 Which one of the following represents the same net reaction as
the electrolysis of aqueous H2SO4
(a) electrolysis of water
(b) electrolysis of molten NaCl
(c) electrolysis of aqueous HCl
(d) electrolysis of aqueous NaCl
Q.13 In a galvanic cell, the reaction occurs
2H2O ( O2 (g) + 4H+ + 4e– It occurs at the
(a) cathode (b) anode
(c) cathode and anode (d) none of the above
Q.14 Which statement below is not true for the
reaction Fe3+ + e– ( Fe2+
(a) Fe3+ is reduced
(b) oxidation state of Fe has changed
(c) Fe3+ can act as an oxidizing agent
(d) both Fe2+ and Fe3+ are called anions
Q.15 During a redox reaction, an oxidizing agent
(a) gains electrons (b) is oxidized
(c) loses electrons (d) is hydrolysed
Q.16 In a salt bridge KCl is used because
(a) it is an electrolyte
(b) K+ and Cl– transfer easily
(c) agar–agar forms a good jelly with it
(d) KCl is also present in the calomel electrode
Q.17 A oxidizing agent is a substance which brings about
(a) electron donation (b) oxidation
(c) reduction (d) hydrolysis
Q.18 In the electrolysis the process of oxidation occurs at
(a) anode (b) cathode
(c) both cathode and anode
(d) in electrolytic solution
Q.19 In an oxidation process the oxidation number of the element
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) does not change (d)
Q.20 In the reduction process the oxidation number of the element
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) does not change (d)
Q.21 Oxidation number of oxygen in OF2 is
(a) + 1 (b) – 1
(c) + 2 (d) – 2
Q.22 The e.m.f. of Zn – Cu cell is
(a) 1.10 v (b) 1.5 v
(c) 2.0 v (d) 2.5 v
Q.23 The standard reduction potential of a standard hydrogen
electrode
(a) 0.0 v (b) 1.1 v
(c) 1.5 v (d) 2.0 v
Q.24 The oxidation number of Mn is K2 MnO4 is
(a) + 2 (b) + 4
(c) + 6 (d) + 7
Q.25 Which of the following is the definition of oxidation
(a) gain of electrons (b) loss of electrons
(c) addition of H2 (d) removal of O2
Q.26 During electrolysis of H2SO4 (aq) O2 is evolved at
(a) cathode (b) anode
(c) both a and b (d) none of these
Q.27 The e.m.f. produced by a voltage cell is
(a) electrode potential (b) reduction potential
(c) cell potential (d) oxidation potential
Q.28 Which of the following is not a redox reaction
(a) CaCO3 ( CaO + CO2
(b) Cu + 4HNO3 ( Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + H2O
(c) 2H2 + O2 ( 2H2O
(d) MnO2 + 4HCl ( MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
Q.29 Which element acts as a reducing agent in the
reaction Zn + H2SO4 ( ZnSO4 + H2
(a) Zn (b) H
(c) S (d) O
Q.30 Which element acts as a oxidizing agent in the reaction
MnO2 + 4HCl ( MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
(a) Mn (b) O
(c) H (d) Cl
Q.31 When the current is passed through an electrolytic solution,
which of the following process will occur
(a) anions move towards anode and cations move towards cathode
(b) cations and anions both move towards anode
(c) cations and anions both move towards anode
(d) no movement of the ions occur
Q.32 Electric current passes through both molten and solution form
of NaCl because of
(a) ionic bonding (b) Na+ and Cl– ions
(c) ions of water (d) hydration of ions
Q.33 A cell which produces electric current by redox reaction is called
(a) standard cell (b) voltaic cell
(c) reversible cell (d) concentration cell
Q.34 Which of the following conduct electricity due to the
migration of electrons only
(a) copper metal (b) NaCl molten
(c) NaCl (d) NaCl solution
Q.35 Oxidation number of sulphur in S2O eq \a\co1(2–,3 ) is
(a) + 6 (b) – 2
(c) + 2 (d) + 4
Q.36 Substances through which electric current can pass are called
(a) insulators (b) conductors
(c) cathode (d) anode
Q.37 Substances through which electric current cannot pass are called
(a) insulators (b) conductors
(c) anode (d) cathode
Q.38 Metallic conduction is due to the
(a) movement of electrons
(b) movement of ions
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Q.39 Metallic conductors conduct electricity
(a) with chemical change
(b) without any chemical change
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Q.40 The flow of electrons is called
(a) electrolyte (b) electric current
(c) cathode (d) anode
Q.41 A substance which in molten state or in solution form
allows electric current to pass through it is called
(a) electrolyte (b) insulator
(c) conduction (d) none of these
Q.42 The process in which electric current is used to carry out a non–
spontaneous redox reaction is called
(a) electrolyte (b) electrolysis
(c) metallic conductor (d) electrodes
Q.43 In electrochemical cells, the electrode at which the
reduction occurs is called
(a) anode (b) cathode
(c) electrolyte (d) electrolysis
Q.44 The process of producing a chemical change in an
electrolytic cell is called
(a) electrolyte (b) electrolysis
(c) electrodes (d) conductor
Q.45 The process in which ionic compound when fused or dissolved
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CHAPTER 11
REACTION KINETICS
MCQS
Q.1 In zero order reaction, the rate is independent of
(a) temperature of reaction
(b) concentration of reactants
(c) concentration of products
(d) none of above
Q.2 If the rate equation of a reaction 2A + B ® Product, Rate = k
[A]2 [B] and A is present in large excess then order of reaction is:
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) none of these
Q.3 The rate of reaction
(a) increases as the reaction proceeds
(b) decreases as the reaction proceeds
(c) remains the same as the reaction proceeds
(d) may decrease or increase as the reaction proceeds
Q.4 With increases of 10 oC temperature the rate of reaction
doubles. This increase in the rate of reaction is due to
(a) decrease in activation energy of reaction
(b) decrease in the number of collisions b/w
reactants molecules
(c) increase in activation energy of reactants
(d) increase in number of effective collisions
Q.5 The unit of the rate constant is the same as that of the rate of
reaction in
(a) first order reaction (b) second order reaction
(c) zero order reaction (d) third order reaction
1
Q.6 The unit of reaction is
(a) mole/dm3 (b) mole/pound
(c) mole/dm3 sec (d) mole/cm3
Q.7 In the rate equation, when the conc. of reactants is unity then
rate is equal to
(a) specific rate constant (b) average rate constant
(c) instantaneous rate constant
(d) none of above
Q.8 The rate of reaction between two specific time intervals is called
(a) instantaneous rate (b) average rate
(c) specific rate (d) ordinary rate
Q.9 Instantaneous rate of a chemical reaction is
(a) rate of reaction in the beginning
(b) rate of reaction at the end
(c) rate of reaction at a given instant
(d) rate of reaction b/w two specific time intervals
Q.10 At the beginning the decrease in the conc. of reactants is
(a) slow (b) moderate
(c) rapid (d) none of above
Q.11 The sum of exponents of the conc. terms in the rate equation is
called
(a) rate of reaction (b) order of reaction
(c) specific rate constant (d) average rate
Q.12 The average rate and instantaneous rate of a reaction are equal
(a) at the start (b) at the end
(c) in the middle
(d) when two rate have time interval equal to zero
Q.13 The equation 2N2O5 ® 2N2 has order
(a) first order (b) second order
(c) negative order (d) fractional order
Q.14 The hydrolysis of tertiary butyl has order
(a) first order (b) pseudo first order
(c) fractional order (d) zero order
Q.15 Photochemical reactions usually have order
(a) one (b) zero
(c) two (d) three
Q.16 The experimental relationship between a reaction rate and
the concentration of reactants is called
(a) order of reaction (b) specific rate
(c) law of mass action (d) rate law
Q.17 When the rate of reaction is entirely independent of the conc. of
reactants molecule then order of reaction is
(a) zero (b) first
(c) second (d) third
Q.18 Half life of U is
(a) 7.1 x 108 years (b) 6.1 x 108 years
(c) 8.1 x 107 years (d) 7.1 x 1010 years
Q.19 Half life period for decomposition of N2O5 at 45 oC is
(a) 24 minutes (b) 34 minutes
(c) 44 minutes (d) 54 minutes
Q.20 The decomposition of ozone has order
(a) first (b) negative
(c) second (d) pseudo first order
Q.21 The equation CHCl3 + Cl2 ® CCl4 + HCl has order
(a) first (b) negative
(c) fractional (d) second
Q.22 When a reaction occurs in many steps then the slowest step is the
(a) main step
(b) enthalpy determining step
(c) mechanism determining step
(d) rate determining step
Q.23 Spectrometry applied for rate determination when
(a) reactants or product absorb U.V., I.R. light
(b) reaction involve ion
(c) reaction involve change in volume
(d) none of above
Q.24 Electrical conductivity method is applied for rate determination
when
(a) reactants and products involve absorption of U.V. or I.R.
radiation
(b) reaction involving ions
(c) reaction which involve change in refractive indices
(d) reactions which involve small volume change
Q.25 Dilatometric method is used for rate determination when
(a) reactions involving ions
(b) reactions involving change of optical activity
(c) reaction involving small volume change
(d) none of above
Q.26 Refractrometric method is used when
(a) reactions involving absorption of I.R. or U.V.
(b) reactions involving change of refractive index
(c) reactions involving ions
(d) change of optical activity
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ANSWERS
Question 1 2 3 4 5
s
Answers b a b d c
Question 6 7 8 9 10
s
Answers c a b c c
Question 11 12 13 14 15
6
s
Answers b d a b b
Question 16 17 18 19 20
s
Answers d a a a b
Question 21 22 23 24 25
s
Answers c d a b c
Question 26 27 28 29 30
s
Answers b c b a c
Question 31 32 33 34 35
s
Answers d d b a b
Question 36 37 38 39 40
s
Answers a b a a c