Free Radiography Test and The ARRT Wheel

"Radiography Practice
Exam"
How much do you need to study? So you can be CERTAIN you’re going
to pass?
Maybe it’s a little, maybe it’s a lot, and maybe it’s not at all.
Either way, you’re are about to find out. Most radiography students
don’t take the time to figure out where they are at. It's so simple and once
you know, you can PLAN exactly how much you need to study and
improve.
So what’s on the ARRT radiography exam?
There are FIVE major sections. Everything you have learned and will
learn can be put into these 5 sections:
Section # of questions Percent’s

Radiographic 60 30%
Procedures
Image Production 50 25%
and Evaluation
Radiation Protection 40 20%
Patient Care and 26 13%

Education
Copyright © 2019 All Rights Reserved. Radiography Prep Action Page 1
Equipment 24 12%
Operation and
Quality Control
Total 200 hundred. There also may be up to 20 more because the

ARRT accreditation board also includes piloted questions. (if you
want the full outline go to www.ARRT.org)
In this practice test, there are only 100 questions so you can get
the same effect to see how you are going to do - with half the time
and work.
All you need to do, is do the test. My advice to you, treat this like
the real ARRT Registry exam. On the ARRT test you are allowed
4 hours to complete the exam. For this practice test, as there half
as many questions, allow yourself 2 hours. Use a timer if you can
and stick to it.
At the end total up your score and see how you scored!
Also, I am going to show you how to know exactly what areas
you need to focus on.
And remember no matter how well or poorly you do, it doesn’t
matter, this lets you know where you are right now so you can
take the ACTION needed to be prepared and be CERTAIN you
can pass your ARRT Registry well.

Note: These questions and practice test are in no way affiliated
with the ARRT. These questions come randomly picked from my
own notes and remade from other sources.
Good luck and have fun.
Talk to you when you get done.

1) During an intravenous urography, it is helpful to:
1. use a AP Trendelenburg 15 degrees
2. apply compression on the proximal ureters
3. apply compression on the distal ureters
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 only
2) The diagnostic examination known as myelography is used to demonstrate:

1. internal disk lesions
2. anterior protrusion of herniated intervertebral disc
3. posterior protrusion of herniated intervertebral disc
(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 2 only
3) Regarding lower extremity venography, which are the following statement(s) is

(are) true?
1. AP projections only
2. the patient is often examed in the semierect postion
3. tourniquets are used to force contrast medium into deep veins
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
4) During a gastrointestinal examination, the AP recumbent projection of a

stomach of average shape will usually demonstrate:
1. barium-filled fundus
2. double-contrast of distal stomach portions
3. barium-filled duodenum and pylorus
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
5) When imaging the skull with the OML perpendicular to the image receptor and
the CR directed 25-degrees cephalad:
1. the occipital bone is well demonstrated
2. the dorsum sella is seen within the foramen magnum
3. the petrous pyramids fill the orbits
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
6) A profile view of the glenoid fossa can be obtained with the CR directed
perpendicular to the glenoid fossa and the patient rotated:
(A) 20-degree affected side down
(B) 20-degree affected side up
(C) 45-degree affected side down
(D) 45-degree affected side up
7) The following bones participate in the formation of the knee joint:

1. femur
2. tibia
3. patella
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
8) During GI radiography, the position of the stomach often varies depending on:
1. respiratory phase
2. body habitus
3. patient position
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
9) Glenohumeral joint dislocation can be evaluated with which of the following?

1. inferosuperior axial
2. transthoracic lateral
3. scapular Y projection
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
10) A patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to

demonstrate which of the following structure(s)?
1. pylorus
2. sigmoid
3. duodenum
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 3 only
11) The image intensifier’s input phosphor is generally composed of:

(A) cesium iodide
(B) zinc cadmium sulfide
(C) gadolinium oxysulfide
(D) calcium tungstate
12) In which aspect of the orbital wall a “blowout fracture” usually occurs?
(A) superior
(B) inferior
(C) medial
(D) lateral

13) In the parieto-orbital projection (Rhese method) of the optic canal, the
median sagittal plane and central ray form what angle?
(A) 90 degrees
(B) 37 degrees
(C) 53 degrees
(D) 45 degrees
14) Image identification markers should include:
1. patient’s name and/or ID number
2. date
3. right or left marker
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
15) The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and:
(A) in a slight oblique, affected side adjacent to image receptor
(B) in a slight oblique, affected side away from image receptor
(C) erect, weight bearing
(D) erect, with and without weights
16) All of the following positions are likely to be employed for both single-contrast
and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel, except:
(A) lateral rectum
(B) AP axial rectosigmoid
(C) right and left lateral decubitus abdomen
(D) RAO and LAO abdomen
17) The following statement(s) is (are) accurate with respect to the

differences between the male and female bony pelvis:
1. the female pelvic outlet is wider
2. the pubic angle is 90 degrees or fewer in the male
3. the male pelvis is more shallow
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
18) In the lateral projection of the foot, the:

1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the image receptor
2. metatarsals are superimposed
3. talofibular joint should be visualized
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
19) What projection of the calcaneus is obtained with the leg extended, plantar
surface vertical and perpendicular to the image receptor, and central ray directed
40-degree caudad?
(A) axial plantodorsal projection
(B) axial dorsoplantar projection
(C) lateral projection
(D) weight-bearing lateral
20) With the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters

method), and the central ray directed through the patient’s open mouth, which of
the following sinus groups is demonstrated through the open mouth?
(A) frontal
(B) ethmoid
(C) maxillary
(D) sphenoid
21) In which body position would a patient suffering from orthopnea

experience the least discomfort?
(A) Fowler
(B) Trendelenburg
(C) recumbent
(D) erect
22) Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to
demonstrate:
1. pneumothorax
2. foreign body
3. atelectasis
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
23) The four major arteries supplying the brain include the:
1. brachiocephalic artery
2. common carotid arteries
3. vertebral arteries
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
24) Which of the following best demonstrates the navicular, the first and second
cuneiforms, and their articulations with the first and second metatarsals?
(A) lateral foot
(B) lateral oblique foot
(C) medial oblique foot
(D) weight-bearing foot
25) Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the lateral projection of

the thoracic spine?
1. intervertebral joints
2. apophyseal joints
3. intervertebral foramina
(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
26) Which of the following conditions is characterized by widening of

the intercostal spaces?
(A) emphysema
(B) empyema
(C) atelectasis
(D) pneumonia
27) During a gastrointestinal examination, the AP recumbent projection of a

stomach of average size and shape will usually demonstrate:
2. double contrast of distal stomach portions
3. barium-filled duodenum and pylorus
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
28) During a GI examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of

average shape will usually demonstrate:
1. anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach
3. double-contrast body and antral portions
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
29) What position is frequently used to project the GB away from the vertebrae in
the asthenic patient?
(A) RAO
(B) LAO
(C) left lateral decubitus
(D) PA erect
30) To better demonstrate contrast-filled distal ureters during intravenous

urography, it is helpful to:
1. use a 15◦ AP Trendelenburg position
2. apply compression to the proximal ureters
3. apply compression to the distal ureters
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
31) Foreshortening may be caused by:

1. the radiographer object being placed at an anle ot the imagine receptor
2. insufficient distance betwenn the focus and image receptor
3. very little distance between the object and the image receptor
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
32) An x-ray radiograph demonstrating poor contrast resolution can be attributed
to infusient:
1. Beam Restriction
2. Kilovoltage
3. mAs
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
33) The use of optimum kV for small, medium, and large body parts is the premise
of:
(A) fixed kV, variable mAs technique chart
(B) variable kV, fixed mAs technique chart
(C) fixed mAs, variable body part technique
(D) fixed mAs, variable SID technique
34) Image fading in CR can occur if:
1. unexposed PSPs are unused for extended periods
2. exposed PSPs are not processed soon after exposure
3. exposed PSPs are exposed to high temperatures
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
35) The amount of replenishment solution added to the automatic processor

is determine by:
1. size of the film
2. position of film on tray feeding into processor
3. length of time required for film to enter processor
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
36) Accurate operation of the AEC device is dependent on:

1. thickness and density of the object
2. positioning of the object with respect to the ionization chamber
3. beam restriction
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
37) Typical examples of digital imaging include:

1. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
2. computed tomography (CT)
3. pluridirectional tomography
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
38) A CR histogram is a graphic representation of:

(A) gray scale values of the imaged part
(B) a characteristic curve of the imaged part
(C) Dmax
(D) Dmin
39) Of the following groups of technical factors, which will produce the greatest
radiographic density?
(A) 10 mAs, 74 kV, 44-inches SID
(B) 10 mAs, 74 kV, 36-inches SID
(C) 5 mAs, 85 kV, 48-inches SID
(D) 5 mAs, 85 kV, 40-inches SID
40) The energy of ionizing electromagnetic radiations is measured in:

(A) mA
(B) mAs
(C) keV
(D) kV
41) A radiograph made with a parallel grid demonstrates decreased density on its
lateral edges. This is most likely caused by:
(A) static electrical discharge (C) improper tube angle
(B) the grid off-centered (D) decreased SID

42) An exposure was made at 38-inches SID using 300 mA, 0.03-second
exposure, and 80 kV with a 400 film–screen combination and an 8:1 grid. It is
desired to repeat the radiograph and, to improve recorded detail, use 42-inches
SID and 200 film–screen combination. With all other factors remaining constant,
what exposure time will be required to maintain the original radiographic density?
(A) 0.03 second
(B) 0.07 second
(C) 0.14 second
(D) 0.36 second
43) A wire mesh is used to test:

(A) focal spot size
(B) for screen lag
(C) film–screen contact
(D) screen speed
44) Which of the following is (are) considered a geometric factor(s) controlling

recorded detail?
1. OID
2. SID
3. screen speed
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
45) Which of the following has an effect on distortion?

1. source–image distance
2. angulation of the x-ray tube
3. angulation of the part
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

46) The term used to describe image density in digital imaging is:
(A) blackening (C) brightness
(B) gray scale (D) resolution
47) An exposure was made at 40 inches SID using 300 mA, 0.12-second
exposure and 70 kV with a 200 film/screen combination and an 8:1 grid. It is
desired to repeat the image and, in order to produce improved detail, use 48-inch
SID and 100 film/screen combination. Using 0.25-second exposure, and with all
other factors remaining constant, what mA will be required to maintain the original
radiographic density?
(A) 100
(B) 200
(C) 300
(D) 400
48) Compared to a low-ratio grid, a higher-ratio grid could have:

1. taller lead strips
2. more distance between the lead strips
3. thicker lead strips
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
49) In comparison to 90 kV, 60 kV will:

1. permit greater exposure latitude
2. produce shorter scale contrast
3. produce less Compton scatter
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

50) Which of the following groups of exposure factors will produce the
longest scale of contrast?
(A) 200 mA, 1/20 second, 70 kV, 12:1 grid
(B) 500 mA, 0.02 second, 80 kV, 16:1 grid
(C) 300 mA, 30 msec, 90 kV, 8:1 grid
(D) 600 mA, 15 msec, 70 kV, 8:1 grid
51) What portion of an IP records the CR image?

(A) the photostimulable phosphor
(B) the scanner/reader
(C) the film emulsion
(D) the helium–neon laser
52) Which of the following can be used to determine the sensitivity of a particular
film emulsion?
(A) sensitometric curve
(B) dose–response curve
(C) reciprocity law
(D) inverse square law
53) Which of the following pathologic conditions would require an increase

in exposure factors?
(A) pneumoperitoneum
(B) obstructed bowel
(C) renal colic
(D) ascites
54) The x-ray detection system that does not have a scintillation component is:
(A) indirect DR using CCD
(B) indirect DR using TFT
(C) direct DR
(D) CR

55) Grid ratio is defined as the relationship between the height of the lead strip
and the:
(A) width of the lead strip
(B) distance between the lead strips
(C) number of lead strips per inch
(D) angle of the lead strip
56) If the quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of time, the
effect:
(A) has no relationship with how it is deliver with time
(B) will be greater if it were delived all at one time
(C) will be less than it were delivered all at one time
(D) is soley depentant on the radiation quality
57) Which of the following account(s) for x-ray beam heterogeneity?

1. electron moving to fill all different shell vacancies
2. incident electrons interacting with several layers of tungsten target atoms
3. its nuclear origin
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
58) Patient dose can be decreased by using:

1. high ratio grids
2. high speed screen and film combination
3. air-gap technique
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
59) Each time an x-ray scatters, it’s intensity at 1 meter from scattering object is
what fraction of its original intensity?
(A) 1/10
(B) 1/100
(C) 1/1,000
(D) 1/10,000
60) If a person received 45 mR while standing at 4 feet from a source of radiation

for the 2 minutes, which options listed below will most effectively reduce his or her
radiation exposure?
(A) standing 3 feet from the source for 2 minutes
(B) standing 4 feet from the source for 3 minutes
(C) standing 5 feet from the source for 1 minutes
(D) standing 6 feet from the source for 2 minutes
61) How much protection is provided from 100 KV x-ray beam when using a .50-
mm lead equivalent apron?
(A) 99% (C) 75%
(B) 88% (D) 65%
62) If your patient is unable to stay in the necessary position and mechanical
restraining devices cannot be used, who of the following is best suited to hold the
patient?
(A) transporter
(B) floor nurse
(C) friend or relative
(D) student radiographer
63) Which of the following is a measure of does to biological tissue?

(A) RBE
(B) rem (Sv)
(C) rad (Gy)
(D) Roentgen (C/Kg)
64) The term effective dose refers to:

(A) whole-body dose
(B) localized organ dose
(C) genetic effects
(D) somatic and genetic effects
65) Examples of primary radiation barriers include:

1. x-ray room walls
2. control booth
3. lead aprons
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
66) Characteristics of nonstochastic effects of radiation include:

1. they have predictability
2. they have a threshold
3. severity is directly related to dose
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
67) Classify the following tissues in order of decreasing radiosensitivity:

1. liver cells
2. intestinal crypt cells
3. muscle cells
(A) 1, 3, 2
(B) 2, 3, 1
(C) 2, 1, 3
(D) 3, 1, 2
68) Major effect(s) of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) irradiation include:

1. malignant disease
2. chromosome aberration

3. cell death
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
69) Hormonal factors that increase the risk of a woman developing breast cancer
include:
1. family history
2. early menses
3. nulliparity
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
70) All of the following statements regarding breast cancer management are true,
except:
(A) early stages of disease respond well to surgical treatment
(B) BSE helps provide an early diagnosis
(C) survival improves with early diagnosis
(D) a baseline mammogram should be made once menopause begins
71) Proper care of leaded apparel includes:

1. periodic check for cracks
2. careful folding following each use
3. routine laundering with soap and water
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
72) Which of the following types of adult tissues is (are) relatively

insensitive to radiation exposure?
1. muscle tissue
2. nerve tissue
3. epithelial tissue
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
73) Linear energy transfer (LET) is:

1. a method of expressing radiation quality
2. a measure of the rate at which radiation energy is transferred to soft
tissue
3. absorption of polyenergetic radiation
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
74) The effects of radiation to biologic material are dependent on several factors.
If a quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of time, the
effect:
(A) will be greater than if it were delivered all at one time
(B) will be less than if it were delivered all at one time
(C) has no relation to how it is delivered in time
(D) is solely dependent on the radiation quality
75) Which of the following account(s) for x-ray beam heterogeneity?

1. incident electrons interacting with several layers of tungsten target atoms
2. electrons moving to fill different shell vacancies
3. its nuclear origin
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
76) When reviewing patient blood chemistry levels, what is considered the normal
creatinine range?
(A) 0.6–1.5 mg/100 mL
(B) 4.5–6 mg/100 mL
(C) 8–25 mg/100 mL
(D) up to 50 mg/100 mL
77) Which ethical principle below is most closely related to truth telling?
(A) autonomy
(B) beneficence
(C) fidelity
(D) veracity
78) Symptoms of shock include:

1. pallor and weakness
2. increased pulse rate
3. fever
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
79) An autoclave is used for:

(A) dry heat sterilization
(B) chemical sterilization
(C) gas sterilization
(D) steam sterilization
80) Diseases whose mode of transmission is through the air include:

1. tuberculosis
2. mumps
3. rubella
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
81) Chemical substances that are used to kill pathogenic bacteria are called:
1. antiseptics
2. germicides
3. disinfectants
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
82) Characteristics of anemia include:

1. decreased number of circulating red blood cells
2. decreased hemoglobin
3. hematuria
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
83) Chemical substances that inhibit growth of pathogenic microorganisms without

necessarily killing them are called:
1. antiseptics
2. germicides
3. disinfectants
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
84) The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels is
classified as:
(A) neurogenic
(B) cardiogenic
(C) hypovolemic
(D) septic

85) What type of precaution prevents the spread of infectious agents in aerosol
form?
(A) strict isolation (C) airborne precautions
(B) protective isolation (D) contact precautions
86) The most effective method of sterilization is:
(A) dry heat
(B) moist heat
(C) pasteurization
(D) freezing
87) The legislation that guarantees confidentiality of all patient information is:
(A) HSS
(B) HIPAA
(C) HIPPA
(D) MQSA
88) Patients’ rights include the following:

1. the right to refuse treatment
2. the right to confidentiality
3. the right to possess one’s medical records
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
89) A three-phase timer can be tested for accuracy using a synchronous spinning
top. The resulting image looks like a:
(A) series of dots or dashes, each representative of a radiation pulse
(B) solid arc, the angle (in degrees) representative of the exposure time
(C) series of gray tones, from white to black
(D) multitude of small mesh-like squares of uniform sharpness
90) If the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer is supplied by 220 V and has
150 turns, and the secondary coil has 75,000 turns; what is the voltage induced in
the secondary coil?
(A) 75 kV
(B) 110 kV
(C) 75 V
(D) 110 V
91) Which of the following circuit devices operate(s) on the principle of self-
induction?
1. autotransformer
2. choke coil
3. high-voltage transformer
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
92) Which of the following statement(s) regarding transformer laws is (are)

correct?
1. the voltage and current values are increased with a step-up transformer
2. the voltage is directly related to the number of turns in the two coils
3. the product of voltage and current in the two circuits must be equal
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
93) Which of the following is used to evaluate focal spot size?

(A) spinning top
(B) wire-mesh
(C) slit camera
(D) penetrometer
94) Periodic equipment calibration includes testing of the:

1. focal spot
2. mA
3. kV
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
95) A quality assurance program includes checks on which of the following

radiographic equipment conditions?
1. reproducibility
2. linearity
3. positive beam limitation
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
96) Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal
tibiofibular articulation?
(A) AP
(B) 90-degree mediolateral
(C) 45-degree internal rotation
(D) 45-degree external rotation
97) Developer solution is prevented from entering the fixer tank in automatic
processing by the:
(A) guide shoes
(B) rollers
(C) switch
(D) timer
98) The microswitch for controlling the amount of replenishment used in an

automatic processor is located at the:
(A) receiving bin
(B) crossover roller

(C) entrance roller
(D) replenishment pump
99) Radiographs from a particular three-phase, full-wave rectified x-ray unit

were underexposed, using known correct exposures. A synchronous spinning-top
test was performed using 100 mA, 1/20 second, and 70 kV, and a 12-degree arc is
observed on the test film. Which of the following is mostlikely the problem?
(A) the 1/20-second time station is inaccurate
(B) the 100 mA station is inaccurate
(C) a rectifier is not functioning
(D) the processor needs servicing
100) The spinning-top test can be used to evaluate:
1. timer accuracy
2. rectifier failure
3. effect of kV on contrast
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
“Only Look When You’re

Done...”

"Well, How Did You Go?"
Did you finish? Are you done?
Well I first want to say congratulations on actually doing this
practice exam. Most students won’t even do this, so you already
ADEAD of the game. Here’s the answers below. Use page 30 to
record your results.
Procedures 18.B 35.D 52.A 69.C 86.B
1. C 19.B 36.C 53.D 70.D 87.B
2. B 20.D 37.B 54.C 71.A 88.B
3. C 21.C 38.A 55.A 72.B
4. B 22.A 39.B 73.B Equipment
5. B 23.A 40.C Protection 74.B 89.B
6. C 24.B 41.D 56.C 75.B 90.B
7. A 25.C 42.B 57.B 91.B
8. D 26.A 43.C 58.A Care 92.C
9. C 27.B 44.B 59.C 76.A 93.C
10. B 28.C 45.D 60.C 77.D 94.D
11. A 29.B 46.C 61.C 78.B 95.D
12. B 30.A 47.D 62.C 79.D 96.B
13. B 48.A 63.B 80.D 97.B
14. D Production 49.C 64.A 81.C 98.C
15. A 31.C 50.C 65.A 82.B 99.A
16. C 32.A 51.A 66.D 83.A 100. C
17. B 33.A 67.C 84.A
34.C 68.D 85.C

“What You Need To Focus On
And How To Gain Momentum”
Brian Tracey, a famous success, business, and life coach, said that “feedback is
the breakfast of champions.” Using the answers above, see how many questions
you got right and calculate the percentage correct.
Then using the “Radiography Wheel” you will see visually which of the 5 sections
you need to focus on. Also, use this technique to record your score over time and
see how much you improve overtime.
You cannot know if you “winning” if you’re not keeping score.
In other words, if you're improving and doing great, you DESERVE to know and
need to know that. On the other hand, if you are not improving, or not improving
fast enough... you NEED to know that also.
Using this technique, you will know exactly what areas to focus on so you can
study less and improve faster. You’ll also start to notice you are feeling much less
overwhelmed because you know where you’re at and exactly how much and in
which areas you do need to do improve. By working on and improving your lowest
areas, you can gain momentum and have good personal inner balance on your
test day.
Print the following page, or you can redraw the wheel yourself, and do these 3
steps now:
Step 1: Figure out how many you got right and calculate the percentages
Step 2: Plot point on wheel for each section, create arcs, and shade in the area
(see example on page 28 and 29)
Step 3: Figure out the top three areas you need to improve on.

There are also extras copies for you on page 34 and 35 to see how you are
improving over time.
"The ARRT Wheel"

Date:
Section # Right Percentage

Radiographic Procedures: /30
%
Image Production and Evaluation: /25
%
Radiation Protection: /20
%
Patient Care and Education: /13
%
Equipment Operation and Quality Control: /12
%

Total: /100
Equipment Operation %
and Quality Control
Radiographic
Procedures
Patient Care
and Education
Radiography
Protection
Image Production
and Evaluation
Is your wheel balanced? Do you need to Top 3 Areas I need to focus on:
focus on a certain section more then another?
1.
You want test day to be a smooth as possible.
Imagine this is a wheel on your car... How 2.
would it drive going 10 MPH... What about
going 50 MPH... 100 MPH? 3.

Date:

%
%
%
%
%
Total: /100
and Quality Control
Radiographic
Procedures
Patient Care
and Education
Radiography
Protection
Image Production
and Evaluation
1.
Date:

%
%
%
%
%
Total: /100
and Quality Control
Radiographic
Procedures
Patient Care
and Education
Radiography
Protection
Image Production
and Evaluation
1.
"You Can Do It"
The techniques and methodologies I have shown you will help you
prepare and pass the ARRT radiography exam faster and more easily. I
wanted to give these to you, because even though I don’t know you
personally, I know you would do the same for me...
But this only the TIP of the iceberg.
This practice test exam is about 1/10 of the POWER I discovered to help
YOU pass with ease. That’s why I created my 95 page book with ALL the
techniques and methodologies I and many other radiography students
have successfully used to pass our ARRT Registry.
By following my proven 3 Step system of these areas and more :
 Registry Mindset,
 Taking Action,
 Studying Well and Accelerating Your Learning
 Time Management
 Test Well
 Registry Decoded
 Be A PIRATE Tester
 Cool, Calm, and Confident
 140 Power Affirmations
Yours in Success,


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"Radiography Practice

Section # of questions Percent’s

Patient Care and 26 13%

Total 200 hundred. There also may be up to 20 more because the

Copyright © 2019 All Rights Reserved. Radiography Prep Action Page 2

Copyright © 2019 All Rights Reserved. Radiography Prep Action Page 3

2) The diagnostic examination known as myelography is used to demonstrate:

3) Regarding lower extremity venography, which are the following statement(s) is

4) During a gastrointestinal examination, the AP recumbent projection of a

7) The following bones participate in the formation of the knee joint:

9) Glenohumeral joint dislocation can be evaluated with which of the following?

10) A patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to

11) The image intensiﬁer’s input phosphor is generally composed of:

Copyright © 2019 All Rights Reserved. Radiography Prep Action Page 6

17) The following statement(s) is (are) accurate with respect to the

18) In the lateral projection of the foot, the:

20) With the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters

21) In which body position would a patient suffering from orthopnea

25) Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the lateral projection of

Copyright © 2019 All Rights Reserved. Radiography Prep Action Page 9

26) Which of the following conditions is characterized by widening of

27) During a gastrointestinal examination, the AP recumbent projection of a

28) During a GI examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of

30) To better demonstrate contrast-ﬁlled distal ureters during intravenous

31) Foreshortening may be caused by:

35) The amount of replenishment solution added to the automatic processor

36) Accurate operation of the AEC device is dependent on:

37) Typical examples of digital imaging include:

38) A CR histogram is a graphic representation of:

40) The energy of ionizing electromagnetic radiations is measured in:

Copyright © 2019 All Rights Reserved. Radiography Prep Action Page 13

43) A wire mesh is used to test:

44) Which of the following is (are) considered a geometric factor(s) controlling

45) Which of the following has an effect on distortion?

Copyright © 2019 All Rights Reserved. Radiography Prep Action Page 14

48) Compared to a low-ratio grid, a higher-ratio grid could have:

49) In comparison to 90 kV, 60 kV will:

Copyright © 2019 All Rights Reserved. Radiography Prep Action Page 15

51) What portion of an IP records the CR image?

53) Which of the following pathologic conditions would require an increase

Copyright © 2019 All Rights Reserved. Radiography Prep Action Page 16

57) Which of the following account(s) for x-ray beam heterogeneity?

58) Patient dose can be decreased by using:

60) If a person received 45 mR while standing at 4 feet from a source of radiation

63) Which of the following is a measure of does to biological tissue?

64) The term effective dose refers to:

65) Examples of primary radiation barriers include:

66) Characteristics of nonstochastic effects of radiation include:

67) Classify the following tissues in order of decreasing radiosensitivity:

68) Major effect(s) of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) irradiation include:

Copyright © 2019 All Rights Reserved. Radiography Prep Action Page 19

71) Proper care of leaded apparel includes:

72) Which of the following types of adult tissues is (are) relatively

73) Linear energy transfer (LET) is:

75) Which of the following account(s) for x-ray beam heterogeneity?

78) Symptoms of shock include:

79) An autoclave is used for:

80) Diseases whose mode of transmission is through the air include:

82) Characteristics of anemia include: