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Part I Listening Comprehension

A. Numbers 1 – 10 test your ability to under-stand short statements in
English. Each statement will be spoken just once. The statements you
hear will not be written out for you. Remember, you are not allowed to
take notes or write in your booklet.

1. A. There was only one bank near the school.

B. She went to the bank by herself.
C. She borrowed money from the bank to pay her school fees.
D. There were three courses in banking at her school.

2. A. Bill thinks he's paying for the books.

B. Bill thanked me for getting the books.
C. I think I'm supposed to pick you up, Bill.
D. I appreciate your getting my books, Bill.

3. A. She didn't tell us when the demonstration would begin.

B. Didn't she give this demonstration before she ate?
C. I understand the demonstration will be at eight o'clock.
D. Didn't she say she would be late for the demonstration?

4. A. Linda must take ten more classes to get her degree.

B. After receiving her degree, Linda took some night classes.
C. It took Linda ten years to earn her degree.
D. If Linda got her degree, she could teach night classes.

5. A. Industry should be far from cities.

B. Cars pollute more than industry does.
C. Don't waste money fixing your new car.
D. The automobile industry isn't growing fast.

6. A. I sue an alarm clock to wake up.

B. I used to wake up too early.
C. I usually get up early.
D. I do more if I get up early.

7. A. Mary doesn't want a roommate.

B. Mary doesn't want to walk home.
C. Mary asked us to leave her alone.
D. Mary prefers to arrive home early.

8. A. You read that letter before I did.

-1-
 B. Blue print is less eye-catching than red print.
C. Fred noticed that blue sign immediately.
D. I think you need a new red sign.

9. A. He got up and left.

B. He defended his point of view.
C. He answered the question correctly.
D. He gave us good directions.

10. A. I like going to the meetings to hear Scott talk.

B. I'm disappointed I can't go to the meeting.
C. I'll go to the meeting even though I don't want to.
D. I'm not sure if I can go to the meeting.

B. In this part you will hear five short talks. After each talk, two
questions will be asked based on the information given. Answer the
questions following the talk, by choosing A, B, C, or D which best
answers the questions. Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or
write in your test book.

11. A. He was taking a walk.

B. He was talking to Professor Calhoun.
C. He was having problems with his car.
D. He was eating dinner.

12. A. Admission forms.

B. Solar energy.
C. Auto maintenance.
D. Course requirements for engineers.

13. A. Three.
B. Four.
C. Five.
D. Six.

14. A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
D. Four.

15. A. Drive her to the lecture.

B. Let her give him a ride.
C. Borrow her car.
D. Get his car repaired.

16. A. To make recommendations on sensible dieting.

B. To report the latest advances in brain surgery.
C. To relate an experiment combining sleep and exercise.
D. To advise on ways of dealing with sleep difficulties.

17. A. Your heart rate is lowered.

2
 B. It becomes harder to relax.
C. You become too tired to sleep.
D. Sleep rhythms are disrupted.

18. A. Failure to rest during the day.

B. Lack of sleep on weekends.
C. Vigorous exercise in the evening.
D. Eating cheese before going to bed.

19. A. They might eventually cause you to lose sleep.

B. They help produce a neurotransmitter in the brain.
C. You must not drink milk if you take them.
D. They make it unnecessary to take naps.

20. A. At a radio station.

B. In a lecture hall.
C. In a biology lab.
D. At the doctor's office.

3
 Part II. Vocabulary
A. For questions 1 – 15, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which
best completes each blank space in the text.

The shark has senses specially (1)_____ the animal's life underwater.
Smell is a shark's most acute sense. Approximately 70 percent of the
shark's brain is used for smelling functions. Experiments have shown
that sharks can detect prey (2)_____ by smell, and the hungrier the
shark, the less stimulant needed to elicit a reaction. Sharks are
sensitive to light and can detect certain objects even in murky water.
Some have a mirror-like layer under the retina that reflects incoming
light and increases the (3)_____ light available to the eye. Sharks
can also sense electric and magnetic fields. Sensory pores located on
the shark's head can detect a prey's bioelectric field (4)_____ if the
prey is buried in sand. A shark can also detect the Earth's magnetic
field. Open-ocean sharks may use this information to (5)_____ and
orient themselves.

1. A. appointed by C. figured out

B. invented for D. designed for

2. A. timidly C. solely
B. hardly D. disorderly

3. A. prominence of C. odor of
B. disposal of D. amount of

4. A. even C. however
B. as D. even though

5. A.sink C. crawl
B. navigate D. thrust

At the (6) ... of a button they would be transported to (7) ...

realistic settings where they could practice their English, maybe
getting a hand (8) ... a virtual English companion. All this perhaps,
at the computer, from the comfort of their home: no (9) ... to catch
the bus to college, or a plane to England. Exciting? Certainly, and an
interesting alternative to traditional classroom lessons. But would it
ever (10) ... the classroom? Hopefully not.

6
A force
B hit
C depress
D push

4
7
A so
B such
C like
D alike

8
A with
B to
C from
D for

9
A role
B duty
C obligation
D need

10
A replace
B restore
C succeed
D recover

Vera Neumann was a designer and businesswoman whose products found their
way into the homes of people across the USA.
Vera was born in Connecticut in 1907 and showed artistic (1) ........
from an early age.
After attending art college in New York, she got a job as a textile
designer, but didn't
like being (2) ........ what to do. Determined to develop hEjr own
styles, Vera started to
produce tablecloths each item printed by hand in her kitchen.
But it was her scaNes that (3) ........ Vera's name. Good fabric was in
short (4) ....... .
during the Second World War, but Vera was lucky enough to (5) ........
across some
silk left over from the manufacture of parachutes. Vera used it to design
scarves
with floral, abstract and geometric designs. These were an instant
success when
they appeared in department stores and during the 1950s.

11
A training
B talent
C expert
D gift

5
12
A led
B directed
C told
D forced

13
A got
B did
C gained
D made

14
A supply
B availability
C quantity
D delivery

15
A fall
B come
C happen
D run

6
B. Choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D that best collocates
(combines) with each of the underlined words or phrases in the
following sentences.

7
 Part III. Grammar and Structure

A. Sentence Completion
For questions 1 – 15, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which
best completes each of the following sentences.

1. Traditionally, __________in New England on Thanksgiving Day.

A. when served is sweet cider
B. when sweet cider is served
C. is served sweet cider
D. sweet cider is served

2. During an eclipse of the Sun, ______in the shadow of the Moon.

A. the Earth lies
B. the Earth when lying
C. that the Earth lies
D. the lying Earth

3. Under the influence of Ezra Pound, Hilda Doolittle became associated

with the Imagists and _______into one of the most original poets of
the group.
A. developed
B. to be developing
C. who developed
D. developing it

4. _______all rainwater falling from a cloud reaches the ground; some of

it is lost through evaporation.
A. Nowhere
B. Not
C. No
D. None

5. In an area first explored by Samuel de Champlain, _______

A. establishment of the city of Halifax in 1749
B. in 1749 the city of Halifax established
C. in 1749, establishing the city of Halifax
D. the city of Halifax was established in 1749

6. A nation's merchant marine is made up of its commercial ships and the

personnel _______
A. they operate them
B. who operate them
C. they operate whom
D. who do they operate

7. _______ Nat Turner who led a revolt against slavery in Virginia in

1831.
A. Where was
B. It was
C. He was
D. It was him

8
8. The most elaborate of all bird nests _______, domed communal structure
built by social weaverbirds.
A. larger
B. largely is
C. the large
D. is the large

9. William Walker's mural, "Wall of Respect," _______ an outdoor wall in

Chicago, deals with social issues.
A. covers
B. covers it
C. which covers
D. which it covers

10.Studies of the gravity field of the Earth indicate ______ yield when
unusual weight is placed on them.
A. although its crust and mantle
B. its crust and mantle to
C. that its crust and mantle
D. for its crust and mantle to

11.The columbine flower, ______ to nearly all of the United States, can
be raised from seed in almost any garden.
A. native
B. how native is
C. how native is it
D. is native

12.The photoperiodic response of algae actually depends on the duration

of darkness, --- .
A. the light is not on
B. and not on light
C. but is not on the light
D. is not on light

13. ______, the first Black denomination in the United States.

A. Richard Allen founded the African Methodist Episcopal Church
B. Richard Allen, who founded the African Methodist Episcopal Church
C. The African Methodist Episcopal
D. The foundation of the African Methodist Episcopal Church by Richard
Allen

14. The annual worth of Utah's manufacturing is greater than ______.

A. that of its mining and farming combined
B. mining and farming combination
C. that mining and farming combined
D. of its combination mining and farming

15. The wallflower ______because its weak stems often grow on walls and
along stony cliffs for support.
A. so called is
B. so is called
C. is so called
D. called is so

9
B. Cloze Test
For questions 16 – 25, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D
which best completes each blank space in the text.

When he was 21 years old, Thomas Edison (1)_____ his first patent.
It was for an electric vote counter (2)_____ in the United States
House of Representatives. The machine worked perfectly, but the
congressmen (3)_____ it. They did not want vote counting to be done
quickly. This experience (4)_____ the young inventor a lesson. He
decided to follow a simple rule: “First, be sure a thing (5)_____ or
needed, then go ahead.”

1. A. take out C. was taken out

B. took out D. had taken out

2. A. used to be C. had used

B. used D. to be used

3. A. not buy C. had not buy

B. would not buy D. was not bought

4. A. were teaching C. taught

B. has taught D. was taught

5. A. is wanted C. wanted
B. wants it D. had wanted

Many people do their exercise at health club, (20) ………. has exercise
equipment, and (21) ………. for tennis or table tennis. Other people
(22) ………. clubs with golf courses and swimming pools. Those who want
privacy (23) ………. their homes with exercise bicycles or walking
machines to work out in their bedroom or family room. Walking,
running, and jogging are also popular (24)………. of keeping the body
fit. Many people jog a few mi les before (25) ………. to work in the
morning, using jogging trails in parks or simply running around their
house several times.

21. A. fields C. stadiums

B. courts D. yards

22. A. approach C. arrive

B. come D. join

23. A. set up C. make up

B. decorate D. provide

24. A. roads C. ways

B. paths D. trails

25. A. go C. to go
B. going D. went

10
C. Error Identification
For questions 26 – 40, choose the word or phrase A, B, C, or D which
is wrong.

26. It is supposed that early people got fire accidentally from trees set
A B
ablaze by lightning or from spouting volcanoes. Then they carefully
C
kept them burning in huts or caves.
D

27. An erupting volcano or an earthquake sometimes affects the featured

A B
of the surrounding region and can even cause lakes to disappear.
C D

28. Most tree frogs change color to harmonize with its background.
A B C D

29. Due to the refraction of light rays, this is impossible for the naked
A B
eye to determine the exact location of a star close to the horizon.
C D

30. Modern poets have experimented with poetic devices such alliteration
A B C D
and assonance.

31. Birds eggs vary greatly of size, shape, and color.

A B C D

32. Social reformer Frederick Douglass dedicated his life to working for
A
the abolish of slavery and the fight for civil rights.
B C D

33. Mount Edith Cavell, a peak in the Canadian Rockies, is named after a
A B C
famous nurses.
D

34. Xanthines have both good and bad effects on the body, and these
A
effects are generally determined on the size and regularity of dosage.
B C D

35. When a severe ankle injury forced herself to give up reporting in

A B C
1926, Margaret Mitchell began writing her novel Gone with the Wind.
D

36. One of the most difficult questions in defining sleep is "What is the
A B C D
functions of sleep?"

11
37. The Millicent Rogers Museum houses five thousands pieces of Hispanic
A
and American Indian jewelry, textiles, and other objects documenting
B C
the vibrancy of these two cultures.
D

38. Seven of planets rotate in the same direction as their orbital

A B
motions, while Venus and Uranus rotate in the opposite direction.
C D

39. In the United States voters election representatives to the national

A B C
legislature, which consists of the House of Representatives.
D

40. It is the interaction between people, rather than the events that
A B
occur in their lives, that are the main focus of social psychology.
C D

12
 Part IV. Reading Comprehension
Choose the best answer to each question based on the information which is
stated or implied in the text.

Text 1

British Columbia is the third largest Canadian province both in

area and population. It is nearly times as large as Texas, and
extends 800 miles (1, 280 km) north from
United States border. It includes Canada's entire west coast and
the islands just off the coast.
Most of British Columbia is mountainous, with long, rugged
ranges running north and south. Even the coastal islands are the
remains of a mountain range that existed thousands of years ago.
During the last Ice Age this range was scoured by glaciers until
most of It was beneath the sea, its peaks now show as islands
scattered along the coast.
The southwestern coastal region has a humid mild marine climate.
Sea winds that blow inland from the west are warmed by a current of
warm water that flows through the Pacific Ocean. As a result winter
temperatures average above freezing and summers are mild. These warm
western winds also carry moisture from the ocean.
Inland from the coast the winds from the Pacific meet the mountain
barriers of the coastal ranges and the Rocky Mountains As they rise
to cross the mountains, the winds are cooled, and their moisture
begins to fall as rain. On some of the western slopes almost 201)
inches (500 cm) of rain fall each year.
More than half of British Columbia 15 heavily forested. On
mountain slopes that receive plentiful rainfall, huge Douglas firs
rise in towering columns. These forest giants often grow to be as
much as 300 feet (90 m) tail, with diameters up to 10 feet (3 m).
More lumber is produced from these trees than from any other kind of
tree in North America. Hemlock, red cedar, and balsam fir are among
the other trees found in British Columbia.

1. In which part of British Columbia can a mild tree found in

British Columbia?
A. In the southwest
B. Inland from the coast
C. In the north
D. On the entire west coast

2. In line 16, the word "heavily" could best be replaced by which of

the following?
A. weightily
B. densely
C. sluggishly
D. seriously

3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a climate be found?

A. Hemlock
B. Cedar
C. Fir

13
D. Pine

4. Where in the passage does the author mention the effect the
mountains have on winds?
A. Lines 4-5
B. Lines 8-10
C. Lines 13-14
D. Lines 16-17

Text 2

Though they were not trained naturalists, Meriwether Lewis and

William Clark in their explorations of North America in the early
nineteenth century came across enough unfamiliar birds, mammals, and
reptiles to fill a zoo. In keeping with President Jefferson's orders
they took careful note of 122 species and subspecies that were
unknown to science and in many cases native only to the West. Clark
made sketches of any particularly intriguing creature. He and Lewis
also collected animal hides and horns and bird skins with such care
that a few of them were still intact nearly two centuries later.
While Lewis and Clark failed to meet the mythological monsters
reputed to dwell in the West, they did unearth the bones of a 45-
foot dinosaur. Furthermore, some of the living beasts they did come
upon, such as the woolly mountain goat and the grizzly bear, were
every bit as odd or as fearsome as any myth. In their collector's
enthusiasm, they even floated a prairie dog out of its burrow by
pouring in five barrelfuls of water, then shipped the frisky animal
to Jefferson alive and yelping.

5. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. President Jefferson's pets
B. Collector's techniques for capturing wildlife
C. Discovery of animal species by Lewis and Clark
D. Jobs for trained naturalists

6. "In keeping with" in line 3 could best be replaced by which of the

following?
A. Following
B. Managing
C. Retaining
D. Delaying

7. It can be inferred from the passage that President Jefferson ordered

Lewis and Clark to
A. bring back animals for a zoo
B. train to be naturalists
C. compile sketches for a book
D. record newly discovered species of animals

8. In tine 8, what does the word "they" refer to?

A. Lewis and Clark
B. Dinosaur bones
C. Mythological monsters
D. Western dwellers

14
9. The author compares which of the following animals to mythological
monsters?
A. The grizzly bear
B. The prairie dog
C. A tropical bird
D. A poisonous reptile

10. According to the passage, Lewis and Clark poured water into a
prairie dog's burrow because they wanted to
A. bathe the animal
B. capture the animal
C. give the animal water
D. teach the animal to float

Text 3

What makes it rain? Rain falls from clouds for the same reason
anything falls to Earth. The Earth's gravity pulls it. But every
cloud is made of water droplets or ice crystals. Why doesn't rain or
snow fall constantly from all clouds? The droplets or ice crystals
in clouds are exceedingly small. The effect of gravity on them is
minute. Air currents move and lift droplets so that the net downward
displacement is zero, even though the droplets are in constant
motion.
Droplets and ice crystals behave somewhat like dust in the air
made visible in a shaft of sunlight. To the casual observer, dust
seems to act in a totally random fashion, moving about chaotically
without fixed direction. But in fact dust particles are much larger
than water 1
droplets and they finally fall. The cloud droplet of average size
is only 1/2500 inch in diameter. It is so small that it would take
sixteen hours to fall half a mile in perfectly still air, and it
does
not fall out of moving air at alt. Only when the droplet grows to
a diameter of P25 inch or larger can it fall from the cloud. The
average raindrop contains a million times as much water as a tiny
cloud droplet. The growth of a cloud droplet to a size large enough
to fall out is the cause of rain and other forms of precipitation.
This important growth process is called "coalescence."

11. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The mechanics of rain
B. The climate of North America
C. How gravity affects agriculture
D. Types of clouds

12. The word "minute" in line 4 is closest in meaning to which of the

following?
A. Second
B. Tiny
C. Slow
D. Predictable

13. Why don' t all ice crystals in clouds immediately fall to earth?
A. They are balanced by the pressure of rain droplets.

15
B. The effect of gravity at high altitude is random.
C. They are kept aloft by air currents.
D. The heat from the sun' S rays melts them.

14. The word 'motion" in line 6 is closest in meaning to which of the

following?
A. Wind
B. Descent
C. Movement
D. Humidity

15. What can be inferred about drops of water larger than 1/125 inch in
diameter?
A. They never occur.
B. They are not affected by the force of gravity.
C. In still air they would fall to earth.
D. In moving air they fall at a speed of thirty- two miles per hour.

16. In this passage, what does the term "coalescence" refer to?
A. The gathering of small clouds to form larger clouds
B. The growth of droplets
C. The fall of raindrops and other precipitation
D. The movement of dust particles in the sunlight

17. What is the diameter of the average cloud droplet?

A. 1/16 inch
B. 1/125 inch
C. 1/2500 inch
D. One million of an inch

Text 4

In general, the influence of Anglo patrons has been much less

pronounced on Hispanic arts than on American Indian arts. The
Hispanic crafts revival was confined to a much shorter period of
time, beginning in the early 1920's, reaching its peak in the late
1930's, and dying down by the Second World War, less than 20 years.
During this period, in spite of the enthusiasm of the wealthy Anglo
patrons in northern New Mexico, Hispanic crafts never "caught on"
nationally in the way American Indian crafts did. Interest was
fairly well limited to the Southwest and Southern California, the
areas in which the adobe hacienda revival was taking place. The
major interest in Hispanic crafts was as furnishings for these
comfortable Southwestern-style adobe homes. These crafts were not,
as were American Indian crafts viewed as valuable art objects in
themselves purchased with an eye for speculation. Hispanic arts to,
a great degree have been ignored by the speculative Anglo art
market. A beneficial consequence of this oversight is that the
artisans have been freer to work according to their own standards
and within their own traditions. Their work has not been "emptied of
previous vital meanings" and become a meaningless revival, as has so
much ethnic art of this day. Rather it has remained as an object of
cultural pride and identity and not simply the product of the tastes
and demands of the art market.

16
18. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Differences in the degree to which His-panic and American Indian
arts have been influenced by Anglo patrons
B. Marketing strategies for Hispanic artists
C. American Indian influence on Hispanic crafts
D. Negative consequences of the influence American Indian and Hispanic
arts have had on Anglo artists

19. According to the passage, during which of the following periods

were Hispanic crafts most popular?
A. The early 1920's
B. The late 1930's
C. In the middle of the Second World War
D. At the end of the Second World War

20. In line 6, the author says that Hispanic crafts never "caught on"
to indicate that they
A. failed to become fashionable
B. were hard to hang on walls
C. were impossible to understand.
D. seldom stayed glued together

21. In line 15 of the passage, to which of the following does the word
"it" refer?
A. The clay
B. Ethnic art
C. Their work
D. A meaningless revival

22. Which of the following places is NOT mentioned in the passage as a

place in which Hispanic craft were popular?
A. Northern New Mexico
B. The Southwest
C. Southern California
D. New England

23. Where in the passage does the author indicate the primary use of
the Hispanic crafts purchased prior to the Second World War?
A. Lines 2-4
B. Lines 8-9
C. Lines 11-13
D. Lines 15 – 16

Text 5

Botany, the study of plants, occupies a peculiar position in

the history of human knowledge. For many thousands of years it was
the one field of awareness about which humans had anything more than
the vaguest of insights. It is impossible to know today just what
our Stone Age ancestors knew about plants, but from what we can
observe of pre-industrial societies that still exist, a detailed
learning of plants and their properties must be extremely ancient.
This is logical. Plants are the basis of the food pyramid for all
living things, even for other plants. They have always been

17
 enormously important to the welfare of peoples, not only for food,
but also for clothing, weapons, tools, dyes, medicines, shelter, and
a great many other purposes. Tribes living today in the jun9les of
the Amazon recognize literally hundreds of plants and know many
properties of each. To them botany, as such, has no name and is
probably not even recognized as a special branch of knowledge at
all.
Unfortunately, the more industrialized we become the farther
away we move from direct contact with plants, and the less distinct
our knowledge of botany grows. Yet everyone comes unconsciously on
an amazing amount of botanical knowledge, and few people will fail
to recognize a rose, an apple, or an orchid. When our Neolithic
ancestors, living in the Middle East about 10,000 years ago,
discovered that certain grasses could be harvested and their seeds
planted for richer yields the next season, the first great step in a
new association of plants and humans was taken. Grains were
discovered and from them flowed the marvel of agriculture:
cultivated crops. From then on, humans would increasingly take their
living from the controlled production of a few plants, rather than
getting a little here and a little there from many varieties that
grew wild – and the accumulated knowledge' of tens of thousands of
years of experience and intimacy with plants in the wild would begin
to fade away.

24. Which of the following assumptions about early humans is expressed

in the passage?
A. They probably had extensive knowledge of plants.
B. They thought there was no need to cultivate crops.
C. They did not enjoy the study of botany.
D. They placed great importance on the ownership of property.

25. What does the comment "This is logical" in line 6 mean?

A. There is no clear way to determine the extent of our ancestor’s
knowledge of plants.
B. It is not surprising that early humans had a detailed knowledge of
plants.
C. It is reasonable to assume that our ancestors behaved very much like
people in preindustrial societies.
D. Human knowledge of plants is well organized and very detailed.

26. According to the passage, why has general knowledge of botany begun
to fade?
A. People no longer value plants as a useful resource.
B. Botany is not recognized as a special branch of science.
C. Research is unable to keep up with the increasing numbers of plants.
D. Direct contact with a variety of plants has decreased.

27. In line 16, what is the author’s purpose in mentioning "a rose, an
apple, or an orchid"?
A. To make the passage more poetic
B. To cite examples of plants that are attractive
C. To give botanical examples that all readers will recognize
D. To illustrate the diversity of botanical life

18
28. According to the passage, what was the first great step toward the
practice of agriculture?
A. The invention of agricultural implements and machinery
B. The development of a system of names for plants
C. The discovery of grasses that could be harvested and replanted
D. The changing diets of early humans

29. The relationship between botany and agriculture is similar to the

relationship between zoology the study of animals) and
A. deer hunting
B. bird watching
C. sheep raising
D. horseback riding

30.In which lines in the passage does the author describe the
beneficial properties that plants have for
humans?
A. Lines 1-2
B. Lines 7-9
C. Lines 11-12
D. Lines 14-16

Text 6

Basic to any understanding of Canada in 20 years after the Second

World War is the country's impressive population growth. For every
three Canadians in 1945, there were over five in 1996. In September
1966 Canada's population passed the 20 million mark. Most of this
surging growth came from natural increase. The depression of the
1930's and the war had held back marriages and the catching – up
process began after 1945. The baby boom continued through the decade
of the 1950's, producing a population increase of nearly fifteen
percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This rate of increase
had been exceeded only once before in Canada's history, in the
decade before 1911, when the prairies were being settled.
Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950's supported a
growth in the population, but the expansion also derived from a
trend toward earlier marriages and an increase in the average size
of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per
thousand, one of the highest in the world.
After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to
decline. It continued falling until in 1966 it stood at the lowest
level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the low level of
births during the depression and the war, but it was also caused by
changes in Canadian society. Young people were staying at school
longer, more women were working, young married couples were buying
automobiles or houses before starting families, rising living
standards were cutting down the size of families. It appeared that
Canada was once more falling in step with the trend toward smaller
families that had occurred all through the Western world since the
time of the Industrial Revolution.
Although the growth in Canada's population has slowed down by
1966(the increase in the first half of the 1960's was only nine
percent). Another large population wave was coming over the horizon.

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 It would be composed of the children of the children who were born
during the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957.

31. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Educational changes in Canadian society.
B. Canada during the Second World War
C. Population trends in postwar Canada
D. Standards of living in Canada

32. The word "five" in line 3 refers to

A. Canadians
B. Years
C. Decades
D. Marriages

33. The word "surging" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

A. new
B. extra
C. accelerating
D. surprising

34. The author suggests that in Canada during the 1950's

A. the urban population decreased rapidly
B. fewer people married
C. economic conditions were poor
D. the birth rate was very high

35. The word "trend" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

A. tendency
B. aim
C. growth
D. directive

36. The word "peak" in line 14 is closest in meaning to

A. pointed
B. dismal
C. mountain
D. maximum

37. When was the birth rate in Canada at its lowest postwar level?
A. 1966
B. 1957
C. 1956
D. 1951

38. The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in

population growth after 1957 EXCEPT
A. people being better educated
B. people getting married earlier
C. better standards of living
D. couples buying houses

39. It can be inferred from the passage that before the industrial
Revolution
A. families were larger
B. population statistic were unreliable

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C. the population grew steadily
D. economic conditions were bad

40. The word "It" in line 25 refers to

A. horizon
B. population wave
C. nine percent
D. first half

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 Part V Composing Skills
In this section of the test, you are required to demonstrate your ability
to paraphrase sentences and to recognize language that is not appropriate
for standard written English. There are five parts to this section, with
special direction for each part.

A. Numbers 1 – 10 contain complete and correct sentences. For each number,

you are required to choose the most appropriate paraphrased sentence
closest in meaning to the original one.

1. There are probably more than 10 billion trees under cultivation on the
coffee plantations of the world.
A. More than 10 billion people cultivated coffee in plantation around the
world.
B. May be more than 10 billion trees are cultivated on the coffee
plantations in the world.
C. More than 10 billion coffee trees in the world are planted under
supervision.
D. Cultivating more than 10 billion trees on the coffee plantation is
probably not an easy thing to do.

2. She told us to help ourselves to the apples in the basket.

A. She offered us some apples in return for our help.
B. She wanted us to help her pick the apples from the basket.
C. She let us have as many apples as we wanted.
D. She wanted us to pick the apples ourselves.

3. They arrived too late to get good seats.

A. When they arrived, the good seats had already been taken.
B. They had to stand for the whole show.
C. Although they were late, they found some good seats.
D. They got good seats some time after they arrived.

4. How long is it since they bought the house?.

A. When will they buy the house?
B. When did they buy the house?
C. How long was the house built?
D. When can they build the house?

5. Our opinions on the subject are identical.

A. There's some difference in our opinions on the subject.
B. We differ in opinions on the subject.
C. We have the same opinions on the subject.
D. We look like each other.

6. The film was so boring that I fell asleep.

A. I fell asleep because the film was very boring.
B. It was such an interesting film that I fell asleep.
C. The film was interesting enough, but I fell asleep.
D. The film was too boring for me to fall asleep.

7. The holiday wouldn't have cost so much if they hadn't gone abroad.
A. The holiday costs much because they have decided to go abroad.

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B. They went abroad for their holiday. That's why it cost so much.
C. They didn't go abroad because they couldn’t afford the holiday.
D. They would like to go abroad though the holiday costs much.

8. She started working as a secretary five years ago.

A. She will work as a secretary for five years.
B. She worked as a secretary for five years.
C. She hasn't worked as a secretary for five years.
D. She has worked as a secretary for five years.

9. I can't get my feet into these shoes.

A. These shoes are too small for my feet.
B. I don't want to put these shoes on.
C. I don't want to buy these shoes.
D. These shoes are big enough for my feet.

10. It was thought that the accident was caused by human error.
A. People think that human error causes the accident.
B. The accident was thought to be caused by human error.
C. The accident is thought to cause human error.
D. People thought that the accident is caused by human error.

B. Numbers 11 – 20 contain incorrect sentences. The incorrect part of the

sentence has been identified for you. You are required to find the
correct option to replace the underlined part.

11. Warner Brothers became knows for its tightly budgeted, technically
competent entertainment films.
A. was knowing
B. to knowing
C. known
D. had known

12. Jerrod was advised by his lawyer that he should have better told the
truth or he could go to jail for a long time.
A. he should have better told the truth or he could go
B. telling the truth should be done since he could go
C. Jerrod might ought to tell the truth for not going
D. the truth have better be told or he should go

13. The newly released 3D Disney movie was supposed to be the best of all
time and Joe’s little sister begged for taking her to see it.
A. begged for taking
B. cried and begged him to take
C. pestered him greatly for taking
D. persistently begged him to take

14. Since we didn’t know where Bobby lives, we will have to ask around for
someone to give us his address.
A. Since we didn’t know where Bobby lives
B. Therefore we don’t know where Bobby lives at
C. Because we don’t know where Bobby lives

23
D. Because where Bobby lives isn’t in our knowledge

15. The music for which we heard last night at the concert was
exceptionally good.
A. for which we heard last night at the concert
B. to which we listened at the concert last night
C. last night at the concert that we listened
D. of last night’s concert who we heard

16. The brave men at the Alamo decided to stay and fight even though they
were greatly outnumbered by Santa Ana’s Mexican forces.
A. decided to stay and fight even though
B. made a decision for staying and fighting although
C. all came to a decision for to stay and fight in the end that
D. deciding to stay and fight because

17. Multitudes of slaves in Egypt was made to bear immense stones up the
slopes of the pyramids to build them.
A. was made to bear immense stones
B. had to carry up huge stones of
C. were made to carry gigantic stones up
D. were got to lift heavy stones and carry them up

18. Jane told Marcos that in spite to him being small, he would still be a
great asset to the team because of his athletic abilities.
A. that in spite to him being small, he would still
B. in spite of his being of small stature, he possibly might
C. that despite he is small, he could yet
D. that in spite of him being small, he would definitely

19. Margaret, accompanied by her entire family, are arriving to give an

acceptance speech at the Best Writers Guild Award Ceremony.
A. Margaret, accompanied by her entire family, are arriving to give
B. Margaret’s entire family along with herself is arriving to give
C. The entire family of Margaret will arrive for giving
D. Herself, along with all the family of Margaret, will be giving

20. Can you be telling me the best route to take from here to Providence,
Rhode Island?
A. Can you be telling me the best route to take
B. Could you possibly tell me the best route to take
C. Might you of told me the goodest route to be taking
D. May you tell me the most direct route to take

C. Numbers 21 – 30, Choose the most appropriate and correct sentence.

21. A. She was always speaking about her child.

B. She likes to speak about her child.
C. She always speaks about her child.
D. She used to speak about her child.

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22. A. I have been doing this work for 3 hours, but I did only a part of
it.
B. I have been doing this work for 3 hours, but I’ve done only a part
of it.
C. I had been doing that work for 3 hours, but I have done only a
part of it.
D. I have done this work since 3 hours and I’ve done only a part of
it.

23. A. This problem hasn’t been solved yet.

B. This problem haven’t been solved yet.
C. This problem has just been solved.
D. This problem isn’t solved yet.

24. A. He saw us ran away.

B. Scarcely he had seen us than he began to run.
C. Hardly had he seen us he begin to run.
D. When he saw us he begun to run.

25. A. When was the results of the final exam sent?

B. When have the results of the final exam been sent?
C. When did the results of the final exam send?
D. When did you send the results of the final exam?

26. A. What unforgettable day it was!

B. How unforgettable was the day!
C. What an unforgettable day it is!
D. What an unforgettable day it was!

27. A. My favourite sport is swimming.

B. I like swimming.
C. Swimming is the best sport for me
D. For me swimming is the best

28. A. Neither of my friends was there when I reached the station.

B. When I reached the station nobody had been there.
C. Neither of my friends were not at the station when I reached
there.
D. When I reached the tation, no my friends was there.

29. A. The doctor doesn’t allow the patient to walk in the sun.
B. The doctor never permits the patient walking under the sun.
C. The patient isn’t permitted to walk in the daytime.
D. The doctor doesn’t permit the patient go in the sun.

30. A. He doesn’t declare why he didn’t come to school.

B. He didn’t declare why he hadn’t come to school.
C. He hadn’t declared why he didn’t come to school.
D. He hasn’t declare why he hadn’t come to school.

25
D. Numbers 31 – 36 contain jumbled sentences. One of the sentences has been
underlined. You are required to choose the next sentence which logically
follows the underlined one.

31.(1). The inherent expectations of a high short-term return on

advertising investment that is common to most traders who are
attempting to scale up operations is not conductive to a long-term
consistency in advertising direction
(2). The lack of significant players with national reach is only one of
the factors that explains the relatively low attention given to
mass marketing by the retail sector in India
(3). Mass marketing by Indian retail chains has hitherto been the
exception rather than the rule
(4). The focused brand image which leads to pithy, punchy advertising
has been difficult because most retailers have not been focused in
terms of their own vision for their retail brand. Most advertising
has tended to focus on the presence of locations or the range
(5). Advertising then tends to focus significantly on announcement of in
store promotions and events, where the payoffs in terms of
immediate increases in customer entry and average cash memo size
are more visible.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

32. (1). Yet, the fact remains that the banks allowed themselves to be
pressurized into lowering their guard in the one area of business
that is and should be their bread and butter of existence- risk
assessment.
(2). Description such as 'deceased portfolio' and figures running into
thousands of crores have all led to treating the problem as a
major one-time aberration requiring emergency treatment
(3). The causal explanations - political interference, wilful defaults,
targeted lending and even fraudulent behaviours by banks - have
some grain of truth in them
(4). The one major cause for the current weakened state of Indian banks
is the level and volume of non-performing assets.
(5). The response from the banks is to concentrate on somehow reducing
the amount and number of accounts in this category.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

33.(1). Indeed, unless they are willing to take open positions,

they will cease to be market-makers. Large overbought or
oversold positions are often deliberately built up in the hope of
profiting from price movements

26
 (2). For market-makers offering two-way quotes in the international
markets, open positions are far more common.
(3). Exchange control does not altogether prohibit Indian banks keeping
open positions during the course of a day.
(4). Thus, depending on the policy of a bank, dealers may be allowed to
take intra-day positions in order to make profit
(5). For instance, a dealer expecting the dollar to weaken during the
day might deliberately create, through customer transactions and
transaction in the inter-bank market, an oversold position in the
hope of squaring it later during a day at a profit, should his
expectation about the dollar weakening materialise.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

34.(1). Thrills, ranging from video games to burgers cover the rest
(2). This is because the returns from browsing cover only a percentage
of your costs
(3). The bigger your cafe, the more is the need for additional mean of
income
(4). Some cafes can get away with being plain vanilla
(5). These fruits will make your clients spend more time with you and
also add to your profits

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

35. (1). A difference in the frequency of usage of counter proposing

between skilled and average negotiators suggests that counter
proposing may not be, as effective one tends to think it would be
(2). I may have suggested that my son buy a pair of trousers at a
certain price whereas my son would have made a counterproposal
that he would rather buy two pairs at half price each
(3). Research conducted across several negotiators ranging from
sales negotiators to purchase and labour negotiators shows that
average negotiators tend to counter propose more often than
skilled negotiators
(4). This happens in everyday life too
(5). Think back to the last time you were discussing completing an
assignment with one of your colleagues: you may have suggested
that you both come in on Saturday to finish the work and your
colleague may have counter proposed that you could stay back on
Friday evening and finish it instead.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

27
36. (1). Even as Indians leftists think Bill Clinton is coming to
take over India, Indian companies are preparing to take over
American ones on a gargantuan scale
(2). Now Infosys and Wipro propose of Rs 54,000 crore each
(3). To put this in perspective, recall that when Chandan sold his
Parle brands to Coca-Cola amidst much swadeshi wringing of hands.
(4). he got a repoted Rs 200 crore
(5). Infosys and Wipro, our two most glamorous infotech companies, both
want automatic permission from FIPB to take over foreign companies
worth - hold your breath - $ 15 billion each

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

E. Numbers 37 – 40 contain jumbled sentences. You are required to identify

the correct order to form a good paragraph.

37. (1). This usually irritates me, but I Didn’t mind it here, and their
interactions are well-handled and informative, although
occasionally in moving them about the author’s
manipulations are a bit blatant.
(2). But even the Evil American Corporate Magnate is a pretty likable
guy.
(3). Unlike Barnes’ previous books, Mother of Storms has a fairly
large cast of viewpoint characters.
(4). They’re not all necessarily good guys, either, although with the
hurricanes wreaking wholesale destruction upon the world’s
coastal areas, ethical categories tend to become irrelevant.
(5). Especially when one character’s ex-girlfriend, who has just
undergone a sudden and not entirely credible change in
personality, is swept up by a Plot Device in Shining Armor and
transported directly across most of Mexico and a good bit of the
States to where she happens to bump into another viewpoint
character.

A. 1-3-5-4-2
B. 1-4-5-2-3
C. 5-3-4-1-2
D. 5-1-3-4-2

28
38. (1). The first Scottish bank to do this was the Bank of Scotland.
(2). When this bank was founded in 1695, Scots coinage was in short
supply and of uncertain value, compared with English, Dutch,
Flemish or French coin.
(3). To face growth of trade it was deemed necessary to remedy this
lack of an adequate currency.
(4). In most countries it is only the government, through their
central banks, who are permitted to issue currency.
(5). But in Scotland three banks are still allowed to issue banknotes.

A. 5-3-5-2-1
B. 5-4-1-3-2
C. 4-3-5-1-2
D. 4-1-5-3-2

39. (1). It is evident, therefore, that the ants of each community all
recognize one another, which is very remarkable.
(2). I have over and over again introduced ants from one my nets into
another nest of the same species; and they were invariably
attacked, seized by a leg or an antenna, and dragged out.
(3). The communities of ants are sometimes very large, numbering even
to 500,000 individuals.
(4). However, they are in hostility not only with most other insects,
including ants of different species, but even with those of the
same species if belonging to different communities.
(5). And it is a lesson to us that no one has ever yet seen quarrel
between any two ants belonging to the same community.

A. 3-2-5-4-1
B. 3-4-5-1-2
C. 5-3-4-1-2
D. 5-1-4-3-2

40. (1). They theorized that the 1.2 litres of green tea consumed by many
Asians each day, provides high levels of polyphones and other
antioxidants.
(2). Specifically, green tea may prevent the oxidation of LDL
cholesterol which in turn can reduce the build-up of plaque in
arteries, the researchers wrote.
(3). They pointed to the “Asian paradox”, lower rate of heart diseases
and cancer in Asia despite high rate of smoking.
(4). In May 2006, researchers at Yale University weighed in on green
tea’s health benefits with a review article that examined more
than 100 studies on the subjects.
(5). This compound may work in several ways to improve cardiovascular
health.

A. 2-3-5-4-1
B. 2-4-5-1-3
C. 5-3-4-1-2
D. 5-1-3-4-2

29