Revision Test End of Semester Exam 2020 - Attempt Review PDF
Revision Test End of Semester Exam 2020 - Attempt Review PDF
Revision Test End of Semester Exam 2020 - Attempt Review PDF
Dashboard / My units / BMS1062 - S2 2020 / Assessment / Revision Test - End of Semester Exam 2020
Question 1 Below is an image depicting the various level of DNA organisation. Drag the labels to the corresponding marker
Correct sites to correctly annotate the image.
Marked out of
1.00 Chromosome
Histone
Chromatin
Nuc
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b. pyrimidine deoxynucleotide
c. pyrimidine base
d. purine deoxynucleotide
Question 4 Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated?
Correct
b. Ligase
c. Primase
Question 5 Why is the lagging strand of DNA replicated in short Okazaki fragments?
Correct
b. The leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3’ end of the growing strand, and the
lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5’ end
c. The lagging strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the leading strand is synthesized in short
fragments that are ultimately stitched together
Question 7 Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of E.coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine has
Correct been added. What would happen if a cell replicates once in the presence of this radioactive base?
Marked out of
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Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Radioactive thymine would pair with radioactive guanine
d. One of the daughter cells, but not the other, would have radioactive DNA
Question 8 DNA microarrays are very useful in genomic studies because they:
Correct
Question 9 If the sequence below corresponds to the Human angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) cDNA spanning Exon
Correct 15 to 17. If this is digested with PstI (CTGCA↓G), how many fragments will have PstI sticky ends on both ends?
Marked out of
1.00
1 CTGCAGAAGA ACATGCAAAT AGCCAACCAC ACCCTGAAGT ACGGCACCCA GGCCAGGAAG
Select one:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
c. PCR utilises the separation of DNA strands at high temperature above the Tm
Y i t
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Your answer is correct.
Question 11 Which of the following statements regarding the genetic code is correct?
Correct
b. Wobble base pairing of the anticodon decreases the number of codons a tRNA can recognise
c. The 3rd base of the codon is the most critical for recognition by the tRNA anticodon
d. More than one amino acid can be coded for by a single codon
Question 12 Beginning at +1 a gene has the following coding sequence: 5'-ATGTCGCCAT-3'. Which one of the following
Correct would be the RNA produced by transcription?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. 3′-UACAGCCGUA-5′
b. 5′-AUGGCGACAU-3′
c. 5′-AUGUCGCCAU-3′
d. 3′-AUGUCGCCAU-5
Question 13 One RNA polymerase synthesizes all different types of RNA in:
Correct
b. Prokaryotes
c. Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes
d. Neither Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes
Question 14 All of these features are in most (but not necessarily all) tRNA synthetases except for one that is INCORRECT:
Correct
b. Binding surface for the ribosome Aminoacyl tRNA synthetases (aaRS) do not bind the ribosome (nor
the mRNA)
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Question 15 Which one of the following is required for RNA splicing to occur?
Correct
b. A 2´ hydroxyl group
c. A polycistronic arrangement
Question 17 A protein binds a DNA sequence several hundred base pairs upstream of a promoter. This results in an
Correct increased rate of transcription of the gene.
Marked out of
1.00 Which of the following proteins is likely binding?
Select one:
a. Operon
b. Enhancer
c. Silencer
d. Repressor
b. is essential for helicase to bind to chromatin and initiate the replication process
d. stabilises nucleosome structure through favouring interactions between the eight histone subunits
Question 19 Emma aims to follow the production of an antiviral factor in infected cells. She detects the mRNA of this factor
Correct using microarray analysis but fails to detect the protein by Western blot. This negative result may be due to:
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Targeting of the antiviral factor to the nucleus
b. Only once
Question 21 Which structure is correctly paired with its function in relation to the initiation of protein synthesis in
Correct prokaryotes?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Initiation factors– promote assembly of small and large rRNA subunits
Question 22 Deletion of a single base from the coding sequence of a gene is likely to result in any of the following outcomes
Correct except one. Which one?
Marked out of
1 00 S l
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1.00 Select one:
a. A shorter protein
Question 23 If a cell has completed the first meiotic division and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following is an
Correct appropriate description of its contents?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis
b. It has half the chromosomes but twice the DNA of the originating cell
d. It has the same number of chromosomes but each of them has different alleles than another cell from
the same meiosis
Question 24 The normal sequence of amino acids in a particular peptide is Val-Asn-Pro-Thr-Arg-Cys. The sequences
Correct produced following a number of different mutations are listed below. Which sequence is correctly matched with
Marked out of the type of mutation most likely to have caused the observed change in the peptide?
1.00
Select one:
a. Val-Val-His-Leu-Ala : Frameshift Correct!
b. Val-Asn-Ala-His-Glu-Ser : Nonsense
c. Val-Asn-Pro-Thr-Arg-Cys : Missense
d. Val-His-Pro-Thr-Arg-Cys : Silent
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Question 25 In the Holliday model, branch migration results in the formation of:
Correct
d. Gene conversion
Question 26 Which of the following is true about new genes and genome evolution:
Correct
Question 27 Concentrating on the B cell receptor, the genes that encode the receptor:
Correct
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b. Is confined to meiosis
Question 35 Trypanosomes switch expression of their variant surface glycoprotein (VSG) coat giving them a survival
Correct advantage by allowing them to:
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. to complement B cell isotype switching
Information
The following information relations to questions 36-38.
Chan and Jane want to purify plasmid pZZA for a cloning experiment. They inoculate L-broth containing
the antibiotic ampicillin with a single transformed colony of Escherichia coli. After overnight growth they
harvest the cells and isolate plasmid DNA using an alkaline lysis procedure. To confirm that they purified the
correct plasmid, Chan and Jane prepared two samples. Sample 1 was digested exhaustively with the
restriction endonuclease EcoRI. Sample 2 was not digested. The samples were subjected to analysis by
agarose gel electrophoresis using a 1% agarose gel. When electrophoresis was complete DNA bands were
visualised by illumination with UV light. A DNA standard marker was included in a separate well.
A schematic of the gel (below) shows how the gel was loaded and a representation of the results:
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b. Two circular plasmids containing the same number of base pairs move through an agarose gel at the
same rate
c. Agarose gels are better suited to separating smaller DNA fragments than polyacrylamide gels
d. Super coiled migrates faster than both linear and open-circular DNA
Question 37
What is the most likely explanation for the difference between samples 1 and 2?
Correct
Marked out of
1.00
Select one:
a. EcoRI binds to some of the plasmid DNA in sample 1 and retards its migration
b. ~3.3 kb
c. 4.3-6.6 kb
d. 6.6 kb
Information
Below are a list of enzymes involved in DNA replication.
A. Helicase
B. Ligase
C. Primase
D. Topoisomerase
Pick the option from the list above that BEST answers questions 39-42. Each option may be used to answer
once, more than once or not at all.
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Question 39 Which enzyme relieves helical winding ahead of the replication fork?
Correct
b. Ligase
c. Primase
d. Topoisomerase
b. Ligase
c. Primase
d. Topoisomerase
b. Ligase
c. Primase
d. Topoisomerase
Question 42 Which enzyme forms a phosphodiester bond joining the Okazaki fragments?
Correct
b. Ligase
c. Primase
d. Topoisomerase
Information
The following information relations to questions 43-46.
An employee working within the development team at an industrial chemical company accidently spills a
sample of an experimental compound on their skin. Following this exposure, the employee has developed some
unusual spots on their skin and seeks medical attention. The employee’s doctor investigates by analysing the
DNA of the patient’s skin cells.
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Question 43 Which of the following techniques would be most valuable to identify differences between the DNA in the
Correct patient’s normal skin cells and the damaged ones?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Fluorescent In Situ Hybridisation
d. Microarray
Question 44 A number of single base deletions were detected in the damaged cells. What type of unrepaired damage is most
Correct likely to have cause this?
Marked out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Depurination
b. Methylation
c. Deamination
d. Mismatch
b. Nonsense
c. Frameshift
d. Missense
Question 46 If these were the result of the chemical exposure, which of the following would best describe these mutations?
Correct
b. Spontaneous
c. Heritable
d. Induced
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