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www.Anatomy2Medicine.com 1370-Biochemistry Question Paper 1
1

1. Which of the following amino acids is purely 10. One of the most frequently mutated gene in human
ketogenic? cancers is –
A. Phenylalanin a) p21 gene
B. Leucine b) P27 gene
C. Proline c) P53 gene
D. Tyrosine d) Gene for Rb protein
2. The normal daily excretion of uric acid ranges from
A. 10-30 mg 11. Lipid–soluble signal molecules, such as
B. 50-70 mg testosterone, cross the membranes of all cells but
C. 100-300 mg affect only target cells because
D. 500-700 mg A. Only target cells retain the appropriate DNA segments.
B. Intracellular receptors are present only in target cells.
3. Mental retardation is NOT a feature of the one of C. Most cells lack the Y chromosome required.
the mucopolysaccharidosis D. Only target cells possess the cytosolic enzymes that
A. Hurler MPS-I transduce the testosterone.
B. Huner MPS-II
C. Sanfillipo MPS-III 12. Phosphorylation cascades involving a series of
D. Morquio MPS-IV protein kinases are useful for cellular signal
4. Mutation that results in premature termination of transduction because
incorporation of amino acid into a peptide chain is A. They are species specific.
A. Nonsense mutation. B. They always lead to the same cellular response.
B. Transversion. C. They amplify the original signal manyfold.
C. Silent mutation. D. They counter the harmful effects of phosphatase
D. Frameshift mutation.
13. Which of the following reactions is unique to
5. The following chemical mediator is a product of
gluconeogenesis?
arachidonic acid metabolism by cyclo oxygenase
A. Lactate Pyruvate
pathway
B. Phosphoenol pyruvate
A. LxA4
C. Oxaloacetate phosphoenol pyruvate
B. LxB4
D. Glucose-6-phosphate Fructose-6-phosphate
C. 5 HETA
D. PGH2 14. The synthesis of glucose from pyruvate by
gluconeogenesis
6. Which is untrue for cholesterol synthesis? A. Requires the participation of biotin
A. Mevalonate inhibits HMG CoA reductase B. Occurs exclusively in the cytosol
B. Statins inhibit HMG CoA reductase C. Is inhibited by elevated level of insulin
C. Insulin increases HMG CoA reductase activity D. Requires oxidation/reduction of FAD
D. Thyroid homones decrease HMG CoA reductase activity 15. The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl coA and CO2
A. Is reversible
7. Gyrate atrophy of retina is related to abnormal B. Involves the participation of lipoic acid
metabolism of – C. Depends on the coenzyme biotin
A. Arginine and ornithine D. Occurs in the cytosol
B. Proline and hydroxy praline
C. Lysine 16. Parents with normal pigmentation bring their
D. Histidine newborn daughter to you for consultation about
diagnosis and management. Their first two
8. Xanthine is chemically – children,a boy and a girl, have a complete form of
a) 6 – Oxopurine albinism with pink irides, blond hair, and pale skin.
b) 2,6 Dioxopurine Which of the following representsthe best advice
c) 2,6,8 – Trixypurine concerning the newborn child?
d) 1 – Oxopurine a. A one-eighth risk for albinism and skin cancer from
DNA deletions
9. Which cyclin is responsible for transit from O2 phase b. A one-eighth risk for albinism and skin cancer from
M phase in cell DNA cross-linkage
a) Cyclin – D c. A one-fourth risk for albinism and skin cancer from
b) Cycline – C DNA point mutations
c) Cyclin – B d. A one-fourth risk for albinism and skin cancer from
d) Cyclin – A DNA cross-linkage
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www.Anatomy2Medicine.com 1370-Biochemistry Question Paper 2
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17. Sickle cell anemia is caused by a point mutation in A. Thiamme pyrophosphate


thehemoglobin gene, resulting in the substitution B. Pyridoxal phosphate
of a single amino acid in the Beta-globin peptides C. Lipoic acid
of hemoglobin. This mutation is best detected by D. Retmoic acid
which of the following?
a. Isolation of DNA from red blood cells followed by 23. An infant who fails to gain weight has no
polymerase chain reaction(PCR) amplification and enteropeptidase activity on the surface of her
restriction enzyme digestion duodenal epithelium. Formation of which of the
b. Isolation of DNA from blood leukocytes followed by following substance is most likely impaired by this
Southern blot analysis to detect globin gene exon sizes patient’s condition?
c. Isolation of DNA from blood leukocytes followed by DNA A. Lipase
sequencing of globin gene introns B. Pepsin
d. Isolation of DNA from blood leukocytes followed by C. Amylase
polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplification and D. Trypsin
allele-specific oligonucleotide (ASO) hybridization
24. The12-year-old son of a circus contortionist says
18. Which of the following amino acids is aromatic (ring that his skin scars and bruises easily. Physical
compound), and in a pathway leading to examination reveals distensible skin and
neurotransmitters and melanin? hypermobile joints. You suspect an inherited defect
a. Arginine in which of the following molecules?
b. Cystine A. Fibrillin
c. Glutamine B. Laminin
d. Tyrosine C. Fibronectin
D. Collagen
19. Which of the following is the likely correlation
between LDH measures and the likelihood of 25. A 34-year-old man who died of internal
myocardial infarction? hemorrhage inherited a defect of an elastin-
a. LDH is an enzyme specific to the endocardium associated glycoprotein that is abundant in the
b. LDH is mainly localized in liver, and its elevation in zonular fibers of the lens, periosteum, and the
cardiac disease occurs because of heart failure aortic media. The patient most likely suffered from
c. LDH isozymes are composed of different subunit A. Osteopetrosis
combinations, some specific for heart and released B. Ankylosing spondylitis
with myocardial damage C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
d. LDH isozymes are composed of different subunit D. Marfan’s syndrome
combinations, some specific for vascular endothelium
and released with infarction 26. Thiamine deficiency can be diagnosed early by
measuring which of the following’?
20. Diarrhea from infection or malnutrition is the A. Erythrocyte transketolase activity
world’s most prevalent killer of children. A child B. Erythrocyte glutathione reductase activity
develops chronic diarrhea and liver inflammation C. Erythrocyte glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
in early infancy when the mother begins using activity
formula that includes cornsyrup. Evaluation of the D. Serum NAD level
child demonstrates sensitivity to fructose in the 27. A 35-year-old female is hospitalized with
diet. Which of the following glycosides contains headaches and vomiting. She has a long history of
fructose and therefore should be avoided when psychiatric illness and is known to practice
feeding or treating this infant? eccentric dietary habits. Physical findings include
a. Sucrose papilledema, dry skin and hepatosplenomegaly
b. Oaubain Head CTscan is ordered immediately but is negative
c. Lactose for intracranial mass Which of the following is a
d. Maltose likely cause of this patient’s condition?
A. Niacin deficiency
21. Which of the following ammo acids is most avidly B. Vitamin C overuse
consumed by the fibroblasts? C. Vitamin E overuse
A. Lysine D. Vitamin A overuse
B. Proline
28. A 56-year-old homeless man presents to ER with
C. Alanine
increased fatigability and exertional dyspnea.
D. Glycine
Physical examination shows significant lower
extremity edema and decreased sensation over
22. A 6-year-old male who lives in an old house suffers
the ankles and feet. Further evaluation reveals
from irritability, constipation and anemia. His high
cardiac dilation and increased cardiac output.
blood level of -ammolevulmic acid is maintained
Which of the following nutrient deficiency is most
secondary to the presence of which of the
likely responsible for this patient’s symptoms?
following cofactors?

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www.Anatomy2Medicine.com 1370-Biochemistry Question Paper 3
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A. Vitamin A A. UAA g UAG


B. Vitamin B 1 B. UUU g UUA
C. Vitamin B2 C. CUU g AUU
D. Vitamin B12 D. UCA g UGA
29. Cultured fibroblasts taken from an infant suffering
from hypotonia and seizures show an impaired 35. Hemoglobin S would most likely aggregate upon :
ability to oxidize very long chain fatty acids (VLCFA) A. β-chain folding
and phytanic acid The defect is most likely localized B. Interaction with HbF
to C. Proton release
A. Mitochondria D. Oxygen unloading
B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Lysosomes 36. Amyl nitrite affects the affinity of hemoglobin for
D. Peroxisomes which of the following’?
A. Carbon dioxide
30. In a human genome project, scientist notices that B. 2,3-biphosphoglycerate
one strand of the DNA molecule contains 20 C. Carbon monoxide
thymine (T), 25 cytosine (C), 30 guanine (G) and D. Cyanide
22 adenine (A) residues. How many of each of the
bases are found in the complete double-stranded 37. A 23-year-old male undergoes retroperitoneal
molecule ? high-dose irradiation for metastatic testicular
A. T = 44, C = 60, G = 50, A = 40 cancer. Several weeks later, the retroperitoneal
B. T = 22, C = 30, G = 25, A = 20 nodes are observed to markedly decrease in size.
C. T = 40, C = 50, G = 60, A = 44 Which of the following best explains the effect of
D. T = 42, C = 55, G = 55, A = 42 the treatment in this patient?
A. DNA cross-linking
31. A premature infant is born to 35-year-old female B. Nucleotide mismatches
He has respiratory difficulties and is placed on C. Double-strand DNA breaks
mechanical ventilation Glutamine residues of some D. Pyrimidine dimers
proteins newly synthesized in this infant’s liver fail
to be carboxylated Which of the following nutrient 38. Some transmembrane receptors employ Janus
deficiency is most likely responsible for this finding? kinase (JAK) to stimulate enzymes in the
A. Vitamin B1 cytoplasm. Which of the following substances is
B. Vitamin B2 most likely to utilize this pathway?
C. Pyridoxine A. Insulin
D. Vitamin K B. Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
C. Growth hormone
32. A sample of liver parenchyma is homogenized and D. Atrial natriuretic peptide
centrifuged to remove membrane components and
organelles leaving only the cytosol and the proteins 39. A 3-year-old male suffers from recurrent
it contains. Which of the following enzyme respiratory infections It is determined that he has
activities is most likely present in the homogenate? a mutation in an intron of a gene coding for a
A. Pyruvate carboxylase transmembrane chloride channel. The mRNA is
B. Omithine transcarbamoylase isolated from cultured fibroblasts and cDNA is
C. Transketolase synthesized and amplified. The results are
D. Succinate dehydrogenase compared to the product obtained from a healthy
sibling and are shown below. Which of the following
33. An infant who is apparently healthy at birth is is most likely responsible for this patient’s
diagnosed with aldolase B deficiency two weeks condition?
later. Which of the following should be removed A. Trinucleotide expansion
from this patient’s diet? B. Frameshift mutation
A. Lactose C. Missense mutation
B. Sucrose D. Silent mutation
C. Maltose
D. Amylose 40. Elastin fibers in the alveolar walls of the lungs can
be stretched easily during inspiration and recoil
34. A 6-year-old male with hemolytic anemia is found to their original shape once the force is released.
to have an abnormality due to an inactive This process facilitates expiration The property
erythrocyte enzyme. The defective enzyme described can be best explained by
contains 156 ammo acid residues instead of the A. Heavy posttranslational hydroxylation
normal 190 residues. A point mutation in exon 2 of B. High content of polar ammo acids
the enzyme gene is identified as the cause for this C. Interchain crosslinks involving lysine
patient’s disease. Which of the following mRNA D. Abundant interchain disulfide bridges
code changes is most likely in this case?

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www.Anatomy2Medicine.com 1370-Biochemistry Question Paper 4
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41. An infant born appears healthy at birth but A. Muscle Glycogen to Glucose 1 Phosphate
develops transfusion-dependent hemolytic anemia B. Glucose 1 Phosphate to Glucose 6 Phosphate
by the age of 6 months. His erythrocytes contain C. Glucose 6 Phosphate to Glucose
insoluble aggregates of hemoglobin subunits. The D. Glucose 6 Phosphate to Fructose 6 Phosphate
child developed normally in utero because at that
time he produced high quantities of 47. An agent that specifically blocks the interaction
A. α-globin of inositol triphosphate with its intracellular
B. β-globin receptor would most likely decrease the activity
C. γ-globin of
D. δ-globin A. Phospholipase C
42. A 22-year-old male develops recurrent skin B. Lipoxygenase
blistering and prefers to work as nocturnist. C. Protein kinase C
Laboratory evaluation shows elevated total D. Phosphodiesterase
plasma porphyrins. Which of the following enzymes
is most likely deficient in this patient? 48. A 17-year-old female is being evaluated for short
A. ð -Aminolevulinate synthase stature and primary amenorrhea Chromosomes in
B. ð -Aminolevulinate dehydrase her epithelial cells contain regions with heavily
C. HMB synthase methylated DNA. The latter finding is most likely
D. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase associated with
A. Histone acetylation
43. The DNA replication process in eukaryotic cells B. Low transcription activity
closely mimics that in prokaryotic cells, but the C. Impaired mismatch repair
volume of genetic material to be replicated is D. DNA supercoil accumulation
typically much greater in eukaryotic cells Which
of the following ensures fast DNA replication in 49. A 71-year-old male hospitalized with severe
eukaryotic cells’? abdominal pain and hypotension begins to
A. Energy-independent DNA unwinding hyperventilate. Laboratory testing reveals
B. Multiple origins of replication metabolic acidosis, an increased anion gap and a
C. No RNA primers synthesized during replication high plasma lactate level. This patient’s findings
D. No proofreading by DNA polymerase (pol ð) are best explained by a low activity of:
A. Pyruvate kinase
44. A group of investigators studies the mechanism B. Lactate dehydrogenase
of catecholamine synthesis regulation In animal C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
experiments, hypophysectomy induced a decrease D. Pyruvate carboxylase
in epinephrine secretion by the adrenals.
Decreased activity of which of the following 50. An infant who is apparently healthy at birth is
enzymes is most likely responsible for the effect diagnosed with aldolase B deficiency two weeks
observed? later. Which of the following should be removed
A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase from this patient’s diet?
B. Tyrosine hydroxylase A. Lactose
C. Dopa decarboxylase B. Sucrose
D. Phenylethanolamin-N-methyltransferase C. Maltose
D. Amylose
45. Ce lls obtain ed from a 73-year-old male
demonstrate a high activity of an enzyme that has 51. A patient is found to have a rare hemoglobin
reverse transcriptase activity. It adds TTAGGG abnormality that decreases P 50 for hemoglobin
repeats to the 3'-ends of chromosomes. Which of from 26 mmHg. This patient is most likely to develop
the following cells were most likely obtained from which of the following’?
the patient? A. Hypoxia-induced hemolysis
A. Epidermal basal cells B. Oxidant-induced hemolysis
B. Pancreatic islet p-cells C. Increased osmotic susceptibility of RBC
C. Neurons D. Polycythemia
D. Erythrocytes 52. A 34-year-old male who is accidentally exposed
46. A 12-year-old male presents complaining of poor to nitrites at work presents with anxiety,
exercise tolerance. He describes muscle cramps weakness, dyspnea, and headaches. Physical
on physical activity, especially after intense examination reveals cyanosis that is not corrected
straining. He also describes urine discoloration that by oxygen supplementation. Which of the following
happens after strenuous activities. Further testing is most likely to be normal in this patient?
reveals that exercise tolerance can be greatly A. Oxygen content of the arterial blood
improved in this patient if glucose solution is B. Oxygen carrying capacity of the arterial blood
infused during exercise. Which of the following C. Partial pressure of oxygen in the arterial blood
substrate flow pathways is most likely deficient in D. Bound fraction of oxygen in the arterial blood
this patient?

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www.Anatomy2Medicine.com 1370-Biochemistry Question Paper 5
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53. Which of the following sites is responsible for 60. It has been determined in healthy volunteers that
amino acid binding in tRNA? the chloride content of erythrocytes is much lower
A. 3'-end of tRNA in arterial blood than in venous blood. The action
B. 5' end of tRNA of which of the following is mostly responsible for
C. TψC arm the observed difference?
D. D Loop A. Spectrin
B. Na/K ATPase
54. Pantothenic acid is necessary for which of the C. Carbonic anhydrase
following conversions in metabolism? D. 2,3-biphosphoglycerate mutase
A. Glucose to pyruvate
B. Glucose to ribose-5-phosphate 61. The four pyrole rings in Hemoglobin molecule are
C. Alanine to glucose joined together by?
D. Oxaloacetate to citrate A. Disulphide bridges
B. Methylene bridges
55. A sample of liver parenchyma is homogenized and C. Hydrogen bonds
centrifuged to remove membrane components and D. Alpha bonds
organelles leaving only the cytosol and the proteins
it contains. Which of the following enzyme 62. Menkes Kinky hair syndrome is characterized by
activities is most likely present in the homogenate. congenital deficiency of
A. Pyruvate carboxylase A. Serum ceruloplasmin
B. Omithine transcarbamoylase B. Serum copper
C. Transketolase C. Ferochelatase
D. 3-Hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA lyase D. Copper bindings ATPase

56. Which of the following is true about thyroid 63. Maximum pH regulation is seen with?
hormones’? A. Histidine
A. They act by activation of tyrosine kinase B. Tryptophan
B. They act primarily by activation of adenylyl cyclase C. Proline
C. They have a nuclear receptor D. Glycine
D. They act by increasing the activity of phospholipase
64. Zinc is cofactor for the following except?
57.Which of the following is the most likely cause of A. Carboxy peptidase
HbC that moves more slowly than both HbA and B. Alkaline phosphatase
HbS on hemoglobin gel electrophoresis. ? C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
A. Trinucleotide expansion D. Carbonic anhydrase
B. Nonsense mutation
C. Frameshift mutation 65. Hydroxylation of proline of collagen fibers is helped
D. Missense mutation by
A. Nicotinamide
58. The rate of glycogen degradation in skeletal B. Ascorbic acid
muscles increases several hundred-fold after the C. Cholecalciferol
onset of contraction compared to the resting D. Pyridoxine
state. This finding reflects enzyme activation by
66. Which of the following has fastest electrophoretic
which of the following substances’?
mobility and highest triglyceride content?
A. ADP
A. Chylomicrons
B. cAMP
B. LDL
C. Ca2+
C. IDL
D. Lactate
D. HDL
59. A 12-year-old male is evaluated for ataxia 67. Vitamin deficiency associated with increase
accompanied by episodic erythematous and xanthurenic acid excretion in urine?
pruritic skin lesions and loose stools. Laboratory A. Thiamine
evaluation reveals loss of neutral aromatic ammo B. Pyridoxine
acids in the urine. This patient’s symptoms would C. Ascorobic acid
most likely respond to which of the following D. Niacin
supplements’? 68. Mechanism by which pyruvate from cytosol is
A. Thiamine transported to mitochondria is
B. Riboflavin A. Chloride antiport
C. Pyridoxine B. Proton symport
D. Niacin C. ATP dependent antiport
D. Facilitated uniport

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www.Anatomy2Medicine.com 1370-Biochemistry Question Paper 6
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69. Which of the following prevents premature A. Lead


reannealing of dsDNA during DNA synthesis ? B. Alkaline phosphatase
A. Topoisomerase I C. L D H
B. DNA primase D. Uric acid
C. Helicase 79. To raise glucose levels, glucocorticoids activate
D. Single-strand binding proteins the enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase,
70. Biliverdin to bilirubin is converted by which which produces whic h of the f ollow ing
enzyme? intermediates?
A. Reductase A. Acetyl-CoA
B. Oxidase B. Malate
C. Dehydrogenase C. Oxaloacetate
D. Oxygenase D. Phosphoenolpyruvate
80. A patient presents to the clinic with a glycogen
71. The function of a gene is determined by storage disease that is characterized by muscle
A. Southern blot pain and cramps after periods of intense exercise.
B. Western blot Urinalysis indicates myoglobinuria.
C. Inserting in trangenic mice What is the function of the deficient enzyme?
D. Inserting as a knock out gene A. Converting glucose-1 phosphate to glucose-6 phosphate
72. In immune complex formation structure of protein B. Inhibiting glucose-6 phosphate production
involved is C. Shortening the glycogen chains
A. Primary D. Removing the branches in glycogen chains
B. Secondary 81. Glycolysis in erythrocytes in aerobic conditions,
C. Tertiary the terminate product is lactate. The erythrocyte
D. Quaternary lack
A. Mitochondria
73. Amylin is secreted by: B. Nucleus
A. Alpha cells C. Lysosomes
B. Beta cells D. Golgi apparatus
C. Gamma cells 82. Long chain fatty acids penetrates in the inner
D. Delta cells mitochondrial membrane through
A. Free fatty acids
74. All except occurs on Decrease in liver glucose level B. Carnitine derivatives
A. Inhibition of PFK2 C. Thiokinase
B. Activation of Fructose 2,6bisphosphatase D. Malonyl CoA
C. increase in glucagon
D. increase in Fructose 2,6bis phosphate 83. Urea is end product of
A. Aminoacid-nitrogen metabolism
75. Mitochondria is involved in all except B. HMP. Pathway
A. Fatty acid synthesis C. Fatty acid- oxidation
B. RNA D. Glycogenolysis
C. DNA 84. 1-25 dihydrocholecalciferol is secreted by
D. Protein synthesis A. Liver
B. Kidney
76. Cells with GLUT-4 receptors that increase their C. Intestine
glucose uptake in response to insulin are present D. Bone
in ? 85. Bile
A. Brain A. Bile salts are more amphipathic than bile acids
B. Skeletal muscle B. Lithocolic acid is a primary bile acids
C. Intestine C. Bile salts increases the surface tension
D. Kidney D. The ratio of glycine to taurine forms in bile is
approximately 1: 1
77. Which process occurs only in neck of the mature
sperm? 86. Carotenes are converted into vitamin A in the
A. Fatty acid synthesis A. Liver
B. Glycolysis B. Skin
C. Kreb’s cycle C. Small intestine
D. Steroid synthesis D. Large intestine
87. Lipoprotein X is most likely to be seen with in
78. 10 year old child presents with history of rashes A. Cholestasis
self mutilation family history positive Which of the B. Gilbert syndrome
following investigations do you think may be C. Increased intake of trans fatty acids
suggestive of valuable for diagnosis D. Increased intake of PUFA

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88. Trans fatty acids are known to form during 98. DNA double helix is maintained by:
A. Hydrogenation of oils a) Hydrogen bond
B. Beta oxidation of palmitate b) Vanderwaal forces
C. Rancidity of fats c) Disulfide linkage
D. Prostalandin biosynthesis d) Covalentbond
89. Which one of the following reactions has FM (flavin 99. Anticoagulant added to blood for estimation of
mononucleotide) as coenzyme? prothrombin time is:
A. Aminoacid oxidation reaction a) Heparin
B. Conversion of xanthine to uric acid b) Oxalate
C. Conversion of succinate to fumarate c) Sodium citrate
D. Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA d) EDTA

90. All of the following are sulfur containing amino 100.Which of the following is the radiosensitive stage
acids EXCEPT of cell cycle:
A. Threonine a) GO
B. Cystine b) Gl
C. Methionine c) G2
D. Cysteine d) S
101. Chitin is a:
91. Reducing agent used in Hpogenesis is derived from a) Polypeptide
a) Pentose phosphate pathway b) Fatty ester
b) Glycolysis c) Polysacchride
c) TCA cycle d) None
d) Gluconeogenesis 102.Watson’s DNA model is :
a) Right handed, parallel
92. Prostaglandins are derived from : b) Left handed, anti parallel
A. Corticosteroids c) Left handed, parallel
B. Oleic acid d) Right handed, anti parallel
C. Linoleic acid
D. Arachidonic acid 103. Northern blotting technique is used for the
separation of:
93. Ketone bodies are synthesised in: a) DNA
A. Muscle b) Protein
B. Liver c) RNA
C. Kidney d) Protein DNA interaction
D. Brain
104. Which is seen in RNA but not seen in DNA:
94. Free fatty acids are transported by : a) Adenosine
a) Ceruloplasmin b) Guanine
b) Pre-albumin c) Uracil
c) Albumin d) Thymine
d) Transthyretin
105. DNA has:
95. Building block for fatty acid biosynthesis is: A. Ribose sugar
A. NADH B. Deoxyribose sugar
B. Acetyl-CoA C. Both
C. Acyl-CoA D. None
D. Acetate
106. Type of collagen found in cartilage:
96. In DNA structure, maximum number of bonds are A. Type I
seen amongst which of the following pair: B. Type II
a) A-T C. Type III
b) G-C D. Type IV
c) A-G
d) C-T 107. The L or D form of a sugar is determined by its
relation to:
97. New DNA material is synthesized in which phase: A. Fructose
a) Prophase B. Glycogen
b) Metaphase C. Glyceraldehyde
c) Telophase D. Glucose
d) Interphase

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108. Western blotting is done for identifying: 116. Allopurinol works through which one of the
A. Protein following mechanisms?
B. Lipids (A) Suicide inhibition
C. RNA (B) Noncompetitive inhibition
D. DNA (C) Allosteric interaction with the enzyme that increases
109. Sodium fluoride is added to blood, as it inhibit: Vmax
A. Hexokinase (D) Feedback inhibition
B. Glucokinase
C. Glucose-6-phosphatase 117. What type of inhibition is being displayed by
D. Enolase organophosphate poisoning ?
(A) Competitive
110. Which of the following statement if false (B) Noncompetitive
regarding mitochondria:
(C) Irreversible
A. Guanine rich strand is referred to as ‘the heavy strand
(D) Allosteric
B. Each DNA molecule consists of 15,000-17,000 KIM.-
pairs
118. Which of the following substances can directly
C. Single stranded straight DNA reactivate acetylcholinesterase after exposure to
D. Transmitted by maternal nonmendelian inheritance
a toxin?
111. What is true about the nature of the molecular (A) Pralidoxime chloride
mutation of Huntington disease? (B) Atropine
(A) A point mutation in a single gene (C) Scopolamine
(B) A nucleotide deletion in a single gene (D) Ipratropium
(C) A triplet repeat expansion within a gene
(D) A frameshift mutation within a gene, creating a 119. which one of the following statements is true
truncated protein concerning physostigmine?
112. A 2-week-old infant is febrile and jaundiced and (A) Use of the drug will decrease the Km of the targeted
has extensive, reddened skin. Labs have shown enzyme.
sig nificant neutrop enia and (B) Physostigmine can easily cross the bloodbrain barrier..
hypergammaglobulinemia. What is the most likely (C) Physostigmine will increase the Vmax of the targeted
diagnosis? enzyme.
(A) DiGeorge syndrome (D) Physostigmine will decrease the Vmax of the targeted
(B) Severe combined immunodeficiency disease enzyme.
(C) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
(D) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome 120. Acetazolamide is a inhibitor of carbonic
anhydrase and, therefore, will lead to which of the
113. What is true of the oxygen saturation curve following concerning the kinetic constants of
during carbon monoxide toxicity? carbonic anhydrase?
(A) The oxygen saturation curve is shifted to the left. (A) An increase in the apparent Km
(B) The oxygen saturation curve is shifted to the right. (B) A decrease in the apparent Km
(C) The effect of carbon monoxide on hemoglobin is similar (C) An increase in Vmax
to that of ha vi ng i ncr ea se d lev el s of 2,3 (D) A decrease in Vmax
bisphosphoglycerate. 121. Which one of the following statements best
(D) The effect of carbon monoxide on hemoglobin is similar describes the relationship between an enzyme,
to that of a low pH state. substrate, and product?
(A) Enzyme–product complexes enhance substrate binding.
114. Although several different proteins are (B) All the active sites of the enzyme are saturated with
precursors to amyloid deposition, all amyloid fibrils substrate at high substrate concentrations.
share an identical secondary structure that is which (C) At high substrate concentrations, substrate–substrate
of the following? interactions interfere with enzyme activity.
(A) a-Helix (D) At low substrate concentrations, none of the enzyme
(B) beta-Pleated sheet is found in the ES complex.
(C) Triple helix
(D) Helix-turn-helix 122. A 42-year-old man gets bloated and has episodes
of diarrhea after eating his favorite ice cream. It
115. Which class of intracellular proteins will not be also occurs when he consumes yogurt, cheese, and
specifically degraded as a result of taking other milk-containing products. The patient lacks
Bortezomib? the ability to cleave which one of the following
(A) Proteins with PEST sequences glycosidic bonds?
(B) Amyloid proteins (A) Glucose-a(1,4) glucose
(C) Polyubiquitinated proteins (B) Glucose-a(1,2) fructose
(D) Immunoglobulin light chains (C) Galactose-b(1,4) glucose
(D) Glucose-a(1,6) glucose

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123. Which statement is true concerning the intestinal 131. Why is hydrochloric acid secretion within the
brush border membrane? stomach important in digestion?
(A) Amylase is only found in the brush border. (A) It stimulates the cleavage of trypsinogen to trypsin.
(B) Disaccharides cross the brush border. (B) It is required for the activity ofa-amylase.
(C) Insulin is required for the uptake of glucose. (C) It drives secondary active transport of amino acids.
(D ) Fructos e re qui re s a sod iu m-ind ep endent (D) It converts pepsinogen to pepsin.
monosaccharide transporter.
132. Which one of the following correctly describes
124. A 28-year-old woman from New Delhi presents an action of Arsenic as a toxin?
with a chief complaint of ‘‘difficulty eating dairy (A) It inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase.
products.’’ The patient states that she develops (B) It activates pyruvate dehydrogenase.
bloating, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and excessive (C) It reduces the concentration of pyruvate.
flatulence. Which one of the following statements (D) It increases glutathione production.
is true about this patient’s condition?
(A) She lacks beta 1,4 endoglucosidase activity. 133. which one of the tissues indicated below will be
(B) She cannot obtain galactose and glucose from a most affected if there is problem at the level of
disaccharide. the glucose transporter, GLUT-4, ?
(C) She has an inability to emulsify dietary lipids. (A) RBCs
(D) She is exhibiting an autosomal dominant condition. (B) Small intestine
(C) Muscle
125. What type of transport mechanism does glucose (D) Brain
utilize for gastrointestinal absorption?
(A) Passive 134. In which one of the following scenarios would
(B) Facilitated one expect to observe an increase in liver fructose
(C) Active and facilitated 2,6-bisphosphate levels?
(D) Passive and facilitated (A) After the release of epinephrine
(B) In a patient with kwashiorkor
126. Carbohydrate digestion is initiated in the mouth (C) In a patient exhibiting diabetic ketoacidosis
through the action of ? (D) After the consumption of a large bowl of AAloo Biryani
(A) Amylase followed by Vanilla icecream
(B) Sucrase
(C) Lactase 135. Which of the following proteins enables the
(D) Maltase Glucose taken up by cell to remain in the cell?
(A) PFK-1
127. orlistat, will directly inhibit which one of the (B) GLUT-4
following steps in fat digestion? (C) GLUT-1
(A) Bile salt formation (D) Hexokinase
(B) Micelle formation
(C) Pancreatic and gastric lipase 136. Which of the following is a significant
(D) Absorption of free fatty acids characteristic of glucokinase?
(A) The Km is above the fasting concentration of glucose
128. all of the following are consequences of complete in the blood
pancreatectomy except for which one? (B) It is expressed in many tissues
(A) Failure to convert pepsinogen into pepsin (C) Its activity is stimulated in response to fructose 2,6-
(B) Diabetes bisphosphate
(C) Increased likelihood of duodenal ulcer formation (D) Its activity is inhibited by glucose 6-phosphate
(D ) De creas ed s ynt he si s of tr yp sin og en and
chymotrypsinogen 137. Which one of the following statements is correct
concerning the formation of muscle lactate during
129. Which of the following glycosidic bonds prevents exercise?
humans from completely digesting fiber? (A) Lactate formation occurs when the NADH/ NAD+ ratio
(A) Glucose alpha (1,4) glucose is high.
(B) Glucose alpha (1,6) glucose (B) The liver preferentially converts lactate into carbon
(C) Glucose beta (1,4) glucose dioxide and water.
(E) Galactose beta (1, 4) glucose (C) The heart preferentially converts lactate into glucose.
(D) Lactate formation is less likely to be found in the eye,
130. enterokinase.normally activates which zymogen? testes, and RBCs than in other tissues.
(A) Procolipase
(B) Procarboxypeptidase 138. By avoiding anaerobic muscle glycolysis, the
(C) Trypsinogen pyruvate produced in the muscle does not
(D) Chymotrypsinogen accumulate because it is converted to which one
of the following?

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(A) Ethanol 146. arsenic inhibits which one of the following


(B) Lactic acid enzymes?
(C) Acetyl CoA (A) Citrate synthase
(D) Alanine (B) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
139. Of the allosteric activators of glycolysis in the (D) Malate dehydrogenase
liver, which one of the following is the most
important in allowing the liver to maintain a normal 147. Which one of the following cofactors is
blood glucose level? notrequired by pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
(A) Citrate to convert pyruvate to acetyl CoA?
(B) ATP (A) Ascorbic acid
(C) Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate (B) Lipoic acid
(D) Glucose 6-phosphate (C) Pantothenate
(D) Niacin
140. A deficiency of which of the following enzymes
most likely lead to hemolytic anemia? 148. the only membrane-bound enzyme of the Krebs
(A) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase cycle is ?
(B) PFK-1 a) isocitrate dehydrogenase
(C) Pyruvate kinase b) Alpha ketoglutate dehydrogenase
(D) Pyruvate dehydrogenase c) Aconitase
d) Succinate dehydrogenase
141. Which one of the following statements is true
regarding glucagon? 149. In pyruvate carboxylase deficiency.,which one
(A) It is synthesized in the liver. of the following metabolites is tnot produced
(B) It inhibits gluconeogenesis. effectively?
(C) It is secreted in the presence of somatostatin. (A) Pyruvate
(D) It inhibits pyruvate formation and is also used in the (B) Alanine
treatment of b-blocker overdose. (C) Acetyl CoA
(D) Oxaloacetate
142. The basis for the elevated lac tate in
rhabdomyolysis in athlete who has spent the whole 150. If a cell were to contain 100% nonfunctional
day training is which one of the following? mitochondria, what would be the net ATP yield that
(A) An increase in ATP due to the lack of oxygen for the would be produced from 1 mole of glucose?
muscle (A) 1 mole
(B) An increase in NADH due to the lack of oxygen for the (B) 2 moles
muscle (C) 4 moles
(C) A defect in the M form of lactate dehydrogenase (D) 8 moles
(D) A defect in the H form of lactate dehydrogenase
151. Which of the following inhibits electron transfer
143. Which one of the following products will be made from complex I to coenzyme Q?
in abnormal amounts in Pyruvate kinase deficiency (A) Rotenone
? (B) Carbon monoxide
(A) Acetyl CoA (C) Dinitrophenol
(B) Glucose (D) Cyanide
(C) 2,3-Bisphosphoglycerate
(D) OAA 152. Which of the following is uncoupler of oxidative
phosphorylation?
144. On examination of muscle cells, in the initial phases (A) Rotenone
of triose phosphate isomerase deficiency, it was (B) Carbon monoxide
found there was an elevated amount of which one (C) Dinitrophenol
of the following? (D) Cyanide
(A) 6-Carbon glycolytic products
(B) Many 3-carbon glycolytic products 153. Which of the following part of electron transport
(C) A component of the glycerol phosphate shuttle chain is inhibited by the carbon monoxide ?
(D) A component of the malate-aspartate shuttle (A) Complex I of the ETC
(B) Cytochrome oxidase
145. The Krebs cycle does not directly produce ? (C) The ATP-ADP antiporter
(A) ATP (D) The F0component of the F0-F1 ATPase
(B) GTP
(C) NADH 154. If there is defect due to a mutation in complex II
(D) FADH2 of the ETC, electron transfer from which substrate
would be impaired?

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(A) Malate (A) Glycogen phosphorylase


(B) a-Ketoglutarate (B) Glycogenin
(C) Isocitrate (c) Amylo-1,6-glucosidase (alpha-glucosidase)
(D) Succinate (d) Amylo-4,6-transferase (4:6 transferase)
155. normal rates of succinate oxidation but very poor 162. What would the energy difference be between
rates of pyruvate oxidation occur if a patient has using glucose from a dietary source versus relying
a mutation in a mitochondrial gene encoding a solely on glucose from glycogen stores as fuel ?
subunit of which of the following? (A) Dietary would give 1 more mole of ATP/glucose
(A) Complex I (B) Dietary would give 2 more moles of ATP/glucose
(B) Complex II (C) Dietary would give the same ATP/glucose
(C) Complex III (D) Dietary would give 1 less mole of ATP/glucose
(D) Complex IV 163. Dantrolene is a muscle relaxant that acts
specifically on skeletal muscleby interfering with
156. patients with the familial form of Amyotropic the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic
Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) have a defect in the reticulum. Which of the following enzymes would
enzyme that normally catalyzes which of the be affected by this action?
following reactions? (A) Phosphoglucomutase
(A) The conversion of peroxide to water and oxygen (B) Glucokinase
(B) The conversion of superoxide to hydrogen peroxide (C) Glycogen synthase
and water (D) Glycogen phosphorylase kinase
(C) The conversion of carbon tetrachloride to the CCL4
radical 164. All the following forms of insulin are slow-acting,
(D ) T he re gener a tio n o f oxi diz ed hem oglobin but long-lived in the circulation, with peak levels
(methemoglobin) occurring 12 to 16 hours after administration ,
except
157. The normal function of glycogen synthase enzyme a) Ultralente
is to do which of the following? b) glargine
(A) Remove glucose residues one at a time from glycogen c) detemir insulin
in the liver d) Lente insulin
(B) Remove glucose residues one at a time from glycogen 165. All the following are the most rapidly absorbed
in muscles insulins, and are rapid acting, but they also exhibit
(C) Transfer glucose from UDP-glucose to the nonreducing a short half-life in circulation , except
end of a glycogen primer a) Lispro insulin
(D) Hydrolyze alpha-1,6 bonds of glycogen b) aspart insulin
c) glulisine insulin
158. Which one of the following biochemical deficits is d) Ultralente insulin
seen in Pompe disease?
(A) Loss of a lysosomal glucosidase activity 166.Which of the following insulins peaks in
(B) Loss of a-1,6-glucosidase activity concentration about 4 hours after injection and
(C) Loss of glucose 6-phosphatase activity has a relatively short half-life, becoming absent
(D) Loss of muscle glycogen phosphorylase activity from the circulation after about 8 hours.
a) Regular insulin
159. in the presence of glucagon, which of the b) aspart insulin
following enzymes would be phosphorylated and c) glulisine insulin
inactivated? d) Ultralente insulin
(A) Phosphorylase kinase
(B) Pyruvate kinase 167. Which one of the following occurs in an individual
(C) Phosphorylase who is rested and has fasted for 12 hours?
(D) Protein kinase A (A) Gluconeogenesis is the major process by which blood
glucose is maintained.
160. The activity of muscle glycogen synthase in (B) Adenylate cyclase has been inactivated in liver.
resting muscles is increased by the action of which (C) Liver glycogen stores have been depleted.
of the following? (D) Glycogen phosphorylase, pyruvate kinase, and
(A) Epinephrine glycogen synthase are phosphorylated in the liver.
(B) Glucagon
(C) Insulin 168. Which of the following enzymes is unable to
(D) Phosphorylation catalyze a key step in synthesizing glucose from
pyruvate?
161. A patient had large deposits of liver glycogen, (A) Pyruvate carboxylase
(B) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
which, after an overnight fast, contained shorter
than normal branches. A defective form of which (C) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
of the following could cause this abnormality? (D) Glucose 6-phosphatase

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169. Which of the following results would lead to a 177. I-cell disease is due to enzymatic defect in
diagnosis of diabetes? (A) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(A) A single random glucose level of 190 mg/dL (B) Galactose 1-phosphate uridylyltransferase
(B) The presence of a reducing sugar in his urine (C) N-acetylglucosamine 1-phosphate transferase
(C) A single fasting blood glucose level of 160 mg/dL (D) Galactokinase
(D) A 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test with a blood
glucose level of 210 mg/dL 178. A 12-month-old, otherwise healthy male has
170.metformin works by which of the following cataracts and galactosemia.
mechanisms? (A) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(A) Inhibiting hepatic gluconeogenesis (B) Galactose 1-phosphate uridylyltransferase
(B) Increasing glucagon levels (C) N-acetylglucosamine 1-phosphate transferase
(C) Increasing cellular responsiveness to circulating insulin (D) Galactokinase
(D) Stimulating the release of preformed insulin
179. primaquine induced hemolytic anemiais due to
171. Which of the following is the most likely cause of deficient?
hyperglycemia in Cushing syndrome? (A) Fructokinase
(A) A pancreatic adenoma secreting adrenocorticotropic (B) Aldolase B
hormone (ACTH) and glucagon (C) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(B) Glucocorticoid-enhanced transcription of PEPCK (D) Galactokinase
(C)Increased substrates for gluconeogenesis due to excess
fatty acid degradation 180. Lysosomal proteins are mistargeted in In I-cell
(D)Cortisol inhibition of insulin secretion diseases. Rather than being targeted to the cell’s
172. which of the following s lysosomal storage lysosomes, lysosomal proteins in this disease are
disorders occur due to lac of lack of a-L- found in which of the following?
iduronidase? (A) In the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
(A) Hurler syndrome (MPS type I) (B) In the Golgi apparatus
(B) Morquio syndrome (MPS type IV) (C) In the mitochondria
(C) Hunter syndrome (MPS type II) (D) Exported from the cell
(D) Sanfilippo A syndrome (MPS type III)
181. Which of the following converts glucose to
173. What food product in the baby’s diet leads to sorbitol?
cata racts, an enlarged liver, and mental (A) Hexokinase
retardation in galactosemia ? (B) Aldose reductase
(A) Fructose (C) Aldose mutase
(B) Lactose (D) Sorbitol dehydrogenase
(C) Phenylalanine
(D) Glucose 182. To form triacylglycerol from diacylglycerol, which
of the following compounds is also required?
174. An 4-mon th-old child p resents w ith (A) Glycerol
hepatomegaly, jaundice, hypoglycemia, and (B) Glycerol 3-phosphate
convulsions and sepsis. Most likely enzymatic (C) Fatty acyl CoA
defect is. (D) Acetyl CoA
(A) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(B) Galactose 1-phosphate uridylyltransferase 183. In which cell or tissue does triacylglycerol
(C) N-acetylglucosamine 1-phosphate transferase packaging into chylomicrons occur?
(D) Galactokinase (A) Intestinal epithelial cell
(B) Liver cell
175. A patient pres ents with jaun dice and (C) Muscle cell
splenomegaly after eating fava beans. A blood (D) Heart cell
smear reveals hemolysis. Most likely enzymatic
defect is 184. Which one of the following statements is true
(A) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase concerning fat metabolism ?
(B) Galactose 1-phosphate uridylyltransferase (A) The thoracic duct carries a substantial volume of lymph
(C) N-acetylglucosamine 1-phosphate transferase and triglycerides from the enteric circulation to the
(D) Galactokinase venous system.
(B) Triacylglycerol is primarily stored in the liver.
176. A healthy, well-appearing child with no pertinent (C) In the intestinal cell, glucose is converted to
medical history has 3+ glucose on a urine dipstick. triacylglycerol by phosphatidic acid.
Most likely enzymatic defect is (D) In adipose cells, triacylglycerol is converted to VLDL.
(A) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(B) fructokinase 185. Which of the following statements correctly
(C) N-acetylglucosamine 1-phosphate transferase describes lipogenesis?
(D) Galactokinase

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(A) The primary source of carbons for fatty acid synthesis 193. The major carriers of triacylglycerols are which
is glycerol. of the following?
(B) Fatty acids are synthesized from acetyl CoA in the (A) Chylomicrons and VLDL
mitochondria. (B) IDL and LDL
(C) Fatty acid synthesis and esterification to glycerol to (C) VLDL and LDL
form triacylglycerols occurs primarily in muscle cells. (D) HDL and LDL
(D) The fatty acyl chain on the fatty acid synthase complex
is elongated two carbons at a time. 194. Which of the following is an example of a bile
salt?
186. Which of the following compounds should be a (A) HMG-CoA
component of TPN? (B) Chenocholic acid
(A) Palmitate (C) Squalene
(B) Linoleate (D) Lanosterol
(C) Phosphatidic acid
(D) Glycerol 195. Which of the following statements best describes
(E) Glucose HDL?
(A) It is produced in liver but not in skeletal muscle.
187. Before being oxidized, fatty acids are activated (B) It activates ACAT.
in the cytosol to form which of the following? (C) Its major protein is apo E.
(A) ATP (D) It is formed when VLDL is digested by lipoprotein lipase.
(B) Malonyl CoA
(C) Fatty acyl CoA 196. HMG-CoA reductase, converts HMG-CoA to which
(D) Carnitine of the following?
(A) Mevalonate
188. The initiating substrate for fatty acid oxidation (B) Isopentenyl pyrophosphate
is which of the following? (C) Geranyl pyrophosphate
(A) Long-chain fatty acid (D) Farnesyl pyrophosphate
(B) Fatty acyl carnitine
(C) Fatty acyl CoA 197. Which of the following statements correctly
(D) beta-Hydroxyacyl CoA describes bile salts?
(A) They can act as detergents, aiding in lipid digestion.
189. What type of fatty acid would you expect to (B) They are stored in the intestines.
accumulate in patients with Zellweger syndrome? (C) Ninety-five percent of bile salts are excreted in the
(A) Short-chain fatty acids feces, and 5% are recycled back to the liver.
(B) Very-long-chain fatty acids (D) Bile salts are synthesized in the intestines.
(C) Dicarboxylic acids
(D) Long-chain fatty acids 198. High serum HDL levels are protective against the
development of atherosclerosis because HDL does
190. A 6-month-old infant presents with a seizure.The which of the following?
infant is found to be profoundly hypoglycemic and (A) Inhibits cholesterol production by the liver
have low ketones. Short-chain dicarboxylic acids (B) Brings cholesterol esters back to the liver
are found to be elevated in the serum. The most (C) Increases VLDL production
likely enzyme deficiency is which of the following? (D) Increases LDL production
(A) Medium-chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase (MCAD)
(B) Carnitine acyltransferase I 199. Which of the following statements best describes
(C) Hormone-sensitive lipase patients with type II familial hypercholesterolemia?
(D) Pyruvate carboxylase (A) After LDL binds to the LDL receptor, the LDL is degraded
extracellularly.
191. What is the primary role of carnitine IN fatty (B) The number of LDL receptors on the surface of
acid oxidation? hepatocytes increases.
(A) Activates long-chain fatty acids in the cytosol (C) Cholesterol synthesis by hepatocytes increases.
(B) Transport of acyl groups across the inner mitochondrial (D) Excessive cholesterol is released by LDL.
membrane
(C) Is converted to enoyl CoA 200. Which of the following would result from type II
(D) Is converted to b-hydroxyacyl CoA familial hypercholesterolemia?
(A) Cellular HMG-CoA reductase activity is not inhibited.
192. Which of the following apoproteins is an activator (B) The triglycerides in chylomicrons cannot be degraded.
of lipoprotein lipase? (C) The VLDL level in the serum increases.
(A) Apo A (D) The HDL level in the serum increases.
(B) Apo B
(C) Apo C-II
(D) Apo E

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