MCQ On All Topic

MCQ on Fundamental of Computer
1. UNIVAC is
A) Universal Automatic Computer B) Universal Array Computer
C) Unique Automatic Computer D) Undervalue Automatic Computer
2. The basic operations performed by a computer are

A) Arithmetic operation B) Logical operation
C) Storage and relative D) All the above
3. The two major types of computer chips are

A) External memory chip B) Primary memory chip
C) Microprocessor chip D) Both b and c
4. Microprocessors as switching devices are for which generation computers

A) First Generation B) Second Generation
C) Third Generation D) Fourth Generation
5. The brain of any computer system is

A) ALU B) Memory C) CPU D) Control unit
6. Chief component of first generation computer was

A) Transistors B) Vacuum Tubes and Valves
C) Integrated Circuits D) None of above
7. To produce high quality graphics (hardcopy) in color, you would want to use a/n
A) RGB monitor B) Plotter C) Ink-jet printer D) Laser printer
8. Which of the following IC was used in third generation of computers?

A) SSI B) MSI C) LSI D) Both a and b
9. Which of the following was a special purpose computer?

A) ABC B) ENIAC C) EDVAC D) All of the above
10. Which of the following storage devices can store maximum amount of data?
A) Floppy Disk B) Hard Disk C) Compact Disk D) Magneto Optic Disk
11. High density double sided floppy disks could store _____ of data
A) 1.40 MB B) 1.44 GB C) 1.40 GB D) 1.44 MB
12. Which of the following is not an input device?

A) OCR B) Optical scanners
C) Voice recognition device D) COM (Computer Output to Microfilm)
13. When was vacuum tube invented?

A) 1900 B) 1906 C) 1910 D) 1880
14. Which of the following produces the best quality graphics reproduction?
A) Laser printer B) Ink jet printer C) Plotter D) Dot matrix printer
15. Computers with 80286 microprocessor is

A) XT computer B) AT computers C) PS/2 computer D) None of above
16. Software in computer
A) Enhances the capabilities of the hardware machine
B) Increase the speed of central processing unit
C) Both of above
D) None of above
17. Abacus was the first

A) electronic computer B) mechanical computer
C) electronic calculator D) mechanical calculator
18. BCD is
A) Binary Coded Decimal B) Bit Coded Decimal
C) Binary Coded Digit D) Bit Coded Digit
19. Properly arranged data is called

A) Field B) Words C) Information D) File
20. A computer consists of

A) A central processing unit B) A memory C) Input and output unit D) All of the above
21. John Napier invented Logarithm in

A) 1614 B) 1617 C) 1620 D) None of above
22. An integrated circuit is

A) A complicated circuit B) An integrating device
C) Much costlier than a single transistor D) Fabricated on a tiny silicon chip
23. Which of the following is used as a primary storage device?

A) Magnetic drum B) Hard Disks C) Floppy D) All of above
24. A byte consists of

A) One bit B) Four bits C) Eight bits D) Sixteen bits
25. The term gigabyte refers to

A) 1024 bytes B) 1024 kilobytes C) 1024 megabytes D) 1024 gigabyte
MS-WORD
1. How many different positions can you set for drop cap?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6
2. How many ways you can save a document?

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
3. What is the maximum number of lines you can set for lines to drop box?
a. 3 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15
4. Single spacing in MS-WORD document causes ____ point line spacing?

a. 10 b. 12 c. 14 d. 16
5. What is the default number of lines to drop for drop cap
a. 3
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
6. What is the maximum number of lines you can set for a drop cap?
a. 3
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
7. How many columns can you insert in a word document in maximum?

a. 35
b. 45
c. 55
d. 65
8. In a document what is the maximum number of columns that can be inserted in MS Word
Table?
a. 35
b. 15
c. 63
d. 65
9. What is the maximum scale percentage available in Scale drop down box?
a. 500
b. 200
c. 100
d. 90
10. What is the maximum font size you can apply for any character
a. 163
b. 1638
c. 16038
d. None of above
11. Word, by default, places a tab stop at every _____ mark on the ruler.
a. .25"
b. .5"
c. .75"
d. 1"
12. What is the default file extension for all Word documents?
a. .txts
b. .word
c. .docs
d. .docx
13. The file type _____ indicates the file is a Word document.
a. .msw
b. .wor
c. .wrd
d. .doc
14. Which of the following button will allow you to add, delete, or change records in your
Data Source?
a. ‘Data Source’ button
b. ‘Edit’ button
c. ‘Edit Data Source’ button
d. ‘Data Editing’ button
15. How much space in minimum must be provided between columns?

a. 0"
b. 0.5"
c. 1"
d. 1.5"
16. What is the smallest width of a column?

a. 0"
b. 0.5"
c. 1"
d. 1.5"
17. By default, your document prints with:

a. 1 inch top and bottom margins
b. a portrait orientation
c. 1.25 inches left and right margins
d. all of the above
18. Word is preset to use standard 8.5-by-11-inch paper with _____ margins.
a. 1-inch left, right, top, and bottom
b. 1.25-inch left, right, top, and bottom
c. 1.25-inch left and right margins and 1-inch top and bottom
d. 1-inch left and right margins and 1.25-inch top and bottom
19. What is the default left margin in Word 2003 document?

a. 1"
b. 1.25"
c. 1.5"
d. 2"
20. What is the smallest and largest font size available in Font Size tool on formatting
toolbar?
a. 8 and 72
b. 8 and 64
c. 12 and 72
d. None of above
21. What is the default font size of a new Word document based on Normal template in Word
2003?
a. 10 pt
b. 12 pt
c. 14 pt
d. None of above
22. The minimum number of rows and columns in MS Word document is

a. 1 and 1
b. 2 and 1
c. 2 and 2
d. None of above
23. In mail merge operation which of the following might represent the main document?
a. A sales brochure
b. A form letter
c. A database of Names and Addresses
d. All of above
24. Pressing F8 key for three times selects

a. a word
b. a sentence
c. a paragraph
d. entire document
25. What do you call ‘a collection of character and paragraph formatting commands’?
a. the defaults
b. a template
c. a style
d. a boilerplate
26. What is a Document Outline View?

a. A preview in a full screen
b. A preview with margins
c. A View with a margins and gutter
d. A view with a structure of heading at various levels
27. Ctrl + Z
a. Undo the last Action
b. Redo the last Action
c. Add the new page
d. Paste the contents from clipboard
28. The _____ in the Resume Wizard dialog box indicates the wizard is ready to create the
document.
a. Start panel
b. Address panel
c. Add/Sort Heading panel
d. Finish panel
29. What does Ctrl + = key effect?
a. Superscript
b. Subscript
c. All Caps
d. Shadow

30. How can you make the selected character super scripted
a. Ctrl + =
b. Ctrl + Shift + =
c. Alt + Ctrl + Shift + =
d. None of above

31. When typing in a word field manually, what must you press to insert the code’s braces?
a. Ctrl + F6
b. Ctrl + F9
c. Alt + F11
d. Shift + F12
32. What is the short cut key to open the Open dialog box?
a. F12
b. Shift F12
c. Alt + F12
d. Ctrl + F12
33. What is the shortcut key to split a table?

a. Ctrl + Alt + Enter
b. Ctrl + Shift + Enter
c. Alt + Shift + Enter
d. Alt + Space + Enter
34. Which key is used to increase left indent?

a. Ctrl+I
b. Ctrl+M
c. Alt+I
d. F10
35. How many different documents you can open at one time?
a. No more than three
b. Only one
c. As many as your computer memory will hold
d. As many as your taskbar can display
36. Which of the following is the second step in creating a macro?

a. Start recording
b. Using your mouse or keyboard, perform the task you want to automate
c. Assign a keyboard shortcut to the macro
d. Give the macro a name
43. When assigning a shortcut key to a symbol, you should always try to select a key or key
combination that is:
a. unassigned
b. located on the ten-key pad section of your keyboard.
c. assigned to another task.
d. from the same font family as the symbol.
37. Which feature is used to replace straight quotes with smart quotes as you type?
a. Auto Correct as you type
b. Auto Change as you type
c. Auto Format as you type
d. Smart Tags as you type
38. Which of the following command is not available in Tools menu?

a. Auto text
b. Autocorrect
c. Auto summarize
d. Macro
39. Word has a list of predefined typing, spelling, capitalization, and grammar errors that
_____ can detect and correct.
a. AutoEntry
b. AutoCorrect
c. AutoAdd
d. AutoSpell
40. Which option is not available in Insert Table Autofit behavior?

a. Fixed Column Width
b. AutoFit to Contents
c. Autofit to Window
d. Autofit to Column
41. When you click on File menu in Word 2010, it opens

a. File menu
b. File Commands
c. Backstage View
d. File Ribbon
42. Tabs stop position cannot be the following alignment

a. Decimal Alignment
b. Center Alignment
c. Bar Alignment
d. Justify Alignment
43. Ctrl + B
a. Search the selected text
b. Paste the selected text
c. Bold the selected text
d. Open the specified file
44. To move the cursor page to page of document

a. Ctrl+PgDn
b. Ctrl+PgUp
c. Both of above
d. None of above
45. You can jump to the next column by

a. Clicking with your mouse on the next column
b. Press Alt + Down-arrow
c. Both of above
d. None of Above
46. Which of the following enables you to paste data multiple times?
a. Windows Clipboard
b. Office Clipboard
c. Both Windows & Office Clipboard
d. None of the all
47. You need to jump to the next column breaking current column right at the cursor position.
How can you break column?
a. Pressing Ctrl+Enter
b. Pressing Alt+Shift+Enter
c. Break command from Insert menu
d. Both b and c
48. What is the default font used in MS Word 2007 document?

a. Times New Roman
b. Arial
c. Calibri
d. Preeti
49. Word includes a series of predefined graphics called _____ that can be inserted into a
Word document.
a. clip art
b. hyperlinks
c. captions
d. bookmarks
50. A (n) _____is a dot or other symbol positioned at the beginning of a paragraph.
a. bullet
b. logo
c. cell
d. target
51. Which of the following is not a type of page margin?

a. Left
b. Right
c. Center
d. Top
52. Ctrl + A
a. Align Right
b. Select All
c. Change font
d. Save document
53. Which of the following is not on Home ribbon?

a. Columns
b. Font color
c. Change Style
d. Font
54. Ctrl + E
a. Exit Application
b. Select All
c. Clear All
d. Align Center
55. Which would you choose to save a document with a new name?
a. Press Ctrl+S
b. Click File, Save
c. Click Tools, Options, Save
d. Click File, Save As
56. You cannot close MS Word application by

a. Choosing File menu then Exit submenu
b. Press Alt+F4
c. Click X button on title bar
d. From File menu choose Close sub menu
57. Which of the following option is not available in Insert >> Picture ?
a. Chart
b. Word Art
c. Clip Art
d. Graph
58. Which option in File pull-down menu is used to close a file in MS Word?
a. New
b. Quit
c. Close
d. Exit
59. Ctrl + O
a. Save Document
b. Print Document
c. Close Document
d. Open Document
60. Which feature do you use to create a newspaper like document?

a. Bullets & numbering
b. Tables
c. Columns
d. Tab stops
61. A _____ contains buttons, boxes, and menus that allow tasks to be performed more
quickly than using the menu bar.
a. format bar
b. status bar
c. command bar
d. toolbar
62. What is the shortcut key you can press to create a copyright symbol?
a. Alt+Ctrl+C
b. Alt + C
c. Ctrl + C
d. Ctrl + Shift + C
63. What is the short cut key to open Font dialog box?
a. Ctrl + F
b. Alt + Ctrl + F
c. Ctrl + D
d. Ctrl + Shift + D
64. What is the shortcut key to "Center Align" the selected text?
a. Ctrl + C
b. Ctrl + E
c. Ctrl + F
d. None of above
65. What is the shortcut key for Spelling Check in document?

a. F7
b. Shift + F7
c. Ctrl + F7
d. Alt + F7
66. What is the shortcut key to Update Formula in a table?

a. F9
b. Alt + F9
c. Ctrl + F9
d. Shift + F9
67. What is the shortcut key for "Font" dialog box?

a. Ctrl + F
b. Ctrl + D
c. Ctrl + G
d. None of the above
68. What is the shortcut key for "Find and Replace" dialog box?
a. Ctrl + F
b. Ctrl + R
c. Ctrl + H
d. Ctrl + Shift + F
69. What is the shortcut key to "Insert Hyperlink" in a document?
a. Ctrl + H
b. Ctrl + L
c. Ctrl + K
d. None of above
70. How can you access the font size tool on formatting toolbar?
a. Ctrl + S
b. Ctrl + Shift + S
c. Ctrl + P
d. Ctrl + Shift + P
MS-EXCEL
. What is extension of files created in MS-Excel 97-2003

(a) .xlx
(b) .msx
(c) .Dot
(d) .xls
2. What is extension of files created in MS-Excel 2007-2015

(a) Txt
(b) XLS
(c) XLSX
(d) RTF
3. MS-Office is -
(a) Application Software
(b) System Software
(c) Operating System
(d) All of above
4. Which menu option in MS Excel has the option to "Sort the Data"
(a) Review
(b) Data
(c) Formula
(d) Insert
5. Which is the correct formula for SUM Function in MS Excel.

(a) /SUM(A1+A5)
(b) =SUM(A1-A5)
(c) =SUM(A1:A5)
(d) +SUM(A1:A5)
6. What is the use of VLOOKUP function in MS Excel -

(a) to get the max value
(b) to copy a row
(c) to find things in a table
(d) None of these
7. Which button in MSExcel to calculate the sum of number
(a) AutoSum
(b) Fill
(c) Insert
(d) Merge
8. What is the Shortcut key for "Current Date" in Excel

(a) Ctrl + C
(b) Ctrl + D
(c) Alt + ;
(d) Ctrl + ;
9. What is the Shortcut key for "Current Time" in Excel

(a) Ctrl + Shift + :
(b) Ctrl + T
(c) Ctrl + D
(d) Ctrl + ;
10. What is the shortcut to insert comment in MS Excel

(a) Ctrl + F6
(b) Alt + F8
(c) Shift + F9
(d) Shift + F2
11. Which function in MS Excel counts the number of characters in a Cell

(a) Len ( )
(b) Length ( )
(c) Count ( )
(d) LNG ( )
Answer – (d) Len ( )
12. What of these is a shortcut to add a border to the selected cell in MS Excel
(a) Ctrl + T
(b) Ctrl + B
(c) Shift + B
(d) Ctrl + Shift + &
13. What is the shortcut key of Hyperlink in Excel

(a) Ctrl + H
(b) Ctrl + K
(c) Alt + S
(d) Alt + K
14. What is the Shortcut key for select Complete Row

(a) Shift + Space
(b) Ctrl + Space
(c) Alt + Space
(d) None of these
15. What is the Shortcut key for select Complete Column

(a) Shift + Space
(b) Ctrl + Space
(c) Alt + Space
(d) None of these
16. What is the intersection of a column and row on worksheet called ?

(a) Row
(b) Column
(c) Cell
(d) Address
17. MS Excel is a -
(a) Word Processing Software
(b) Spreadsheet Program
(c) Presentation Program
(d) None of these
18. The Software which contains rows and column is called -

(a) Word Processing
(b) Database
(c) Spreadsheet
(d) None of these
19. Formulas in Excel Start with -

(a) +
(b) #
(c) %
(d) =
20. To return the remainder after a no. is divided by a divisor in Excel

(a) Round ( )
(b) Mod ( )
(c) Fact ( )
(d) None of these
21. Hyperlinks can be

(a) Text
(b) Drawing
(c) Picture
(d) All of the above
22. NOT, AND, OR and XOR are -

(a) Relational Operator
(b) Logical Operators
(c) Arithmetic Operators
(d) None of these
23. The shortcut key to hide entire column

(a) Ctrl + H
(b) Ctrl + 0
(c) Ctrl + -
(d) None of these
24. Which of the following is correct -

(a) = power (2^3)
(b) = power (2*3)
(c) = power (2,3)
(d) None of these
25. What is the shortcut key to insert a new comment in a cell ?

(a) ALT + F2
(b) Ctrl + F2
(c) Shift + F2
(d) None of these
26. What is the shortcut key to insert new sheet in current workbook ?
(a) Shift + F11
(b) Ctrl + F11
(c) Atl + F11
(d) None of these
27. How many sheets are there, by default, when we create a new excel file ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
28. Which sign display when formula error in MS Excel

(a) $
(b) *
(c) #
(d) \
29. What is the Shortcut Key of "AutoSum"

(a) Ctrl + =
(b) Alt + =
(c) Ctrl + A
(d) Shift + =
30. What is the Shortcut Key for Insert (Row, Column)

(a) Ctrl + +
(b) Ctrl + C
(c) Ctrl + R
(d) Ctrl + A
31. What is the Shortcut Key for Delete (Row, Column)

(a) Ctrl + D
(b) Ctrl + R
(c) Ctrl + C
(d) Ctrl + -
32. The Shortcut Key for Hide Rows
(a) Ctrl + 9
(b) Ctrl + S
(c) Ctrl + H
(d) Ctrl + R
33. The Shortcut Key for Hide Columns

(a) Ctrl + H
(b) Ctrl + C
(c) Ctrl + 9
(d) Ctrl + 0
34. The Shortcut Key for Unhide Rows

(a) Ctrl + Shift + (
(b) Ctrl + U
(c) Ctrl + H
(d) Ctrl + R
35. The Shortcut Key for Unhide Columns

(a) Ctrl + H
(b) Ctrl + K
(c) Ctrl + Shift + )
(d) Ctrl + Z
MS-POWERPOINT
MS Power Point
1. Which file format can be added to a PowerPoint show?
a. .jpg
b. .giv
c. .wav
d. All of the above
2. In Microsoft PowerPoint two kind of sound effects files that can be added to the
presentation are
a. .wav files and .mid files
b. .wav files and .gif files
c. .wav files and .jpg files
d. .jpg files and .gif files
3. Material consisting of text and numbers is best presented as

a. A table slide
b. A bullet slide
c. A title slide
d. All of the above
4. What is a motion path?

a. A type of animation entrance effect
b. A method of advancing slides
c. A method of moving items on a slide
d. All of the above
5. What is a slide-title master pair?

a. The title area and text area of a specific slide
b. a slide master and title master merged into a single slide
c. A slide master and title master for a specific design template
d. All of above
6. Which of the following should you use if you want all the slide in the presentation to
have the same “look”?
a. the slide layout option
b. add a slide option
c. outline view
d. a presentation design template
7. in the context of animations, what is a trigger?

a. An action button that advances to the next slide
b. An item on the slide that performs an action when clicked
c. The name of a motion path
d. All of above
8. If you have a PowerPoint show you created and want to send using email to another
teacher you can add the show to your email message as a (an)
a. Inclusion
b. Attachment
c. Reply
d. Forward
9. In order to edit a chart, you can

a. Triple click the chart object
b. Click and drag the chart object
c. Double click the chart object
d. Click the chart object
10. to exit the PowerPoint

a. click the application minimize button
b. click the document close button
c. double click the applications control menu icon
d. double click the document control menu icon
11. to preview a motion path effect using the custom animation task pane, you should
a. click the play button
b. click the show effect button
c. double click the motion path
dd. all of above
12. You can create a new presentation by completing all of the following except
a. Clicking the new button on the standard toolbar
b. Clicking file, new
c. Clicking file open
d. Pressing ctrl + N
13. To select one hyperlink after another during a slide presentation, what do you press?
a. Tab
b. Ctrl + K
c. Ctrl + h
d. All of above
14. special effects used to introduce slides in a presentation are called

a. effects
b. custom animations
c. transitions
d. present animations
15. You can edit an embedded organization chart object by

a. Clicking edit object
b. Double clicking the organization chart object
c. Right clicking the chart object, then clicking edit MS-Organizaiton Chart object
d. b and c both

16. The selected design template can be applied
A) To current slide only
B) To all the slides
C) To all the new presentation you create
D) All of above
17. What is the term used when you press and hold the left mouse key and more the
mouse around the slide?
a. Highlighting
b. Dragging
c. Selecting
d. Moving
18. Which of the following toolbars provide different options in various master views?
a. Common tasks toolbar
b. Drawing toolbar
c. Formatting toolbar
d. Standard toolbar
19. How can you create a uniform appearance by adding a background image to all slides?
a. Create a template
b. Edit the slide master
c. Use the auto correct wizard
d. All of the above
20. Which option on the custom animation task pane allows you to apply a preset or custom
motion path?
a. Add effect
b. Emphasis
c. Animate now
d. All of the above
21. What is the term used when a clip art image changes the direction of faces?
a. Group
b. Flip
c. Rotate
d. All of the above
22. the slide that is used to introduce a topic and set the tone for the presentation is called the
a. table slide
b. graph slide
c. bullet slide
d. title slide

23. The effect applied to display when slides changes in slide show view is
A) Slide Animation
B) Custom Animation
C) Custom Transition
D) Slide Transition
24. Which of the following features should you use when typing in the notes text box?
a. Slide show
b. Insert
c. Slide maser
d. Zoom
25. Which option allows you to select line, curve, freeform or scribble tools?
a. Create effect
b. Insert motion path
c. Draw custom path
d. All of the above
26. Which of the following should be used when you want to add a slide to an
existingpresentation?
a. File, add a new slide
b. Insert, New slide
c. File Open
d. File, New

27. Which of the following is not one of PowerPoint view ?
a. Slide show view
b. Slide view
c. Presentation view
d. Outline view
28. which of the following is the default page setup orientation of slide in PowerPoint
a. Vertical
b. Landscape
c. Portrait
d. None of above
29. Want a PowerPoint photo album slide show to play continuously?

a. Use random slide transitions
b. Launch an online broadcast
c. Loop continuously
d. All of the above
30. what is defined by the handout master?

a. Slide formatting
b. Layout of audience handout notes
c. Handout content formatting for Microsoft word export
d. All of above
31. Which of the following tool enables you to add text to a slide without using the
standard placeholders?
a. Text tool box
b. Line tool
c. Drawing tool
d. Auto shapes tool
32. In notes master view, how do you modify the font size of text for all hte4 notes of a
presentation?
a. Modify the slide design
b. Modify the notes master layout
c. Modify the text within the body placeholder
d. All of the above
33. Want your logo in the same position on every slide, automatically? Insert it on the
a. Handout master
b. Notes master
c. Slide master
d. All of the above
34. Which of the following views is the best view to use when setting transition effects for
all slides in a presentation?
a. Slide sorter view
b. Notes pages view
c. Slide view
d. Outline view
35. Objects on the slide that hold text are called

a. Placeholders
b. Object holders
c. Auto layouts
d. Text holders
36. Which of the following provides a means of printing out feature notes with a miniature
slide on a printed page?
a. Slide with animation
b. Outline view
c. Notes page
d. Audience handout
37. Which command brings you to the first slide in your presentation?
a. Next slide button
b. Page up
c. Ctrl + Home
d. Ctrl + End
38. In normal view, how can you quickly change to handout master view?
a. Click the outline tab and select handout master view
b. Press the shift key and click the handout master view button
c. On the view menu, click slide sorter, and click handouts.
d. All of above
39. how can you quickly reinstate a deleted footer placeholder in master view?
a. Create a new slide master
b. Re-apply the footer placeholder
c. Re-apply the slide layout
d. All of the above
40. Which of the following can you use to add times to the slides in a presentation?
a. Slide show menu
b. Rehearse timings button
c. Slide transition button
d. All of the above
41. To select all of the boxes of an organization chart

a. Clicking and edit and select all
b. Right click the chart background and then click select all
c. Press and hold the SHIFT key and click each box
d. All of above
42. You can show the shortcut menu during the slide show by
a. Clicking the shortcut button on the formatting toolbar
b. Right clicking the current slide
c. Clicking an icon on the current slide
d. a and b
43. Which of the following allow you to select more than one slide in a presentation?
a. Alt + Click each slide
b. Shift + drag each slide
c. Shift + Click each slide
d. Ctrl + Click each slide
44. The view that displays the slides on a presentation as miniature representations of the
slides is called
a. slide show
b. slide sorter view
c. notes page view
d. outline view
45. The PowerPoint view that displays only text (title and bullets) is
a. Slide show
b. Slide sorter view
c. Notes page view
d. Outline view
46. In Microsoft PowerPoint the entry effect as one slide replaces another in a show is called
a (an)
a. animation
b. slide transition
c. custom animation
d. preset animation
47. Which of the following presentation elements can you modify using the slide master?
a. Slide comments
b. Slide transitions
c. Speaker note font and color
d. All of above
48. Which of the following provides a printed copy of your presentation?

a. Outline
b. Speaker notes
c. Audience handouts
d. All of the above
49. To add a header or footer to your handout, you can use

a. The title master
b. The slide master
c. The handout master
d. All of above
50. Which of the following will not advance the slides in a slide show view?
a. Esc key
b. The spacebar
c. The Enter key
d. The mouse button
51. In Microsoft PowerPoint in order to see all the slides on one screen use
a. view, slide sorter
b. view, slide
c. view, master
d. view, slide show
52. What’s the best place to find animated images for your PowerPoint 2002 presentation?
a. Microsoft online
b. Word clipart
c. PowerPoint tools and ins
d. All of the above
53.Which of the following toolbars provides different options in various master views?
a. Common tasks toolbar
b. Drawing toolbar
c. Formatting toolbar
d. Standard toolbar
54.Which command brings you to the first slide in your presentation?

a. Next slide button
b. Page up
c. Ctrl + home
d. Ctrl + end
55. The maximum zoom percentage in Microsoft PowerPoint is

a. 100%
b. 200%
c. 400%
d. 500%
56. PowerPoint 2000 has ……. Number of views

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
57. Animation schemes can be applied to ….. in the presentation

a. All slides
b. Select slides
c. Current slide
d. All of the above
58. To insert a new slide in the current presentation, we can choose

a. Ctrl + M
b. Ctrl + N
c. Ctrl + O
d. Ctrl + F
59. Microsoft PowerPoint is a

a. Database program
b. Spreadsheet program
c. Presentation program
d. Word processing program
60. What is the name of the form used to input chart values?
a. Datasheet
b. Microsoft Excel
c. Microsoft graph
d. Auto form
61. Right clicking something in PowerPoint

a. Deletes the object
b. Selects the object
c. Opens a shortcut menu listing for the object
d. Nothing he right mouse button for operation
62. Ellipse Motion is a predefined ….

a. Design template
b. Color scheme
c. Animation scheme
d. None of these
63. We can replace a font on all slides with another font using the …. option
a. Edit, Fonts
b. Tools, Fonts
c. Tools, Replace Fonts
d. Format, Replace Fonts
64. Special effects used to introduce slides in a presentation are called

a. Effects
b. Custom animations
c. Transitions
d. Preset animations
65. PowerPoint can display data from which of the following add-in software of MS Office
a. Equation editor
b. Organization chart
c. Photo album
d. All of these
66. Which key on the keyboard can be used to view slide show
a. F1
b. F2
c. F5
d. F10
67. Which of the following fill effects can you use for the slide background?
a. Gradient
b. Texture
c. Picture
d. All of the above
68. A chart can be put as a part of the presentation using

a. Insert -> Chart
b. Insert -> Pictures -> Chart
c. Edit -> Chart
d. View -> Chart
69. The arrangement of elements such as Title and Subtitle text, pictures, tables etc. is called
a. Layout
b. Presentation
c. Design
d. Scheme
70. Which of the following are types of sound files?

a. LOG files
b. DAT files
c. WAV files
d. DRV files

MS-ACCESS
1. In MS-Access press CTRL+O to

A) Open a new database
B) Open an existing database
C) Exit MS-Access
D) None of these

2. In MS-Access to open an existing database press
A) CTRL+N
B) CTRL+O
C) ALT+F4
D) None of these

3. In MS-Access to Open a combo box
A) F4 or ALT+DOWN ARROW
B) DOWN ARROW
C) PAGE DOWN
D) F9
4. In MS-Access to open new database press

A) CTRL+N
B) CTRL+O
C) ALT+F4
D) None of these
5. Which symbol must all formula begin with:

A) @
B) =
C) +
D) %
6. In an excel sheet the active cell is indicated by:

A) A blinking border
B) A dotted border
C) A dark wide boarder
D) None of These
7. To add two cells (A1 and A2) together you use the following formula:
A) A1 plus A2
B) =A1 + A2
C) =Add(A1+A2)
D) =together(A1:A2)

8. There are three types of data found in a spreadsheet:
A) Numbers, formulas, labels
B) Data, words, numbers
C) Words, numbers, labels
D) Equations, data, numbers
9. What Are The Different Views To Display A Table

A) Datasheet View
B) Design View
C) Pivote Table & Pivot Chart View
D) All Of Above
10. Which Of The Following Creates A Drop Down List Of Values To Choose From?
A) Ole Object
B) Hyperlink
C) Memo
D) Lookup Wizard
11. The Command Center Of Access File That Appears When You Create Or Open The Ms
Access Database File.
A) Database Window
B) Query Window
C) Design View Window
D) Switchboard
12. The Third Stage In Designing A Database Is When We Analyze Our Tables More Closely
And Create A ___________ Between Tables
A) Relationship
B) Join
C) Query
D) None Of These

13. In A Database Table, The Category Of Information Is Called __________
A) Tuple
B) Field
C) Record
D) All Of Above
14. This Key Uniquely Identifies Each Record
A) Primary Key
B) Key Record
C) Unique Key
D) Field Name
15. It Is An Association Established Between Common

A) Line
B) Relationship
C) Primary Key
D) Records
16. This Is The Stage In Database Design Where One Gathers And List All The Necessary
Fields For The Database Project.
A) Data Definition
B) Data Refinement
C) Establishing Relationship
D) None Of The Above
17. A Database Language Concerned With The Definition Of The Whole Database Structure
And Schema Is ________
A) DCL
B) DML
C) DDL
D) All Of Above
18. Which Of The Field Has Width 8 Bytes?

A) Memo
B) Number
C) Date/time
D) Hyperlink
19. Following Is Not A Database Model

A) Network Database Model
B) Relational Database Model
C) Object Oriented Database Model
D) None
20. Microsoft Access Is A

A) RDBMS
B) OODBMS
C) ORDBMS
D) Network Database Model

21. DCL Provides Commands To Perform Actions Like
A) Change The Structure Of Tables
B) Insert, Update Or Delete Records And Data Values
C) Authorizing Access And Other Control Over Database
D) None Of Above
22. The Database Language That Allows You To Access Or Maintain Data In A Database
A) DCL
B) DML
C) DDL
D) None Of Above
23. What Is The Maximum Length A Text Field Can Be?

A) 120
B) 255
C) 265
D) 75

24. Which Of The Following Is Not A Database Object?
A) Tables
B) Queries
C) Relationships
D) Reports
25. A __________ Enables You To View Data From A Table Based On A Specific Criterion
A) Form
B) Query
C) Macro
D) Report
26. What Are The Columns In A Microsoft Access Table Called?

A) Rows
B) Records
C) Fields
D) Columns
27. Which Of The Following Is Not A Type Of Microsoft Access Database Object?
A) Table
B) Form
C) Worksheets
D) Modules

28. Which Of The Following Database Object Hold Data?
A) Forms
B) Reports
C) Queries
D) Tables
29. Which Of The Following Store Command To Retrieve Data From Database?
A) Forms
B) Reports
C) Queries
D) Tables
30. Which Of The Following Database Object Produces The Final Result To Present?
A) Forms
B) Reports
C) Queries
D) Tables
31. Which Of The Following Is A Method To Create A New Table In Ms Access?

A) Create Table In Design View
B) Create Table Using Wizard
C) Create Table By Entering Data
D) All Of Above
32. To Create A New Table, In Which Method You Don’t Need To Specify The Field Type
And Size?
D) All Of Above
33. When Creating A New Table Which Method Can Be Used To Choose Fields From
Standard Databases And Tables
D) None Of Above
34. In Table Design View, Which Key Can Be Used To Switch Between The Field Names
And Properties Panels?
A) F3
B) F4
C) F5
D) F6
35. In Table Design View What Are The First Column Of Buttons Used For
A) Indicate Primary Key
B) Indicate Current Row
C) Both Of Above
D) None Of Above
36. The Default And Maximum Size Of Text Field In Access

A) 50 And 255 Characters
B) 8 And 1 Gb
C) 266 Characters & 64000 Characters
D) None Of Above
37. The Size Of Yes No Field Is Always

A) 1 Bit
B) 1 Byte
C) 1 Character
D) 1 Gb
38. Which Of The Following Is Not A Field Type In Access

A) Memo
B) Hyperlink
C) Ole Object
D) Lookup Wizard
39. The Size Of A Field With Number Data Type Can Not Be
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
40. Which Field Type Will You Select When Creating A New Table If You Require To Enter
Long Text In That Field?
A) Text
B) Memo
C) Currency
D) Hyperlink
41. Which Field Type Can Store Photos?

A) Hyperlink
B) Ole
C) Both Of These Can Be Used
D) Access Tables Can’t Store Photos
42. When Entering Field Name, How Many Characters You Can Type In Maximum?
A) 60
B) 64
C) 68
D) Any Number Of Character
43. Which of the following database object is created first before any other created?
A) Table
B) Form
C) Report
D) Query
44. This type of database contains multiple tables that are connected to produce combined
output from all tables.
A) Bound
B) Linked
C) Relational
D) Joined
45. The ‘Filter by selection’ allows you to filter those records

A) That match the selected field
B) That match the criteria specified
C) That meet any of several criteria specified
D) All of above
46. The operation of checking input data against specified criteria is known as?
A) Data Verification
B) Data Validation
C) Cross Check
D) Data Control
47. Some rules are set in databases to check and permit only correct values. What is this
feature called?
A) Data Verification
B) Auditing
C) Data Filtering
D) Data Validation
48. Database access levels are specified so as to define who can access what in a database. It
is identified through
A) User ID
B) Password
C) Status
D) None of above

49. What it is called to present information in a particular order based on numeric or
alphabetical value?
A) Sorting
B) Searching
C) Arranging
D) Cropping
50. A collection of related records in database is known as a

A) Table
B) Database
C) File
D) None of above
51. A part of database that stores complete information about an entity such as employee,
sales, orders etc.
A) File
B) Record
C) Field
D) Query
52. To create this, you enter an expression in the design grid that instructs Access to perform
a calculation using the current field values.
A) Formulated field
B) Numeric field
C) Formula field
D) Calculated field
53. The ascending order of data hierarchy is?

A) Bit - Byte - Field - Record - File - Database
B) Bit - Byte - Record - Field - File - Database
C) Byte - Bit - Field - Record - File - Database
D) Bit - Byte - Field - Record - Database - File
54. Which of the following database object can be used if you need to mail the invoice to
customers?

A) A form
B) A Query
C) A report
D) A Table
55. When creating an input mask this character does not require an entry, but if an entry is
made it must be a letter from A-Z
A) ?
B) !
C) #
D) \
56. In Access, this displays the results of a calculation in a query

A) Lookup field
B) Calculated field
C) Source field
D) Child field
57. In Access, this operation copies a backup file from the storage medium back onto the
computer
A) Recreate
B) Restore
C) Copy
D) Structure
58. If you make an invalid entry in the Input Mask Wizard dialog box, this will display to
advise you that the entry is not correct
A) Text error
B) Validation error
C) Literal error
D) Entry error
59. In the Form Wizard dialog box, the fields from the selected table are displayed in this list
box.
A) All Fields
B) All Records
C) Available Records
D) Available Fields
60. This form displays the field name labels down the left side of the column, with the data
for each field just to the right of its corresponding label.
A) Tabular
B) Justified
C) Columnar
D) Datasheet
61. This form displays data in a table layout with field name labels across the top of the page
and the corresponding data in rows and columns under each heading.
A) Columnar
B) Justified
C) Datasheet
D) Tabular

62. This form displays multiple records, one per row, in the Form window
A) Datasheet
B) Tabular
C) Columnar
D) Justified
63. The file extension for an Access 2003 database is

A) EXE
B) DOC
C) EXC
D) MDB
64. Which of the following is a database management system?

A) MS Word
B) MS Excel
C) Oracle
D) Lotus 1-2-3
65. Which of the following columns does not exist in Macro Design window?
A) Arguments
B) Comments
C) Conditions
D) Actions
NETWORING
1.Which address is used in an internet employing the TCP/IP protocols?

a.physical address and logical address
b.port address
c.specific address
d.all of the mentioned
2.Which address identifies a process on a host?

a.physical address
b.logical address
c.port address
d.specific address
3.Transmission data rate is decided by

a.network layer
b.physical layer
c.data link layer
d.transport layer
4.When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client, then it is
called
a.computer network
b.distributed system
c.both (a) and (b)
d.none of the mentioned
5.Which one of the following computer network is built on the top of another network?
a.prior network
b.chief network
c.prime network
d.overlay network
6.Bluetooth is an example of
a.personal area network
b.local area network
c.virtual private network
7.A _____ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing
information included in the packet.
a.bridge
b.firewall
c.router
d.all of the mentioned
8.A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is called
a.protocol architecture
b.protocol stack
c.protocol suit
9.Network congestion occurs

a.in case of traffic overloading
b.when a system terminates
c.when connection between two nodes terminates
10.Which one of the following extends a private network across public networks?
a.local area network
b.virtual private network
c.enterprise private network
d.storage area network
11.The structure or format of data is called

a.Syntax
b.Semantics
c.Struct
d.None of the mentioned
12.Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________

transmission
a.Automatic
b.Half-duplex
c.Half-duplex
d.Simplex
13.The first Network was

a.CNNET
b.NSFNET
c.ASAPNET
d.ARPANET
14.Which of this is not a network edge device?

a.PC
b.Smartphones
c.Servers
d.Switch
15.Delimiting and synchronization of data exchange is provided by

a.Application layer
b.Session layer
c.Transport layer
d.Link layer
16.The_____ address identifies a process on a host.

a.physical
b.IP
c.port
d.specific
17.The ____ address uniquely defines a host on the Internet.

a.physical
b.IP
c.port
d.specific
18.IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses.

a.32
b.64
c.128
d.variable
19.The Mobile Application Protocol (MAP) typically runs on top of which protocol ?

a.SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)
b.SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
c.SS7 (Signalling System 7)
d.HTTP (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol)
20.A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between two devices.

a. Point-to-point
b.multipoint
c.primary
d.secondary
21.Devices may be arranged in a _____ topology.

a.ring
b.mesh
c.bus
d.all of the above
22.A _______ is a data communication system within a building, plant, or campus, or

between nearby buildings.
a.LAN
b.MAN
c.WAN
d.none of the above
23.Which of the following is required to communicate between two computers?

a.communications software
b.protocol
c.communication hardware
d.all of above including access to transmission medium
24. What is NIC used for?

a.To remotely access PC
b.To connect computer to a network
c.It is used in junipers routers for gateway card
d.None
25.In a type of computer network, what does MAN stands for?

a.Major area network
b.Mini area network
c.Metropolitan area network
d.Micro area network
26.Which of the following is not the network edge device?

a.Switch
b.Server
c.PC
d.MAC
27.Which of the following is the type of the computer network?

a.Metropolitan area network (MAN)
b.Local area network (LAN)
c.Personal area network (PAN)
d.All of the above
28.How many layers does OSI have?

a.4
b.7
c.5
d.6
29.Collection of network or networks is called

a.Intranet
b.Internet
c.Extranet
d.LAN network
30.What is the size of the IP version 4?

a.22 bytes
b.32 bits
c.32 bytes
d.99 bytes
31.What is a Firewall in Computer Network?

a.The physical boundary of Network
b.An operating System of Computer Network
c.A system designed to prevent unauthorized access
d.A web browsing Software
32.What is the meaning of Bandwidth in Network?

a.Transmission capacity of a communication channels
b.Connected Computers in the Network
c.Class of IP used in Network
d.None of Above
33. ADSL is the abbreviation of

a.Asymmetric Dual Subscriber Line
b.Asymmetric Digital System Line
c.Asymmetric Dual System Line
d.Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line
34.The Internet is an example of

a.Cell switched network
b.circuit switched network
c.Packet switched network
d.All of above
35.Which of the following includes the benefit of the Networking?

a.File Sharing
b.Easier access to Resources
c.Easier Backups
d.All of the Above
36.Which of the following is not the Networking Devices?
a.Gateways
b.Linux
c.Routers
d.Firewalls
37.We can divide today's networks into ____ broad categories based on switching.
a.four
b.three
c.five
d.two
38.A _______ is a device that operates only in the physical layer.

a.passive hub
b.repeater
c.bridge
d.router
39._______ is a first-generation cellular phone system.

a.AMPS
b.D-AMPS
c.GSM
d.none of the above
40.Which protocol assigns IP address to the client connected in the internet?

a.DHCP
b.IP
c.RPC
d.none of the above
41.______ is a network that covers geographic areas that are larger, such as districts or cities.
a.LAN
b.MAN
c.WAN
d.None of these
42.HTTP is the acronym of ...............

a.Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
b.Hyper Test Transfer Protocol
c.Hyper Text Transport Protocol
d.Hyper Text Transport Program
43. Computer Network is

A. Collection of hardware components and computers
B. Interconnected by communication channels
C. Sharing of resources and information
D. All of the Above
44. DHCP is the abbreviation of
A. Dynamic Host Control Protocol
B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
C. Dynamic Hyper Control Protocol
D. Dynamic Hyper Configuration Protocol
45. What is the size of MAC Address?

A. 16-bits
B. 32-bits
C. 48-bits
D. 64-bits
46. Which of the following can be Software?

A. Routers
B. Firewalls
C. Gateway
D. Modems
47. In DSL Telco provides these services

a) Wired phone access
b) ISP
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
48. Physical or logical arrangement of network is __________

a) Topology
b) Routing
c) Networking
49. In which topology there is a central controller or hub?

a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
50. This topology requires multi point connection

a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
51. Data communication system within a building or campus is________

a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
52. _______ allows you to connect and login to a remote computer

a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
HTML
HTML MCQ
1. HTML stands for?
A.Hyper Text Markup Language
B.High Text Markup Language
C.Hyper Tabular Markup Language
D.None of these

2. which of the following tag is used to mark a begining of paragraph ?
A. <TD>
B. <br>
C. <P>
D. <TR>
3: From which tag descriptive list starts ?

A. <LL>
B. <DD>
C. <DL>
D. <DS>
4. Correct HTML tag for the largest heading is

A. <head>
B. <h6>
C. <heading>
D. <h1>
5. The attribute of <form> tag

A. Method
B. Action
C. Both (a) & (b)
D. None of these
6. Markup tags tell the web browser

A. How to organize the page
B. How to display the page
C. How to display message box on page
D. None of these
7. www is based on which model?

A. Local-server
B. Client-server
C. 3-tier
D. None of these
8. What are Empty elements and is it valid?

A. No, there is no such terms as Empty Element
B. Empty elements are element with no data
C. No, it is not valid to use Empty Element
D. None of these
9. Which of the following attributes of text box control allow to limit the maximum
character?
A. size
B. len
C. maxlength
D. all of these
10. Web pages starts with which of the following tag?

A. <Body>
B. <Title>
C. <HTML>
D. <Form>
11. HTML is a subset of

A. SGMT
B. SGML
C. SGMD
D. None of these
12. Which of the following is a container?

A. <SELECT>
B. <BODY>
C. <INPUT>
D. Both (a) and (b)
13. Correct HTML to left align the content inside a table cell is
A. <tdleft>
B. <td raligh = "left" >
C. <td align = "left">
D. <td leftalign>
14. The tag which allows you to rest other HTML tags within the description is
A. <TH>
B. <TD>
C. <TR>
D. <CAPTION>
15. <Base> tag is designed to appear only between

A. <HEAD>
B. <TITLE>
C. <BODY>
D. <FORM>
How can you open a link in a new browser window?

A. < a href = "url" target = "new">
B. <a href = "url" target= "_blank">
C. <a href = "url".new>
D.<a href = "url" target ="open">
A much better approach to establish the base URL is to use

A. BASE element
B. HEAD element
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these
16.The tag used to create a new list item and also include a hyperlink is
A. <LI>
B. <DL>
C. <DD>
D. <UL>
17. Which of the tag is used to creates a number list?

A. <LI>
B. <OL>
C. <LI> and <OL>
D. None of these

18. <INPUT> is
A. format tag
B. empty tag
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these
19. The latest HTML standard is

A. XML
B. SGML
C. HTML 4.0
D. HTML 5.0
20. The text inside the <TEXT AREA> tag works like
A. <P> formatted text
B. <T> formatted text
C. <PRE> formatted text
D. none of these
21. What i s the correct HTML for adding a background color?

A. <background>yellow<Background>
B. <body color = "yellow">
C. <body bg color = "yellow">
D. <body bg ="yellow">
22. Main container for <TR>, <TD> and <TH> is
A. <TABLE>
B. <GROUP>
C. <DATA>
D. All of these
23. The body tag usually used after

A. Title tag
B. HEAD tag
C. EM tag
D. FORM tag
24. How can you make an e-mail link?

A. <mail href +"xxx@y.com">
B. <a href ="mail to: xxx@y.com">
C. <a href = "xxx@y.com">
D. Both (b) and (c)
25. Which tag creates a number/order list?

A. <UL>
B. <OL>
C. <OT>
D. None of these
26. Symbol used at the beginning of the href text is

A. #
B. $
C. &
D. ^
27. Which of the following is a Valid Name?

A. <_person>
B. <123 person>
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of these

27. How can you open a link in a new browser window?
a. <a href="url" new>
b. <a href="url" target="new">
c. <a href="url" target="_blank">
d. <a href="url" target="">
28. A webpage displays a picture. What tag was used to display that picture?

a. picture
b. image
c.img
d. src

29. <b> tag makes the enclosed text bold. What is other tag to make text bold?
a. <strong> b. <dar> c. <black> d. <emp>
30. Tags and text that are not directly displayed on the page are written in _____ section.

a. <html>
b. <head>
c. <title>
d. <body>

31. Which tag inserts a line horizontally on your web page?

a. <hr>
b. <line>
c. <line direction="horizontal">
d. <tr>
32. What should be the first tag in any HTML document?
a. <head>
b. <title>
c. <html>
d. <document>

33. Which tag allows you to add a row in a table?

a. <td> and </td>
b. <cr> and </cr>
c. <th> and </th>
d. <tr> and </tr>

34. What is the correct HTML tag for inserting a line break?
a. <br>
b. <lb>
c. <break>
d. <newline>
35. Which tag creates a check box for a form in HTML?

a. <checkbox>
b. <input type="checkbox">
c. <input=checkbox>
d. <input checkbox>
36. To create a combo box (drop down box) which tag will you use?
a. <select>
b. <list>
c. <input type="dropdown">
d. all of above
37. Which of the following is not a pair tag?

a. <p>
b. < u >
c. <i>
d. <img>
38. HTML documents are saved in

a. Special binary format
b. Machine language codes
c. ASCII text
d. None of above
39. There are ____ different of heading tags in HTML

a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
40. Which of the following is not a style tag?

a. <b>
b. <tt>
c. <i>
d. All of above are style tags
41. The way the browser displays the object can be modified by _____
a. attributes
b. parameters
c. modifiers
d. None of above
42. Which of the following HTML code is valid?

a. <font colour="red">
b. <font color="red">
c. <red><font>
d. All of above are style tags
43. <b> tag makes the enclosed text bold. What is other tag to make text bold?
a. <strong>
b. <dar>
c. <black>
d. <emp>
44. Tags and test that are not directly displayed on the page are written in _____ section.
a. <html>
b. <head>
c. <title>
d. <body>
45. Which tag inserts a line horizontally on your web page?

a. <hr>
b. <line>
c. <line direction="horizontal">
d. <tr>
46. What should be the first tag in any HTML document?

a. <head>
b. <title>
c. <html>
d. <document>
47. Which tag allows you to add a row in a table?

a. <td> and </td>
b. <cr> and </cr>
c. <th> and </th>
d. <tr> and </tr>
48. HTML document start and end with which tag pairs?
a. <HEAD>….</HEAD>
b. <BODY>….</BODY>
c. <HTML>….</HTML>
d. <WEB>….</WEB>
49. In Satellite based communication, VSAT stands for?

a. Very Small Aperture Terminal
b. Varying Size Aperture Terminal
c. Very Small Analog Terminal
50. Outlook Express is a _________

a. E-Mail Client
b. Browser
c. SearchEngine
51. Text within <EM> … </EM> tag is displayed as ________

a. bold
b. italic
c. list
d. indented
52. Text within <STRONG> … </STRONG> tag is displayed as ________

a. bold
b. italic
c. listd
d. indented
53. Which tag is used to display the large font size?

a. <LARGE></LARGE>
b. <BIG></BIG>
c. < SIZE ></SIZE>
d. <FONT></FONT>
54. <SCRIPT> … </SCRIPT> tag can be placed within ________
a. Header
b. Body
c. both A and B
d. none of the above
55. using <P> tag will

a. start a new paragraph
b. break the line
c. end the current paragraph
d. none of the above
56. What is Internet Explorer?

a. An Icon
b. A File Manager
c. A Browser
d. The Internet
57. What is an ISP?

a.Internet System Protocol
b.Internal System Program
c. Internet Service Provider
58. Which of the following is valid IP address?

a. 984.12.787.76
b. 192.168.321.10
c. 1.888.234.3456
d. 192.168.56.115
59. Which is not a domain name extension

a. mil
b. org
c. .int
d. .com
60. What is a FTP program used for?

a. Transfer files to and from an Internet Server
b. Designing a website
c. Connecting to the internet
61. Choose the correct HTML tag for the largest heading?
a. <H1>
b. <H6>
c. <H10>
d. <HEAD>
62. Output of XML document can be viewed in a

a. Word Processor
b. Web browser
c. Notepad
SEMESTER-II
JAVASCRIPT
1. Why so JavaScript and Java have similar name?

A. JavaScript is a stripped-down version of Java
B. JavaScript's syntax is loosely based on Java's
C. They both originated on the island of Java
D. None of the above
2. When a user views a page containing a JavaScript program, which machine actually
executes the script?
A. The User's machine running a Web browser
B. The Web server
C. A central machine deep within Netscape's corporate offices
3. ______ JavaScript is also called client-side JavaScript.

A. Microsoft
B. Navigator
C. LiveWire
D. Native
4. __________ JavaScript is also called server-side JavaScript.

A. Microsoft
B. Navigator
C. LiveWire
D. Native
5. What are variables used for in JavaScript Programs?

A. Storing numbers, dates, or other values
B. Varying randomly
C. Causing high-school algebra flashbacks
6. _____ JavaScript statements embedded in an HTML page can respond to user events
such as mouse-clicks, form input, and page navigation.
A. Client-side
B. Server-side
C. Local
D. Native
7. What should appear at the very end of your JavaScript?
The <script LANGUAGE="JavaScript">tag
A. The </script>
B. The <script>
C. The END statement
8. Which of the following can't be done with client-side JavaScript?

A. Validating a form
B. Sending a form's contents by email
C. Storing the form's contents to a database file on the server
9. Which of the following are capabilities of functions in JavaScript?

A. Return a value
B. Accept parameters and Return a value
C. Accept parameters
10. Which of the following is not a valid JavaScript variable name?

A. 2names
B. _first_and_last_names
C. FirstAndLast
11. ______ tag is an extension to HTML that can enclose any number of JavaScript
statements.
A. <SCRIPT>
B. <BODY>
C. <HEAD>
D. <TITLE>
12. How does JavaScript store dates in a date object?

A. The number of milliseconds since January 1st, 1970
B. The number of days since January 1st, 1900
C. The number of seconds since Netscape's public stock offering.
13. Which of the following attribute can hold the JavaScript version?
A. LANGUAGE
B. SCRIPT
C. VERSION
14. What is the correct JavaScript syntax to write "Hello World"?

A. System.out.println("Hello World")
B. println ("Hello World")
C. document.write("Hello World")
D. response.write("Hello World")
15. Which of the following way can be used to indicate the LANGUAGE attribute?
A. <LANGUAGE="JavaScriptVersion">
B. <SCRIPT LANGUAGE="JavaScriptVersion">
C. <SCRIPT LANGUAGE="JavaScriptVersion"> JavaScript statements…</SCRIPT>
D. <SCRIPT LANGUAGE="JavaScriptVersion"!> JavaScript statements…
</SCRIPT>
16. Inside which HTML element do we put the JavaScript?

A. <js>
B. <scripting>
C. <script>
D. <javascript>
17. What is the correct syntax for referring to an external script called " abc.js"?
A. <script href=" abc.js">
B. <script name=" abc.js">
C. <script src=" abc.js">
18. Which types of image maps can be used with JavaScript?

A. Server-side image maps
B. Client-side image maps
C. Server-side image maps and Client-side image maps
19. Which of the following navigator object properties is the same in both Netscape and
IE?
A. navigator.appCodeName
B. navigator.appName
C. navigator.appVersion
20. Which is the correct way to write a JavaScript array?

A. var txt = new Array(1:"tim",2:"kim",3:"jim")
B. var txt = new Array:1=("tim")2=("kim")3=("jim")
C. var txt = new Array("tim","kim","jim")
D. var txt = new Array="tim","kim","jim"
21. What does the <noscript> tag do?

A. Enclose text to be displayed by non-JavaScript browsers.
B. Prevents scripts on the page from executing.
C. Describes certain low-budget movies.
22. If para1 is the DOM object for a paragraph, what is the correct syntax to change the
text within the paragraph?
A. "New Text"?
B. para1.value="New Text";
C. para1.firstChild.nodeValue= "New Text";
D. para1.nodeValue="New Text";
23. JavaScript entities start with _______ and end with _________.
A. Semicolon, colon
B. Semicolon, Ampersand
C. Ampersand, colon
D. Ampersand, semicolon
24. Which of the following best describes JavaScript?

A. a low-level programming language.
B. a scripting language precompiled in the browser.
C. a compiled scripting language.
D. an object-oriented scripting language.
25. Choose the server-side JavaScript object?

A. FileUpLoad
B. Function
C. File
D. Date
26. Choose the client-side JavaScript object?

A. Database
B. Cursor
C. Client
D. FileUpLoad
27. Which of the following is not considered a JavaScript operator?

A. new
B. this
C. delete
D. typeof
28. ______method evaluates a string of JavaScript code in the context of the specified
object.
A. Eval
B. ParseInt
C. ParseFloat
D. Efloat
29. Which of the following event fires when the form element loses the focus: <button>,
<input>, <label>, <select>, <textarea>?
A. onfocus
B. onblur
C. onclick
D. ondblclick
30. The syntax of Eval is ________________

A. [objectName.]eval(numeriC.
B. [objectName.]eval(string)
C. [EvalName.]eval(string)
D. [EvalName.]eval(numeriC.
31. JavaScript is interpreted by _________
A. Client
B. Server
C. Object
32. Using _______ statement is how you test for a specific condition.
A. Select
B. If
C. Switch
D. For

33. Which of the following is the structure of an if statement?
A. if (conditional expression is true) thenexecute this codeend if
B. if (conditional expression is true)execute this codeend if
C. if (conditional expression is true) {then execute this code>->}
D. if (conditional expression is true) then {execute this code}
34. How to create a Date object in JavaScript?

A. dateObjectName = new Date([parameters])
B. dateObjectName.new Date([parameters])
C. dateObjectName := new Date([parameters])
D. dateObjectName Date([parameters])
35. The _______ method of an Array object adds and/or removes elements from an
array.
A. Reverse
B. Shift
C. Slice
D. Splice
36. To set up the window to capture all Click events, we use which of the following
statement?
A. window.captureEvents(Event.CLICK);
B. window.handleEvents (Event.CLICK);
C. window.routeEvents(Event.CLICK );
D. window.raiseEvents(Event.CLICK );
37. Which tag(s) can handle mouse events in Netscape?

A. <IMG>
B. <A>
C. <BR>
38. ____________ is the tainted property of a window object.

A. Pathname
B. Protocol
C. Defaultstatus
D. Host
39. To enable data tainting, the end user sets the _________ environment variable.
A. ENABLE_TAINT
B. MS_ENABLE_TAINT
C. NS_ENABLE_TAINT
D. ENABLE_TAINT_NS
40. In JavaScript, _________ is an object of the target language data type that encloses
an object of the source language.
A. a wrapper
B. a link
C. a cursor
D. a form

41. When a JavaScript object is sent to Java, the runtime engine creates a Java wrapper
of type ___________
A. ScriptObject
B. JSObject
C. JavaObject
D. Jobject
42. _______ class provides an interface for invoking JavaScript methods and examining
JavaScript properties.
A. ScriptObject
B. JSObject
C. JavaObject
D. Jobject
43. _________ is a wrapped Java array, accessed from within JavaScript code.
A. JavaArray
B. JavaClass
C. JavaObject
D. JavaPackage
44. A ________ object is a reference to one of the classes in a Java package, such as
netscape.javascript .
A. JavaArray
B. JavaClass
C. JavaObject
D. JavaPackage
45. The JavaScript exception is available to the Java code as an instance of __________
A. netscape.javascript.JSObject
B. netscape.javascript.JSException
C. netscape.plugin.JSException
46. To automatically open the console when a JavaScript error occurs which of the
following is added to prefs.js?
A. user_pref(" javascript.console.open_on_error", false);
B. user_pref("javascript.console.open_error ", true);
C. user_pref("javascript.console.open_error ", false);
D. user_pref("javascript.console.open_on_error", true);
47. To open a dialog box each time an error occurs, which of the following is added to
prefs.js?
A. user_pref("javascript.classic.error_alerts", true);
B. user_pref("javascript.classic.error_alerts ", false);
C. user_pref("javascript.console.open_on_error ", true);
D. user_pref("javascript.console.open_on_error ", false);
48. The syntax of a blur method in a button object is ______________

A. Blur()
B. Blur(contrast)
C. Blur(value)
D. Blur(depth)
49. The syntax of capture events method for document object is ______________
A. captureEvents()
B. captureEvents(args eventType)
C. captureEvents(eventType)
D. captureEvents(eventVal)
50. The syntax of close method for document object is ______________

A. Close(doC.
B. Close(object)
C. Close(val)
D. Close()
51. <script type="text/javascript">x=4+"4";

document.write(x);</script>
Output------?
A. 44
B. 8
C. 4
D. Error output
52. Is it possible to nest functions in JavaScript?

A. True
B. False
53. <script>
document.write(navigator.appCodeName);
</script>
A. get code name of the browser of a visitor
B. set code name of the browser of a visitor
C. None of the above
54. Scripting language are

A. High Level Programming language
B. Assembly Level programming language
C. Machine level programming language
55. Which best explains getSelection()?

A. Returns the VALUE of a selected OPTION.
B. Returns document.URL of the window in focus.
C. Returns the value of cursor-selected text
D. Returns the VALUE of a checked radio input.
56. Choose the client-side JavaScript object:

A. Database
B. Cursor
C. Client
D. FileUpLoad

57. What is mean by "this" keyword in javascript?
A. It refers current object
B. It referes previous object
C. It is variable which contains value
58. In JavaScript, Window.prompt() method return true or false value ?

A. False
B. True
59. <script language="javascript">

function x()
{
document.write(2+5+"8");
}
</script>
A. 258
B. Error
C. 7
D. 78
60. <script type="text/javascript">

var s = "9123456 or 80000?";
var pattern = /d{4}/;
var output = s.match(pattern);
document.write(output);
</script>
A. 9123
B. 91234
C. 80000
VBA
1. Which language is not a true object-oriented programming language?
a.) VB.NET
b.) VB 6
c.) C++
d.) C#
e.) Java

2. A GUI:
a.) uses buttons, menus, and icons.
b.) should be easy for a user to manipulate.
c.) stands for Graphic Use Interaction.
d.) Both a and b.
e.) All of the above.
3. Visual Studio .NET provides which feature:

a.) debugging.
b.) application deployment.
c.) syntax checking.
d.) Both a and b.
4. What does IDE stand for?

a.) Integrated Development Environment
b.) Integrated Design Environment
c.) Interior Development Environment
d.) Interior Design Environment
e.) None of the above.
5. Which type of project can a developer choose in the New Project dialog box?
a.) Visual Basic Projects
b.) Visual C# Projects
c.) Visual C++ Projects
d.) Both a and b.
6. Which is not a main component of the Visual Studio IDE

a.) Solution Explorer
b.) Tool Box
c.) Start Menu
d.) Designer Window
e.) Properties Window
7. Which does the solution explorer not display?

a.) Form Properties
b.) Reference Folder
c.) Form File
d.) Assemble File
e.) All are part of the solution explorer.

8. Which is true about the name and text property of a control?
a.) They are the same when the control is first created.
b.) The text property changes to match any changes in the name property.
c.) The name property changes to match any changes in the text property.
d.) They are never the same unless the programmer makes it that way.
e.) They are not allowed to be the same and an error will occur if they are.
9. For which task does the IDE provide multiple ways to accomplish the task?
a.) Putting a control on the form
b.) Running the program
c.) Activating the property window for a control
d.) Both a and b.
10. Which are the standard prefixes for the Button and Combo box controls respectively?
a.) btn and chb
b.) btn and cbo
c.) bto and chb
d.) bto and cbo
e.) cmd and cbo
11. Which are the standard prefixes for the text box and label controls respectively?
a.) tex and lbl
b.) tex and lab
c.) txb and lbl
d.) txb and lab
e.) txt and lab
12. Which task is accomplished in the Code editor?

a.) Adding forms to the project
b.) Adding controls to the form
c.) Adding event procedures to the form
d.) Both a and b.

13. Which is not a feature of a GUI that makes learning a program easy for users?
a.) Online help
b.) WYSIWYG formatting
c.) Dialog boxes
d.) Detailed key strokes and commands
e.) Icons

14. An object is composed of:
a.) properties.
b.) methods.
c.) events.
d.) Both a and b.

15. Which statement about objects is true?
a.) One object is used to create one class.
b.) One class is used to create one object.
c.) One object can create many classes.
d.) One class can create many objects.
e.) There is no relationship between objects and classes.

16. Which is not true about forms and controls in Visual Basic?
a.) They are pre-built.
b.) They are graphical objects.
c.) New versions of the classes must be created with each project.
d.) Buttons can be created with the drag and drop method.
e.) All of the above are true.

17. Which is an example of Visual Basic Objects?
a.) Control objects
b.) ASP.NET
c.) ADO.NET
d.) Both a and b.
18. The .Net class library:

a.) contains over 25,000 classes.
b.) uses namespaces to manage all of the classes.
c.) has the System.Form namespace for classes used in Windows-based application.
d.) Both a and b.

19. Which is not a property of the Common control class?
a.) Show
b.) BackColor
c.) Font
d.) ForeColor
e.) Name
20. Which property determines whether a control is displayed to the user?

a.) Hide
b.) Show
c.) Visible
d.) Enabled
e.) Cursor

21. The Button control can be activated:
a.) programmatically through the click event.
b.) by clicking the button with the mouse.
c.) with the form’s DefaultButton property.
d.) Both a and b.
22. The CancelButton property belongs to which object?

a.) Button
b.) Form
c.) Label
d.) TextBox
e.) Timer

23. A click event procedure stud for the label control can be created by:
a.) selecting the object and event from the code editor window’s drop-down boxes.
b.) typing the code in the code editor window.
c.) by double clicking the control.
d.) Both a and b.
24. In event-driven programming an event is generated by:

a.) the system.
b.) a user’s action.
c.) the program itself.
d.) Both a and b.

25. Which is not a common control event?
a.) Click
b.) SingleClick
c.) DoubleClick
d.) MouseMove
e.) MouseDown

26. The Tick event is found only in which object?
a.) Form
b.) Button
c.) TextBox
d.) Label
e.) Timer
27. The Activated event is found only in which object?

a.) Form
b.) Button
c.) TextBox
d.) Label
e.) Timer
28. The Rnd statement will generate a(n):

a.) decimal value between 0.01 and 1.00.
b.) integer value between 0.01 and 1.00.
c.) decimal value between 0.0 and 1.0.
d.) integer value between 0.0 and 1.0.
e.) decimal value between 0.0 and up to 1.0, but not including 1.0.

29. The analysis phase of software development involves:
a.) collecting the requirements about what the program will accomplish.
b.) creating a detailed plan on how the program will accomplish the requirements.
c.) writing the software with a program such as VB.NET.
d.) Both a and b.
30. Which phase of project development typically costs the most?

a.) Analysis
b.) Design
c.) Implementation
d.) Maintenance
e.) Documentation
31. Which is not an integer data type?

a.) Single
b.) Byte
c.) Short
d.) Integer
e.) Long
32. Which is a numeric data type?

a.) Floating point
b.) Integer
c.) Boolean
d.) Both a and b.
33. Which sequence of char data types is listed from lowest to highest?
a.) a, A, z, Z
b.) a, z, A, Z
c.) A, a, Z, z
d.) A, Z, a, z
e.) z, a, Z, A
34. The Date data type does not hold which type of information.
a.) Seconds
b.) Hours
c.) Days
d.) Months
e.) Quarters
35. The Boolean data type:

a.) is unsigned.
b.) has two states.
c.) is displayed by the program as yes or no.
d.) Both a and b.
36. Which is a valid statement for declaring a variable?

a.) Const Form As Integer
b.) Const myForm As Integer
c.) Dim Form As Integer
d.) Dim myForm As Integer
37. VB.Net identifiers:

a.) are case sensitive.
b.) can begin with an underscore.
c.) can begin with a number.
d.) Both a and b.
38. The name of a constant:

a.) must both begin with a letter and be all upper case.
b.) does not have to begin with a letter but must be all upper case.
c.) must begin with a letter but can be upper or lower case.
d.) does not have to begin with a letter and be either upper or lower case.
39. The proper operator precedence, from first to last, is:

a.) logical, comparison, and arithmetic.
b.) arithmetic, comparison, and logical.
c.) arithmetic, logical, and comparison.
d.) comparison, arithmetic, and logical.
e.) logical, arithmetic, comparison.
40. With A = False and B = True, which statement evaluates as True?

a.) A AND A
b.) A AND B
c.) B AND A
d.) B AND B
e.) None are true.
41. With A = False and B = True, which statement evaluates as False?

a.) A OR A
b.) A OR B
c.) B OR A
d.) B OR B
e.) None are true.
42. Which operator is evaluated first?

a.) NOT
b.) AND
c.) XOR
d.) OR
e.) They are always evaluated left-to-right.
43. The left side of an assignment statement will hold:

a.) a variable.
b.) an object property.
c.) an expression.
d.) Both a and b.
44. The right side of an assignment statement will hold:

a.) a variable.
b.) an object property.
c.) an expression.
d.) Both a and b.
45. Which function will return the monthly payments of a loan?

a.) Pay (Rate, PV, Nper)
b.) Pmt (Rate, Nper, PV)
c.) FV (Rate, Nper, Pmt)
d.) FV (Rate, Nper, PV)
46. Which function returns the numbers represented in the string “$56.7”?

a.) Abs
b.) CDbl
c.) Int
d.) Rnd
e.) Val
47. What will the function Val ($165.30) return?

a.) 0
b.) 165
c.) 165.30
d.) $165.30
e.) An error
48. Which function displays a pop-up window?

a.) MsgBox
b.) InputBox
c.) TextBox
d.) Both a and b.
49. Which is true about the prompt argument?

a.) It can be made of multiple values concatenated into one string.
b.) It can include the vbCrLf constant.
c.) It can include the ampersand symbol to concatenate strings.
d.) Both a and b.
50. In order to process a number typed in a TextBox the programmer must:

a.) use the Val function to convert the Text value.
b.) use the CDbl function to convert the Text value.
c.) use the IsNumeric function to convert the Text value.
d.) Both a and b.

51. Which TextBox method does not use the clipboard?
a.) Clear
b.) Copy
c.) Cut
d.) Paste
e.) All of these methods use the clipboard.
52. Which TextBox property should always be changed first?

a.) AcceptsReturn
b.) BorderStyle
c.) Font
d.) Name
e.) Text

53. Which is not a valid value for the ListBox SectionMode Property?
a.) None
b.) One
c.) MultiSimple
d.) MultiExtended
54. Setting the SelectedIndex property of a ListBox to -1 will:

a.) cause an error.
b.) cannot be done.
c.) de-select any selected item.
d.) Both a and b.
55. Which method of a ListBox will remove just one item at a time?
a.) Items.RemoveAt
b.) Item.RemoveAt
c.) Items.ClearAt
d.) Item.ClearAt
e.) Items.Clear

56. The Items property of a ComboBox:
a.) is a collection of items.
b.) is the same as the Items property of a ListBox.
c.) contains methods and properties.
d.) Both a and b.
57. Which value for the ComboBox DropDownStyle property allows a user to type in data?
a.) DropDown
b.) DropDownSimple
c.) DropDownList
d.) Both a and b.
58. Which two controls combined to form the ComboBox control?

a.) ListBox and TextBox
b.) ListBox and InputBox
c.) ListBox and MsgBox
d.) Label and TextBox
e.) Label and InputBox
59. When a condition in an If…Then statements tests true:

a.) the next Else statement is activated.
b.) the next If statement is activated.
c.) the next Then statement is activated.
d.) the End If statement is activated.
e.) a condition can never test true.

60. The End If statement is required:
a.) in all If…Then statements.
b.) in all Multi-line statements with Else.
c.) in Single Line statements.
d.) Both a and b.
TALLY
. Employee salary details are shown in

A) Attendance sheet
B) Gratuity papers
C) Exact reports
D) Pay roll
2. Salary comes under Head

A) Direct expense
B) current liability
C) Indirect expense
D) Current asset
3. Vouchers can be displayed in
A) Accounts info
B) Day book
C) inventory info
D) Ledger
4. Professionals usually maintain accounts as

A) Accounts with inventory
B) accounts only
C) Normal accounting
D) payroll accounting
5. A company can be deleted only in

A) Display
B) alter
C) delete
D) Create
6. Company features in tally includes

A) Accounting features
B) Inventory features
C) Statutory features
D) all of the above
7. Integrated accounts with inventory is available in

A) F12 configuration
B) f11 features
C) inventory info
D) accounts info
8. Collection of ledgers of same nature is called

A) Vouchers
B) asset
C) Group
D) None of these
9. The options ? use common narration? and ? narration each entry? appear
A) Account creation screen
B) Voucher entry screen
C) F11 accounting features
D) Voucher type creation screen
10. Predefined groups are also called as

A) Main group
B) Primary group
C) Statutory group
D) Parent group
11. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of introducing computerized accounting
system
A) Possible demotivation through reundance
B) High expenditure on set up
C) Saving made on labour cost
D) Required staff training
12. Transfer from main cash to petty cash you require to pass
A) Voucher
B) Payment
C) Contra
D) Receipt
13. Income tax number of the company will appear in which report
A) Cash/bank book
B) Profit and loss a/c
C) Reminder letter
D) None of these
14. Patent account falls under

A) Investments
B) Liabilities
C) Current assets
D) None of these
15. Drawings account is to be created by linking with

A) Capital
B) Current asset
C) Current liability
D) Drawings
16. Transactions are firstly entered in:

A) Journal
B) Ledger
C) Trial balance
D) None of these
17. A trial balance is prepared

A) To prepare p &l a/c
B) To test the arithmetical accuracy
C) For making adjustments
D) To balance the a/c
18. Capital is treated as liability because of

A) Dual aspect concept
B) Money measurement concept
C) Matching concept
D) Entity concept
19. are the liabilities which are payable after a long period
A) Fixed liabilities
B) Miscellaneous expenditure
C) Current liabilities
D) Contingent liabilities
20. is an example for long term liabilities

A) Creditors
B) Debentures
C) Overdraft
D) Bills payable
21. is the collection of all accounts

A) Journal
B) Voucher
C) Invoices
D) Ledger
22. is the book of original entry

A) Journal
B) Voucher
C) Invoices
D) Ledger
23. The process of ascertaining the balance of a particular account on a given date is
A) Posting
B) Journalizing
C) Balancing
D) Accounting
24. is the expense which is unpaid at the end of the accounting period
A) Outstanding expenses
B) Prepaid expenses
C) Proposed expenses
D) Working capital
25. is an example for tangible assets

A) Furniture
B) Debtors
C) Patent
D) Discount on issue of shares and debentures
26. Which account is the odd one

A) Furniture
B) Land and buildings
C) Stock of raw materials
D) Plant and machinery
27. Which of the following is the example of external users of accounting information
A) Government
B) Owners
C) Management
D) Employee
28. A is sent to a customer when he returns the goods

A) Debit note
B) Credit note
C) Proforma invoice
D) Bill
29. A is sent to the seller when he is taken back the sold goods
A) Debit note
B) Credit note
C) Proforma invoice
D) Bill
30. Which of the following is not a transaction

A) Goods are purchased on cash basis for rs 1000
B) Salaries paid for the month of may 2009
C) Land is purchased for rs 10 lakhs
D) An employee is dismissed from the job
31. Bank account is

A) Personal account
B) Real account
C) Nominal account
D) Intangible real account
32. Income earned but not received is known as

A) Advance income
B) Proposed income
C) Earned income
D) Accrued income
33. refers the amount invested by the owner into business

A) Loan
B) Advance
C) Capital
D) Prepaid expenses
34. is the major source of revenue of any business

A) Investment
B) Advances
C) Loan
D) Sales
Answer : D
35. Assets acquired for long term use in the business are called
A) Fixed assets
B) Current assets
C) Fictitious assets
D) Liquid asset
36. A person who owes money to the business is a

A) Debtor
B) Creditor
C) Investor
D) Supplier
37. Accrued income comes under

A) Current liability
B) Capital
C) Current asset
D) Fixed asset
38. Taxes paid come under which group

A) Capital
B) Loans and liabilities
C) Direct expenses
D) Duties and taxes
39. Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are
A) Accounting concepts
B) Accounting conventions
C) Accounting standard
D) 1 and 3 both
40. The term current assets does not include

A) Debtors
B) B/r
C) Stock
D) Goodwill
41. There are predefined ledgers

A) One
B) Three
C) Two
D) Four
42. Closing stock come under

A) Current asset
B) Fixed asset
C) Stock in hand
D) Direct income
43. E-mail can be used to

A) Send mail directly from tally screen
B) To send e-mail
C) Download information
D) Access help
44. In tally screen right extreme displays
A) Selected companies
B) Current date
C) Gate way of tally
D) Button bar
45. Capital of the company is included under

A) Capital account
B) Fixed liabilities
C) Loans and advances
D) Current liabilities
46. Carriage inwards can be included in

A) Direct expenses
B) Indirect expenses
C) Current liability
D) Misc Expenses
47. The branch of accounting which analyses and interprets the overall data is
A) Financial accounting
B) Cost accounting
C) Management accounting
D) None of these

48. To activate cost centre and cost category feature we have to select
A) Configuration
B) F 11 features
C) Group creation
D) Voucher creation
49. The left hand side of tally screen shows

A) Current date
B) Last entered voucher
C) Gate way of tally
D) List of selected companies
50. Credit note is used for entering

A) Purchases
B) Sales
C) Purchase return
D) Sales return
Introduction To E Commerce
1. Sale or purchase of items without physically visiting a shop is called .

(a) E-Commerce
(b) Point of Sale (POS)
(c) Goods and Services
(d) Disposal
2. E-Commerce may be carried out using modes.

(a) SMS/ phone conversation
(b) Web
(c) email
(d) all of them
Types Of E-Commerce
1. When the seller and the buyer are both business firms, it is called model of E-Commerce.
(a) C2B or Consumer to Business
(b) B2C or Business to Consumer
(c) B2B or Business to Business
(d) C2C or Consumer to Consumer

2. When the seller is a business and the is an individual consumer, it is called model of E-
Commerce.

3. When the seller is an individual and the buyer is a business firm, it is called model of E-
Commerce.

4. When the seller and the buyer are both individuals, it is called model of E-Commerce.
General Questions On E Commerce

1. is the trading of goods and items through the Internet.
(a) E-Trade
(b) E-Commerce
(c) E-Network
(d) none of them

2. What is the full form of B2B?
(a) Bihar to Bihar
(b) Bombay to Bombay
(c) Business to Business
(d) none of them

3. What is the full form of B2C?
(a) Bihar to Chandigarh
(b) Bombay square to Chandigarh
(c) Business to Consumer
(d) none of them
4. What is the full form of ALE in ecommerce?

(a) Application Link Embedding
(b) Application Link Electronics
(c) Application Leakage Enabling
(d) none of them
5. What is the full form of EDI in ecommerce?

(a) Electronic Detailed International
(b) Electronic Data Interchange
(c) Electronic Digital Interchange
(d) none of them
6. Which e-commerce software requires initial one time password investment of

licensing fee?
(a) OnPromise
(b) SaaS
(c) Open Source
(d) none of them
7. Which of the following is a cloud based eCommerce platform (applications are hosted and
managed in service providers datacentre, subscribed on payment basis)?
(a) OnPromise
(b) SaaS
(c) Open Source
(d) none of them
8. Which of the ecommerce software is free of charge (no licensing fee)?

(a) OnPromise
(b) SaaS
(c) Open Source
(d) none of them
9. What is the full form of C2B?

(a) Chandigarh to Bihar
(b) Chandigarh to Bombay square
(c) Consumer to Business
(d) none of them
10. What is the full form of CRM in ecommerce?

(a) Crime Report Management
(b) Customer Relationship Management
(c) Consumer Resource Management
(d) none of them
11. What is the term given to e-commerce site where product and inventory information is
provided by multiple third parties?
(a) online marketplace
(b) online e-commerce
(c) e-marketplace
(d) none of them

12. In an on line marketplace, transactions are processed by .
(a) marketplace operator
(b) customer
(c) seller
(d) none of them
13. Example of an online marketplace are.

(a) eBay
(b) Snapdeal
(c) Flipkart
(d) all of them
14. Which of the following ecommerce platforms allows consumers to buy goods directly
from seller over the Internet?
(a) e-webshop
(b) e-shopping
(c) e-webstore
(d) all of them
15. Which software model allows accumulation of a list of items before making the online
purchase?
(a) online shopping
(b) e-shopping
(c) shopping cart
(d) none of them
16. What is the name of front page of a web store accessed by visitors to the online shop?
(a) storefront
(b) webfront
(c) e-store
(d) none of them
17. If a company sends bills over the Internet and consumers pay the bills online, it is called .
(a) Internet billing
(b) web billing
(c) electronic billing
(d) none of them
18. Which parties are involved in electronic billing?

(a) billers
(b) bankers
(c) consolidators
(d) all of them
19. What is the full form of BPP in ecommerce?
(a) Biller Payment Provider
(b) Biller Provision Provider
(c) Biller Payment Protector
(d) none of them
20. What is the full form of BSP in ecommerce?

(a) Biller Service Protector
(b) Biller Service Provider
(c) Biller Service Packer
(d) none of them

21. What is the full form of CSP in ecommerce?
(a) Card Service Provider
(b) Customer Service Provider
(c) central Service Provider
(d) none of them
22. What is the full form of ACH in ecommerce?

(a) Association of Clearing Houses
(b) Anonymous Cleansing House
(c) Automatic Clearing House
(d) none of them
23. What is the full form of BITS in ecommerce?

(a) Bihartiya Institute of Technology & Society
(b) Banking Industry Technology Secretariat
(c) Banking Institute of Technology & Society
(d) none of them
24. Which system facilitates the adoption of electronic payment for online transactions?
(a) motivated electronic purchase system
(b) electronic payment system
(c) online payment system
(d) none of them
25. What is the fill form of CVN in ecommerce?

(a) Card Verification Number
(b) Commerce Verified Number
(c) Consumer Verified Number
(d) none of them
26. In system, payment gateway allows the consumer to specify the bank from which
payment should be made.
(a) e-pay banking
(b) e-commerce banking
(c) net banking
(d) none of them
27. What can be used by a consumer and accepted by a merchant for making payments?
(a) merchant card
(b) payment card
(c) visiting card
(d) none of them
28. What is the size of payment card?

(a) 85.60 × 53.98cm
(b) 85.60 × 53.98mm
(c) 85.60 × 53.98m
(d) none of them
29. The default period of loan for a credit card holder is days.
(a) 55
(b) 50
(c) 58
(d) none of them
30. A partial payment of loan in case of charge cards may attract .

(a) bonus
(b) late fee
(c) interest
(d) none of them
31. In which card, a card holder is not required to make payments every month?
(a) charge
(b) credit
(c) debit
(d) none of them
32. In which card, funds are directly withdrawn from his bank account for each payment
made through the card?
(a) debit
(b) credit
(c) ATM
(d) none of them
33. What is the full form of ATM?

(a) Any Time Money
(b) Automated Transaction Management
(c) Automated Teller Machine
(d) none of them
34. Which card cannot be used for cash withdrawal?

(a) ATM
(b) charge
(c) debit
(d) none of them
35. Which cards have a monetary value store on the card itself?
(a) ATM
(b) charge
(c) stored-value
(d) none of them
36. Which cards are not issued in the name of any individual?
(a) ATM
(b) stored value
(c) debit
(d) none of them
37. Which cards are commonly used to buy gasoline (petrol), diesel and other fuels?
(a) fleet/fuel
(b) ATM
(c) credit
(d) none of them
38. Which cards store card data that can be read by physical contact and swiping past a
reading head?
(a) magnetic strip
(b) embossing
(c) smart
(d) none of them
39. Which card contains a chip having embedded integrated circuit which can process data?
(a) magnetic strip
(b) embossing
(c) smart
(d) none of them
40. Which of the following authenticates and handles credit card payment for eCommerce?
(a) payment gateway
(b) e-commerce gateway
(c) software gateway
(d) none of them
CYBER SECURITY
1. Why would a hacker use a proxy server?

A. To create a stronger connection with the target.
B. To create a ghost server on the network.
C. To obtain a remote access connection.
D. To hide malicious activity on the network.

2. What type of symmetric key algorithm using a streaming cipher to encrypt information?
A. RC4
B. Blowfish
C. SHA
D. MD5

3. Which of the following is not a factor in securing the environment against an attack on
security?
A. The education of the attacker
B. The system configuration
C. The network architecture
D. The business strategy of the company
E. The level of access provided to employees

4. What type of attack uses a fraudulent server with a relay address?
A. NTLM
B. MITM
C. NetBIOS
D. SMB

5. What port is used to connect to the Active Directory in Windows 2000?
A. 80
B. 445
C. 139
D. 389

6. To hide information inside a picture, what technology is used?
A. Rootkits
B. Bitmapping
C. Steganography
D. Image Rendering

7. Which phase of hacking performs actual attack on a network or system?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Maintaining Access
C. Scanning
D. Gaining Access

8. Attempting to gain access to a network using an employee’s credentials is called the
_____________ mode of ethical hacking.
A. Local networking
B. Social engineering
C. Physical entry
D. Remote networking

9. Which Federal Code applies the consequences of hacking activities that disrupt subway
transit systems?
A. Electronic Communications Interception of Oral Communications
B. 18 U.S.C. § 1029
C. Cyber Security Enhancement Act 2002
D. 18 U.S.C. § 1030

10. Which of the following is not a typical characteristic of an ethical hacker?
A. Excellent knowledge of Windows.
B. Understands the process of exploiting network vulnerabilities.
C. Patience, persistence and perseverance.
D. Has the highest level of security for the organization.

11. What is the proper command to perform an Nmap XMAS scan every 15seconds?
A. nmap -sX -sneaky
B. nmap -sX -paranoid
C. nmap -sX -aggressive
D. nmap -sX -polite

12. What type of rootkit will patch, hook, or replace the version of system call in order to
hide information?
A. Library level rootkits
B. Kernel level rootkits
C. System level rootkits
D. Application level rootkits

13. What is the purpose of a Denial of Service attack?
A. Exploit a weakness in the TCP/IP stack
B. To execute a Trojan on a system
C. To overload a system so it is no longer operational
D. To shutdown services by turning them off

14. What are some of the most common vulnerabilities that exist in a network or system?
A. Changing manufacturer, or recommended, settings of a newly installed application.
B. Additional unused features on commercial software packages.
C. Utilizing open source application code
D. Balancing security concerns with functionality and ease of use of a system.

15. What is the sequence of a TCP connection?
A. SYN-ACK-FIN
B. SYN-SYN ACK-ACK
C. SYN-ACK
D. SYN-SYN-ACK

16. What tool can be used to perform SNMP enumeration?
A. DNSlookup
B. Whois
C. Nslookup
D. IP Network Browser

17. Which ports should be blocked to prevent null session enumeration?
A. Ports 120 and 445
B. Ports 135 and 136
C. Ports 110 and 137
D. Ports 135 and 139

18. The first phase of hacking an IT system is compromise of which foundation of security?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Authentication

19. How is IP address spoofing detected?
A. Installing and configuring a IDS that can read the IP header
B. Comparing the TTL values of the actual and spoofed addresses
C. Implementing a firewall to the network
D. Identify all TCP sessions that are initiated but does not complete successfully

20. Why would a ping sweep be used?
A. To identify live systems
B. To locate live systems
C. To identify open ports
D. To locate firewalls

21. What are the port states determined by Nmap?
A. Active, inactive, standby
B. Open, half-open, closed
C. Open, filtered, unfiltered
D. Active, closed, unused

22. What port does Telnet use?
A. 22
B. 80
C. 20
D. 23

23. Which of the following will allow footprinting to be conducted without detection?
A. PingSweep
B. Traceroute
C. War Dialers
D. ARIN

24. Performing hacking activities with the intent on gaining visibility for an unfair situation is
called ________.
A. Cracking
B. Analysis
C. Hacktivism
D. Exploitation

25. What is the most important activity in system hacking?
A. Information gathering
B. Cracking passwords
C. Escalating privileges
D. Covering tracks

26. A packet with no flags set is which type of scan?
A. TCP
B. XMAS
C. IDLE
D. NULL

27. Sniffing is used to perform ______________ fingerprinting.
A. Passive stack
B. Active stack
C. Passive banner grabbing
D. Scanned

28. Phishing is a form of ____________________.
A. Spamming
B. Identify Theft
C. Impersonation
D. Scanning

29. Why would HTTP Tunnelling be used?
A. To identify proxy servers
B. Web activity is not scanned
C. To bypass a firewall
D. HTTP is a easy protocol to work with

30. Which Nmap scan is does not completely open a TCP connection?
A. SYN stealth scan
B. TCP connect
C. XMAS tree scan
D. ACK scan

31. What protocol is the Active Directory database based on?
A. LDAP
B. TCP
C. SQL
D. HTTP

32. Services running on a system are determined by _____________.
A. The system’s IP address.
B. The Active Directory
C. The system’s network name
D. The port assigned

33. What are the types of scanning?
A. Port, network, and services
B. Network, vulnerability, and port
C. Passive, active, and interactive
D. Server, client, and network

34. Enumeration is part of what phase of ethical hacking?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Maintaining Access
C. Gaining Access
D. Scanning

35. Keyloggers are a form of ______________.
A. Spyware
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Trojan
D. Social engineering

36. What are hybrid attacks?
A. An attempt to crack passwords using words that can be found in dictionary.
B. An attempt to crack passwords by replacing characters of a dictionary word with numbers
and symbols.
C. An attempt to crack passwords using a combination of characters, numbers, and symbols.
D. An attempt to crack passwords by replacing characters with numbers and symbols.

37. Which form of encryption does WPA use?
A. Shared key
B. LEAP
C. TKIP
D. AES

38. What is the best statement for taking advantage of a weakness in the security of an IT
system?
A. Threat
B. Attack
C. Exploit
D. Vulnerability

39. Which database is queried by Whois?
A. ICANN
B. ARIN
C. APNIC
D. DNS

40. Having individuals provide personal information to obtain a free offer provided through
the Internet is considered what type of social engineering?
A. Web-based
B. Human-based
C. User-based
D. Computer-based
Tally shorcut key
Delete Esc
delete a voucher/delete a master Alt + D
Create a Master Alt + C
Cancel a Voucher Alt + X
C Ctrl + A
Toggle between invoice and voucher Ctrl + V
Insert a voucher Alt + I
Create duplicate a voucher Alt + 2
Switch to Calculator
Acconting vouchers shortcuts
Contra Entry F4
Payment Entry F5
Receipt Entry F6
Journal Entry F7
Sales Entry F8
Purchase F9
Debit Note Ctrl + F9

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MCQ on Fundamental of Computer

2. The basic operations performed by a computer are

3. The two major types of computer chips are

4. Microprocessors as switching devices are for which generation computers

5. The brain of any computer system is

6. Chief component of first generation computer was

8. Which of the following IC was used in third generation of computers?

9. Which of the following was a special purpose computer?

12. Which of the following is not an input device?

13. When was vacuum tube invented?

15. Computers with 80286 microprocessor is

17. Abacus was the first

19. Properly arranged data is called

20. A computer consists of

21. John Napier invented Logarithm in

22. An integrated circuit is

23. Which of the following is used as a primary storage device?

24. A byte consists of

25. The term gigabyte refers to

2. How many ways you can save a document?

4. Single spacing in MS-WORD document causes ____ point line spacing?

7. How many columns can you insert in a word document in maximum?

15. How much space in minimum must be provided between columns?

16. What is the smallest width of a column?

17. By default, your document prints with:

19. What is the default left margin in Word 2003 document?

22. The minimum number of rows and columns in MS Word document is

24. Pressing F8 key for three times selects

26. What is a Document Outline View?

33. What is the shortcut key to split a table?

34. Which key is used to increase left indent?

36. Which of the following is the second step in creating a macro?

38. Which of the following command is not available in Tools menu?

40. Which option is not available in Insert Table Autofit behavior?

41. When you click on File menu in Word 2010, it opens

42. Tabs stop position cannot be the following alignment

44. To move the cursor page to page of document

45. You can jump to the next column by

48. What is the default font used in MS Word 2007 document?

51. Which of the following is not a type of page margin?

53. Which of the following is not on Home ribbon?

56. You cannot close MS Word application by

60. Which feature do you use to create a newspaper like document?

65. What is the shortcut key for Spelling Check in document?

66. What is the shortcut key to Update Formula in a table?

67. What is the shortcut key for "Font" dialog box?

. What is extension of files created in MS-Excel 97-2003

2. What is extension of files created in MS-Excel 2007-2015

5. Which is the correct formula for SUM Function in MS Excel.

6. What is the use of VLOOKUP function in MS Excel -

8. What is the Shortcut key for "Current Date" in Excel

9. What is the Shortcut key for "Current Time" in Excel

10. What is the shortcut to insert comment in MS Excel

11. Which function in MS Excel counts the number of characters in a Cell

13. What is the shortcut key of Hyperlink in Excel

14. What is the Shortcut key for select Complete Row

15. What is the Shortcut key for select Complete Column

16. What is the intersection of a column and row on worksheet called ?

18. The Software which contains rows and column is called -