Clin Pathology mcq1
Clin Pathology mcq1
Clin Pathology mcq1
A. Factor XII
B. Thrombin
C. Tissue factor
D. Factor X
E. Prekallikrein
A. The extrinsic system is activated first, and then the intrinsic system is turned on
later
B. The intrinsic system is weak and short-lived
C. The extrinsic system is only important in vitro
D. Factors V and VII are only important in vitro
A. ATIII
B. Protein C
C. TFPI
D. Plasmin
E. t-PA
A. XII
B. X
C. VIII
D. VII
E. II
A. PT (INR)
B. PTT
C. TT
D. Closure time
E. Bleeding time
11. Patients with which of the following diseases may have a normal PTT?
ANSWER:
a. Ristocetin cofactor
b. Factor VII assay
c. Test for anticardiolipin antibodies
d. all of the above.
15.People with advanced cystic fibrosis are likely to have a clotting disorder marked
by an abnormality of which of the following tests?
a. PT
b. aPTT
c. both
d. neither
The correct answer is: C
16.Referring to the previous question about people with cystic fibrosis, the reason
they have abnormal clotting is:
a. Because of their chronic hypoxia they are unusually clumsy and therefore injure
themselves more frequently.
b. They have trouble absorbing fats, and by extension fat soluble vitamins.
c. Their excessive infections make them excessively prone to DIC.
d. This CF gene is closely linked to the factor VIII gene, and they are more likely to
inherit both.
a. Quantity
b. Quality
c. Both
d. Neither
a. A prolonged PT
b. A prolonged aPTT
c. High incidence of venous thrombosis
d. Placental infarction and fetal loss
a. When injected subcutaneously for the first time, Coumadin can cause a significant
vasospasm.
b. Sometimes crystalline forms of Coumadin can cause platelet aggregation.
c. This picture is actually an example of post phlebitic syndrome, and is not related
to Coumadin at all.
d. Factor C and S are also vitamin K dependent proteins, and in people heterozygous
for C deficiency, the level of factor C drops faster than the II, VII, IX and X.
a. The vein in which the thrombus formed will never work the same again.
b. The doctor probably forgot about the importance of compression stockings.
c. The patient may have experienced another thrombotic event.
d. All of the above.
22.Remembering the business about Leiden factor V is important for all the
following reasons except
a. It’s an interesting example of a protein once turned on, cannot be turned off.
b. The mutation occurs only in men.
c. It’s present in 5% of the Caucasian population.
d. If I don’t think about it, I’ll never diagnose when it actually comes along.
A. N-acetyl-D-neuraminic acid
B. L-fucose
C. N-acetyl-D-galactosamine
D. N-acetyl-D-glucosamine
1-The mating of parents of which two ABO phenotypes can potentially produce
offspring with ALL of the common four blood types?
A. AB and O
B. AB and A
C. AB and AB
D. A and B
E. AB and B
2-The mating of parents of which two ABO phenotypes can potentially produce
offspring with ALL of the common four blood types?
A. AB and O
B. AB and A
C. AB and AB
D. A and B
E. AB and B
F. None of the above
3-Bombay phenotype (Oh) individuals may have antibodies with all the following
specificities EXCEPT:
A. Anti-A
B. Anti-B
C. Anti-H
D. Anti-O
E. Anti-A,B
A. A2 and O
B. A1 and A2
C. O and AB
D. B and AB
E. A1 and B
A. H
B. H and A
C. H and B
D. H and O
E. None
7-The ABO system is the most important blood group system in transfusion
safety. Why?
A. ABO is the only blood group system in which reciprocal antibodies are
normally produced for the antigens an individual lacks AND the ABO antibodies
are capable of causing rapid, intravascular hemolysis
B. Reactions with ABO antibodies are the most common cause of transfusion-
related death
C. Regardless of maternal and fetal ABO type, ABO antibodies are implicated
in hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)
D. Routine ABO forward and reverse grouping is difficult to interpret and
fraught with error
E. All of the above
8- Of the following choices, the most common source of ABO discrepancies is:
A. Bombay phenotype
B. An individual who is not a secretor
C. Clerical errors or a sample mix-up
D. Use of an uncalibrated centrifuge
E. Patient with acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)
9-An ABO discrepancy between forward and reverse grouping owing to weak-
reacting or missing antibodies could be BEST explained by which of the
following:
10-A blood donor has the genotype hh, AB. What is his apparent red cell
phenotype during routine forward and reverse group typing?
A. A
B. B
C. O
D. AB
E. Cannot be determined
12-All of the following statements are TRUE regarding the A2 blood group
EXCEPT:
13-Which of the following genes codes for production of the same basic
antigen as the H gene?
A. O
B. Le
C. Lu
D. Se
E. None of the above
A. It is generally mild
B. It may occur during the first pregnancy
C. It is usually seen with group O mothers
D. A negative fetal DAT doesn’t exclude the diagnosis
E. It is second in frequency to Rh HDFN
15-All of the following should be irradiated before they are given to an
immunocompromised patient EXCEPT:
A. Whole Blood.
B. Peripheral stem cell reinfusions.
C. Granulocyte transfusions.
D. Apheresis platelets.
E. Leukocyte-reduced RBCs.
16-From the following list, choose the factor that does NOT decrease the
measurable response to platelet transfusion:
A. Fever
B. ABO incompatibility
C. Rh incompatibility
D. Recipient HLA antibodies
E. Splenomegaly
F. Amphotericin B therapy
17-From the following list, choose the factor that does NOT decrease the
measurable response to platelet transfusion:
A. Fever
B. ABO incompatibility
C. Rh incompatibility
D. Recipient HLA antibodies
E. Splenomegaly
F. Amphotericin B therapy
18-
19-What if the person described in the previous question had been AB-
negative? Which of the following red cell types would be acceptable to give
him? (CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY)
A. AB positive
B. A negative
C. O positive
D. O negative
E. B positive
20-A 40 year old female loses 15% of her blood volume as a result of an
accidental arterial laceration during a hysterectomy. The most
appropriate immediate therapy is:
A. Crystalloids
B. Colloids
C. Crystalloids and packed red cells
D. FFP and packed red cells
E. Whole blood
21-A 55 year old male has a gastrointestinal hemorrhage and drops his
hematocrit from 45% to 19%. A bleeding arteriovenous malformation is
resected, and the patient stabilizes. The clinician calls you to ask what
level he should expect the patient's hematocrit to rise to if he gives him 4
units of red blood cells. You say:
A. About 23%
B. About 25%
C. About 27%
D. About 31%
E. About 35%
From the list below, choose the blood product that does NOT have a
decreased risk of transmission of cytomegalovirus (CMV).
A. Irradiated platelets
B. Blood from a CMV-seronegative donor
C. Deglycerolized red blood cells
D. Red cells leukocyte reduced by filtration
E. Washed red blood cells
VIROLOGY
2
The genetic alteration of a cell's genome is called
transformation
A)
reverse transcription
B)
genome conversion
C)
invasion
D)
3
The CD8+ cell antiviral factor (CAF) is used to
4
The function of the drug AZT is to
5
Influenza subtypes differ in their
protein spikes
A)
capsid composition
B)
capsule composition
C)
6
When a bacteriophage is integrated into a cellular genome it is called
a
virulent virus
A)
lytic virus
B)
prophage
C)
transducing virus
D)
microphage
E)
7
The infectious substance of prions is
protein
A)
glycophosphate
B)
RNA
C)
DNA
D)
glycoprotein
E)
8
Viruses are considered to be
non-living
A)
primitive organisms
D)
9
Each HIV particle possesses a glycoprotein called __________ on its
surface
CD4
A)
gp120
B)
CXCR4
C)
gp8
D)
nef
E)
10
The only structural pattern that has been found among isometric
viruses is
icosahedral
A)
spherical
B)
helical
C)
tetrahedral
D)
capsular
E)
11
__________ are small naked fragments of RNA that infect plant cells.
Prions
A)
Nucleons
B)
Prophages
C)
Macrophages
D)
Viroids
E)
12
Viruses that cause lysis in host cells are called
temperate viruses
A)
phagocytic viruses
B)
prions
C)
virulent viruses
D)
infectious viruses
E)
13
_________ is the virus causing fever blisters
Herpes simplex
A)
Chlamydia
B)
Epstein-Barr virus
C)
Human papillomavirus
D)
Lyme disease
E)
14
Which of the following is not a viral disease?
mumps
A)
measles
B)
chicken pox
C)
rubella
D)
diphtheria
E)
15
An example of an emerging virus is
Herpes
A)
polio
B)
rubella
C)
CJD
D)
Ebola
E)
16
Copying the HIV virus' nucleic acid depends on
replicase
A)
reverse transcriptase
B)
transcriptase
C)
reverse replicase
D)
nucleases
E)
17
Persons infected with HIV may not develop AIDS because the virus
has the ________ gene.
CAF
A)
gag
B)
pol
C)
nef
D)
env
E)
18
________ may prevent HIV replication by binding with the CD4
receptor.
gp120
A)
CXCR4
B)
Reverse transcriptase
C)
CCR5
D)
Chemokines
E)
19
Typically, viruses form _______________ around their nucleic acid.
an envelope
A)
a cell wall
B)
a capsid
C)
a cell membrane
D)
a capsule
E)
20
Viruses are most conveniently thought of as
lost chromosomes
A)
prions
D)
escaped genomes
E)
21
In AIDS patients, the virus homes in on the _______________ T cells.
CD1+
A)
CD2+
B)
CD3+
C)
CD4+
D)
CD5+
E)
22
The viral enzyme, _________, causes the host cell to synthesize a
double strand of DNA complementary to the viral RNA.
reverse transcriptase
A)
chemokinase
B)
virase
C)
replicase
D)
antiscriptase
E)
23
The first virus to be purified was the
flu virus
A)
smallpox virus
C)
polio virus
D)
plague virus
E)
24
When a virus kills the infected host cell in which it is replicating, the
reproductive cycle is called a ________ cycle.
lysogenic
A)
phagocytic
B)
lytic
C)
viroidal
D)
endocytic
E)
25
Of the viruses listed below, the most lethal is
influenza
A)
Ebola
B)
measles
C)
herpes simplex
D)
Epstein-Barr
E)
26
Viruses have an overall structure that is
spherical
A)
isometric
B)
icosahedron
C)
helical
D)
27
The basic structure of a virus contains:
a nucleic acid
A)
a cell wall
B)
a protein coat
C)
both a and b
D)
both a and c
E)
28
Which of the following are not matched correctly:
29
Viruses are more closely related to chemical matter than to a living
organism.
True
A)
False
B)
30
New strains of influenza continually arise because the virus mutates
and recombines the gene encoding the protein that makes it
resistant to antibodies.
True
A)
False
B)
31
The HIV virus uses the host cell's reverse transcriptase to
manufacture DNA.
True
A)
False
B)
32
Some viruses enter the cell through endocytosis.
True
A)
False
B)
33
HIV binds to the human white blood cell receptor protein CD4.
True
A)
False
B)
34
HIV is a DNA virus.
True
A)
False
B)
35
Viruses and bacteria are the only infectious agents found in plants
and animals.
True
A)
False
B)
b. the cell wall has extensions that fit particular envelope molecules
on the virus
38.
What type of nucleic acid do retroviruses contain?
.
a. RNA
b. DNA
c. reverse transcriptase
d. proteins
Your answer:
a living host cell
a vaccine
a high body temperature
sunlight, water, and food
Your answer:
weakened or dead versions of a dangerous virus.
antibiotics.
human white blood cells.
medicines that cure the symptoms of viral diseases.
Your answer:
smallpox
AIDS
polio
measles
Your answer:
a doctor gives a person a measles vaccine.
a person becomes immune to chicken pox after contracting it.
a person catches a cold.
after contracting influenza once, a person can contract it
again.
Bacteriology
1
The most commonly The encountered bacteria are roughly spherical. The microbiological
term describing this shape is
coccus
A)
bacillus
B)
pleomorphic
C)
15
Gram positive cells
have thick,
A) homogeneous cell
walls.
have large amounts of
B) teichoic acids.
do not have an outer
C) membrane.
all of the above are
D) true.
16
The outer membrane of Gram negative cells is more permeable than
the plasma membrane because
LPS is larger than
A) most membrane
phospholipids.
lipoproteins stretch the
B) outer membrane.
porin proteins
C) establish holes in the
outer membrane.
the core
D) polysaccharide spans
the lipid bilayer.
17
The most important role of the prokaryotic cell wall is to
maintain the shape of
A) the cell.
protect the cell from
B) osmotic pressures.
prevent ions from
C) diffusing away from
the cell.
block the effects of
D) antibiotics like
penicillin.
18. Which of the following is not true about capsules and slime layers?
They consist of
A) secreted material lying
outside of the bacterial
cell wall.
They can prevent
B) desiccation of bacteria
cells.
They are required for
C) bacteria to grow
normally in culture.
They help bacteria
D) resist phagocytosis by
macrophages.
19
Fimbriae
attach bacteria to
A) various surfaces.
cause bacteria move
B) through fluids.
sense changes in
C) nutrient concentration.
are pathways for the
D) secretion of
exoenzymes.
20
A bacillus bacterium with a single flagellum at each end is described
as
Monotrichous
A)
Amphitrichous
B)
Lophotrichous
C)
Peritrichous
D)
21
Which of the following is not true about bacterial flagella?
Most of their length consists of a hollow,
A)
rigid protein tube.
They are constructed largely of a single
B)
protein called flagellin.
They spin like wheels, either clockwise or
C)
counterclockwise.
They use cytoplasmic ATP as their primary
D)
energy source.
22
The flagellar filament grows by
enzymatic addition of subunits to the tip of
A)
the flagellum.
enzymatic addition of subunits to the base of
B)
the flagellum.
self-assembly of subunits traveling through
C)
the hollow flagellum to the tip.
self-insertion of subunits along the length of
D)
the filament.
23
How does a bacterium control the direction of swimming?
The length of the
A) flagellum acts as a
rudder to steer the
bacterium.
The speed of rotation
B) is faster when the
bacterium is headed
the correct way.
The bacterium can
C) stop and spin until it is
pointed the correct
way.
The bacterium does
D) not control the
direction of its
swimming.
24
The methyl-accepting chemotaxis proteins of bacteria
are directly connected
A) to the flagellar motor
to guide the bacterium.
can only sense
B) conditions that are
favorable for bacterial
growth.
integrate multiple
C) signals through a two
component phospho-
relay system.
tell the bacterium
D) which way to go.
25
Bacteria accomplish chemotaxis by
Steering toward better
A) growth conditions.
Making long,
B) uninterrupted runs
when conditions are
good.
Frequently stopping
C) and tumbling to better
sense good conditions.
Stopping movement
D) when conditions are
good.
26
What is the purpose of bacterial endospores?
Allow the bacterium to
A) make hundreds of
"seeds" to spread on
the wind.
Help the bacterium to
B) differentiate into faster
growing stages of
bacteria.
Allow the bacterium to
C) survive the absence of
oxygen.
Allow the bacterium to
D) survive extended
periods of heat or
dryness.
27
Grinding and mixing of foods such as sausage and hamburger
increase the food surface area.
A)
alter cellular structure.
B)
distribute contaminating microorganisms throughout the fo
C)
All of the above.
D)
None of the above.
E)
3
Which is NOT true about aflatoxins?
Cause frameshift mutations
A)
Are carcinogenic
B)
Are alkaloids
C)
Fluoresce
D)
Have been found in beer
E)
28
There is an increased sensitivity to aflatoxins in individuals previously
infected with
hepatitis B.
A)
measles.
B)
mumps.
C)
chickenpox.
D)
rabies.
E)
29
Complex algal toxins, most of which are temperature stable, are known t
cause peripheral neurological system effects, often in less than ________
after ingestion.
one hour
A)
two hours
B)
three hours
C)
four hours
D)
five hours
E)
30
Louis Pasteur established the modern era of food microbiology in 1857
when he showed that microorganisms cause ______ spoilage.
beer
A)
wine
B)
juice
C)
milk
D)
grain
E)
31
Several major brands of beer are ______ rather than pasteurized to bett
preserve the flavor and aroma of the original product.
centrifuged
A)
precipitated
B)
filtered
C)
heat-treated
D)
All of the above
E)
32
Which of the following terms describes organisms that thrive in the cold?
Mesophiles
A)
Thermophiles
B)
Psychrophiles
C)
Aerophiles
D)
Basophiles
E)
33
Despite efforts to eliminate spoilage organisms during canning, sometime
canned foods are spoiled. This may be due to
spoilage before canning.
A)
underprocessing during canning.
B)
leakage of contaminated water through can seams during
C) cooling.
All of the above.
D)
None of the above.
E)
34
The effectiveness of many chemical preservatives depends primarily on t
food
temperature.
A)
pH.
B)
water content.
C)
acidity.
D)
All of the above.
E)
35
Sodium nitrite is responsible for
protecting against botulism.
A)
reducing rate of spoilage.
B)
maintenance of red color in meat.
C)
All of the above.
D)
None of the above.
E)
36
Which is NOT true of the bacterium produced by Streptococcus lactis?
A small hydrophobic protein
A)
Nontoxic to humans
B)
Affects mainly Gram-negative bacteria
C)
Improves inactivation of C. botulinum during the canning
D) process
Inhibits germination of any surviving C. botulinum spores
E)
37
E. coli O157:H7 is thought to have acquired enterohemorrhagic genes fr
Clostridium
A)
Bacillus
B)
Campylobacter
C)
Shigella
D)
Listeria
E)
38
The main reservoir of Staphylococcus aureus is
human feces.
A)
human nasal cavity.
B)
human red blood cells.
C)
All of the above.
D)
None of the above.
E)
39
A major advance in the detection of foodborne pathogens is the use of
standardized pathogen DNA patterns, or "foodborne pathogen ________
fingerprinting.
A)
plasmid patterns.
B)
chromosomal patterns.
C)
polymerase chain reaction.
D)
All of the above.
E)
40
Which type of fermentation is used to produce yogurt?
Mesophilic
A)
Thermophilic
B)
Therapeutic
C)
Yeast-lactic fermentations
D)
Mold-lactic fermentations
E)
42Inherited
retinoblastoma requires
____ mutation(s) or
deletion(s).
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
43
In which of the human cells listed below is telomerase active?
A) blood
B) bone
C) muscle
D) sperm
44
Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells?
A) loss of cell cycle control
B) transplantability
C) loss of contact inhibition
D) all are characteristic
45
The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with which type of cancer
A) breast
B) thyroid
C) nerve
D) leukemia
46
BRCA-1 is associated with which cancer?
A) breast
B) thyroid
C) nerve
D) leukemia
47
If 85% of lung cancer cases occur in heavy smokers, can lung cancer sti
have a genetic origin?
A) yes
B) no
48
An increasing number of women in the rural south die from ____ can
A) breast
B) colon
C) lung
D) mouth
49
Which of the following statements about telomerase is incorrect?
A) It is an enzyme that adds DNA to telomeres.
B) It serves as the template for telomeres lengthenin
C) It is not activated in cancer cells.
D) Its activity continually resets the cellular clock.
50
Familial cancer is caused by
A) a mutation in somatic cells only.
B) a mutation in germline cells only.
a germline mutation plus a somatic mutation in
C)
affected tissue.
D) two germline mutations.
51
A cancerous tumor eventually grows faster than surrounding tissues
because a greater proportion of its cells are dividing. True or false?
A) true
B) false
52
Which type of cancer in humans is directly caused by a viral infection?
A) acute T cell leukemia
B) Wilms' tumor
C) Burkitt's lymphoma
D) Rous sarcoma