Chemistry (XII) MCQ - S PDF
Chemistry (XII) MCQ - S PDF
Chemistry (XII) MCQ - S PDF
Qs
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CHAPTER # 1
Periodic Classification of Elements & Periodicity
(A) 10 (B) 14
(C) 28 (C) 30
(A) K (B) Cs
(C) Na (D) None
(A) F (B) Fr
(B) S (C) Be.
(A) Mg (B) Rb
(C) Li (C) CI
10. Gradual addition of electronic shells in the noble gases causes a decrease in their
13. Which of the following element has the maximum electron affinity?
(A) F (B) S
(C) I (D) CI.
14. Which of the following is isoelectronic as well as has the same structure as that of N2O ?
(A) 5 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
a. Increase b Decrease
c. Remain constant d. No regular trend
a) Atomic number
b) Molecular weight
c) Chemical properties
d) Electronic configuration
a) Transition elements
b) Inert elements
c) Typical elements
d) Rare earth elements
36. What is the symbol of the element with only three electrons and three protons?
a) Li b) C
c) Ag d) Cu
37. Elements with seven electrons in their valence shell are known as
a) Inert b) Lanthanides
c) Halogens d) Alkali metals
38. Which of the following pairs of elements are chemically most similar?
a) Na and Al b) Cu and Cu
c) S and F d) Sc and Zn
39. A student of chemistry will identify positively the following symbols as sodium
23 40
a) W
11
b) X
19
26 32
c) Y
13
d) Z
16
40. In the periodic table each period begins with a metal, which is
a) Most electronegative
b) Most electropositive
c) Less electropositive
d) Less electronegative
a) Au b) Cu
c) Ag d) Pd
a) Lithium b) Beryllium
c) Boron d) Carbon
43. The outer most orbital involved in chemical bonding is called
a) Electropositive b) Electronegative
c) Inert d) None of these
a) Na2O b) MgO
c) Al2O3 d) P2O3
a) Neptunium b) Plutonium
c) Thorium d) Tritium
a) Electropositive b) Electronegative
c) Neutral d) None of these
51. Excluding hydrogen and helium, the smallest elements in the periodic table is
a) Lithium b) Fluorine
c) Cesium d) Iodine
a) F b) Cl
c) Br d) I
53. The element with atomic number 7 is likely to have same properties to the element whose atomic
number is
a) 11 b) 2
c) 15 d) F
a) Br b) I -1
c) I d) F
a) Cs b) Cu
c) Sc d) Sr
56. Which two of the following are iso electronic with one another?
a) Americium b) Plutonium
c) Neptunium d) All of these
58. The hydrogen, which is present in the atmosphere of sun and stars in a large amount, is
a) H2 b) H
+ -
c) H d) H
a) Stable b) Unstable
c) No change d) None of these
a) Fluoride b) Chloride
c) Bromide d) Iodide
64. Which gas is used in the making of tungsten bulb filaments?
a) H2 b) N2
c) O2 d) CO2
65. The ionic halides in order of decreasing m.p and b.p can be arranges as
a) Iodide>bromide>chloride> fluoride
b) Bromide>chloride>fluoride>iodide
c) Chloride>bromide>iodide>fluoride
d) Fluoride>chloride>bromide>iodide
a) Protons b) Neutrons
c) Electrons d) All of these
a) Ionic b) Covalent
c) Interstitial d) Complex
a) Ionic b) Covalent
c) Interstitial d) Complex
a) PH3 b) NaH
c) LaH3 d) NaBH4
a) Hydrogenation b) Dehydrogenation
c) Occlusion d) Substitution
72. From left to right in a periodic table charge to mass ratio increases therefore the hydration energy
a) Decreases b) Increases
c) Remains constant d) None of these
a) 100 b) 110
c) 120 d) 150
74. _______ classified the then known elements
into metals, non metals and their derivatives.
a) Dobreiner b) Al – Razi
c) Newlands d) Mendeleeve
75. Dobreiner’s work led to the law of triads which states that ______
a) Dobreiner b) Al – Razi
c) Newlands d) None of these
a) s – block b) p – block
c) d – block d) f – block
a) 1 b) 2
c) 4 d) 6
a) F → F b) Cl → Cl
2
c) O → O d) H → H
a) Joule b) Calorie
c) Electron volt d) None
(A) Ca (B) Cr
(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
8. Which element is deposited at the cathode during the electrolysis of brine in Nelson's cell?
(A) H2 (B) Na
(C) CI2 (D) O2
(A) Be (B) Sr
(C) Rb (D) Cs
(A) Rb (B) K
(C) Sr (D) Li
(A) Be (B) Rb
(C) Both of the above (D) Na
(A) Be (B) Mg
(C) Ca (D) Ba
21. Potassium, rubidium and caeslium are so highly reactive that they react with ice even at .
O
(A) -100 C (B) -200OC
o o
(C) -50 C (D) -0 C
o
22. Among the alkaline earth metal which has least reactivity even upto 800 C
(A) Ba (B) Cs
(C) Li (D) Be
A) Sulphur B) Gypsum
C) Both of the above D) None of the above
(A) Lime
(B) Aluminium
(C) Aliminium and Manganese
(D) None of the above
(A) Mg (B) Na
(C) Rb (D) Li
30. The elements which are very abundant in earth crust are__________
a) Si & Aℓ b) Ca & Mg
c) B & Aℓ d) All
a) Acidic b) Basic
c) Amphoteric d) None
a) Low electronegativity
b) Low electropositivity
c) Low charge density
d) Not know yet
a) Francium b) Caesium
c) Rubidium d) Radium
a) Gypsum b) Dolomite
c) Sodium metal d) Sodium hydroxide
a) Ionic b) Covalent
c) Metallic d) Co-ordinate covalent
a) Li b) Na
c) K d) K and Rb
a) Sodium b) Potassium
c) Lithium d) Cesium
a) Spodumene b) Halite
c) Natron d) Sylvite
a) MgCO3 b) MgCO3.CaCO3
c) CaCO3 d) BaSO4
a) Green b) Violet
c) Blue d) Yellow
a) Mg b) Ca
c) Be d) Sr
47. Metals, which are higher that water, are
49. The carbonates and phosphates of which elements are insoluble in water
a) Na and K b) Na and Be
c) Li and Mg d) All of these
50. All alkaline earth metals react with water at room temperature to release hydrogen and give basic
solutions except
a) Be and Ca b) Be and Mg
c) Ca and Mg d) Mg and Sr
51. Lithium only forms normal oxides when burnt on air but when sodium burnt in air it forms
a) M2O b) M2O2
c) MO2 d) M2O3
53. The nitrates of which group decompose on heating with the formation of nitrites and evolution of
oxygen
a) IA b) II A
c) III A d) IV A
54. A small amount of calcium chloride or mixture of KCl and KF is added to NaCl in Down’s cell
a) NaOH b) NaHCO3
c) Na d) Na2CO3
a) Boron b) Gallium
c) Indium d) Thallium
59. Which alkali metal is rare and found in a small amount in all – igneous rocks?
a) Li b) Na
c) K d) Fr
a) NaHCO3 b) NaOH
c) Na2CO3 d) NaCl
a) CaSO4 b) CaSO4.H2O
c) CaSO4.2H2O d) 2CaSO4.H2O
a) CaO b) CaCO3
c) CaF2 d) NaOH
a) Water b) Alcohol
c) Ammonia d) Kerosene oil
a) NaCl b) NaBr
c) Nal d) NaF
a) Al2O3 b) SiO2
c) P2O5 d) MgO
66. Gypsum is
a) CaSO4.2H2O b) CaSO4.H2O
c) CaSO4 d) MgSO4
67. Which one is commonly used as a
laboratory desicator?
a) Na2CO3 b) NaCl
c) CaCl3 d) NaOH
a) Be b) Mg
c) Ra d) Ba
69. Which one of the following elements has its compounds which are diamagnetic and colourless?
a) Be b) Sr
c) Na d) All of these
a) Ag b) Au
c) Ra d) Os
a) Na2SO4 b) CaSO4
c) CaCl2 d) All of these
a) Greater I.P of K
b) Greater I.P of Na
c) More electropositivity of K
d) More electropositivity of Na
a) Na b) Rb
c) Fr d) Cs
74. The chemical use for the production of CO2 in the fire extinguishers is
a) NaOH
b) NaCl
c) NaHCO3 and dilute acid
d) NaHCO3 and NaOH
76. Which compound is used for uric acid treatment in human beings?
a) Na2CO3 b) NaHCO3
c) Li2CO3 d) NaNO3
a) Na b) K
c) Ca d) Cs
a) Marble b) Gypsum
c) Epsom salt d) Baking soda
a) Cubic b) Monoclinic
c) Hexagonal d) Orthorhombic
80. Potassium super oxide (KO2) is used in breathing equipments for mountaineers and space craft
because it absorb
81. The hydroxide, which is called milk of magnesium and is used for treatment of acidity in stomach,
is
a) Ca(OH)2 b) Mg(OH)2
c) Sr(OH)2 d) Ba(OH)2
+2 +1
82. Mg is smaller the Na because
+2 +1
a) Mg has fewer electron than Na
+2 +1
b) Mg has greater electron than Na
+2 +1
c) Mg has greater atomic number than Na
+2 +1
d) Mg has low I.P than Na
a) Be, B b) B, Al
c) Be, Al d) K, Na
84. A mixture formed by mixing one volume of slaked lime Ca(OH)2 with three or four volume of sand
and water to form a thick paste is called
85. If the compound has the same crystal structure and analogous formulae, they are called
a) Isotopes b) Allotropes
c) Isomers d) Isobars
a) K b) Rb
c) Cs d) Li
a) Benzene b) Kerosene
c) Alcohol d) Water
a) NaNO2 b) KNO2
c) NaNO3 d) KNO3
a) Monoatomic b) Diatomic
c) Triatomic d) None of these
a) Reducing agents
b) Oxidizing agents
c) Both reducing and oxidizing agents
d) None of these
a) Na+ ions
b) Conduction electrons
c) Free protons
d) A body centered cubic lattice
a) Stable b) Unstable
c) Soluble d) None of these
a) NaOH b) KOH
c) LiOH d) HCl
a) Zn(OH)2 b) ZnH2ZA
c) Na2ZnO2 d) ZnO
a) CaClO2 b) Ca(ClO4)2
c) Ca(ClO3)2 d) Ca(ClO2)2
2. Aluminum oxides is
13. Aluminum is the third most abundant elements in earth crust after.
15. Which of the elements of Group IIA are rare and only obtained as by-products.
17. Borax occurs as natural deposit called tincal in the dried up lakes of.
26. Boron occurs in traces and has been found to be important for the growth of.
29. Substance which is found in dried up lakes of Tibet and California is______
32. Which of the following does not give Borax bead test?
a) Cu b) Cr
c) Ni d) Al
a) Iron b) Copper
c) Aluminium d) Zinc
a) Boron b) Carbon
c) Silicon d) Tin
a) Al b) Si
c) B d) C
36. Because of its ability to combine with both oxygen and nitrogen, aluminium metal is
used_________
a) As nitrometer
b) To remove air bubbles from molten metal
c) To produce alloy
d) All
a) CH3 b) –OH
c) OCH3 d) O2
a) Soil porosity
b) Proper growth of plants
c) Alkalinity of soil
d) All
a) Heat resistant
b) Low melting
c) Used to prepare chemical garden
d) All
40. In p – block elements, the S – electrons of outer shell of the heavier members are failed to
participate in bonding, because they
41. The tendency of the pair of S – electron to remain inert increase with the increase in
42. Boron does not easily form cations, because it has the tendency to form bond like non-metal
a) Be b) K
c) Si d) Al
a) Cubic b) Monoclinic
c) Hexagonal d) Trigonal
47. The compound, which is used in borax bead test for cations analysis, is
a) NaOH b) H3BO3
c) Na2B4O7.10H2O d) H2B4O7
49. The aqueous solution of which acid is used for washing eyes?
a) H2B4O7 b) HCl
c) H3BO3 d) HBO2
o
50. The process in which Bauxite is purified by dissolving it in 45% aqueous NaOH at 150 C to
separate insoluble iron oxide as red mud is called
a) Cu b) Ag
c) Al d) Zn
53. In the electrolysis of alumina is mixed with Cryolite (Na3AlF6) and fluorspar (CaF2) in the ratio of
20 : 60 : 20. the function of the Cryolite and fluorspar is
a) To decrease the fusion temperature of alumina and to make good conductor of electricity
b) To dissolve alumina
c) To dissolve sodium
d) To increase the ionization of alumina
a) Duralumin b) Alnico
c) Magnalium d) Aluminium bronze
57. Cupric oxide on heating with B2O3 yields blue colored beads in the oxidizing flame because
a) Al2O3 b) AlN
c) Al(OH)3 d) AlCl3
60. Which of the following can form nitride, which react with water to give ammonia?
a) Boron b) Gallium
c) Indium d) Thallium
61. The weak acid, which cannot be titrated with standard alkies, is
a) HCl b) H2SO4
c) H3BO3 d) All of these
62. Carbon differs from other members of its group due to smaller atomic size, higher
electronegativity and the absence of
a) s – electrons b) p – electrons
c) d – electrons d) All of these
63. Aqua regia is a mixture of concentrated HNO3 and concentrated HCl in the ratio of
a) 3 : 1 b) 1 : 3
c) 2 : 3 d) 3 : 2
66. In the contact process for the manufacturing of H2SO4, the catalyst used is
a) Cu b) Ni
c) Pt d) N2O5
a) Cu b) Sn
c) Al d) Ni
o
68. Ortho boric acid on heating at 100 C yields
a) MgBr2 b) NaCl
c) AgBr d) Na2S2O3
70. Aluminum does not react with HNO3 at any concentration and therefore HNO3 is transported in
aluminum containers, this is due to formation of protective layer of
a) HNO3 b) HCl
c) H2SO4 d) Chlorine
a) B b) Al
c) Ga d) Tl
a) (SiO2)n b) (CO2)n
c) (CH2 – CH2)n d) None of these
75. If a metal is protected by an oxide layer from further attack, the metal is said to be
a) Reactive b) Active
c) Passive d) Attractive
a) Hydrides b) Oxides
c) Hydroxides d) Carbide
77. The control addition of III A and IV A members in Silicon and Germanium is known as
78. P – type of semi conductor are formed by mixing Silicon or Germanium with members of
a) III A b) IV A
c) V A d) VI A
a) PbO b) PbO2
c) Pb3O4 d) Pb(CH3COO)
a) B b) Ga
c) In d) Ti
a) Boron b) Aluminum
c) Indium d) Thallium
a) Acidic b) Basic
c) Neutral d) None of these
o
84. Orthoboric acid on heating to about 100 C
looses a water molecule to form ______
a) Metaboric acid
b) Pyroboric acid
c) Metaboric and pyroboric acid
d) None of these
a) As a catalyst
b) To lower the temperature of the melt and to
make the fused mixture conducting.
c) To decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon
at the anode.
d) None of the above
a) Goldschmidt’s reaction
b) Silberchemdit’s reaction
c) Baeyer’s reaction
d) Zilch’s reaction
a) Alumina b) Gypsum
c) Borax d) None of these
a) Deoxidizer b) Confectionary
c) Indoor photography d) Thermite welding
a) NaNO3 b) NaCl
c) NaHCO3 d) Na2CO3
a) Isotopes b) Allotropes
c) Isobars d) None of these
a) Li b) Si
c) Be d) B
a) Cl4 b) SnI4
c) GeI4 d) PbI4
a) P4O6 b) P4O8
c) P4O9 d) None of these
CHAPTER # 4
Group V and VI Elements
(A) Sb (B) N
(C) P (D) As
6. Out of all the elements of group IVA the highest melting and boiling point is shown by
the elements;
(A) Te (B) Se
(C) S (D) Pb
9. Which of the following specie has the maximum number of unpaired electrons.
+
(A) O2 (B) O2
- -2
(C) O2 (D) O2
a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus
c) Carbon d) Bismuth
a) Homogenous equilibrium
b) Heterogenous equilibrium
c) Sulphonation
d) Dilution
a) P b) C
c) B d) N
a) FeSO4.NO b) FeSO4.NO2
c) FeSO4.NO3 d) None of above
a) P2O3 b) P2O5
c) H3PO3 d) All have same smell
a) Hygroscopic b) Metals
c) Polymeric d) All of above
a) 1 b) 3
c) Zero d) 1 & 3
35. The properties of Nitrogen is different from other members of its group to
36. Nitrogen can not as a central metal atom in a complex because it can not
a) Unpaired electrons
b) Odd number of electrons
c) Paramagnetic
d) All of these
a) PCl5 b) PBr5
c) PF5 d) Pl5
a) S b) Te
c) Po d) Mg
a) Monoatomic molecule
b) Diatomic molecules
c) Triatomic molecules
d) Tetra atomic molecules
45. The acid which has garlic like smell and is crystalline deliquescent is
a) H2SO4 b) HCl
b) H3BO3 d) HNO3
a) H2SO4 b) H3BO3
c) H3PO4 d) HNO3
47. Removal of arsenic oxide is very essential because it acts as a
a) Catalyst b) Activator
c) Catalytic poison d) Co-enzyme
a) Trigonal b) Octahedral
c) Tetrahedral d) Hexagonal
a) Zn b) Mo
c) Fe d) S
a) CO2 b) CH4
c) NO d) BF3
53. The starting material in Birkland and Eyde process for manufacturing of HNO3 is
a) NH3 b) NO2
c) Air d) NaNO3
a) White phosphorus
b) Gray phosphorus
c) Violet phosphorus
d) Red phosphorus
56. Consider
gentle heating
NH4NO3 Product
The product formed is
a) N2O b) N2
c) NO d) N2O3
a) N2O5 b) N2O4
c) N2O d) N2O3
a) Fe b) Cu
c) Zn d) Sn
a) Dutch Process
b) Birkland-Eyde’s Process
c) Solvay’s Process
d) Down’s Process
a) Zn b) Pt
c) CO d) None of these
a) S b) O
c) Pb d) Se
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 7
a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen
c) Ammonia d) None
a) SO2 b) MnO2
c) Al2O3 d) CrO3
a) Phyrosulphrous acid
b) Dichotomous acid
c) Dichotic acid
d) Pyrosulphuric acid
a) SO2 b) SO3
c) S d) H2S
a) KMnO4 is oxidized
b) KMnO4 is reduced
c) SO2 is reduced
d) KMnO4 solution turns green
CHAPTER # 5
Halogens and Noble Gases
9. Fluorine does not show positive oxidation states due to the absence of
13. Mark the element which shows only one oxidation state in its compounds
(A) F (B) CI
(C) Br (B) I.
14. Which of the following halogens has the highest bond energy ?
(A) F (B) CI
(C) Br (D) I.
(A) P (B) N
(C) F (D) I.
29. Which one of the following elements can have both positive and negative oxidation state?
(A) F (B) I
(C) Li (D) He.
(A) 1% (B) 2%
(C0 3% (D) 4%
38. Which of the following noble gases does not have an octet of electrons in its outermost
shell ?
(A) Inertness
(B) Gaseous nature
(C) High Polaris ability
(D) Weak Vander Waals forces b/w atoms
40. Which member of group VII A combines with one more halogen?
a) Cl b) F
c) Br d) I
a) 3 b) 5
c) 7 d) 8
a) F b) Cl
c) Br d) I
a) Br – Cl b) Br – F3
b) Br – F5 d) Br – I 7
45. Which one hydride has greater ionic character and had H – bond?
a) HF b) HBr
c) HCl d) HI
a) NaCl b) NaClO3
c) NaClO d) All of these
a) Kr b) Xe
c) Rn d) All of these
a) F b) Cl
c) Br d) I
a) HOCl b) HBrO3
c) HIO d) HOF
52. The increasing order of acidity and oxidizing power of Oxyacids due to increasing number of
oxygen atoms is
a) 30 – 35% b) 35 – 40%
c) 40 – 45% d) 45 – 50%
a) F b) Cl
c) Br d) I
a) HCl b) HF
c) HNO3 d) HClO4
a) F – Cl b) ClF3
c) BrF5 d) IF5
a) Aluminum b) Steel
c) Glass d) Carbon steel
a) Steel cylinders
b) Iron cylinders
c) Carbon steel cylinders
d) Glass cylinders
a) XeF2 b) XeF4
c) XeF6 d) All of the above
a) He b) Ne
c) Ar d) Kr
a) XeF2 b) XeF4
c) XeF6 d) XeF3
a) He b) CO2
c) NH3 d) SO2
a) Cl b) Br
c) I d) At
a) HF b) HCl
c) HBr d) HI
a) Br2O b) BrO2
c) BrO3 d) None
a) Chlorine b) Oxygen
c) H2S d) Nitrogen
a) HClO b) HClO2
c) HClO3 d) HClO4
a) Slaked lime
b) Conc. Solution of Mg(OH)2
c) Dry CaO
d) Dry slaked lime
a) P b) N
c) F d) I
a) F b) Cl
c) Br d) I
a) Xef b) XeF2
c) XeF4 d) XeF6
CHAPTER # 6.
Transition Elements
(A) Cr (B) Mn
(C) Zn (D) Fe
(A) Sc (B) Y
(C) Ra (D) Co
(A) [Pt(NH3)4(NO2)]SO4
(B) [Pt NO2CI (NH3)4]SO4
(C) [Pt CI (NO2)(NH3)]SO4
(D) [Pt (NH3)4(NO2)CI]SO4
9. Coordination number of Pt in
[t CI (NO2)(NH3)4]-2 is.
(A) 2- (B) 4
(C) 1 (D) 6
(A) 10 (B) 14
(C) 40 (D) 50
12. Substances which are weakly attracted by which type of force are called as paramagnetic
substances.
16. Zn has
(A) Yellow light is absorbed while blue and red light are transmitted
(B) Green light is absorbed
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
22. The nomenclature of complex compounds is based upon the recommendation by the
23. In writing the formula of a complex ion the usual practice is to place the symbol of the
(A) Dyeing
(B) Chrome tanning
(C) As an oxidizing agent
(D) All of the above are true
a) Diamagnetic b) Paramagnetic
c) Good conductor d) Ferromagnetic
33. When light is exposed to transition element, then electrons jumps from lower orbitals to
higher orbitals in___________
a) f-orbitals b) s-orbitals
c) p-orbitals d) d-orbitals
a) Ammonia b) Oxalate
c) Carbonyl d) Cyanide
a) no. of ligand
b) no. of chelates
c) hybridization of central metal
d) All of above
3
38. For sp d2 hybridization, the expected geometry will be_________
39. Any process of chemical decay of metals due to action of surrounding medium is called
_________
a) Surrounding b) Enamel
c) Corrosion d) Coating
40. When an active metal like Al come in contact with less active element like Cu, then it
produces _____
a) Ni b) Fe
c) Zn d) Mn
2+
42. In Ag the number of electrons in 4 d orbital is
a) 7 b) 8
c) 6 d) 9
43. A regular decrease in ionic and atomic radii across the lanthanides is called
a) Contraction
b) I.P
c) Lanthanide Contraction
d) Complex formation
44. The magnetic moment can be measured by
45. The magnetic moment is related to the number of unpaired electrons (n) by the equation
a) n n2 b) n(n 2)
c) n n2 d) n(n 2)
48. The number of ligands attached to the central metal atom or ion, usually varying from
a) 2 to 3 b) 2 to 4
c) 2 to 6 d) 2 to 7
a) Tetrahedral
b) Square planner
c) May be tetrahedral or square planner
d) Octahedral
a) Mild steel (0.1 – 0.2%C) and medium carbon steel (0.2 to 0.7%C)
b) Medium carbon steel (0.2 to 0.7%C) and high carbon steel (0.7 to 1.5%C)
c) Mild and high carbon steel
d) Mild medium and high carbon steel
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Five
52. EDTA is
a) Monodentate b) Bidentate
c) Polydentate d) None of these
a) 4 b) 5
c) 6 d) All of these
a) Co-ordination number
b) Type of hybridization of central metal atom
c) Chelates
d) Both a & b
a) 80% Cu b) 70% Cu
c) 60% Cu d) 50% Cu
a) 80% Cu + 20% Zn
b) 80% Cu + 20% Sn
c) 20% Cu + 80% Zn
d) 20% Cu + 80% Sn
a) CuSO4 b) CuSO4.3H2O
c) CuSO4.4H2O d) CuSO4.5H2O
a) Low b) High
c) Intermediate d) None of these
a) Haber process
b) Catalytic Hydrogenation
c) Oxidation of ammonia to nitric oxide
d) Contact process
a) Malachite b) Bauxite
c) Blue Vitriol d) Alumina
a) Haber process
b) Catalytic hydrogenation
c) Oxidation of ammonia to nitric acid
d) Polymerization of ethyle into polyethylene
a) Ferromagnetic b) Paramagnetic
c) Dimagnetic d) None of these
a) Square planar
b) Tetrahedral complexes
c) Octahedral complexes
d) None of these
2+
70. [Cu(NH3)4] is an example of _______
a) Square planar
b) Tetrahedral complexes
c) Octahedral complexes
d) None of these
3+
71. [Co(NH3)6] is an example of _______
a) Square planar
b) Tetrahedral complexes
c) Octahedral complexes
d) None of these
a) Cation b) Anion
c) Cathode b) Anode
a) A basic anhydride
b) An acid anhydride
c) An amphoteric anhydride
d) Green in colour
a) Fe b) Co
c) Ni d) Os
a) Softness b) Ductility
c) Brittleness d) Hardness
a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen
c) Carbon dioxide d) None of these
a) ZnCl2 b) Hg2Cl2
c) HdCl2 d) HgCl2
a) CrO42 b) Cr(OH)2
2
c) Cr2 O7 d) Cr(OH)3
CHAPTER # 7
Fundamental Principles of Organic Chemistry
14. At what temperature coal is heated in the observe of air for converting it into coke, coal
gas, and coal tar
o
(A) Temperature ranging from 500-1000 C
o
(B) Temperature ranging from 100-1000 C
o
(C) Temperature ranging from 300-2000 C
o
(D) Temperature ranging from 1000-3000 C
16. The structure of alkynes can be explained by yet another mode of hybridization called as
a) Very slow
b) Very fast
c) Medium
d) No regular character present
a) Animals b) Fossils
c) Wood d) Ores
a) –OH b) R-CO-R
c) R-O-R d) R-COOH
a) Metamerism
b) Functional group isomerism
c) Geometric isomerism
d) None of above
a) Aliphatic b) Aromatic
c) Carboxylic acid d) Aldehydes
a) sp2 b) sp
c) sp d) All
a) Pyrolysis b) Reforming
c) Polymerization d) Condensation
30. The fuel having 40% n-heptane & 60% iso-octane will have octane number
a) 40 b) 60
c) 80 d) 90
a) Benzene b) Cresol
c) Naphthalene d) Pyridine
a) n-pentane in a mixture
b) n-butane in a mixture
c) n-hexane in a mixture
d) 2, 2, 4 – trimethyl pentane in a mixture
34. During the fractional distillation of petroleum, paraffin oil boils between the ranges
o o
a) 25 C b) 40 – 180 C
o o
c) 175 – 275 C d) 220 – 350 C
a) EDTA b) NaOH
c) AgNO3 d) PB(C2H5)4
a) Pyrolysis b) Polymerization
c) Sublimation d) Addition
38. Which one is acyclic hydrocarbon?
a) C6H6 b) C2H6
c) C6H12 d) CH4
a) Chain isomerism
b) Position isomerism
c) Metamerism
d) Functional group isomerism
a) Position b) Chain
c) Functional group d) Metamerism
41. The members of which of these have similar methods of preparation and properties
a) Isomers b) Homologues
c) Polymers d) Monomers
42. The maximum number of isomers for an alkene with molecular formula C4H8 is
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
a) Alkane b) Alkene
c) Alkynes d) All of these
a) Alcohol b) Phenol
c) Aldehyde d) Carboxylic acid
a) CH3OH b) CCl3OH
c) CCl3CHO d) None of these
a) Methane b) Ethane
c) Propane d) Butane
a) Pyrolysis b) Cracking
c) Polymerization d) None of these
a) Polyethene b) Ethane
c) Methane d) None of these
a) Chain isomers
b) Position isomers
c) Functional group isomers
d) Metamers
56. The kind of isomerism which depends upon
the relative position of the functional group, or
the position of double or tripe bond in case of
unsaturated compounds is termed as
________
a) Chain isomerism
b) Position isomerism
c) Functional group isomerism
d) Metamerism
a) Chain isomerism
b) Position isomerism
c) Functional group isomerism
d) Metamerism
a) Chain isomerism
b) Position isomerism
c) Functional group isomerism
d) Metamerism
a) Pt b) Aluuminosilicate
c) Ni d) Tetra ethyl lead
a) Cube b) Hexagon
c) Prism d) Tetrahedron
a) An ether b) Ketone
c) An ester d) An acid hydride
a) C = C b) C ≡ C
c) C – C d) All of these
a) Alkanes b) Ethers
c) Alcohols d) Isomer
a) Formaldehyde b) Acetaldehyde
c) Propionaldehyde d) None of these
a) Acetone b) Ketone
c) Diethyl ketone d) None to these
a) CH3CN b) CH3CHO
c) CH3NH2 d) None
a) Hexane b) 2 – methlypentane
c) 2, 2 – dimethylbutane d) 3 – methlypentane
a. Completely satisfied
b. Partially satisfied
c. No satisfied
d. No general rules
a) Iso b) Normal
c) Neo d) Branched
a. Alkene
b. Alkyl
c. Aldehyde
d. Saturated hydrocarbon
a. Saturated hydrocarbon
b. Unsaturated hydrocarbon
c. Paraffins
d. a&c
6. Zn is a good___________
a) Carboxylation b) Decarboxylation
c) Esterification d) Hydroxylation
a. Grignard reagent
b. Wurtz reaction
c. Tollen’s reagent
d. Pinacol pinacolour reagent
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 6
a) I>Cl>Br>F b) F>Cl>I>Br
c) F>Cl>Br>I d) Cl>F>Br>I
a) C2H6 b) C2H4
c) C2H2 d) CH4
a) CnH2n+2 b) CnH2n-2
c) CnH2n d) CnH2n-x
a. sec>pri>ter
b. pri>sec>ter
c. ter>sec>pri
d. no specificity occurs
a. Halogenation
b. Dehalogenation
c. Dehydrohalogenation
d. Carbonations
a) Alkane b) Alkene
c) Alkyne d) b and c
a. Less reactivity
b. Addition reactions
c. Substitution reactions
d. None
a) Pb b) Sn
c) Ge d) C
a) Olefins b) Paraffins
c) Grignard’s reagent d) None of these
26. Methane and other members of paraffins do not react with aqueous solution of acids, alkalies,
KMnO4 or other oxidizing agents this lack of reactivity is due to its nature
a) Polar b) Nonpolar
c) Acidic d) Basic
27. Which hybrid orbital will form the compound CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH3
28. Which of the following types of reactions occur when a reactant has a double bond?
a) Substitution b) Addition
c) Photolysis d) Polymerization
29. Among the following orbital bonds, the angle is minimum between
a) n – hexane
b) n – pentane
c) 2 – methyl butane
d) 2, 2 – dimethyl propane
a) Dehydrogenation
b) Dehalogenation
c) Dehydrohalogenation
d) Dehydration
a) Phenol b) Benzene
c) Benzoic acid d) Ethanol
33. Baeyer’s test is use to detect the bond in an organic compound
35. When ethylene reacts with chlorine to form an oily product. This oily product is called
a) Ethane b) Ethene
c) Ethyne d) Ether
37. The positive part of the adding molecule will go to that carbon which has greater number of
hydrogen atoms. This statement is called
a) Hoffmann’s Rule
b) Baeyer’s Strain theory
c) Thiele’s theory
d) Markownikoff’s rule
a) Propane b) Ethene
c) Ethylene d) Acetylene
39. Metallic carbide on treatment with water gives out a colourless gas which burns readily in air and
gives a red precipitate with Cu2Cl2 + NH4OH. The gas is
a) CH4 b) C2H6
c) C2H4 d) C2H2
40. When acetylene reacts with 10% H2SO4 in the presence of HgSO4 yields
a) CH3OH b) CH3COOH
c) CH3CHO d) CH3OCH3
a) C2H4 b) C2H2
c) C2H6 d) C2H4O
a) C2H2 b) C2H4
c) C2H6 d) CH4
43. Treatment of propene with cold concentrated H2SO4 followed by boiling water forms
a) Propyne b) Propanol
c) Propanal d) 2 – Propanol
a) CH2 = CH – CH3
b) CH2 = CH2
c) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
d) None of these
45. The compound having both SP and SP3 hybridized carbon atom is
a) Propene b) Propane
c) Propyne d) All of these
47. The structural formula of the compound which yields ethylene upon reaction with Zinc is
a) Wurtz’s rule
b) Frankland’s rule
c) Markownikoff’s rule
d) Kekule’s rule
50. Acetylene is used as a starting material for the preparation of Plastics, Synthetic rubber and
Synthetic fibre called
a) Orlon b) Narlon
c) Corlon d) Forlon
a) Polythene b) Benzene
c) Neoprene d) Vinyl acetylene
a) Dichloro acetaldehyde
b) Dichlorohydrin
c) Ethylene chlorohydrin
d) Ethylene Dichlorohydrin
a) Ethene b) Ethyne
c) Propene d) Butane
a) Acetylene cyanide
b) Cyanoacetylene
c) Vinyl ethane
d) Acrylonitrile
a) Displacement reaction
b) Substitution reaction
c) Addition reaction
d) Polymerization reaction
a) Reduced to CCl4
b) Oxidized to CCl4
c) Reduced to phosgene
d) Oxidized to a poisonous phosgene
a) Frankland reaction
b) Wurtz reaction
c) Cannizzaro’s reaction
d) Kobe’s reaction
a) Addition reaction
b) Substitution reaction
c) Both addition & substitution reaction
d) None of these
a) Benzene b) Ether
c) Methane d) Acetic acid
a) Pyrolysis b) Chlorination
c) Dehydrohalogenation d) None
a) Berthelot Process
b) Sabatier – Senderns Reaction
c) Kolbe’s Process
d) Haber’s process
a) Br2│CCl4 b) Ag(NH3)2OH
c) KMnO4 d) None
Chapter # 9
Aromatic Hydrocarbons
a) C7H7 b) C7H8
c) C8H8 d) C8H7
a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen
c) Sulpher d) –OH
a) Two b) Three
c) Four d) Five
a) 3 b) 4
c) 6 d) 8
a) C12H10 b) C12H12
c) C13H10 d) C13H12
a) –NH2 b) –CHO
c) –COOH d) –CN
a) Bromine b) Chlorine
c) Flourine d) Iodine
a) –CN b) –OH
c) –COOH d) –CHO
a. –OH, –RCO
b. –NR3, –CN
c. –OCH3, –CHO
d. –N (CH3)2, –NH2
a) Two b) Three
c) Four d) Six
a) 0.307Ao b) 0.307 nm
c) 0.337Ao d) 0.307 nm
a.
b.
c.
d. ~
a. Zn amalgam
b. AlCl3
c. Organo-nickel
d. Rancy Rickel
a. Cycloalkene
b. n-hexane
c. Benzene sulphonic acid
d. Sodium benzoate
a) 1:1 b) 2:1
c) 1:2 d) 2:3
a. Strong nucleophile
b. Weak nucleophile
c. Strong electrophite
d. Weak electrophite
O
||
a. R ─ C ─ O ─
O
||
b. Cl ─ C ─
O
||
c. R ─ C ─
O
||
d. H ─ C ─
a) Quinone b) Ketone
c) Aldehyde d) Other
a. Substitution reaction
b. Addition reaction
c. Polymerization reactions
d. Oxidation reactions
a) NO3 b) NO
- +
c) NO2 d) NO2
a. Substitution reaction
b. Addition reaction
c. Elimination reaction
d. Oxidation reaction
a) Oxidation b) Polymerization
c) Dehydration d) Condensation
a. Dow’s process
b. Friedel & Craft acylation
c. Friedel & Craft alkylation
d. Clemenson reaction
a) C6H5─ b) C6H5─CH=CH2
c) C6H5─CH─ d) C6H5─CH2─
a. Dil NaO4
b. Mixture of HNO3 & H2SO4
c. Zn dust
d. Acidified KMnO4
a. C6H5 CH2Cl
b. C6H5 CHCl2
c. C6H5─CH = CHCl
d. None of the above
a) C6H6O9 b) C6H5O8
c) C6H5O9 d) C6H6O6
a) Glyoxine b) Benzaldehyde
c) Glycol d) Glyoxal
40. Which of the following will undergo nitration more easily and readily?
a) C6H6 b) C6H5CHCl2
c) C6H5CCl3 d) C6H5CH3
41. The reaction of toluene with chlorine in the presence of FeCl3 gives
a) Benzyl chloride
b) Benzal chloride
c) m – Chloro Toluene
d) O/P Chloro Toluene
a) Electrophilic addition
b) Electrophilic substitution
c) Nucleophilic addition
d) Nucleophilic substitution
44. Benzene when treated with acetyl chloride in the presence of AlCl3 yields
48. The b.p of P – nitro phenol is higher than that of O – nitro phenol because
a) Phenol b) Benzene
c) Acetyl chloride d) None of these
a) 36 j/mol b) 36 cal/mol
c) 36 Kcal/mol d) none of these
a) Cu b) Ni
c) FeCl3 d) Zn
a) NO 3
1
b) NO21
c) NH 41 d) None of these
57. Which substituent group decrease the reactivity of benzene, because they
59. Meta orienting groups decrease the reactivity of benzene because they
a) Nitration b) Sulphonation
c) Alkylation d) Hydrogenation
a) Toluene b) Nitrobenzene
c) Chlorobenzene d) Aniline
a) RCl+S+HCl b) RCl+SO2+HCl
c) RCl+SO2+H2O d) RCl+S+H2O
a) C-F b) C-Cl
c) C-Br d) C-I
a) R-F b) R-Cl
c) R-Br d) R-I
a) F b) Cl
c) Br d) I
a) C2H5O─ b) SCN─
c) NH3 d) H3C+
a) Order of reaction
b) Rate or reaction
c) Molecularity of a reaction
d) Extent of a reaction
a) sp→sp2 b) sp2→sp3
c) sp3→sp d) sp3→sp2
a) Zero b) One
c) Two d) Three
a) HSO4─ b) Cl─
c) OH─ d) Br─
a) Zero b) First
c) Second d) Third
a. CH3─X
CH3 H
| |
b. CH3─ C ─ C ─X
| |
CH3 H
CH3
c. CH ─ X
CH3
CH3
|
d. CH3─ C─ X
|
CH3
a) α-carbon b) β-carbon
c) α-hydrogen d) β-hydrogen
a) [H] b) H2
c) [O] d) O2
a) E1+E2 b) E2+SN2
c) S1+SN1 d) SN1+SN2
a) Formaldehyde b) Acetaldehyde
c) Propanone d) CO2
a)Two b) Three
c) One d) Four
36) Which Monohaloalkane can not be obtained by the direct action of halogen and alkane?
a) RCl
b) RBr
c) RI
d) None of these
37) For the preparation of RX, by the reaction of Alcohol and Thionyl Chloride requires the presence
of a solvent
a) Ether
b) Water
c) Pyridine
d) Acetone
38) The reaction of Sodium metal with alkyl halide in the presence of Ether is called
a) O H b) NH3
c) ROH d) BF3
a) Electrophilic substitution
b) Nucleophilic substitution
c) Electrophilic addition
d) Nucleophilic addition
a) E1 b) SN
c) ROH d) RCHO
a) 4 b) 3
c) 2 d) 1
a) SN1 b) SN2
c) Both d) None of these
48) In SN2 reactions, two reactants are involved in the rate determining step while these reactions
occur in
a) RMgX b) RX
c) ROH d) RCHO
a) CH3OH b) C2H5OH
c) CH3COCH3 d) C3H8
51) The chemical reaction in which HX is removed from two adjacent carbon atoms of an organic
molecule is called
a) Dehydrogenation
b) Dehydrohalogenation
c) Dehydration
d) Dehalogenation
a) Wurtz’s reaction
b) Frankland’s reaction
c) Hoffmann’s reaction
d) Friedal Craft reaction
53) A nucleophile is a
54) An electrophile is a
a) Ether b) Ester
c) Alkyl halides d) Carboxylic acid
59) Both methane ethane may be prepared in one step reaction from
a) C2H4 b) CH3l
c) CH3OH d) C2H5OH
65) The removal of hydrogen from that beta carbon which has fewer H – atoms is called
a) RMgX b) TEL
c) TML d) All of these
a) SOCl2 b) ZnCl2
c) CH3Cl d) None
a) CH3Cl b) CCl4
c) CH2Cl2 d) CHCl3
a) Alkanes b) Alkynes
c) Alkenes d) Alcohols
a) Electrophilic b) Nucleophilic
c) Both a & b d) None
a) 1 – Butyne b) 2 – Butyne
c) 1 – Butene d) 2 – Butene
a) ClCH2CH2Cl b) CH3CHCl2
c) BrCH2CH2CH2Br d) BrCH2CH2CH2CH2Br
a) Zn, H+ b) Cu I
c) (CH3)2CuLi d) Na
a) (CH3)3C – Cl b) (CH3)2 CH Cl
c) CH3CH2CH2Cl d) (CH3)2CCH2-Cl
CHAPTER # 11
Alcohols Phenols and Ethers
a) C6H5OH b) C6H5CH(OH)2
c) C6H5CH2OH d) None
a) Methanal b) Methanol
c) Carbonic acid d) Methane
a) C12H22O11 b) C6H9O5
c) C6H10O5 d) C6H12O6
a) Diastase-maltase-zymase
b) Zymase-maltase-zymase
c) Maltase-diastase-zymase
d) Diastase-zymase-maltase
9. K2Cr2O7/H2SO4 generate___________
a) Oxygen b) Hydrogen
c) Nascent oxygen [O] d)Nascent hydrogen [H]
a) Propane b) Propanol
c) Propanone d) Propanoic acid
a) Buten-2ol
b) Propan-2-ol
c) Butan-1-ol
d) 2,3-Dimethythexane-4-ol.
a) C2H6 b) C2H5OH
c) C2H5OH and C2H4 d) C2H5OH and NH3.
a) Permanganate oxidation
b) Catalytic reduction
c) Absorbing in H2SO4 followed by hydrolysis
d) Fermentation.
a) CH3COOH b) CH3OH
c) C2H5OH d) None of these
19. Glyccrol is a
a) Fats b) Propyiene
c) Both d) None
21. The enzyme which can catalyse the conversion of glucose to ethanol is
a) Zymase b) Invertase
c) Maltase d) Diastase.
a) Induction b) Inverslon
c) Insertion d) Inhibition.
a) Soluble in water
b) Soluble in water on heating
c) Insoluble in water
d) Insoluble in all solvents
26. Which of the following can work as a dehydrating agent for alcohol ?
a) H2SO4 b) AI2O3
c) P2O5 d) AII.
a) Alkanes b) Alkenes
c) Alkynes d) AII.
a) CO2 b) O2
c) Invertase d) Yeast.
a) –NO2 b) –CN
c) –X(halogens) d) AII.
a) Esterification b) Hydrolyais
c) Saponification d) Hydrogenation
a) O- and P-position
b) Metapositions
c) Only at ortho positions
d) Only at para position
a) dil. HCl
b) Both NaOH and HCl
c) NaOH sol
d) Sodium bicarbonate solution.
37. The order of reactivity of halogen acids for reaction with C2H5OH is
a) HCl > HBr > HI b) HI > HBr > HCl
c) HBr > HI > HCl d) HBr > HCl > HI.
a) Ethylene
b) Diethyl either
c) Acetylene
d) Ethyl hydrogen sulphate
a) CH3CH(OH)2 b) CH3C(OH)3
c) C2H5OH d) None of these
a) Monohydric b) Dihydric
c) Trihydric d) Both a & b
44. Alcohol reacts with carboxylic acids, acid an hydrides and acid halides to form
a) Ether b) Ketone
b) Esters d) Aldehyde
a) Ethanol b) Propanol
c) Glycerol d) Glycol
a) Oxidation b) Reduction
c) Addition d) Substitution
50. Which one of the following will not take place if 1 – Propanol is under test?
a) Phenol b) Acetylene
c) Ethane d) o/p methylol phenol
54. Phenol reacts with dilute HNO3 in the presence of concentrated H2SO4 yields
a) C6H5OH b) C6H6
c) C6H5COOH d) C6H5CHO
a) Alcohols b) Ethers
c) Esters d) Aldehydes
a) Olefins b) Paraffins
c) Dimethyl ether d) Dimethyl ketone
a) An ester b) Ketone
c) Alkyl halides d) Ether
a) Reduction b) Addition
c) Oxidation d) Substitution
a) Water b) Acid
c) Methyl alcohol d) Benzene
67. Phenol and benzyl alcohol can be distinguish by using
68. Which one can be used to differentiate between phenol and methyl alcohol?
a) Aqueous Br2
b) Na2Cr2O7 in dil H2SO4
c) Aqueous NaCl
d) Both a & b
a) Electrophile b) Nucleophile
c) Acid d) None of these
70. Ethers have no hydrogen bonding but they show weak H – bonding when dissolve in
a) Alkane b) Formaldehyde
c) Water d) Kerosene oil
a) Base b) Acid
c) Salt d) None of these
73. The test which is used to distinguish between primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols
a) Cancer b) Blindness
c) Aneimia d) None
a) Starch b) Minerals
c) Cellulose d) None of these
a) Ether b) Acetone
c) Ethylene d) Acetaldehyde
a) 95.6 b) 75.0
c) 100.0 d) 85.4
83. In cold countries glycerol is added to water in car radiators as it helps to ________
a) O – bromophenol
b) P – bromophenol
c) M – bromophenol
d) 2, 4, 5 – tribromophenol
CHAPTER # 12
Aldehydes and ketones
3. Tollen's reagent is
a) Ammonical cuprous chloride
b) Ammonical cuprous oxide
c) Ammonical silver bromide
d) Ammonical silver nitrate.
a) Aidehydes b) Thioaleohols
c) Acids d) Ethers
a) Gas b) Liquid
c) Solid d) None
a) 10% b) 20%
c) 40% d) 60%
a) Acetaldehyde b) Propanone
c) Glucose d) Formic acid.
a) An alcohol b) An acid
c) A ketone d) An ether
a) eliminatory reaction
b) electrophilic addition
c) niteophlic adelretion
d) None of them
a) Ethylene b) Ethanal
c) Ethanol d) Ethylamine
14. Which of the following compounds gives a ketone with Grignard's reagent ?
a) Formaldehyde b) Ethanenitrile
c) Ethyl alcohol d) Methyl iodide.
a) Carbides b) Alkenes
c) Alkynes d) Alkanes
a) Formaldehyde b) Acetaldehyde
c) Benzaldehyde d) Propionaldehyde.
a) Tollen's reagent
b) Fehling solution
c) Acidic dichromate solution
d) Benedicts solution
a) C2H5OH b) CH3COOH
c) HCHO d) CH3CHO
21. If formaldehyde and KOH are heated them we
get
a) Acctylenc b) Methanc
c) Methyl alcohol d) Ethyl formate.
a) CH3COOH b) CH3CHO
c) (CH3)2CHOH d) C2H5OH
a) Alcohol b) Amine
c) Carboxylic acid d) Ether
a) Unbreakable glass
b) Smokeless gun powder
c) Chloroform
d) All of these
a) Formaldehyde b) Acetone
c) Acetic acid d) Ethanol
a) Aldehydes b) Ketones
c) Alcohols d) Ethers
a) Bakelite
b) Para Formaldehyde
c) Meta Formaldehyde
d) Urotropine
29. When Hexamethylene tetramine (Methanamine) reacts with fuming HNO3 to yield a powerful
explosive known as
31. Which tests are used for the identification of –CHO in an aldehyde?
a) HCHO b) CH3COCH3
c) C2H5 d) C2H5O2CH5
34. The compound which gives both positive haloform test and Fehling test is
a) Acetone b) Ethanol
c) Formaldehyde d) Acetaldehyde
35. Silver mirror is carried out for the detection of functional group
a) Ketone b) Ester
c) Ether d) Aldehyde
a) Formaldehyde b) Acetaldehyde
c) Propanol d) Acetone
40. Aldols are those organic compounds which contain functional group
a) H – CHO b) C6H5CHO
c) CH3CHO d) All of these
a) Aldol condensation
b) Cannizzaro reaction
c) Clemmensen’s reaction
d) None of these
45. Almost all the aldehydes and small methyl ketones produce a crystalline white precipitate with
saturated solution of
46. Which compound gives brick red precipitate of cuprous oxide with Benedict’s solution
a) Fehling solution
b) Tollen’s solution
c) Alkaline sodium nitroprusside solution
d) All of these
a) 4-methlypent-3-en-2-one
b) 2-Methlypent-3-en-4-one
c) Acetyl 2-Methyl-butene-3
d) None of the above
a) Ether b) Formaldehyde
c) Acetic acid d) None of these
a) Formalin b) Malt-sugar
c) Pyridine d) Starch
a) CH3CH = CHCH2OH
b) CH3CH2CH2CHO
c) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
d) A mixture of a, b and c.
a) Paraldehyde b) Metaldehyde
c) A mixture of a & b d) None
a) Nucleophilic addition
b) Electrophilic addition
c) Uncleophilic substitution
d) Electrophilic substitution
Chapter No. 13
Carboxylic Acids & Their Derivatives
a) – OH b) – OR
c) – COOH d) – COOR
a) ROH b) RCHO
c) RCOOR d) RCOOH
a) CH3COOH b) CH2ClCOOH
c) CHCl2COOH d) C2H5COOH
a) Highly ionized
b) Weakly ionized
c) Insoluble in water
d) No replaceable hydrogen
a) H2SO4 b) H2CO3
c) H3PO4 d) CH3COOH
a) Sponification b) Hydration
c) Esterification d) None of these
10) Which one of the following does not have a carboxylic group?
11) Two moles of carboxylic acids on heating in the presence of P2O5 yields
a) Alcohol b) Ether
c) Acetic acid d) Ester
14) Between acetic acid and formic acid, the former one is
17) The number of H – bonds formed per molecule of carboxylic acid are
a) 4 b) 3
c) 2 d) 1
19) The firs four members of carboxylic acid are completely soluble in water. This is due to
20) Sodium bi carbonate when reacts with a compound “X” as result CO2 liberates with effervescence
the compound “X” contain
a) – OH b) – CHO
c) X d) – COOH
21) The carboxylic acid which is used for coagulating rubber latex is
22) Acetic acid when reacts with chlorine in the presence of red phosphorus, the product formed is
a) Ketones b) Aldehydes
c) Alcohol d) Amino acid
26) The dipolar structure of an amino acid is also called
28) A peptide having molar mass up to 10000 is called poly peptide while a poly peptide having molar
mass more than 10000 is called
a) Protein
b) Essential amino acids
c) Non essential amino acids
d) Acidic amino acid
a) Hydroxyl group
b) Carboxyl group
c) A hydroxyl group and carboxyl group
d) A carboxyl group and aldehydic group
33) Vinegar is
a) 4 b) 5
c) 3 d) 2
35) Carboxylic acid can be prepared from
a) Alcohol b) Ester
c) Grignard’s reagent d) All
36) In industrial preparation of Acetic Acid from acetaldehyde manganous acetate is used as
a) Catalyst
b) Oxidizing agent
c) To prevent oxidation of Acetic acid into
peracetic acid
d) All above
a) OH b) NO2
c) – CN d) Both b & c
a) OH b) NH2
c) Alkyl group d) All
a) CH2 – COOH
│
Cl
b) Cl2 – CH – COOH
c) CH3 – COOH
d) Cl3.C.COOH
a) HCOOH b) CH3COOH
c) C2H4 – COOH d) C2H7 – COOH
43) Which have higher B.P?
a) CH3COOH b) CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
c) CH3O – C2H5 d) Both a & c
a) 3 b) 2
c) 1 d) 4
a) Ethane b) Ethanal
c) Ethanol d) Ethyone
a) 10 b) 20
c) 30 d) 40
a) 10 b) 20
c) – 30 d) – 40
58) NH2
│
R – CH – COO- is called
a) Hydration b) Dehydration
c) Decarboxyletion d) Oxidation
a) Aldehyde b) Ester
c) Carboxylic acid d) Ketones
a) Valine b) Glycine
c) Alanine d) Proline
a) Alanine b) Aniline
c) Glyine d) Aspartic acid
a) Phenols b) Formalin
c) Pyradine d) Alcohol
a) CH3COOH b) ClCH2COOH
c) Cl2CHCOOH d) Cl3CCOOH
a) Cyclohexylamine b) 3 – hexylamine
c) 1 – Butylamine d) Diethylamine
Light
a) Pentanoic acid + Br2
P
b) Pentanoic acid + Br2
c) Pentanoic acid + HBr
Peroxides
d) Pentanoic acid + HBr
H
a) CH3CH2CO2H + C2H5OH
OH
b) CH3CH2CO2H + C2H5OH
NaOC H
c) CH2CO2C2H5 + CH3I
2 5
a. Nylon-6 b. Polystyrene
c. Terylene d. Epoxy resin
a. A b. D
c. K d. C
a. Carbon b. Hydrogen
c. Nitrogen d. Sulphur
a. Urease b. Maltase
c. Zymase d. Lipases
9. Macromolecules may be of
a. Homopolymer b. Copolymer
c. Teropolymer d. All of the above
a. Polyethers b. Polyvinyls
c. Polyesters d. None of the above
a. Beta-D glucose
b. Alpha-D glucose
c. Gamma-D glucose
d. Alpha-beta-D glucose
14. the most abundant protiens that are present in the connective tissues throughout the body are
a. Legumin b. Collagen
c. Both d. None of the above
a. Different structure
b. Similar chemical structure
c. Both the above depend upon the circumstances
d. None of the above
a. Thrombin b. Lasparaginase
c. Both of the above d. None of the above
a. Ethene b. Ethylene
c. Ethyne d. Both a and b
21. The group of chemical reagents that take part in life sustaining process is called
a. Starch b. Boney
c. Milk d. Glucose
25. Which of these are the sources of energy as well as source for building of tissues?
a. Proteins b. Fats
c. Carbohydrates d. All of these
a. Minerals b. Vitamins
c. Water d. All of these
a. CO2 b. Water
c. Energy d. All of these
a. CO2 b. Water
c. Nitrogen d. Both a & b
31. The excess of amino acids are not stored in the body but dominated to form intermediates of
a) Fat metabolism
b) Carbohydrates metabolism
c) Protein metabolism
d) None of these
a. Cn(H2O)n b. C2n(H2O)n
c. Cn(H2O)2n d. None of these
a) Polyhydroxy alcohols
b) Polyhydroxy ethers
c) Polyhydroxy ester
d) Polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones
34. Monosaccharide and Diaccharides are solid, sweet in taste and soluble in
a. C6H6 b. H2O
c. CHCl3 d. Acetone
35. Carbohydrates which contain 2 – 10 carbon atoms and not are hydrolysable are called
a. Monosaccharides b. Oligosaccharides
c. Polysaccharides d. None of these
a. Glucose b. Fructose
c. Sucrose d. Glycogen
a) Glucose + Mannose
b) Glucose + Fructose
c) Fructose + Mannose
d) Mannose + Galactose
a. Starch b. Dextrose
c. Sucrose d. Mannose
39. The heterogeneous group of organic compounds which provides insulation for the vital organs
protects from electrical shock and maintains optimum body temperature is called
a. Proteins b. Vitamins
c. Lipids d. Carbohydrates
40. The nutrients of food which are involved in communication, nervous defenses, metabolic
regulation, catalysis and oxygen transport are called
a. Proteins b. Vitamins
c. Lipids d. Carbohydrates
a. Tricyclic b. Tetracyclic
c. Pentacyclic d. Monocyclic
a) Free cholesterol
b) Combine cholesterol
c) Starch
d) Mannose
46. The number of moles of substrate transformed per mole of enzyme per minute at a definite
temperature is called
a. Activators b. Inhibitors
c. Coenzymes d. None of these
49. The synthetic fiber composed of an ester of a dihydric alcohol and terphthalic acid is called
51. The plastics which are formed by plain polymerization are known as:
a) Thermoplastics
b) Thermosetting plastics
c) Both
d) None of these
a. Dacron b. Teflon
c. Saran d. Nylon
a) (CCl2 – CCl2)n
b) (- CF2 – CF2 -)n
c) (- CBr2 – CBr2 -)n
d) (- Cl2 – Cl2 - )n
a. PVC b. Polystyrene
c. Polythene d. All of these
a. Polyester b. Polyamide
c. Eposy resin d. All of these
a. Polythene b. Nylon 6, 6
c. Teflon d. Polyester
a. Copolymer b. Homopolymer
c. Monomer d. All of these
60. Yeast is a
a) Bacteria b) Antibiotic
c) Virus d) Fungi
a) Diffusion b) Peptisation
c) Emulsification d) Neutralization
a) Thiamine b) Retinol
c) Ascorbic acid d) Nicotinamide
a) Glucose b) Fructose
c) Lactose d) Maltose
a) Yellow b) Red
c) Black d) Green
a) At pH = 7 b) At pH >7
c) At pH < 7 d) At isoelectric point
a) Mouth b) Stomach
c) Intestine d) Both a & c
a) Fibrinogin b) Albumine
c) Globulins d) None of the above
a) Adrenaline b) Insulin
c) Thyroxine d) Oxytocin
a) Proteins b) Fats
c) Vitamin d) None
a) Hlogenation b) Dehrdration
c) Hydrolsis d) None of the above
a) 57% N b) 73% N
c) 46% N d) 53% N
4. The phosphoric acid which is used for the preparation of di ammonium phosphate fertilizer is
o
having 60 to 70 C temperature and
a) PH 5-6 b) PH 5.8 to 6\
c) PH 7-8 d) PH 6 to 7.5
5. Which three elements are needed for the healthy growth of plants
a) N.S.P b) N.Ca.P
c) N.P.K d) N.K.C
a) Root b) Leave
c) Stem d) Seed
8. The wood paper is derived from the name of which reedy plant
a) Rose b) Sunflower
c) Papyrus d) Water hyacinth
a) Lime b) Clay
c) Marble d) Marine shell
a) Cotton b) Wheat
c) Sugar cane d) Paddy rice
11. Cement is very important building material which was first of all introduce by English Mason
Joseph Aspdin in
a) 1875 b) 1824
c) 1860 d) 1920
a) 5kg b) 4kg
c) 6kg d) 8kg
13. The slurry which contains in the making of cement ……% of water
a) 35 to 45 b) 40 to 45
c) 45 to 50 d) None of the given
14. The dried paper is wound in the form of a reel having final moisture of about …….%
a) 6 to 8 b) 4 to 6
c) 2 to 8 d) 5 to 8
18. The fertilizers, which provide single nutrient from NPK, are called _________fertilizer
a) Straight b) Compound
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
a) Cu b) Cl2
c) H2 d) Zn
a) Endothermic b) Exothermic
c) Both a and b d) No heat energy is involved
21. Which of the following is the most suitable catalyst for ammonia synthesis?
a) Pt b) ZnO + Cr2O3
c) Fe2O3 + MO2O3 d) All of the above
a) Prilling b) Evaporation
c) Condensation d) Crystallization
23. Which of the following fertilizers is more useful for paddy rice?
a) Urea b) DAP
c) Ammonium sulphate d) Ammonium nitrate
a) 60% b) 65%
c) 70% d) 75%
25. Which of the following potassium fertilizers are more useful for horticultural crops, tobacco &
potatoes?
a) KCl b) KNO3
c) K2SO4 d) KMnO4
28. Which of the following processes is used for the synthesis of cement?
a) Root b) Leave
c) Stem d) Seed
30. How many zones through which the charge passes in a rotary kiln?
a) 4 b) 3
c) 2 d) 5
31. The nutrients which are required in very small amount for the growth of plants are called.
a. Nitrogenous fertilizers
b. Micronutrients
c. Phosphorus fertilizer
d. Surfactant
32. Which one of the following set of raw material is most suitable for manufacture of urea?
a. It is a synthetic fertilizer
b. It is a natural fertilizer
c. It provides micronutrients to plants
d. It is an inorganic water soluble compound
a) 36% b) 46%
c) 56% d) 66%
a) Manure b) Urea
c) Ammonium nitrate d) All
a) NH4NO3 b) NH4Cl
a) NH3 d) (NH4)2HPO4
37. Except Ca(NO3)2, NaNO3 and KNO3, all nitrogen fertilizers make the soil
a) Acidic b) Basic
c) Neutral d) None of these
a) NH4NO3 b) KNO3
c) NH4Cl d) NH3
a) Potato b) Sugarcane
c) Paddy rice d) Tobacco
a) 40% b) 46%
c) 48% d) 50%
41. Potassium fertilizers are used for
a) Fruits b) Vegetable
c) Tobacco d) All of these
a) Animal b) Vegetable
c) Mineral d) All of these
a) 46% b) 33 – 33.5%
c) 82% d) 48%
44. NH4NO3 is used as a fertilizer for many crops except paddy rice because
a) 45 – 46% b) 46 – 48%
c) 33 – 35% d) 40%
a) 21% b) 25%
c) 46% d) 82%
a) 50% b) 55%
c) 60% d) 65%
a) Lime
b) MgO
c) Tricalcium silicate (3CaO.SiO2)
d) All of these
a) Clinker b) Pulp
c) Fiber d) Polymer
52. The separation of cellulose fibers by mechanical method or by various chemicals from the matrix
result into
a) Clinker b) Pulp
c) Polymer d) Isomer
a) C2S b) C3S
c) C3A d) C4AP
a) Plants b) Animals
c) Algae d) All of these
a) Straight b) Compound
c) Both a & b d) None
a) Macronutrients b) Micronutrients
c) Fertilizers d) None of these
a) 4.5 b) 3.2
c) 2.2 d) 1.5
a) 4.5 b) 3.2
c) 2.2 d) 1.5
a) 25 b) 21
c) 23 d) 19
a) Fertilizers b) Detergent
c) Acid d) None of these
a) RCOON b) RONa
c) RSNa d) ROSO3Na
a) (SiO2)n b) (SiO3)n
c) (SiO2)X d) None of these
Chapter # 16
Environmental chemistry
a) CFCs b) PAN
c) CO2 d) Coal burning
2. DDT is
a) Biodegradable polulutant
b) Nondegradable pollutant
c) Not a pollutant
d) An antibiotic
a) Microorganisms b) Light
c) Fishes d) Aquatic plants
a) Carbon b) CO2
c) CO d) SO2
8. Biodegradable pollutant is
a) Plastic b) Asbestos
c) Sewage d) Mercury
9. Lead is
a) Pollen grains
b) Hydroelectric power
c) Industries and automobiles
a) Is carcinogenic
b) Is antogonistic to CO2
c) Has high affinity for heamoglobin than
oxygen
d) Is destructive of O3
12. Disease caused by eating fish in water contaminated with industrial waste having mercury
a) Pathogens
b) Clogging of gills by silt
c) Reduction in oxygen
d) Foul smell
16. Which one of the following forms a toxic substance by combining with hemoglobin in blood.
a) CO2 b) CO
c) O2 d) CH4
a) Flourides b) CO
c) SO2 d) O3
a) 3.5 km b) 4.5 km
c) 5.6 km d) 10 km
a) Calcium suphonates
b) Barium sulphonates
c) Sodium carbonates
d) Benzene sulphonates
a) Insects
b) Fungus on the plants
c) Undesited plants
d) Rodents
a) Insecticide b) Herbicides
c) Fugicied d) Pastecide
25. Most hazardous metal pollutant of automobiles exhaust is
a) Mercury b) Cadmium
c) Lead d) Copper
a) Air b) Water
c) Soil d) Nostic
a) Biotic components
b) Plants only
c) Man only
d) Biotic and abiotic components of
environment
a) Oceans
b) Glaciers & ice
c) Fresh water lakes and ponds
d) All have equal distribution
a) KMnO4 b) Alums
c) Ozone d) All
a) DO b) BOD
c) COD d) All of the above
36. In the purification of portable water, the
coagulant used is_________
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
a) CO2 b) CO
c) NO2 d) N2O4
a) Lithosphere b) Hydrosphere
c) Biosphere d) Atmosphere
42. The envelop of gases surrounding the earth’s surface which absorb most of the cosmic rays and
maintain the balance is
a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere
c) Mesosphere d) Thermosphere
a) Coal b) Gasoline
c) Kerosene oil d) Diesel and furnace oil
45. The solid or liquid particles with diameter ranges from 0.01μ or less up to about 100 μ are
a) Aerosols b) Dust
c) Smoke d) All of these
46. The pollutants responsible for eye, nose, throat, bronchial tract and respiratory tract irritation are
a) H2S b) CO2
c) NH3 d) Both a & c
47. The air pollutant which is responsible for corrosion and erosion is
a) SO2 b) Carbon
c) Smoke d) Aerosol
48. Carbon and soot accelerate the corrosion and erosion due to
a) Acidic nature
b) Basic nature
c) Absorption or adsorption of the gaseous pollutant upon these particulars mater
d) All of these
49. The pollutant which adhere to stones bricks and surface and cause fouling are
a) 5.6 b) 4.6
c) 3.6 d) 2.6
a) CO b) NH3
c) H2S d) All of these
a) Smoke b) Fog
c) Dust d) Smoke & fog
a) CO b) NH3
c) H2S d) Freon
56. The photochemical smog is also called oxidizing smog which has high content of oxidant like
a) O3 b) SO2
c) NH3 d) All of these
a) 2 to 4ppm b) 3 to 4ppm
c) 4 to 8ppm d) 8 to 10ppm
62. The COD (Chemical Oxygen Demand) of water can be determined directly by treating with
a) Pure b) Dust
c) Aerosols d) Effluent
64. The techniques used to kill pathogens present in drinking water are
a) Chlorination b) Ozone
c) UV irradiation d) All of these
65. Pathogens present in polluted water can killed by chlorination but cannot remove
a) Viruses b) Taste
c) Odour d) All of these
o
66. The process in solid waste is burnt at high temperature ranging from 900 to 1000 C
a) Chlorination b) Ozonation
c) Incineration d) All of these
a) SO2 b) NH3
c) CO2 d) CF2Cl2
a) Hydrosphere b) Lithosphere
c) Biosphere d) Stratosphere
a) The amount of ozone layer is greater in the region close to the equator.
b) Ozone acts as filter for UV radiations.
c) In the polar region, it acts as pollutants.
d) CFCs play effective role in removing O3 in
the stratosphere.
a) 5 – 7 b) 6 – 8
c) 6.5 – 7 d) Less than 5
a) 47 b) 57
c) 67 d) 77
a) Stratosphere b) Thermosphere
c) Troposphere d) Mesosphere
a) 25 to 50 km b) 25 to 28km
c) 3 km only d) 1 km only