Analytical Chemistry Pre-Board 2019

1. Comparing the mass of a neutron to the mass of a proton, one could say
that the neutron
a. is much less massive than the proton.
b. is less massive than the proton.
c. has nearly the same mass as the proton.
d. is more massive than the proton.
2. In the process of dissolving 1 g of sodium perchlorate in water, the
sodium perchlorate is referred to as the
a. solute
b. solvent
c. Solution
d. Precipitate
3. Paper chromatography separations are based on the fact that

a. the components to be separated are volatile.

b. The components to be separated have different tendencies to stick to
the paper.
c. liquids are adsorbed on calcium carbonate.
d. a carrier gas is unreactive.
4. A bottle of cola purchased in Europe gave the volume as 50 cL. What is
this volume in mL?
a. 0.005 L
b. 5000 mL
c. 500 mL
d. 50 mL
5. When the frequency of electromagnetic radiation is increased by 10
percent, the energy of one photon of the radiation
a. is unchanged
b. decreases by 10 percent
c. increases by 10 percent
d. decreases to 10/11 its original value
6. A quantum number n arises in the electron-on-a-wire model because
a. the amplitude of the wave is restricted
b. the wavelength on the wire can take on only certain values
c. the energy of a moving particle can take on any value
d. the electron has an energy of zero
7. Increasing the wavelength of visible light
a. shifts its color towards the red end of the spectrum
b. increases its brightness
c. shifts its color towards the blue end of the spectrum
d. increases its saturation
8. The rows of the periodic table are called:
a. Classes
b. Periods
c. Groups
d. Families
Analytical Chemistry Pre-Board 2019

9. As you move from left to right across the periodic table:

a. atomic radius decreases
b. atomic radius increases
c. ionization energy decreases
d. electronegativity decreases
10. As you move from top to bottom down the periodic table:
a. a change in atomic radius cannot be predicted
b. atomic radius decreases
c. electronegativity decreases
d. ionization energy increases

11. Which of the following are all properties of nonmetals?

a. usually donate electrons easily, typically brittle in the solid
form, poor conductors of heat
b. usually gain electrons easily, poor conductors of heat, poor
conductors of electricity
c. usually gain electrons easily, good conductors of heat and
electricity
d. usually donate electrons easily, metallic luster, good conductors of
heat
12. Effective nuclear charge is
a. the charge on the nucleus experienced by an electron when the
shielding effect of other electrons is accounted for
b. the amount of energy required to remove an electron from the valence
shell when the atom is in a gaseous state
c. the energy released when a proton is added to the nucleus
d. the number of electrons that penetrate the nucleus
13. Which of the following would NOT be a reasonable model to explain the
stated macroscopic property?
a. Solids are rigid, therefore the molecules in a solid must be
constrained to fixed positions.
b. Liquids flow. Therefore the molecules in a liquid must be free to
move around.
c. Nylon thread is strong. Therefore the molecules of nylon must be
long and intertwined.
d. Gold can be pounded into thin sheets. Therefore individual gold
atoms can be pounded flat.
14. As liquid petroleum assets near depletion, natural gas can be expected
to take on still greater importance in the mix of available energy
resources for the 21st century. Gas chromatographic analysis reveals most
natural gas samples to be largely methane and one other component. If 93%
of the molecules are methane and the average molar mass is 18.0 g, then
the remainder must be molecules of:
a. ethane
b. propane
c. butane
d. octane
15. All of the following are true about the speed of a gas according to the
kinetic theory EXCEPT
a. The root-mean-square speed of a gas depends on the pressure.
b. The particles move at different speeds.
c. The root mean square speed of a gas is proportional to the square root
of the temperature.
d. Particles with high molar masses in a gas mixture move more slowly than
those with low molecular masses.
Analytical Chemistry Pre-Board 2019

16. If the sun were to suddenly begin to emit more far UV light of
wavelength less than 200 nm, then:
a. the ozone at the earth’s surface would be photo dissociated faster and
thus decrease
b. the earth would heat up, and the human skin cancer rate would increase
due to increased ultraviolet light
c. more NO (nitric oxide) would form in the polluted air of big cities due
to reactions by O atoms from photo dissociation
d. in the ozone layer at 30 km, the oxygen atom concentration would
increase first and then ozone concentration would increase
17. Which of the following is not a form of electromagnetic radiation?
a. Light
b. Radiated heat
c. Sound
d. Microwaves

18. Which of the following has the most energy per photon?
a. X-rays
b. Ultraviolet rays
c. Visible light
d. Infrared radiation

19. Which of the following is the result when single atoms in gases are
energized?
a. Line spectra
b. Continuous spectra
c. Only ultraviolet radiation
d. Band spectra
20. As a bubble of air rises from a diver’s helmet to the surface of the
water, it continuously expands. This illustrates
a. Combined gas law c. Charles’ Law
b. Avogadro’s Law d. Boyle’s law
21. Respectively, red light has a (higher or lower) frequency and a (longer
or shorter) wavelength than blue light.
a. higher, longer
b. higher, shorter
c. lower, longer
d. lower, shorter

22. The photoelectric effect involves shining light on a metal surface in

an attempt to eject an electron. Which of the following statements about
the photoelectric effect is TRUE?
a. Classical mechanics predicts that light impinging on a metal surface
could never eject an electron, no matter what the intensity or
frequency of the light.
b. Quantum mechanics predicts that light with a frequency less than a
critical value cannot eject an electron from the surface, no matter
what the intensity of the light.
c. Classical mechanics predicts that light with a frequency less than a
critical value cannot eject an electron from the surface, no matter
what the intensity of the light.
d. Quantum mechanics predicts that light impinging on a metal surface
could never eject an electron, no matter what the intensity or
frequency of the light.
Analytical Chemistry Pre-Board 2019

23. All of the following statements are consistent with the Bronsted
concept of acids and bases EXCEPT
a. The stronger a Bronsted acid is, the weaker is its conjugate base.
b. A Bronsted acid-base reaction proceeds so as to produce the weaker
conjugate acid and the weaker conjugate base.
c. Any complete Bronsted acid-base reaction must have two conjugate acid-
base pairs.
d. It is possible to have a Bronsted acid-base reaction in which two
strong Bronsted acids react to form two weak Bronsted bases.

24. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Oxidations always have positive potentials and reductions have negative
potentials.
b. Half-reactions that have negative half-cell potentials cannot be part
of a galvanic (spontaneous) cell under standard conditions.
c. An unreactive metal like gold is very difficult to oxidize. Therefore,
it is also very difficult to reduce gold ions to gold metal.
d. Assigning a potential of 0 V to the hydrogen ion/hydrogen gas electrode
is purely arbitrary and it could have been assigned any other value.

25. You are walking on a corridor at some time unintentionally spilled up

to the floor the chemical you’re holding. What should you do?
a. Get a map then clean it
b. Wait until someone will tell you to clean
c. Wipe with a cloth then dispose on a container
d. Ask for your head on what to do

26. Both classical and instrumental methods can be used to determine the
concentration of a specific element or species in a compound. Which of the
following pairs is the wrong combination of the type of analysis with its
characteristic?
a. Gravimetric analysis – mass
b. Spectrophotometric analysis - density
c. Volumetric analysis – volume
d. Potentiometric analysis – voltage

27. What are the uses of ventilation?

a. Air movement to reduce heat stress
b. Limit CO2 build up
c. Keep toxic contaminants above occupational exposure limit
d. Confined space entry

28. In complexometric titration, the most common used chelating agent is

EDTA (ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid). EDTA's molecules will combine
with metals to form chelate. EDTA is classified as a?
a. Bidentate ligand
b. Hexadentate ligand
c. Tetradentate ligand
d. Monodentate ligand
Analytical Chemistry Pre-Board 2019

29. What is the correct process shown below?

a. Evaporation
b. Distillation
c. Extraction
d. Decantation
30. In redox titration, what chemical substance is added to the iodometry
and iodimetry analysis
a. Starch b. Phenolphthalein c. Glucose d. Argentum

31. The extent of radiation absorbed by the absorbing species is a function

of the path length and the concentration of the absorbing species.
a. Beer-Lambert’s law b. Beer’s Law c. Lambert’s Law d. None of
the above

32. Which of the following acids can be used to acidify silver nitrate
solution for the test of halides?
a. Hydrochloric acid b. Dilute nitric acid c. Sulphuric acid
d. Carbonic acid

33. After shaking the separating funnel, we should invert it and open the
tap. Which of the following statements is the purpose for the above
procedure?
a. To extract the desired substances more efficiently.
b. To mix the two solvent layers by air.
c. To get rid of the impurities.
d. To release the pressure.

34. UV Spectrophotometer and Visible Spectrophotometer sample cells,

respectively.
a. Quartz (crystalline silica) and Glass
b. Glass and quartz (Crystalline silica)
c. test tube and cuvettes
d. All

35. Which of the following is not true about galvanic method of oxygen
analysis?
a. Electrodes are composed of noble and base metals
b. It can measure dissolved content of oxygen
c. Its principle is based on electrolysis
d. It utilizes an electronic cell

36. To produce the proper monochromatic light necessary for the AAS, ____
are used.
a. hollow cathode lamps
b. cuvettes
c. electric rods
d. probes
Analytical Chemistry Pre-Board 2019

37. Which is/are the principle/s of hood design and operation?

I. Ensure duct material compatible with exhausts
II. Put your head on the hood
III. Keep sash fully closed when not in use
IV. Don’t store chemicals or equipment in hood

a. II only
b. II and III only
c. I, III, and IV only
d. I, II and IV only

38. In AAS, if sample concentration is too high to permit accurate analysis

in linearity response range, what should an analyst do?
a. sample dilution
b. using an alternative wavelength having a lower absorptivity
c. reducing the path length by rotating the burner hand.
d. All

39. If an analyte absorbs green, the color perceived is

a. red
b. blue
c. orange
d. violet
40. NMR is the study of absorption of __________ by nuclei in a magnetic
field?
a. Radioactive radiation
b. IR radiation
c. Radio frequency radiation
d. Microwaves
41. A process in which substances pass through intact material on a
molecular level.
a. Penetration
b. Degradation
c. Contamination
d. Permeation

42. NMR spectrometer provides ____________ and _____________ method of

determining structure in soluble chemical compounds.
a. Accurate, destructive
b. Accurate, non-destructive
c. Inaccurate, destructive
d. Inaccurate, non-destructive

43. Mass spectrometers are used to determine which of the following?

a. Composition in sample
b. Concentration of elements in sample
c. Relative mass of atoms
d. Properties of sample
44. It is where authorities will review registration and request further
information or testing to determine the impact of the substance on human
health and the environment
a. Evaluation
b. Registration
c. Restriction
d. Authorization
Analytical Chemistry Pre-Board 2019

45. Which of the following is most often used in the chromatograph in gas
chromatograph MS?
a. Curvette
b. Paper support
c. Capillary tube
d. Flask

46. Powerful analytical instrument but suitable for volatile chemicals

only.
a. HPLC b. IR c. GC d. NMR

47. What is Absorbance in spectrophotometry

a. nonlinear function of light power
b. measured quantity
c. how much light is absorbed by the sample
d. all of the above

48. What is the path of light through a spectrophotometer?

a. meter, photodetector, filter, sample, light source
b. meter, filter sample, photodetector, light source
c. light source, filter, sample, photodetector, meter
d. light source, sample, filter, photodetector, meter

49. Beer's Law states that;

a. Absorbance is proportional to both the path length and concentration
of the absorbing species
b. Absorbance is proportional to the log of the concentration of the
absorbing species
c. Absorbance is equal to P0 / P
d. Transmittance is inversely proportional with P.
50. The scale of a spectrophotometer extends from 1 to 100% T, what are the
values of these two extremes in absorbance?
a. 0, 2.0 b. 2.0, 0 c. 0, 1.99 d. 1.99, 0

51. If the %T is actually 0, what is the value of the absorbance?

a. 2.0 b. infinite c. 1.99 d. 1.0

52. Which of the following represents acute or severe toxicity?

a. b. c. d.

53. Chromatography separates components in mixtures based on:

a. polarity and boiling point b. ionic strength c. size
d. All

54. A graph showing the detectors response as a function of elution time.

a. standard calibration graph b. QC graph c. Chromatogram d. All

55. A known amount of a compound, different from analyte, that is added to

an unknown.
a. internal standard b. primary standard c. reference standard
d. none
Analytical Chemistry Pre-Board 2019

56. Carried out on glass plates or strips of plastic or metal coated on one
side with a thin layer of adsorbent (use natural chemistry)
a. GC b. TLC c. HPLC d. LC-MS
57. A simple and rapid method to check the purity of an organic compound.
It is used to detect pesticide or insecticide residues in food .
a. Paper chromatography
b. Gas chromatography
c. Thin-layer chromatography
d. Liquid chromatography

58. A photometer which uses a filter as a wavelength selector used in the

visible range as samples must be colored.
a. Colorimeter
b. Visible spectrophotometer c. UV-Vis spectrophotometer d. IR

59. A heavy duty electric furnace capable of maintaining controlled

temperatures of 1100oC or higher used in gravimetric tests.
a. Muffle Furnace b. Graphite Furnace c. Oven d. All

60. Similar in chemical composition to the sample but without the analyte
a. matrix blank b. reagent blank c. instrument blank
d. surrogate blank

61. The maximum holding time for acid preserved samples that will be
subjected to determination of metals is
a. 0.25 annum b. 0.33 annum c.0.50 annum d. 0.15 annum

62. Symbols indicated in waste labels that instantly identify the kind of
hazard the chemical possesses
a. Signal Words
b. Pictogram
c. Precautionary Statements
d. Hazard Statement

63. Type of chemical that can cause an allergic reaction in the airways
following inhalation of the chemical
a. Respiratory sensitizer
b. Oxidizer
c. Carcinogen
d. Corrosive
64. An indicator for acid-base titration having a pH range of 6.2-7.6?
a. Bromocresol green
b. Bromothymol blue
c. Methyl red
d. Methyl orange

65. What is the volume of 0.100 mole of He in a balloon at 25°C and 755 mm
Hg?
a. 0.0395 L b. 2.46 L c. 0.0273 L d. 0.207 L

66. What is the density of NO(g) (30.0) at 25°C and 783 mm Hg?
a. 1.26 g/L b. 2.68 g/L c. 3.12g/L d. 3.76g/L
Analytical Chemistry Pre-Board 2019

67. The separation of a mixture of substances into pure components on the

basis of their differing solubilities is
a. fractional crystallization c. vacuum distillation
b. steam distillation d. fractional distillation

68. Reduction reaction can occur even without oxidation reaction.

a. false b. true c. possible d. maybe

69. Which of the following must be performed before using the analytical
balance?
a. Cleaning the balance and removing sample residues.
b. Determine the sensitivity of the balance using calibration weight.
c. Checking the level of the balance by adjusting the air bubble.
d. All of the above.
70. The absorbance of different concentrations of potassium permanganate
determined through UV-Vis Spectrophotometer is shown below.

Concentration, ppm Average Absorbance

1.11 0.015
22.2 0.236
44.4 0.512
66.6 0.751
88.8 1.062
The Quality Control Sample for this run gave an average absorbance reading of
0.486. The theoretical concentration of the QC sample is 44.4 ppm. Calculate
for the % error of this QC run.

a. 5.24%

b. 5.52%

c. 4.65%

d. 0.052%

71. The following are the minimum requirements for Hazardous Waste storage
facilities except .

a. Accessible in cases of emergency and for purposes of inspection and

monitoring.
b. Enclosed and should not be ventilated.
c. Have floors that are impermeable to liquids and resistant to attack by
chemicals, not slippery, and constructed to retain spillages
d. Be properly secured and not easily accessed by unauthorized persons.
72. Which of the following is not a failure in pH meters?
a. Defective electrodes c. Defective input circuitry
b. Defective electronic circuitry d. Defective calibration
Analytical Chemistry Pre-Board 2019

73. It is a hazardous waste characteristic which applies to waste liquids

with a flash point less than 140°F or solids capable of spontaneous
combustion under normal temperature and pressure.
a. Ignitability
b. Reactivity
c. Corrosivity
d. Toxicity

74. Which of the following statement satisfies Beer’s Law?

a. Absorbance is proportional to the path length but not in concentration
of the absorbing species
b. Absorbance is proportional to the path length only
c. Absorbance is proportional to the concentration of the absorbing
species but not to the path length
d. Absorbance is proportional to both the path length and concentration of
the absorbing species

75. It is a hazardous waste characteristic which applies to aqueous

solutions with a pH less than or equal to 2 or greater than or equal to
12.5.
a. Ignitability
b. Reactivity
c. Corrosivity
d. Toxicity

76. Determine the volume of the following

a. 74 mL and 25 mL
b. 74 mL and 24 mL
c. 75 mL and 25 mL
d. 75 mL and 24 Ml
Analytical Chemistry Pre-Board 2019

77. Process of which the sample is heated to the boiling point of the solvent
and volatile analytes are concentrated in the vapour phase, condensed and
collected.
a. evaporation
b. distillation
c. liquid-liquid extraction
d. oven drying
78. Which of the following should not be done in using a cuvette?
a. Use a brush to clean the insides of the cuvette
b. Fill the cuvette about 3/4 full of the solution you wish to test.
c. Wipe the outside of the cuvette with a lint-free, soft tissue to remove
any moisture or fingerprints from the outside surface.
d. Do not clean your cuvettes in an ultrasonic cleaning bath.
79. Which of the following is not a primary standard for acids?
a. KHP(potassium hydrogen phthalate)
b. Calcium carbonate
c. Mercuric oxide
d. THAM(Tris-hydroxymethylaminomethane)
80. Series of analytical measurements used to assess the quality of the
analytical data
a. Quality control
b. Quality assurance
c. Fortification
d. Analytical run
81. What is the color of the visible light spectrum in which the wavelength
of
the region is exactly 610 nm?
a.
Yellow
b.
Orange
c.
Red
d.
Blue
82. It is a method of quantitative analysis where the known varying amounts
of the assayed substance are added to several equal portions of the sample
solution
a. Calibration method
b. Peak integration
c. Area normalization
d. External standard method
83. An observable change in a titration process which estimates the point
of equivalence
a. Equivalence point
b. End point
c. Titration point
d. Standard reference point
Analytical Chemistry Pre-Board 2019

84. Kjeldahl method is a titration method for the determination of in

organic compounds
a. Sulfur
b. Carbon
c. Nitrogen
d. Oxygen
85. What is the correct symbol of the element name tungsten?
a. W
b. Y
c. Tu
d. Tn

86. Which of the following is NOT true about galvanic method of oxygen
analysis?
a. Electrodes are composed of noble and base metals
b. It can measure dissolved content of oxygen
c. Its principle is based on electrolysis
d. It utilizes an electronic cell
87. Light bulbs are regulated as universal waste which includes:
I. Flourescent
II. Ultraviolet
III. High intensity discharge
IV. Flood lamps
V. Incandescent
a. I, II, and III
b. II, III, and V
c. I,II,III, and V
d. I, II, III and IV
88. What is the pH of an acid having a concentration of 1.2x10^-5?
a. 5.02
b. 3.49
c. 4.92
d. 5.29

89. What other particle is formed in the fusion of two protons to yield deuterium?
a. Proton
b. Electron
c. Neutron
d. Positron

90. It refers to the irreversible precipitation of protein caused by heat, strong acids
or bases, or various other agents which results in the destruction of the
physiological functions of the protein due to changes in its secondary structure.
a. Denaturation
b. Agglomeration
c. Coagulation
d. Transmutation
Analytical Chemistry Pre-Board 2019

91. All of the following are true about Dalton’s law of partial pressures
EXCEPT
a. It is true for any gas.
b. It states that the total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum
of the partial pressures of the components of the mixture.
c. The states the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture is equal to the
mole fraction of the gas times the pressure of the mixture.
d. It states that each gas in a mixture has its own partial pressure

92. The correct order of increasing frequency is:

a.
X-ray, ultraviolet, microwave
b.
ultraviolet, X-ray, microwave
c.
ultraviolet, microwave, X-ray
d.
microwave, ultraviolet, X-ray
93. If the sun were to suddenly begin to emit more far UV light of
wavelength less than 200 nm, then:
a. the ozone at the earth’s surface would be photo dissociated faster and
thus decrease
b. the earth would heat up, and the human skin cancer rate would increase
due to increased ultraviolet light
c. more NO (nitric oxide) would form in the polluted air of big cities due
to reactions by O atoms from photo dissociation
d. in the ozone layer at 30 km, the oxygen atom concentration would
increase first and then ozone concentration would increase

94. What is the effect on an orbital of an atom if the nuclear charge is

increased?
a. The size of the orbital decreases and its energy becomes lower.
b. The size of the orbital increases and its energy becomes higher.
c. The size of the orbital decreases and its energy becomes higher.
d. The size of the orbital increases and its energy becomes lower.

95. Which of the following is a reason why chlorofluorocarbons (CFC’s) are

postulated to be a danger to the ozone layer?
a. CFC’s decompose in the lower atmosphere.
b. CFC’s decompose upon absorbing high energy radiation in the upper
atmosphere to form fluorine atoms.
c. Decomposition of CFC’s in the upper atmosphere forms chemical species
that can react over and over to convert O3 to O2.
d. CFC’s react directly with O2(g) in the lower atmosphere.

96. In the winter, it is warmer on a cloudy night than on a clear night

because
a. Clouds occur when a warm front is approaching.
b. Clouds block sunlight reflected by the moon.
c. Clouds absorb and reflect infrared light emitted by the earth.
d. Atmospheric CO reacts with water vapor in clouds to produce CO2.

97. Which of the following statements is true?

a. The rates of evaporation and condensation of a substance can never be
equal.
b. Increasing the external pressure on a gas increases its vapor pressure.
c. The rate of condensation of a gas decreases when the temperature is
raised.
d. The rate of evaporation of a liquid increases when the temperature is
raised.
Analytical Chemistry Pre-Board 2019

98. The auto-ionization of water has a small equilibrium constant because

a. of the low solubility of the products of the reaction
b. a strong acid and a weak base combine to form a weak acid and a strong
base
c. a strong acid and a strong base combine to form a weak acid and a weak
base
d. a weak acid and a weak base combine to form a strong acid and a strong
base
99. A process in which normally soluble compounds are carried out of
solution by a precipitate?
a. Precipitation
b. Peptization
c. Coprecipitation
d. Digestion
100. A process wherein a stoichiometrically equivalent quantity of a
standard solution is symmetrically added to a known quantity of a sample?
a. Standardization
b. Titration
c. Neutralization
d. Ionization