An

Exclusive Question Bank

For
NTSE Phase - I
(Rajasthan Board)
 HISTORY

1. Which of the following area is known as “Bairath” at present?

(A) Viratnagar (B) Sursen (C) Kaushambi (D) Gandhar

2. Match the following

Column-A Column-B
(a) Magadha (i) Rajgriha
(b) Surasena (ii) Mathura
(c) Ramagram (iii)Mahishmati
(d) Gandhara (iv) Taxila
(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (B) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(C) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii,d-i (D) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

3. Match the Column-

Column-A Column-B
(a) Kapilvastu (i) Koliyas
(b) Pava (ii) Moriyas
(c) Ramagram (iii)Shakya
(d) Pippalivan (iv) Mallas
(A) a-i,b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (B) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(C) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (D) a-iii, b-iv, c-i,d-ii

4. Rise of Janapadasis noticed in the process of development of –

(A) Indus Valley Civilisation (B) Vedic Civilisation
(C) Rise of Republics (D) Democratic idea

5. Which of the present districts were known as “Jangaldesh” in the Mahabharata period-
(A) Bikaner & Ajmer (B) Ajmer & Bhilwara
(C) Bikaner & jodhpur (D) Jodhpur & Jaisalmer

6. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Matsya Janapada-

(A) The region surrounding present Jaipur was known as Matsya Janapada.
(B) Ahichatrapur was the capital of this Janapada
(C) Modern Alwar and some parts of Bharatpur were also included in it.
(D) Its expense was from the surrounding hills of Chambal to the Jangal region of river
Saraswati

7. Vasudeva‟s son “Lord Krishna” was associated with-

(A) Shivi (B) Sursena (C) Matsya (D) Gandhar

8. In which year Alexander, the great invaded India-

(A) 324 AD (B) 325 AD (C) 328 AD (D) 340 AD

www.ntseguru.in
9. Who was year despotic ruler on Nanda Dynasty ruling in 326 C.E.
(A) Dhananand (B) Srigupta (C) Skandgupta (D) Mahananda

10. Shravanbelagoa is located in-

(A) Kerala (B) Karnataka (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Andhra Pradesh

11. Selucus Nicator belonged to-

(A) Greece (B) Persia (C) Gazni (D) Kabul

12. Which of the following ruler is called “Madrasara” in “Vayu Purana” and Singhsena” in
Jain Text-
(A) Ashoka (B) Vhandragypta Mauryan
(C) Bindusara (D) Samudragupta
13. Antiochus I sent his ambassador in the court of “Bindusara” named-
(A) Dinosius (B) Diamacus (C) Philadelphus (D) None of these

14. Hathigumpha records are found in-

(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Bihar (D) Odisha

15. Which of the following rulers described himself as a “Buddhashakya?”

(A) Kanishka (B) Nagarjuna (C) Ashoka (D) Upgupta

16. Sanchi is located in-

(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Chattisgarh (D) Jharkhand

17. Which of the following ancient Indian Kings had appointed Dhamma Mahamattas?
(A) Asoka (B) Bindusara
(C) Kanishka (D) Chandragupta Maurya

18. Which of the following was the first work of “Samharta?”

(A) To collect revenue (B) To keep record of income & expenditure
(C) To prepare annual Budget (D) All of these

19. Match the following-

Column-A Column-B
(a) Sitadhyaksha (i) Issuing Currency
(b) Koshdhyaksha (ii) Trade
(c) Pandhyadhyaksha (iii)Treasure
(d) Lakshanadhyakshna (iv) Agriculture
(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (B) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(C) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (D) a-iii, b-ii, c-i,d-iv

www.ntseguru.in
20. According to Chanakya, the four main organs of law are-
(A) Dharma, Artha, Kama, Moksha
(B) Dharma, Character, Kama. Artha
(C) Dharma, behavior, Character, Administration
(D) Behaviour,Character, Dharma, Karma

21. The first oceanic invasions of Arabs took place upon-

(A) Kalinga (B) Kocchi (C) Thane (D) Kochin

22. Which of the following rules is known as “Lakbaksh”

(A) Iltutmish (B) Ala-ud-din-Khilji
(C) Sikandar Lodi (D) Qutub-ud-din-Aibak

23. The construction of Qutub-Minar was completed by-

(A) Iltutmish (B) Ala-ud-din-Khilji
(C) Sikandar Lodi (D) Qutub-ud-din-Aibak

24. In which year Iltutmish conqured “Ranthambore?”

(A) 1224 (B) 1225 (C) 1226 (D) 1227

25. Who abolished the system of “Chalisa?”

(A) Qutub-ud-din-Aibak (B) Balban
(C) Sikandar Lodi (D) Ala-ud-din-Khilji

26. Who started the practice of “Sijda” and “Paibas?”

(A) Qutub-ud-din-Aibak (B) Balban
(C) Sikandar Lodi (D) Ala-ud-din-Khilji

27. Who followed the policy of “Iron and blood?”

(A) Balban (B) Iltutmish
(C) Sikandar Lodi (D) Mohhamad Bin Tugilaq

28. Match the following-

Column-A Column-B
(a) Diwan-I-Riyasat (i) Secret Officer
(b) Dandadhikari (ii) Inspector of Weight and measure
(c) Muhtasib (iii)arket Inspector
(d) Barid-i-Mumalik (iv) Market Contriller
(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (B) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(C) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (D) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii,d-i

29. Ibn Battuta visited India in 1333 CE-

(A) Italy (B) Germany (C) Morocco (D) Chinese

www.ntseguru.in
30. Which of the following sultans was called "An astonishing mix of contradictions" and
"Thirsty of blood"?
(A) Sikandar Lodi (B) Ala-ud-din-Khilji
(C) Mohammad Bin Tuglaq (D) Balban

31. Match the following

Column-A Column-B
(i) Diwan-I-Wizarat (a) Finance Department
(ii) Khazin (b) Treasure
(iii)Mustafi (c) Chief Auditor
(iv) Majamadaar (d) Accountant
(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (B) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(C) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (D) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii,d-i

32. Which of the following rulers established a department name Diwan-i-Wizarat?

(A) Jalal-Ud-Din-Khilji (B) Ala-Ud-Din-Khilji
(C) Sikandar Lodi (D) Behlol Lodi

33. Tujuk-Babari was written in which Language-

(A) Persian (B) Greek (C) Turkish (D) Urdu

34. The battle of Chanderi was fought between-

(A) Babur & Ibrahim Lodi (B) Babur & Rana Medinirai
(C) Babur & Rana Sanga (D) Babar & Gengis Khan

35. In which year, Famous battle of Chausa was fought between Humayun & Shershah ?
(A) 1536 (B) 1537 (C) 1538 (D) 1539

36. What was the actual name of "Shershah"?

(A) Khurana (B) Khusro (C) Farid (D) Salim

37. Match the following-

Column-A Column-B
(a) Second Battle of Panipat (i) 1527
(b) Battle of Kannauj (ii) 1576
(c) Battle of Haldighati (iii)1540
(d) Battle of Khanwa (iv) 1556
(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (B) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(C) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (D) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii,d-i

38. The Mausoleum of Shersham is situated in-

(A) Bihar (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Agra in U.P. (D) Delhi

www.ntseguru.in
39. Which of the following ruler‟s tomb is influence by Buddhist style of architecture?
(A) Babur (B) Humayun (C) Akbar (D) Shershah

40. Who was the head priest of Din-I-Illahi religion-

(A) Birbal (B) Mansingh (C) Todarmal (D) Abul Fazal

41. A feeling in which a person‟s highest dedication is towards his nation is known as :
(A) Liberalism (B) Nationalism (C) Conservatism (D) Democracy

42. Consider the following statements & choose the correct option :
I. The first clear expression of forming a Nation state in Europe was firstly visible in
1789 along with the start of French revolution.
II. French Revolution played a major role in spreading the spirit of nationalism in
Europe.
(A) I is true II is false (B) I is false II is true
(C) I & II are true (D) I & II are false

43. During 1833, a trader who travelled from Hmburg to Nuremburg to sell his goods had to
pass through how many toll barriers?
(A) 11 (B) 22 (C) 33 (D) 44

44. Zollverine, formed by Prussia & Joined by many of the German states was a :
(A) German army (B) German Police (C) Custom Union (D) Trade union

45. Which of the following was not a part of the countries that jointly defeated Napoleon ?
(A) Britain (B) France (C) Austria (D) Russia

46. Which language become a symbol of struggle against Russian domination?

(A) German (B) Italian (C) Polish (D) English

47. Consider the following statements & choose the correct option :
(a) Improved variety of seeds in agriculture & mixed farming is a gift from India.
(b) The „Ramsetu‟ was built between Sri Lanka & India thousands of years ago.
(A) I & II are true (B) I & II are false (C) I is true II is false (D) I is false II is true

48. Whchof the following is not a change due to Industrial Revolution ?

(A) Production work now started to be done by machines which ran on power
(B) The banking system developed due to the increase in the use of money.
(C) An organized trading mechanism was developed to promote international trade.
(D) The Principle of more human labour & maximum production was implemented.

49. Which was the first country to experience modern industrialization?

(A) India (B) France (C) England (D) Russia

www.ntseguru.in
50. Assertion : Scientific inventions largely took place in England.
Reason : As compared to other European countries, England gave more freedom to its
scientists in context of political & religious interference & gave promotion to scientific
associations.
(A) Both A & R are true & R explains A
(B) Both A & R are true but R does not explains A.
(C) A is true R is false
(D) A is false R is true.

51. Match the following

A B
(a) Cyrus McCormick (i) Inverted the seed Drill to saw seeds
(b) Townshend (ii) Inverted an automatic harvesting
machine
(c) Jethro Tull (iii)Invented the flying shuttle
(d) John Kay (iv) Gave the principle of crop cycle
(A) a-ii, b-iv, c-I, d-iii (B) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (D) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

52. In England, the first canal named „Worsley Canal‟ was built by :
(A) Ferdinand de lesseps (B) James Brindley
(C) George Stephenson (D) Robert Fulton

53. Match the following

A B
(a) James Hargreaves (i) Powerloom
(b) Richard Arkwright (ii) Spinning mule
(c) Samuel Crompton (iii)Spinning Jenny
(d) Edmund Cartwright (iv) Water frame
(A) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii,d-i (B) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(C) a-I, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (D) a-iii, b-I, c-ii, d-iv

54. The unification of Germany took place in 1871 under the leadership of :
(A) Kaiser William I & his chief minister Otto Von Bismark
(B) Monarch Wilhelm IV & his chief minister Garibaldi
(C) Bismarck & Garibaldi
(D) Mazzini & Garibalsi

55. Who formed „Young Italy‟ for unification of his country ?

(A) Gluseppe Garibaldi (B) Cavour
(C) Giuseppe Mazzini (D) Victor Emmanuel

www.ntseguru.in
56. Who was count Cavour?
(A) The chief minister of Italy (B) Revolutionary of Germany
(C) A catholic missionary (D) The chancellor of Germony

57. What was „Young Italy‟?

(A) Vision of Italy (B) Secret society
(C) National Anthem of France (D) Trade union

58. Which area was made the capital of United Italy ?

(A) Purssia (B) Austria (C) Sicity (D) Rome

59. Rome was under the authority of

(A) Revolutionaries (B) Common People (C) Pope (D) King

60. Which area was considered as the biggest obstacle in the unification of Italy according to
Cavour?
(A) Rome (B) Austria (C) Piedmont (D) Sardinat

GEOGRAPHY
61. Assertion (A) : Most of the rainwater wasted into the seas through the rivers.
Reasons (R) : Adequate water management is necessary to utilize this wasted water.
(A) Both A and R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is correct, But R is not correct explanation of A
(C) A is true R is false
(D) R is true A is false

62. Who called the multipurpose rivers projects as “The temples of Modern India.”
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru (B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) B.R. Ambedkar (D) Sarojini Naidu

63. Which of the following project is/are running by Central Government.

(A) Bhakra Nangal (B) Rihand (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these

64. Match the project with the states :

A B
(1) Chambal Project (a) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa
(2) Tungabhadra Project (b) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
(3) Mahi Project (c) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
(4) Machhakund Project (d) Gujarat and Rajasthan
(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (B) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
(C) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c (D) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a

www.ntseguru.in
65. Read the following statement, which is true regarding „Damodar Valley Project:
1. This is the first important project of independent India.
2. The project started in 1948 on river Damodar, which is know as “Bengal‟s sorrow.”
3. This river was defamed for its uncertain route, soil erosion and floods.
4. Baraker, Bokaro and Konar are tributaries of this river.
(A) TFTF (B) TTFF (C) TTTT (D) FTFT

66. Which project is and ambitious project of Peninsular India.

(A) Mahi River Project (B) Hirakund Project
(C) Chambal Project (D) Jakham Project

67. Which of the following is not a project of Rajasthan :

(A) Jakham Project (B) Panchana Dam
(C) Jawai Dam (D) Tugabhdra Projet

68. Read the following , which statement is correct regarding Baori (step well) :
1. These are quadrangular, circular or oval in shape.
2. Bricks and artistic stones are used from their entry part till their central part and
Verandah type structures are present in their front side.
3. Steps are built to reach these parts
4. Artistic arches, pillers and ventilatorsare built on the ladders
(A) 1,3 (B) 2,4 (C) 1,2,3 (D) 1,2,3,4

69. The city of steps well is :

(A) Bundi (B) Ajmer (C) Alwar (D) Bikaner

70. Match the following :

A B
1. Pichola and Fateh Sagar Lake (a) Churu
2. Aana Sagar Lake (b) Rajsamand
3. Tal Chhapar Lake (c) Udaipur
4. Nav chowki Lake (d) Ajmer
(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (B) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
(C) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b (D) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a

www.ntseguru.in
71. Which of the correct sequence for the following :
1. A smaller from of pond.
2. Its upper part is covered with rocks or other locally available resources. Ash or dust is
coated on its inner part to prevent water leakage and tear and wear of its bottom.
3. Its diameter is 2-3 feet and its walls are tied with stones, so that the underground
water may infuse in , it is used in summer season after the rainwater dries up.
4. It is basically a technique of water conservation and water collection adopted by
Paliwal Brahmins of Jaisalmer district in medieval times and it is regarded to be the
technique for agriculture and availability of potoable water.
(A) Khadin, Taanka, Nadi, Beri (B) Nadi, Taanka, Beri, Khadin
(C) Beri, Taanka, Khadin, Nadi (D) Taanka, Nadi, Beri, Khadin

72. Assertion (A) : Rajasthan canal is the largest man made canal of not only in India, but
also of the entire Asian continent.
Reason (R) : Its total length is 1005 km.
(A) Both A and R is correct, R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is correct, But R is not correct explanation of A
(C) A is true R is false
(D) R is true A is false

73. Which of the following is not correctly matched :

(A) Sidhmukh Project : Through this project, additional water from rivers Ravi and
Beas is used to irrigate 33000 hectare land in Nohra –Bhadra of Ganganagar and
Janumangarh.
(B) Som-Amba –Kamala Project : Through this dam, irrigation facilities will be provided
to village of Asampur tehsil of Dungapur
(C) Meja Dam : This dam been built on river Jhakham in Anooppura for development of
irrigation in chittorgarh and Udaipur
(D) Panchana Dam : Village of Todabhim, Hindun and Gangapur are irrigated through
this dam.

74. Assertion (A) : In Rajasthan conservation and management of water has been traditional.
Reason (R) : The state always remains prove to famine and drought.
(A) Both A and R is correct, R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is correct, But R is not correct explanation of A
(C) A is true R is false
(D) R is true A is false

www.ntseguru.in
75. Read the following statement, which is true regarding water self – Help:
(A) Under this, water conservation at local level, sensible use of available water and
water management through conservation of water at local level is included.
(B) The traditional sources of water should be redeveloped at local level and they should
be used for irrigation and other related activities.
(C) Along with this, rain water and underground water should be used in a way that water
remains available on local level for the generations to come.
(D) In present time, water self – help is essential to remains free from the problems
obtained from water scarcity.
(A) TFTF (B) TTFF (C) TTTT (D) FTFT

76. Which is the longest dam in the world?

(A) Bhakra (B) Hirakud dam
(C) Mahi dam (D) Nagarjuna sagar dam

77. Wirhind canal, Bist Doab, Narwans canal have been carved out from which of the
following project.
(A) Damodar Valley project (B) Bhakra Nangal project
(C) Hirakud project (D) Mahi project

78. Which of the following project established by Indian government as per the format of
Tennessee Valley corporation in America:
(A) Hirakud project (B) Damodar Valley (C) Bhakra Nangal (D) Both (A) & (C)

79. Bhakra-Nagal dam is located in-

(A) Punjab (B) Himachal Pradesh (C) Uttarakhand (D) J & K

80. Damodar River Valley project is a joint venture of-

(A) West Bengal & Odisha (B) West Bengal & Chattisgarh
(C) West Bengal & Jharkhand (D) West Bengal & Bihar

81. What is the literacy rate of India as per 2001 census ?

(A) 60% (B) 62% (C) 65% (D) 70%

82. Which is the most literate state in India?

(A) Bihar (B) Kerala (C) Goa (D) Assam

83. Which one of the following is an activities of the secondary sector?

(A) Manufacturing (B) Agriculture (C) Education (D) Mining

84. Which of the following sectors is related to agriculture, forestry and dairy?
(A) Primary Sector (B) Tertiary Sector (C) Secondary Sector (D) None of these

www.ntseguru.in
85. PHC stands for
(A) Public health club (B) Private health club
(C) Primary health centre (D) None of these

86. Which one of the following organizations constructs Border roads in India?
(A) PWD (B) CPWD (C) BRO (D) NHAI

87. World has become a global village due to which of the following?
(A) Transport and communication (B) International trade
(C) Engineering industry (D) Electronic industry

88. Which is the cheapest mode of transport in India?

(A) Waterways (B) Roadways (C) Railways (D) Airways

89. Border Road Organisation was established in.

(A) 1950 (B) 1955 (C) 1958 (D) 1960

90. The full from of NHAI is ………………………

(A) National Hyghway Academy of India (B) National Highway-7
(C) National Highway-1 (D) National Highway-15

91. Bridges and tunnels connect the Multilane National …………………..

(A) Highways (B) Railways (C) Airways (D) None of these

92. Pipeline are used to carry …………….

(A) Coal (B) Oil (C) Wood (D) None of these
93. Telegraph was inverted in the year ………………
(A) 1844 (B) 1855 (C) 1866 (D) None of these

94. Aonargaon is in …………….

(A) Bangladesh (B) Pakistan (C) India (D) None of these

95. Which is NOT a means of communication?

(A) Telephone (B) Books (C) Table (D) None of these

96. Which type of road is constructed under the ground?

(A) Fly over (B) Expressways (C) Subways (D) None of these

97. Which mode of transport is most suitable to reach an island?

(A) Ship (B) Train (C) Car (D) None of these

98. Which vehicle does not pollute the environment

(A) Cycle (B) Bus (C) Aeroplane (D) None of these

www.ntseguru.in
99. Trade carried in cities, towns and villagers is called …………….
(A) External trade (B) Local trade (C) Internal trade (D) International trade

100. The Indian national highways are maintained by the department of ……………..
(A) National Highway Authority of India (B) State Public Works Department
(C) Zila Parishad (D) Central Public Works Department

101. How many types of iron ore is founded in India :

(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Two

102. Mayurbhanj, Sundargarh, Keonjhar district of Orissa found which type of Iron are :
(A) Magnetite (B) Hematite (C) Cidarite (D) Limonite

103. Which is the largest Iron ore mine of Asia :

(A) Bailadila (B) Banspani (C) Kalahathi (D) Shimoga

104. Maximum natural gas is produced in which state of India :

(A) Assam (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Maharashtra (D) Gujarat

105. How many atomic reactors established by atomic energy commission.

(A) 25 (B) 30 (C) 10 (D) 17

106. One ouence of Uranium produces energy equivalent to ……………. Metric tons of coal:
(A) 1000 (B) 200 (C) 500 (D) 100

107. Which state is known as “The museum of Minerals”:

(A) Assam (B) Gujarat (C) Rajasthan (D) J & K

108. Which city of Rajasthan is famous as “The Marble City”.

(A) Bikaner (B) Makrana (C) Jaisalmer (D) Banswara

109. Paradeep seaport is located in-

(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Orissa (C) West Bengal (D) Tamilnadu

110. Koraput and Kalahandi in Orissa is famous for the reserves of which minerals?
(A) Mica (B) Bauxite (C) Limestone (D) Copper

111. In 1857 where the first cotton mill of India was founded.
(A) Mysore (B) Madras (C) Surat (D) Bombay

112. Largest producer of Jute and Jute made goods.

(A) Bangladesh (B) India (C) Sri Lanka (D) Brazil

www.ntseguru.in
113. Iron and steel is a/an
(A) An agro base industry (B) A chemical industry
(C) Basic industry (D) Tertiary industry

114. Durgapur is situated in

(A) Jharkhand (B) Orissa (C) Chhattisgarh (D) West Bengal

115. Chemical industries usually are located near

(A) Iron and steel industries (B) Thermal power plant
(C) Oil refineries (D) Automobiles industry

116. STP is the Abbreviation of

(A) System tech park (B) Software Technology park
(C) State thermal plant (D) Software Technology picket

117. NTPC is the Abbreviation of

(A) National Textile Production Company
(B) National Technology Production Company
(C) National Thermal Power Corporation
(D) National Tuberculosis Prevention Corporation

118. Atomic power plant causes

(A) Water Pollution (B) Noise Pollution (C) Air Pollution (D) Heat Pollution

119. Manufacturing industries includes

(A) Crop production (B) Fish production (C) Plantation (D) Sugar Production

120. Manufacturing industriesincludes

(A) Converting raw material into ready good (B) Transporting rawmaterial
(C) Producing raw material (D) Procuring raw material

121. When was cotton textile industry established in Mumbai?

(A) 1854 (B) 1855 (C) 1948 (D) 1956

122. When was the first industries Policy introduced?

(A) 1855 (B) 1948 (C) 1956 (D) 1961

123. When was first modern cotton textile mill set up?
(A) 1818 (B) 1854 (C) 1855 (D) 1948

124. Which Indian state has the largest production of cotton mill cloth, as per 2010-11?
(A) Gujarat (B) Maharashtra (C) Punjab (D) Tamil Nadu

125. Which is the Manchester of Uttar Pradesh?

(A) Agra (B) Allahabad (C) Kanpur (D) Luvknow

www.ntseguru.in
126. Which city is known as the Manchester of South India?
(A) Madurai (B) Coimbatore (C) Erode (D) Sale

127. Which is the Indian state with the highest number of power looms?
(A) Gujarat (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Maharashtra (D) Tamil Nadu

128. Which one of the following silk varieties stands first in total production of silk in India,
as per 2012-13?
(A) Eri (B) Mulberry (C) Raw Silk (D) Tasar

129. When was the first iron and steel unit on modern lines established?
(A) 1830 (B) 1907 (C) 1919 (D) 1923

130. When was Tata iron and steel Company formed?

(A) 1907 (B) 1919 (C) 1923 (D) 197

CIVICS

131. As per the Goa, Daman and Diu Re-organisation Act, 1987, what can be the maximum
strength of the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 500 (B) 530 (C) 545 (D) 552

132. According to the constitution, which of the following qualification is incorrect to be a

member of Lok Sabha ?
(i) He should be a citizen of India.
(ii) He should be of age 30 or more
(iii)He should not hold an office of profit under the Indian Government or any State
Government.
(iv) He should not be declared as mentally disabled through any court and should not be
bankrupt.
Answer Codes :
(A) I, II, III (B) II, III, IV (C) I, II, IV (D) I, II, III, IV

133. Which of the following are the powers and functions of the speaker ?
I. He is responsible for maintaining law & order and discipline
II. He decodes the entire programme & proceedings of Lok Sabha.
III. With the advice of the leader of the House, He fixes the time for debate & discussion
upon various issues.
IV. He decides whether a Bill is a money Bill or not
(A) I, II, III (B) II, III, IV (C) I, II, IV (D) I, II, III, IV

www.ntseguru.in
134. According to which section, money bills can only be presented in the Lok Sabha & not in
the Rajya Sabha?
(A) 66 (B) 109 (C) 157 (D) 175
135. The head of the executive of the Indian Union is called the :
(A) Prime Minister (B) Vice President (C) President (D) Chief Justice of India
136. State True / False :
A. Elected members of the Rajya Sabha do not participate in the elections of the
President.
B. Members of the Rajya Sabha & the Lok Sabha jointly elect the Vice President
C. The impeachment motion is regarded to be passed only when both the House accept
this type of motin.
(D) The Rajya Sabha & the Lok Sabha jointly pass a motion through majority & remove
the Vice President from his office.
(A) FTFT (B) TFTT (C) TTTF (D) FTTT
137. Choose the correct option ?
I. According to section 249. Through a majority of two-third of its members present and
participating in the election, the Rajya Sabha can declare a subject present in the
national list to be a subject of national importance.
II. According to section 312 of the constitution, only the Rajya Sabha has the power to
provide the right to establish new all India Services to the CentralGovernment by
Passing a motion through two-third of its majority.
(A) I is true , II is false (B) I is false, II is true
(C) I & II are true (D) I & II are false
138. The tenure of the President of India is :
(A) 4 years (B) 5 years (C) 6 years (D) 7 years
139. Total Number of members mominated by the president in the Rajya Sabha are :
(A) 2 (B) 12 (C) 238 (D) 250
140. Who is the ex-officio Chairperson of Rajya Sabha?
(A) President (B) Cabinet (C) Prime Minister (D) Vice President
141. In what cases can the vice President acquire the office of the President?
I. In case of death of the President.
II. In case of President‟s resignation.
III. In case of removal of the President through impeachment.
IV. Due to the President being incapable to fulfil his responsibilities, such as illness or in
case of foreign visit.
(A) I, II, III (B) II, III, IV (C) I, III, IV (D) I, II, III, IV

www.ntseguru.in
142. Which section of the Indian Constitution provides for the post of the Prime Minister?
(A) 17 (B) 54 (C) 74 (D) 87

143. Supreme Court of India is situated at :

(A) Calcutta (B) Mumbai (C) Chennai (D) Delhi

144. In which of the following categories can the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
be divided?
I. Constitutional
II. Civil
III. Criminal
IV. Specific
(A) Only I & II (B) Only II & III (C) Only III & IV (D) All of them

145. Choose the correct option :

I. Original single jurisdiction refers to those disputes which can be heard only by the
Supreme Court.
II. In Original concurrent jurisdiction both the Supreme Court & the High Court have
been given the right to implement the fundamental rights provided by the
constitution.
(A) I & II are true (B) I & II are false (C) I is true II is false (D) I is false II is true

146. Chief Justice and other Judges of Supreme Court of India are appointed by :
(A) Law minister of India (B) President of India
(C) Parliament of India (D) Prime Minister of India

147. What is the salary of the Chief Justice and other Judges?
(A) 1 lakh per month (B) 1.25 lakh per month
(C) 1.5 lakh per month (D) 2 lakh per month

148. The Supreme Commander of the Armed forces is :

(A) The Chief of the Army staff (B) The Defence Minister of India
(C) The Prime Minister of India (D) The President of India

149. How many members from the Anglo-Indians can be nominated by the President for the
Lok Sabha ?
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four

150. Which type of head is the Prime Minister in India ?

(A) Constitutional (B) Formal (C) Actual (D) None of these

151. According to which section of constitution, every state has a legislature?

(A) Section 10 (B) Section 12 (C) Section 168 (D) Section 100

www.ntseguru.in
152. Who decided minimum and maximum number of members of the legislative Assembly?
(A) Constitution (B) President (C) Governor (D) Chief Minister

153. Which of the following electoral colleges conducts the election of members of legislative
council?
(A) Electoral college of local institution (B) Electoral college of legislative assembly
(C) Electoral college of Graduates (D) All of these

154. Which of the following statement is true regarding legislative council?

1. The minimum age has been fixed as 30 yrs. For the membership of legislative
council.
2. The elected person should also be a voter from the constituency of that state‟s
legislative assembly.
3. The legislative council is a permanent body
4. The tenure of members of the legislative council is 6 yrs.
(A) TFTF (B) TTTF (C) TTTT (D) FFTT

155. Which of the following statement is correct regarding state assembly‟s power for
amendment in the constitution :
1. Certain sections of our constitution are such which can be amended only after the
motion passed by the parliament through special majority are passed by the state
legislature of at least half of the existing states.
2. The state Legislature are not allowed to recommend for amendment in the
constitution.
3. State Assembly can only accept or reject such proposal.
4. This task can be done only by state council.
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 2, 3, 4 (C) 1, 3, 4 (D) 1, 2, 4

156. Read the following statement which is true regarding state assembly of Rajasthan and its
present position.
1. At present, in Rajasthan, there is only one house of the state Legislature which is
called Legislative Assembly
2. A proposal regarding the formation of legislative council has been sent to the Central
Government.
3. There second house of legislative council is not present in Rajasthan.
4. Only after being accepted by the central government, the process of formation of the
legislative council will begin.
(A) FFFT (B) TTTF (C) TTTT (D) TFTF

157. Which of the following states have two house of state assembly :
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Bihar (C) Maharashtra (D) All of these

www.ntseguru.in
158. Assertion (A) : Governor and the council of ministers are included in the state executive
Reason (R) : In practice, the Chief Minister and his council of ministers make the actual
head of the state executive.
(A) Both A and R is correct, R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is correct, But R is not correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, R is false
(D) R is true, A is false

159. “Except those issue in which the constitution or the Governor as mentioned in the
constitution is expected to act as per his/her discretion, all the other responsible of the
Governor will be fulfilled by the assistance and advice of the state council of ministers
with the chief Minister as its head.”
Which of the following state Governor‟s enjoy these discretionary powers.
(A) Nagaland (B) Sikkim (C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) All of these

160. Which of the following category ministers are the most powerful.
(A) Cabinet Ministrs (B) State Ministers
(C) Deputy Ministers (D) Both (A) & (B)

161. Assertion (A) : The chief Minister is exclusively responsible for the formation of council
of ministers.
Reason (A) : The number of these ministers is also decided by the Chief Minister
(A) Both A and R is correct, R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is correct, but R is not correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, R is false
(D) R is true, A is false

162. According to which constitutional amendment, the size of the number of members of
council of ministers has been capped at 15% of the number of members of the legislative
assembly :
(A) 98 (B) 91 (C) 67 (D) 51

163. Which of the following statement is true regarding working of the cabinet :
(A) Council of ministers is the most important unit of the cabinet.
(B) The cabinet take decisions regarding all the important issues.
(C) Normally, the meetings of the council of ministers are held once in a years.
(D) The chief minister presides upon these meetings and the most senior minister presides
upon such meetings in his/her absence.
(A) TTFF (B) TTTF (C) TTFT (D) FFFT

www.ntseguru.in
164. In the context of formation of government policies, the cabinet forms the policies
regarding :
(A) Home ministry (B) Health care
(C) Agriculture (D) All of these

165. Which of the following statement is correct regarding chief Minister

1. The Governor will appoint the Chief Minister
2. The head of the state council of minister is the chief Minister
3. He/she is the actual head of the state legislature.
4. In the administration structure of the state, his/her position is the same as that of the
Prime Minister in the centre
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 1, 3, 4 (C) 2, 3, 4 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4

166. Assertion (A) : A unified judiciary is present in India and the Supreme Court is present
at its highest level.
Reason (R) : On the state level, the High Court is the highest judicial organization.
(A) Both A and R is correct, R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is correct, But R is not correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, R is false
(D) R is true, A is false

167. Who can transfer the judges of high courts after taking advice by the chief justive of the
Supreme Court?
(A) The Defence Minister (B) HRD Minister
(C) The President (D) None of these

168. Which of the following provisions have been made in context to independence of the
High Court?
(A) Special producer for appointment
(B) Fixed tenure
(C) With exception of the provision of impeachment, no other check on the conduct of
the Judges by the Parliament
(D) All of these

169. The Judges of High court will assume office till the age of :
(A) 58 yrs. (B) 62 yrs. (C) 55 yrs (D) 50 yrs.

170. Appellate jurisdiction of the High court can be divided into the
(A) Civil appellate jurisdiction (B) Criminal appellate jurisdiction
(C) Constitutional appellate jurisdiction (D) All of these

www.ntseguru.in
 ECONOMY
171. What is the major aim of Sarva Siksha Abhiyan
(A) To provide elementary education to women
(B) To provide elementary education to the rural poor
(C) To provide elementary education to all children in the age group 6-14 years
(D) To provide elementary education to the urban poor

172. What is the life expectancy in India according to the census of 2000?
(A) 72 years (B) 53 years (C) 64 years (D) 80 years

173. According to census of 2000, Infant mortality rate (IMR) has come down to
(A) 147 (B) 100 (C) 84 (D) 75

174. Decrease in IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) of a country signifies :

(A) Increase in life expectancy
(B) Increase in GNP
(C) Economy development of country
(D) Increase in Number of colleges in a country

175. Which of the following is liability for the economy ?

(A) Illiteracy (B) Health Population (C) Skilled Workers (D) Universities

176. Which is an economy activity in the following?

(A) Work of Nurse at her home (B) Work of Doctor at their home
(C) Work of Teacher in the school (D) None of the above
177. Which one of the following is considered important to create a „virtous cycle‟ by the
parents?
(A) To send their children to the school
(B) To provide good food to their children
(C) To join their children in corporate schools
(D) To take care of the health and education of their children
178. Tertiary sector of economy includes
(A) Tourism (B) Forestry (C) Quarrying (D) Agriculture
179. Type of employment when people are not able to find jobs during some parts of the year
is called
(A) Disguised employment (B) Seasonal employment
(C) Expected employment (D) Educated employment

180. When more people are employed than required for a particular job it is known as
(A) Unemployment (B) Seasonal unemployment
(C) Disguised unemployemnt (D) Employment

www.ntseguru.in
181. Which sector includes Agriculture and Animal Husbandry?
(A) Primary Sector (B) Secondary Sector (C) Tertiary Sector (D) None of these

182. Government has set schools in each district called.

(A) Army Schools (B) Navodaya Vidyalaya
(C) Sainik School (D) Missionary School

183. Which of the following is a significant step towards providing elementary education to all
the children in the age group of 6-14 years?
(A) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (B) Adult Education Programme
(C) Mid-day meal (D) None of the above

184. Which of the following is not included in national income?

(A) Doctor services in clinic (B) Domestic chores of housewives
(C) Teaching services in schools (D) Lawyer consulting services

185. The number of females per thousand males refers to

(A) Sex Ratio (B) Literacy Rate (C) Infant Mortality (D) Birth Rate

186. Income of a person of family port raises-

(A) His material life style (B) Social status
(C) Economic development (D) All of thes

187. Which of the following can be defined as the monetary value of all the final goods and
services produced by all the sources of production.
(A) National income (B) Personal income (C) Average income (D) None of these

188. Creation of utility and creation price increase is referred to as ………………

(A) Creation (B) Production (C) Formation (D) None of these

189. National income committee submitted its first report in-

(A) 1950 (B) 1951 (C) 1952 (D) 1954

190. CSO stands for.

(A) Central Statistical Organisation (B) Central Static Organisation
(C) Central Surgent Organisation (D) None of these

191. In India financial year is regarded from

(A) 1st April (B) 1st Jan (C) 1 March (D) 1 July

192. Firstly National income in India was calculated by-

(A) Findley shiraz (B) Dr. V.K.R.V. Rao (C) Dadabhai Naoroji (D) R.C. Desai

193. In which year, for the first time National income was calculated.
(A) 1865 (B) 1867 (C) 1868 (D) 1870

www.ntseguru.in
194. After independence, the government of India formed the National income committee in
which year and under whose leadership.
(A) 1848, Dadabhai Naoroji (B) 1868, Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) 1949, P.C. Mahalnobis (D) 1947, V.K.R.V. Rao

195. The Major drawbacks of calculating National income were.

(A) Lacking reliable figures (B) Did not use suitable statistical principles
(C) Using different principles and basis (D) Both (A) & (B)

196. Read the following statements carefully.

(A) National income committee submitted its first report in 1951
(B) It submitted its final report in 1955
(C) The committee handed over the work of calculation of National income to CSO
(D) CSO is calculating National income in India since 1955 on annual basis.

197. The concept of human development emerged in which year-

(A) 1989 (B) 1990 (C) 1992 (D) 1994

198. Under which sector products are transformed into forms through manufacturing process.
(A) Primary (B) Secondary (C) Tertiary (D) Service

199. Which of the following services are the part of indispensable services
(A) Teacher (B) Cobblers (C) Hair dressers (D) All of these

200. Assertion : Average of per capita income is given more importance as compared to
National income.
Reason: By comparing total income, one can‟t determine the income of an average
person.
(A) Both (A) & (R) are true and (R) completely explains (A)
(B) Both (A) & (R) are true but (R) partially explains (A)
(C) Both (A) & (R) are true and (R) does not explain.
(D) (R) is incorrect but (A) is correct.

www.ntseguru.in
 ANSWER KEY
HISTORY 26 B 52 B 77 B 103 A 129 A 154 C 179 B
1 A 27 A 53 A 78 B 104 C 130 A 155 A 180 C
2 A 28 D 54 A 79 B 105 D CIVICS 156 C 181 A
3 D 29 C 55 C 80 C 106 D 131 D 157 D 182 B
4 B 30 C 56 A 81 C 107 C 132 B 158 B 183 A
5 C 31 A 57 B 82 B 108 B 133 D 159 D 184 B
6 B 32 A 58 D 83 A 109 B 134 B 160 A 185 A
7 B 33 C 59 C 84 A 110 B 135 C 161 B 186 D
8 B 34 B 60 B 85 C 111 C 136 D 162 B 187 A
9 A 35 D GEOGRAPHY 86 C 112 A 137 C 163 C 188 B
10 B 36 C 61 B 87 A 113 C 138 B 164 D 189 B
11 A 37 D 62 A 88 C 114 D 139 B 165 D 190 A
12 C 38 A 63 C 89 D 115 B 140 D 166 B 191 A
13 A 39 C 64 B 90 B 116 B 141 D 167 C 192 C
14 D 40 D 65 C 91 A 117 C 142 C 168 D 193 C
15 C 41 B 66 B 92 B 118 D 143 D 169 B 194 C
16 A 42 C 67 D 93 A 119 D 144 D 170 D 195 D
17 A 43 A 68 D 94 A 120 A 145 D ECONOMICS 196 B
18 D 44 D 69 A 95 C 121 A 146 A 171 C 197 B
19 B 45 B 70 C 96 C 122 B 147 C 172 C 198 B
20 C 46 C 71 B 97 A 123 A 148 D 173 D 199 D
21 C 47 A 72 C 98 A 124 B 149 B 174 A 200 A
22 D 48 D 73 C 99 B 125 C 150 C 175 A
23 D 49 C 74 A 100 A 126 A 151 C 176 C
24 C 50 A 75 C 101 C 127 D 152 A 177 D
25 B 51 A 76 B 102 C 128 C 153 D 178 A