Regulation Question bank

Regulation Miscellaneous Que. Paper - 1

1. Position report is required to be given when
a) Crossing an FIR b)Over a compulsory reporting point
c) if so required by ATC d) all are correct
Ans. d

2. Aerodrome data and facilities are given in

a) Aeradio b) AIP c) Notams d) AIRACs
Ans. b

3. An aircraft is following a track of 179º (M) on a VFR plan. The choice of flight levels
available to the pilot are:
a) 50,70,90,150,170,190,210,230,250,270,290
b) 55,75,95,155,175,195,215,235,255,275,295
c) 50,70,90,110,130,160,180,200,220,240,260,280
d) 55, 75, 95, 115, 135, 155, 175, 195, 215, 235, 255, 275
Ans. d

4. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal means:

a) Do not land for the time being
b) Landings Prohibited
c) Aircraft are to land Take off & Taxi on runways and taxi ways only
d) Special precaution while landing should be taken because of the bad state of the Maneuvering area
Ans. d

5. Above flight level 290 the minimum vertical separation between aircraft on reciprocal
tracks in RVSM area is
a) 1000 feet up to F410 b) 2000 feet up to F410
c) 4000 feet up to F460 d) 5000 feet up to F460
Ans. a

6. Wake turbulence separation minima for Take off, if a light aircraft is to take off behind a heavy or
a
medium aircraft is:
a) 2 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 5 minutes d) Non of the above
Ans. a

7. All flights above_________ flight levels are to be cleared IFR irrespective of weather Conditions
a) F 280 b) F 150 c) F 140 d) F 100
Ans. b

8. If there is a temporary change in the aeronautical services it is intimated through

a) AIP b) AIC c) NOTAM d) AIRAC
Ans. c

9. The highest flight level that can be flown in India is

a) 460 b) 450 c) 440 d) 400
Ans. a

10. A report received from an aircraft giving a position and /or met report is called
a) Met report b) Position report c) Air report d) All of the above
Ans. c
 11. During flight as a pilot you are subjected to unlawful interference .On SSR you should set
a) Mode A code 7500 b) Mode A code 7600 c) Mode A code 7700 d) Mode C code 7500
Ans. a

12. What information is included in the third section of an Air report?

a) Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence b) Spot Wind, Icing, Cloud above
c) Spot Wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence d) ETA Destination
Ans. c

13. A fresh flight plan is to be filed if a scheduled controlled flight is delayed by more than
a) One hour b) 30 minutes c) 15 mins d) 5 mins
Ans. b

14. The minimum wake turbulence time separation for a heavy aircraft to land behind a
heavy aircraft is
a) 2 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 5 minutes d) not required
Ans. d

15. The air report contains following items:

a) Air temperature, Turbulence, Surface wind & aircraft Icing
b) Turbulence, upper winds & surface temperature
c) Air temperature, Turbulence, Upper winds & aircraft Icing & humidity
d) All are correct
Ans. c

16. At an aerodrome special VFR may be authorized when

a) Visibility falls below 5 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
b) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
c) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
d) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1000 feet
Ans. a

17. Routes guides are required to be carried by :

a. All aircraft b. Pvt. Aircraft c. Scheduled aircraft d. Aerial aircraft
Ans. c

18. AIP India is published by

a) DGCA b) AAI c) Civil Aviation Ministry d) ICAO
Ans. b

19. Sunrise time of an Airport in calculated for an altitude of the Sun

a) 6° below the horizon b) 0° at the horizon
c) 8° below the horizon d) 12° below the horizon
Ans. b

20. An Aircraft shall report “long final” when it is at _________ from the approach end of the rwy
a) 8NMs b) 4NMs c) 1NMs d) 2 NMs
Ans. a

21. ‘ATIS’ is a continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning:

a) ATS information b) ATS and Met information
c) Navigation Information d) Traffic Information
Ans. b
 22. An aircraft is on a track of 030º (M) and reports crossing a point at 0412 Hrs at F370. Other
aircraft at F370 on a track of 100º(M) can cross the same point not earlier than:
a) 0422 hrs b) 0417 hrs if 40 kts faster c) 0427 hrs d) 0402 hrs
Ans. c

23. An ac at F390 crosses a point at 0210 hrs wishes to descent to F310. There is reciprocal traffic
estimating to cross same point at 0300hrs maintaining F 330. By what time the descending
aircraft should reach F310 if both aircraft maintain same speed?
a) 0215 hrs b) 0220 hrs c) 0225 hrs d) 0250 hrs
Ans. c

24. A prohibited area is an area over which:

a) Flight within 2 miles is prohibited. b) Flight of aircraft is totally prohibited.
c) Low flying is prohibited. d) Only instrument flying practice can be done.
Ans. b

25. An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

a) there are obstructions on the airport
b) that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums
c) the Air Traffic Control is not in operation
d) runway is blocked
Ans. b

26. The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on
landing is a
a) light, quartering headwind b) light, quartering tailwind
c) Strong headwind d) strong tailwind
Ans. b

27. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance
during daylight hours is to use
a) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-,9-, and 12-o’clock positions
b) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector
c) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing
d) a series of eye movements focused at horizon
Ans. b

28. Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded
information concerning
a) Pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain
or to an obstruction
b) Non-essential information to reduce frequency congestion
c) Non-control information in selected high-activity terminal areas
d) To warn pilots about conflicting traffic
Ans. c

29. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
a) The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation
b) The corrected density altitude of the departure airport
c) The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport
d) QFE
Ans. a

30. Flight must invariably be conducted in accordance with Instrument Flight Rules, even during
broad day light, when aircraft are flown.:
 a) At or above F150. b) Within controlled airspace.
c) At or above F 200. d) In designated areas or designated routes.
Ans. a

31. What time is filled in item 13 of flight plan?

a) Expected Time of Departure b) Estimated off block time
c) Expected Approach Time d) Estimated Elapsed Time
Ans. b

32. The visibility reqd. when flying at (or) below 3000’ in a controlled airspace
a) 5 kms b) 8 kms c) 10 kms d) 3 kms
Ans. a

33. What speed is filled in item 15 of flight plan: a) IAS b) TAS c) RAS d) GS
Ans. b

34. The pilot has to inform the ATC if the ETA changes by
a) 5 mins b) 3 mins c) 10 mins d) 2 mins
Ans. b

35. Runaway direction is measured from:

a) True North b) Compass North c) Magnetic North d) North Pole
Ans. c

36. If the marshaller has either arm placed level with shoulder and moved laterally across throat
indicates
a) Stop b) Cut Engines c) Continue Straight d) Turn Off
Ans. b

37. A pilot not having an instrument rating cannot fly :

a)At any time. b) During hours of night.
c) Without permission of aerodrome officer. d) Without permission from the DGCA.
Ans. b

38. If a climbing a/c is crossing the level of another a/c the separation required is
a) 15 NMs b) 15 Mins c) 20 NMs d) 5 Mins
Ans. b

39. What shape and colour is a landing direction indicator?

a) A white capital T; land along the stem towards the crosspiece
b) An orange or red windsock, land towards the mast
c) A white or orange capital T; land along the stem towards the crosspiece
d) An orange wedge shape in 3 dimensions, land towards the point of the wedge
Ans. c

40. How should a close part of a runway be marked?

a) With yellow and black marker boards b) With red and white marker boards
c) With a white cross on the surface d) With white chevrons on the surface
Ans. c

41. What is the minimum flight visibility for flight in VFR if an aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in
Class G airspace at a speed of 120 knots and in sight of the surface?
a) 8000 meters b) 5000 meters c) 1500 meters d) There is no minimum
Ans. b
 42. What is the minimum horizontal distance which an aero plane must stay away from cloud in
Class D airspace at 2000 feet in order to fly under VFR?
a) 1500 meters b) 1800 meters
b) No minimum stated provided the aircraft has a flight visibility of 5000 meters
c) No minimum stated provided the aircraft is in sight of the surface.
Ans. a

43. What is correctly defined as “A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an
aircraft and its occupants?
a) The emergency phase b) The uncertainty phase c) The alert phase d) The distress phase
Ans. c

44. An aircraft should be refueled:

a) Inside a hanger.
b) Inside a hanger or building under supervision after taking adequate precautions.
c) In the open.
d) Wherever adequate facility exists.
Ans. c

45. Position report shall be made after every _______, where no standard reporting points exist .
a) 15 Mins b) 20 Mins c) first report after 30 mins and subsequent after 60 mins d) 60 Mins
Ans. c

46. DME separation between A/C on same track, same level and in same direction is
a) 10 NM b) 20 NM c) 15 NM d) 5 NM
Ans. b

47. An aircraft on a Special VFR flight has been cleared for “straight in “approach. Because of
low ceiling and poor visibility, the pilot is concerned about the exact location of a radio mast
in the vicinity. Avoiding this obstruction is the responsibility
a) of the pilot. b) of the tower controller as the controller is aware of the obstruction .
c) of ATC as the pilot has been given Special VFR clearance .
d) Shared equally by the pilot and the controller.
Ans. a

48. The maneuvering area of an airport is that area

a) Normally referred to as the ramp or apron.
b) Which includes the apron, taxiways and runways?
c) Used when taxiing to and from the parking area.
d) Used for taxiing, taking off and landing.
Ans. d

49. VFR flight in class F airspace above 3000’ msl and below 10,000 ‘MSL.
a) Provided flight visibility is 1500 m. b) Provided flight visibility is 3000 m.
c) Provided flight visibility is 5000 m. d) Provided flight visibility is 8000 m.
Ans. c

50. What is the definition of MEA?

a) The lowest published altitude, which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures
acceptable navigational signal coverage.
b) Lowest published altitude, which meets obstacle requirements assures acceptable
navigational signal coverage, two – way radio communications, and provides adequate
radar coverage.
c) An altitude, which meets obstacle clearance
 d) An altitude, which ensures minimum 1000’ clearance from all obstacles

Ans. A

Regulation Miscellaneous Que. Paper - 2

1. Prohibition of flights over Mathura refinery:
a) With in a radius of 1 NM. b) With in a radius of 10 NM
c) With in a radius of 20 NM d) with in a radius of 10 kms
Ans. (d)

2. Following failure of two way radio communications the pilot should select one of the
following on the transponder :
a) Mode A 7700 b) Mode A 7500 c) Mode C 2000 d) Mode A 7600
Ans. (d)

3. When two aircraft are approaching head on, the rules of the air require that
a) Both aircraft alter heading to starboard b) Both aircraft alter heading to
port
c) The larger aircraft alters heading to starboard d) The smaller aircraft alters heading to port
Ans. (a)

4. An Instrument Rating Test is valid before renewal for:

a) 6 months b) 13 months c) 12 months d) 2 years

Ans. (c)

5. While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on a relative bearing of 100
degrees
from him . You should see his:
a) Red navigation light b) White navigation light
c) Green & white navigation lights d) Green navigation light
Ans. (d)

6. A light aircraft taking off from an intermediate position on the runway after a heavy aircraft
requires a wake vortex separation of : a) 2 minutes b) 8 minutes c) 3nm d) 3
minutes
Ans. (d)

7. EAT is the time that an aircraft :

a) Is expected to join the field b) Is expected to leave the hold and commence its
approach
c) Is expected to land
d) Is expected to leave the last en-route holding point before destination
Ans. (b)

8. Above 30000 ft the vertical separation between aircraft on reciprocal tracks will be:
a) 2000ft b) 1000ft
c) 1000ft or 2000ft depending on whether or not the aircraft are in RVSM airspace
d) 4000ft
Ans. (c)

9. An aircraft Captain should transmit special aircraft observations when he

encounters:
a) Severe turbulence or icing
b) Moderete turbulence , hail or Cb clouds during supersonic or transonic flight
c) Other conditions that the Captain considers may affect the safety of other aircraft
d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

10. Normal horizontal separation provided by radar units

is:
a) 3nm b) 5nm c) 10nm d) 8nm
Ans. (b)

11. The possible symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning are :

a) Anxiety, rapid breathing & dizziness
b) Lethargy, nausea, headache & complexion
c) Blueness of lips, impaired judgment and co-ordination
d) Excitability, tingling fingertips & loss of inhibition
Ans. (b)

12. If a pilot goes scuba diving to a depth of 30 feet for more than 10 mts , he / she should
not fly within : a) 12 hours b) 36 hours c) 24 hours d) 48 hours
Ans. (c)

13.A continuous red beam directed at an aircraft from the ATC tower means :
a) Airfield unserviceable, land elsewhere b) Airfield closed, do not
land
c) Do not land, give way to other aircraft and continue circling
d) Clear the landing area
Ans. (c)

14. Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing.
The
right-of-way belongs to the aircraft.
a) at the higher altitude .
b) at the lower altitude ,but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front
of or to to overtake the other aircraft.
c) That is more maneuverable ,and that aircraft may ,with caution ,move in front of or
overtake the other aircraft .
Ans. (b)

15. What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirement s for VFR flight,
at 6500 feet MSL, in Class D airspace?
a) 1.5 Km visibility; clear of clouds b) 10000 feet MSL, if above 10000 feet AGL.
c) 5 Km visibility; and 1000 feet below.
Ans. (c)

16. Air Traffic Advisory Service is provided in airspace classified as

a) Class E b) Class F c) Class G d) Class A
Ans. (b)

17. When landing behind a large jet aircraft ,at which point on the runway should you plan to
land ?
a) If any crosswind ,land on the windward side of the runaway and prior to the jet’s
touchdown point .
b) At least 1000 feet beyond the jet’s touchdown point .
c) Beyond the jet’s touchdown point .
Ans. (c)
18. At an altitude of 6500 feet MSL the current altimeter setting is 996 hPa. The pressure
altitude would be approx. a) 7500 feet. b) 6000 feet. c) 7000 feet. d) 8000 feet
Ans. (c)

19. Hazardous wake turbulence caused by aircraft in still air

a) dissipates immediately b) dissipates rapidly .
c) May persist for two minutes or more d) persists indefinitely.
Ans. (c)

20. Wake turbulence will be greatest when generated by an aeroplane which

is
a) Heavy, landing configuration and slow speed
b) Heavy, clean configuration and slow speed.
c) Light, clean configuration and high speed.
d) Heavy, take-off configuration and slow speed.
Ans. (b)

21. While flying on a magnetic track of 140 degrees the aircraft on VFR plan will select the
following levels: a) 80 b) 95 c) 85 d) 70
Ans. (b)

22. Landing and housing charges are payable by private aircraft according to:
a) Seating capacity of the aircraft. b. Number of passengers on board the aircraft.
c. All –up weight of the aircraft. d. No charges; if free passengers are carried.
Ans. (a)

23. The marshalling signal – “arms extended overhead, palms facing inwards, arms swung
from
The extended position inwards “means:
a) Stop b) Chokes inserted c) Brakes applied d) Cut Engines
Ans. (a)

24. Smoking on a private aircraft is permitted:

a. Provided the owner has no objection.
b. Provided permitted by the aerodrome officer.
c. Without restriction if no passengers are carried.
d. Only if the certificate of airworthiness of the aircraft permits.
Ans. (d)

25. An aircraft without registration markings can be flown only

a) If the sale deed is not yet completed b) For purpose of test flight only, prior to
purchase.
c) If it is used for Govt. Work. d) If specially permitted in writing by the central govt.
Ans. (d)

26. The member of operating crew shall not have taken alcoholic drinks:
a) 6 hrs before commencement if flight. b. 12 hrs before commencement of flight.
c. 24 hrs before commencement of flight. d. 36 hrs before commencement of flight.
Ans. (b)

27. Photography at an aerodrome can be done with prior permission in writing from :
a. Aerodrome officer b. DGCA c. Central Govt. d. Indian Air Force
Ans. (c)
 28. At the correct height on the approach to runway with PAPIs pilot should
see:
a) Two red lights and two white b) Four red lights
c) Four white lights d) Three white lights and one red
Ans. (a)

29. The maximum speed for an aircraft flying in class F or G airspace below F 100
is:
a) 250KTS IAS b) 250Kts TAS c) 280Kts IAS d) 150Kts IAS
Ans. (a)

30. While refueling is in progress, no naked light be brought within ____________ mts:
a) 35 b. 30 c. 100 d. 15
Ans. (d)

31. A pilot flying low due to thunder showers for safety reasons can be sued by:
a) State Govt. b)Municipal Corporation.
c) Owner of the property over which it is flying. d) Cannot be sued.
Ans. (d)

32. A person can bring to India human remains of a person who has died of plague:
a) If enclosed in a wooden box. If enclosed in a shell of zinc.
b) If enclosed in a hermetically sealed shell of zinc after permission id obtained from proper
authority.
c) Cannot bring them.
Ans. (a)

33. Class ‘D’ airspace in India

a) Includes controlled airspace in form of terminal control areas and ATS routes where
IFR
traffic is provided Air Traffic Services
b) Includes controlled airspace inform of control zone , control areas , terminal control
areas
where IFR flights receive Air Traffic control service and VFR flights receive traffic
information and traffic avoidance advice on request
c) Extends from a specified height above control zone and aerodrome traffic zone where
separation between IFR flights is assured
Ans. (b)

34. Two aircraft of the different category are approaching an airport for the purpose of
landing.
The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
a) At the higher altitude
b) At the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or
to overtake the other aircraft
c) That is more maneuverable , that the aircraft may with caution move in front of or
overtake the other aircraft
Ans. (b)

35. In the event of the forced landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome, aircraft

a) May take off after giving report to the district magistrate/police.
b) May take off if the forced landing was not due to any factor effecting the safe operation of the
aircraft.
c) Must not take off till permission is obtained from DGCA.
Ans. (a)
 36. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for
the
longest period of time ?
a) Direct headwind b) Direct tailwind c) Light quartering tailwind
Ans. (c)

37. The altimeter indicates the aircraft altitude in relation to

a) sea level b) the standard datum plane c) the pressure level set in the barometric
window .
Ans. (c)

38. The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
a) The field elevation b) 29.92” c) the current altimeter setting d) the QFE setting
Ans. (b)

39. During the two minutes after the passage of a heavy aeroplane in cruising flight,
hazardous
wing tip vortices will
a) Dissipate completely b) dissipate rapidly c) dissipate slowly d) remain at cruising altitude
Ans. (c)

40. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wing tip vortices generated by a large
aeroplane that had just taken off ?
a) Could cause one vortex to remain over the runway for sometime
b) Would rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices
c) Would rapidly clear the runway of all vortices
d) Would not affect the lateral movement of the vortices
Ans. (a)

41. LDA for runway 27 at an aerodrome is 1599mts .Pair of touchdown zone markings for
this
runway will be: a) 3 b) 6 c) 4 d) 5
Ans. (c)

42. An aerial work aircraft on a VFR plan to Jaipur departs at 1032 hrs UTC. Sunset time at
Jaipur is 1318 UTC. The flying time available to him to reach jaipur is :
a) 2 hrs & 46 minutes. b) 2 hrs & 26 min c) 2 hrs & 16 min d) 3 hrs & 06
Ans. (a )

43. Number of threshold stripes on a runway of 25 m width shall be: a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 12

Ans. (c)

44. Colour of intermediate holding position markings shall be:

a) White b) Red c) Green d) Yellow
Ans. (d)

45. The “Certificate of Airworthiness” of an aircraft shall be deemed to be suspended when an

aircraft:
a) Is involved in an accident/incident.
b) Is modified or repaired without the consent of the Director General.
c) Is modified or repaired otherwise than in accordance with the provisions of the rules.
d) Is involved in a serious violation of the rules contained in the aircraft rules.
Ans. (a)
 46. Minimum crew required on private aircraft is:
a) One pilot. b) Two pilots c) As specified in the certificate of the Airworthiness
d) The flight instructor along with private pilot.
Ans. (c)

47. A pvt. Aircraft from Chennai to Colombo is required to carry on board.

a) Journey log book. b Route Guide c. Operation Manual d. All of the above
Ans. (b)

48. Aircraft meets with an accident on runway, its wreckage can be removed:
a) For smooth flow of air traffic. b) For removing a dead body or injured person.
c) After taking photographs. d) Both (a) and (b) are correct
Ans. (a)

49. A person dies of cholera, his body can be brought to India if:
a) Packed in a wooden box. b) Cannot be brought.
c) Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell of zinc, joints sealed, shell
enclosed in a teak wooden box which is enclosed in zinc lined box, filled with saw dust
impregnated with carbolic powder.
d) Permitted by the DGCA.
Ans. (c)

50. FDTL for 2 crew international flight is ______ hrs and _____ landing.
a) 10 hrs and 3 landings b) Three hrs and 9 landings
c) 9 hrs and 3 landings d) 8 hrs and 3 landings.

Ans. (c)

Regulation Miscellaneous Que. Paper - 3

1. In class A airspace
a) All flights are permitted. b) Only VFR flights are permitted.
c) Only IFR flights are permitted. d) SPL VFR flights are permitted.
Ans. c)

2. In class D air space

a) IFR & VFR flights are permitted & all flights are subject to Air Traffic Control
b) IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights & receive information in respect of VFR flights
c) VFR flights receive traffic information about other flights
d) all are correct
Ans. d)

3. Route guides are required to be carried in

a) all aircraft b) all private aircraft
c) Aircraft involved in scheduled transport services d) all aircraft engaged in aerial work
Ans. c)

4. ADC clearance is required to be obtained

a) on a cross country flight b) for all aircraft operating within ADIZ

c) When returning to base on the same day
d) it is not required when returning to base on the same day
Ans. b)
 5. Pilots log book is to be preserved for
a) 5 years from the date of starting the log book b) 5 years from the date of last entry
c) 3 yrs from the date of last entry d) 10 yrs from the date of last entry
Ans. b)

6. A double white cross displayed on a signal square indicate

a) area not fit for the use of aircraft b) gliding in progress
c) take permission before landing d) prohibited area
Ans. b)

7. Medical for a CPL holder is valid for

a) 2 years b) 1 year
c) 1 year if age is less than 40 years d) 2 years if the age is less than 40 years
Ans. c)

8. Letter ‘W’ in ATS Route designator indicates:

a) Domestic routes b) International routes c) Regional routes d) None of the above
Ans. a)

9. Position report is required to be given when

a) crossing an FIR b) over a compulsory reporting point
c) if so required by ATC d) all are correct
Ans. d)

10. Aerodrome data and facilities are given in

a) Aeradio b) AIP c) Notams d) AIRACs
Ans. b)

11. The highest point on the landing area is called:

a) Aerodrome elevation b) Runway elevation c) ARP d) Threshold elevation
Ans. a)

12. Anti-collision light is a light :

a) Red in colour affixed on top of the control tower
b) A red light on the port wing of the aircraft
c) A red light visible 30deg above and below the horizon of the aircraft which is visible in all directions
d) The navigation lights of any aircraft are called anti-collision lights
Ans. c)

13. Operational Manual is:

a) Prepared by the manufacturer and authorized by operator
b) Prepared by the DGCA and authorized by operator
c) Prepared by the operator and authorized by manufacturer
d) Prepared by the operator and authorized by the DGCA
Ans. d)

14. An aircraft is commencing descend from its initial FL 290 over Palam Airport. The altimeter reads
12000 ft. The commander will report his vertical distance to the ATC in terms of:
a) 12000’ Altitude b) F 120 c) 12000’ a.g.l. d) 12000’ amsl
Ans. b)

15. An aircraft is following a track of 179º (M) on a VFR plan . The choice of flight levels available
to the pilot is:
a) 50,70,90,150,170,190,210,230,250,270,290
 b) 55,75,95,155,175,195,215,235,255,275,295
c) 50,70,90,110,130,160,180,200,220,240,260,280
d) 55, 75, 95, 115, 135, 155, 175, 195, 215, 235, 255, 275
Ans. d)

16. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal means:
a) Do not land for the time being b) Landings Prohibited
c) Aircraft are to land Take off & Taxi on runways and taxi ways only
d) Special precaution while landing should be taken because of the bad state of the
Maneuvering area
Ans. d)
17. The visibility minima for those Airlines who have not filed their own Minima with the
DGCA for an airport for Non Precession approach is:
a) 1500’ b) 1500 meters c) 5 Nm d) 3.7 km
Ans. d)

18. Max flying hours for a flight crew in one year is: ______ hrs
a. 200 b. 900 c. 1200 d. 1000
Ans. d)

19. Aerodrome operation minima is given by

a) DGCA b) Operator c) Operator & is approved by DGCA d) India Met Department
Ans. c)

20. If the age of a CPL holder is more than 40 years the validity of medical is for_________
a) 1 yr b) 6 months c) 2 yrs d) 5 yrs
Ans. b)

a. If a passenger falls sick on board an a/c and he is suspected of any infectious disease then PIC’s
action is:
a) To land immediately.
b) To inform health officer of destination aerodrome at least two hrs before landing.
c) To inform DGCA.
d) To inform doctor on board.
Ans. b)

22. The wreckage of crashed aircraft on R/W/ can be removed to:

a) extricate dead animals & persons b) extricate animals& persons, dead or alive
c) Permit movement of other aircraft d) All of the above are correct
Ans. d)

23. An aircraft force lands at an uncontrolled aerodrome, it can take off again:
a) with the permission of DGCA
b) without the permission of controller of Aerodrome
c) with the permission of nearest aerodrome control tower
d) Matter is to be reported to DGCA as an incident
Ans. d)

24. Wake turbulence separation minima for Take off, if a light aircraft is to take off behind a heavy or
a medium aircraft is:
a) 2 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 5 minutes d) Non of the above
Ans. a)

25. All flights above_________ flight levels are to be cleared IFR irrespective of weather
Conditions: a) F 280 b) F 150 c) F 140 d) F 100
 Ans. b)

a. Dropping of paper leaf lets require the permission of:

a. Aerodrome b) Local District Magistrate. c) Operator. d) DGCA
Ans. c)

27. If there is a temporary change in the aeronautical services it is intimated through

a) AIP b) AIC c) NOTAM d) AIRAC
Ans. c)

28. The highest flight level that can be flown in India is

a) 460 b) 450 c) 440 d) 400
Ans. a)

29. The duty time of the trainee pilot:

a) is calculated as per the FDTL
b) is not affected by the FDTL
c) is the time calculated from take off to landing
d) is from “chokes off” time to “chokes on” time
Ans. a)

30. A pilot can fly an aircraft which is not entered in the aircraft rating of his licence for endorsement
on his licence
a) With in 5 nm of an aerodrome b) With in Local Flying Area of the aerodrome
c) Any where d) Cannot fly
Ans. b)

31. A pilot can fly in 30 consecutive days

a) 100 hrs PIC & 50 hrs as Co pilot b) 100 hrs PIC & 30 hrs as Co pilot
c) 120 hrs PIC & 20 hrs as Co pilot d) 120 hrs PIC & 10 hrs as Co pilot
Ans. b)

32. When an aircraft is being refueled, the refueling must be stopped if a jet aircraft crosses with
in a distance of: a) 15 meters b) 30 meters c) 43 meters d) 45 meters
Ans. c)

33. At an aerodrome the aerobatics are to be carried out above 6000 feet
a) Beyond 4 nm of perimeter of aerodrome
b) Within 2 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
c) Beyond 5 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
d) Beyond perimeter of aerodrome
Ans. b)

34. The FDR has record of operation of preceding

a) 25 hours b) 20 hours c) 15 hours d) 10 hours
Ans. a)

35. The CVR has the capability of recording information

a) One hour or more b) At least 30 minutes
c) Atleast 15 mins d) There is no minimum limit
Ans. b)

36. The CVR is fitted in an aircraft to

a) Monitor the performance of the aircraft b) Help in accident investigation
 c) Both are correct d) Non of the above
Ans. b)

37. The FDR is fitted in an aircraft to

a) Monitor the performance of the aircraft b) Help in accident investigation
c) Both are correct d) None of the above
Ans. c)

38. The most effective way to use eyes at night is

a) Focus only at dim lights at a distance b) Flutter eyes rapidly
c) Scan slowly to center off vision d) Focus only on bright lights
Ans. c)

39. A report received from an aircraft giving a position and /or met report is called
a) Met report b) Position report c) Air report d) All of the above
Ans. c)

40. During flight as a pilot you are subjected to unlawful interference .On SSR you should to set
a)Mode A code 7500 b) Mode A code 7600
c) Mode A code 7700 d) Mode C code 7500
Ans. a)

41. ADC is not required

a) Local flying area uptp 2000’ b) Within 5 nm of an aerodrome upto 1000’
c) Aerodrome Traffic zone upto 1000’ d) Below 5000’ AMSL anywhere
Ans. b)

42. What information is included in the third section of an Air report?

a) Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence b) Spot Wind, Icing, Cloud above
c) Spot Wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence d) ETA Destination
Ans. c)

43. A fresh flight plan is to be filled if a scheduled flight is delayed by more than
a) One hour b) 30 minutes c) 15 mins d) 5 mins
Ans. b)

44. The designators for world wide ATS routes are in which colour
a) White b) Red& Green
c) Red, Green, Blue & Amber d) Red, Green, Blue, Amber & White
Ans. d)

45. The minimum wake turbulence time separation for a heavy aircraft to land behind a heavy
aircraft is: a) 2 minutes (b) 3 minutes (c) 5 minutes (d) not required
Ans. d)

46. The air report contains following items:

a) Air temperature, Turbulence, Surface wind & aircraft Icing
b) Turbulence, upper winds & surface temperature
c) Air temperature, Turbulence, Upper winds & aircraft Icing
d) All are correct
Ans. c)

47. An aircraft can fly over a danger area

a) If a NOTAM is issued that it is not active b) With the permission of ATC
c) Out side the stipulated time d) Cannot fly at all
 Ans. c)

48. At an aerodrome special VFR may be authorized when

a) Visibility falls below 5 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
b) Visibility falls below 5 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
c) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
d) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1000 feet
Ans. a)

49. A series of red and green projectiles fired at an interval of 10 sec means
a) aircraft is flying over danger area b) aircraft is flying over prohibited area
c) Aircraft is flying over restricted area d) All of the above are correct
Ans. d)

50. Mathura Refinery is a:

17. Danger Area b) Restricted area c) Prohibited area. d) Terminal area.
Ans. c)

Regulation Miscellaneous Que. Paper - 4

Q1. AIP India is published by:
a) DGCA b) AAI c) Civil Aviation Ministry d) ICAO
Ans. b)

Q2. AIP consists of:

a) 3 parts (GEN, ENR & AD) b) 4 parts (GEN, ENR, AD MET)
c) 6 parts (GEN, ENR, AD, MET, COMM, ATC) d) 2 parts (GEN, AD)
Ans. a)

Q3. Regular amendments to the AIP will be:

a) Twice a year in Jan and July month of each year
b) Every quarter of the year Jan, April, July and Oct month of each year
c) Once every year in the month of April of each year
d) On as required basis
Ans. c)

Q4. Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of:

(a) Rising or falling (b) turning (c) motion reversal

Ans. a)

5. A flight , which exceeds Mach number-1 , cannot fly over:

a) Populated areas b) Indian Air Space c) Europe d) High seas
Ans. b)

Q6. A passenger visited a yellow fever infected area on the previous six days, but is not in possession of
valid yellow fever certificate, then action taken by PIC of the flight is:
a) Send a radio message two hours before the arrival about the state of the health of the passenger
b) No action required
c) Inform Airlines office after landing
d) Inform health authorities of the place of departure
Ans. a)

Q7. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated
instrument condition can cause:
 (a) Pilot disorientation (b) False horizon (c) Elevator illusion
Ans. a)

Q8. Which of the following statements is not correct for classification of Airspace in India?
a) Class D Airspace is applicable to TMA, control zones and control areas
b) Class E is applicable to Airspace in designated ATS route outside terminal and control areas.
c) Class F in applicable to airspace outside CTAs/TMAs/CTRs/ATZs
d) Class G Airspace is applicable to airspaces other than D,E and F
Ans. c)

Q9. An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of:
(a) Tumbling backwards (b) a nose up attitude (c) a descent with the wing level
Ans. a)

Q10. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of:
(a) Spinning in the opposite direction b) Being in a nose up attitude c) Diving into the ground
Ans. b)

Q11. An Aircraft shall report “long final” when it is at ____ from the approach end of the rwy
a) 8NMs b) 4NMs c) 1NMs d) 2 NMs
Ans. a)

Q12. A Cessna 152 aircraft force lands at a wheat field due to shortage of fuel. It will be reported
as: a) An accident b) An incident c) Not reportable d) An Airport
Ans. b)

Q13. A pilot should never cross a:

a) Stop bar which is switched off b) Stop bar which is lighted
c) A taxi holding position marking d) An intermediate holding position marking
Ans. b)

Q14. FDTL for training flights does not restrict:

a) Flight Time b) Flight Duty Time c) Number of landings d) all of the above
Ans. c)

Q15. For a flight at night in VMC, the approach will appear to be

a) Same as day b) Steeper c) Speed will be more d) Shallower.
Ans. b)

Q16. Decision Altitude is applicable for:

a) Non Precision Approaches b) PAPI Approaches
c) Precision Approaches d) All of the above
Ans. c)

Q17. Prisoners on Board an aircraft can be carried with the permission of

a) DGCA b) Controller of Aerodrome
c)Director General of Prisons d) Police Commissioner
Ans. a)

Q18. Flight time/flight duty time limitations shall be applicable to:

a) Pilots only b) Pilots and cabin crews only
c) P-i-C and Co-pilot d) all flight crew personnel
Ans. d)

Q19. Large accumulation of carbon mono-oxide in the blood results in:

a) Dizziness b) Fear c) Hot and Cold Sensations d) Disorientation
Ans. a)

Q20. Deviations from International Standards and recommended practices are published in:
a) AIRAC b) AICs c) AIP d) ICAO Annexures
Ans. c)

Q21. To find current watch hours of a station you should look into:
a) AIRAC b) AICs c) AIP d) Notams
Ans. c)

Q22. ‘ATIS’ is a continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning:

a) ATS information b) ATS and Met information
c) Navigation Information d) Traffic Information
Ans. b)

Q23. Flight Manual is to be carried by

a) All aircraft b) Scheduled aircraft only
c) If C of A states so d) All aircraft other than aerial work aircraft
Ans. c)

Q24. An aircraft is on a track of 030º (M) and reports crossing a point at 0412 Hrs at F370. Other
aircraft at F370 on a track of 100º(M) can cross the same point not earlier than:
a) 0422 hrs b) 0417 hrs if 40 kts faster c) 0427 hrs d) 0402 hrs
Ans. c)

Q25. An ac at F390 crosses a point at 0210 hrs wishes to descent to F310. There is reciprocal
traffic estimating to cross same point at 0300hrs maintaining F 330. By what time the
descending aircraft should reach F310 if both aircraft maintain same speed?
a) 0215 hrs b) 0220 hrs c) 0225 hrs d) 0250 hrs
Ans. c)

Q26. OCA is used for determination of:

a) MDA b) DA c) Both MDA and DA d) None of the above
Ans. c)

Q27. The numbers 09 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
a) 009º and 27º true b) 090º and 270º true
c) 090º and 270º magnetic d) 090º and 270º compass
Ans. c)

Q28. When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot
a) may continue taxiing
b) should not cross the lines without ATC clearance
c) should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines
d) continue taxiing if runway is vacant
Ans. b)

Q29. The numbers 08 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway is oriented approximately
a) 008º and 26º true b) 080º and 260º true
c) 080º and 260º magnetic d) 080º and 260º compass
Ans. c)

Q30. What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

a) Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway
b) Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway
c) Denotes intersecting runways
d) Denotes intersecting taxiways
Ans. c)

Q31. An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

a) there are obstructions on the airport
b) that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums
c) the Air Traffic Control is not in operation
d) runway is blocked
Ans. b)

Q32. Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is

a) operating at high airspeeds b) heavily loaded c) Developing lift d) taxiing fast
Ans. c)

Q33. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to

a) sink below the aircraft generating turbulence
b) rise into the traffic pattern
c) rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway
d) rise towards the engines of the aircraft
Ans. a)

Q34. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
a) Inward, upward, and around each tip b) Inward, upward and counterclockwise
c) Outward, upward, and around each tip d) Outward, upward and away from each tip
Ans. c)

Q35. When taking off or landing where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert
to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
a) rise from crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path
b) rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport.
c) Sink into the flight path of aircraft generating the turbulence
d) Stay on runway in strong cross wind conditions
Ans. c)

Q36. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
a) light, dirty and fast b) heavy, dirty and fast
c) Heavy, clean and slow d) light, clean and slow
Ans. c)

Q37. The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing
is a
a) light, quartering headwind b) light, quartering tailwind
c) strong headwind d) strong tailwind
Ans. b)

Q38. When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by
maneuvering the aircraft
a) below and downwind from the heavy aircraft
b) above and upwind from the heavy aircraft
c) below and upwind from the heavy aircraft
d) above and downwind from the heavy aircraft
Ans. b)
 Q39. When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
a) Above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft’s
touchdown point
b) Below the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s
Touchdown point
c) Above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s
touchdown point
Ans. a)

Q40. When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex
avoidance?
a) Stay above its final approach flight path all the way to touchdown
b) Stay below and to one side of its final approach flight path
c) Stay well below its final approach flight path
d) Make a normal approach and land
Ans. a)

Q41. During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at
the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a) The other aircraft is crossing to the left b) The other aircraft is flying away from you
c) The other aircraft is approaching to the right d) The other aircraft is crossing head-on
Ans. a)

Q42. During a night flight, you observe steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at
the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a) The other aircraft is flying away from you b) The other aircraft is crossing to the left
c) The other aircraft is crossing to the right d) The other aircraft is approaching head-on
Ans. a)

Q43. During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same
altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a)The other aircraft is crossing to the left b)The other aircraft is flying away from you
c) The other aircraft is approaching head-on d) The other aircraft is crossing to the right
Ans. c)

Q44. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight
hours is to use
a) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-,9-, and 12-o’clock positions
b) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector
c) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing
d) a series of eye movements focused at horizon
Ans. b)

Q45. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during
nighttime hours is to use
a) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-,9-, and 12-o’clock positions
b) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector
c) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing
d) focusing at lighted objects for 30 sec.
Ans. c)

Q46. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
a) The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate
b) The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space
c) There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft
d) The nose of other aircraft is pointed towards your aircraft
Ans. c)

Q47. Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should

a) check altitude, airspeed, and heading
b) Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance
b) announce their intentions to the nearest ATC
c) tighten seat belt
Ans. b)

Q48. Most midair collision accidents occur during

a) hazy days b) clear days c) cloudy nights d) dark nights
Ans. b)

Q49. Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?
a) Night vision may be so impaired that pilot cannot see other aircraft.
b) Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilots reactions are affected.
c) The pilots may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.
Ans. b)

Q50. The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions:
(a) Are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilot, but never by pilots with moderate
instrument experience.
(b) Occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument flight.
(c) Must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments.
Ans. c)

Regulation Miscellaneous Que. Paper - 5

1. Oxygen is to be carried for all crew members and passengers above a absolute pressure
of:
a) 800 hPa b) 700 hPa c) 620 hPa d) 1000 hPa
Ans. c)

2. Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded

information concerning
a) Pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or
to
an obstruction
b) Non-essential information to reduce frequency congestion
c) Non-control information in selected high-activity terminal areas
d) To warn pilots about conflicting traffic
Ans. c)

3. If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and
continue circling, the light will be
a) flashing red b) steady red c) alternating red and green d) steady white
Ans. b)

4. Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?

a) Flashing green b) Steady green c) Flashing white d) Steady Red

Ans. a)
 5. An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in
flight
is a signal to
a) hold position b) exercise extreme caution
c) Not land; the airport is unsafe d) Return to Apron
Ans. b)

6. If the aircraft’s radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a
controlled
airport?
a) Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower
b) Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings
c) Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport
d) Rock wings
Ans. a)

7. When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

a) 118.0 and 118.8 MHz b) 121.5 and 243.0 MHz
c) 123.0 and 119.0 MHz d) 118.1 and 123.0 MHz
Ans. b)

8. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
a) The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation
b) The corrected density altitude of the departure airport
c) The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport
d) QFE
Ans. a)

9. If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot, adjust
the altimeter?
a) The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level
b) The elevation of the departure area
c) Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature
d) QNE
Ans. b)

10. 620 hPa absolute pressures is equal to: 10,000’ b) 13,000’ c) 15,000’ d) 25,000’
Ans. b)

11. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under IFR at night for a propeller driven
aircraft?
a) Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions
b) Enough to fly to the first point of intented landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at
normal cruising speed
c) Enough to fly to the first point of intented landing thence to alternate and to fly after
that
for 45 minutes
d) On as required basis
Ans. c)

12. Taking simple medicine like ‘aspirin’ prior to a flight

a) Is safe b) May slightly effect co-ordination
c) May reduce blood circulation d) May seriously impair judgment
Ans. d)
 13. What is lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?
a) 1,000 feet AGL b) 1,500 feet AGL c) 2,000 feet AGL d) 6,000 feet AGL
Ans. c)

14. The incubation period of relapsing fever is______ .days: a. 6 b.7 c. 8 d. 10

Ans. c)

15. Incubation period of yellow fever is _______ days: a. 6 b.7 c. 8 d. 9

Ans. a)

16. Which statement best defines hypoxia?

a) A state of oxygen deficiency in the body
b) An abnormal increase in the volume of air
c) A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles
d) Illusions during daytime
Ans. a)
17. Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as
a) hyperventilation b) aero sinusitis c) aerotitis d) hypoxia
Ans. a)

18. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?

a) Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear b) The excessive consumption of alcohol
c) An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen d) Lack of sleep
Ans. a)

19. A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of
Hyperventilation by
a) Closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane
b) slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud
c) increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation
d) flying without looking at instruments
Ans. b)

20. Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if

a) they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear
b) body signals are used to interpret flight attitude
c) eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments
d) adequate rest is not taken prior to flight
Ans. b)

21. If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition,
the best way to overcome the effect is to
a) rely upon the aircraft instrument indications
b) concentrate on yaw, pitch and roll sensations
c) consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal breathing
rate
d) ignore instruments and go by visual indications
Ans. a)

22. A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the
brain
by various sensory organs is defined as
a) spatial disorientation b) hyperventilation c) hypoxia d) stress
Ans. a)
 23. The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be
reduced by
a) shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel
b) having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs
c) leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft
d) breathing into a bag
Ans. b)

24. Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-
and
–level flight?
a) Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals
b) Concentration on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area
c) Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left
d) Scan through the corner of the eyes
Ans. a)

25. What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
a) Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity
b) The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily
c) All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance
d) Objects appear to be closer than their actual distance
Ans. c)

26. What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?
a) Do not stress eyes after sunset until ready for flight
b) Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight
c) Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight
d) Avoid any light atleast 30 min before the flight
Ans. c)

27. What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?
a) Look only at far away, dim lights
b) Scan slowly to permit off center viewing
c) Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds
d) Scan fast to avoid direct viewing
Ans. b)

28. The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to
a) Look to the side of the object and scan slowly b) Scan the visual field very rapidly
c) Look to the side of the object and scan rapidly d) Look for anti collision lights
Ans. a)

29. Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in

a) tightness across the forehead b) loss of memory
c) an increased sense of well-being d) lack of oxygen in blood stream
Ans. d)

30. Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as

a) altitude increases b) altitude decreases c) air pressure increases d) above 10,000 ft
Ans. a)

31. What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying
under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
a) Continual flight into instrument conditions b) Getting behind the aircraft
c) Duck-under syndrome d) Continual flight into good weather conditions
Ans. a)

32. What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?
a) Structural failure b) Mechanical malfunction
c) Human error d) Special disorientation
Ans. c)

33. Hypoxia is a result of which of the following conditions

a) Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain b) Excessive carbon dioxide in the blood stream
c) Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles d) Lack of hemoglobin in blood
Ans. a)

34. What causes hypoxia?

a) Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
b) An increase in the nitrogen contents in the atmosphere at high altitude
c) A decrease in the oxygen partial pressure
d) Excessive carbon mono-oxide in the atmosphere
Ans. c)

35. A loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases
a) The percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased
b) The percentage of oxygen in the air is decreased
c) Oxygen partial pressure is decreased
d) The percentage of CO2 in the air is increased
Ans. c)

36. What is the symptom of carbon mono oxide poisoning?

a) Rapid shallow breathing b) Pain & cramping of the hands& feet
c) Dizziness d) Laziness
Ans. c)

37. What is the effect of alcohol consumption on the function of body

a) Alcohol has adverse effect especially as the altitude increases
b) Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increases judgment & decision making
ability
c) Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee
d) Alcohol has no effect if taken more than 6 hrs before flight
Ans. a)

38. What is the common symptom of hyperventilation?

a) Tingling of the hands & feet b) Increased vision keenness
c) Decreased breathing rate d) Euphoria
Ans. a)

39. What would most likely occur in hyperventilation?

a) A stressful situation causing anxiety
b) The excessive consumption of alcohol
b) An extremely slow rate of breathing & insufficient oxygen
c) Dizziness
Ans. d)

40. Scanning procedure for effective collision avoidance should constitute

a) Looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat
b) 1 minute inside scanning then one minute outside scanning then repeat
c) Looking out side every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is
unnecessary
d) Continuously looking outside
Ans. a)

41. Small amounts of alcohol in the system:

a) May affect decision making abilities b) Will not affect judgment
c) Will not have effect at sea level d) Can be cured by meditation
Ans. a)

42. Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision
avoidance
a) One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed
b) One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed
c) One which appears to be ahead with no lateral & vertical displacement & is increasing in
size rapidly
d) Non of the above
Ans. c)

43. When using earth’s horizon as a reference to determine the relative position of other
aircraft most concern would be for aircraft
a) Above the horizon & increasing in size b) On the horizon with little relative movement
c) On the horizon & increasing in size d) On the horizon & decreasing in size
Ans. c)

44. When making an approach on narrower than usual runway without VASI assistance, the
pilot should be aware that the approach
a) Altitude may be higher than it appears b)
b) Approach altitude may be lower than it appears
c) May result in leveling off too high & landing hard
d) May result in an overshooting approach
Ans. b)

45. When making a landing over a darkened or featureless terrain, such as water or snow
pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusion. This approach may appear to
be
a) High b) Low c) Shallow d) Normal
Ans. a)

46. Haze can give illusion that the aircraft is

a) Closer to the runway than it actually is
b) Farther from the runway than actually is
c) The same distance from the runway as there is no restriction to visibility
d) High on approach
Ans. b)

47. A sudden penetration of fog can give an illusion of

a) Pitching up b) Pitching down c) Leveling off d) Descending
Ans. a)

48. Rain on the wind screen can cause what illusion

a ) No illusion b) Lower than usual c) Higher than usual d) Normal approach
Ans. c)
 49. No authorized person must be present within ______ mts of a/c while refueling is on
a. 15 b. 30 c. 50 d. 10
Ans. a)

50. The maximum duty time limit per day extension is

a) 4 hrs b) 2 hrs c) 6 hrs d) 8 hrs

Ans. a)