AIATS Medical-2014 - Test-6 (Code-A) 02-02-2014 PDF
AIATS Medical-2014 - Test-6 (Code-A) 02-02-2014 PDF
AIATS Medical-2014 - Test-6 (Code-A) 02-02-2014 PDF
2014
Test No. 6
AIPMT
Test No. 6
[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. Two charged particles are moving on identical 4. Lab demonstrator has built LCR series circuit as
helical path in opposite sense in a uniform magnetic shown in the figure. A student wants to decrease
resonance angular frequency of the circuit then he
field B B0 iˆ . Select correct statement regarding
can try it by which of the following way(s)?
it (symbols have their usual meaning)
Soft iron
core Dielectric
(1) They must have same charge but unequal slab
masses
(2) They must have equal masses but different
charges
(3) The momentum to kinetic energy ratio must
p p
satisfy the relation V = V0cos t
2k 1 2k 2
(1) By removing dielectric slab
(4) The charge to mass ratio must satisfy the
(2) By removing soft iron core
q q
relation 1 2 (3) By connecting an other capacitor in series
m1 m2
2. Select correct statement(s) regarding cyclotron (4) By replacing the dielectric slab with another
slab having more dielectric constant
(1) Charged particle accelerated only between two
dees 5. To ionise a molecule 10 eV energy is needed.
Which region of electromagnetic spectrum is able to
(2) Charged particle accelerated throughout its
circular path do this?
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 6 (Code A)
7. A short bar magnet is kept stationary and a coil is 9. Phase difference between voltage and current in
moving parallel to its axis, with constant velocity, as LCR series circuit at resonance is
shown in the figure. Which of the following best (1) 0° (2) 45°
represent variation of induced emf(e) in coil with
(3) 90° (4) 180°
time?
10. In LCR series circuit, 1, 2 and 0 are lower half
power, upper half power and resonance angular
S N frequencies respectively then
⎛ 2 1 ⎞ ⎛ 2 1 ⎞
(1) 0 ⎜ (2) 0 ⎜
V
⎝ 2 ⎟⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
e e ⎛ 2 1 ⎞
(3) 0 12 (4) 0 ⎜
⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
(1) t (2) (0,0)
t
(0,0)
11. In an LCR series circuit voltage across resistor,
inductor and capacitor are same and is 50 V. If
capacitor is short circuited then the voltage across
e e inductor will be (Assume same a.c. voltage source
remains connected)
(3) (0,0)
t (4) (0,0)
t
(1) 25 2 V (2) 25 V
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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
14. There are two L-R circuits shown. Key is closed 16. A metallic ring is kept on a hard paper (which is
simultaneously at t = 0. Current grow in both circuits transparent to magnetic field) such that its centre
are shown. coincide with the axis of a long solenoid as shown.
R R If current in solenoid is switched on then normal
reaction between ring and paper will
(1) L1 (2) L2
E E
i
imax
(1) K
(2)
t
R
2 0.2 mH 8 F Key
1 2
3L R
L
2
E
A
= 1.5 × 10 rad/s
2
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 6 (Code A)
A. 1
20. In L-C oscillation, if frequency of oscillation of
electrical energy is f0, then frequency of oscillation
of charge in the circuit will be
2 (1) 2f0
B. f0
1 (2)
2
(3) f0
(4) 4f0
2
21. In L-C oscillation charge in capacitor is maximum at
t = 0. The magnetic and electric energy will be
C. equal in magnitude at (T = Time period of oscillation
1
of charge)
2T 11T
(1) B < A < C (2) A < C < B (1) (2)
3 8
(3) B < C < A (4) C < B < A
19. Flux passing through a loop is changing with time T 5T
as shown in the figure. Select correct graph (3) (4)
3 6
between induced emf () and t.
22. Select correct statement regarding ideal
= 2t2 transformer
(1) Input and output both have same frequency
and phase
t
(2) Input and output both have same power and
phase
(3) Input and output both have same power and
frequency
(1) (0, 0)
t (2) (0, 0)
t
(4) Input and output both have different frequency
but same power
Space for Rough Work
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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
23. Instantaneous energy density, average energy 27. A square plate of side 20 cm is kept in yz-plane in
density and poynting vector in a region where
a region where magnetic field B (4iˆ 6 jˆ 2kˆ ) T .
electromagnetic wave is propagating is given U, Uav
and S respectively then, select correct match The magnitude of magnetic flux passing through the
loop is
1
a. U = 0E2 b. U 0 E 2 (1) 16 weber (2) 0.16 weber
2
(3) 0.4 40 weber (4) 2.4 weber
EB
c. Uav = 0E2 d. S 28. Self inductance L of a coil of length l and area of
0
cross-section A, and total number of turns N,
Then increase with increase in
25. When a bar magnet is kept at 40°C temperature (4) Negative and remains unchanged with orbit
then 30. A circular loop and a square loop are entering into
(1) All domains are perfectly align a region of uniform magnetic field with constant
speed
(2) Atoms have non zero magnetic moment and all
are perfectly aligned R v0
(3) Atoms have zero magnetic dipole moment
(4) Domains are partially aligned
26. Though protons also have spin motion therefore v0
have magnetic moment even then it is not
considered in magnetism of material but that of
electron is considered because R
(1) Proton lie inside nucleus (1) Induced emf in both are constant
(2) Magnetic dipole moment of proton is much (2) Induced emf in square loop is variable and in
larger than that of electron circular loop is constant
(3) Magnetic dipole moment of proton is much (3) Induced emf in circular loop is variable and in
smaller than that of electron square loop it is constant
(4) Net magnetic moment of protons is always zero (4) Induced emf in both loops are variable
Space for Rough Work
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m 33. Magnetic field due to a short bar magnet is BA on
31. A square loop PQRS of mass , side l is attached
2
its axis at d distance (d >> l) and B on its
with a balance by insulating wire. When block of
mass m is kept in the massless pan and current i perpendicular bisector at d distance. Select correct
flows in the loop, then balance beam is horizontal relation
as shown in the figure. The value of i is
(1) BA 2B
l/2 l/2
(2) BA 2B
Insulator
m wire
i (3) BA B
P Q
(4) Both (1) & (2)
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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
36. Two straight parallel long conductors P and Q are 38. Some long straight conductors carrying current
2x apart, lying perpendicular to plane of paper. either into or out of plane are shown in figure. All
Current in P is out of plane and in Q it is into the conductors carry same magnitude of current. Line
plane. The variation of magnetic field along xx is integral of magnetic field taken clockwise around
best represented by each loop is most positive for
4
1
I I
(1) x x
P Q
2
x x
5
3
(1) 4 (2) 1
I Q I
(2) x x (3) 3 (4) 5
P
39. Two current loops are kept in uniform magnetic field
x x
as shown in the figures, then
i i
B0
i B
I Q I 0
(3) x x 1
P
x x i 2
(1) On loop 1, FN 0, 0
(2) On loop 1, FN 0, 0
I I
(4) x x
P Q (3) On loop 2, FN 0, 0
x x
(4) On loop 2, FN 0, 0
37. Current I is flowing in a long straight conductor kept 40. A proton is projected in a uniform magnetic field B
along x-axis, a current loop is kept near by it as with velocity v at angle (0° < < 90°). After what
shown in the figure. The loop displaces time velocity of charged particle will be identical to
initial velocity
y v
m
I (1)
qB
2m
x (2)
i0 qB
4m
(3)
(1) Along +ve x-axis (2) Along –ve x-axis qB
(3) Along +ve y-axis (4) Along –ve y-axis (4) Both (2) & (3)
Space for Rough Work
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 6 (Code A)
41. A positron and an electron moving with same 0 i R
(1) Zero (2)
velocity v 0 each, enter into a perpendicular 2
magnetic field B0 directed into the plane of paper as 0 iR 0 i R
shown. The separation between them after time (3) (4)
2 4
m 44. A rod PQ is made of wood and copper. It is rotating
is
2eB with angular speed about axis normal to plane
y through P. The potential difference between point P
and R is plotted against x. Select correct plot.
v0
t = 0 ep x
v0
L1 L2
P Wood Cu Q
x R
2mv 0 mv 0
(1) eB0 (2) eB
0
mv 0 2 mv 0 V P – VR V P – VR
(3) (4) 2eB
eB0 0
VP–VR VP–VR
C
Q P
(3) (4)
x x
L1 L2 L1 L2
I
I 45. Select correct statement regarding electromagnetic
(1) Magnetic field at P = 0, at Q 0 wave
(2) Magnetic field at P 0, at C 0 (1) Concept of electromagnetic wave was given by
(3) Magnetic field at Q 0, at C 0 Maxwell
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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. How many structural isomers of alcohols with the (1) II > III > I (2) I > II > III
formula C4H9OH are possible if all the carbon are (3) I > III > II (4) II > I > III
in straight chain?
51. Which one of the following cannot act as an
(1) 4 (2) 5 electrophile?
(3) 2 (4) 3 (1) BF3 (2) C2H5O–
47. Which one of the following structures does not have
molecular formula C5H10? (3) NO2 (4) CH3 – C = O
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56. Arrange the following carbocation in the order of 61. On complete combustion of 24.6 g of an organic
stability compound, 19.8 g of CO2 and 10.14 g of H2O is
obtained. The approximate percentage of C and H
in the organic compound is respectively
(1) 22% and 4.6% (2) 22% and 78%
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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
65. Which of the following will have maximum number
of hyperconjugative structures? 70. In pyridine number of conjugated -electrons
CH3 C2H5 N
(1) (2) is
(1) 6 (2) 8
CH – CH3 C(CH3)3 (3) 0 (4) 5
71. The number of metamers possible for the molecular
(3) CH3 (4)
formula C4H10O is
(1) 7 (2) 4
66. Which of the following is temporary effect?
(3) 3 (4) 5
(1) Inductive effect (2) Electromeric effect
72. Which of the following compound has empirical
(3) Resonance effect (4) Hyperconjugation formula same as the empirical formula of
67. Which one of the following is homolytic fusion? CH3COOH?
(1) A – A •A + •A (2) A – B A+ + B– O
(3) A – B A– + B+ (4) A2B 2A+ + B–2
(1) CH 3 – CH2 – C – O – O – H
68. The type of reaction is
OH– O
C6H5CHO + CH3COCH3
(2) CH 3 – CH2 – C – OH
C6H5CH (OH)CH2COCH3
(1) Addition (2) Substitution O
(3) Condensation (4) Elimination (3) CH 3 – C – O – CH3
69. Which of the following pair of structure constitute
resonance structures? O
(4) H – C – O – H
O
+
(1) CH3 – N and H3C – O – N = O 73. Identify the product (C) in the following series of
– reaction.
O
– Br2 (1 eq) alc. KOH
O O (A) (B) NBS (C)
h
(2) CH3 – C and CH3 – C
– Br
CH2 CH2 Br
(1) (2)
OH
(3) (CH3)2CO and CH3 – C
CH2 Br
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74. Identify the product (A) in the following reaction 77. An alkylbromide (A) forms a Grignard reagent which
on treatment with water yield n-hexane. When A is
CH3 –
C2H5O treated with sodium in dry ether, 4, 5-diethyloctane
CH 3 – C – CH2Br A is formed. The structure of A is
SN1 (Major)
CH3 (1) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2Br
CH3
Br
(1) CH 3 – C – CH2CH3
(2) CH3CH2CH2CH2CHCH3
OC 2H5
CH 3 Br
(2) CH3 – C – CH2OC2H5 (3) CH3CH2CH2CHCH2CH3
CH 3
Br Br
CH3
(4) CH3CHCHCH2CH2CH3
(3) CH3 – C = CHCH3
CH3 78. During antidebromination of meso-dibromobutane
the major compound formed is
(4) CH 3 – C – CH3
(1) n-butane (2) 1-butene
CH3
75. The major product formed in the reaction is (3) Cis-2-butene (4) Trans-2-butene
CF3CH = CH2 + HCl 79. The product (A) formed in the following reaction
Cl CH3
(1) CF3CH – CH3 , by Markownikoff’s rule High Temp.
+ Cl2 UV
(A)
(2) CF3CH2CH2Cl, by anti-Markownikoff’s rule (Excess)
CH3
(3) CCl3CH = CH2, by substitution reaction
(4) CF2CH2CH2F , by rearrangement reaction Cl
CH3 Cl CH3
Cl
76. Compound A(C 6 H 14 ) gives three different (1) (2)
monochlorides on photochemical chlorination. One CH3 Cl CH3
of the monochlorides is inert to E-2 elimination, then
that monochloride is
Cl
CCl3 Cl CH3
(1) (2)
Cl Cl (3) (4)
Cl CCl3 Cl CH3
(3) (4) Cl Cl
Space for Rough Work
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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
80. Arrange the following compounds in order of 83. Alkyl iodides can be best prepared by
decreasing reactivity towards nucleophilic aromatic
CCl4
substitution. (1) RCH2COOAg I 2 RCH2I
acetone
Cl Cl Cl (2) RCH2Cl + NaI
RCH2I + NaCl
NO2
(3) CH4 + I2 CH3I
(4) All of these
(i) NO2 NO2 84. Which of the following reactions is feasible?
(ii) (iii) Cl NH2
NaNH2,NH3
(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) (2) (iii) > (ii) > (i) (1)
(3) (ii) > (iii) > (i) (4) (i) > (iii) > (ii)
H3C CH3
NO2 CH3
Br NH2
(3) (4) H3C H3C
CH3 NaNH2, CH3
NH3
(3)
82. The major product in the following reaction is
CH3CH2CHBrCH3 + (CH3)3COK ? CH3 CH3
(1) CH3CH2CHCH3 Cl
CH3O CH2CH3
OC(CH3)3 NaNH2,NH3
(4)
(2) CH 3CH2CHCH3
OH NH2
CH3O CH2CH3
(3) CH3CH2CH = CH2
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 6 (Code A)
85. Which of the following statements about (1) i > ii > iii > iv (2) iv > iii > ii > i
Borodine-Hunsdiecker reaction is not true?
(3) iv > ii > iii > i (4) iv > iii > i > ii
(1) Hunsdiecker reaction occurs by a free-radical
mechanism 89. When isobutyl magnesium bromide in dry ether is
heated with absolute ethyl alcohol. The products
(2) It is used to reduce the length of carbon chain
formed are
(3) Bromides are obtained in good yield by this
reaction (1) CH3 – CH – CH2OH and CH3CH2MgBr
(4) The yield of alkyl or aryl halide decreases in the CH3
order : 3° > 2° > 1°
86. Which of the following is most reactive for (2) CH3 – CH – CH2CH2CH3 and Mg(OH)Br
electrophilic addition reaction?
CH 3
(1) CH3 – C CH
(2) CH3 – CH CH2 (3) CH 3 – CH – CH 3 and CH3CH2O MgBr
CH3
(3)
(4) CH3 – CH – CH3, CH CH and Mg(OH)Br
(4) CH CH
CH 3
87. Conversion of chlorobenzene to phenol by Dow’s
process follows 90. The reaction,
(1) Free radical mechanism (CH3)3CBr + CH3CH2ONa P
(2) Carbocation mechanism (Major)
(3) Benzyne mechanism
(1) CH 3 – C = CH 2
(4) Carbanion mechanism
88. The correct order of reactivity of the following CH3
alcohols towards conc. HCl is
CH3
CH3
(i) F – CH2 – CH (2) CH3 – C – OCH2CH3
OH CH3
(ii) F – CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH3
CH2CH3
OH
(3) CH3 – C – OCH3
(iii) CH3 – CH – CH3
CH3
OH
(iv) PH–CH2–OH (4) (CH3)3C–CH2CH3
Space for Rough Work
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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Choose correct labels for given diagram. 92. Transforming principle transferred from S-strain
bacteria had enabled R bacteria to synthesize
______ and become ______.
(A)
(1) Proteinaceous coat, non-virulent
(2) Polysaccharide coat, non-virulent
(3) Proteinaceous coat, virulent
(4) Polysaccharide coat, virulent
1. Infection
93. Read the following statements w.r.t. DNA packaging
in prokaryotes
(1) DNA is not scattered throughout the cell
2. Blending (2) Large loops are held by proteins
(3) Involves DNA and positively charged proteins
3. (C) (4) More than one option is correct
Radioactivity 94. What is the number of glycosidic linkages in DNA
detected
in cell (B) of Escherichia coli?
(1) 4.6 106
(1) A – Radioactive capsid (2) 2 4.6 106
B – Supernatant (3) 4.6 106 – 2
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 6 (Code A)
97. Choose correct option w.r.t. regulatory sequences 102. Minisatellite represent _____DNA sequence
which are part of transcription unit arranged tandemly in _______ copy numbers.
(1) Present upstream or downstream to the (1) Small, few (2) Large, many
promoter
(3) Small, many (4) Large, few
(2) May be defined as regulatory genes
(3) Do not code for any RNA or protein 103. Which of the following complex is formed at first
during the initiation of translation in Rhizobium ?
(4) More than one option is correct
98. In which of the following RNA unusual nucleotides (1) 50S subunit – mRNA complex
are present in eukaryotes? (2) 60S subunit – mRNA complex
(1) rRNA, hnRNA (2) mRNA, tRNA
(3) 30S subunit – mRNA complex
(3) hnRNA, mRNA (4) hnRNA, tRNA
(4) 40S subunit – mRNA complex
99. How many types of amino acids will be coded by
the given sequence of nitrogenous bases in the 104. Which of the following hosts were used for cloning
mRNA? in HGP?
AUG UUU UUC UUC AUG UGG UUU UAG (1) Bacteria, Algae (2) Algae, Yeast
(1) Four (2) Five
(3) Yeast, Protozoan (4) Bacteria, Yeast
(3) Three (4) Six
105. Choose correct option w.r.t. genes of lac operon
100. Which of the following sequence represents the
negative control of lac operon? Gene Expression Type Product
(1) Lactose Binds with promoter Transcription (1) y Constitutive Structural Non Catalytic
stops gene protein
(2) Repressor Binds with promoter (2) p Non- Non structural Catalytic
Constitutive gene protein
Transcription proceeds
(3) Lactose Binds with operator Transcription (3) o Absent Structural gene No protein
proceeds
(4) i Constitutive Regulatory Non catalytic
(4) Regulatory proteins Binds with operator gene protein
Transcription stops
101. Hypothetical DNA sequence (for one strand) for two 106. Saccharum barberi was crossed with _______
humans is given. Which of the following type of resulting in formation of sugarcane varieties which
variation is represented by these sequences? possess _____.
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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
107. Choose incorrect option : 111. The shift from grain to meat does not solve the
problem of food scarcity as it takes
Variety Crop Developed in
(1) IR - 8 Rice Philippines (1) 30 kg of grain to produce 1 kg of meat
d. Screening germplasm for resistance 113. Which of the following step is not involved in the
formation of somatic hybrid?
e. Testing of variety
(1) Fusion of naked protoplasts
(1) c d b a e (2) Digesting cell with cellulases and nucleases
(2) d c b a e (3) Hybrid protoplasts are grown to form new plant
(3) d b a e (4) Both (2) & (3)
114. How many of the given features are associated with
(4) b d c a e
tissue culture?
109. Solid stems in wheat leads to non-preference by
Based on totipotency, Somaclone production,
(1) Stem borers Slow method, Thousands of plants produced,
(2) Stem sawfly Form intergeneric hybrids, Fast production,
Used for crop improvement
(3) Jassids
(1) Four (2) Five
(4) Bollworms
(3) Six (4) Three
110. Protina, Shakti and Rattan are rich in 115. Which of the following is very time consuming and
(1) Iron and Minerals tedious step in plant breeding?
(1) Testing of cultivars
(2) Vitamin A and Calcium
(2) Selection of hybrid
(3) Lysine and Tryptophan
(3) Selection of parents
(4) Calcium and Iron (4) Cross hybridisation
Space for Rough Work
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116. Green revolution was dependent on plant breeding 121. Which of following pair of products are produced by
technique for developing high yielding verieties of fermentative activity of bacteria?
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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
127. In STP, secondary treatment involves 132. Which of the following autotrophic organism is
widely distributed in aquatic and terrestrial
(a) Agitation (b) Aeration
environments and can fix atmospheric nitrogen?
(c) Decomposition (d) Filtration
(1) Frankia (2) Rhizobium
(e) Chlorination
(3) Glomus (4) Anabaena
Choose correct option
133. Millions of gallons of waste water is treated
(1) (a), (d), (e) (2) (a), (c), (d)
everyday across the globe by using
(3) (a), (b), (c) (4) (b), (c), (e)
(1) Chemical treatment
128. Microbes produce different types of gaseous end
products during growth and metabolism. Certain (2) Physical treatment
bacteria can produce large amount of CH4. These
(3) Microbial treatment
bacteria are found in
(4) Conventional treatment
(1) Activated sludge, dung
(2) Anaerobic sludge, cattle rumen 134. Mesh like structures formed during sewage
treatment represents
(3) Gobar, cattle excreta
(1) Protozoa + Fungi
(4) More than one option is correct
129. Biogas is mixture of (2) Bacteria + Fungi
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 6 (Code A)
136. If we observe any wild plant or animal, they exist in 141. Which surviving connecting link is a correct
different sizes, configurations even within same evidence of organic evolution?
species. It is due to
(1) Lung fish between fish and reptiles
(1) Food chains (2) Variations
(2) Archaeopteryx between reptiles and birds
(3) Selective breeding (4) Genetic drift
(3) Coelacanth between cartilage and bony fish
137. The basic unit of evolution according to synthetic
theory of evolution is (4) Echidna between reptiles and mammals
(1) The selective advantage that is accrued to the (3) Pre-existing variation in the population
heterozygotes because of their resistance to
(4) Divergent evolution
malaria
143. Which of the following is an element of the writings
(2) Affected individuals reached Africa and are
of Malthus that influenced Darwin?
founders of the present population
(3) Gene flow (1) Artificial selection
(4) Ethane – Ammonia – Hydrogen – Water 144. In which geological period seed ferns originated?
140. The process of evolution of different species in a (1) Carboniferous (2) Cretaceous
given geographical area starting from a point and
(3) Silurian (4) Devonian
literally radiating to other areas of geography is
called as 145. For origin of life, it was necessary that there must
have been a supply of replicators i.e. self producing
(1) Adaptive radiation
molecules. It is supposed that the first replicators
(2) Divergent evolution must have been
(3) Convergent evolution (1) Viruses (2) RNA
(4) Parallel evolution (3) DNA (4) Proteins
Space for Rough Work
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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
146. Initially early humans/hominids were food-gatherers 150. There is a great diversity in the feature of Darwin’s
but later they became food producers with the finches. Their beaks are adapted for various feeding
advent of agriculture around habits. The following finches are found in
Galapagos islands, except
(1) 10,000 years ago
a. Fruit eaters
(2) 25,000 years ago
b. Fish eaters
(3) 18,000 years ago
c. Insect eaters
(4) 75,000 years ago
d. Carrion feeders
147. Colonization of a new habitat by a very small
e. Cactus eaters
number of individuals leads to
f. Seed eaters
(1) Bottle-neck effect
(1) a, c & e
(2) Founder effect
(2) b, c & d
(3) Stabilising of allelic frequencies in the original
population (3) b & d
(4) Disruptive selection (4) c, d & e
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 6 (Code A)
153. The following evolutionary changes have occurred 157. Darwin’s theory of natural selection to explain
due to anthropogenic activity, except organic evolution was based on
(1) Selection of melanic form of peppered moths (1) Modifications of organs through use and disuse
during industrial revolution
(2) Prodigality of reproduction, struggle for
(2) Extinction of giant reptiles existence and survival of the fittest
(3) Selection of antibiotic resistant strains of (3) Inheritance of acquired characters
bacteria
(4) Appearance of sudden large variations, then
(4) Extinction of cheetah inheritance and survival of those having these
154. Which of the following factor/s do not affect variations
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? 158. Choose the incorrect statement
a. Gene migration (1) Postzygotic isolating mechanisms lead to hybrid
b. Genetic recombination zygotes developing abnormally or failing to
develop entirely or hybrids not being able to
c. Random mating become established in nature
d. Genetic drift (2) Mutations are random and directionless while
e. Gene flow Darwinian variations are small and directional
156. Mammals evolved from therapsid reptiles in Triassic (1) Plasma cells
period. The type of skull in these reptiles was (2) Histiocytes
(1) Diapsid skull (2) Anapsid skull (3) Keratinocytes
(3) Parapsid skull (4) Synapsid skull (4) Dendritic cells
Space for Rough Work
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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
161. The four polypeptide chains of the antibody 165. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus
molecule are held together by across placenta and through mother’s milk to infant
is respectively due to
(1) Peptide bonds
(2) Disulphide bonds (1) IgG, IgM
163. Choose the option which describes the physical (4) Tetanus, Taeniasis
barrier of innate immunity.
167. Choose the option where the disease does not
(1) Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears match with its mode of transmission from the patient
from eyes prevent microbial growth to the healthy person.
(2) Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the (1) Pneumonia – Air-borne/droplet
respiratory, gastrointestinal and urinogenital
tracts help in trapping microbes entering our (2) Typhoid – Contaminated food and
body water
(3) Chemical like interferons protects cells from (3) Filariasis – Bite by female Anopheles
viral infection vector
(4) Rejection of an allograft (4) Sleeping sickness – Bite by tse-tse fly
164. Natural killer cells kill virus-infected cells and some
168. The presence of typhoid fever in a person can be
tumour cells by producing
confirmed by
(1) Histamine and prostaglandin
(1) ELISA test
(2) Perforins that form channels in the plasma
membrane of target cells (2) Widal test
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 6 (Code A)
169. Read the following four statements A, B, C and D 173. Most diseases can be diagnosed by observing the
which are the description of events in the life cycle symptoms in the patient. Which group of symptoms
of Plasmodium vivax. Select the right option having are indicative of amoebiasis?
both the correct statements.
(1) Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough,
a. Parasites reproduce asexually in the red blood headache
cells, bursting the red blood cells and causing
(2) Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood
cycles of fever and other symptoms.
clots and mucous in stools
b. Sexual stages gametocytes develop in stomach
of mosquito. (3) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore
throat, headache
c. Fertilisation and development take place in the
stomach/intestine of mosquito. (4) High fever, malaise, stomachache, loss of
appetite and constipation
d. Female mosquito takes up gametes with blood
meal. 174. The following table shows certain diseases, their
causative organisms and symptoms. Choose the
Options option which correctly fills the gaps in the table.
(1) a & b (2) b & c Name of Causative
Symptoms
disease organism
(3) a & c (4) c & d
(i) Ascariasis Ascaris __________ (A)
170. Grafts from just any source – an animal, another
primate or any human being cannot be made since (ii) _________ (B) Trichophyton Appearance of dry,
scaly lesions on
the grafts would be rejected by various parts of body
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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
175. Which of the following class of immunoglobulins can 178. Which of the following is not classified as vaccine?
trigger the complement cascade? (1) Bacterial exotoxin as toxoid
(1) IgA (2) IgM (2) Attenuated or killed pathogens as vaccines
(3) IgD (4) IgE (3) Interferons
176. Read the statements a-d. How many statements (4) Polysaccharide capsules of bacteria
are true for passive immunity?
179. About 65 mya, the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared
a. Anti-tetanus serum administered after an injury. from earth. What can be the possible reason for this
b. An injection of anti-venom after snake bite. mass extinction?
(1) They evolved into birds
c. A newborn vaccinated against Hepatitis-B.
(2) Climatic changes killed them
d. Life time immunity attained by suffering from
chicken pox once. (3) A large meteorite had hit the earth
(1) One (2) Two (4) More than one option is correct
177. Which of the following diseases can be treated by (1) Fresh water fish
antibiotics? (2) Larvivorous fish
(1) Mumps (2) Dengue (3) Bony, viviparous fish
(3) Hansen’s disease (4) Hepatitis (4) All of these
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Test Booklet Code A
Test No. 5
AKASH TE
A ST
IA for
D
SE
IN
MEDICAL
RI
AL L
Entrance Exams.
ES
2014
AIPMT
Test - 5 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
T EST – 5
ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (4) 73. (4) 109. (4) 145. (4)
2. (4) 38. (1) 74. (3) 110. (1) 146 (2)
3. (4) 39. (3) 75. (4) 111. (2) 147. (3)
4. (1) 40. (2) 76. (2) 112. (3) 148. (3)
5. (4) 41. (2) 77. (2) 113. (4) 149. (4)
6. (3) 42. (1) 78. (4) 114. (4) 150. (1)
7. (4) 43. (2) 79. (1) 115. (4) 151. (4)
8. (1) 44. (1) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (2)
9. (3) 45. (2) 81. (1) 117. (2) 153. (3)
10. (2) 46. (3) 82. (4) 118. (2) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (1) 83. (1) 119. (4) 155. (3)
12. (3) 48. (3) 84. (3) 120. (3) 156. (4)
13. (2) 49. (1) 85. (2) 121. (4) 157. (2)
14. (4) 50. (1) 86. (2) 122. (2) 158. (2)
15. (3) 51. (1) 87. (4) 123. (4) 159. (3)
16. (3) 52. (4) 88. (3) 124. (1) 160. (3)
17. (3) 53. (3) 89. (1) 125. (3) 161. (3)
18. (4) 54. (1) 90. (4) 126. (1) 162. (2)
19. (1) 55. (3) 91. (4) 127. (3) 163. (3)
20. (1) 56. (1) 92. (4) 128. (4) 164. (3)
21. (3) 57. (2) 93. (3) 129. (4) 165. (2)
22. (2) 58. (3) 94. (4) 130. (2) 166. (4)
23. (1) 59. (2) 95. (2) 131. (4) 167. (3)
24. (1) 60. (3) 96. (4) 132. (3) 168. (2)
25. (4) 61. (2) 97. (1) 133. (2) 169. (4)
26. (2) 62. (4) 98. (3) 134. (4) 170. (2)
27. (3) 63. (2) 99. (4) 135. (1) 171. (4)
28. (1) 64. (1) 100. (4) 136. (4) 172. (2)
29. (1) 65. (1) 101. (2) 137. (3) 173. (3)
30. (4) 66. (3) 102. (4) 138. (1) 174. (2)
31. (3) 67. (1) 103. (3) 139. (3) 175. (4)
32. (3) 68. (2) 104. (1) 140. (1) 176. (3)
33. (3) 69. (2) 105. (2) 141. (3) 177. (3)
34. (3) 70. (3) 106. (3) 142. (2) 178. (4)
35. (2) 71. (1) 107. (4) 143. (3) 179. (4)
36. (3) 72. (1) 108. (4) 144. (4) 180. (4)
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 5 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)
qE 1 b2 q1
a
m 2 a 2 q2
a1 q1 m2 2q 2m 4
Hence, 1 b2 a b
a2 q2 m1 q m 1
2 a 2 b a
5. Answer (4)
1 q
q V
40 R
12
0° V1 q1 b
Hence,
V2 q2 a
q q V1 = V2
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Test - 5 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
15. Answer (3) 22. Answer (2)
16. Answer (3) 23. Answer (1)
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 5 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)
32. Answer (3) 36. Answer (3)
2 37. Answer (4)
38. Answer (1)
6 1.5 Slope of V-R graph gives electric field.
I I 39. Answer (3)
3 Potential difference is same hence work done is
same.
6V
40. Answer (2)
6
I 4A Emf is potential drop when current is Zero.
1.5
33. Answer (3) E=2V
34. Answer (3) V = 0.4
Potential difference across 8 4 V 41. Answer (2)
35. Answer (2) 42. Answer (1)
Using Kirchhoff’s second law, 43. Answer (2)
4/8
Test - 5 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
It is E.C. of Cr24.
Lime
4FeO·Cr2O3 + 8Na2CO3 + 7O2
66. Answer (3) (A)
2Fe2O3 + 8N2CrO4 + 8CO2
Size decreases as we move left to right in lanthanoid (B) (C)
series.
NH 2 OH - - - - O
CH3 – C = N N = C – CH3
72. Answer (1) Ni
CH3 – C = N N = C – CH3
73. Answer (4)
O - - - - HO
74. Answer (3)
Two H-bonds.
(n – 2)f, (n–1)d and ns
85. Answer (2)
75. Answer (4)
2CuFeS2 + O2 Cu2S + 2FeS + SO2 is roasting.
76. Answer (2)
86. Answer (2)
77. Answer (2)
CN– – a strong ligand.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 5 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)
[ BIOLOGY ]
Central cell is haploid and develop into endosperm Grasshopper – XX-XO mechanism of sex
after double fertilization. determination.
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Test - 5 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
AaBb × aabb 0 1
0
ab 2 2
Ab Aabb Less dark than mulatto True breeding groups are homozygous
2 (IAIA, IBIB, IOIO)
aB aaBb Less dark than mulatto
134. Answer (4)
ab aabb White 1
135. Answer (1)
Phenotypic ratio – 1 : 2 : 1
Maize and wheat are anemophilous plants.
119. Answer (4)
136. Answer (4)
Grasshopper with XX-XO mechanism.
137. Answer (3)
120. Answer (3)
Euglena and Vorticella show vertical binary fission
121. Answer (4) with body divided into two equal halves.
It causes transition. 138. Answer (1)
122. Answer (2) 139. Answer (3)
H.J. Muller induced mutation in X-chromosomes of 140. Answer (1)
Drosophila.
141. Answer (3)
123. Answer (4)
Sertoli cells function in response to FSH.
Haemophilic male do not survive beyond adolescent
stage. 142. Answer (2)
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 5 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)
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