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This page is inspired by the following question, which appeared on MathOverflow.
Let with . Are the Banach spaces , isomorphic?
More generally, one can ask:
Given two Banach spaces, and , when are they isomorphic?
The following started out as an adapted version of Bill Johnson’s answer to the MathOverflow question.
One way to prove that a Banach space is not isomorphic to a Banach space is to exhibit a property which is preserved under isomorphisms that has but does not. For example, among the spacesType and forcotype , are examples of such properties. The(best) type is the only nonseparable space, andcotype of is the only separable space with a nonseparable dual. Thus are and standard calculations, for example in Theorem 6.2.14 ofAK06 . From are that, not one isomorphic can to see each that other if or to any , then with . and either have different (best) type or different (best) cotype.
Type To and distinguish cotype among depend only on the collection of finite dimensional subspaces of a space (we call such a property alocal property? ). So with neither can be used to prove, e.g., that for , finer properties are needed.Type is and not isomorphic tocotype . One are way examples of proving such this properties. is The to show that for(best) type , andcotype embeds of isomorphically into but are not standard into calculations: if (see then alsoAK ). has type and cotype (and no better), and if then has type and cotype (and no better). See for example in Theorem 6.2.14 of AK06. From that, one can see that if , then and either have different (best) type or different (best) cotype.
Type and cotype depend only on the collection of finite dimensional subspaces of a space (we call such a property a local property?). So neither can be used to prove, e.g., that for , is not isomorphic to . One way of proving this is to show that for , embeds isomorphically into but not into (see also AK).
Last revised on November 8, 2011 at 17:49:19. See the history of this page for a list of all contributions to it.