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Salient Features of RA 7942 or The Philippine Mining Act of 1995
The RA 7942 or "The Philippine M1n1ng Act of 1995" and its Revised
lmplement1ng Rules and Regulations (RIRR) 1s considered 1n the industry today as one
of the most socia!ly and env1ronmenta!ly-sensltive leglslat1ons 1n its class It has spec1f1c
prov1s1ons that take into cons1derat1on:
• Local government empowerment;
• Respect and concern for the 1nd1genous cultural commun1ties,
• Equitable sharing of benefits of natural wealth,
• Econom1c demands of present generation while prov1d1ng the necessary
foundation for future generations,
•Worldwide trend towards globa!1zat1on, and
• Protection for and wise management of the environment
GOVERNING PRINCIPLES
The Implementing Rules and Regulations (DENR Admrn1strat1ve Order No.96-40)
of the Philippine M1n1ng Act of 1995 provides strict adherence to the principle of
SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT This strategy mandates that the needs of the present
should be met without comprom1s1ng the ab1!1ty of the future generations to meet their
own needs, with the view of 1mprov1ng the quality of life, both now and 1n the future
Sustainable development provides that the use of mineral wealth shall be pro-people
and pro-environment 1n susta1n1ng wealth creation and improve quality of life.
The principles of SUSTAINABLE MINING operates under the following terms
• Mining 1s a temporary land use for the creation of wealth. leading to an optimum
land use in post-mining stage as consequence of progressive and engineered
mine rehabi!itat1on works done 1n cycle with m1n1ng operations,
• M1n!ng act1vit1es must always be guided by current Best Practices in
environmental management committed to reducing the impacts of m1n1ng while
efficiently and effectively protecting the environment
• The wealth created as a result of m1n1ng accruing to the Government and tl1e
community should lead to other wea!th-generatrng opportun1t1es for people 1n the
commun1t1es and for other envlronment-respons1ble endeavors
• Mining act1v1t1es shall be undertaken with due and equal regard for economic
and environmental cons1derat1ons, as well as for health, safety, social and
cultural concerns
• Conservation of minerals 1s effected not only through technological eff1c1enc1es
of m1n1ng operations but also through the recycling of mineral-based products, to
effectively lengthen the usable life of mineral commod1t1es
• The granting of m1n1ng rights shall harmonize ex1st1ng act1v1t1es, pol1c1es and
programs of the Government that directly or indirectly promote self-reliance,
development and resource management. Activities, pollc1es and programs that
promote community-based, community-oriented and procedural development
sha!I be encouraged, consistent with the principles of people empowerment and
grassroots development
6 PNP members shall adhere to high standards of morality and decency and
shall set good exan1ples for others to follow
b_ Judicious Use of Authority
c lntegnty
d. Justice
7 PNP members shall strive constantly to respect the rights of others so that
they can fulfill their duties and exercise their rights as human beings. parents, children,
c1t1zens. workers, leaders. or 111 other capacities and to see to 1t that others do likewise
a Humility
b Orderliness
c Integrity
(j ,Ju:::tice
8 Once a dec1s1on 1s made, PNP members shall take legitimate means to
achieve the goal even 1n the face of internal or external d1ff1cult1es and despite anything
which might weaken their reso!ve in the course of time
a Integrity
I). Pe1::evcranc0
c Devotion to Duty
d Physical Fitness and Health
9 PNP members shall obey lawful orders of and be courteous to superior
officers and other appropriate authorities w1th1n the chain of command and they shall
readily accept whenever they are assigned anywhere 1n the country
a Conservation of Natural Resources
b. Obedience to Superiors
c Devotion to Duty
d Physical Fitness and Health
1O Immediate Commanders/Directors shall be responsible for the effective
superv1s1on, control and direction of their personnel and shall see to 1t that all
government resources shall be managed, expended or utilized 1n accordance with laws
and regulations and safeguard against losses thru illegal or improper disposition
a. 1:ornn1~ind R0spo11sib1!ity
b Loyalty
c Disc1p!1ne
d Commitment to Public Interest
Formulated by
PSSUPT JEROME SALE BAXINELA
C,UTPDD
REVIEW QUESTIONS on PNP Ethical Doctrine
Multiple Choices. Choose the !Jest answer from the given facts.
1 PNP members shall seek self-improvement through career development
and shall not directly or indirectly solicit influence or recommendation from pollt1c1ans,
high ranking government officials prominent c1t1zens, persons affiliated with civic or
religious organizations with regards to their assignments. promotions, transfer or those
of the other members of the force
a Social Awareness
b Secrecy Discipline
c. !·!on·floUcftation of Patronzo-e
d Commitment to Democracy
2 PNP members shall guard the confidentiality of classified 1nformat1on
against unauthorized disclosure. 1nclud1ng conf1dent1al aspects of official business,
special orders. commun1cat1ons and other documents
~-· '.}uc1Gr::~/ 81sc1p!ine
b Proper Care and Use of Public Property
c. Respect for Human Rights
d. Non-Partisanship
3 PNP n1embess shall provide services to everyone without d1scrim1nat1on
regardless of party aff1l1atron 1n accordance with ex1st1ng laws and regulations
a Social Awareness
b< Non-Partisans!1ir)
c Non-Sollc1tat1on of Patronage
d Commitment to Democracy
4 PNP members shall always uphold public interest over and above
personal interest
a Command Respons1b1lity
b Loyalty
c Disc1pl1ne
tL Cornmitn1ent to Public lnter~st
5 PNP members shall perform their duties with dedication, thoroughness,
efficiency enthusiasm. determ1nat1on, and manifest concern for public welfare, and shall
refrain from engaging in any activity which shall be conflict with their duties as public
servants
a Conservation of Natural Resources
b Obedience to Superiors
,. iJevol :on to Dut;i'
d Physical Fitness and Health
Questions·
1 The Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act (RA 9147) aims to protect
our country's fauna from 1!11c1t trade, abuse and destruction. through·
a Conserving and protecting wrldl1fe species and their habitats,
b Regulating the collection and trade of wildlife,
c Pursuing, with due regard to the national interest, the Ph!l1pp1ne comn11tment to
international conventions, protection of wildlife and their habitats:
d. ln1t1at1ng or supporting sc1ent1f1c studies on the conservation of b1ologlcal d1vers1ty,
e. All of the above.
2 The Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act (RA 9147) makes 1t unlawful
for any person to undertake the following:
a Inflicting injury which cripples and/or 1mpa1rs the reproductive system of w1ldl1fe
species,
b Introduction, reintroduction, or restocking of wildlife resources,
c Trading of wildlife:
d Transporting of wildlife,
e All of the above
3 The penalty for v1olat1on of RA 9147 otherwise known as Wildlife Resources
Conservation and Protection Act 1s ________
a Imprisonment of as much as 12 years and a fine of P1 m1lhon pesos:
b Imprisonment of as much as 1Oyears and a fine of P5 m1ll!on pesos.
c. Imprisonment of as much as 5 years and a fine of P4 m1ll1on pesos,
d Imprisonment of as much as 2 years and a fine of P3 million pesos,
e None of the above
' (....1 ...
't -_ .''-·-~·.,-•_;}
t_,: r (! " 'r' - _
.,,-, 'J. _L'_.
the w1ld!1fe 1s killed or destroyed after 1t has been used 1n authorized research or
experiments
1nfl1ct1ng 1niury which cripples and/or impairs the reproductive system of wildlife
species
effecting any of the following acts 1n cnt1cal habitats. dumping of waste products
detrimental to w1!dllfe, squatting or otherwise occupying any portion of the critical
habitat, mineral exploration and/or extraction, burning: logging; and quarrying
introduction, re1ntroduct1on, or restocking of w1ldl1fe resources
trading of wildlife
collect1ng, hunting or possessing w1Jdl1fe. their by~products and derivatives
gathering or destroying of active nests, nest trees, host plants and the like
maltreating and/or 1nfl1ct1ng other 1nJunes not covered by the preceding
paragraph, and
transporting of w1ldl1fe
For any person who undertakes these illegal acts, stiff penalties and fines are meted
out Imprisonment of as much as 12 years and a fine of P1 million pesos shall be
imposed, 1f inflicted or undertaken against species listed as critical
A Wildlife Management Fund to be derived from fines imposed and damages
awarded, fees, charges, donations, endowments, adm1nlstrat1ve fees or grants, shall be
adm1n1stered by the Department of Environment and Natural Resources as a special
account in the National Treasury It will be used primarily to finance rehab1litat1on or
restoration of habitats due to v1olat1ons of this Act The Fund will also support sc1ent1f1c
research, enforcement and monitoring act1vit1es, as we!I as enhancement of capab1l1t1es
of relevant agencies
With the approval of The W1!dhfe Resources Conservation and Protection Act,
Congress continues its commitment to protect the environment to ensure an
economica!!y and ecologically sustainable future. following the const1tut1onal mandate of
the State to protect and advance the right of its people to "a balanced and healthful
ecology 1n accord with rhythm and harmony of nature"
---
RULE 24 - RULE 27
136 The involvement of PNP personnel during strikes lockouts and labor disputes 1
n
gene:al shall be l1.m1ted to maintenance of peace and order, enforcement of laws.
and 1mplementat1on of legal orders of the duly constituted authorities.
137 The PNP shall be render assistance to labor disputes upon written request
addressed to the Regional Director/District Director concerr?ed.
138 In the case of actual violence. the police can respond without the written
request.
139. Jnsofar as pract,1ceqble, no. PNP personnel shall be allowed to render police
assistance rn cdnnect1on Anth a stnke or !ockc~!t 1f there is question or comp!air?t as
regards his relationship by affinitv or consanguinity or any off;cia//leader of the
parties in the controversy, or if he has financial or pecuniary interest therein.
140 PNP personnel detailed,as 'peacekeeping force 1n strike or lockout areas shall be
in orescribed unifortn at all times.
141 PNP personnel shall exercise maximum tolerance and when called for by the
s1tuat1on or when all 0th.er peaceful and non-violent means have been exhausted, police
officers may employ such means as may be necessary and reasonable to prevent or
repel an aqgressioR_ '
142 The matter of determ1n1ng whether a stnke, picket or lockout 1s legal or not should
be left to Department of Labor and Employment and its appropriate agencies
143 Whenever escorts are be provided, all escorts shall be 1n prescribed uniform at aft
f!mes
144 The pertinent prov1s1ons of the Public Assembly Act of 1985 {Batas Pambansa
Bilang 880), the Labor Code. of the Phil1pp1nes, 3S amended and other applicable laws,
shall be observed during rallies strikes, demonstrations or other other public
assemblies Law enforcement a.gents shall at all times·
a. Exercise maximum tolerance.
b. In case of unlawful aggression, only reasonable force may be employed
to prevent or repel it.
c. The employment of tear gas and water cannons shall be made under the
control and supervision of the Grotind Commander.
d. No arrest of any leader, organizer, or participant shall be made during
the public assembly, unfess he/she violates any pertinent law as
evidence warrants.
145 -rhe peacekeeping detail shall not be stationed in a pfaceat least one ht1ndred
(100) meters away from tl1e area of activitv.
146 Whe11 the public assembly 1s held without a permit where a permit 1s required. the
satd pub/Jc asse1nbly may be peacefulfy dispersed However. when the leaders or
UtQd///Lt1f::i u[ µuiJ/iL' d::i::iti:1.11/J/y Ldll ::,/1uw 1:111 dµµf~LdilOfl [O/ µe11111l July ft/eJ d[ i/Je Off/Ct::
of the Mayor which has jur1sd1ctio11 over the plac,e where the rally will be held, at feast
five (5) days prior to the 1nten(ied act1v1ty and the Mayor did not act on tf1e same, tf1e
grant of the permit being then presumed under the law, and 1t will be the burden of the
authorities to show that there has been a denial of the appflcatio11. 1n which case. the
ref!}' .me}' be peecefuif}' d1spersed t.'7e foffrJ'.'.'1ng the procedure of .rna,-:1tntt!T1 toferer1ce
prescribed by law ,
147 Police contingent monitoring a public assembly may be detailed and stationed at
!e.e.~t o!1e hundred (100) meters at~1a~, from the area of acti'.'ftv.
148 An appl1cat1on for permit for a public assembly should be flied at least five (5)
days at the Office of the Mayor before the act1v1ty
149 A public assembly in a public place must,have permit from the Mayor of the City
l"'lr f/I, 1n1,-.1n".llif11
~' ...........~'/"'"''")
150 Police officers are not allowed to drink alcoholic beverages during peaceful
assemblies.
151 Gambling is':'prohibited. during a peaceful assembly and while monitoring the
s!tu2t1on
152. The PNP shall respect and protect human dignitv, maintain and uphold the
human rights of all persons.
153 Ground Commanders. are responsible in determining whether there is a
permit for the ho!~inq of the pub!ic assemb!~'.
154-155 Tear gas. smoke grenades water cannons. or anv s1m1far ant1-r1ot device
shall be used only wheri the public assembly is attended by actual violence or serious
threats of violence, or deliberate destruction of property
J56 When assistance 1s requested by the leaders/organizers. it shall be imeerative
for the COM contingent to perform their duties while observing the rights of
demonstrators.
157 The COM contingent shall not carry any kind of firearms but may be equipped
'."/1th baton or not sticks. c:2sh helmets A/1th visor, gas mas~.s, beets er ankle-high shoes
with shin guards
158 In cases when violence erupts. police officers are allowed to hit the violators only 1n
fleshy part of the body such as arms; torso, legs, and thighs.
159. The duties of PNP personnel 1n any demoilt1on or ejectment act1v1ty shall be limited
to the maintenance of peace and order. protection of fife and property, and
enforcement of Jaws and legal orders.
160 Tear gas water cannon. and reasonable force shall be used only when all other
peacefu! and non-'.'fo!ent meE?ns .'"?ave'been e.~ha!!sted.
161. PNP personnel tasked to prqv1de police assistance shall be in prescribed
uniform during the actual df!molition. They Shall limited only to occupying the first
line of law enforcement and c1v1I disturbance control; shall not part1c1pate 1n the physical
d1smantl1ng of any structure subject of demol1t1on· and shall use only necessary and
reasonable force
162. The request for police assistance 1s based on an order of the court. gL1as1-tud1c1al
or adm1t11strat1ve bodies Tl1e written request tor police assistance shall be signed bv the
Sheriff or equivalent off1ce1 1n quas1-1ud1c1al or adm1n1strat1ve bodies.
RULE 28 - RULE 31
163 The request for police assistance shall be submitted to the Office of the Chief
PNP 1n case the final decision or order to be 1n1plemented 1s rendered by the Supreme
Court, the Court of Appeals, the Court of Tax Appeals, the Sand1ganbayan, quas1-
JUd1c1al bodies or adm1n1strat1ve bodies
164 If the request for police assistance sat1sf1es all the requirements, police assistance
shall be rendered within three (3) working davs from receipt of the d1rect1ve from the
C, PNP or RO, PRO. unless a specific period 1d written 1n the order or due to inherent
1mposs1b1l1ty of rendering assistance. a longer 1s 1·equ1red
165 In case of direct f1l1ng or request to local police units or operational support units,
the request shall be cef,orred 0 tlJe OCPNr or RD, PRO, as appropriate In the
meantime, no police assistance shall be rendered until the CPNP or RD, PRO shall
have acted on the request
166-16/ I he police assistance shall only be granted upon the written request ot
COMELEC or DILG, acc'ompanied with the original or authenticated copy of the
final dec1s1on or order or resolution to be implemented
168 The approving' aut)fqrity on request for police assistance from the DILG or
CO~.~ELEC is the Chief P,..!P.
. ,. '
169 The police assistance shall. be rendered within three (3) working days from
receipt on the d1rect1ve frOm the C, PNP
170 It 1s true that police assistance can also be rendered for a longer period when
required b~' c1rcumste:ic:es
171 The Special Task Group Commander tasked to render police assistance shall
have the d1scret1on to employ suff1c1ent number of the PNP personnel
172-173 The police tean1 that will render police assistance should be led by a Police
Ccmm!ss1oned Off•cer (PCO) •11th the rank of fo!ice Se.riior !r?spector .A.II members of
the Special tasked Group shall be in prescribed uniform when rendering police
assistance.
174 The role of the PNP when rendering police assistance shall be lirn1ted to
maintenance of oeace and order. crowd control. and the securitv of the dulv
authorized officer of the COMELEC, DILG or LGU concerned 1n the 1mplementat1on
of dec1s1on/order/resolut1on
175 In performing their role, the PNP personnel shall at all times observe maximum
tolerance and respect for human rights and shall always exercise utmost
impartiality and neutrality in effecting its role.
176 The request for police assistance 1n the 1mplementat1on of final orders, dec1s1011s,
Resolutions or CLOAs can only be granted upon the written request submitted by the
Agrarian Reform Officer or any authorized officer of DAR.
177 Examples of Prel1m1nary Agrarian Act1v1t1es
1. Land Survey
2. Field Investigation
3. Ocular Inspection
4. fvieeiir1y Ueiwt:e11 ar.:iudl a11U µule11ii<1i Ayrd1idr1 1elu1111 Ber1eliGidrie::.
5. Post Jnstallatio11
6. Landholding tagging
7..ll.na!og0us cas'2S
178 Police assistance 1n the 1mplementat1on of CARP shall be rendered onlv upon a
written request submitted by the Agrarian reform Officer or anv authorized Officer
of DAR.
179 It 1s true that police assistance 1n the 1mplementat1on of CARP shall be provided
only as requested by DAR
180 It is true that the scope of the resistance to be encountered and the general peace
and order cond1t1on 1n the area are the things to be considered by the head of office or
unit tasked to renper police assistance 1n employing suft1c1ent number of the PNP
personnel ,.
-181 It 1s true that there are cases when a higher ranking Officer 1s necessary to lead
the police team rendering assistance
182_ The police tean1 that will render police assistance should be led by a Police
Commissioned Officer (PCO) 'with the rank of Police Senior Inspector.
'
183 It is true thpt the use of force shall only be resorted to for self-defense and defense
of strangers
184 In no case shall PNP members participate in the implementation of
decision/order/resolution or in the conduct of any of the preliminary agrarian
activities, which shall be und~rtaken by the duly authorized officer of the DAR.
The duly authorized officer of the DAR shall have the final disposition whether to
proceed or not with the implementation of the decision/order/resolution.
185 When the DAR personnel are refused to adrnrttance rnto the property, the PNP
P.ersonnel cannot encroach on the propertv without an order from the DAR
specifically for the purpose. In the imple1nentation of final orders or in the
conduct of preliminary agrarian activities, the authority to break into the property
or into a building shall be specifically provide_d in the order.
186. Examples of dec1s1ons/orders of the court, quas1-Jud1c1al or adm1n1stratlve bodies
that are Immediately executor
a. .,.emporary Restra1n1niJ Urde'r
b. Writ of Preliminary Injunction
c. Replevin
d. Writ of Preliminary Attachment
e. Receivership
[. Orivisiu11di rt:111t:!Jie::. Ur1dt:!1 ii1t:: Hu1ttdr1 StjCLJr11iiy Aci
g. Temporary Protection Order under the Anti-Violence Against Women and
their Children Act
h. Protection Order under the Anti-Child Pornography Act
i. Analogous cases.
187 lt 1s true that Prov1s1onal rerned1es under the Human Security Act 1s not
immediately execu'tory
188. Dec1s1ons/orders issued' by the court, quas1-1udlc1al or adm1n1strat1ve bodies that
are immediately executory shall be submitted to the Regional Director (RDJ of the
Police Regional Office (PRO) having jurisdiction of the place where the
decision/order shall be implemented. 1
189 It 1s false that Dec1s1ons/orders issued by the court, quas1-Jud1c1al or admin1strat1ve
bod!es th2t 2re :::ir::ed!3te!~' e:vecutory sha!! be subm!tted to the Chief. Pr-.JP
190 It 1s true that the RD. PRO shall be the approving authority 1n rendering police
assistance 1n the 1n1plementat1011 of dec1si6ns/orders of the court, quas1-Judic1al or
adn11n1strat1ve bodies tl1at are 1mmed1.?lte/y executory
191 It 1s false that the wnrten request of the Sherrff or equivalent officer 1n quas1-Jud1c1al
or admrn1strat1ve bodres 1s not needed 1n the request for police assistance
192 It 1s true that tl1e ong1nal or duly authent1caied copy ot the dec1sion/order/resolut1on
sought to be implemented 1s also required 1n the request for police assistance
193 It 1s true that, titl'e use 0f reasona·ble force shall only be resorted to for self-defense
and defense of strangers
194. It 1s true D1al9gue with those who may be affected by the 1mplementat1on of the
dec1s1on/order/reso!ut!on 1s encouraged to prevent v1o!ence, and the ass!stance of !ocal
public off1c1als, when warranted, sho~ld be requested
195 1t 1s true that the Sheriff or the equivalent officer of quas1-Jud1c1al or adm1n1strat1ve
bodies does not have the final disposition whether to proceed with the
imolementation of the decision/orderlresol!1tion or not.
RULE 32 - RULE 33
196 The Ground Commander 1s the main person in-charge during hostage/crisis
operation
197 The safety of the hostage shall always be paramount during a hostage s1tuat1on.
198 The mediator will act 21s the referee between the negotiator and the hostage-taker
199 Emergency Response Plan depends on the threat posed by the hostage-takers
and need of the Negotiation ·ream .and On-Scene Commander
200 WCPD 1s 111-charge of the 1nvest1gat1on of complaints and reports 1nvolv1ng all
forms of violence against women and their children
201 Under the Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006, a child aged 15 years and
below shall be exempt from criminal l1ab1l1t1es.
202 Under RA 7610, "children" refers to those below 18 vears of age or older but are
incapable of tak1ng care of themselves
203 The child-victim shall be handled preferably by a police officer of the same gender
as the v1ct1m_ ·
RULE 34
204 Bomb is a container filled with explosive, 1ncendrary material, smoke, gas, or other
destructive substance, designed to explode
205 A bomb may also be referred to as Improvised Explosives Device {/ED) or
Ordnance.
206 Bomb Threat 1s either a written or verbal threat communicated through electronic,
or2! or other means th2t thre2tens tc p!ace or use an !ED at a certain t!me, date or p!ace
against specific person or place
207 It 1s true that deteri111ned bombers do not frequently give warnings of possible
explos1on/1ncend1ary attack
208 It 1s false that the consequences of conviction for "threatening" are as serious as
t!1ose that could result from actual pfaceme11tll!1it1atton of a bomb
209 It 1s true that a bomb threat 1s considered only a threat until something v1s1ble 1s
found
210 There are foul (4.l·opti'on's '1n cb'rls1denng evacuation
211 lt 1s true that unless 'a bomb 1s found, personnel may not order an evacuation of
the affected area, but may .inform the person in-charge of the property of the need to
evacuate
212 lf a suspected device 1s d1scoveretj, cause the evacuation of people in the affected
area to a distance 'of at least ,300 meters away.
213 Ti1e fuiiow111d 111lu1111di1u11 ::.i'1ouiU be Ueie11nu1eU Li y li1e lu~i 1&~fJUl1Ue1 11 li1e
investigators have not yet arrived
a. Time of detonation/explosion;
b, Time when tl1e calf for bomb threat was received; and
c. Type of device.
RULE 35 - RULE 40
214 The Anti-Terrorism Council was mandated by law to assume the respons1bi11ty
for the proper and effective 1mplementat1on of the anti-terrorism policy of the country.
215 Executive Secretarv 1s the chairman of the Anti-Terrorism Council
216 The On-Scene Co
1
m1nander 1s 1n~charge of 1n1t1ally determ1n1ng 1f there 1s a h1gh
degree of probability that the 1nc1dent 1s a terrorist attack
217 CIMTG -Critical !nc1dent Management Task Group
218 CIMC- Critical Incident Management Committee.
219 Police Regional Office (PRO) ensures the management and containment of the
1nc1dent and coord~n2te.s 1,vith the TF Comm2nder during the development of the case.
220-221 When bombing attacks and explosions perpetrated by the terrorist, the lnter-
Aqency Protocol on Explosives and Related Incidents 1nvest1gat1on among the
PNP AFP NB/ and PCG shall be strictly followed
222 PBDC - Ph1l1pp1ne Bomb Data Center.
223. PBDC - Ph11ipp1ne Bomb 'Data Center 1s the fusion center for the reporting of ERls
224 Cybercrime Response 1s the actual police 1ntervent1on 1n cybercnme 1nc1dent
225 The acqu1sit1on of ev1dent1ary value 1s traceable w1th1n the computer's hardware,
software and its network.
officer/team, shall not render void and invalid such seizures of and custody over
said iterns.
239 Types of K1dnapp1ng
a. Kidnapping by Organized Crime Group/Criminal Group (with ransom)
b. Kidnapping by Threat Groups/Terrorists
c. kidnap,oing by Other Individuals
240 Upon receipt of k1dnapp1ng 1nc1dent report, the police officer shall make an
incident recording, deploy first responders and alert all concerned
authorities/tasked groups like the local territorial units, Criminal investigation and
detection Group and the Anti~Kidnappinq Group (AKG).
241. Upon 1n1t1al assessment of the' type of k1d11app1ng and upon conf1rmat1on that the
k1dnapp1ng incident is true, the case shall be referred to the AKG. other territorial
units or to higher authority. ·
242 It t11e k1dnapp-1ng was. perpetrated by Organized Crime Group/Cnm1nal Group
(OGG/CG) and with ransom demand, .1t shall be referred to the AKG for their initial
action/operational response
243. If the k1dnapp1ng was pe1·petrated by Threat Groups/Terrorists, it shall be referred
to the higher author:t!8S for the 2ct:vat1on of lFP~PNP ..laint Tas.~ Force, Critfca!
Incident Management Committee (CIMCJ or Critical Incident management Task
Group (C/MTG); local Chief Executive; and other concerned agencies.
244 lf the k1dnapp1ng was perpetrated by other 1nd1v1duals, 1t shall be referred to the
concerned PNP territorial units for aoorooriate ooerational resoonse.
245 lf the incident 1s of grave national importance with the 1mpl1cat1ons to national
security including those with serious d1plomat1c, poht1cal and peace and order
ram1f1cat1ons rt shall be referred to CIMTG - Cnt1cal Incident Task GrouQ
246 Rule 40 Whatever the reason. the transfer of respons1b1l1ty during cr1s1s musty
always include transfer of cornmand briefing which may be oral, written or a
comb1nat1on of both that should be attended by tile key members of CIMC/CIMTG
247 NDRRMC - National Disaster. Risk Reduction and Management Council
248 lt 1s true that Mcln'-mad8 cr1t1cal 1nc1dents are the respons1b1J1t1es of the National
and Local Peace and Order Council (NPOC)
249. The PNP, being at the forefront of crisis s1tuat1ons, must play an active role by
oroan1z1no its own Incident Manaaeriient Comm1ttee (IMC) true.
- - .
250 It 1s false that t11e PNP CIMC acts indeµendently and not 111 support to tile
NDRRMC and NPOC
251. TOCA is the Chairman of the PNP NHO Critical Incident Management Committee
ror-.io r-.11-1n r1111r' ' ..... •'-- ...,, ....~,
252 The peace and order Council chair 1s the Chairman of the Critical Incident
Manaqe1T1ent Committee false
253 Level 4 (Extremel is the alert level when a man~made Cnt1cal Incident Has JUSt
'h mp+ rl "r 1n01rlnnh:• ':>rn nvr.or>tnrl
occurred or has JUS, ~e~:n pre-e.., .e~, ..,... ,..,...,...,...,_, ~·.., ~"r--""''-'"'
254 There are stages of Disaster management
1. Pre-Dfsa5ter .S!age - Pr0 .4t::!ive .455€55tnent (Le'€! 1 -Green)
2. Disaster Response Stage - Disaster Incident management (Level 2- Red)
3. Post Disaster Stage - Support to recovery and Rehabilitation Efforts (Level 3-
Wl1ite)
255 Support and recovery effort are at the Pro-Active Assessment Level False
256 It 1s true that 1n the conduct of man-made cnt1cal 1nc1dent and disaster relief
operations, security and safety of personnel must always be considered
257-258 The respons1b1l1ty of addressing crrs1s can be transferred during an 1nc1dent ff
it arows bevond the caoabiJitv of the establisl1ed C/MTG in handlina the arowina
needs of the incident or if.there1
is jt1risdictional change, when the incident moves
location or area of responsibilt~
259 The transfer of respons1b!l1ty during crisis must alvvays include transfer of
command briefing which mav be oral, written or a combination of both that
should be attended by the key members of the CMC!C/MTG.
260 To attain a s1nooth trans1t1on of command respons1b1l1ty, the Regional CMC takes
over when the situation 'requires employment of security forces and utilization of
resources of the Regional level organizations and beyond; upon the
, recommendat1on of the Provrncial CMC; rncident involves foreign nationals,
either perpetrators or viCtims; and crisis affects peace process. national tourism
industry and other major industries.
261 The national CMC takes over when incident affects two or more region; the
hirohocf forrnricf fhro<>f loorol ;,...,,,.,/,rinn Y11<>cc r<>c••<>lf,, <>Harks· n<>finna/ jcc11ac "'"'°'. . . . . . . . - ............................. ___ · - · - · .............................. __ .............. [ •••• _ . . ! ........... .............. _ _. ... -
at stake such as food, and communication structure, and environn1ent are
threatened; and upon recommendation of the regional CMC.
RULE 41
262 Unit Head/Chief of Ground Commander - responsible to respond to queries
raised by the media during crisis
263 Ground Commander must designated/establish a media area for pooled
coverage and ensure safetv of all media personnel covering the incident.
264 In case of inter-agency operations, the department agency with primary
jurisdiction will determine the d1ssem1nat1on of appropriate media lines
265 All of the above
REVIEW QUESTIONS on PNP Ethical Doctrine
Multiple Choices. Choose the best answer from the given facts.
1 PNP members shall seek self-improvement through career development
and shall not directly or 1nd1rectly solicit influence or recommendation from pol1t1cians,
high ranking government officials prominent citizens, persons affiliated with c1v1c or
relrgious organizations with regards to their assignments. promotions, transfer or those
of the other members of the force
a. Social Awareness
b. Secrecy Discipline
(';. [~on-Solicitation of Patronage
d. Commitment to Democracy
2 PNP members shall guard the conf1dent1al1ty of classified 1nformat1on
against unauthorized d1sc!osure, including conf1dent1al aspects of official business,
special orders, communications and other documents.
2. Sec1ecy Discipline
b Proper Care and Use of Public Property
c. Respect for Human Rights
d. Non-Part1sansh1p
3 PNP members shall provide services to everyone without d1scriminat1on,
regardless of party aff1!1at1on 1n accordance with ex1st1ng laws and regulations
a Social Awareness
b. Non-Partisans!1ip
c Non-Solicitation of Patronage
d. Commitment to Democracy
4 PNP members shall always uphold public interest over and above
personal interest.
a. Command Respons1bil1ty
b Loyalty
c D1sc1pl1ne
d. Commit1nent to Public Interest
5 PNP members shall perform their duties with ded1cat1on, thoroughness,
efficiency enthusiasm, determination. and manifest concern for public welfare, and shall
refrain from engaging in any act1v1ty which shall be conflict with their duties as public
servants
a Conservation of Natural Resources
b Obedience to Superiors
c. Devotion to Duty
d. Physical Fitness and Health
6. PNP members shall adhere to high standards of morality and decency and
shall set good examples for others to follow.
b
c
d
- ' ~ - r ' --
'' i - '' L~
Jud1c1ous Use of Authority
Integrity
Justice
7 PNP members shall strive constantly to respect the rights of others so that
they can fulfill their duties and exercise their rights as human beings, parents, children,
citizens, workers, leaders, or !n other capac1tres and to see to it that others do likewise.
a. Hum1l1ty
b Orderliness
c Integrity
d. Justice
8 Once a decision is made, PNP members shall take legitimate means to
achieve the goa! even 1n the face of internal or external d1ff1culties and despite anything
which might weaken thelr resolve in the course of time
a Integrity
I;. Perseverance
c. Devotion to Duty
d Physical Fitness and Health
9 PNP members shall obey lawful orders of and be courteous to superior
officers and other appropriate authorities w1th1n the chain of command and they shall
readily accept whenever they are assigned anywhere 1n the country
a. Conservation of Natural Resources
iJ. Obedience to Superiors
c Devotion to Duty
d Physical Fitness and Health
1O Immediate Commanders/Directors shall be responsible for the effective
supervision. control and direction of their personnel and shall see to rt that all
government resources shall be managed, expended or utilized in accordance with laws
and regulations and safeguard against losses thru illegal or improper d1spos1tion
a. Command Responsibility
b. Loyalty
c D1scipl1ne
d Commitment to Public Interest
Formulated by
PSSUPT JEROME SALE BAXINELA
C,UTPDD
Reviewer on Criminal Justice System and RA 3019
The Philippine Constitution divides the government into three equal co-ordinated
branches, namely, the legislative, Executive, and the Jud1c1ary
1 ) The government 1s d1vrded into three equal co-ordinated branches namely.
a Congress, Senate, Supreme Court
b RTC, CA, Supreme Court
c Legislative, Executive and Judiciary
d Congress, President, DOJ
R None of the nhnvR
II The agency pnman!y 1n charge of law enforcernent 1s the Ph1hpp1nes National Police
which 1s under the control of the President through the DILG
2 ) The agency primarily responsible for law enforcement 1n the Philippines 1s
Ihe
a Office of the President
b Department of Justice
c- n11 G
d. Philippine National Police
e. Armed Forces of the Ph11ipp1nes
Ill The Five Pill3r.;; of Cri1111n~I ~lu5t!ce Systern 8rr::., the law Pnforcernent, thP
prosecutron; the JUd1c1ary; correctional Institution. and Community,
3 ) The Five Pillars of Criminal Justice system are
a prosecution, the Judiciary, correctional lnstltut1on, Community: and Jaw
enforcement
b. Law Enforcement; the Prosecution; the Judiciary; Criminal
Institution; and Community
c, the Jud1c1ary, correctional lnst1tut1on, Community; law enforcement, and the
Prosecution
d correctional lnst1tut1on, Community, enforcement, the Prosecution and
Jud1c1ary
e Communrty, Law Enforcement, prosecution, 1ud1c1ary; and law enforcement
IV Under the five Pillars, three falls under the Executive branch of the governmet,
namely the law enforcement, Prosecution and Correctional lnst1tut1on
4 ) Of the five Pillars, three falls under the executive branch of the government,
namely
rage 1 of J
a Jud1c1ary, law enforcement and prosecution
b Correctional 1nstltut1on, prosecution 8nd JUd1c1ary
c.. l~w P.nforc.P.mP.nt, proser:ution flnrl CorrP.c.tion~ lnstit11tion
d Community, law enforcement and JUd1cua1ry
e Prosecution, Jud1c1ary and community
I ThE> law enforcement pr0c-Ps.-=- bea1ns thf? m0m0nt the crime 1s rernrt1=1d nr a
complaint 1s fried before the police
5 ) The law enforcement process begins the moment
a the suspect Is arrested
b a case has been filed against the arrested suspect
c the Police arrives at the crime scene
e. the crime is reported or a complaint is filed before the police
VI The time limit for rendering Judgment 1s twenty four months for the Supreme Court,
twelve months for lower Collegiate Courts, three months for other lower courts.
6 ) The time limit for the supreme court to render judgment 1s
a 24 months
b 12 months
c 9 months
d 6 months
e 3 months
7 ) The time l1m1t for Collegiate courts to render judgment 1s
a 24 months
b 12 months
c 9 months
d 6 months
e 3 months
8 ) The time limit for other lower courts to render Judgment 1s
a 24 months
b 12 months
c 9 months
d 6 months
e 3 months
Vil Republic Act 3019 1s otherwise known as the Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act
9 ) Republic Act 3019 1s otherwise known as
Paec 2 ot 3
a Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Off1c1als and
Employees
b. Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act
c Anti-Plunder Act
d Anti-sexual harassment Act
VIII Under Section 14 of RA 3019, unsolicited gifts or presents of small or 1ns1gn1f1cant
value offered or given as a mere ordinary token of gratitude or friendship according to
local customs or usaQe. shall be excepted from the prov1s1ons of this Act
10 ) Excepted from the prov1s1on of this Act are
a Birthday gifts
b Anniversary Gifts
c Smaii amounts
d. unsolicited gifts or presents of small or insignificant value offered
or given as a mere ordinary token of gratitude or friendship
according to local customs or usage, unsolicited gifts or presents
of small or insignificant value offered or given as a mere ordinary
token of gratitude or friendship according to local customs or
usage.
e a, b, and c only
IX. Under Section 11 of RA 3019. All offenses punishable under this act shall prescribe
in fifteen years
1O ) All offenses punishable under this Act shall prescribe 1n
a 3 years
h s yeRr~
c. 10 years
d. 15 years
e Does not prescribe
Page 3 of 3
Policy and Guidelines on Grievance Mechanism for Uniformed PNP Personnel
(NAPOLCOM Memo Circular No. 2008-0116 dated January 16, 2006)
SCOPE:
a) VVrongfuJ or non-1mplementat1on and/or v1olat1on of pol1c1es and
procedures vvh1ch affect PNP personnel from recru1t111ent and/or appointment to
promot1on, transfer. detai!/des1gnation/ass1gnment/placement termination, d1srnissal.
and other related issues that affect them,
b) Wrongful or non-1mplementat1on and/or v1olat1on of pol1c1es and
procedures on econo1n1c and financial issues and other terms and cond1t1ons of
employment fixed by lavv 1nclud1ng salaries, incentives, 1J.iork1ng hours, leave benefits,
and other related terms and cond1t1ons,
c) Physical working conditions· and
d) lnterpe1-sonal relat1onsh1ps and linkages
Grievance - an employee's exp1-essed (written or spoken) feelings of discontentment and
d1ssat1sfact1on on any or all of the rnatters or rssues enumerated in the scope.
Not subject to Grievance:
a 01sc1pl1na1-y L:ases 'vh1c..h shall be resolvi::d pursuant co ti1e Un1fonn Rules
on Ad1111n1strat1ve Cases,
b Complaints and official actrons on Head of Offices pertarn1ng to the
exercise of d1sc1pl1nary powers under RA 6975 where spec1f1c procedures for relief
through appeal are hereby provided,
c An objection to the terms or prov1s1ons of a policy, procedure, or rule and
regulation.
d Sexual harassment cases as provided for 1n RA 7877. and
e Anonymous grievance and/or complaints
Complaint - refers to grievance 1n writing which has 1n the first instance and 1n the
employee's op1n1on had been ignored overridden or dropped without due consideration
at the lowest level of office where the complainant 1s assigned and has been lodged or
elevated to the next level of office
,-
lnd1v1duaJ
or
Group
Complainant
GRIEVANCE RESOLUTION FLOW CHART
: Peer ----- -~-DlfeciOr Highef
~ SupeN1sor
.--D1reclo-r Hlg-her--~--r'LevBTHeadOf- -
: Supervisor
1
Office
--1 stL.eVe1-H€8d_Of__ --:---211JT..eve1or Head_o_f
Off1ce/Gllevance Q Office
, Comrn1ttee 1
.'--~- -- _____ J._ - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
; Gnevance- in Wntlng .
: Submitted to
--~1-s: LevelHead OfOffice-~
·Y-;;~;vefHeacior ~
CSC Regional Office
PRINCIPLES AND POLICIES:
1 Complainant shall first discuss his problems vv1th his Immediate
Supervisor before considering the f1f1ng of a formal written complaint,
2 Complaint sha1/ b9 assured freeclon1 fron1 cn·~rc:on. a1scnrnir1a11on
harnssrne?11t or 1eprisar
3 Grievances shall be settled at the Court possible level of office,
4 Grievance proceeding shall be aimed at determ1n1ng ·what 1s right" and
not "who is right".
5 The right to appeal shall not be curtailed.
6 Grievance and/or complaint concerning prornot1on shall be g111en due
process However, the par·ty aggrieved may elect to proceed either under this
procedure or pursuant to any other applicable laws/regulations,
7 All proceedings shall be treated as confidential:
8 Grievance proceedings shall not be bound by formal legal rules and
techn1cal1t1es,
9 The service of legal counsel for the parties shall not be allowed during the
heanng The Gnevance Committee however shall have a legal officer as member to
guide the chairman and the members on issues and procedures:
1o In no case shall members of the PNP ventilate the grievances direct to
any foru1n outside tl1e PNP organ1zat1on. {conduct unbecoming of an officer)
11 Supervisors and/or HO who refuse to take action on a grievance shall be
liable for neglect of duty
QUESTIONS ON GRIEVANCE:
An employee's expressed (vvntten or spoken) feelings of discontentment
and d1ssat1sfactlon on any or all of the n1atters or issues like non-1mplementat1on of pol1c1es
and procedure on appointment or promotion
except
A Complaint
B Appeal
C. Grievance
D Motion
E None of the above
2 All of the following could be resolved througl1 the Grievance Machinery
A Interpersonal relat1onsh1ps
B. Sexual harassrnent cases
C r'hys:c;,:;,i '/v'Orl-:1ng COl1di11011S
D V1olat1on of pol1c1es and procedures on recru1t1nent, appo1ntn1ent.
promoi1on or transfer
E Wrongful or non-1mplementat1on and/or v1olat1on of pol1c1es and
procedures on economic and financial issues
3 The cornpla1nant thru the Grievance Machinery shall first discuss his
problems with the ______
A Direct Supervisor or Head of Office at the lowest level of 9ffice
B Chief, PNP
C Regional Director
D Media
E All of the above
4 Principles and Policies of the Grievance Machinery include the following
except
A Complainant shall first discuss his problems /Jllh his 1n1med1ate
supervisor;
8 All proceedings shall be treated as conf1dent1al;
C Grievance proceeding shall be aimed at determining "what ls right" and
not "vvho 1s right;"
0. Members of the PNP may ventilate their grievances directly to
any forum outside the PNP organization;
E All of the above
5 If the complainant 1s not satisfied with the dec1s1on of the 3rd Level He2d Of
Office during the last stage, the case shall be referred within fifteen (15) days to the
A Barangay
B CSC Regional Office
c PLEB
D RAB
E SILG
Questions:
1 What 1s RA 8445 as amended by RA 10631?
a The Animal Welfare Act of 1998
b The Animal Welfare Act of 1997
c The Animal Welfare Act of 1996
d The Animal Welfare Act of 1996.
e None of the above
2 Under RA 8445 as amended by RA 10631, the killing of any animal other than cattle,
pigs, goats, sheep, poultry, rabbits, carabaos and horses 1s l1kew1se hereby unlawful
except 1n the following instances.
a When 1t 1s done as part of the rel1g1ous rituals of an established rellg1on or sect or
a ritual required by tribal or ethnic custom of 1nd1genous cultural commun1t1es,
b. When the pet animal is afflicted wlth an incurable communicable disease as
determined and certified by a duly licensed veterinarian,
c. When the kll!1ng 1s deemed necessary to put an end to the misery suffered by the
animal as determined and certified by a duly licensed veterinarian,
d. When 1t 1s done to prevent an imminent danger to the life or limb of a human
being,
e. All of the above
3. Under RA 8445 as amended by RA 10631, abandonment shall constitute an act of
maltreatment If 1t results to , the person liable shal suffer the maximum
penalty
a death of the animal,
b. sickness of the animal,
c. happiness of the animal,
d longings of the animal;
e none of the above
4 Under RA 8445 as amended by RA 10631, the penalty of two years and one day"io
three years and/or a fine not exceeding Php200,000 00 shall be imposed if the offense
1s committed by any of the following
a a syndicate,
b an offender who makes business out of cruelty to an animal,
c. a public officer or employee,
d where at least three animals are Involved,
e. all of the above
Salient Features of RA 8445 as amended by RA 10631
On October 3, 2014, Republic Act (RA) 10631 was signed into law by Pres
Benigno S Aquino Ill which amends RA 8445 othervv1se known as "The Animal Welfare
Act of 1998 " The purpose of RA 10631 1s to protect and promote the welfare of
all terrestrial, aquatic and marine animals 1n the Philippines.
How to protect and promote the welfare of these animals?
These animals are protected and their welfare are promoted by superv1s1ng and
regulating the establishment and operations of all fac1l1t1es ut1l1zed for breeding,
marnta1n1ng, keeping. treating or tra1n1ng of all animals erther as objects of trade or as
household pets Please take note that pets do include birds
What 1s the def1n1t1on of animal welfare?
Animal Welfare - pertains to the physical and psychological well-being of
animals. It includes, but not limited to, the avoidance of abuse, maltreatment, cruelty
and exploitation of animals by humans by rna1nta1n1ng appropriate standards of
accommodation, feeding and general care, the prevention and treatment of disease and
the assurance of freedom from fear, distress, harassment, and unnecessary discomfort
and pain, and allowing animals to express normal behavior
Proh1b1ted Acts under RA 10631as1t amended Seclion 6 of RA 8485'
It shall be UNLAWFUL for any person to
1 torture any animal;
2 neglect to provide adequate care,
3 neglect to provide sustenance of care,
4 maltreat any animal,
5 subject any dog or horse to dogfights or horsef1ghts,
6 kill or cause or procure to be tortured,
7 deprived of adequate care, sustenance or shelter,
B maltreat or use the same In research or experiments not expressly authorized
by the Committee on Animal Welfare.
The k1ll1ng of any animal other than cattle, pigs, goats. sheep, poultry, rabbits.
carabaos and horses 1s l1kew1se hereby unlawful except 1n the following instances
(1) When 1t is done as part of the religious rituals of an established rel1g1on or
sect or a ritual required by tribal or ethnic custom of indigenous cultural
communities, however, leaders shall keep records rn cooperation with the
Committee on Animal Welfare;
(2) When the pet animal 1s afflicted with an incurable communicable disease as
determined and cert1f1ed by a duly licensed vetennanan,
(3) When the killing is deemed necessary to put an end to the misery suffered by
the animal as determined and cert1f1ed by a duly licensed vetennanan,
(4) When 1t 1s done to prevent an imminent danger to the life or limb of a human
being,
(5) When done for the purpose of animal population control,
(6) When the animal 1s killed after 1t has been used 1n authorized research or
experiments, and
(7) Any other ground analogous to the foregoing as determined and cert1f1ed
licensed veterinarian
As provided 1n the additional section in the amending law, 1t 1s
also UNLAWFUL for any person who has custody of an animal to abandon the animal.
- - - - - - - - -
What 1s an abandonment?
Abandonment - means the relinquishment of all rights, title, claim, or possession
of the animal with the 1ntent1on of not reclaiming it or resuming its ownership or
possession
Abandonment shall constitute an act of maltreatment If 1t results to death of the
animal, the person !1able shall suffer the maximum penalty
PENALTIES for animal cruelty, maltreatment or neglect
1 Imprisonment of one year and six months and one day to two years and/or a fine not
exceeding One Hundred Thousand Pesos if the animal sub1ected to cruelty,
maltreatment or neglect DIES;
2 Imprisonment of one year and one day to one year and six months and/or a fine not
exceeding Fifty Thousand Pesos 1f the animal subjected to cruelty, maltreatment or
neglect survives but 1s SEVERELY INJURED WITH LOSS OF ITS FACULTY TO
SURVIVE ON ITS OWN AND NEEDING HUMAN INTERVENTION TO SUSTAIN ITS
LIFE; and
3. lmpnsonment of six months to one year and/or a fine not exceeding Thirty Thousand
Pesos for subjecting any animal to cruelty, maltreatment or neglect but without causing
its death or 1ncapacitat1ng it to survive on its own
lf the violation is committed by a Juridical person, the officer responsible thereof
shall serve Imprisonment If 1t 1s committed by an alien, he or she shall be immediately
deported after the service of sentence without any further proceeding
The penalty of two years and one day to three years and/or a fine not
exceeding Two Hundred Thousand Pesos shall be imposed 1f the offense 1s
committed by any of the following:
1 a syndicate;
2. an offender who makes business out of cruelty to an animal,
3 a public officer or employee, or
4 where at least three animals are involved
Questions:
1. The Implementing Rules and Regulations (DENR Admin1strat1ve Order No.96-40) of
the Ph1hpp1ne M1n1ng Act of 1995 provides stnct adherence to,__________
This strategy mandates that the needs of the present should be met without
compromising the ability of the future generations to meet their own needs, with the
view of 1mprov1ng the quality of life, both now and 1n the future
a the pnnc1ple of sustainable development.
b the pnnc1ple of sustainable farming,
c the principle of sustainable agriculture;
d. the principle of sustainable family;
e none of the above.
2 The RA 7942 otherwise known as _______
a. The Philippine Mining Act of 1995;
b. The Philippine Mining Act of 1996;
c The Ph1l1ppme Mining Act of 1997;
d. The Philippine Mining Act of 1998,
e. None of the above
3. 1s an agreement where the Government and the Contractor
organize a Joint venture company with both parties having equity shares Aside from
earnings in equity. the Government shall be entitled to a share 1n the gross output
a Mineral Production Sharing Agreement,
b Mineral Agreement:
c Joint Venture Agreement,
d Co-Product!on Agreement;
e None of the above.
ORGANIZATIONAL IMPLEMENTATION
The Mining Act reverts back the Mines and Geosc1ences Bureau (MGB) from a
Staff to a Line Bureau Under this arrangement, the MGB Central Office has now the
administrative 1unsd1ct1on and responsib1l1ty over its regional offices The Line Bureau
structure was contemplated to ensure organ1zat1onal eff1c1ency and flex1b1lity in
managing limited resources and technical expertise
The authont!es/respons1b1l1ties of the MGB are as follows
• Management and adm1n1strat1on of mineral lands and resources, 1nclud1ng the
granting of m1n1ng permits and mineral agreements,
• Enforcement and mon1tonng of Environmental Work Programs (EWP) and
Environmental Protection and Enhancement Program (EPEP),
Establishment and operat1onal1zat1on of the Contingent L1ab11ity and
Rehab1l1tat1on Fund (CLRF), as well as the mandatory Final Mine Rehab1l1tat1on and
Decomm1ss1on1ng Plan;
• Cancel m1n1ng app!1catlons and m1n1ng rights v1olat1ng the prov1s1ons of the
M1n1ng Act, rts 1mp!ement1ng rules and regulations, and/or the terms and conditions of a
mtn1ng perm1t/contracVagreement,
• For the Regional Directors to impose Cease-and-Desist Orders (CDO),
• To deputize the PNP, LGUs, NGOs and other responsible entities to police
m1n1ng activities,
• To assist the Environmental Management Bureau (EMB)/OENR Regional
Offices 1n process1ng/evaluat1on/conduct of EIA 1n m1n1ng projects,
• To manage and adm1n1ster Mineral Reservation area (Note Mineral
Reservations, under the New Act, include offshore marine areas)
ROLE OF LOCAL GOVERNMENTS
The IRR highlights the role of local government units (LGUs) 1n mining projects,
both as benef1c1aries and as active participants 1n mineral resources management, 1n
consonance with the Constitution and govern1nent policies on local autonomy and
empowerment As such, the M1n1ng Act provides the fo!low1ng
• In consonance with the Local Government Code of 1992 (LGC), LGUs have a
share of forty percent (40%) of the gross collection derived by the National
Government from m1n1ng taxes, royalties and other such taxes, fees or charges
from m1n1ng operations in add1t1on to tl1e occupat1onal fees (30o/o to the Province
and 70°/o to the Munic1pal1t1es concerned);
• In consonance with the LGC and the People Small-Scale Mining Act (RA 7076),
the LGUs shall be responsible for the issuance of permits for small-scale m1n1ng
and quarrying operations, through the Provincial/City M1n1ng Regulatory Boards
(PMRBs/CMRBs);
• To actively participate 1n the process by which the communities shall reach an
informed decision on the social acceptability of a m1n1ng project as a requirement
for securing an Environmental Compliance Cert1f1cate (ECG),
• To ensure that relevant laws on puhl1c notices, consultations and public
participation are complied with;
• To part1c1pate in the mon1tonng of m1n1ng act1v1t1es as a member of the
Mult1partite Monitoring Team, as well as 1n the Mine Rehab1l1tat1on Fund
Committee,
• To act as mediator between the Indigenous Cultural Communities (ICCs) and
the mining contractor as may be requested/necessary,
• To be the recipients of social infrastructures and community development
projects for the utilization and benefit of the host and neighboring commun1t1es,
and
·To coordinate with and assist the DENR and the MGB 1n the 1mplementat1on of
the Mining Act and the IRR
AREAS CLOSED TO THE MINING APPLICATION
Pursuant to the Mining Act of 1995 and 1n consonance with State po!1cres and
ex1st1ng laws, areas may either be closed to mining operations, or cond1t1onally opened,
as follows
Areas CLOSED to mining applications:
·Areas covered by valid and existing mining rights and appllcat1ons;
• Old growth or v1rg1n forests, mossy forests, national parks, prov1ncial/mun1c1pal
forests, tree parks, greenbelts, game refuge, bird sanctuaries and areas
proclaimed as marine reserve/manne parks and sanctuaries and areas
proclaimed as marine reserve/marine parks and tourist zones as defined by law
and 1dent1f1ed 1n1t1al components of the NIPAS, and such areas as expressly
prohibited thereunder, as well as under DENR Adm1nlstrat1ve Order No 25, s
1992, and other laws;
•Areas which the Secretary may exclude based, inter al1a, or proper assessment
of their environmental Impacts and 1mpl1cat1ons on sustainable land uses, su~h
as built-up areas and critical watershed with appropriate
barangay/mun1c1pal/prov1ncial Sanggunian ordinances spec1fy1ng therein the
location and specific boundaries of the concerned area, and
·Areas expressly proh1b1ted by law
The following areas may be opened for m1n1ng operations, the approval of which
are subject to the following conditions·
• Military and other government reservations, upon prior written consent by the
government agency having 1unsd1ct1on over such areas,
• Areas near or under public or private buildings, cemeteries, and archaeological
and historic sites, bndges. highways, waterways, railroads, reservoirs, dams and
other infrastructure projects, public or private works, 1nclud1ng plantations or
valuable crops, upon written consent of the concerned government agency or
private entity, subject to technical evaluation and validation by the MGB,
• Areas covered by FTAA appl1cat1ons, which shall be opened, for quarry
resources upon written consent of the FTAA applicants/contractors However,
m1n1ng appl1cat1ons for sand and gravel shall require no such consent,
• DENR Project areas upon prior consent from the concerned agency
ANCESTRAL LANDS AND ICC AREAS
The M1n1ng Act fully recognizes the rights of the Indigenous Peoples
(IPs)/lnd1genous Cultural Communities (ICCs) and respect their ancestral lands Thus,
in accordance with DENR Adm1n1strat1ve Order No 2, and consistent with the new
Indigenous Peoples Rights Act (IPRA), the following shall be observed·
•No mineral agreements, FTAA and mining permits shall be granted 1n ancestral
lands/domains except with prior informed consent 1n a) CADC/CLC areas, and
b) areas verified by the DENR Regional Office and/or appropriate offices as
actually occupied by Indigenous Cultural Commun1t1es under a clarm of time
1mmemoria! possession,
• Where written consent 1s granted by the lCCs, a royalty payment shall be
negotiated which shall not be less than 1~lo of the Gross Output of the m1n1ng
operations 1n the area This Royalty shall form part of a Trust Fund for socio-
economic well being of the JCCs in accordance with the management plan
formulated by the ICCs in the CADC/CALC area (In a large-scale mining
operation the 1-0
/o Royalty could easily run into several tens of million pesos per
year)
• Representation 1n the Mu!t1-part1te Monitoring Committee,
SOCIAL AND COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT AND RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT
The M1n1ng contractors/operators shall allocate a m1n1mum of 1o/o of their direct
m1n1ng and m1ll1ng costs for the following
• Development of the host and neighboring communities and mine camp,
1ncludtng the construction and maintenance of social infrastructures to promote
the general welfare of the 1nhab1tants 1n the area Such infrastructures include
roads and bridges, school buildings, churches, recreational fac1lit1es, housing
fac1l1tles, water and power supplies, etc,
• For the development of mining technology and geosc1ences, particularly thosl?
related to improved effic1enc1es and environmental protection and rehab1!1tatron,
The m1n1ng contracts under the regimes of MPSA and FTAA also provide for the
mandatory F1l1p1n1zat1on program, technology transfer, and the training and priority
employment of local residents These contracts further mandate that m1n1ng operations
shall max1m1ze the utrl1zat1on of local goods and services, the creation of self-susta1n1ng
generating act1v1t1es, and skills-development
ENVIRONMENTAL AND SAFETY CONCERNS
A s1gnif1cant fenture of the M1n1ng Act of 1985 and its !RR 1s the premium given to
environmental protection Stringent measures were 1nstitut1onalized to ensure the
compliance of m1n1ng contractors/operators to 1nternat1onally accepted standards of
environmental management.
ON SOCIAL ACCEPTABILITY
Mrnrng contractors/operators shall allocate a m1n1mum of 1°/o of their direct
m1n1ng and m1ll1ng costs for the development of the following
• Host and neighboring commun1t1es and mine camp to promote the general
welfare of inhabitants 1n the area. This includes construction and maintenance of
rnfrastructureS such as roads and bridges, school bu1ld1ngs, housing and
recreational fac1ht1es, water and power supplies, etc.; l• Mr.n1ng technology and geoscienc~s, particularly those related to improved
effic1enc:rP.s Rnrl PnvirnnmPnb=il nrnh=•rt1nn ::inrl rPh::ihilit~hr.n
MINING PERMITS GRANTED TO QUALIFIED PERSONS
The following are the types of mrning permits granted under the M1n1ng Act of
1995 and its IRR·
Exploration Permit - these permrts are issued to qualified 1ndivrduals or local and
foreign corporations granting them to undertake purely mineral exploration act1v1t1es
Has a term of two (2) years renewable for like tern1s but not to exceed a total ter1n of six
(6) years for non-metal!1c minerals and eight (8) years for metalHc minerals The
Perm1ttee may eventua!ly apply for Mineral Agreement or FTAA. subject to maximum
areas l1m1tat1ons The maximum areas allowed per qualified person under an
Exploration Permit are 1,620 hectares 1n any one province or 3,240 hectares 1n the
entire country for an 1nd1v1dual, and 16, 200 hectares 1n any one province or 32,400
hectares 1n the entire country for a corporation, association, cooperative or partnership
Mineral Agreement - are granted to 1nd1v1duals or local corporations giving them
the right to explore, develop and ut1l1ze the minerals within the contract area. There are
three modes of Mineral Agreements namely
Mineral Production Sharing Agreement (MPSA) - an agreement wherein the
Government grants to the contractor the exclusive right to conduct m1n1ng operations
within, but not title over, the contract area and shares 1n the production whether 1n kind
or 1n value as the owner of the minerals therein The Contractor shall provide the
necessary f1nanc1ng technology, management and personnel;
Co-Production Agreement (CA) - an agreement between the Government and
the Contractor wherein the Government shall provide Inputs to the m1n1ng operations
other than the mineral resources, and
Joint Venture Agreement (JVA) - an agreement where the Government and the
Contractor organize a joint venture company with both parties having equity shares
Aside from earnings 1n equity, the Government shall be entitled to a share in the gross
output
..
REVIEW MATERIAL FOR NAPOLCOM PROMOTIONAL EXAMINATION
PGS
1. The PNP Integrated Transformation Progratn-lmplemented by the PNP as its
transformation Strategy prior to the initiation of PGS.
The PNP ITP has evolved into an updated version by the 1ntroduct1on of the
PGS as a management tool wh1cl1 provides a tracking mechanism to
determine ho·V far 1s the PNP from its v1s1on and 1s 1t on the rrght track
2. The PNP ITP-PGS aims to address the following:
a To resolve organrzat1onal dysfunction
b To strengtt1en law enforcement capabil1t1es
c To improve the quality of police Service
3. The National Governrnent Agencies that belong to the "MCC 6" that are
required to undergo the Performance Governance System:
a Department of Health (DOH)
b Department of Public Works and Highways (DPWH)
c Department of Education IDepEd)
d Department of Finance (DOF)
e Department of Transportation and Commun1cat1on (OOTC)
f Phll1pp1ne National Pol1ce(PNP)
4. The PNP was chosen to Institutionalize the PGS because of the following
reason:
a The PNP has a regular contact with tt1e people
b It was already pursuing its own transformation program
c It was deemed ready to participate 1n good governance
5. The PNP Mission
"Imploring the aid of the Almighty, by 2030, we shall be a highly capable, effective
and credible police service, working in partnership with a responsive
community towards the attainment of a. saf-~r place to live, work and do
business"
· - - · - - - - -
6 The PNP Vision
To Enforce the law prevent and control crimes, ma1nta1n peace and order,
ensure public safety and internal security with the active support of the
community'
To ensure that the PNP V1s1on will be attained the following key management
process should be integrated
a Performance Appraisal
b Budget and Planning
c Rewards and Punishment
7 The CODE -P (Strategic Focus) stands for
C-Competence
O-Organizat1onal Development
D-Disc1pl1ne
E-Exce!lence
P-Profess1onal1sm
It serves as the BLUEPRINT towards the real1zat1on of the PNP Patrol Plan
2030
8. OBJECTIVES of Strategic Focus Competence
6 Intensify Policy Reform
7 Review and Pursue leg1s!at1ve agenda
8 Improve the Field Training Progra1n (FTP) with emphasis on Field Tra1n.1ng
Exerc1se(Patrol Traffic and First Responder)
9 Standardize Spec1al1zed Courses for Operational Support Staff/Units/teams
10 Improvement of ex1st1ng NUP courses and development of competency
courses for NUP
11 Enhance operational procedures and practice
9 The acronym P.A.T.R.0.L. stands for
-,,·.>T-'•~ j 3
"Peace and Orcer Agenda for Transformation and upholding of the Rule-Of- Law
10. The following are the sequentia! stages of the Performance Governance
System (PGS)
a ln1t1at1011 Srage
b Con1pl1ance Stage
c Prof1c1ency Stage and
d lnst1tut1onal1zat1on Stage
11. The four (4) Strategic Perspectives of the PNP Strategy Map PATROL Plan
2030.
a Resource f~anagement
b Learning and Growth
c Process Excellence and
d Community
12 The Main Tasks or Respons1b1l1t1es of the PNP
a Crime Preventron
b Cn111e Solution
13 The Balanced Scorecard
- It's a n1anagement system that enables our organ1zat1on, which 1s rhe PN P to
set, track and achieve its key strategies and ob1ect1ves
A management and measuring that 1s globally recognized and adopted by the
PNP to raise the standard of Governenc2.
14. The PNP Units /Offices that need to !Jndergo Operational Review of
Dashboard to be undertaken every rJ!onth.
a PPO's
b CPO"s
c CPS
d MPS
e Police Stations
f lnd1v1duals
GENERAL INFORMATION
(LAWS)
Multiple Choice Please read carefully and select the required answer
1 Under the 1987 Const1tut1on, the state shall
ma1nta1n
------a multiple police forces c two police forces
b one police force d three police forces
2 The police force shall be ______ 1n scope·
a Regronal c 1nternat1onal
b National d local
3 The police force shall be ______ 1n character.
a. m1!1tary c m1lltarist1c
b c1vil1an d civilized
4 The fol!ow1ng have d1sc1pl1nary authority over the police, except
a Local Chief Executives c PLEB
b Mayors d Chief of Police
establish
5 The manning levels of the PNP rs one policeman for every_____
a 500 persons c 250 persons
b 800 persons d. 1500 persons
6 In order to be qual1f1ed for appointment to the PNP, an applicant
have
a. Baccalaureate degree c High School Diploma
b at least second year college or d Tesda Certification
equivalent of 72 collegiate units
7 The PNP is under what department
a. DND c NAPOLCOM
b DOJ d DILG
8 The PNP 1s administered and controlled by______
a SILG c NAPOLCOM
b DILG d DOJ
9 The compulsory retirement age for a un1forrned member of the PNP 1s
a 65 c ~
b 60 d $
and
must
1O Attrition by non-promot1on applies to those who were not promoted for a period
of
-------a 10 years
b 5 years
c 15 years
d 20 years
11 NAPOLCOM IS _ _ _ _ _ _ of the DILG
a an attached agency c. under the supervision
b a collegial body d under the control
12 The following are descriptive of the NAPOLCOM, except·
a a Collegial body c administers and controls the PNP
b an attached agency to the DILG d under the direct control of the DILG
13 Under R A No 9708, the pendency of an adm1n1strat1ve case 1s
a a bar for promotion c not a bar for promotron______
b a bar for promotion if pending d not a bar for promotion 1f
for less than two years pending for more than two years
14 PLEB has JLinsdrctron over PNP personnel assigned 1n
a NSUs c NHO - - - - -
b PROs d city or mun1c1pal police station
15. Optional retirement requires a m1n1mum length of service of
a 10 years c 25 years - - - - - -
b 20 years d 30 years
16 The Dec1s1ons rendered by the following are appealable to RAB, except
a Mayors c PLER
b RD d CPNP
17 Under the 1987 Ph11ipp1ne Const1tut1011, the state shall establish and
ma1nta1n
------a multiple police forces. which shall be national 1n scope and c1vll1an 1n
character
b one police force, which shall be national 1n scope and c1v1llan 1n character
c one police force, which shall be regional in scope and c1vll1an 1n character
d one police force. which shall be national 1n scope and military 1n character
18 This law is also known as the DILG Act of 1990
a RA 8551 c RA 6975
b RA 9708 d RA 9165
19 This law 1s also known
Reorgan1za.t1on Act of 1998
a RA 8551
b RA 9708
as the Phil1pp1ne National Police Reform and
c RA 6975
d RA 9165
20 This 1s the Act Extending for Five (51 Years the Reglementary Period for
Complying with the M1n1rrium Educational Ot1al1fication for Appointment to the
Ph1l1pp1ne National Police (PNP) and Ad1usting the Promotion System Thereof,
Amending for the Purpose Pertinent Provisions of Republic Act No 6975 and
Republic Act No 8551 and for other purposes
a RA 8551 c RA 6975
b RA 9708 d RA 9165
l{l~Pl l~l,f( .('I :o. 6975
  .Cl EST -BLISII I(; TH L PIIII.1 PPl'E i'i.T!Ol'iAL POLICE ll'I DER A
REORG. 'IZE!l DI:P llT~lE: T OF THE INTEIUOR AND LOCAL GOVER'~-IEJ r.
-:D FOR OTllEll Pl l!POSES
Section I. I lift· of th,, /ct f> 'J h11., .ict :-.hall be kno'11 us the "Dcpart1ncnt of the Inter ltlr and
I,ocal 1 Jo er nn1ent .ct or IlJlJ( l "
."ll·ction 27. ,fi.11111111,-.:, I <'l'< /1 'f> Cin thiJ .ivi.:ra;;c 11at1()111de, the 111ann111g li.:vcls oflhc PN!' -;hall
he arrro.!111;;tel_ Hl dCCC11dc1ncc Jlh d policc-to-pliJUlatJon ratio Pl"llllL' (I 1rol1L:cn1an l{H-CCf
f]e hunJrcd {:'tlUJ rt:JSO/l'> '! h~· ::lllU~d '>ttcnglh b_ Citic:-, and 111UlllC!J1al!t!C<, ':>ha]] depend on th~
state n1 f)L:ll'L' and order. populnt1on der1:-.it) and actual dc111ands or the :-.cr·1ce 111 thi.: part1cula1
area Pro 1deJ. l'hat thi.: 1111n11n11n1 po!1cc-to-populrit1n11 ial10 shall not be lc:-.s than one 1 ! )
po!1ei.:111an fnrecry one thllll'>Llnd 1I !JUO) pcr:.on~ Pro·1JctL further. l'hal urb::i.n areus ~halt ht1'e
a higher 111111111111111 pnllcL'-tu-populatrnn ratio a" 111::i.y be pre:.cnbl!d hy regulation~
Section 39. ( 'u111;J11/11r1· /i,'f1rl.!11!t'J1f "'> (1111pu!~ur:, 1ct1rcn1ent, for nf'llcei ~ind non-nlTiecr. :-hall
be upon thL' att~11nn1ent or ugc fifty-~t' (5()) Pro 1di.:d, '!hat, Ill ca:.c or any (1fT1ecr .l(h the l~lnk
nfch1ef:-.upcr1ntende1lt. dirccloi 01 deputy director gcnl'raL the Cin11111s<.,1on 1nay al[ov 111:-.
1cten110n 111 the ~Cf ice li.)r .in uncxte11d1blc penud urone {1l year
Section ..J.O. ( J;1t111n11! !?tf11c!lll'11t ~ l_lpon accu1nul.111(l11 of at lea:-.! l.cntv (2lll CUI" (lJ. .
:-.atJsfactory <1ctl'C scr 1el.!. an ofl1ccr 01 11011-nffiLcr_ at 111'> olll request and Vlth the apptuval ()r
the Cor1n11:-.1.,1on. :.hall he reltrcd Ji·nn1 the service and entitled to receive benefits pin 1Jcd hy
la
C. !l.~Il'll>-TR.l IVE lllS('ll'l.IN RY MACIIl'.'<ERY
Section ..J.l. uf) i '111::e11 t 'n111;J/,11111, -0- /nv co111pl::11nt by an 1ndrv1dual pcr~un aga111:-.t ,in)
111l.!n1ber of1he PNP o;,h:.ill he brought bcfo1c th!.! fo1lov1ng
( l 1c--:h1i.:f~ nl.polii.:c. 'here: the of!Cn1.,e 1o,; puni~hab!e by 1thho!d1ng ol'pr1vtlegeo.;.
rc:-.tnc11on to :-.pccifleJ lun1t1.,, ~u'>pen:-.1n11 ui forlC1ture ol '>a!a1y, or an)
L01nh1nrit1l111 therl!nr!Or .1 pl.!r1od nut l.!'-Cced1ng fifti.:cn ( 15 l da):..
1~1 i'vlav11r:-, ii c1t1e~ ur 111un1c1palille:-,_ 'here thl! oflCn:-.e 1s pun1shabll'. h:,
'.'ilh!Jold1ng of'pll rlLgC<,, t"L:'>hietltlll tn ':>j1CClf1Cd iln11ts. '.'>USpCtlSlOll Of J'orll:ilurl.!
ol sa!a~. nr an: con1b1n<1t1on thc1eoL l~ir a pcnod or not Jc:ss than s1-..tcl.!n ( 16)
d:.i;.s but not exceeding thirty (3UJ da:,',.
(3 1 Pl.!nple l,aV !:'.nf0rccn1c:n! Boaid, a.'> crl:ated under Section 43 hi.::reoL .herl.!
th.:: oJ!Cn"c is pun11.,hriblc by 11thholJ1ne; of'prtvllcge~, rc.-.triction lo specified
limit'.>, U.'ipcnsiun of forfeiture of salary, or an.v con1bination thereof, for ;1
period e~ccl•ding thirty (30) days; or by dismissal
Section 43. /'<.:011/('~' f,uil' /· ///IJ/'( ,·1n,'11f !~uarcl (}'/)'.'/1! 1f- {a) Creation and Functions ~ '1th1n
th1r1v (.30) day:-, f'ro111the1so.;uancc nfth~ 11nplen1cnting rules and rl.!gulat1ons by the c_~nn1n11ss1nn,
thcr; shall be. created b· the 1.,a11ggun1ang pan!ungsod/bayan in every crty and 111un1c1pal1l) '1uch
11un1ber of People's Lav l~nJiJrcc1ncnt 13oards {Pl ,El~s I as 111ay be neci.::s:-.ary Provided. 'l'hat
then.: ,hc1ll he ,ti least one ( l ! l'l .L'.15 fr>r every 111un1c1pality and for each of the lcg1;,l::t!1vc d1;,tnct"
111 a Cl 'J he l'J_J_'b .;;h,11! havc_1ur1:-d1cllon to hear and decide c1t1zcn's cotnp!arnts or caseo;, filed
bcllHo.: 11 .1ga1n-.,t erring lll ricer~ ,ind 1nc1nbe1.s or the !'NP ·r hctc 5hall be at fea~t one ( l) Pl J'.13
ll.11 c.:1;. fic hundrc'd  ->11111 cit (l! 1nun1c1pul police pe1-;onnel
Section ..J-..f. I I.ii, lj'l111,1r1 !r1;JL!!u1. J-],)11/ll ~ Ihe rurn1al ,1dn11n1<;tn11'e d1scipl!nnry 1nach1ner:
f11 the P~P ..,hall he the :'.tllt>11.1l .ppcllate l~o~ud and the n.::g1onal appc!latc hoard•,
crhc N;n1onal .ppcllat~ 110~1rd shall CO!l~tst of rnur (-1-) d1v1s1ons, each d1v1s1on Cl111)100,Cd or a
C~nn1n11s<;1f111cr :1-., (~h.:11rn1an ~ind lO (2) other nh:1nbcr~ 'J'he l~oan.l :-hall cun:-1dcr appeal:- fiu111
dccl'-lllll'- of the Chief of the PNP
'The Nallona! 1ppcilate l1oarJ n1ay conduct it.., hcanng.., or :.c:-s1on:- 111 Metropolitan f!anila 01
dny part or the count!") ao;, 1t 111a: dcen1 nccc'.-i;,:u:
l'hcrc "hull be at lea"t une 1I) n:g1<1na! appellate boa1d per adin1111~trat1e region 111 the CDuntry to
be con1puscd ur,1 ..,cnit)r ornccr of the 1cg1onal L'o1nn11..,;,1011 as Chan1nun and one ( 1}
rcp1c-.,cntat!C each fro1n the PNP. anJ the 1cg1nnal peace and 01de1 council a:. 1nc1nbers It ~hull
cun-.,1d1.:1 appeal.., n-l1111 dec1<.,1nns of the regional dncctors, other otTic1als, 111avor~. and the PLl:G..:,
l)fllIJed. 'J'hat !he L'on11111..,~1nn 111.1;, create add1!1onal rcg1onu! appellate board::. a:. the need
arise..,
REJll 1
f~l.f(' 1("1' 'lo. 8551
.N CT PRO'IDI:-.G FOR Tiii: REFORM ·ND REORGANIZ.TIO: OF TIIE
PH ILi ppf--.;E ° Tiff. L POLICE . °D FOR OTHER l'!IRPOSES, -~IE 'lnIN(;
CERLl'> PROVISIONS Of REP BLIC CT XlliIllERED SIXT)-NINE lllli'-ll!Udl
.ND SE.i',N'I Y-Fl'E ENTITLED,".!'< AC! E~TABLISillNG TIIE PIIILIPPI:-iE
!' ."fI();', I~ I'()I ,IcI·: l '~I) l·:l{ ' l{I·:-()RG, ~I zI•: J) J)I•: p1lrrlI I•:N'I' 0 I< ·r111·:
1--.;TERIOR .--.;IJ LOC ·I. GO'ER'IME'T, .'ll FOR OTHER PllRPOSES"
TIT!.E I
TITLE ."< ll DECI.ARA'I 10"1 OF POLIC
~ectiou I. /rife' 4)- ll'1'- 1Lt "hall he knovn as he "Phil1pp1nc National Police J{et1.Jrn1 and
u  1· 1,1<1',"1-.,eorgan1zatH1n / ct o .,
Section 1-l. ,,._, :1,111 1
' "
.. '
')'I' lS hl':rcby a1nended lo 1eaJ a:, roJIO:,
"SI'(' .'II Ciencr~d Qu::d1Jie,11011s fur Appu1ntn1e11t 41' No person ~hall be appointed a:. 0tlice1 l)J
n1c111bcr of the J>NP unle~'> he 01 ~he posSC'-'SC'> '.be follov1ng n11n1111un1 qua!illcation'>
"al 1 c1t1/en of the l'h!11pp1nc:.,
"h 1/ per-;on of gorid rnn1al cnnduct.
"cl Mu:..t ha c pa..,:-ed the psych1atncip~ycholo:;1c::tl, drug and physical tL::.t:. to be
.1dn11n1~tcrcd by the J>NP 01 by any N1P( )LC()i'vl accredited gnvcrnnient ho'>p1tal fl1r the
purpn:,c of dctcnn1111ng ph·s1cal and n1cntal heulth,
"Jl [,Just pu:,se:,s a f1.Hn1al bai:calaureate degree l!-0111ar1.:cog1111.cd1n<>t1tut1011 of!carn111g.
"e) lvlu:.t be el1g1b!c 1n accotdancc 'Ith the standard;, set hy the C'on11n1~s1on,
-· ',' d't 1101 haC been d1~hlinorah!_ d1;.,charged fron1 111i11tary l.!1nploy111ent or d1<>1n 1 ~~cd
•: .,._au"c !ro111 an Cl tlr:in pn;.,111011 in !he (iovcrnn1cnt_
·~1 lu"t not hae been c1lr1'Jctcd by llna! 1ud2n1cnt of::in ofli::nsc or cnn1e ll10l·1ng
inural turrnudc
"h 11lust be at lea<...! one llll:lcr and ~1.ty-tvo cent1n1ctcr':I ( J f)2 in ) in height Ji.1r 1n<1!e and
llnc 1nctcr 3nJ tln~-<;Ccn ccnt1111i,;:tcr<> (I 57 111 ) fi1r ll:1nalc,
"1 I iJu,t ~lt!°h tlOt ll10fC or Jc~;., than []e k1!0g1a111S ~5 kgs J frolll the '-landard 'Clght
'-'nt rc...pnnd1n~ tl) h1<... or her hc1ghL age_ and SC., and
"1 J !·or a ne appl1cant. lllll)t not be less than tcnty-onc (:21) nor n1orc than thirty (30)
_L'.urc.. of age except for the Ju:,! qual1Jicat1on. the ahove-enun1cruted quahficatron;., ~ha!!
he contrnu1ng 111 character and an absence nf any one of the1n at anv given t1n1e !>hall be .1
t'round IOr '>crarat1on or r.::t11c1nent J'ron1 the ~.::rv1cc Provided, '!'hat PNP n1cn1bcr!:> Vho
arc already rn the o;c1·1ec upon the e!lCct11ty nfthis Ji:t shall he given at least t'l) (21
n101c yl'ar<> to obtain the n11n1n1u1n educational qual1Jlcat1011 and one (I) year to sat1;.,t~·
the: 'eight rcqu1r.::1nent
"ror the pu rpD<..c 'if detct 1111 n1ng C)t 11pl1ancc Vllh the requirc1ncnts on physical ,1nd inental
health.•1-; ell a:::. the non-use t1fproh1b1ted drug~ the P1JP by rtsclfot thrnugh a NrPCJl.(.{_)f:j
accredited gocrnn1cnt !1o!:>p1tal shall lnnduct regular psychiatric, p;.,ycholog1ca! drug and
ph_:-.1cal le~!::. randorn!~ and 1,Jthou1 notice
":fter the lap!:>e of the t1n1e period tOr thl..' :.at1-.fncl1on of a .:.pec1flc 1equ1re111i.::nt current n1cn1hcrs
ofthG PNP 'ho ·ill IB.11 to !:>a11<;fy any of the rcq111re1ncnt~ cnun1erateJ under th15 Section ~hall
be ~cparntcd fron1 the ser1cc 1J'thi.;~ arc belnv IiHy (50) y~urs llf age <Ind have ~ervcd in
l!ovcrnn1ent fOr les~ than lvcnty (2U) yt:<1t ~ or retired 1r they are frorn the age of fit1y (50 l and
abOL'. and have served the Clo..:rnn1l..'11t t~)J at 1~~1st t'<::nty (::!0) years V!lhout rri.::.1ud1cc 111 c1tl1cr
case !(l tht.:: pay1ne11t ufhencfit.., they 111ay bi: entitled tn under existing la'~"
Sel·tion 28.. lttr1t11111 h1· ·1111-11r1111111t1011. ~ /11 PNJ) personnel Vho ha.~ not been pro1nolcd /'or a. .
conlln11nus p~riod ol'tcn ( l0 J 'l,ea1~ shall he retired or separated
Republic of the Ph11ipp1nes
National Police Comm1ss1on
NATIONAL HEADQUARTERS, PHILIPPINE NATIONAL POLICE
DIRECTORATE FOR PERSONNEL AND RECORDS MANAGEMENT
Camp Crame. Quezon City
MEMORANDUM
TO RDs. PF<Os
TDPRMFROM
SUBJECT NAPOLCOM Especial Promotional Examination on
December 14, 20i4
DATE
1 This pertains to the for!hcom1ng NAPOLCOM special promotional
exam1nat1on which sl1all be held on December 14, 2014
2 Please be informed that the NAPOLCOrv1 st1all give special promotional
exa1n1nat1on on December ·14 2014 1n seven examination centers
a Baguio City;
b Makat1 City,
c Calamba City,
d lloilo City,
e Cebu City,
f Zamboanga City, and
g Davao City
3 As per guidance from NAPOLCOM, you are hereby directed to advise all
candidates for attrition by non-promot1on due to lack of el1gibil1ty to submit the following
requirements 1n "WALK-IN basis" before the identified NAPOLCOM exam1nat1on centers
on November 23-December 3, 2014.
a TDPRM endorsement letter (See Attached),
b Authenticated College Diploma/TOR,
c Duly accon1pl1shed appl1cat1on forms (accessible frorn website of
NAPOLCOM or exam1nat1on centers), and
d Exam1nat1on fee
4 All candidates who shall be compulsory retired in 2017 are no longer required
to take the special pron1ot1onal exam111at1on
5 All C, RPHRDD shall conduct special review classes 1n their respective AOR
follow111g the attached Program of Instruction and review materials Submit reports of
compliance thereof NLT December 16. 2014
6 For guidance and strict con1pl1ance
JAIME g_ MORENTE
Police=r
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licP-C:t1R1rm"1n n1 td Ex:i::cul1vr:: Officer
REVIEWER ON ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS
Republic Act 8749 refers to the Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1999
) RA 8749 refers to
a Clean Water Act of 2004
b Ph1l1pp1ne Ecological Solid Waster Management Act
ct. Clean Air Act of 1999
e Climate Change Act of 2009
2 ) RA 9275 refers to
a Clean Water Act of 2004
c Ph1J1pp1ne Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Act
ct. Clean Air Act of 1999
P l.lirn::itP r.h::innP Art nf ?noq- - - . - - - ._, - -- - - - -
Ill Republic Act 9003 refers to the Philippine Ecological Solid Waste Management Act
(PESWMA) of 2009
3 ) RA 9003 refers to
a Clean Water Act of 2004
b. Philippine Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2009
c Ph11ipp1ne Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Act
ct Clean Air Act of 1999
e Climate Change Act of 2009
I/ Rep11bl1c Act RQRq refer5 to the Philippine Tci~1r. S1_1b5ff!n('P'3 ;::in(l H878rdo1_1s rinrl
Nuclear Waste Act
4 ) RA 6969 refers to·
a Clean Water Act of 2004
b Ph1l1ppine Ecological Solid Waste Management Act
c. Philippine Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Act
e Climate Change Act of 2009
Page 1 of3
V Republic Act 9279 refers to the Climate Change Act of 2009
5 I RA 9279 refers to.
;:i Gle:?in fl.f.c:iter Act of 2004
b Ph1l1pp1ne Ecological Solid Waste Management Act
c Ph11ipp1ne Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Act
e. Climate Change Act of 2009
VL The Climate change comm1sslon 1s composed of the President as Chairperson and
Three (3) Comm1ss1oners to be appointed by the President
6 ) Tl1e Climate Change Comm1ss1on 1s co1nposed of
a The President as Chairperson and five (5) Comm1ss1oners
b The President as Chalrperson and four (4) Comm1ss1oners
c The President as Chairperson and three (3) Commrss1oners
d The President as Chairperson and two (2) Comm1ss1oners
e The President as Chairperson and the DENR Secretary
VII Under the Ph1l1ppine Clean Water Act of 2004, Owners or operators of facilities that
discharge wastewater are required to get a permit to discharge from the EMS or the
Laguna Lake Deveiopment Aurhority
7 ) The Climate Change Comm1ss1on 1s composed of
a LGU
b DOH
c DTI
d. EMB or the Laguna Lake Development Authority
e Regular Courts
VIII. Under Section 10, RA 9003, the LGUs shall be pnmanly responsible for the
imolementat1on and enforcement of the orov1s1on of this Act w1th1n their respective
JUnsd1ctrons
8.) The Agency prlmanly responsible for t!1e implementation and enforcement of
the provisions of RA 9003 is the
e nFNR
b Laguna Lake Development Authority
c. LGUs
d DEPED
e DOH
IX Among the key features of the Solid Waste Management Act 1s the Creation of the
National Solid Waste Management Comm1ss1on (NSWMC), the National Ecology
Center (NEC), and the Solid Waste Management Board (NSWMB) 1n every Province,
Crty and Mun1c1pal1ty rn the Country.
9.) Among the key features of the Solid Waste Management Act 1s the creation
of
Page 2 of 3
a NSWMC
b NEC
c NSWMB
d a and b only
e. a, b, and c
X Under Section 4, Rule 2 of the Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases, any
party 1n interest, 1nclud1ng the government and Juridical ent1t1es authorized by law, may
file a c1v1I action 1nvolv1nq the enforcement or v1olat1on of anv environmental law
10 ) Who may file a c1v1I action involving the enforce1nent or v1olat1on of
environmental laws?
a Natural persons only
b Jurld1cal ent1t1es only
c LGUs only
d. Any party in interest including the government and juridical
entities authorized by law
e Only the Government
XII Under Section 8, Rule 2 of the Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases, 1f it
appears from the verified complalnant that the 111atter 1s of extreme urgency and the
applicant will suffer grave and irreparable 1n1ury, the executive judge of the mult1ple-sala
court before raffle, or the pres1d1ng judge of a s1ngle-sala court as the case may be.
n1ay l!::i::.ue ex parie a Ter11µ01ary Env11or1111erncii P1oieci1un Oilier (TEPO) effeci1ve fur
only seventy-two (72) hours from the date of receipt of the TEPO by the party or person
enjoined
11 ) The executive judge of the mult1ple-sala court before raffle, or the pres1d1ng
juage of a s1ngie-sa1a courr as the case may oe, may issue ex pane a Ternporary
Environmental Protection Order (TEPO) effective for only seventy-two (72) hours from
the date of receipt of the TEPO by the party or person enJ01ned
a 24 hours
b 36hours
c 48 hours
d. 72 hours
e 3 days
Xiii Under Section i 0, Ruie 2 or tne KUies or t-'rocedure for Env1ronmentai Cases,
except the Supreme Court, no court can issue a TRO or writ of preliminary 1n1unct1on
against lawful actions of government agencies that enforce environmental laws or
prevent violations thereof
12 ) iio court can issue a TRO or wrn of prei1m1nary 1nJuncHon against iawfui
actions of government agencies that enforce environmental laws or prevent v1olat1ons
thereof, except·
a. MTG
b RTC
c Court of Appeals
d. Supreme Court
e Environment Management Bureau
Page 3 of 3
'-----
PGS BASIC REVIEWER
1. Aside from the PNP, the following the five (5) other National Government Agencies (that belong to
"MCC 6") required to undergo thG Performance Governance System?
a ) Department of Budget and Management (DBM), Department of Public Works and Highways
(DPWH), Department of Education ((DepEd), Department of Transportation and
Commun1cat1ons {DOTC}, Bureau of Internal Revenue {BIR)
b.) Oepartn1ent of Health (DOH), Department of Public Works c.:nd Highways {DPWH),
Department of Education (DepEd), Department of Transportation and Communications
(DOTC), and Bureau of Internal Revenue (BIR);
c.) Department of Health (DOH), Department of Public Works and Highways (DPWH),
Department of Education (DepEd), Department of Finance (DOF), and Bureau of Internal
Revenue (BIR);
d.) Department of Foreign Affairs (DFA), Department of Public Works and Highways (DPWH)
Department of Education (DepEd), Department of Transportation and Communications
(DOTC), ), and Bureau of Internal Revenue (BIR}.
2. What the PNP Units/Offices that need to undergo Operational Review of Dashboards to be
undertaken at least every month?
a.) PROs, PPOs, CPOs, CPS, MPS, Police Stations, Individuals
b.) PPOs, CPOs, CPS, MPS, Police Stations, Individuals
c.} PROs, NSUs, CPOs, CPS, MPS, Police Stations, Individuals
d.) 0-Staff, PROs, PPOs, CPOs, CPS, MPS
3 Env1s1oned in the PNP Road Mrir is a PNP that 1s·
a.) All of the choices
b.) Police Service by 2030
c.) l-l1gh!y cupuble
d ) Effective and Credible
4. In order to properly execute the PNP P.A.1- R O.l Plan 2030, th(' P~JP must ensure to address the
following:
a.) Resource Barrier (failure to link budget with strategy}
b.) /II of the choices
c.) Vision barrier (limited understanding of the strategy among the personnel)
d.) People [3;:irrier (limited tied 111 the strategy)
-, In the PNP vison, v,1
hat the t1meline when the PNP vvill become a highly capable, effective, and
co1npetent police service?
o I 2020
b.) 2025
c.) 2015
d.) 2030
G. What are the four strategic objectives of the PNP P 1':.. T.R.O.l. P!an 2030 (1n order set in the
StrJtegy Map)?
a.) Talent, l<nowledge, skills, perforn1ance
b.) Resource Management, Learning and Growth, Process l?xcellence, Community
c.) Resource GenPrallon, Learning and Growth, Process Excellence, Commu111Ly
d.) Resource Managemcnl, Learning, Process Managerr1ent, Community
7. The following are the two main tasks or responsibilities of the PNP?
a.) Intelligence and Crime Solution
b.) Operations and Investigation
c.) Crime Prevention and Police Community Re!alions
d.) Crime Prevention and Crime Solution
8 Whut is/are the recisons 11vhy the PfJP Vas chosen co "lns(itutional1zed" the PGS?
a.) The PNP has the regular contact with the people
h.) All of the choices
c.) It was already pursuing its own transformation prog1am
d ) It was deemed re;:idy to participate in good governance program
9 ·rhe "PATHCJL" 111 rhc ,CJNP P.A.T.R.O.L Plan 2030 1s an acronym wh1cfl stands for:
a ) Peace and Order Action Plan for Transfor m;ition and Upholding of the Ru!e-Of-l.<ivJ
b.) Police Action Ap,~nda for Tran•,formatlon and lJpholcling of thr~ Ruic-Of Lc11N
c.) Police and Co1nmunily 1-genda for fransfor n1d1 ion anJ lJphold1ne of the Hule-0 f-La1.iv
d.) Pe<>ce ;1nci Order 1-'genda for i"ra11sf0rn1a·doi1 C11td Upho:ding of i.hE' Ru!e~Of-Lav.1
10 Pnn1· to its inJt1at1on to the PGS, vvh.1t progra1n does the PNP is in1plemenlin2 ;i<; its tr·nn:.fo1ma11on
Strategy?
a.] Pulis sci 13aranr_;ay P1ogra1n
b.) Police Integrated Patrol Systen1 (PIPS)
c.) lt1tegrated transfortnc:ition Prograr.1
d.) Ten (10) Point Agendo
11. What are the four (4) distinct but inter-related and sequential stages of the Performance
Governance Systern (PGS) that the PNP needs to satisfy?
a.) Initiation, Prof1c1ency, Compliance, lnstitutional1zat1on
Ll.} Initiation, Compliance, Proficiency, institutionalization
c.) ln1t1at1on, Learning and Growth, Process Excellence, lnst1tut1onalizat1on
d.) lnit1at1on, Resource Management, Learning and Grovvth, Community
12. Th~· Performance Governance System or PGS is a globally recognized system and adopted by the
PNf) to raise the standard of governance utilizing what management and measuring tools?
a ) Gap Analysis
b.) Problem Tree i'nalys1s
c.) Case Study
d.) Balance Scoreca1d
13. To ensure that the PfJP vision 111111 attained, 1t is necessary that the strategy should be rntegrated
into the following key management process:
a.) Performance Appraisal
b.) Budgeting and Planning
c.J All of the choices
d ) Rewards and Punishment
14. The ITP-PGs a1n1~ to address the foflovv1ng except
il.) Organ1zat1onal Dysfunction
b.) Strengthen La'vv Enforcement Capabilities
c.) l1nprove the quality of the Police Service
d.) File an appropriate complaint before the Ombudsmnn
15. Thi•; entails the ne.=:d to c~stab/1<;h an organ1zallonal set-up that hos the most efficient m;:inugemenL
te~n1 cind Staff to supporl its p1ogr~111 thrusts to further enhanced the PNP's capability to solve'
cr 1n1e.:.
a.J Organization;:il De•1e!opn1C'nc
b.) Compelenc1;
c.) E':celicnce
d.) Profcss1onziJ1sm
16. Ou1· 11eoplr; and cornrnunitics shcill experience '1 nevv breed of polic1:; l1er0Ps who trod th~, "Tu!111rl
na Daan" rind delivering the rNP's; "Scrb1syong
a ) May P<:lgkukusa
b.) Tapat
c.) Totoo
d.) Makatotohanan
"
17, Wh2t does "E" stvnds for CODE-P?
a.) Excellence
b) Effectiveness
c.) Efficiency
d ) Enforcement
18, Unrler Strategic Focus l: Competence, the following objectives shall be observed except:
a ) Review and Pursue Legislative Agenda
b.) ~treamline the Organization
c.) Enhance operational procedures and practices
d ) lnrensify Policy Reform
19. It is the upgrading and enhancing all the knowledge, skills, and attitude of the police from the basic
to mandatory and specialized courses which shall be continuous process before they pursue their
own field of expertise
a.) Excellence
b.) Competence
c.) Professionalism
d.) Organ1zat1on
20. The ''CODE-P: 2013 and Beyond" serves as the PNP's 1owards the realization of the PNP
PATROL Plan 2030 1n order to effectively meet the meet its goals better serving and protecting the
public
a.) Plan
b) Guide
c.) Blueprint
d.) Roadmap
PROTOCOL AND SOCIAL USAGE
Multiple Choices: Choose the best answer from the given facts.
1. A foreign ambassador 1s addressed··_-------
a Your Royal Highness
b Mr./Ms. Ambassador
d Sir/Madame
2 The following are rules to follow 1n conversation, except,
b. A Police Officer should think before starting to speak
c. A glib talker can be as boring as a man of silence
d. A Police Officer should be calm.
3 The younger person is always introduced to the older
A Police Officer is always introduced to a lady regardless of his rank
a Only 151
statement 1s correct
b On!y 2nd statement 1s correct.
'o,-~-·- .·~rr.·
d. Botll staten1ents are not correct
PNP ETHICAL DOCTRINE
1. " PNP members shall provide services to everyone without
discrim·1nat1on regardless of party affiliation 1n accordance with existing laws
and regulations.
a Political Patronage
b. Police Lifestyle
d. Social Decorum
2. The following are the customs on courtesy calls, except for,
a Courtesy Call of Newly Assigned/ Appointed Member
b. Christmas Call
c. New Year's Call
3. Which is not a part of the Police Officer's Pledge?
a. I will love and serve God, my country and people
c. I will uphold the Constitution and obey legal orders of the duly constituted
authorities
d. I will oblige myself to maintain a high standard of morality and
professionalism
QUALITY SERVICE LANE
Which is not a component of the Quality Service Lane Project?
a. Improvement of fac1l1t1es and equipment
b Human Resource Development
c. Improvement of Systems and Procedures
r_: i·,-11~cs:t,c11 :··~~ 0 ·-.:'.1--s
2. Local Government and Community Mob1l1zat1on for
a Quality Workplace
b Quality People
d Quality Procedure
CITIZENS CHARTER
1. The Civil Service Commission has the power to·
*Administer and enforce constitutional and statutory provisions on the merit
system for all levels and ranks in the Civil Service.
*Administer the retirement program for government officials and employees,
and accredit government services and evaluate qual1ficat1ons for retirement.
a. Only 151
power is true
b. Only 2nd is true
d. Both are false
2. Who appoints the Chairperson and two Commissioners of the Civil Service
Commission?
L-. The Presir::Jent
b. The Chief Justice
c. The Commission on Appointments
d. The Speaker of the House of Representatives
Protocol and Social Usage Test Questions
1. It is primarily a guide of accepted rules governing the conduct of
government officials, police officers, military officers, and even
diplomats. Generally it refers to the good breeding of an individual or
even a nation, the rules includes courtesies, niceties, attendance in
different functions, even to the rules of behavior of an ordinary
people.
a Treaty d. Police Operational Procedures
b. Customs and Traditions ~ Protocol
c. Memorandum of Agreement f. Rules of Engagement
2. Considered to be a firmly established and generally accepted
practice or procedure which personnel must put into practice on
how to conduct themselves properly in dealing with people during
occasions or affairs.
a. Social Graces d Protocol and Standards
b. Beliefs and Culture e. band d
c. Social Usage f. a and c
3. Cocktails is are tendered to introduce a Military Officer or Police
Attache, retiring or passing officials, Sometimes held for a get-
together, fellowship, or reciprocation of previous cocktail invitation;
cocktails are normally given on what particular time of the day:
a. 7:00am to 9:00am c. 1:OOpm to 3:00pm
b. 6:00pm to 8:00pm d. 9:00am to 11 :OOam
4 Being the host you must always know and remember the general
rule in giving respect and courtesy to your guest, be it in a practice
of Customs of the Service and giving due value to the privileges of
an officer. As a rule of thumb where you will position yourself being
the host.
a. 6 inches to the rear of the guest c. on the right of the guest
b. at the back of the guest d. always on the left of the guest
5. The general rule of giving respect and honor to the guest is
knowing what you call as "the place of honor", as a rule of thumb
regardless of where the guest is facing, regardless of the location
of the audience what you should bear in mind is:
a. the reference point is always the forehead
Q,. point of reference is your right hand, because right side is
always the place of honor
c. point of reference left hand this is where the guest should be
d. must be at the rear to protect your guests
6 The police honors and gun salutes maybe rendered to the
following except:
a. Star Rank Police Officers
b. Any members of the House of Representatives I Congressmen
and Congresswomen
c. Cabinet members
d. NAPOLCOM Chairman
e. Senate President
7 In paying homage and deportment to the National Flag and during
Singing of the National Anthem indoors or 1n a covered area. a
PNP uniformed personnel must render military police salute
provided in their regulations. Must answer TRUE or FALSE.
a. The statement is true should salute at all times everywhere,
anywhere, upon seeing the Philippine Flag.
b. The statement is false PNP uniformed personnel must place
their right hand over their left breast pocket.
c. The statement is true PNP uniformed personnel in prescribed
uniforms must salute.
d. The statement is correct PNP uniformed personnel in prescribed
uniforms must salute.
. .
8. What should precede Invocation or National Anthem? Select the
correct and best statement from the choices below.
1) Invocation because as what the Panunumpa sa Watawat
states f1rst is "Makadiyos, Makakalisan, Makatao, at
Makabansa";
2) The singing of the Philippine National Anthem (Lupang
Hinirang) during civilian functions should come before the
invocation during programs.
3) The Philippine National Anthem should come before the
invocation because it is the state who gives the people the
right and freedom to choose his religion;
4) As the premise "God above country" it should be invocation
first before National Anthem;
5) It 1s already resolve by National Historical Commission of the
Philippines (NHCP), Philippine National Anthem first followed
by the invocation during civilian functions and programs.
However, during religious activities, the invocation may come
first, but preferably anthem before invocation because it is
the State that guarantees the free practice of any religion.
Choices:
a. 1, 5, and 4 b. 1, 2, and 4
c. 5, 4, and 2 d. 2, 3, and 5
9. A Police Officer shows breeding, and therefore considered a
gentleman and officer by his conduct in all his dealings. He knows
what 1s appropriate, select the best answer:
Choices:
1. Introduce a guest who just arrive to a person who is about
to leave, it is important you will be running out of time;
2. Police Officer is expected to behave and conduct himself
with dignity and restraint. Smoking is a form of discourtesy.
3. Older person is always introduced to a younger person.
4. A police Officer stands when introduced to a woman, a
clergyman, and official or an old man;
5. Lady is always introduced first to a man.
a. 2 and 4
c. 5 and 3
b. 1, and 3
d. 1 and 5
. .
10. During an official or social functions and gatherings there is a four
letter abbreviations written in a invitation, the abbreviated words
were written as R.S.'.P. what these letters stands for?
a. respond sure and very promptly
b retired and senior volunteer program
c. repondez, s'il vous plait
d. respondes silverio vout plaze
e. Resource Server Verification Protocol
Prepared by: PSUPT BYRON T. TABERNILLA
' '
Disciplinary Mechanism
Dropping From the Rolls (DFR)
(NMC Nos 95-017 and 2010-001)
• A mode of separation from the service which is non~disciplinary in
character and does not result in the forfeiture of any benefits on the part of
the officer or employee nor 1n disqualifying him from reemployment 1n the
government
• It does not require the stringent observance of due process
Absence Without Official Leave (AWOL) - refers to the status of any official
on employee vvho absents himself from work without approved leave of
absence
• After five calendar days or more but not to exceed thirty (30) calendar days a
PNP uniformed personnel shall be dropped from the rolls, after due notice.
• An officer or employee who has been continuously absent without approved
leav0 for th1rly (30) calendar days or more, he shall be dropped fro1n the rolls
Vtthout prior notice However he shall be 1nforrned of his separation from the
service not later than (5) days from its effect1v1ty, which shall be sent to the
address appearing on his latest 201 files or hls present place of work or
assignment
o Motion for Reconsideration (MR) shall be filed w1th1n 15 days upon receipt of
the DFR Order
4l Only one (1) Motion for Reconsideration shall be allowed.
• Denied MR 1s appealable to the Chief, PNP, w1th1n 15 days upon receipt of
the Order of Denial
"' DFR Order shall be served either by personal delivery or registered mail at
his address appearing on his latest 201 files or his present place of work or
assignment
• The Order of DFR issued by the CPNP or his Dec1s1ons denying the appeal
shall be appealable to the SILG 1n his capacity as Chairman, NAPOLCOM
w1th1n 15 days upon receipt of the order of the CPNP The Dec1s1on of the
SILG shall be final.
• In case the Motion for Reconsideration 1s meritorious, 1e. hosp1tal1zed, he
shall be restored to his former position, the absences will be charged to hrs
leave credits
PNP Officers authorized to issue DFR Order
a The Chief, PNP,
b PNP Regional Directors;
c Directors of the National Support Units;
d Directors, National Capital Regional District Directors:
e Prov1nc1al Directors;
f Group Directors, Regional Mobile Groups;
g Group Directors, Provincial Mobile Groups,
h City Chiefs of Police.
(NOTE: DFR Orders issued by the D. NSUs are sub1ect to conf1rmat1on by the
C PNP and DFR Orders issued by the PD, PPOs, GD. RMG, GD. PMG and City Chiefs
of Police are subject to confirmation by the RD, PRO (PNP Circular No. 2008-009
dated August 4. 2008).
(NOTE: PNP Circular 2008-005 did not amend or repeal PNP Memorandum
(Lacson Memo) dated September 22, 2000. In fact. correct1011 for tl1e 1nc/us1on of the
memo ,,vh1ch 111as approved by the C. PNP on August 4. 2008)
- ------ -- - - - --- - - - -
' What are the difference between Dropped from the Rolls and Administrative
Case?
- - - - - -
DROPPED FROM ROLLS
a. fJon-d1sc1pllnary ! a Disciplinary
- - - --
b. The term 1s Separation : b The term 1s D1s1nissal
I
I.. --- ---- - ------- _J_.__ .. ___ - - ----- ..---
1c No strict observance of due process ! c Strict observance of due process
{Notice only) · {Notice and Hearing)
1 d) Appeal - to the-c-.-PriP 1(MR · 1s denied ,-c---APP-eal tOthe -R-AB then-tO the SILG
[ bytheOff1cerw~o1ss~:_dtl1:_~F~~rder ___ 1--· ____ ___ __ __ .
. e) Cannot go together with the adm1n case I e) If chosen, no more DFR
'
: f) If DFR 1s nullified, conduct PCE.
as a matter of procedure
i .--·- -- .
-------,
QUESTIONS:
1 A mode of separation from the ser,;1ce v1h1ch 1s non-d;scipl1nary in
character and does not require the stringent observance of due process.
A. DFR
B D1sm1ssal
C Suspension
D DFR and Dismissal
E All of the above
2 Jt refers to the status of any official or employee vvho absents himself from
work vi11thout approved leave of absence
A AWOL
B DFR
c Drsmlssar
D Suspension
E All of the above
3 The requirements for due process 111 adm1n1strat1ve cases require strict
observance of
A Due notice
B Return to Work Order
C. Notice and Hearing
D Chance to submit Answer
E None of the above
4 The current PNP Memorandum Circular on D1sc1plinary Mechanism
IS
A LOI PAGBABAGO
B DR System
C Tamang Bih1s
D. LOI PATNUBAY Ill
5. A Motion for Recons1derat1on (MR) shall be filed before the Non-
disciplinary Authority vv1thin _______ upon receipt of the DFR Order.
A 5 weeks
B 15 days
C 1 month
D. 15 months
E None of the above
6 ______ Motion for Recons1derat1on shall be allowed
A
B
c
D.
E
Three fl.~ot1on for Recons1derat1on 1s allowed
Two f1.~ot1on for Recons1oerat1on 1s allovved
fV1ot1on for Recons1derat1on 1s not allowed 1n DFR
Only one Motion for Reconsideration is allowed
You can file as many as you want
I Upon receipt of the Order of denial of the Regional Director (RD). within
15 days the DFR personnel may file an Appeal with the----·---
A Mayor
B Provincial Director
C. CPNP
D Chief of Police
E None of the above
8 Upon receipt of the Order of OFR issued by the CPNP or his Dec1s1ons
denying the appeal, w1th1n 15 days, the DFR personnel may file an Appeal with the
A SILG in his capacity as Chairman, NAPOLCOM
B C1v1I Service Commission
C Vice-Chairman NAPOLCOM
D ~~one ol the above
E All of the above
9 fv1ot1on for Recons1derat1on of a DFR personnel maybG given due course 1f
A He went abroad during his absence
B He had a family problem
C. Hospitalized and have notified his immediate superior officer
o He 1s the son of a pol1t1c1an
E None of the above
10 PNP Officers authorized to tssue DFR rncludes the following
except,_______
a. The Chief, PNP
b PNP Regional Directors
c Directors of the National Support Units
d Chief of the Directorial Staff
e Prov1nc1al Directors
c:1<2pter I'
136. The involvement of PNP personnel during strikes, lockouts and labor disputes
in general shall be limited to _____
a. maintenance of peace and order
b. enforcement of laws
c. implementation of legal orders of the duly constituted authorities
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
137. The PNP shall only render assistance to labor disputes upon written request
addressed to__~~-
a. the Regional Director/District Director concerned
b. the Chief of Police
c. the Chief, PNP
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
138. In case of actual violence during labor disputes, the police can respond
a. without the written request
b. upon written request
c. with or without the written request
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
139. In so far as practicable, PNP personnel shall be allowed to render police.
assistance in connection with a strike or lockout if~~~-.,-,
a. there is question or complaint as regards his relationship by affinity or
consanguinity to any official/leader of the parties in the controversy
b. if he has financial or pecuniary interest therein
c. there is no question or complaint as regards his relationship by affinity
or consanguinity to any official/leader of the parties in the controversy
or if he has no financial or pecuniary interest therein
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
140. PNP personnel detailed as peace-keeping force in strike or lockout areas shall
be in -~~-.,,--
a. patrol uniform at all times
b. GOA "A" at all times
c. prescribed uniform at all times
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
141. PNP personnel shall exercise maximum tolerance and when called for by the
situation or when all other peaceful and non-violent means have been
exhausted, police officers may employ such means ______
b. False
156. It shall be imperative for all the COM contingent to perform their duties while
observing the rights of demonstrators
a. True
b. False
157 To keep the situation under control, police officers assigned to monitor public
rallies and demonstrations are allowed to bring firearms
a. True
b. False
158. In cases when violence erupts, police officers are allowed to hit the violators
head, shoulder blades and knees.
a. True
b False
159 If you are in the front line during a demolition, then a higher ranking officer
commanded you to take part in the physical dismantling of the houses. Will you
follow his command?
a Yes, because I must follow orders from higher ranking officers at all
times
b. No, because it 1s stated under the rule that the PNP personnel shall not
participate 1n the physical dismantling of any structure -subject of
demolition.
160. To make the demolition situation easier, use of tear gas, water cannons and
reasonable force even before the demolition begins is appropriate to push the
opponents back
a. True
b False
c. Maybe
d Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
161 . Police officers do not need to wear prescribed uniform during demolitions for
them to be able to move easily.
a True
b False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
162 Police assistance in the enforcement or implementation of a demolition or
eJectment order shall be granted only upon a written request of the Sheriff or
equivalent officer in quasi-judicial and administrative bodies accompanied by a
valid order issued by a competent court.
a True
b False
c. Maybe,
··--
d. Upon approval
e On a case to case basis
163. In case the final decision or order to be implemented is rendered by the
Supreme Court, where should the request for police assistance be submitted?
a. Office of the Ombudsman
b Office of the President
c Office of Chief PNP
d. None of the Above
164 Police assistance shall be rendered within ____ working days from the
receipt of the directive from the C, PNP.
a 3
b 5
c 7
d 10
165 If you are the Chief of Police and you received a request for police assistance
from the Sheriff of the Municipal Trial Court who issued an order in a c1v1I case,
what would you do?
a. Accept 1t, and provide necessary police assistance.
b. Reiect it or send it back to the court of origin.
c Refer it to the OCPNP
d Refer it to the RD, PRO and wait for the directive to provide police
assistance
e. None of the Above
166 The request for police assistance can only be granted upon the written request
of either of these two agencies.
a. LGU
b DILG
c. COMELEC
d A and B
e Band C
167 The copy of the final decision or order or resolution to be implemented should
be __~_
a. original or authenticated
b. photocopied
c with dry seal
d All of the above
e. None of the above
168 The approving authority on request for police assistance from the DILG or
COMELEC is the ____
a. SILG
b COMELEC Chairman
c. Chief, PNP
d. All of the above
e None of the above
169. The police assistance shall be rendered within_____ from receipt of the
directive from the C, PNP.
a. five (5) working days
b. two (2) days
c. three (3) working days
d. All of the above
e None of the above
170. Police assistance can also be rendered for a longer period when required by
circumstances.
a. True
b False
c Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
171. This official is tasked to render police assistance and shall have the discretion
to employ sufficient number of PNP personnel.
a Director Operations
b. Regional Director
c. Special Task Group Commander
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
172. The police team that will render police assistance should be led by a
a. Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) with the rank of Police
Superintendent
b Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) with the rank of Police Senior
Inspector
c. Police Commissioned Officer (PCO ) with the rank of Police Chief
Inspector
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
173. All members of the Special Task Group shall be in prescribed uniform when
rendering police assistance.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
174. The role of the PNP when rendenng police assistance shall be Hm1ted to
a. maintenance of peace and order
b crowd control
c. security of the duly authorized officer of the COMELEC, DILG or LGU
implementing the decision/order/resolution
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
175. In performing their role. the PNP personnel shall at all times observe
a maximum tolerance
b. respect for human rights
c. utmost impartiality and neutrality
d All of the above
e. None of the above
176. The request for police assistance can only be granted upon the written request
submitted by~----
a any authorized officer of DAR
b Agrarian Reform Officer
c LGU
d. A and B
e. Band C
177. Which of the following are examples of preliminary agrarian act1v1ties?
a Land survey
b Post lnstallat1on
c Ocular Inspection
d. All of the above
e None of the above
178. Police assistance 1n the implementation of CARP can be provided even without
the request of DAR
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
179. Police assistance in the implementation of CARP shall be provided only as
requested by DAR
a True
b False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
180. The scope of the resistance to be encountered and the general peace and
order condition in the area are the things to be considered by the head of office
or unit tasked to render police assistance in employing sufficient number of
PNP personnel.
a True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
181. There are cases when a higher ranking Officer 1s necessary to lead the police
team rendering assistance.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
182 The police team that will render police assistance should be led by a
a. Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) with the rank of Police
Superintendent
b. Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) with the rank of Police Senior
Inspector
c Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) with the rank of Police Chief
Inspector
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
183 The use of reasonable force shall only be resorted to for self-defense and
defense of strangers
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
184. PNP personnel can lead the conduct of the preliminary agrarian activity and
shall have the final disposition whether to proceed or not with the
implementation of the decision or the conduct of the activity.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
185. When the DAR personnel are refused admittance into the property, the PNP
personnel _____
a. Can encroach on the property
b Need to get a permit or warrant to enter the property
c. Cannot encroach on the property without an order from DAR
spec1fical!y for the purpose
d All of the above
e. None of the above
--
186. Which of the following are examples of decisions/orders of the court, quasi-
judicial or administrative bodies that are immediately executory?
a. Temporary Restraining Order
b. Replev1n
c. Protection Order under the Anti-Child Pornography Act
d All of the above
e. None of the above
187. Provisional remedies under the Human Security Act 1s not immediately
executory.
a True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e On a case to case basis
188. Oec1sions/orders issued by the court, quasi-judicial or administrative bodies
that are immediately executory shall be submitted to the ____
a. OCPNP
b. RD, PRO having jurisdiction of the place where the decision/order shall
be implemented
c. Chief of Police who will be implementing the decision/order
189. Decisions/Orders issued by the court, quasi-judicial or administrative bodies
that are immediately executory shall be submitted to the Chief, PNP.
a True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e On a case to case basis
190 The RD, PRO shall be the approving authority in rendering police assistance in
the implementation of decisions/orders of the court, quasi-judicial or
administrative bodies that are immediately executory.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
191. The written request of the Sheriff or equivalent officer 1n quasi- JUd1c1al or
administrative bodies is not needed in the request for police assistance.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
192. The original or duly authenticated copy of the decision/order/resolution sought
to be implemented is also required in the request for police assistance.
a. True
.1
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a-case to case basis
193. The use of reasonable force shall only be resorted to for self- defense and
defense of strangers.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
194. Dialogue with those who may be affected by the implementation of the
decision/order/resolution is encouraged to prevent violence, and the
assistance of local public officials, when warranted, should be requested.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
195. The Sheriff or the equivalent officer of quasi-judicial or administrative bodies
does not have the final disposition whether-to proceed with the implementation-
of the decision/order/resolution or not.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
196. The is the main person in-charge during hostage/crisis operation.
a. Ground Commander
b. Negotiator
c. Sniper
d. None of the above
197. The shall always be paramount during a hostage situation.
a. arrest of the Hostage-Taker
b. safety of the hostage
c. assassination of the Hostage-Taker
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
198. The will act as the referee between the negotiator and the
hostage-taker.
a. Mediator
.~:··
...
/
i'
.
b. Ground Commander
c. Assault Team
d. All of the above
e: None of the above
199. depends on the threat posed by the hostage-takers and need of
the Negotiation Team and On-Scene Commander.
a. Breakout Plan
b. Delivery Plan
c. Emergency Response Plan
d. Surrender Plan
e. None of the above
200. Which PNP unit is in-charge of the investigation of complaints and reports
involving all forms of violence against women and their children?
a. AKG
b. PCRG
c. WCPD
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
201. Under the Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006, a child aged __ and
below shall be exempt from criminal liabilities.
a. 10
b. 13
c. 15
d. 17
e. None of the above
202. Under RA 7610, "children" refers to those below __ years of age or older
but are incapable of taking care of themselves.
a. 10
b. 13
c. 15
d. 18
e. None of the above
203. The child-victim shall be handled preferably by a police officer of the
gender as the victim.
----
a. Same
b. Opposite
c. Any
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Ruis 3~·
204. It is a container filled with explosive, incendiary material, smoke, gas, or other
destructive substance, designed to explode.
a. IED
b. Grenade
c Bomb
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
205. A bomb may also be referred to as ______
a Ordnance
b. !ED
c. Improvised Explosive Device
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
206. 1s either a written or verbal threat communicated through
electronic, oral or other means that threatens to place or use an lED at a
certain time, date or place against any specific person or place.
a. Bomb Scare
b. Bomb Threat
c. Bomb Explosion
d. All of the above
e None of the above
207. Determined bombers do not frequently give warnings of possible
explosion/incendiary attack
a True
b. False
c Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
208. The consequences of conviction for "threatening" are as serious as those that
could result from actual placement/initiation of a bomb.
a. True
b. False
c Maybe
d Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
209. A bomb threat 1s considered only a threat until something visible is found.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
210. What is the number of options in considering evacuation?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
e 7
211. Unless a bomb 1s found. personnel may not order an evacuation of the affected
area, but may inform the person in-charge of the property of the need to
evacuate.
a True
b False
c Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
212. What is the minimum distance for evacuation 1f a suspected device is
discovered?
a. 200 meters away
b. 250 meters away
c. 300 meters away
d. 350 meters away
e. 400 meters away
213 Which of the following information should be determined by the first responder
1f the investigators have not yet arrived?
a Time of detonation/explosion
b. Time when the call for bomb threat was received
c. Type of device
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
'
214. Which government agency was mandated by law to assume the responsibility
for the proper and effective implementation of the anti- terrorism policy of the
country?
a. Armed Forces of the Philippines
b. Anti-Terrorism Council
c. Philippine National Police
d All of the above
e. None of the above
215 Who is the Chairman of the Anti-Terrorism Council?
a DILG Secretary
b. Executive Secretary
c Secretary of National Defense
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
216 Who 1s in-charge of initially determ1n1ng if there 1s a high degree of probability
that the incident is a terrorist attack?
a. Task Force Commander
b. Regional Director
c. On-Scene Commander
d AlI of the above
e None of the above
217 What is the meaning of CIMTG?
a Critical Incident Management Task Group
b. Common Incident Management Technical Group
c Critical Incident Maneuver Task Group
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
218. What is the meaning of CIMC?
a. Critical Incident Manager Circle
b. Critical Incident Management Committee
c Crisis Incident Management Committee
d All of the above
e. None of the above
219. Which PNP unit ensures the management and containment of the incident and
coordinates with the TF Commander during the development of the case?
a. Municipal Police Station
b. National Headquarters
c Police Regional Office
d All of the above
e None of the above
220. This 1s being followed when investigating bombing attacks and explosions
perpetrated by the terrorists.
a. Inter-Agency Agreement on Investigation of Bombing Incidents
b. Inter-Agency Protocol on Explosion and Bombing Incidents
c. Inter-Agency Protocol on Explosives and Related Incidents
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
221. What agency is involved in investigating bombing attacks and explosions
perpetrated by terrorists?
a. PNP
b AFP
c PCG
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
222 What is the meaning of PBDC?
a. Ph1l1ppine Bomb Data Center
b Philippine Bomb Detail Collection
c. Philippine Bomb Data Committee
d All of the above
e None of the above
223. The fusion center for the reporting of ERls.
a. PNP
b PBDC
c. PCG
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
224 It 1s the actual police intervention in a cybercrime incident.
a. Logging in the Police Blotter
b Cybercrime Investigation
c. Cybercrime Response
d. All of the above
e None of the above
225 The acquisition of evidentiary value is traceable within the computer's
a. Hardware
b Software
c Network
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
226. It is imperative for the First Responder (FR) to be able to the
computers to be able to recognize potential evidence.
a Protect
b. Seize
c. Search
d. All of the above
e None of the above
227 A warrant is not required to seize data from the electronic device, digital media
and other similar devices.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e On a case to case basis
228 The evidence seized shall be subjected to forensic examination by trained
personnel
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e On a case to case basis
229. The result of the forensic examination, as well as the testimony of the forensic
expert, shall be made available during the trial.
a True
b. False
c Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
230 In securing the computer as evidence, the FR should _____
a Turn the computer "ON" if it 1s "OFF"
b Turn the computer "OFF" if 1t is "ON"
c. Touch the mouse or keyboard
d All of the above
e. None of the above
231 Consult a computer specialist for assistance in the conduct of search and
seizure of networked computers.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
232 Only a computer forensic expert can search for any evidence contained in the
computer hardware
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
233 It 1s not necessary to note all the actions associated with the manipulation of
the e!ectron1c device.
a True
b False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
234 The PNP has authority to conduct anti-illegal drug operations. But PDEA
deputation is absolutely necessary or required for PNP personnel assigned
with anti-drug units
a. True
b. False
c Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
235 PNP units, prior to any anti-drug operations shall, as far as practicable,
coordinate with the PDEA.
a. True
b. False
c Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
236. "The following are instances a PNP Unit can validly dispensed prior
coordination with PDEA, except _______
a. in remote places where coordination 1s not possible
b. when the PNP personnel police is suspicious of the PDEA operatives
c. when coordination will compromise the lives of police operatives,
informant and witnesses, involved 1n anti-drug operation
d. when coordination will pre1udice the apprehension of drug suspects
and confiscation of dangerous drugs and CPECS
e. when prior coordination will compromise the entire police operation
237 The PNP anti-drug units shall inform the PDEA of the anti-drug operation
within 48-hours from the actual custody of the suspects or seizure of drugs and
substance as well as paraphernalia and transport equipment used in illegal
activities 1nvolvfng such drugs and/or substances and shall regularly update
the PDEA on the status of the cases involving the said anti-drug operation.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
238. The physical inventory and photograph of the confiscated evidence shall be
conducted at ----~
a. the place where the search warrant is served
b. or at the nearest police station or at the nearest office of the
apprehending officer/team
c. whichever is practicable, in case of warrantless seizures
d. All of the above
e None of the above
239 The types of kidnappings are~~~--
a. Kidnapping by Organized Crime Group/Group/Criminal Group (with
ransom)
b. Kidnapping by Threat Gro.ups/Terrorists
c Kidnapping by Other Individuals
d All of the above
e None of the above
240. Upon receipt of kidnapping incident report, the police officer shall
a. Make an incident recording
b. Deploy first responders
c. Alert all concerned authorities/ tasked groups
d All of the above
e. None of the above
241. Upon initial assessment of the type of kidnapping, and upon confirmation that
the kidnapping 1s true, ____
a. the case shall be referred to the AKG, other territorial units or to higher
authority
b. the police officer shall deploy first responders
c. shall confirm the authenticity and the case shall be referred to the
CJOG, other territorial units or to higher authority
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
242 If the k1dnapp1ng was perpetrated by Organized Cnme Group/Criminal Group
and .Yith ransom demand, 1t shall be referred to the for their initial
action/operational response
a PACER
b. AKG
c other territorial units or to higher authority
d. AlI of the above
e. None of the above
243. If the k1dnapp1ng was perpetrated by Threat Groups/Terrorists, it shall be
referred to the higher authorities for the activation of ______
a. AFP-PNP Joint Task Force
b. Critical Incident Management Committee (CIMC)
c. or Critical Incident Management Task Group (CIMTG)
d. All of the above
e None of the above
244. If kidnapping was perpetrated by other individuals, it shall be referred to the
a. Concerned PNP territorial units for appropriate operational response.
b AKG for appropriate operational response.
c CIOG for appropriate operational response
d. All of the above
e None of the above
245 If the incident 1s of grave national importance with implications to national
security including those with serious diplomatic, political and peace and order
ramifications it shall be referred to _____
a. CIMC
b. CMC
c CIMTG
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
246. If the incident needs referral to higher authorities, who/what among the
authorities must be informed?
a. PNP Higher Authority, JTF and LCE and other concerned agencies.
b. PNP Higher Authority and other concerned agencies.
c CMC, CIMC and other concerned agencies
d. All of the above
e None of the above
247 What 1s the meaning of NDRRMC?
a. National Defense and Risk Reduction Management Council
b. National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council
c. National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Committee
d. Nationwide Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Committee
e. National Defense and Risk Reduction Management Committee
248. Man-made critical incidents are the responsibilities of the National and Local
Peace and Order Council (NPOC).
a. True
b False
c Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
249 The PNP, being at the forefront of crisis situations, must play an active role by
organizing its own Incident Management Committee (IMC).
a. True
b False
c Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
250 The PNP CIMC acts independently and not in support to the NORRMC and
NPOC.
a. True
b. False
c Maybe
d. Upon approval
e On a case to case basis
251 Who 1s the Chairman of the PNP Cnt1cal Incident Management Committee
(PNP CIMC)?
a CPNP
b. TOCA
c. TOCO
d All of the above
e None of the Above
252. The Peace and Order Council Chair is the Chairman of the Critical Incident
Management Committee.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e On a case to case basis
253 What is the alert level when a man-made Critical Incident has just occurred or
has Just been pre-empted; or incidents are expected?
a Level 1 (Low) ·
b. Level 2 (Moderate)
c Level 3 (High)
d. Level 4 (Extreme)
e. None of the Above
254 There are three stages in Disaster Management.
a True
b False
c. Maybe
d Upon approval
e On a case to case basis
255. Support and recovery efforts are at the Pro-Active Assessment Level.
a. True
b. False
c Maybe
d Upon approval
e On a case to case basis
256. In the conduct of man-made critical incident and disaster relief operations,
security and safety of personnel must always be considered.
a. True
b. False
c Maybe
d Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
257. The responsib1J1ty of addressing crisis can be during an
1nc1dent 1f it grows beyond the capab1l1ty of the established CIMTG in handling
the growing needs of the 1nc1dent or 1f there is JUnsdictional change. when the
1nc1dent moves location or area of responsibility.
a. Relocated
b. Transferred
c. Shifted
d. All of the above
e None of the above
258 The respons1b11ity of addressing crisis can be transferred during an incident 1f
a. It grows beyond the capability of the established CIMC 1n handling the
growing needs of the incident
b There is no jurisdictional change, when the incident moves location
c. It grows beyond the capability of the established CIMTG 1n handling the
growing needs of the 1nc1dent
d. All of the above
e None of the above
259. The transfer of responsibility during crisis must always include _____
a. Transfer of command briefing which may be oral, written or a
combination of both that could be attended by the key members of the
CIMC/CIMTG.
b. Transfer of command briefing which may be oral, written or a
combination of both that should be attended by all members of the
ClMC/ClMTG.
c Transfer of command briefing which may be oral, written or a
combination of both that should be attended by the key members of the
CIMC/CIMTG
d. Alloftheabove
e. None of the above
260 To attain a smooth transition of command responsibility, the Regional CMC
takes over when the ~~~~~~'
a Local PNP at the Municipal/City level are unable to resolve the crisis
within their capab1!1ties
b Municipal/City CMC recommends elevation of the crisis !eve!
c. Highest terrorist threat level involving mass casualty attacks
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
261. The National CMC takes over when the ------
a situation requires employment of security forces and utilization of
resources of the Regional level organizations and beyond
b upon the recommendation of the Provincial CMC
c. incident involves foreign nationals, either perpetrators or victims
d All of the above
e None of the above
262 Whose responsibility is it to respond to queries raised by the media during
crisis?
a. Police officer on duty
b. Local government head
c Unit Head/Chief or Ground Commander
d All of the above
e None of the above
263 Where should the Ground Commander designate/establish a media area for
pooled coverage and ensure safety of all media personnel covering the
incident?
a. Designated area that is close to the firing line
b Designated area away from the incident to avoid airing live coverage of
unfolding event.
c. Designated area accessible for airing live coverage of the event as 1t
unfolds.
d. All of the above
e None of the above
264 In cases of inter-agency operations, who will determine the dissemination of
appropriate media lines?
a. Ranking officer present at the crime or incident area.
b. Officer-on-duty.
c. The department/agency with primary jurisdiction.
•
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
265. What could happen-~the media coverage goes out of control during acrisis
situation?
a. Media could interfere negatively in the actual police operations.
b. Ground Commander's attention will be divided.
c. Police operating on the ground will become media conscious.
d. All of the above
e None of the above
.'
Chapter 1
Rule 1-3
POP Reviewer
1 -2 Rule 1.1 To serve and Protect
The respons1b1!1ty of 9'1ery police officer 1s to serve the pub!!c and protect
Irle and property No police operation shall be conducted rn order to serve and
protect the illegal activity of a particular person, group or cnm1nal syndicate.
3. Rule 1 2 Observe Human Rights and Dignity of Person
All PNP personnel shall respect the human rights and dignity of the
suspect/s during police operations
4 Rule 2.1 Agency Prescribed Uniform
A police officer shall always wear the agency prescribed uniform which 1s
appropriate for the kind of police operation to be undertaken
5 Rule 2.2
When wearing the police uniform, a police officer shall, at all times, appear
presentable, smart and well groomed. While on actual patrol duties, he shall
refrain from eating along the sidewalks, smoking and reading newspapers.
6 Rule 2 3
Every police officer on patrol, whether on board a vehicle or on foot patrol,
must always carry with him a police notebook, a pen and Miranda Warning Card
The notebook, which 1s approx1mate!y pocket srzed, will be used to 1nscr1bed
1111µ01la11l events i!iCJi l1CJn~µ11e Jurlny l11::. lou1 of July
7 Public Safety Operation - includes Search, Rescue and Retrieval Operations,
Fire Drills. Earthquake Drills and s1m1lar operations that promote public safety
8 Law Enforcement Operation - includes Service of Warrant of Arrest,
!tnp!ementat!on of Search A/arrant, Enforcement of l!s!toria! P01.'1ers of the Ch!ef.
Ph11Ipp1ne National Police and Unit Commanders, Anti-Illegal Drugs Operation,
Anti-Illegal Gambling Operations. Anti-Illegal Logging Operations, Anti- Illegal
Fishing Operations, Ant1-Carnapp1ng Operations, Ant1-K1dnapp1ng Operations,
Ant1-Cyber Crime Operations and s1m1lar operations that are conducted to
enforce laws statutes executive orders and ordinances
9 Intelligence Operation - includes Surveillance Operation, Counter-lntell1gence,
lntel!1gence Research, !ntell1gence Assessment and similar police intelllgence
operation conducted to gather 1nformat1on related to security, public safety and
order.
1O Internal Security Operation - includes Counter-Insurgency Operations, Counter
Terrorist Operations and s1m1lar operations conducted to ensure internal security
11 Special Police Operation - includes Checkpoint Operation, Roadblock Operation,
C1v1! Disturbance ~!!anagernent Operation, Police ,<'ssistance ln the Enforcement
of Demo!1t1on Eviction lnJunct1on and Similar Orders, Police Assistance 1n the
Implementation of Final Court Order and Order from Quasi-Judicial Bodies,
Hostage S1tuat1on, V1s1t Board Search and Seizure Onboard Marine Vessels and
Similar Police operations that are conducted by police units with specialized
tr;:11n1ng on the pecul111rlty of the mission or purpose
--------
Chapter 2
Ru!e "1-8
12-15 Rule 4 Pre-Operational Clearance
No police operation shall be conducted without the approval of the
Chief/Commander/Head of the concerned Pohce Un1t/Off1ce A pre-operational
clearnnce shall be filed by thE=> -ream Leader of the operating team/s prior to the
conduct of the operation and shall be approved by the concerned Police Unit
Commander_ This clearance shall be submitted to the operations section/d1v1s1on
of the concerned unit for record purposes
Rule 5. Inter-Unit Coord1nat1on
16 Persona! Coord1nat1on or by Off1c1al Representative
Team Leader/s (TL of local police units operating outside their territorial
Junsd1ct1on and National Support Units (NSUs) shall coordinate, personally or
through an off1c1al representative, with the Police Regional, Provincial or City
Police Office w1th1n wl1ose JUrisd1ct1on the operation 1s to be conducted
17 Coord1nat1on by Pract1cal/Ava1lable Means of Commun1cat1on
ln cases where formal inter-unit coord1nat1on 1s not feasible, the Police
Unit concerned shall endeavor to notify the territorial police office through any
pract1cal/ava1lable means of commun1cat1on at anytime during the operation and,
1f not possible, shall accomplisl1 and furnish the terntonal Police Office a written
1nc1dent report 1mmed1ately after the termination of the operation
18 lnter-Un1t Coord1nat1on can be accomplished through
1 Personal Coord1nat1on or by Off1c1al Representative,
2 Coord1nat1on by t-il1ng Coord1nat1on rorm, and
3. Coord!nat1on by Pract1cal/Ava1lable Means of Communication
19 Checkpoint Operation
PNP personnel manning the checkpoint must have a presentable
oµµedro11ce, weo1u1g U1e µ1e::;cr1iJeU Pi~P u111lo1rn L1kewi::;e, U1e c1viiia11 rr1e111Uer::;
must also be in their organization's uniform with their names conspicuously
displayed for ident1f1cat1on In no case shall a c1v1lian components be allowed to
bear firearms dunng the checkpoint
20 Rule 6.1 Basic Requirements of Police Operation
demoht1on and c1v1I disturbance management shall be conducted as follows
a With marked police vehicle.
b Led by a Police Comm1ss1oned Officer (PCO), and
r. With fJE=>rsonnAI 1n rrP.sr.nhP.rl rolir.A 11n1form or AttirP.
21 Rule 6.3 Warning Shots Prohibited
The police shall not use warning shots during police 1ntervent1on
operations
22 Rule 6 2. Use of Megaphones and Similar Instruments
During actual police 1ntervent1on operations, the Team Leader shall use
peaceful means 1nclud1ng the use of megaphones or any other s1m1lar
instruments to warn or influence the offender/s or suspect/s to stop and/or
peacefully give up
Rule 7 Use of Force during Police Operation
23-24 Rule 7 2 Issuance of Verbal Warning
The police officer must first issue a verbal warning before he could use
force against an offender As far as practicable, the verbal warning shall be 1n the
dialect that is known to the offender or 1n the national language Basically the
VP.fhMI WArn1ng ShFJll r.on:o;ist of OllP. of thA following· the f)Olir.P. offir:er 1dent1fy1ng
h1n1self, his 1ntent1on and what he wants the offender to do If the offender 1s a
foreigner, the verbal warning shall be done 111 the English language followed by a
demonstrative act of the police officer's intent. The verbal warning shall be done in
a loud and clear manner
25 Rule 7 4 Use of Non-Lethal Weapon
When the suspect 1s violent or threatening, and that less physical
measures have been tried and deemed 1nappropnate, a more extreme, but non-
deadly measure can be used such as baton/truncheon, pepper spray, stun gun
and other non-lethal weapon to bring the suspect under control, or effect an
arrest
26-28 Rule 7 6 Factors to Consider 1n the Reasonableness of the Force Employed
A police officer, however 1s not required to afford offender/s attacking him
the opportunity for a fair or equal struggle The reasonableness of the force
t:::111µiuyi:::U w1ii Ut:::µt:::r1U uµur1 li1t::: 11ur11Ut:::r ul dyy1t::::::.:::.ur:::., r1dlu1t::: c111U cirdlCJCi.t:::t1:::.l1c:::.
of the weapon used, physical cond1t1on, size and other circumstances to include
the place and occasion of the assault. The police officer 1s given the sound
d1scret1on to consider these factors 1n employing reasonable force
Rule 8 Use of firearm during police operations
29 Rule 8 5 Procedures After an Armed Confrontation
Immediately after an armed confrontation, the officer who 1s 1n charge of
the operation shall
a Secure the site of confrontation,
b TakP. photographs
c Check whether the s1tuat1on still possess 1mm1nent danger,
d Evacuate the wounded to the nearest hospital,
e Ensure that all persons who died on the spot are not moved from the original
pos1t1on,
f. Arrested suspects should be kept 1n isolation,
g Conduct debriefing on all involved PNP operatives,
h Submit After-Operations Report, and
Ensure psychological stress counseling for all involved PNP operatives
30 Rule 8 4 Filing of an Incident Report After the Use of Firearm
fJ. ,...,..,i;,...c ,-,ff1t""'or ,.,h,-, fir,:,e> hi'°' C'Orflt""'C> firo'°'rm ,-,r "'"''°'""n rl1 or•nn 0
.. r---..-- -·· --· ····- .·-- ···- --· ··-- ···----···· -· ··--r---·· --·····:::;) -
confrontation with an offender or offenders must submit an incident report
outlining the circumstances necessitating the use of his firearm
31 Rule 8.1 Use of Firearm When Justified
The u..:;e of f1re;:irm 1.c; _111st1f1erl 1f the offender .ooses immine-nt d8nger of
causing death or 1n1ury to the police officer or other persons The use of firearm 1s
also 1ust1f1ed under the doctrines of self-defense, defense of a relative, and
defense of a stranger However, one who resorts to self-defense must face a real
threat on his life, and the peril sought to be avoided must be actual, 1mm1nent
and real Unlawful aggression should be present for self-defense to be
considered as a 1ustify1ng circumstance
- --- -- - - - - - - -
Rule 9 Patrol Procedures
32-36 Rule 9.1 Patrol Guidelines
9 1b Observe defensive driving and follow traffic rules and regulations;
9 1n Develop contacts by getting to know as many people as possible who can
""'o f..,,....t, ,..,1 •nfr.rm~hf'>n ,,.h,..,, 1+ f'r•mo f'f'>nrlitif'>n<:: f'ln tho n,,.frf'>I ho,,.+·
"" -- ·--·-- '. -····-·-· ----· - ···- --··-···-··- -·· ···- ~--·~· ---··
9 1p When requiring 1dent1f1cat1on from a suspicious person or any individual.
avoid taking the wallet or bag 1n which the cards/documents are placed Let the
1nd1vidual remove and hand thern to you;
9 1q. When checking susp1c1ous persons, places, bu1ld1ngs/establ1shments and
vehicles especially during n1ghtt1me, be prepared to use your service firearm
Flashlight should be held tightly away from the body to avrnd making you a
possible target,
9 11. Observe the practice of "shaking doors" of unguarded business
establishments during night patrol Check for signs of 1ntrus1on
37-42. Rule 9 2 Duties of Patrol Supervisors
a In any operation, careful planning 1s a must 1n order to avoid waste at time,
effort and resources,
(1) Area Coverage safe haven, ambush areas and crime-prone areas,
(2) Organizational Detail of Personnel,
(3) Duration,
(4) Sid11U-Uy fJu111l::., dr1U
(5) Route Plan.
d Inspect the members of the patrol for completeness of uniforms, operational
readiness and all government-issued equipment (firearms, mobile car, radio,
0 +,....  +,-,, <:>nc-11ro +hot tho<:>o '>ro _,,,,.11_m-:::11n+o1norl o::>nrl nrnnorh1 '1c.-orl h" <> P-:>trnl-·-I·--•·--·- .. ,_,_.,___ - - ··-·· ,,,_,,,._,,,__ -··- l"'-1"-''J - - - - -J - • _ _._,
Officer,
e Conduct briefing prior to dispatch by d1ssemlnat1ng any orders. directives or
instructions from the Chtef of Po!lce or higher authont1es and new policy or
gtJ1del1nes being 1mnlemenh~rl by the PNP Organ1zat1on
g Render hourly rep[ort of location and s1tuat1on through
radio/telephone/cellphone to Police Community Precinct (PCP)/Stat1on
Headquarters Tactical Operation Center (TOC);
Conduct debriefing after the patrol to assess its conduct and make necessary
corrective measures on defects noted
43-47 Rule 9 3 Duties of Patrol Officer
b Observe and monitor public gatherings, prevent disorders and disperse
unlawtul assemblies,
e Check suspicious vehicles (private, public, or commerc1al/del1very vehicles)
along main roads/highways in the course of their patrol:
y Preve11l t..11rr1e~ ar1U dflt::::.i :s1yi1it::U idW v1uiolu1::., d~~u1111y U1e fJuUltt.. il1di fJt:Ji:it..t:
is preserved.
h Conduct regular v1s1tat1ons, d1a!ogues/consultat!ons with the residents and
,.,,+hnr c-+..,,i.-oh,.../rlnrc-
'-'" '"'' .....~., ...........~ .........,
1 Assist personnel of responsible agenc1es/un1t 1n fac1l1tat1ng the flow of traffic at
busy intersections/roads w1th1n his Area of Responslb1l1ty (AOR), assist and
provide pedestrian Information such as directions and street !ocatlons
48-56 Rule 9 4 Gwdel1nes and Procedures when Responding to Calls for Police
Assistance
9 4a Gather and note down 1n the patrol officer's logbook all available data as to
the nature of the calls, date, time and name of the caller. It may be regular,
urgent or emergency 1n nature
9 4b The manner of approach will be dependent on the nature of the call. either
with haste/secrecy or vv1th/vv1thout flashing lights and sirens,
9 4d Stop the patrol car some distance from the scene,
9.4e Approach the scene on foot in complete silence and exercising extreme
caution;
9 41 lrrirrrer..iidieiy alierrU iu lire: 11rJureU, urrie:::.:::. Ure uiirl::'.!r rrrerrrUe1:::. ul ii re µairui
are 1n immediate danger,
9 4g Focus all efforts to arrest criminals, however, pnonty shall be given to
aiding the injured,
9_4J When responding to street fights/brawls, the patrol member should call for
back-up before 1nterven1ng If there are no 1n1unes and insufficient
corroborative statements obtained to 1dent1fy who started the fight, disperse
the crowd and make complete notes,
9 41 When responding to calls for police assistance due to planted or found
explosives, never attempt to handle, move or lift the object. Instead contact
Operations Center and request for Explosive Ordnance Disposal Tearn
(EODT) On-lookers must be promptly led to safe distance away from Hie
scene.
9.4m When responding to calls from owners of beerhouses, bars and inns or
any other s1m1lar establishments dunng night time, request the owner to put
the lights on first before entering the establishments,
!::! 4n uo not attempt to arbitrate and resolve cont1rcts/d1tterences between
neighbors, landlords/tenants. husband and wife,
Rule 1O Spot Cl1ecks/Accost1ng and Pat-Down Searches
'Jt Rui~ iG 2 Sµui. Cir~c..,K/AL;i..;u:::.iu1~
a(3) Before approaching more than one '1nd1vidual, police officers should
determine whether the circumstances warrant a request for back-up and
whether spot check/accosting can and should be delayed until such back-up
arnves
58. Rule 1O 2 Spot Check/Accosting
b Body Frisk/Pat-Down Search
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
a. as may be necessary to prevent any violence.
b as may be reasonable to prevent or repel an aggression
c as may be necessary and reasonable to prevent or repel an aggression
d All of the above
e. None of the above
142. The matter of determining whether a strike, picket or lockout 1s legal or not
should be left to the ~~--~~
a. Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE) and its appropriate
agencies
b. Philippine Overseas Employment Agency (POEA)
c. National Labor Relations Commission (NLRC)
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
143. Whenever escorts are to be provided, all escorts shall ______
a. be provided to any of the parties to the controversy even without
written request from DOLE.
b. not inform the other party accordingly.
c. be in prescribed uniform at al! times.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
144. The pertinent prov1s1ons of the Public Assembly Act of 1985 (Batas Pambansa
Bilang 880), the Labor Code of the Philippines, as amended and other
applicable laws, shall be observed during rallies, strikes, demonstrations or
other public assemblies Law enforcement agents shall, at all times
a. exercise minimum tolerance
b. in case of unlawful aggression, force is employed to prevent or repel it
c the employment of tear gas and water cannons shall be made even
without the control and superv1s1on of the Ground Commander
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
145. The peace-keeping detail shall not be stationed ______
a. In the picket line
b. In such manner that their presence may deter the commission of
criminal acts or any untoward incident from either side
c. within 50-meter radius from the picket line
d All of the above
e. None of the above
146. PCINSP PALABAN is the Ground Commander, when he saw that the rallyists
are pushing through the barricade of the COM Contingent, he asked the leader
of the rallying group to prevent any disturbance or violence. The rally1sts did
not listen to the warning and still tried to push their way through As a solution,
PCINSP PALABAN immediately ordered the dispersal. Did the Ground
Commander made the right decision?
a. Yes, because 1t will prevent the situation to escalate into violence
b No, because no actual violence occurred to disperse the rallyist.
147. Police contingent monitoring a public assembly may be detailed and stationed
at least from the area of activity.
a. fifty (50) but not more than one hundred (100) meters away
b. one fifty (150) meters away
c. one hundred (100) meters away
d. fifty (50) meters away
148. An application for permit for a public assembly should be filed at least_ days
at the Office of the Mayor before the activity.
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10
149. A public assembly 1n a _____ must have permit from the_____ of
the city or municipality.
a. public place; governor
b. private property; mayor
c. public place; mayor
d. private property; governor
150 Police officers are allowedio drink alcoholic beverages during peaceful
assemblies.
a. True
b. False
151. It 1s okay to gamble during a peaceful assembly while monitoring the situation.
a. True
b. False
152. The PNP shall respect and protect human dignity, maintain and uphold the
human rights of all persons.
a. True
b. False
153. Ground Commanders are not responsible in determining whether there is a
permit for the holding of the public assembly.
a. True
b. False
154. Tear gas, smoke grenades, water cannons, or any similar anti-riot device shall
be used not only when the public assembly is attended by actual violence.
a. True
b. False
155. Even when the rallyists and demonstrators become violent and deliberately
destruct properties, the use of tear gas, water cannons and other anti-riot
devices are still not allowed.
a True
(8) The individual flees at the sight of a police officer
64 Rule 10 2 Procedures and Gu1del1nes
b(4) If the suspect 1s carrying an object such as a handbag, suitcase, briefcase,
sack, or other s1m1lar items that may conceal a weapon, the police officer
should not open the item but instead put it 1n a place out of the suspect's reach
Rule11-12
65-66 Rule 11 Checkprnnts
Rule 11 6 General Procedure to be Followed When Checkpoints are Ignored
a In the event that checkpoints/roadblocks are ignored and the
motorrsts/suspects bumped the roadblock 1n an attempt to elude arrest or
avoid inspection, the TL shall immediately contact adjacent units can conduct
dragnet operation or police defensive roadblock, while the members of the
blocking/pursuing team shall block or pursue the errant fleeing motorist.
c In the event that the occupants of the vehicle open fire on the personnel
manning the checkpoint, reasonable force to overcome the suspects·
aggression may be employed
Procedure 1n the conduct of Regular Police Checkpoint
h. In the event that the checkpoint 1s ignored, and the occupants of the vehicle
open fire on the personnel manning the checkpoint, reasonable force to
uver L.Ufl 1e ii 1e ::.u::,µe1...l::i' i:l!:J!:JI e::,::,1ur 1111ay Ue er11µiuyeJ,
67-68 Rule 10 11 Police defensive Roadblock
b(2)(g) Police car lights must be turned on at all times during operation,
b(2)(1) If the vehicle's windows are heavily tinted and the occupants cannot be
coon 1nctr11f't tho rlriHor tr. r.non -::ii! •A11nr/r.,A1c tn h-::n10 -:. f'lo-::ir ,,;<:>At r.f tho___.., ..._,____ ···- -.. ·-· -- -,...- . -·· ·····--··- ·- ,,_._ - -·--· ··-·· -· ..._
1ntenor vehicle,
69-71 Rule 12. Internal Security Operations
Rule 12 1 General Mandate
The PNP ls m<=indated to provide active support to the Armed Forces of
the Phil1pp1nes (AFP) in Internal Security Operations (ISO) for the suppression
of the Communist Terrorist Movement (CTM) and other serious threats to
national security (Executive Order No. 546 series of 2006 "Directing the
Ph1lipp1nes 1n Internal Security Operations for the Suppression of lnsurgerrcy
and Other Serious Threats to National Security, Amending Certain Prov1s1ons of
Executive Order No 110 series of 1999 and for Other Purposes")
72-74 Rule 12 2 The PNP in an Active Support Role
The PNP shall perform the following
b In urban areas, the PNP may assume the lead role 1n ISO against the CTM,
other threat groups and organized cnme groups engaged 1n armed
offensiveness;
c The PNP units may either operate as a single force or as part of Joint PNP-
AFP combat operations In both cases, lateral coordination 1s a must;
e Spec1frc areas where armed confrontations such as encounter, ambush, raid,
l1t..1u1Jctlrur1 <:t11U uil1er ::.11111iar <:tl1uc1iie:,; u(;cu1 Ueiweer1 yuve1r1111~11i fur~e::, (Fi"P ur
AFP) and the Communist Terrorists (CTs) shall be treated as a crime scene. The
police unit that has jurisdiction over the areas shall conduct the Cnme Scene
Investigation (CSI)
75-76. Rule 12.3 Defensive Position
P0!~-:::e St~t~0~~. e~pec~2 1
1~, +hr.co !ccated
targets of attacks
;n f<:>r_fli 1nrt nr•nrrt1'
·-· ·-··::) ,.... ·~·"J
Rule 12 3 (b) Duty station guards shall memorize, internalize and put into
nr-::il"tll"O tho 11 ti.onor-:::il nrrlorc.- r.f (J nr 1h1 r.::1 !".lrrl I iL-c.1A1lc.-o tho11 c-h!:>ll ,;;ohM<=iHC" f">;>rrH!"'"'_" __ ,,,_ '. :':'-"-'"'' ~ ..... _._ -· .... ~ ....., ~-- ...... _ .. ,_ ... __ , ... -J _,,...,., ........... J- __ .,,
their issued long firearms and ammunition ng/bandol1ers with basic load.
77 ASCP - Advance Security Control Points
78 Rule 12 3 (g) One of the strategies and tactics employed by CTM and other
thr.ci.,,+c- nrn11nc< +n "'"'""' .,,,...,...O<'C' +n nAliro. c-t<e>+,,...nc_. i.::- h" "'"'":>r1nn nf DfIDfl'iJ:"D.... ,,......_ :::i·--1"''-' ·- I:'"'"' ...,_...,___ -- r--- ......- ..................., ·- "'} ··-"''"'::;l -· ' ... ,, ,. '
uniforms and that of the other LEAs, hence, personnel assigned 1n the advance
security control points shall not allow entry of uniformed groups or any 1ndiv1duals
without prior coord1nat1on
(1) Exercise sustained vigilance and maintenance of law, order and public safety
in ri=:sper:tivP. AOR thro11gh the 1ntens1fiP.rl r,onduc:t of polir.P. v1s1bility p;:itrofs
Rule 13-14
79 Rule 13 Arrest
Rule 13.1 General Guidelines
Rule 13.1 (f) The following are immune from arrest
(1) A Senator or Member of the House of Representatives while Congress
is in session for an offense punishable by not more than six years of
imprisonment,
80. Kute 13 3 Arrest Without Warrant
A peace officer or a private person may, without a warrant, arrest a
person·
Rule 13.3c When a person to be arrested 1s a prisoner who has escaped from a
penal establishment or place where he 1s serving final Judgment or temporarily
cunfir 1eU wl uie iii~ L«::1::ie 1~ µe11Jir 1y, ur I1a:s e:sc...aµeU while Ueruy ir dll~ler reU Ir urn
one confinement are to another,
81. Rule 13.4 Authority of the Arresting Officer when Making an Arrest
Rule 13 4a Police officer may summon assistance - A police officer making a
1..,.,Alf• 11 'O>rract m-:iv "arh".>ll" "'' rmmr.n "''°' m>:>n" nar<:>An<:> <:><:> ha rlaomc. no,...o<:>e><:>r/ tr.
,_,,,_, -··--· '''""} ·-·--"J -~ ......_.. -- ···-··1 r---·--··- -- ··- ..,--···- ··------·J ·-
assist him 1n affecting arrest
82 Rule 13 5 Procedures
Rule 13 5a(5) The police officer need not have a copy of the warrant in his
possession ;::it t11e time of the ;:irrest Jf the person to be arrested so req111res the
rvarrant shall be shown to the arrested person himself;
83 Rule 13.4 Authority of the Arresting Officer when Making an Arrest
Rule 13 4b Right of a police officer to break into building or enclosure - A poltce
officer in order to make an arrest with or without warrant, may break into a
building or enclosure where the person to be arrested is or 1s reasonably
believed to be, 1f he 1s refused admittance thereto after announcing hrs authority
and purpose
84 Rule 13 6 Duties of Arresting Officer
R~!o ~3 6c Afh8!: '!!C!"r.~r! er ch!!~r!:!n 8~e 8mcng the :;.r~ested eL!epect!e, the
arresting officer shall task the Women's and Children's Protection Desk (WCPD)
officer or a policewoman who 1s farn11iar with women and children protection desk
duties to conduct the pat-down search;
85 Rule 13.7 Physical Examination of Arrested Person/Suspect
Rof,..,,ro ,,-,forrnrr-:>f1nn +hr.. norc-nri 'Olrro<:>forl <'.'h".>!I h.,,,110 +ho rif'lht tr. ho
~-·-...·- ................,,,_.,_··· ..._ ,......... _._,.. -...........,......... -··~ .. ··~·- ..._ ··::::i··· -- ..........
informed of his nght to demand physical examination by an independent and
competent doctor of hts own choice If he cannot afford the services of a doctor
r.f hie r.1A1n f'hr.iro ho c:'h".:>11 ho nrr.111rlorl h" tho ~t".:lto >Mith o::i l'Arnnotont ".:lnrl-· ............... _,,_.__, ,,_ -..-.. -- r-·-··--- ..,J ... _ ~--·- ...... - --···r----· .. _,,_
independent doctor to conduct physical exam1nat1on. If the person arrested 1s
female, she shall be attended to preferably by a female doctor
86. Rule 14 Search and Seizure
Rule 14 1 RBqtJ1sites for the issul'lnce of Search Warrant
A search warrant shall be issued only upon probable cause in connection
with one spec1f1c offense to be determined personally by the JUdge after the
examination under oath or affirmation of the complainant and the witness
presented. The search warrant shall particularly describe the place to be
searched and the things to be seized which may be anywhere in the Philippines
87-89 Rule 14 2 validity of Search Warrant
Rule 14 2a The warrant shall be valid for ten (10) days from date of issuance
rnay be served and any day within the said period_ Thereafter, 1t shall be void
Kule 14 Lb 1t, 1n tl1e implementation at the search warrant, its object or purpose
cannot be accomplished 1n one day, the search can be continued the following
day, or days, until completed, provided it is still w1th1n the ten (10)-day validity
period of search warrant
Ruie 14.2L lf Uu:1 uUj1::1cl uf U1e ~ed1c/1 w<::1rcdrtl cct111iut U1::1 dLL.ur11µii:::.f1t:U w1Urir1 U11::1
ten (10)-day validity period. the responsible police officer conducting the search
must file, before the issuing court, an application for the extension of the validity
period of said search warrant
90 Rule 14 Search and Seizure
P1 do 1 A 1 P<:>n111C'1tot:- fnr +hn l<'C'l l<:>nr.ei r.f ~o,-,rrh 11/':)rr.,,n+
',_,._. ' ... '"'1-·~·-~~ ·-· ... ~ .....~~~··~~ -· --~-·-·· ........ ~···
Rule 14 1a. The following properties may be the objects of a search warrant:
(1) Properties which are the subject of the offense;
(2) Stolen, embezzled proceeds, or fruits of the offense, and
(3) Objects 1nclud1ng weapons, equipment, and other items used or
intP.ndP.rl to hP. used AS th~ meF1ns of committing <'ln offPnSA
91 Rule 14 3 Time of Search
The warrant should be served dunng daytime, unless there 1s a provision
in the warrant allowing service at any time of the day or night
92 Rule 14 5 Authority of Police Officers when conducting Search
In the conduct of search, if after giving notice of his purpose and authority,
the police officer 1s refused admittance to the place of search, he may break
open any outer or inner door or window or any part of a house or anything therein
to implement the warrant or liberate himself or any person lawfully aiding him
when unlawfully detained therein
93 Rule 14 6 Proh1b1ted Acts in the Conduct of Search by Virtue of a Search Warrant
Rule 14.Ga. Houses, rooms, or other premises shall not be searched except 1n
the presence of the lawful occupant thereof or any member of his family or, in the
dl.J~er ice ul lf 1e iC1't'te1, 111 'ti 11::1 µre~er !Le ul lwu (L) w'u 1e:::ist:~ ul sull1c1er 1't <:l}:Je <::1r 1U
discretion residing in the same locality
Rule14.6b Lawful personal properties, papers, and other valuables not
specifically 1nd1cated or particular!y described 1n the search warrant shall not be
t8!-'..9~
94 Rule 14 7 Inventory and Delivery of Property Seized
94 Rule 14.7 Inventory and Delivery of Property Seized
:J. The po!1ce cff!cer '.'.'ho cor.f!sc2tes propert~' under the '.~!2rrsr.t sha!! lssue 3
detailed receipt of property seized to the lawful occupant of the premises, or in
the presence of at least two (2) witnesses of sufficient age and discretion res1d1ng
1n the same locality;
c The receipt shall likewise include items seized under the Plain View Doctrine;
rl The policP- officRr must then le.Ave Fl receipt 1n the placP 1n which he found the
seized property and a duplicate copy thereof with any barangay off1c1al having
jurisdiction over the place searched, and
e The police officer must forthwith deliver the property seized to the Judge who
issued the warrant, together with an inventory thereof, duly verified under
oath
Rule 15-16
95-99 Rule 15. Jnvest1gatlon by the Territorial Police Unit After an Armed
Confrontation
15.1 Responsibility of the Territorial Police Unit
The Police Unit that has territorial 1urisd1ction over the area where the armed
confrontation occurred shall secure the scene and 1mmed1ately undertake the
necessary investigation.
!5 3<:1 Aii lut:t:Hlf!!:>, i:.:<::1ri1iUye~ c:111U ::.iuy:::. ~eiLeU, i:.:<::1µlu1c:U u1 rei:.:uve1eU Uurutg
checkpoints or pursuit operations or in any other police operations or 1n any other
police operations including those seized during the service of warrants and, more
importantly, those recovered from the crime scene shall immediately be submitted to
the local Crime Laboratory (CLO) which shall in turn process it for capturing and
r-rnc-c-_rn_,,t,...hinn thrn11nh tho J.,h::•nr-:>tor-1 Rcil11c-tif"'C' lrlont1fif"'"3tinn Qlc-torn /IRfQ
-...·-~- ···-·-·····:::> ...._....,,,.. .,,_ ····-:::>·-·-.... __............,.... ·~-... .._...__,,...,,, _.J._.,....... ,.~ ..... ,
100 Rule 16 Jud1c1al Affidavit Rule
This rule shall apply to all actions, proceedings, and incident requiring the
reception of evidence before the court in place of the direct test!mon1es of
witnAssP.s in order to rP.rlt1c:e thP. time neP.ded for completing their tP.stimon1es
101 Rule 16 1 Application of Rule to Criminal Actions
This rule sha!I apply to all cnm1na! actions where the maximum imposable
penalty does not exceed six years
102. Rule 16 2 Contents of jud1c1al Affidavit
a The name age, residence or business address, and occupation of the
witness, ,
b The name and address of the lawyer who conducts or supervises the
exam1nat1on of the witness and the place where the examination is being held,
c. A statement that the witness 1s answering the questions asked of him
fully conscious that he does so under oath, and that he may face cnm1na! liability
for false testimony or perjury,
e The signature of the witness over his printed name,
Ruit:! i 7-20
103-104 Rule 17. Maintenance of Pohce Blotter
17.1 Police Blotter
Each PNP operating unit shall ma1nta1n an official police blotter where all
types cf cper2t1on2! 2rd urdercover d!sp:::!tcf"!es sha!l be recorded cont2!ntng the
five "Ws" (who, what, when, where and why) and one "H" (how) of an information
-----·-------
105. Rule 17.4 Blotter Procedure
Before entry !nto the b!otter book, the Duty Officer (DO) should first
evaluate 1f the report 1s a crime incident, arrest or event activity, which 1s for
records purposes only If the report 1s a crime incident, the DO shall first
accomplish the Incident Record Form (IRF) from which the entry 1n the blotter
book and IRS shall be extracted All other reports shall be recorded directly to the
blotter book (PNP SOP No 2012-001 "Incident Recording System")
106 Rule 17 2 Police Blotter for Cases 1nvolv1ng Women and Children
A separate Police Blotter, however, shall be maintained for a crime
incident reports 1nvolv1ng violence against women and children and those cases
1nvolv1ng a child 1n conflict with the law to protect their privacy pursuant to
Republic Act (RA) 9262 (Ant1-V1olence Against Women and Children Act of 2004)
and RA 9344 (Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006), respectively
107 Rule 17 3 Crime Incident Reporting System (CIRS)
Each PNP operating unit shall also maintain and utilize the PNP Crime
Incident Keport1ng System (Cll-<S), an electronic reporting system that tac1r1tates
crime documentation, modernizes data storage and provides quick and re!1ab!e
transm1ss1on of cnme 1nformat1on from lower units and NOSUs of the PNP to the
National Headquarters at Camp Crame, Quezon City.
I 08 Rule 18 3 R(:jt:.ur ding
a Incident Reports
All crime 1nc1dents whether reported by the victims, witnesses or third
parties must be recorded 1n the police blotter, even under the following
circumstances
(1} A/hen the offender 1s !!! and !S un!!ke!y to recover or !S too sen!le or too
mentally disturbed for proceedings to take place,
(2) When the complainant or an essential witness 1s dead and the
proceedings cannot pursued,
(3) When the v1ct1m or an essential witness refuses, or is permanently
unable to stand as a witness. and
(4) The victim or complainant or witness 1s a minor
109 Rule 19 Booking of Arrested Suspects
Rule 19.1 a. General Policy
After arrest, a suspect 1s taken into police custody and "booked"· or
"processed." Dunng booking, the following procedures shall be periormed by
designated police officers
(1) Record the arrest made in the Police Blotter,
(2) Conduct pat down or strip search of the suspect,
(3) Submit the suspect for medical examination;
(4) Take the criminal suspect's personal information (i e name, date of
birth, physical characteristics, etc)
(5) Record information about the suspect's alleged cnme,
(6) Periorm a record search of the suspects cnm1nal background,
(7) Fingerprint and photograph the suspect,
(8) Take custody of any personal property carried by the suspect (1.e.
keys, µu1:::o(:j), iu Ue 1eiur11eU uµon U1e .susµee;t's rtd8<:1.S8, dr1J
(9) Place the suspect in a police station lock-up/holding cell or local Jail
110 Rule 19 2c
The Desk Officer shall U1en prepare of accomplish PNP Booking Form
(PfJPBF}-1 "Request for ~.qed!ca! Examination of the .A.rrested Suspect" The
Desk Officer shall l1ave the police station Officer on Duty (OD) to sign the request
form himself
111 Rule 19.2~
Tr.e 0~~; ~'"''.'8S!~;;3tar sh2!! prep2re 2 Tur~-0'.'8r Receipt Farm
lnvest1aato1 to tre Jai:er) known as PNP Booking Form-3
(fr.m
1·~· ..
T-ie 01 shall also be responsib!e for ensuring that the suspects'
•119eror1nts or tenonnts are taken by the Fingerprint Technician using both the
:enpnnt card and the PNPBF-2
113 Rule 19 2J
The Investigator shall be responsible for preparing for preparing the
necessary documents such as. Aff1davit-complaint, Affidavit of witness, booking
and arrest report: photo copy of recovered evidence 1f any, and a letter of case
referral to the Prosecutor's Office that should be signed by the Station
Commander or police station Officer on Duty with the farmer's unavailability
114 Rule 20 Custodial Investigation
(Answer. d. all of the above)
115 Rule 20 1e(3)
Failure of the arresting officer, or the 1nvest1gator, to observe the
rror:P.dtJrP.s 1n tF1k1ng P.xtrF1jurl1r:ir=il confession sh;=ill renrler the r:onfpsslon
1nadm1ss1ble as evidence in any proceeding
116 Rule 20 1g
After interrogation, the person under custodial 1nvest1gat1on shall have the
right to be informed of his right to demand physical examination by an
independent and competent doctor of his own choice If he cannot afford the
services of a doctor of his own choice, he shall be provided by the State with a
competent and independent doctor to conduct physical examination. lf the
person arrested 1s female, she shall be extended to preferably by a female
doctor.
117 Rule 20.3a
If transported by a patrol 1eep, the subject must be seated on the right rear
seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject
Hands of the subject should be secured by handcuffs under his knees
Rule 2G.3c.
ln no case shall a Detention Prisoner be transported using public ut1l1ty
land vehicles that are not exclusively utilized for the purpose.
118 Rule 20.2d
(":i. lieitf're '"o-:>rinn tho f'Alf'r r1f tho rlot.,,in.c::::.o'e 11niff'rm e>h-:>11 ho .,,,..i,,;,,,<::i,..r tf'
1-1 ··-··-·- ··--""::) --·- --·-· -· ···- --·-···-- - ~· .. ·-···· - .. - •• - - - - · · - - - ·-
wear other colors,
(4) The custodial center, an informal and temporary penal facility for
arrested suspects, shall not al!ow conjugal v1s1ts for detention prisoners;
(7) All visitors shall be frisked for deadly weapons, firearms and other
rrohihitP.d IfP.mS
119 Rule 21 Inquest Procedures
Rule 21.1 Commencement of Inquest
a. Affidavit of Arrest,
b. Statement(s) of the complainant(s),
c. Alf1dav1t(s) of the witness(es) if any; and
- O!PEr supporting evidence gathered by law enforcement authorities in
~ho ,...,...,, ,,.,,,.o nf +hotr 1nuoC"tin.,,,tinn ,.-.,f +ho f"r1rnin""I 1nf"1rlo.-.t 1n, 1,.-.,1.,inn +ho
•''"" "'"'"''"'"' "'' ••• ...,.. "'""'"'"'::l......,..,•. ...,, ••• ..., ...,,,,, .......... "'"''"'"''•• .,, • ...,.....~ ... ~
arrested person
'2G Art 125 of RPG Delay 1n the delivery of detained persons to the proper Judicial
authorities.- The penalties provided 1n the next preceding article shall be imposed
llpon thP. r11b!1r. offir.P.r or P.mr!oyP.P. who ShMll dP.t8in Finy !'P.rson for some leg<'ll
ground and shall fail to deliver such person to the proper ;ud1c1al authorities w1th1n
the period of; twelve (12) hours, for crimes or offenses punishable by light penalties,
or their equivalent: eighteen (18) hours, for crimes or offenses punishable by
correctional penalties or their equivalent and thirty-six (36) hours, for crimes, or
offenses punishable by affl1ct1ve or capita! penalties, or therr equivalent.
121 Rule 22 1a
The first police officers to arrive at the crime scene are the First Responders
who were dispatched by the local police station/unit concerned after receipt of
1nc1denUflash alarm report
122 Rule 22.6 Polley Gu1del1nes on Processing of Persons Present at the Crime
Scene
These policy guidelines prescribe the operational procedures in
processing and handling persons present at the crime scene; be they the
su::,pe<.;ll::>, v1Liirr1::, u1 w1ine::,l::>e::::.. Tiie dirn i::, iu cieariy Uefine puiice cuurl::>e::::. uf
actions 1n dealing with persons who, for any reason and personal circumstance,
are at the crime scene during the conduct of police operation
123 Rule 22.6b Hostage Negot1at1on
Tho fr.U,.-.,,.1inn nrr.f"orl11ro o;-h.,,,11 ho fr.llr.1Mor1rl11rin,-, <:> Wnot"""°' C::it11<:>tinn·. ··- ,..., .. - ..... :;, !"''"" ____ ,..., ..,,,_,, ~- ,..,,,...,., __ --'"'::l ~ ''""'·-::i- .....,. __ .,...,, •.
(1) Cns1s management Task Group shall be activated immediately;
(2) Incident scene shall be secured and isolated;
(3) Unauthorized persons shall not be allowed entry and exit to the incident
SCAnA' and
(4) Witnesses' names, addresses, and other information shall be recorded
Witnesses shall be directed to a safe location
124 Rule 22.5 Duties of Territorial Police Unit
a. Provide assistance in the evacuation of the 1niured persons to the nearest
hospital;
b Provide area security,
c. Control the crowd at the crime scene,
d Direct the f!ow of traffic away from the crime scene so as not to destroy and
contaminate vital evidence, and
e. Provide security back-up to the socu.
125 In crisis management, as soon as the perpetrators surrendered, or when they
are captured neutralized, the On-Scene Commander shall ensure the
accomplishment development of talking points for briefing of the media.
126 Rule 23 Procedures in the Investigation of Heinous and Sensational Crimes
The SITGs (Special Investigation Task Group) shall spearhead and
coordinate the 1nvest1gative and prosecutonal efforts of the PNP to fac1l1tate the
speedy resolution and successful prosecution of heinous/sensational cases to
•nf"l11rlo tho ,...,...,nJlf"t1rin ,.,f tho .-.r.:..-hcotr""tr.ro,,,..,, ___ •"- __ ,,,,..,_,_,, -· •"- r-'"''r'"""~·-•V•
127. Rule 23.2a
/Jhenev9r e ser!ous cr~!T?e !s committed, the concerned Ch!ef -:of Po!!ce
(COP) or Station Command~r shall immediately assess the situation and
communicate to the DD/PD/CD the attendant circumstances and its updates
which will be the basis of the D)/PD/CD for recommending to the RD whether or
not there ts a need to activate the SJTG.
128. Rule 23.2g
Every SITG shall have six months to resolve a case from the time 1t takes
cognizance of the said case.
129. Rule 23 2b
Ccnce!"ned COP or Station (>::)mmender sh2!! bese h~s!her assessment
and recommendation on the report of the first responders and his assigned
Investigator-on-case The creation of SITG is not necessary for crimes that can
be resolved at the said level Otherwise, a District. PPO/CPO level of a SITG shall
be organized that will take cognizance of the investigation of heinous and
sensational cases in1t1;:illy investigated by the C1ty/MunicipaJ/District Police
Stations.
130 Rule 23 1(1)
Regional Level (To investigate killings and violence committed against
Senators, Congressmen, Govetnors, cabinet Secretaries, Undersecretarres and
SC and CA Justices) '
131 Rule 23.2c( 1)
The SITG shall be composed of Investigation Team, Case Record Team,
Technical/Legal Support Team, Admin/Log1stics Teams and Evidence Team.
132-133 Rule 23 3g(2)
The CIPLAN must be prepared and shall be in the following format (Six
Point Plan), Situation. Mission, Execution, Contingency, Adm1n1stration and
Logistics, Command, and Communication (SMECAC)
134 Rule 23 31
If the SITG fails to resolve the case within six months or after the
extension, the case will be considered a "cold case."
135 Rule 23 m.
.ll.!! reccrd£
evidence gathered shall be deactivated under obligation to ensure that all
documents, pieces of evidence and any other related materials are accounted
and secured
November 21, 2014
',__ ,.
Direction: Choose the best answer from the choices given after each question.
Rui·.o ·1~3
1. Under Rule 1.1 of the POP, the function of a police officer is
----a. To Serve and Perform
b. To Investigate Crimes and Arrest Criminals
c. To Serve and Protect
d. All of the above
e None of the above
2. No police operation shall be conducted in order to ____
a. serve or protect the illegal activity of a particular person
b. serve or protect a group or criminal syndicate
c defend the personal interests of the powerful
d A and B
e. None of the above
3. According to Rule 1.2, "All PNP personnel shall respect the human rights and
dignity of the suspect/s during--~=-·
a. police community relations activities
b. police investigation
c. police operations
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
4 Rule 2.1 prescribes that "A police officer shall always wear the agency
prescribed uniform which is appropriate for _____
a his rank
b for the police station
c. the kind of police operation to be undertaken
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
5. According to Rule 2 2, "When wearing the police uniform, a police officer shall,
at all times, appear "
a professional, smart and prepared
b. presentable, smart and well-groomed
c. prepared, smart and accessible
d. presentable, skillful and approachable
e. None of the above
6 Rule 2.3 states that, "Every police officer on patrol, whether on board a vehicle
or on foot patrol, must always carry with him ''
a. his badge, firearm and Miranda Warning Card
b. a police notebook, a pen and the Miranda Warning Card.
c. his whistle, badge and ammunition
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
7 Which of the following is a public safety operation?
a. Counter-Insurgency Operations
b. Search, Rescue and Retrieval Operations
c. Service of Warrant of Arrest
d. None of the above
e All of the above
8. Which of the following is a law enforcement operation?
a. Implementation of Search Warrant
b. Anti-Illegal Drugs Operation
c Anti-Carnapping Operations
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
9. What are included in Intelligence Operation?
a. Counter lnte!l1gence Operation
b. Surveillance Operation
c. Intelligence Research
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
1O Internal Security Operation includes ______
a Counter-Insurgency Operations
b. Counter Terrorist Operations
c. Anti-Crime Operation
d. AandB
e. All of the above
11.Which of the following is a Special Police Operation?
a. Anti-Illegal Fishing Operation
b. Anti-Illegal Gambling Operation
c. Hostage Situation Operation
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
-- -- -- - ...-,.,.....,.._·---
12.Who shall file a pre-operational clearance prior to the conduct of the
operation?
a. Police on duty
b. Section Chief of the Police Unit
c. Unit Chief or Ground Commander
d. Team Leader of the operating team
e. None of the above
13.The pre-operational clearance shall be submitted to~----­
a the head of the local government unit for funding purposes
b. the Chief of Police for approval
c. the operations section/division of the concerned police unit for record
purposes
d. All of the above
e None of the above
14.A pre-operational clearance shall be filed by the Team Leader of the operating
team/s prior to the conduct of the operation and shall be approved by
a the operations section/division of the concerned police unit
b the concerned Police Unit Commander
c. the head of the local government unit concerned
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
15.The pre-operational clearance shall be submitted to the operations
section/division of the concerned police unit for _____
a. appropriate action
b. approval
c record purposes
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
16. For the purpose of inter-unit coordination, the Team Leaderls (TL) of local
police units operating outside their territorial jurisdiction and National Support
Units (NSUs) shall coordinate, personally or _____
a. through the Office of the LGU Head (Governor or Mayor)
b. through an official representative, with the Police Regional, Provincial
or City Police Office within whose jurisdiction the operation is to be
conducted
c. through the Office of the DSWD
d. All of the above
e None of the above
17. How should the team leaders communicate in cases where formal inter-unit
coordination is not feasible?
a. The Police Unit concerned shall endeavor to notify the territorial police
-office through any practical/available means of cOmmunication at
anytime during the operation.
b. The Police Unit shall accomplish and furnish the territorial police office
a written incident report immediately after the termination of the
operation.
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
18. Inter-unit coordrnation can be accomplished through _____
a. personal or through an official representative
b. filing of Coordination Form
c any practical/available means of communication
d. written incident report immediately after the termination of the
operation
e. All of the above
19.A police officer can participate in a Checkpoint Operation even if not in
prescribed attire, provided that he is carrying his badge and identification card.
a. True
b. False
c Maybe
d. Case to case basis
20. Which of the following are not included in the basic requirements of police
operation under Rule 6.1?
a. Marked Police Vehrcle
b. PNP Personnel in prescribed police uniform or attire
c. Led by a Police Commissioned Officer (PCO)
d. Ball pen and notebook
e. None of the above
21. Choose the correct statement
a. A Police Officer should avoid firing warning shots as much as possible,
but can do so dependrng on the situation.
b. Police Officers are allowed to fire warning shots in order to avoid
further violence.
c. A Police Officer shall not use warning shots during police intervention
operations.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
22. Which of the followrng maybe use to warn or rnfluence offenders to stop or
peacefully give up during actual police intervention?
a. flash light
b. warning shot
c police baton
d. megaphone
e. All of the above
•
--
23 Before a police officer can use force against an offender, he/she shou!d first
a. show his/her weapons in order to discourage violence
b. fire warning shot to intimidate the offender
c issue a verbal warning in a loud and clear manner
d. All of the above
e None of the above
24. Which of the following statements is not part of a verbal warning?
a. The police officer's intention and what he wants the offender to do.
b. Physical threats to the offender.
c. The Police Officer identifying himself.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
25 Which of the following non-lethal weapons is not allowed to be used to bring a
violent suspect under control, or effect an arrest?
a. Baton
b. Truncheon
c pepper spray
d. stun gun
e. None of the above
26 Where does-reasonableness- of the force employed depends on?
a. Number of aggressors
b. Nature and characteristics of the weapon used
c. Physical condition of the aggressors
d. Place and occasion of the assault
e. All of the above
27 Which of the following situations warrant the use of reasonable force?
a. The offender is cooperative and surrenders peacefully.
b. The offender is unarmed, but is verbally insulting the police officer.
c The offender has a pistol and is running away from the police officer:
d. The offender is armed with an ice pick and is running towards the
police officer.
e. All of the above
28. Which of the following scenarios is not justifiable on the use of firearms?
a. Unruly group of persons destroying properties and threatens
passersby.
b. A man holding a knife threatens to kill anyone who will approach him.
c. Armed robbers fleeing the scene of the crime 1n a vehicle carrying
millions of cash.
d. An armed suspect onboard a vehicle ignored a checkpoint and run
over the barricade.
e. All of the above
29 Which of the following is not part of the procedures after an armed
confrontation?
a. Secure the site of confrontation;
b. Evacuate the wounded to the nearest hospital;
c Submit After-Operations Report;
d. Media briefing;
e. Take photographs;
30.A police officer who fires his service firearm or weapon during a confrontation
with an offender or offenders must submit _____
a. himself to a ballistics test
b. an incident report outlining the circumstances necessitating the use of
his firearm
c. an incident report justifying his action
d. A and B only
e. All of the above
31. The police officer's use of firearm is justified in the following conditions, except
one which is - - - -
a. if the offender poses imminent danger of causing death or injury to the
police officer or other persons
b. self defense
c defense of a relative
d defense of a stranger
e. None of the above
32. You are tailing a suspicious vehicle and have come across an intersection on
red light. The suspicious vehicle ignores the red light What would you do?
a. Ignore the red light and pursue the vehicle.
b. Stop on the red light, taking note of the suspect vehicle's direction of.
travel and plate number.
c. Cancel the pursuit and resume patrol
d Report the vehicle make, model, color and plate number to HQ
33. Which of the following individuals can serve as a good source of information on
a patrol?
a. Frequent loiters (Tambays)
b. Stay-in employees of local establishments
c. Random by standers
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
34 You stopped a suspicious individual on the street and you are asking for his
identification. What would you do next?
a. Secure the individual using handcuffs while you search his/her
belongings for contraband.
b. Shout at the individual to hand over identification quickly.
c. Wait patiently for the individual to present proper identification.
d. Ask bystanders for the individual's name.
35. While checking suspicious places especially during nighttime, a police officer
should be prepared to use his service firearm.
a. True
b. False
36. When patrolling at night, patrol officers should not observe the shaking of
doors of unguarded establishments at night to check for intrusions.
a. True
b False
37. Before starting a patrol, the patrol supervisor makes a patrol plan.
a. True
b. False
38 Patrol teams should be briefed before dispatch.
a. True
b. False
39. Checking of uniforms and equipment checks are the responsibility of patrol
team buddies.
a. True
b. False
40. Hourly reports are not necessary when a patrol team does not encounter
anything s1gn1f1cant in their patrol.
a. True
b. False
41. Debriefings are conducted after the patrol to assess its conduct and make
necessary corrective measures on defects noted.
a. True
b. False
42. Which of the following does NOT belong in a patrol plan?
a. Route p!an
b. Stand-by points
c. Area coverage
d. Detail of Personnel
e. None of the above
43. The patrol officer has the authority to disperse unlawful assemblies
a True
b. False
44. Suspicious vehicles parked along main roads should not be checked for
possible explosives or other dangers.
a. True
b. False
45 Patrol officers should arrest law violators on sight upon the commission of the
crime.
a True
b. False
46.A patrol officer assists personnel of responsible agencies/unit in facilitating the
flow of traffic at busy intersections/roads within his AOR.
a True
b. False
47. During patrol, an officer should not re-visit locations that have already been
patrolled.
a. True
b. False
48. When responding to a lifewthreatening emergency call, an officer should arrive
at the scene-~~--
a. driving with haste using sirens and flashing lights
b driving cautiously without sirens and flashing lights
c. driving an unmarked vehicle
d driving as fast as possible
e. All of the above
49 Upon arrival at the scene, a police officer should prioritize ____
a arresting the criminals
b. aiding the injured
c. gathering evidences
d. All of the above
e None of the above
50 When the situation calls for a discreet approach, the officer should
a. stop the patrol car some distance from the scene and approach the
scene on foot, in complete silence and exercising extreme caution
b. park the patrol car directly in front of the scene
c avoid using a patrol car to gain the element of surprise
d. call for a SWAT Team
51 Upon arrival at the scene with no wounded person involved, an officer should
always focus on arresting the criminals
a. True
b. False
52. When responding to street fights, a patrol officer should immediately intervene
to break up the fight.
a. True
b. False
';,
53. When responding to calls for police assistance, a police officer should always
a. gather and note down in the patrol officer's logbook all available data
as to the nature of the calls, date,time and name of the caller
b. determine the crime committed
c. identify and question briefly the victim/complainant and possible
witnesses
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
54. When responding to calls due to found explosives in the area, the police officer
should never attempt to handle, move or lift the object. Instead contact
Operations Center and request for EODT.
a True
b. False
55 When responding to domestic conflicts between neighbors, a police officer
should immediately try to resolve the conflict to avoid further tension
a. True
b. False
56 When responding to calls from owners of beerhouses bars or inns or any other
similar establishments during night time, police officers should ask the owner
of the establishment to turn on the lights before entering the establishment
a True
b. False
57.A police officer can perform a spot check on individuals without determining
whether the circumstances warrant a request for backup.
a. True
b. False
58.A police officer can perform a pat-down search without due caution, restraint,
and sensitivity in a crowded area. ·
a. True
b False
59 Visual indicators that a suspect is carrying a firearm is reason enough for a
pat-down search.
a. True
b. False
60. Before performing a spot check, a police officer should read out the person's
rights under the Miranda Doctrine.
a. True
b. False
61. Whenever possible, pat-down searches should be conducted by at least two
(2) police officers, one to perform the search while the other provides
protective cover.
a. True
b. False
62. Which of the following are not what a police officer should do when performing
a spot check?
a. Wait for back-up when dealing with potentially dangerous
circumstances.
b. Remain vigilant for suspicious movements like attempting to retrieve
weapon.
c. Shall be courteous at all times but maintain caution.
d. Inquire about the person's identity.
e. None of the above
63 Which of the following 1s not a suspicious behaviour that can be a ground for a
spot check?
a. The individual flees at the sight of a Police Officer.
b. The individual 1s wearing a jacket and dark shades.
c The individual is in the vicinity of a recent crime.
d. Questionable presence of the individual in the area.
e. None of the above
64. If a suspect is carrying a backpack, the officer should first check the contents
of the bag for weapons or contraband.
a. True
b. False
65. In the event that a checkpoint is ignored and the motorist bumped the
roadblock in an attempt to elude arrest or avoid inspection, PNP personnel are
allowed to give warning shots.
a. True
b. False
c Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
66. In the event that the occupants of the vehicle open fire/engage the troops
manning the roadblock, use only necessary force to neutralize the suspects.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
67 Police car lights must be turned on at all times during a roadblock operation.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
•..
68. If the vehicle's windows are heavily tinted and the occupants cannot be seen,
shoot the windows of the car.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e On a case to case basis
69 What agency is mandated to provide active support to the AFP in ISO?
a. Department of the Interior and Local Government
b. Philippine National Police
c. National Bureau of Investigation
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
70. What Executive Order directs a specific agency to undertake active support to
the AFP in ISO for the suppression of insurgency?
a. Executive Order No. 423
b. Executive Order No. 546
c. Executive Order No. 653
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
71 What is the meaning of CTM?
a. Communist Terrorist Maneuver
b. Communist Terror Management
c Communist Terrorist Movement
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
72 The PNP may assume the lead role in ISO against the CTM, other threat
groups and organized crime groups engaged in armed offensives in urban
areas.
a. True
b. False
c Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
73 PNP units can operate as a single force and lateral coordination with the AFP
1s not a must.
a. True
b False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
/
'
/
'
74.Specific areas where armed confrontations occurred between government
forces and Commun1st Terrorist such as encounter, ambush, raid, liquidation
and other similar atrocities shall be treated as a crime scene.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
75 What are considered as priority targets of attacks by CTs?
a. Mobile Units
b. Police Stations
c. Headquarters Office
d All of the above
e None of the above
76. Duty station guards shall memorize and put into practice the __ General
Orders of a Duty Guard.
a 10
b 11
c 12
d. 13
e 14
77. What is the meaning of ASCPs?
a. Advanced Security Control Points
b. Advanced Security Control Perimeter
c. Advanced Security Control Panel
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
78. CTM members can be easily identified by PNP/AFP Forces as well as other .
LEAs; thus, coordination and conduct of police visibility patrols can be done in
a random manner.
a True
b False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
79.A police officer cannot arrest a member of the Senate in their home while the
Congress 1s 1n session with an offence punishable by more than six years
imprisonment.
a. True
b. False
80.Any person can perform a warrantless arrest on an individual who has
escaped from prison.
a. True
b. False
81 Bystanders can be summoned for assistance by a police officer making a
lawful arrest.
a. True
b False
82 A copy of the warrant of arrest for an individual should always be present when
executing an arrest
a True
b. False
83. When a police officer is denied entry to a building when serving a warrant of
arrest, he does not have the right to forcefully enter and should instead wait for
backup
a. True
b False
84 When arresting women or children, the arresting officer should call for a WCPD
officer or a policewoman to effect an arrest.
a True
b. False
85. Before interrogation, the person arrested shall have the right to be informed of
his right to demand physical examination by an independent and competent
doctor of his own choice
a. True
b False
86.A search warrant shall be issued only upon probable cause in connection with
______ to be determined personally by the judge after examination ·
under oath or affirmation of the complainant and the witnesses presented
a one specific offense
b. two offenses
c multiple offenses
d. All of the above
e None of the above
87. What is the validity period of a search warrant from the date of issuance?
a Seven (7) days
b. Ten (10) days
c. One (1) Month
d All of the above
e. None of the above
88. If the object or purpose of the search warrant cannot be accomplished within
the ten (10)-day validity period, the responsible police officer conducting the
search must ____
/
.,,.,,,,,.~ ..--.__ ""-·· .__ ·-
a continue even beyond the validity period of the search warrant
b. file before the issuing court another search warrant of the same object
or purpose
c file before the issuing court an application for the extension of the
validity period of said search warrant
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
89 Jf. in the implementation of the search warrant, its object or purpose cannot be
accomplished in one day, the search can be continued provided 1t
is still within the ten (10) validity period of the search warrant.
a. the following day, or days,
b. until completed,
c. upon approval of the COP
d A and B only
e. None of the above
90 What are the properties that may be the objects of a search warrant?
a Properties which are the subject of the offence.
b Ob1ects that are illegal per se, even 1f not particularly described in the
search warrant, may be seized under the plain view doctrine
c. Objects 1nclud1ng weapons, equipment, and other items used as
means of comm1tt1ng an offense.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
91 When can a Police Officer serve a search warrant 1n normal circumstances?
a. Anytime
b. Daytime
c. Nighttime
d All of the above
e. None of the above
92. In the conduct of search, 1f after giving notice of his purpose and authority, the
police officer 1s refused admittance to the place of search, which of the
following may be done by the implementing police officer?
a. He may break open any outer or inner door or window therein to
implement the warrant.
b. He may break open any part of a house or anything therein to
implement the warrant.
c. Liberate himself or any person lawfully aiding him when unlawfully
detained therein.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
93. Which of the following are prohibited acts in the conduct of search by virtue of
a Search Warrant?
a Houses, rooms, or other premises shall be searched in the presence of
the lawful occupant thereof or any member of his family.
..
/
b. Houses, rooms, or other premises shall be searched tn the presence of
two (2) witnesses of sufficient age and discretion residing in the same
locality.
c Lawful personal properties. papers, and other valuables not specifically
indicated or particularly described in the search warrant shall not be
taken.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
94 Which of the following 1s a lawful act of a police officer who confiscates
properties with a valid search warrant?
a Bundle of cash hidden in a closed cabinet near the table where the
object of the warrant was recovered.
b. Confiscation of lawful personal properties, papers and valuables not
indicated in the warrant.
c The police officer delivers the property seized to the chief of office who
requested for the issuance of the search warrant, together with an
inventory thereof, duly verified under oath
d. The police officer issues a detailed receipt of property seized to the
/awful occupant of the premises
e All of the above
95 Which of the following is responsible for investigating armed confrontation?
a. The police officers that are involved in the confrontation
b. The Special Weapons and Tactics Team.
c. The Territorial Police Unit.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
96. When strictly observing the the chain of custody, as much as practicable the
investigator-on-case (IOC) shall personally submit the recovered
firearms/shells/slugs to the ____
a. Chief of Police
b Prosecutor's Office
c local Crime Laboratory
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
97. Why are bullet cartridges and slugs recovered from the scene of the armed
confrontation be immediately submitted to the Crime Laboratory?
a. The bullets need to be cleaned and reloaded for re-use
b. For capturing and cross matching through IBIS.
c. Slugs and cartridges might be picked-up by civilians in the area
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
/
I
98. IBIS is used for capturing and cross-matching firearms and slugs What does
IBIS mean?
a. Internal Budget Inspection Section
b. Integrated Bal and Inspection System
c. International Ballistics Information System
d. Integrated Ballistics Identification System
e. None of the above
99.According to Rule 15.1, "The Police Unit that has territorial jurisdiction over the
area where the armed confrontation occurred shall "
a call the Scene of the Cnme Operation (SOCO) Team immediately
b. immediately undertake investigation and secure evidence.
c. secure the scene and immediately undertake the necessary
investigation
d. report the crime and call for back-up
e. All of the above
100 The Judicial Affidavit Rule applies to--,---~-
a all cnmrnal actions where the maximum imposable penalty does not
exceed six years
b all criminal actions where the imposable penalty exceeds six years
c all criminal actions where the minimum imposable penalty 1s six years
d. All of the above
e None of the above
101 A Judicial Affidavit contains all of the following except,
a the name, age, residence or business address, and occupation of the
witness
b. the name and address of the lawyer who conducts or supervises the
examination of the witness and the place where the examination is
being held
c. a statement that the witness is answering the questions asked of him,
fully conscious that he does so under oath, and that he may face
criminal liability for false testimony or perjury
d. the signature of a judge
e. None of the above
102 The Jud1c1al Affidavit Rule shall apply to all criminal actions where the
maximum impossible penalty does not exceed six years.
a True
b False
: .'r_r:, 1 , _
103 What 1s a Police Blotter?
a A Police Blotter is where all types of operational and undercover
dispatches shall be recorded containing the five "Ws" (who, what,
where, when and why) and one "H" (how) of an information
104.
b A Police Blotter is a logbook that contains the daily registry of all crime
c
d.
a.
b
c
d
e.
incident reports, official summaries of arrest, and other significant
events reported in a police station.
All ofthe above
None of the above
How many Police Blotter are being maintained by the Police Stations?
One
Two
Three
All of the above
None of the above
105. The PNP e-Blotter is fully discussed in the
-~-~~
a. PNP SOP Nr 2012-001 ("Crime Incident Reporting System")
b PNP SOP Nr 2012-001 ("Incident Recording System")
c. PNP SOP Nr 2002-001 ("Incident Reporting System")
d. All of the above
e None of the above
106. A separate police blotter shall be maintained for crime incident reports
involving violence against women and children and those cases involving child
in conflict with law to protect their privacy, pursuant to what particular RA?
a RA 6292 and RA 9334
b RA 9262 and RA 9344
c. RA 9344 and RA 9226
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
107 Each PNP operating unit shall also maintain and utilize the PNP Crime
Incident Reporting System (CIRS), generically dubbed as e-Blotter, an
electronic reporting system that _____
a. facilitates crime documentation
b modernizes data storage
c. provides quick and reliable transmission of crime information from
lower units and NOSUs of the PNP to the National Headquarters at
Camp Crame, Quezon City
d All of the above
e. None of the above
108 All crime incidents whether reported by the victims, witnesses or third
parties must be recorded in the police blotter, even under the following
circumstances: ______
a. When the offender is ill and is unlikely to recover or 1s too senile or too
mentally disturbed for proceedings to take place;
b. When the complainant or an essential witness is dead and the
proceedings cannot be pursued;
c. The victim or complainant or witness is a minor;
,..
d. All of the above
e None of the above
109. After an arrest, a suspect is taken into police custody and "booked" or
"processed". During booking, which of the following is not a procedure to be
performed by the designated police officers?
a. Record information about the suspect's alleged crime:
b. Perform a record search of the suspect's criminal background;
c. Take custody of any personal property carried by the suspect (i.e
keys, purse) and turn it over the operation section;
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
11 O Who should prepare or accomplish PNP Booking Form- 1 "Medical
Examination of Arrested Suspects Request Form"?
a Desk officer
b Duty investigator
c Duty officer
d All of the above
e. None of the above
111 Who should prepare a Turn-over Receipt Form (from Investigator to the Jailer)
known as PNP Booking Form-3 "Turn Over of Arrested Suspect/s Form and
"Jailer's Receipt of Suspects" form?
a Desk officer
b Duty investigator
c. Duty officer
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
112. Who is responsible for ensuring that the suspects' fingerprints or tenprints are
taken by the Fingerprint Technician using the PNPBF-2C "Tenpnnt Card"?
a. Desk officer
b. Duty investigator
c Duty officer
d. All of the above
e None of the above
113. The Investigator shall be responsible for preparing the necessary documents
except for----~
a affidavit-complaint
b affidavit of witness
c. Request for Medical Examination of the Arrested Suspect
d. booking and arrest report
e All of the above
114. What are the duties of the police during custodial investigation?
a The arresting officer, or the investigator as the case may be, shall
ensure that a person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation
shal!, at all times, be assisted by counsel, preferably of his own choice.
b The arresting officer, or the investigator as the case may be, must
inform the person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation of
his rights under the Miranda Doctrine in a language or dialect known to
and understood by him.
c. lf the person arrested, detained, or under custodial investrgation has
opted to give a sworn statement, the arresting officer, or the
investigator, as the case may be, must reduce it 1n writing
d All of the above
e. None of the above
115 Failure of the arresting offrcer, or the investigator, to observe the procedures in
taking extrajudicial confession shall render the confession as
evidence in any proceeding.
a Admissible
b Valid
c. Inadmissible
d. None of the above
116 Which of the following statements 1s not true about the rights of a person under
custodial investigation?
a After interrogation, the person under custodial investigation shall have
the right to be informed of his right to demand physical examination by
an independent and competent doctor of his own choice.
b Jf he cannot afford the services of a doctor of his own choice, he shall
be provided by the State with a competent and independent doctor to
conduct physical examination.
c. The physical examination of the person under custodial investigation
shall be contained in a medical report, which shall be attached to the
custodial investigation report.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
117 Which of the following statements is true about transporting a detained
prisoner?
a If transported by a patrol ieep, subject must be seated on the right rear
seat and the PNP escort personnel shall sit on the right rear seat
beside the subject
b. Hands of the subject should be secured by handcuffs under his seat.
c. Detention Prisoner can be transported using public utility land vehicles.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
118. Which of the following statements is true about visitation of prisoners?
a. The Custodial Center, an informal and temporary penal facility for
arrested suspects, shall not allow conjugal visits for detention
prisoners
b Visitors wearing the color of the detainee's uniform shall be advised to
wear other colors.
c All visitors shall be frisked for deadly weapons, firearms and other
prohibited items.
....,, '
d. All of the above
e None of the above
119 The following documents shall be submitted by concerned police officer during
inquest proceedings, except-~~--
a. affidaviVs of the witness/es if any
b. statement/s of the complainant/s
c. affidavit of arrest
d All of the above
e. None of the above
120 Within what time should arrested murder suspects be delivered to the proper
Judicial authorities?
a. 15 hrs
b. 12 hrs
c. 36 hrs
d 18 hrs
121. The first police officers to arrive at the crime scene are the who
were dispatched by the local police station/unit concerned after receipt of
1ncident!flash/alarm report.
a. SOCO
b. Duty Investigator
c. First Responders
d. Investigator-On-Case (IOC)
e. None of the above
122. The Policy Guidelines on processing of persons present at the cnme scene
apply to all, except for the _____
a. Suspects
b. victims
c. witnesses
d All of the above
e. None of the above
123. According to Rule 32, the following procedures shall be followed during a
hostage situation, except for one which is _____
a. a Critical Incident Management Committee shall be activated
immediately
b. the Local Chief Executive shall take the lead
c. incident scene shall be secured and isolated
d. unauthorized persons shall not be allowed entry and exit to the incident
scene
e None of the above
124. Which of the following 1s not included in the duties of the territorial police units
specified under rule 22.5?
a. Provide assistance 1n the evacuation of the injured persons to the
nearest hospital;
b Provide area security,
c Provide security back-up to the SOCO
d Control of the crowd at the crime scene;
e None of the above
125. In crisis management as soon as the perpetrators surrendered, or when they
are captured neutralized. the On-Scene Commander shal! ensure the
accomplishment of the following except _____
a processing and debriefing of hostages/victims, perpetrators,
witnesses; and key participants in the incident
b. documentation of the sworn statement of the hostages, victims,
perpetrators, witnesses and key participants 1n the incident
c. development of talking points for the briefing of the media.
d. the venue of the processing, debriefing and investigation shall be at a
neutral and secured place
e. None of the above
126 The SITGs (Special Investigation Task Group) shall spearhead and coordinate
the lnvest1gat1ve and prosecutorial efforts of the PNP to facilitate the speedy
resolution and successful prosecution of heinous/sensational cases.
a True
b False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
127. Before activating an SITG, the case must first undergo assessment by the
Chief of Police.
a. True
b. False
c Maybe
d. Upon approval
e On a case to case basis
128 Every SITG shall have five (5) months to resolve a case from the time it takes
cognizance of the said case
a. True
b. False
c Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
129 The creation of a SITG 1s not necessary for crimes that can be resolved in the
Police Station level.
a. True
b False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
130 Which of the following cases is not included for investigation in the Regional
Level SITG?
a. Killing of a CA Justice
b. Violence committed against an Undersecretary
c. Abduction of a Journalist
d. Assassination of a Congressman
e. Violence committed against a Governor
131 What are the teams composing the SITG?
a. Investigation Team
b. Evidence Team
c. Technical/Legal Support Team
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
132. There are only three point plan 1n the CIPLAN.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
133. Which of the following is not part of the CIPLAN?
a. Contingency
b. Execution
c Communication
d All of the above
e. None of the above
134. A case is considered as "cold case" if the SITG fails to resolve it w1th1n
a. one (1) month
b. two (2) months
c three (3) months
d. six (6) months
e one (1) year
135 The CIDG shall assume the responsibility of pursuing the investigation if the
case is not solved by the SITG which has been classified as cold case.
a True
b. False
c Maybe
d. Upon Approval
e. On a Case to Case Basis

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Napolcom reviewer e book 2015

  • 1. Salient Features of RA 7942 or The Philippine Mining Act of 1995 The RA 7942 or "The Philippine M1n1ng Act of 1995" and its Revised lmplement1ng Rules and Regulations (RIRR) 1s considered 1n the industry today as one of the most socia!ly and env1ronmenta!ly-sensltive leglslat1ons 1n its class It has spec1f1c prov1s1ons that take into cons1derat1on: • Local government empowerment; • Respect and concern for the 1nd1genous cultural commun1ties, • Equitable sharing of benefits of natural wealth, • Econom1c demands of present generation while prov1d1ng the necessary foundation for future generations, •Worldwide trend towards globa!1zat1on, and • Protection for and wise management of the environment GOVERNING PRINCIPLES The Implementing Rules and Regulations (DENR Admrn1strat1ve Order No.96-40) of the Philippine M1n1ng Act of 1995 provides strict adherence to the principle of SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT This strategy mandates that the needs of the present should be met without comprom1s1ng the ab1!1ty of the future generations to meet their own needs, with the view of 1mprov1ng the quality of life, both now and 1n the future Sustainable development provides that the use of mineral wealth shall be pro-people and pro-environment 1n susta1n1ng wealth creation and improve quality of life. The principles of SUSTAINABLE MINING operates under the following terms • Mining 1s a temporary land use for the creation of wealth. leading to an optimum land use in post-mining stage as consequence of progressive and engineered mine rehabi!itat1on works done 1n cycle with m1n1ng operations, • M1n!ng act1vit1es must always be guided by current Best Practices in environmental management committed to reducing the impacts of m1n1ng while efficiently and effectively protecting the environment • The wealth created as a result of m1n1ng accruing to the Government and tl1e community should lead to other wea!th-generatrng opportun1t1es for people 1n the commun1t1es and for other envlronment-respons1ble endeavors • Mining act1v1t1es shall be undertaken with due and equal regard for economic and environmental cons1derat1ons, as well as for health, safety, social and cultural concerns • Conservation of minerals 1s effected not only through technological eff1c1enc1es of m1n1ng operations but also through the recycling of mineral-based products, to effectively lengthen the usable life of mineral commod1t1es • The granting of m1n1ng rights shall harmonize ex1st1ng act1v1t1es, pol1c1es and programs of the Government that directly or indirectly promote self-reliance, development and resource management. Activities, pollc1es and programs that promote community-based, community-oriented and procedural development sha!I be encouraged, consistent with the principles of people empowerment and grassroots development
  • 2. 6 PNP members shall adhere to high standards of morality and decency and shall set good exan1ples for others to follow b_ Judicious Use of Authority c lntegnty d. Justice 7 PNP members shall strive constantly to respect the rights of others so that they can fulfill their duties and exercise their rights as human beings. parents, children, c1t1zens. workers, leaders. or 111 other capacities and to see to 1t that others do likewise a Humility b Orderliness c Integrity (j ,Ju:::tice 8 Once a dec1s1on 1s made, PNP members shall take legitimate means to achieve the goal even 1n the face of internal or external d1ff1cult1es and despite anything which might weaken their reso!ve in the course of time a Integrity I). Pe1::evcranc0 c Devotion to Duty d Physical Fitness and Health 9 PNP members shall obey lawful orders of and be courteous to superior officers and other appropriate authorities w1th1n the chain of command and they shall readily accept whenever they are assigned anywhere 1n the country a Conservation of Natural Resources b. Obedience to Superiors c Devotion to Duty d Physical Fitness and Health 1O Immediate Commanders/Directors shall be responsible for the effective superv1s1on, control and direction of their personnel and shall see to 1t that all government resources shall be managed, expended or utilized 1n accordance with laws and regulations and safeguard against losses thru illegal or improper disposition a. 1:ornn1~ind R0spo11sib1!ity b Loyalty c Disc1p!1ne d Commitment to Public Interest Formulated by PSSUPT JEROME SALE BAXINELA C,UTPDD
  • 3. REVIEW QUESTIONS on PNP Ethical Doctrine Multiple Choices. Choose the !Jest answer from the given facts. 1 PNP members shall seek self-improvement through career development and shall not directly or indirectly solicit influence or recommendation from pollt1c1ans, high ranking government officials prominent c1t1zens, persons affiliated with civic or religious organizations with regards to their assignments. promotions, transfer or those of the other members of the force a Social Awareness b Secrecy Discipline c. !·!on·floUcftation of Patronzo-e d Commitment to Democracy 2 PNP members shall guard the confidentiality of classified 1nformat1on against unauthorized disclosure. 1nclud1ng conf1dent1al aspects of official business, special orders. commun1cat1ons and other documents ~-· '.}uc1Gr::~/ 81sc1p!ine b Proper Care and Use of Public Property c. Respect for Human Rights d. Non-Partisanship 3 PNP n1embess shall provide services to everyone without d1scrim1nat1on regardless of party aff1l1atron 1n accordance with ex1st1ng laws and regulations a Social Awareness b< Non-Partisans!1ir) c Non-Sollc1tat1on of Patronage d Commitment to Democracy 4 PNP members shall always uphold public interest over and above personal interest a Command Respons1b1lity b Loyalty c Disc1pl1ne tL Cornmitn1ent to Public lnter~st 5 PNP members shall perform their duties with dedication, thoroughness, efficiency enthusiasm. determ1nat1on, and manifest concern for public welfare, and shall refrain from engaging in any activity which shall be conflict with their duties as public servants a Conservation of Natural Resources b Obedience to Superiors ,. iJevol :on to Dut;i' d Physical Fitness and Health
  • 4. Questions· 1 The Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act (RA 9147) aims to protect our country's fauna from 1!11c1t trade, abuse and destruction. through· a Conserving and protecting wrldl1fe species and their habitats, b Regulating the collection and trade of wildlife, c Pursuing, with due regard to the national interest, the Ph!l1pp1ne comn11tment to international conventions, protection of wildlife and their habitats: d. ln1t1at1ng or supporting sc1ent1f1c studies on the conservation of b1ologlcal d1vers1ty, e. All of the above. 2 The Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act (RA 9147) makes 1t unlawful for any person to undertake the following: a Inflicting injury which cripples and/or 1mpa1rs the reproductive system of w1ldl1fe species, b Introduction, reintroduction, or restocking of wildlife resources, c Trading of wildlife: d Transporting of wildlife, e All of the above 3 The penalty for v1olat1on of RA 9147 otherwise known as Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act 1s ________ a Imprisonment of as much as 12 years and a fine of P1 m1lhon pesos: b Imprisonment of as much as 1Oyears and a fine of P5 m1ll!on pesos. c. Imprisonment of as much as 5 years and a fine of P4 m1ll1on pesos, d Imprisonment of as much as 2 years and a fine of P3 million pesos, e None of the above ' (....1 ... 't -_ .''-·-~·.,-•_;} t_,: r (! " 'r' - _ .,,-, 'J. _L'_.
  • 5. the w1ld!1fe 1s killed or destroyed after 1t has been used 1n authorized research or experiments 1nfl1ct1ng 1niury which cripples and/or impairs the reproductive system of wildlife species effecting any of the following acts 1n cnt1cal habitats. dumping of waste products detrimental to w1!dllfe, squatting or otherwise occupying any portion of the critical habitat, mineral exploration and/or extraction, burning: logging; and quarrying introduction, re1ntroduct1on, or restocking of w1ldl1fe resources trading of wildlife collect1ng, hunting or possessing w1Jdl1fe. their by~products and derivatives gathering or destroying of active nests, nest trees, host plants and the like maltreating and/or 1nfl1ct1ng other 1nJunes not covered by the preceding paragraph, and transporting of w1ldl1fe For any person who undertakes these illegal acts, stiff penalties and fines are meted out Imprisonment of as much as 12 years and a fine of P1 million pesos shall be imposed, 1f inflicted or undertaken against species listed as critical A Wildlife Management Fund to be derived from fines imposed and damages awarded, fees, charges, donations, endowments, adm1nlstrat1ve fees or grants, shall be adm1n1stered by the Department of Environment and Natural Resources as a special account in the National Treasury It will be used primarily to finance rehab1litat1on or restoration of habitats due to v1olat1ons of this Act The Fund will also support sc1ent1f1c research, enforcement and monitoring act1vit1es, as we!I as enhancement of capab1l1t1es of relevant agencies With the approval of The W1!dhfe Resources Conservation and Protection Act, Congress continues its commitment to protect the environment to ensure an economica!!y and ecologically sustainable future. following the const1tut1onal mandate of the State to protect and advance the right of its people to "a balanced and healthful ecology 1n accord with rhythm and harmony of nature"
  • 6. --- RULE 24 - RULE 27 136 The involvement of PNP personnel during strikes lockouts and labor disputes 1 n gene:al shall be l1.m1ted to maintenance of peace and order, enforcement of laws. and 1mplementat1on of legal orders of the duly constituted authorities. 137 The PNP shall be render assistance to labor disputes upon written request addressed to the Regional Director/District Director concerr?ed. 138 In the case of actual violence. the police can respond without the written request. 139. Jnsofar as pract,1ceqble, no. PNP personnel shall be allowed to render police assistance rn cdnnect1on Anth a stnke or !ockc~!t 1f there is question or comp!air?t as regards his relationship by affinitv or consanguinity or any off;cia//leader of the parties in the controversy, or if he has financial or pecuniary interest therein. 140 PNP personnel detailed,as 'peacekeeping force 1n strike or lockout areas shall be in orescribed unifortn at all times. 141 PNP personnel shall exercise maximum tolerance and when called for by the s1tuat1on or when all 0th.er peaceful and non-violent means have been exhausted, police officers may employ such means as may be necessary and reasonable to prevent or repel an aqgressioR_ ' 142 The matter of determ1n1ng whether a stnke, picket or lockout 1s legal or not should be left to Department of Labor and Employment and its appropriate agencies 143 Whenever escorts are be provided, all escorts shall be 1n prescribed uniform at aft f!mes 144 The pertinent prov1s1ons of the Public Assembly Act of 1985 {Batas Pambansa Bilang 880), the Labor Code. of the Phil1pp1nes, 3S amended and other applicable laws, shall be observed during rallies strikes, demonstrations or other other public assemblies Law enforcement a.gents shall at all times· a. Exercise maximum tolerance. b. In case of unlawful aggression, only reasonable force may be employed to prevent or repel it. c. The employment of tear gas and water cannons shall be made under the control and supervision of the Grotind Commander. d. No arrest of any leader, organizer, or participant shall be made during the public assembly, unfess he/she violates any pertinent law as evidence warrants. 145 -rhe peacekeeping detail shall not be stationed in a pfaceat least one ht1ndred (100) meters away from tl1e area of activitv. 146 Whe11 the public assembly 1s held without a permit where a permit 1s required. the satd pub/Jc asse1nbly may be peacefulfy dispersed However. when the leaders or UtQd///Lt1f::i u[ µuiJ/iL' d::i::iti:1.11/J/y Ldll ::,/1uw 1:111 dµµf~LdilOfl [O/ µe11111l July ft/eJ d[ i/Je Off/Ct:: of the Mayor which has jur1sd1ctio11 over the plac,e where the rally will be held, at feast five (5) days prior to the 1nten(ied act1v1ty and the Mayor did not act on tf1e same, tf1e grant of the permit being then presumed under the law, and 1t will be the burden of the authorities to show that there has been a denial of the appflcatio11. 1n which case. the ref!}' .me}' be peecefuif}' d1spersed t.'7e foffrJ'.'.'1ng the procedure of .rna,-:1tntt!T1 toferer1ce prescribed by law ,
  • 7. 147 Police contingent monitoring a public assembly may be detailed and stationed at !e.e.~t o!1e hundred (100) meters at~1a~, from the area of acti'.'ftv. 148 An appl1cat1on for permit for a public assembly should be flied at least five (5) days at the Office of the Mayor before the act1v1ty 149 A public assembly in a public place must,have permit from the Mayor of the City l"'lr f/I, 1n1,-.1n".llif11 ~' ...........~'/"'"''") 150 Police officers are not allowed to drink alcoholic beverages during peaceful assemblies. 151 Gambling is':'prohibited. during a peaceful assembly and while monitoring the s!tu2t1on 152. The PNP shall respect and protect human dignitv, maintain and uphold the human rights of all persons. 153 Ground Commanders. are responsible in determining whether there is a permit for the ho!~inq of the pub!ic assemb!~'. 154-155 Tear gas. smoke grenades water cannons. or anv s1m1far ant1-r1ot device shall be used only wheri the public assembly is attended by actual violence or serious threats of violence, or deliberate destruction of property J56 When assistance 1s requested by the leaders/organizers. it shall be imeerative for the COM contingent to perform their duties while observing the rights of demonstrators. 157 The COM contingent shall not carry any kind of firearms but may be equipped '."/1th baton or not sticks. c:2sh helmets A/1th visor, gas mas~.s, beets er ankle-high shoes with shin guards 158 In cases when violence erupts. police officers are allowed to hit the violators only 1n fleshy part of the body such as arms; torso, legs, and thighs. 159. The duties of PNP personnel 1n any demoilt1on or ejectment act1v1ty shall be limited to the maintenance of peace and order. protection of fife and property, and enforcement of Jaws and legal orders. 160 Tear gas water cannon. and reasonable force shall be used only when all other peacefu! and non-'.'fo!ent meE?ns .'"?ave'been e.~ha!!sted. 161. PNP personnel tasked to prqv1de police assistance shall be in prescribed uniform during the actual df!molition. They Shall limited only to occupying the first line of law enforcement and c1v1I disturbance control; shall not part1c1pate 1n the physical d1smantl1ng of any structure subject of demol1t1on· and shall use only necessary and reasonable force 162. The request for police assistance 1s based on an order of the court. gL1as1-tud1c1al or adm1t11strat1ve bodies Tl1e written request tor police assistance shall be signed bv the Sheriff or equivalent off1ce1 1n quas1-1ud1c1al or adm1n1strat1ve bodies.
  • 8. RULE 28 - RULE 31 163 The request for police assistance shall be submitted to the Office of the Chief PNP 1n case the final decision or order to be 1n1plemented 1s rendered by the Supreme Court, the Court of Appeals, the Court of Tax Appeals, the Sand1ganbayan, quas1- JUd1c1al bodies or adm1n1strat1ve bodies 164 If the request for police assistance sat1sf1es all the requirements, police assistance shall be rendered within three (3) working davs from receipt of the d1rect1ve from the C, PNP or RO, PRO. unless a specific period 1d written 1n the order or due to inherent 1mposs1b1l1ty of rendering assistance. a longer 1s 1·equ1red 165 In case of direct f1l1ng or request to local police units or operational support units, the request shall be cef,orred 0 tlJe OCPNr or RD, PRO, as appropriate In the meantime, no police assistance shall be rendered until the CPNP or RD, PRO shall have acted on the request 166-16/ I he police assistance shall only be granted upon the written request ot COMELEC or DILG, acc'ompanied with the original or authenticated copy of the final dec1s1on or order or resolution to be implemented 168 The approving' aut)fqrity on request for police assistance from the DILG or CO~.~ELEC is the Chief P,..!P. . ,. ' 169 The police assistance shall. be rendered within three (3) working days from receipt on the d1rect1ve frOm the C, PNP 170 It 1s true that police assistance can also be rendered for a longer period when required b~' c1rcumste:ic:es 171 The Special Task Group Commander tasked to render police assistance shall have the d1scret1on to employ suff1c1ent number of the PNP personnel 172-173 The police tean1 that will render police assistance should be led by a Police Ccmm!ss1oned Off•cer (PCO) •11th the rank of fo!ice Se.riior !r?spector .A.II members of the Special tasked Group shall be in prescribed uniform when rendering police assistance. 174 The role of the PNP when rendering police assistance shall be lirn1ted to maintenance of oeace and order. crowd control. and the securitv of the dulv authorized officer of the COMELEC, DILG or LGU concerned 1n the 1mplementat1on of dec1s1on/order/resolut1on 175 In performing their role, the PNP personnel shall at all times observe maximum tolerance and respect for human rights and shall always exercise utmost impartiality and neutrality in effecting its role. 176 The request for police assistance 1n the 1mplementat1on of final orders, dec1s1011s, Resolutions or CLOAs can only be granted upon the written request submitted by the Agrarian Reform Officer or any authorized officer of DAR. 177 Examples of Prel1m1nary Agrarian Act1v1t1es 1. Land Survey 2. Field Investigation 3. Ocular Inspection 4. fvieeiir1y Ueiwt:e11 ar.:iudl a11U µule11ii<1i Ayrd1idr1 1elu1111 Ber1eliGidrie::. 5. Post Jnstallatio11
  • 9. 6. Landholding tagging 7..ll.na!og0us cas'2S 178 Police assistance 1n the 1mplementat1on of CARP shall be rendered onlv upon a written request submitted by the Agrarian reform Officer or anv authorized Officer of DAR. 179 It 1s true that police assistance 1n the 1mplementat1on of CARP shall be provided only as requested by DAR 180 It is true that the scope of the resistance to be encountered and the general peace and order cond1t1on 1n the area are the things to be considered by the head of office or unit tasked to renper police assistance 1n employing suft1c1ent number of the PNP personnel ,. -181 It 1s true that there are cases when a higher ranking Officer 1s necessary to lead the police team rendering assistance 182_ The police tean1 that will render police assistance should be led by a Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) 'with the rank of Police Senior Inspector. ' 183 It is true thpt the use of force shall only be resorted to for self-defense and defense of strangers 184 In no case shall PNP members participate in the implementation of decision/order/resolution or in the conduct of any of the preliminary agrarian activities, which shall be und~rtaken by the duly authorized officer of the DAR. The duly authorized officer of the DAR shall have the final disposition whether to proceed or not with the implementation of the decision/order/resolution. 185 When the DAR personnel are refused to adrnrttance rnto the property, the PNP P.ersonnel cannot encroach on the propertv without an order from the DAR specifically for the purpose. In the imple1nentation of final orders or in the conduct of preliminary agrarian activities, the authority to break into the property or into a building shall be specifically provide_d in the order. 186. Examples of dec1s1ons/orders of the court, quas1-Jud1c1al or adm1n1stratlve bodies that are Immediately executor a. .,.emporary Restra1n1niJ Urde'r b. Writ of Preliminary Injunction c. Replevin d. Writ of Preliminary Attachment e. Receivership [. Orivisiu11di rt:111t:!Jie::. Ur1dt:!1 ii1t:: Hu1ttdr1 StjCLJr11iiy Aci g. Temporary Protection Order under the Anti-Violence Against Women and their Children Act h. Protection Order under the Anti-Child Pornography Act i. Analogous cases. 187 lt 1s true that Prov1s1onal rerned1es under the Human Security Act 1s not immediately execu'tory 188. Dec1s1ons/orders issued' by the court, quas1-1udlc1al or adm1n1strat1ve bodies that are immediately executory shall be submitted to the Regional Director (RDJ of the Police Regional Office (PRO) having jurisdiction of the place where the decision/order shall be implemented. 1
  • 10. 189 It 1s false that Dec1s1ons/orders issued by the court, quas1-Jud1c1al or admin1strat1ve bod!es th2t 2re :::ir::ed!3te!~' e:vecutory sha!! be subm!tted to the Chief. Pr-.JP 190 It 1s true that the RD. PRO shall be the approving authority 1n rendering police assistance 1n the 1n1plementat1011 of dec1si6ns/orders of the court, quas1-Judic1al or adn11n1strat1ve bodies tl1at are 1mmed1.?lte/y executory 191 It 1s false that the wnrten request of the Sherrff or equivalent officer 1n quas1-Jud1c1al or admrn1strat1ve bodres 1s not needed 1n the request for police assistance 192 It 1s true that tl1e ong1nal or duly authent1caied copy ot the dec1sion/order/resolut1on sought to be implemented 1s also required 1n the request for police assistance 193 It 1s true that, titl'e use 0f reasona·ble force shall only be resorted to for self-defense and defense of strangers 194. It 1s true D1al9gue with those who may be affected by the 1mplementat1on of the dec1s1on/order/reso!ut!on 1s encouraged to prevent v1o!ence, and the ass!stance of !ocal public off1c1als, when warranted, sho~ld be requested 195 1t 1s true that the Sheriff or the equivalent officer of quas1-Jud1c1al or adm1n1strat1ve bodies does not have the final disposition whether to proceed with the imolementation of the decision/orderlresol!1tion or not. RULE 32 - RULE 33 196 The Ground Commander 1s the main person in-charge during hostage/crisis operation 197 The safety of the hostage shall always be paramount during a hostage s1tuat1on. 198 The mediator will act 21s the referee between the negotiator and the hostage-taker 199 Emergency Response Plan depends on the threat posed by the hostage-takers and need of the Negotiation ·ream .and On-Scene Commander 200 WCPD 1s 111-charge of the 1nvest1gat1on of complaints and reports 1nvolv1ng all forms of violence against women and their children 201 Under the Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006, a child aged 15 years and below shall be exempt from criminal l1ab1l1t1es. 202 Under RA 7610, "children" refers to those below 18 vears of age or older but are incapable of tak1ng care of themselves 203 The child-victim shall be handled preferably by a police officer of the same gender as the v1ct1m_ · RULE 34 204 Bomb is a container filled with explosive, 1ncendrary material, smoke, gas, or other destructive substance, designed to explode 205 A bomb may also be referred to as Improvised Explosives Device {/ED) or Ordnance.
  • 11. 206 Bomb Threat 1s either a written or verbal threat communicated through electronic, or2! or other means th2t thre2tens tc p!ace or use an !ED at a certain t!me, date or p!ace against specific person or place 207 It 1s true that deteri111ned bombers do not frequently give warnings of possible explos1on/1ncend1ary attack 208 It 1s false that the consequences of conviction for "threatening" are as serious as t!1ose that could result from actual pfaceme11tll!1it1atton of a bomb 209 It 1s true that a bomb threat 1s considered only a threat until something v1s1ble 1s found 210 There are foul (4.l·opti'on's '1n cb'rls1denng evacuation 211 lt 1s true that unless 'a bomb 1s found, personnel may not order an evacuation of the affected area, but may .inform the person in-charge of the property of the need to evacuate 212 lf a suspected device 1s d1scoveretj, cause the evacuation of people in the affected area to a distance 'of at least ,300 meters away. 213 Ti1e fuiiow111d 111lu1111di1u11 ::.i'1ouiU be Ueie11nu1eU Li y li1e lu~i 1&~fJUl1Ue1 11 li1e investigators have not yet arrived a. Time of detonation/explosion; b, Time when tl1e calf for bomb threat was received; and c. Type of device. RULE 35 - RULE 40 214 The Anti-Terrorism Council was mandated by law to assume the respons1bi11ty for the proper and effective 1mplementat1on of the anti-terrorism policy of the country. 215 Executive Secretarv 1s the chairman of the Anti-Terrorism Council 216 The On-Scene Co 1 m1nander 1s 1n~charge of 1n1t1ally determ1n1ng 1f there 1s a h1gh degree of probability that the 1nc1dent 1s a terrorist attack 217 CIMTG -Critical !nc1dent Management Task Group 218 CIMC- Critical Incident Management Committee. 219 Police Regional Office (PRO) ensures the management and containment of the 1nc1dent and coord~n2te.s 1,vith the TF Comm2nder during the development of the case. 220-221 When bombing attacks and explosions perpetrated by the terrorist, the lnter- Aqency Protocol on Explosives and Related Incidents 1nvest1gat1on among the PNP AFP NB/ and PCG shall be strictly followed 222 PBDC - Ph1l1pp1ne Bomb Data Center. 223. PBDC - Ph11ipp1ne Bomb 'Data Center 1s the fusion center for the reporting of ERls 224 Cybercrime Response 1s the actual police 1ntervent1on 1n cybercnme 1nc1dent 225 The acqu1sit1on of ev1dent1ary value 1s traceable w1th1n the computer's hardware, software and its network.
  • 12. officer/team, shall not render void and invalid such seizures of and custody over said iterns. 239 Types of K1dnapp1ng a. Kidnapping by Organized Crime Group/Criminal Group (with ransom) b. Kidnapping by Threat Groups/Terrorists c. kidnap,oing by Other Individuals 240 Upon receipt of k1dnapp1ng 1nc1dent report, the police officer shall make an incident recording, deploy first responders and alert all concerned authorities/tasked groups like the local territorial units, Criminal investigation and detection Group and the Anti~Kidnappinq Group (AKG). 241. Upon 1n1t1al assessment of the' type of k1d11app1ng and upon conf1rmat1on that the k1dnapp1ng incident is true, the case shall be referred to the AKG. other territorial units or to higher authority. · 242 It t11e k1dnapp-1ng was. perpetrated by Organized Crime Group/Cnm1nal Group (OGG/CG) and with ransom demand, .1t shall be referred to the AKG for their initial action/operational response 243. If the k1dnapp1ng was pe1·petrated by Threat Groups/Terrorists, it shall be referred to the higher author:t!8S for the 2ct:vat1on of lFP~PNP ..laint Tas.~ Force, Critfca! Incident Management Committee (CIMCJ or Critical Incident management Task Group (C/MTG); local Chief Executive; and other concerned agencies. 244 lf the k1dnapp1ng was perpetrated by other 1nd1v1duals, 1t shall be referred to the concerned PNP territorial units for aoorooriate ooerational resoonse. 245 lf the incident 1s of grave national importance with the 1mpl1cat1ons to national security including those with serious d1plomat1c, poht1cal and peace and order ram1f1cat1ons rt shall be referred to CIMTG - Cnt1cal Incident Task GrouQ 246 Rule 40 Whatever the reason. the transfer of respons1b1l1ty during cr1s1s musty always include transfer of cornmand briefing which may be oral, written or a comb1nat1on of both that should be attended by tile key members of CIMC/CIMTG 247 NDRRMC - National Disaster. Risk Reduction and Management Council 248 lt 1s true that Mcln'-mad8 cr1t1cal 1nc1dents are the respons1b1J1t1es of the National and Local Peace and Order Council (NPOC) 249. The PNP, being at the forefront of crisis s1tuat1ons, must play an active role by oroan1z1no its own Incident Manaaeriient Comm1ttee (IMC) true. - - . 250 It 1s false that t11e PNP CIMC acts indeµendently and not 111 support to tile NDRRMC and NPOC 251. TOCA is the Chairman of the PNP NHO Critical Incident Management Committee ror-.io r-.11-1n r1111r' ' ..... •'-- ...,, ....~, 252 The peace and order Council chair 1s the Chairman of the Critical Incident Manaqe1T1ent Committee false 253 Level 4 (Extremel is the alert level when a man~made Cnt1cal Incident Has JUSt 'h mp+ rl "r 1n01rlnnh:• ':>rn nvr.or>tnrl occurred or has JUS, ~e~:n pre-e.., .e~, ..,... ,..,...,...,...,_, ~·.., ~"r--""''-'"'
  • 13. 254 There are stages of Disaster management 1. Pre-Dfsa5ter .S!age - Pr0 .4t::!ive .455€55tnent (Le'€! 1 -Green) 2. Disaster Response Stage - Disaster Incident management (Level 2- Red) 3. Post Disaster Stage - Support to recovery and Rehabilitation Efforts (Level 3- Wl1ite) 255 Support and recovery effort are at the Pro-Active Assessment Level False 256 It 1s true that 1n the conduct of man-made cnt1cal 1nc1dent and disaster relief operations, security and safety of personnel must always be considered 257-258 The respons1b1l1ty of addressing crrs1s can be transferred during an 1nc1dent ff it arows bevond the caoabiJitv of the establisl1ed C/MTG in handlina the arowina needs of the incident or if.there1 is jt1risdictional change, when the incident moves location or area of responsibilt~ 259 The transfer of respons1b!l1ty during crisis must alvvays include transfer of command briefing which mav be oral, written or a combination of both that should be attended by the key members of the CMC!C/MTG. 260 To attain a s1nooth trans1t1on of command respons1b1l1ty, the Regional CMC takes over when the situation 'requires employment of security forces and utilization of resources of the Regional level organizations and beyond; upon the , recommendat1on of the Provrncial CMC; rncident involves foreign nationals, either perpetrators or viCtims; and crisis affects peace process. national tourism industry and other major industries. 261 The national CMC takes over when incident affects two or more region; the hirohocf forrnricf fhro<>f loorol ;,...,,,.,/,rinn Y11<>cc r<>c••<>lf,, <>Harks· n<>finna/ jcc11ac "'"'°'. . . . . . . . - ............................. ___ · - · - · .............................. __ .............. [ •••• _ . . ! ........... .............. _ _. ... - at stake such as food, and communication structure, and environn1ent are threatened; and upon recommendation of the regional CMC. RULE 41 262 Unit Head/Chief of Ground Commander - responsible to respond to queries raised by the media during crisis 263 Ground Commander must designated/establish a media area for pooled coverage and ensure safetv of all media personnel covering the incident. 264 In case of inter-agency operations, the department agency with primary jurisdiction will determine the d1ssem1nat1on of appropriate media lines 265 All of the above
  • 14. REVIEW QUESTIONS on PNP Ethical Doctrine Multiple Choices. Choose the best answer from the given facts. 1 PNP members shall seek self-improvement through career development and shall not directly or 1nd1rectly solicit influence or recommendation from pol1t1cians, high ranking government officials prominent citizens, persons affiliated with c1v1c or relrgious organizations with regards to their assignments. promotions, transfer or those of the other members of the force a. Social Awareness b. Secrecy Discipline (';. [~on-Solicitation of Patronage d. Commitment to Democracy 2 PNP members shall guard the conf1dent1al1ty of classified 1nformat1on against unauthorized d1sc!osure, including conf1dent1al aspects of official business, special orders, communications and other documents. 2. Sec1ecy Discipline b Proper Care and Use of Public Property c. Respect for Human Rights d. Non-Part1sansh1p 3 PNP members shall provide services to everyone without d1scriminat1on, regardless of party aff1!1at1on 1n accordance with ex1st1ng laws and regulations a Social Awareness b. Non-Partisans!1ip c Non-Solicitation of Patronage d. Commitment to Democracy 4 PNP members shall always uphold public interest over and above personal interest. a. Command Respons1bil1ty b Loyalty c D1sc1pl1ne d. Commit1nent to Public Interest 5 PNP members shall perform their duties with ded1cat1on, thoroughness, efficiency enthusiasm, determination. and manifest concern for public welfare, and shall refrain from engaging in any act1v1ty which shall be conflict with their duties as public servants a Conservation of Natural Resources b Obedience to Superiors c. Devotion to Duty d. Physical Fitness and Health
  • 15. 6. PNP members shall adhere to high standards of morality and decency and shall set good examples for others to follow. b c d - ' ~ - r ' -- '' i - '' L~ Jud1c1ous Use of Authority Integrity Justice 7 PNP members shall strive constantly to respect the rights of others so that they can fulfill their duties and exercise their rights as human beings, parents, children, citizens, workers, leaders, or !n other capac1tres and to see to it that others do likewise. a. Hum1l1ty b Orderliness c Integrity d. Justice 8 Once a decision is made, PNP members shall take legitimate means to achieve the goa! even 1n the face of internal or external d1ff1culties and despite anything which might weaken thelr resolve in the course of time a Integrity I;. Perseverance c. Devotion to Duty d Physical Fitness and Health 9 PNP members shall obey lawful orders of and be courteous to superior officers and other appropriate authorities w1th1n the chain of command and they shall readily accept whenever they are assigned anywhere 1n the country a. Conservation of Natural Resources iJ. Obedience to Superiors c Devotion to Duty d Physical Fitness and Health 1O Immediate Commanders/Directors shall be responsible for the effective supervision. control and direction of their personnel and shall see to rt that all government resources shall be managed, expended or utilized in accordance with laws and regulations and safeguard against losses thru illegal or improper d1spos1tion a. Command Responsibility b. Loyalty c D1scipl1ne d Commitment to Public Interest Formulated by PSSUPT JEROME SALE BAXINELA C,UTPDD
  • 16. Reviewer on Criminal Justice System and RA 3019 The Philippine Constitution divides the government into three equal co-ordinated branches, namely, the legislative, Executive, and the Jud1c1ary 1 ) The government 1s d1vrded into three equal co-ordinated branches namely. a Congress, Senate, Supreme Court b RTC, CA, Supreme Court c Legislative, Executive and Judiciary d Congress, President, DOJ R None of the nhnvR II The agency pnman!y 1n charge of law enforcernent 1s the Ph1hpp1nes National Police which 1s under the control of the President through the DILG 2 ) The agency primarily responsible for law enforcement 1n the Philippines 1s Ihe a Office of the President b Department of Justice c- n11 G d. Philippine National Police e. Armed Forces of the Ph11ipp1nes Ill The Five Pill3r.;; of Cri1111n~I ~lu5t!ce Systern 8rr::., the law Pnforcernent, thP prosecutron; the JUd1c1ary; correctional Institution. and Community, 3 ) The Five Pillars of Criminal Justice system are a prosecution, the Judiciary, correctional lnstltut1on, Community: and Jaw enforcement b. Law Enforcement; the Prosecution; the Judiciary; Criminal Institution; and Community c, the Jud1c1ary, correctional lnst1tut1on, Community; law enforcement, and the Prosecution d correctional lnst1tut1on, Community, enforcement, the Prosecution and Jud1c1ary e Communrty, Law Enforcement, prosecution, 1ud1c1ary; and law enforcement IV Under the five Pillars, three falls under the Executive branch of the governmet, namely the law enforcement, Prosecution and Correctional lnst1tut1on 4 ) Of the five Pillars, three falls under the executive branch of the government, namely rage 1 of J
  • 17. a Jud1c1ary, law enforcement and prosecution b Correctional 1nstltut1on, prosecution 8nd JUd1c1ary c.. l~w P.nforc.P.mP.nt, proser:ution flnrl CorrP.c.tion~ lnstit11tion d Community, law enforcement and JUd1cua1ry e Prosecution, Jud1c1ary and community I ThE> law enforcement pr0c-Ps.-=- bea1ns thf? m0m0nt the crime 1s rernrt1=1d nr a complaint 1s fried before the police 5 ) The law enforcement process begins the moment a the suspect Is arrested b a case has been filed against the arrested suspect c the Police arrives at the crime scene e. the crime is reported or a complaint is filed before the police VI The time limit for rendering Judgment 1s twenty four months for the Supreme Court, twelve months for lower Collegiate Courts, three months for other lower courts. 6 ) The time limit for the supreme court to render judgment 1s a 24 months b 12 months c 9 months d 6 months e 3 months 7 ) The time l1m1t for Collegiate courts to render judgment 1s a 24 months b 12 months c 9 months d 6 months e 3 months 8 ) The time limit for other lower courts to render Judgment 1s a 24 months b 12 months c 9 months d 6 months e 3 months Vil Republic Act 3019 1s otherwise known as the Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act 9 ) Republic Act 3019 1s otherwise known as Paec 2 ot 3
  • 18. a Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Off1c1als and Employees b. Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act c Anti-Plunder Act d Anti-sexual harassment Act VIII Under Section 14 of RA 3019, unsolicited gifts or presents of small or 1ns1gn1f1cant value offered or given as a mere ordinary token of gratitude or friendship according to local customs or usaQe. shall be excepted from the prov1s1ons of this Act 10 ) Excepted from the prov1s1on of this Act are a Birthday gifts b Anniversary Gifts c Smaii amounts d. unsolicited gifts or presents of small or insignificant value offered or given as a mere ordinary token of gratitude or friendship according to local customs or usage, unsolicited gifts or presents of small or insignificant value offered or given as a mere ordinary token of gratitude or friendship according to local customs or usage. e a, b, and c only IX. Under Section 11 of RA 3019. All offenses punishable under this act shall prescribe in fifteen years 1O ) All offenses punishable under this Act shall prescribe 1n a 3 years h s yeRr~ c. 10 years d. 15 years e Does not prescribe Page 3 of 3
  • 19. Policy and Guidelines on Grievance Mechanism for Uniformed PNP Personnel (NAPOLCOM Memo Circular No. 2008-0116 dated January 16, 2006) SCOPE: a) VVrongfuJ or non-1mplementat1on and/or v1olat1on of pol1c1es and procedures vvh1ch affect PNP personnel from recru1t111ent and/or appointment to promot1on, transfer. detai!/des1gnation/ass1gnment/placement termination, d1srnissal. and other related issues that affect them, b) Wrongful or non-1mplementat1on and/or v1olat1on of pol1c1es and procedures on econo1n1c and financial issues and other terms and cond1t1ons of employment fixed by lavv 1nclud1ng salaries, incentives, 1J.iork1ng hours, leave benefits, and other related terms and cond1t1ons, c) Physical working conditions· and d) lnterpe1-sonal relat1onsh1ps and linkages Grievance - an employee's exp1-essed (written or spoken) feelings of discontentment and d1ssat1sfact1on on any or all of the rnatters or rssues enumerated in the scope. Not subject to Grievance: a 01sc1pl1na1-y L:ases 'vh1c..h shall be resolvi::d pursuant co ti1e Un1fonn Rules on Ad1111n1strat1ve Cases, b Complaints and official actrons on Head of Offices pertarn1ng to the exercise of d1sc1pl1nary powers under RA 6975 where spec1f1c procedures for relief through appeal are hereby provided, c An objection to the terms or prov1s1ons of a policy, procedure, or rule and regulation. d Sexual harassment cases as provided for 1n RA 7877. and e Anonymous grievance and/or complaints Complaint - refers to grievance 1n writing which has 1n the first instance and 1n the employee's op1n1on had been ignored overridden or dropped without due consideration at the lowest level of office where the complainant 1s assigned and has been lodged or elevated to the next level of office
  • 20. ,- lnd1v1duaJ or Group Complainant GRIEVANCE RESOLUTION FLOW CHART : Peer ----- -~-DlfeciOr Highef ~ SupeN1sor .--D1reclo-r Hlg-her--~--r'LevBTHeadOf- - : Supervisor 1 Office --1 stL.eVe1-H€8d_Of__ --:---211JT..eve1or Head_o_f Off1ce/Gllevance Q Office , Comrn1ttee 1 .'--~- -- _____ J._ - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - ; Gnevance- in Wntlng . : Submitted to --~1-s: LevelHead OfOffice-~ ·Y-;;~;vefHeacior ~ CSC Regional Office PRINCIPLES AND POLICIES: 1 Complainant shall first discuss his problems vv1th his Immediate Supervisor before considering the f1f1ng of a formal written complaint, 2 Complaint sha1/ b9 assured freeclon1 fron1 cn·~rc:on. a1scnrnir1a11on harnssrne?11t or 1eprisar 3 Grievances shall be settled at the Court possible level of office, 4 Grievance proceeding shall be aimed at determ1n1ng ·what 1s right" and not "who is right". 5 The right to appeal shall not be curtailed. 6 Grievance and/or complaint concerning prornot1on shall be g111en due process However, the par·ty aggrieved may elect to proceed either under this procedure or pursuant to any other applicable laws/regulations, 7 All proceedings shall be treated as confidential: 8 Grievance proceedings shall not be bound by formal legal rules and techn1cal1t1es, 9 The service of legal counsel for the parties shall not be allowed during the heanng The Gnevance Committee however shall have a legal officer as member to guide the chairman and the members on issues and procedures:
  • 21. 1o In no case shall members of the PNP ventilate the grievances direct to any foru1n outside tl1e PNP organ1zat1on. {conduct unbecoming of an officer) 11 Supervisors and/or HO who refuse to take action on a grievance shall be liable for neglect of duty QUESTIONS ON GRIEVANCE: An employee's expressed (vvntten or spoken) feelings of discontentment and d1ssat1sfactlon on any or all of the n1atters or issues like non-1mplementat1on of pol1c1es and procedure on appointment or promotion except A Complaint B Appeal C. Grievance D Motion E None of the above 2 All of the following could be resolved througl1 the Grievance Machinery A Interpersonal relat1onsh1ps B. Sexual harassrnent cases C r'hys:c;,:;,i '/v'Orl-:1ng COl1di11011S D V1olat1on of pol1c1es and procedures on recru1t1nent, appo1ntn1ent. promoi1on or transfer E Wrongful or non-1mplementat1on and/or v1olat1on of pol1c1es and procedures on economic and financial issues 3 The cornpla1nant thru the Grievance Machinery shall first discuss his problems with the ______ A Direct Supervisor or Head of Office at the lowest level of 9ffice B Chief, PNP C Regional Director D Media E All of the above 4 Principles and Policies of the Grievance Machinery include the following except A Complainant shall first discuss his problems /Jllh his 1n1med1ate supervisor; 8 All proceedings shall be treated as conf1dent1al; C Grievance proceeding shall be aimed at determining "what ls right" and not "vvho 1s right;"
  • 22. 0. Members of the PNP may ventilate their grievances directly to any forum outside the PNP organization; E All of the above 5 If the complainant 1s not satisfied with the dec1s1on of the 3rd Level He2d Of Office during the last stage, the case shall be referred within fifteen (15) days to the A Barangay B CSC Regional Office c PLEB D RAB E SILG
  • 23. Questions: 1 What 1s RA 8445 as amended by RA 10631? a The Animal Welfare Act of 1998 b The Animal Welfare Act of 1997 c The Animal Welfare Act of 1996 d The Animal Welfare Act of 1996. e None of the above 2 Under RA 8445 as amended by RA 10631, the killing of any animal other than cattle, pigs, goats, sheep, poultry, rabbits, carabaos and horses 1s l1kew1se hereby unlawful except 1n the following instances. a When 1t 1s done as part of the rel1g1ous rituals of an established rellg1on or sect or a ritual required by tribal or ethnic custom of 1nd1genous cultural commun1t1es, b. When the pet animal is afflicted wlth an incurable communicable disease as determined and certified by a duly licensed veterinarian, c. When the kll!1ng 1s deemed necessary to put an end to the misery suffered by the animal as determined and certified by a duly licensed veterinarian, d. When 1t 1s done to prevent an imminent danger to the life or limb of a human being, e. All of the above 3. Under RA 8445 as amended by RA 10631, abandonment shall constitute an act of maltreatment If 1t results to , the person liable shal suffer the maximum penalty a death of the animal, b. sickness of the animal, c. happiness of the animal, d longings of the animal; e none of the above 4 Under RA 8445 as amended by RA 10631, the penalty of two years and one day"io three years and/or a fine not exceeding Php200,000 00 shall be imposed if the offense 1s committed by any of the following a a syndicate, b an offender who makes business out of cruelty to an animal, c. a public officer or employee, d where at least three animals are Involved, e. all of the above
  • 24. Salient Features of RA 8445 as amended by RA 10631 On October 3, 2014, Republic Act (RA) 10631 was signed into law by Pres Benigno S Aquino Ill which amends RA 8445 othervv1se known as "The Animal Welfare Act of 1998 " The purpose of RA 10631 1s to protect and promote the welfare of all terrestrial, aquatic and marine animals 1n the Philippines. How to protect and promote the welfare of these animals? These animals are protected and their welfare are promoted by superv1s1ng and regulating the establishment and operations of all fac1l1t1es ut1l1zed for breeding, marnta1n1ng, keeping. treating or tra1n1ng of all animals erther as objects of trade or as household pets Please take note that pets do include birds What 1s the def1n1t1on of animal welfare? Animal Welfare - pertains to the physical and psychological well-being of animals. It includes, but not limited to, the avoidance of abuse, maltreatment, cruelty and exploitation of animals by humans by rna1nta1n1ng appropriate standards of accommodation, feeding and general care, the prevention and treatment of disease and the assurance of freedom from fear, distress, harassment, and unnecessary discomfort and pain, and allowing animals to express normal behavior Proh1b1ted Acts under RA 10631as1t amended Seclion 6 of RA 8485' It shall be UNLAWFUL for any person to 1 torture any animal; 2 neglect to provide adequate care, 3 neglect to provide sustenance of care, 4 maltreat any animal, 5 subject any dog or horse to dogfights or horsef1ghts, 6 kill or cause or procure to be tortured, 7 deprived of adequate care, sustenance or shelter, B maltreat or use the same In research or experiments not expressly authorized by the Committee on Animal Welfare. The k1ll1ng of any animal other than cattle, pigs, goats. sheep, poultry, rabbits. carabaos and horses 1s l1kew1se hereby unlawful except 1n the following instances (1) When 1t is done as part of the religious rituals of an established rel1g1on or sect or a ritual required by tribal or ethnic custom of indigenous cultural communities, however, leaders shall keep records rn cooperation with the Committee on Animal Welfare; (2) When the pet animal 1s afflicted with an incurable communicable disease as determined and cert1f1ed by a duly licensed vetennanan, (3) When the killing is deemed necessary to put an end to the misery suffered by the animal as determined and cert1f1ed by a duly licensed vetennanan, (4) When 1t 1s done to prevent an imminent danger to the life or limb of a human being, (5) When done for the purpose of animal population control, (6) When the animal 1s killed after 1t has been used 1n authorized research or experiments, and (7) Any other ground analogous to the foregoing as determined and cert1f1ed licensed veterinarian As provided 1n the additional section in the amending law, 1t 1s also UNLAWFUL for any person who has custody of an animal to abandon the animal.
  • 25. - - - - - - - - - What 1s an abandonment? Abandonment - means the relinquishment of all rights, title, claim, or possession of the animal with the 1ntent1on of not reclaiming it or resuming its ownership or possession Abandonment shall constitute an act of maltreatment If 1t results to death of the animal, the person !1able shall suffer the maximum penalty PENALTIES for animal cruelty, maltreatment or neglect 1 Imprisonment of one year and six months and one day to two years and/or a fine not exceeding One Hundred Thousand Pesos if the animal sub1ected to cruelty, maltreatment or neglect DIES; 2 Imprisonment of one year and one day to one year and six months and/or a fine not exceeding Fifty Thousand Pesos 1f the animal subjected to cruelty, maltreatment or neglect survives but 1s SEVERELY INJURED WITH LOSS OF ITS FACULTY TO SURVIVE ON ITS OWN AND NEEDING HUMAN INTERVENTION TO SUSTAIN ITS LIFE; and 3. lmpnsonment of six months to one year and/or a fine not exceeding Thirty Thousand Pesos for subjecting any animal to cruelty, maltreatment or neglect but without causing its death or 1ncapacitat1ng it to survive on its own lf the violation is committed by a Juridical person, the officer responsible thereof shall serve Imprisonment If 1t 1s committed by an alien, he or she shall be immediately deported after the service of sentence without any further proceeding The penalty of two years and one day to three years and/or a fine not exceeding Two Hundred Thousand Pesos shall be imposed 1f the offense 1s committed by any of the following: 1 a syndicate; 2. an offender who makes business out of cruelty to an animal, 3 a public officer or employee, or 4 where at least three animals are involved
  • 26. Questions: 1. The Implementing Rules and Regulations (DENR Admin1strat1ve Order No.96-40) of the Ph1hpp1ne M1n1ng Act of 1995 provides stnct adherence to,__________ This strategy mandates that the needs of the present should be met without compromising the ability of the future generations to meet their own needs, with the view of 1mprov1ng the quality of life, both now and 1n the future a the pnnc1ple of sustainable development. b the pnnc1ple of sustainable farming, c the principle of sustainable agriculture; d. the principle of sustainable family; e none of the above. 2 The RA 7942 otherwise known as _______ a. The Philippine Mining Act of 1995; b. The Philippine Mining Act of 1996; c The Ph1l1ppme Mining Act of 1997; d. The Philippine Mining Act of 1998, e. None of the above 3. 1s an agreement where the Government and the Contractor organize a Joint venture company with both parties having equity shares Aside from earnings in equity. the Government shall be entitled to a share 1n the gross output a Mineral Production Sharing Agreement, b Mineral Agreement: c Joint Venture Agreement, d Co-Product!on Agreement; e None of the above.
  • 27. ORGANIZATIONAL IMPLEMENTATION The Mining Act reverts back the Mines and Geosc1ences Bureau (MGB) from a Staff to a Line Bureau Under this arrangement, the MGB Central Office has now the administrative 1unsd1ct1on and responsib1l1ty over its regional offices The Line Bureau structure was contemplated to ensure organ1zat1onal eff1c1ency and flex1b1lity in managing limited resources and technical expertise The authont!es/respons1b1l1ties of the MGB are as follows • Management and adm1n1strat1on of mineral lands and resources, 1nclud1ng the granting of m1n1ng permits and mineral agreements, • Enforcement and mon1tonng of Environmental Work Programs (EWP) and Environmental Protection and Enhancement Program (EPEP), Establishment and operat1onal1zat1on of the Contingent L1ab11ity and Rehab1l1tat1on Fund (CLRF), as well as the mandatory Final Mine Rehab1l1tat1on and Decomm1ss1on1ng Plan; • Cancel m1n1ng app!1catlons and m1n1ng rights v1olat1ng the prov1s1ons of the M1n1ng Act, rts 1mp!ement1ng rules and regulations, and/or the terms and conditions of a mtn1ng perm1t/contracVagreement, • For the Regional Directors to impose Cease-and-Desist Orders (CDO), • To deputize the PNP, LGUs, NGOs and other responsible entities to police m1n1ng activities, • To assist the Environmental Management Bureau (EMB)/OENR Regional Offices 1n process1ng/evaluat1on/conduct of EIA 1n m1n1ng projects, • To manage and adm1n1ster Mineral Reservation area (Note Mineral Reservations, under the New Act, include offshore marine areas) ROLE OF LOCAL GOVERNMENTS The IRR highlights the role of local government units (LGUs) 1n mining projects, both as benef1c1aries and as active participants 1n mineral resources management, 1n consonance with the Constitution and govern1nent policies on local autonomy and empowerment As such, the M1n1ng Act provides the fo!low1ng • In consonance with the Local Government Code of 1992 (LGC), LGUs have a share of forty percent (40%) of the gross collection derived by the National Government from m1n1ng taxes, royalties and other such taxes, fees or charges from m1n1ng operations in add1t1on to tl1e occupat1onal fees (30o/o to the Province and 70°/o to the Munic1pal1t1es concerned); • In consonance with the LGC and the People Small-Scale Mining Act (RA 7076), the LGUs shall be responsible for the issuance of permits for small-scale m1n1ng and quarrying operations, through the Provincial/City M1n1ng Regulatory Boards (PMRBs/CMRBs); • To actively participate 1n the process by which the communities shall reach an informed decision on the social acceptability of a m1n1ng project as a requirement for securing an Environmental Compliance Cert1f1cate (ECG), • To ensure that relevant laws on puhl1c notices, consultations and public participation are complied with;
  • 28. • To part1c1pate in the mon1tonng of m1n1ng act1v1t1es as a member of the Mult1partite Monitoring Team, as well as 1n the Mine Rehab1l1tat1on Fund Committee, • To act as mediator between the Indigenous Cultural Communities (ICCs) and the mining contractor as may be requested/necessary, • To be the recipients of social infrastructures and community development projects for the utilization and benefit of the host and neighboring commun1t1es, and ·To coordinate with and assist the DENR and the MGB 1n the 1mplementat1on of the Mining Act and the IRR AREAS CLOSED TO THE MINING APPLICATION Pursuant to the Mining Act of 1995 and 1n consonance with State po!1cres and ex1st1ng laws, areas may either be closed to mining operations, or cond1t1onally opened, as follows Areas CLOSED to mining applications: ·Areas covered by valid and existing mining rights and appllcat1ons; • Old growth or v1rg1n forests, mossy forests, national parks, prov1ncial/mun1c1pal forests, tree parks, greenbelts, game refuge, bird sanctuaries and areas proclaimed as marine reserve/manne parks and sanctuaries and areas proclaimed as marine reserve/marine parks and tourist zones as defined by law and 1dent1f1ed 1n1t1al components of the NIPAS, and such areas as expressly prohibited thereunder, as well as under DENR Adm1nlstrat1ve Order No 25, s 1992, and other laws; •Areas which the Secretary may exclude based, inter al1a, or proper assessment of their environmental Impacts and 1mpl1cat1ons on sustainable land uses, su~h as built-up areas and critical watershed with appropriate barangay/mun1c1pal/prov1ncial Sanggunian ordinances spec1fy1ng therein the location and specific boundaries of the concerned area, and ·Areas expressly proh1b1ted by law The following areas may be opened for m1n1ng operations, the approval of which are subject to the following conditions· • Military and other government reservations, upon prior written consent by the government agency having 1unsd1ct1on over such areas, • Areas near or under public or private buildings, cemeteries, and archaeological and historic sites, bndges. highways, waterways, railroads, reservoirs, dams and other infrastructure projects, public or private works, 1nclud1ng plantations or valuable crops, upon written consent of the concerned government agency or private entity, subject to technical evaluation and validation by the MGB, • Areas covered by FTAA appl1cat1ons, which shall be opened, for quarry resources upon written consent of the FTAA applicants/contractors However, m1n1ng appl1cat1ons for sand and gravel shall require no such consent, • DENR Project areas upon prior consent from the concerned agency
  • 29. ANCESTRAL LANDS AND ICC AREAS The M1n1ng Act fully recognizes the rights of the Indigenous Peoples (IPs)/lnd1genous Cultural Communities (ICCs) and respect their ancestral lands Thus, in accordance with DENR Adm1n1strat1ve Order No 2, and consistent with the new Indigenous Peoples Rights Act (IPRA), the following shall be observed· •No mineral agreements, FTAA and mining permits shall be granted 1n ancestral lands/domains except with prior informed consent 1n a) CADC/CLC areas, and b) areas verified by the DENR Regional Office and/or appropriate offices as actually occupied by Indigenous Cultural Commun1t1es under a clarm of time 1mmemoria! possession, • Where written consent 1s granted by the lCCs, a royalty payment shall be negotiated which shall not be less than 1~lo of the Gross Output of the m1n1ng operations 1n the area This Royalty shall form part of a Trust Fund for socio- economic well being of the JCCs in accordance with the management plan formulated by the ICCs in the CADC/CALC area (In a large-scale mining operation the 1-0 /o Royalty could easily run into several tens of million pesos per year) • Representation 1n the Mu!t1-part1te Monitoring Committee, SOCIAL AND COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT AND RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT The M1n1ng contractors/operators shall allocate a m1n1mum of 1o/o of their direct m1n1ng and m1ll1ng costs for the following • Development of the host and neighboring communities and mine camp, 1ncludtng the construction and maintenance of social infrastructures to promote the general welfare of the 1nhab1tants 1n the area Such infrastructures include roads and bridges, school buildings, churches, recreational fac1lit1es, housing fac1l1tles, water and power supplies, etc, • For the development of mining technology and geosc1ences, particularly thosl? related to improved effic1enc1es and environmental protection and rehab1!1tatron, The m1n1ng contracts under the regimes of MPSA and FTAA also provide for the mandatory F1l1p1n1zat1on program, technology transfer, and the training and priority employment of local residents These contracts further mandate that m1n1ng operations shall max1m1ze the utrl1zat1on of local goods and services, the creation of self-susta1n1ng generating act1v1t1es, and skills-development ENVIRONMENTAL AND SAFETY CONCERNS A s1gnif1cant fenture of the M1n1ng Act of 1985 and its !RR 1s the premium given to environmental protection Stringent measures were 1nstitut1onalized to ensure the compliance of m1n1ng contractors/operators to 1nternat1onally accepted standards of environmental management. ON SOCIAL ACCEPTABILITY Mrnrng contractors/operators shall allocate a m1n1mum of 1°/o of their direct m1n1ng and m1ll1ng costs for the development of the following • Host and neighboring commun1t1es and mine camp to promote the general welfare of inhabitants 1n the area. This includes construction and maintenance of rnfrastructureS such as roads and bridges, school bu1ld1ngs, housing and recreational fac1ht1es, water and power supplies, etc.; l• Mr.n1ng technology and geoscienc~s, particularly those related to improved effic1enc:rP.s Rnrl PnvirnnmPnb=il nrnh=•rt1nn ::inrl rPh::ihilit~hr.n
  • 30. MINING PERMITS GRANTED TO QUALIFIED PERSONS The following are the types of mrning permits granted under the M1n1ng Act of 1995 and its IRR· Exploration Permit - these permrts are issued to qualified 1ndivrduals or local and foreign corporations granting them to undertake purely mineral exploration act1v1t1es Has a term of two (2) years renewable for like tern1s but not to exceed a total ter1n of six (6) years for non-metal!1c minerals and eight (8) years for metalHc minerals The Perm1ttee may eventua!ly apply for Mineral Agreement or FTAA. subject to maximum areas l1m1tat1ons The maximum areas allowed per qualified person under an Exploration Permit are 1,620 hectares 1n any one province or 3,240 hectares 1n the entire country for an 1nd1v1dual, and 16, 200 hectares 1n any one province or 32,400 hectares 1n the entire country for a corporation, association, cooperative or partnership Mineral Agreement - are granted to 1nd1v1duals or local corporations giving them the right to explore, develop and ut1l1ze the minerals within the contract area. There are three modes of Mineral Agreements namely Mineral Production Sharing Agreement (MPSA) - an agreement wherein the Government grants to the contractor the exclusive right to conduct m1n1ng operations within, but not title over, the contract area and shares 1n the production whether 1n kind or 1n value as the owner of the minerals therein The Contractor shall provide the necessary f1nanc1ng technology, management and personnel; Co-Production Agreement (CA) - an agreement between the Government and the Contractor wherein the Government shall provide Inputs to the m1n1ng operations other than the mineral resources, and Joint Venture Agreement (JVA) - an agreement where the Government and the Contractor organize a joint venture company with both parties having equity shares Aside from earnings 1n equity, the Government shall be entitled to a share in the gross output
  • 31. .. REVIEW MATERIAL FOR NAPOLCOM PROMOTIONAL EXAMINATION PGS 1. The PNP Integrated Transformation Progratn-lmplemented by the PNP as its transformation Strategy prior to the initiation of PGS. The PNP ITP has evolved into an updated version by the 1ntroduct1on of the PGS as a management tool wh1cl1 provides a tracking mechanism to determine ho·V far 1s the PNP from its v1s1on and 1s 1t on the rrght track 2. The PNP ITP-PGS aims to address the following: a To resolve organrzat1onal dysfunction b To strengtt1en law enforcement capabil1t1es c To improve the quality of police Service 3. The National Governrnent Agencies that belong to the "MCC 6" that are required to undergo the Performance Governance System: a Department of Health (DOH) b Department of Public Works and Highways (DPWH) c Department of Education IDepEd) d Department of Finance (DOF) e Department of Transportation and Commun1cat1on (OOTC) f Phll1pp1ne National Pol1ce(PNP) 4. The PNP was chosen to Institutionalize the PGS because of the following reason: a The PNP has a regular contact with tt1e people b It was already pursuing its own transformation program c It was deemed ready to participate 1n good governance 5. The PNP Mission "Imploring the aid of the Almighty, by 2030, we shall be a highly capable, effective and credible police service, working in partnership with a responsive community towards the attainment of a. saf-~r place to live, work and do business"
  • 32. · - - · - - - - - 6 The PNP Vision To Enforce the law prevent and control crimes, ma1nta1n peace and order, ensure public safety and internal security with the active support of the community' To ensure that the PNP V1s1on will be attained the following key management process should be integrated a Performance Appraisal b Budget and Planning c Rewards and Punishment 7 The CODE -P (Strategic Focus) stands for C-Competence O-Organizat1onal Development D-Disc1pl1ne E-Exce!lence P-Profess1onal1sm It serves as the BLUEPRINT towards the real1zat1on of the PNP Patrol Plan 2030 8. OBJECTIVES of Strategic Focus Competence 6 Intensify Policy Reform 7 Review and Pursue leg1s!at1ve agenda 8 Improve the Field Training Progra1n (FTP) with emphasis on Field Tra1n.1ng Exerc1se(Patrol Traffic and First Responder) 9 Standardize Spec1al1zed Courses for Operational Support Staff/Units/teams 10 Improvement of ex1st1ng NUP courses and development of competency courses for NUP 11 Enhance operational procedures and practice 9 The acronym P.A.T.R.0.L. stands for
  • 33. -,,·.>T-'•~ j 3 "Peace and Orcer Agenda for Transformation and upholding of the Rule-Of- Law 10. The following are the sequentia! stages of the Performance Governance System (PGS) a ln1t1at1011 Srage b Con1pl1ance Stage c Prof1c1ency Stage and d lnst1tut1onal1zat1on Stage 11. The four (4) Strategic Perspectives of the PNP Strategy Map PATROL Plan 2030. a Resource f~anagement b Learning and Growth c Process Excellence and d Community 12 The Main Tasks or Respons1b1l1t1es of the PNP a Crime Preventron b Cn111e Solution 13 The Balanced Scorecard - It's a n1anagement system that enables our organ1zat1on, which 1s rhe PN P to set, track and achieve its key strategies and ob1ect1ves A management and measuring that 1s globally recognized and adopted by the PNP to raise the standard of Governenc2. 14. The PNP Units /Offices that need to !Jndergo Operational Review of Dashboard to be undertaken every rJ!onth. a PPO's b CPO"s c CPS d MPS e Police Stations f lnd1v1duals
  • 34. GENERAL INFORMATION (LAWS) Multiple Choice Please read carefully and select the required answer 1 Under the 1987 Const1tut1on, the state shall ma1nta1n ------a multiple police forces c two police forces b one police force d three police forces 2 The police force shall be ______ 1n scope· a Regronal c 1nternat1onal b National d local 3 The police force shall be ______ 1n character. a. m1!1tary c m1lltarist1c b c1vil1an d civilized 4 The fol!ow1ng have d1sc1pl1nary authority over the police, except a Local Chief Executives c PLEB b Mayors d Chief of Police establish 5 The manning levels of the PNP rs one policeman for every_____ a 500 persons c 250 persons b 800 persons d. 1500 persons 6 In order to be qual1f1ed for appointment to the PNP, an applicant have a. Baccalaureate degree c High School Diploma b at least second year college or d Tesda Certification equivalent of 72 collegiate units 7 The PNP is under what department a. DND c NAPOLCOM b DOJ d DILG 8 The PNP 1s administered and controlled by______ a SILG c NAPOLCOM b DILG d DOJ 9 The compulsory retirement age for a un1forrned member of the PNP 1s a 65 c ~ b 60 d $ and must 1O Attrition by non-promot1on applies to those who were not promoted for a period of -------a 10 years b 5 years c 15 years d 20 years 11 NAPOLCOM IS _ _ _ _ _ _ of the DILG a an attached agency c. under the supervision b a collegial body d under the control
  • 35. 12 The following are descriptive of the NAPOLCOM, except· a a Collegial body c administers and controls the PNP b an attached agency to the DILG d under the direct control of the DILG 13 Under R A No 9708, the pendency of an adm1n1strat1ve case 1s a a bar for promotion c not a bar for promotron______ b a bar for promotion if pending d not a bar for promotion 1f for less than two years pending for more than two years 14 PLEB has JLinsdrctron over PNP personnel assigned 1n a NSUs c NHO - - - - - b PROs d city or mun1c1pal police station 15. Optional retirement requires a m1n1mum length of service of a 10 years c 25 years - - - - - - b 20 years d 30 years 16 The Dec1s1ons rendered by the following are appealable to RAB, except a Mayors c PLER b RD d CPNP 17 Under the 1987 Ph11ipp1ne Const1tut1011, the state shall establish and ma1nta1n ------a multiple police forces. which shall be national 1n scope and c1vll1an 1n character b one police force, which shall be national 1n scope and c1v1llan 1n character c one police force, which shall be regional in scope and c1vll1an 1n character d one police force. which shall be national 1n scope and military 1n character 18 This law is also known as the DILG Act of 1990 a RA 8551 c RA 6975 b RA 9708 d RA 9165 19 This law 1s also known Reorgan1za.t1on Act of 1998 a RA 8551 b RA 9708 as the Phil1pp1ne National Police Reform and c RA 6975 d RA 9165 20 This 1s the Act Extending for Five (51 Years the Reglementary Period for Complying with the M1n1rrium Educational Ot1al1fication for Appointment to the Ph1l1pp1ne National Police (PNP) and Ad1usting the Promotion System Thereof, Amending for the Purpose Pertinent Provisions of Republic Act No 6975 and Republic Act No 8551 and for other purposes a RA 8551 c RA 6975 b RA 9708 d RA 9165
  • 36. l{l~Pl l~l,f( .('I :o. 6975 .Cl EST -BLISII I(; TH L PIIII.1 PPl'E i'i.T!Ol'iAL POLICE ll'I DER A REORG. 'IZE!l DI:P llT~lE: T OF THE INTEIUOR AND LOCAL GOVER'~-IEJ r. -:D FOR OTllEll Pl l!POSES Section I. I lift· of th,, /ct f> 'J h11., .ict :-.hall be kno'11 us the "Dcpart1ncnt of the Inter ltlr and I,ocal 1 Jo er nn1ent .ct or IlJlJ( l " ."ll·ction 27. ,fi.11111111,-.:, I <'l'< /1 'f> Cin thiJ .ivi.:ra;;c 11at1()111de, the 111ann111g li.:vcls oflhc PN!' -;hall he arrro.!111;;tel_ Hl dCCC11dc1ncc Jlh d policc-to-pliJUlatJon ratio Pl"llllL' (I 1rol1L:cn1an l{H-CCf f]e hunJrcd {:'tlUJ rt:JSO/l'> '! h~· ::lllU~d '>ttcnglh b_ Citic:-, and 111UlllC!J1al!t!C<, ':>ha]] depend on th~ state n1 f)L:ll'L' and order. populnt1on der1:-.it) and actual dc111ands or the :-.cr·1ce 111 thi.: part1cula1 area Pro 1deJ. l'hat thi.: 1111n11n11n1 po!1cc-to-populrit1n11 ial10 shall not be lc:-.s than one 1 ! ) po!1ei.:111an fnrecry one thllll'>Llnd 1I !JUO) pcr:.on~ Pro·1JctL further. l'hal urb::i.n areus ~halt ht1'e a higher 111111111111111 pnllcL'-tu-populatrnn ratio a" 111::i.y be pre:.cnbl!d hy regulation~ Section 39. ( 'u111;J11/11r1· /i,'f1rl.!11!t'J1f "'> (1111pu!~ur:, 1ct1rcn1ent, for nf'llcei ~ind non-nlTiecr. :-hall be upon thL' att~11nn1ent or ugc fifty-~t' (5()) Pro 1di.:d, '!hat, Ill ca:.c or any (1fT1ecr .l(h the l~lnk nfch1ef:-.upcr1ntende1lt. dirccloi 01 deputy director gcnl'raL the Cin11111s<.,1on 1nay al[ov 111:-. 1cten110n 111 the ~Cf ice li.)r .in uncxte11d1blc penud urone {1l year Section ..J.O. ( J;1t111n11! !?tf11c!lll'11t ~ l_lpon accu1nul.111(l11 of at lea:-.! l.cntv (2lll CUI" (lJ. . :-.atJsfactory <1ctl'C scr 1el.!. an ofl1ccr 01 11011-nffiLcr_ at 111'> olll request and Vlth the apptuval ()r the Cor1n11:-.1.,1on. :.hall he reltrcd Ji·nn1 the service and entitled to receive benefits pin 1Jcd hy la C. !l.~Il'll>-TR.l IVE lllS('ll'l.IN RY MACIIl'.'<ERY Section ..J.l. uf) i '111::e11 t 'n111;J/,11111, -0- /nv co111pl::11nt by an 1ndrv1dual pcr~un aga111:-.t ,in) 111l.!n1ber of1he PNP o;,h:.ill he brought bcfo1c th!.! fo1lov1ng ( l 1c--:h1i.:f~ nl.polii.:c. 'here: the of!Cn1.,e 1o,; puni~hab!e by 1thho!d1ng ol'pr1vtlegeo.;. rc:-.tnc11on to :-.pccifleJ lun1t1.,, ~u'>pen:-.1n11 ui forlC1ture ol '>a!a1y, or an) L01nh1nrit1l111 therl!nr!Or .1 pl.!r1od nut l.!'-Cced1ng fifti.:cn ( 15 l da):.. 1~1 i'vlav11r:-, ii c1t1e~ ur 111un1c1palille:-,_ 'here thl! oflCn:-.e 1s pun1shabll'. h:, '.'ilh!Jold1ng of'pll rlLgC<,, t"L:'>hietltlll tn ':>j1CClf1Cd iln11ts. '.'>USpCtlSlOll Of J'orll:ilurl.! ol sa!a~. nr an: con1b1n<1t1on thc1eoL l~ir a pcnod or not Jc:ss than s1-..tcl.!n ( 16) d:.i;.s but not exceeding thirty (3UJ da:,',. (3 1 Pl.!nple l,aV !:'.nf0rccn1c:n! Boaid, a.'> crl:ated under Section 43 hi.::reoL .herl.! th.:: oJ!Cn"c is pun11.,hriblc by 11thholJ1ne; of'prtvllcge~, rc.-.triction lo specified limit'.>, U.'ipcnsiun of forfeiture of salary, or an.v con1bination thereof, for ;1 period e~ccl•ding thirty (30) days; or by dismissal Section 43. /'<.:011/('~' f,uil' /· ///IJ/'( ,·1n,'11f !~uarcl (}'/)'.'/1! 1f- {a) Creation and Functions ~ '1th1n th1r1v (.30) day:-, f'ro111the1so.;uancc nfth~ 11nplen1cnting rules and rl.!gulat1ons by the c_~nn1n11ss1nn, thcr; shall be. created b· the 1.,a11ggun1ang pan!ungsod/bayan in every crty and 111un1c1pal1l) '1uch 11un1ber of People's Lav l~nJiJrcc1ncnt 13oards {Pl ,El~s I as 111ay be neci.::s:-.ary Provided. 'l'hat
  • 37. then.: ,hc1ll he ,ti least one ( l ! l'l .L'.15 fr>r every 111un1c1pality and for each of the lcg1;,l::t!1vc d1;,tnct" 111 a Cl 'J he l'J_J_'b .;;h,11! havc_1ur1:-d1cllon to hear and decide c1t1zcn's cotnp!arnts or caseo;, filed bcllHo.: 11 .1ga1n-.,t erring lll ricer~ ,ind 1nc1nbe1.s or the !'NP ·r hctc 5hall be at fea~t one ( l) Pl J'.13 ll.11 c.:1;. fic hundrc'd ->11111 cit (l! 1nun1c1pul police pe1-;onnel Section ..J-..f. I I.ii, lj'l111,1r1 !r1;JL!!u1. J-],)11/ll ~ Ihe rurn1al ,1dn11n1<;tn11'e d1scipl!nnry 1nach1ner: f11 the P~P ..,hall he the :'.tllt>11.1l .ppcllate l~o~ud and the n.::g1onal appc!latc hoard•, crhc N;n1onal .ppcllat~ 110~1rd shall CO!l~tst of rnur (-1-) d1v1s1ons, each d1v1s1on Cl111)100,Cd or a C~nn1n11s<;1f111cr :1-., (~h.:11rn1an ~ind lO (2) other nh:1nbcr~ 'J'he l~oan.l :-hall cun:-1dcr appeal:- fiu111 dccl'-lllll'- of the Chief of the PNP 'The Nallona! 1ppcilate l1oarJ n1ay conduct it.., hcanng.., or :.c:-s1on:- 111 Metropolitan f!anila 01 dny part or the count!") ao;, 1t 111a: dcen1 nccc'.-i;,:u: l'hcrc "hull be at lea"t une 1I) n:g1<1na! appellate boa1d per adin1111~trat1e region 111 the CDuntry to be con1puscd ur,1 ..,cnit)r ornccr of the 1cg1onal L'o1nn11..,;,1011 as Chan1nun and one ( 1} rcp1c-.,cntat!C each fro1n the PNP. anJ the 1cg1nnal peace and 01de1 council a:. 1nc1nbers It ~hull cun-.,1d1.:1 appeal.., n-l1111 dec1<.,1nns of the regional dncctors, other otTic1als, 111avor~. and the PLl:G..:, l)fllIJed. 'J'hat !he L'on11111..,~1nn 111.1;, create add1!1onal rcg1onu! appellate board::. a:. the need arise.., REJll 1 f~l.f(' 1("1' 'lo. 8551 .N CT PRO'IDI:-.G FOR Tiii: REFORM ·ND REORGANIZ.TIO: OF TIIE PH ILi ppf--.;E ° Tiff. L POLICE . °D FOR OTHER l'!IRPOSES, -~IE 'lnIN(; CERLl'> PROVISIONS Of REP BLIC CT XlliIllERED SIXT)-NINE lllli'-ll!Udl .ND SE.i',N'I Y-Fl'E ENTITLED,".!'< AC! E~TABLISillNG TIIE PIIILIPPI:-iE !' ."fI();', I~ I'()I ,IcI·: l '~I) l·:l{ ' l{I·:-()RG, ~I zI•: J) J)I•: p1lrrlI I•:N'I' 0 I< ·r111·: 1--.;TERIOR .--.;IJ LOC ·I. GO'ER'IME'T, .'ll FOR OTHER PllRPOSES" TIT!.E I TITLE ."< ll DECI.ARA'I 10"1 OF POLIC ~ectiou I. /rife' 4)- ll'1'- 1Lt "hall he knovn as he "Phil1pp1nc National Police J{et1.Jrn1 and u 1· 1,1<1',"1-.,eorgan1zatH1n / ct o ., Section 1-l. ,,._, :1,111 1 ' " .. ' ')'I' lS hl':rcby a1nended lo 1eaJ a:, roJIO:, "SI'(' .'II Ciencr~d Qu::d1Jie,11011s fur Appu1ntn1e11t 41' No person ~hall be appointed a:. 0tlice1 l)J n1c111bcr of the J>NP unle~'> he 01 ~he posSC'-'SC'> '.be follov1ng n11n1111un1 qua!illcation'> "al 1 c1t1/en of the l'h!11pp1nc:., "h 1/ per-;on of gorid rnn1al cnnduct. "cl Mu:..t ha c pa..,:-ed the psych1atncip~ycholo:;1c::tl, drug and physical tL::.t:. to be .1dn11n1~tcrcd by the J>NP 01 by any N1P( )LC()i'vl accredited gnvcrnnient ho'>p1tal fl1r the purpn:,c of dctcnn1111ng ph·s1cal and n1cntal heulth, "Jl [,Just pu:,se:,s a f1.Hn1al bai:calaureate degree l!-0111ar1.:cog1111.cd1n<>t1tut1011 of!carn111g. "e) lvlu:.t be el1g1b!c 1n accotdancc 'Ith the standard;, set hy the C'on11n1~s1on,
  • 38. -· ',' d't 1101 haC been d1~hlinorah!_ d1;.,charged fron1 111i11tary l.!1nploy111ent or d1<>1n 1 ~~cd •: .,._au"c !ro111 an Cl tlr:in pn;.,111011 in !he (iovcrnn1cnt_ ·~1 lu"t not hae been c1lr1'Jctcd by llna! 1ud2n1cnt of::in ofli::nsc or cnn1e ll10l·1ng inural turrnudc "h 11lust be at lea<...! one llll:lcr and ~1.ty-tvo cent1n1ctcr':I ( J f)2 in ) in height Ji.1r 1n<1!e and llnc 1nctcr 3nJ tln~-<;Ccn ccnt1111i,;:tcr<> (I 57 111 ) fi1r ll:1nalc, "1 I iJu,t ~lt!°h tlOt ll10fC or Jc~;., than []e k1!0g1a111S ~5 kgs J frolll the '-landard 'Clght '-'nt rc...pnnd1n~ tl) h1<... or her hc1ghL age_ and SC., and "1 J !·or a ne appl1cant. lllll)t not be less than tcnty-onc (:21) nor n1orc than thirty (30) _L'.urc.. of age except for the Ju:,! qual1Jicat1on. the ahove-enun1cruted quahficatron;., ~ha!! he contrnu1ng 111 character and an absence nf any one of the1n at anv given t1n1e !>hall be .1 t'round IOr '>crarat1on or r.::t11c1nent J'ron1 the ~.::rv1cc Provided, '!'hat PNP n1cn1bcr!:> Vho arc already rn the o;c1·1ec upon the e!lCct11ty nfthis Ji:t shall he given at least t'l) (21 n101c yl'ar<> to obtain the n11n1n1u1n educational qual1Jlcat1011 and one (I) year to sat1;.,t~· the: 'eight rcqu1r.::1nent "ror the pu rpD<..c 'if detct 1111 n1ng C)t 11pl1ancc Vllh the requirc1ncnts on physical ,1nd inental health.•1-; ell a:::. the non-use t1fproh1b1ted drug~ the P1JP by rtsclfot thrnugh a NrPCJl.(.{_)f:j accredited gocrnn1cnt !1o!:>p1tal shall lnnduct regular psychiatric, p;.,ycholog1ca! drug and ph_:-.1cal le~!::. randorn!~ and 1,Jthou1 notice ":fter the lap!:>e of the t1n1e period tOr thl..' :.at1-.fncl1on of a .:.pec1flc 1equ1re111i.::nt current n1cn1hcrs ofthG PNP 'ho ·ill IB.11 to !:>a11<;fy any of the rcq111re1ncnt~ cnun1erateJ under th15 Section ~hall be ~cparntcd fron1 the ser1cc 1J'thi.;~ arc belnv IiHy (50) y~urs llf age <Ind have ~ervcd in l!ovcrnn1ent fOr les~ than lvcnty (2U) yt:<1t ~ or retired 1r they are frorn the age of fit1y (50 l and abOL'. and have served the Clo..:rnn1l..'11t t~)J at 1~~1st t'<::nty (::!0) years V!lhout rri.::.1ud1cc 111 c1tl1cr case !(l tht.:: pay1ne11t ufhencfit.., they 111ay bi: entitled tn under existing la'~" Sel·tion 28.. lttr1t11111 h1· ·1111-11r1111111t1011. ~ /11 PNJ) personnel Vho ha.~ not been pro1nolcd /'or a. . conlln11nus p~riod ol'tcn ( l0 J 'l,ea1~ shall he retired or separated
  • 39. Republic of the Ph11ipp1nes National Police Comm1ss1on NATIONAL HEADQUARTERS, PHILIPPINE NATIONAL POLICE DIRECTORATE FOR PERSONNEL AND RECORDS MANAGEMENT Camp Crame. Quezon City MEMORANDUM TO RDs. PF<Os TDPRMFROM SUBJECT NAPOLCOM Especial Promotional Examination on December 14, 20i4 DATE 1 This pertains to the for!hcom1ng NAPOLCOM special promotional exam1nat1on which sl1all be held on December 14, 2014 2 Please be informed that the NAPOLCOrv1 st1all give special promotional exa1n1nat1on on December ·14 2014 1n seven examination centers a Baguio City; b Makat1 City, c Calamba City, d lloilo City, e Cebu City, f Zamboanga City, and g Davao City 3 As per guidance from NAPOLCOM, you are hereby directed to advise all candidates for attrition by non-promot1on due to lack of el1gibil1ty to submit the following requirements 1n "WALK-IN basis" before the identified NAPOLCOM exam1nat1on centers on November 23-December 3, 2014. a TDPRM endorsement letter (See Attached), b Authenticated College Diploma/TOR, c Duly accon1pl1shed appl1cat1on forms (accessible frorn website of NAPOLCOM or exam1nat1on centers), and d Exam1nat1on fee 4 All candidates who shall be compulsory retired in 2017 are no longer required to take the special pron1ot1onal exam111at1on 5 All C, RPHRDD shall conduct special review classes 1n their respective AOR follow111g the attached Program of Instruction and review materials Submit reports of compliance thereof NLT December 16. 2014 6 For guidance and strict con1pl1ance JAIME g_ MORENTE Police=r
  • 40. i21-:i ,·-,;:,- n, th.~ l;il11l1p~llll0.S 1 '<·r:'' lrllf'•ll '' • •r '11/<'r'" ,Hlf• l..CCDI COVt>;, •rr '"'I ·.1,-. ri -,:,:. - ,--: . ~.':;: .r;c_il,~r1.rrn~-:r-.~(--'~" Dll. - ·l.r'(JL•:::OiJl C1.~11lc1 1·.J1-l)()I C:O~,,: '_!!Ir. , F.D~l/I cor Qun;rnn ,l;ir:. 'l,/("'t Ir: ,,ril.~, 1_')11fT,n11 C'ilV I lf1•1 '' 1' 11c1f"'lr·1y11 •:•'•''.f11, './)i,iulJC ,,-:: '~Fl:CIAL P1lP-Ef·I-! RJf'JC.f .'lIO rr~();1•f()~ ·i!'·L l:'r/:111~-J.<TICJ!"JS C:f} QE:_(.i=-11r.r::FR. 'l ·t'I'' /, Sprorf.'-'1 Pl,l,'-l~n(r,1nr· -,n~i 1:rcirnoilon2I F;,:;~1n1,·12lron-, ,.,,111 b<:· r~ondu(r::r,: r .,, r11 ·, :r~r·-ii 1f"- •.) ;,-:, ].- ' ~ "! .11 •t 1~ 'R•i11nat1ur, CE:r1l-'":·'? r:~.n~ ~ 111 : -.- 0 . ' ". (l<'C:· ··. ':<·1.1 :-·,··c1 ' ' :"·-·:r I I I',•~ ' ' li! '' /pplic•1ni·~ 10 l1·1·· ':ipeL 1, ~:r:~u 111 fl'111nn /p11llr::>lH ,,-. h·:1-,.·: 1: (~ 1~rc·-11lr·n,1,' .i_r.:1-1 ·_:,; fcir r~,,, rl:t l'.,' ,-.,r /r1::li•-::''' , . c,i, 11r1bl'l c1iy 'l,11-, f:II'/ •_,,-.p, ! L;1t ' ~,-,1n1 ,p:1npn c1i11 [).')•Id() C1t·,1 i30qu10 1_:1(11 i 1::11:rsncfa E,<':irn1nAt1on shall ._;t1l1...'.'2 the Un-L 111.~· ',).~il•lciUl11l·~l Gv:,ierr 1,r:l_E/B'.".J C-Jn n-1t-" L'•llr-'-~ -,: r:r, <1neeo. 01 Lh'' '."'.i-,,:_r •"I JI 01r1nuun2: '.I 1 t' (lc,r Pl_)r an" -ro1-i r:::,;::;111·~) L~:1cl, ~~~.-11Y1111':11•Jll 1. ·.:·11,', 1-' ro•il(;t:2ied a quni<:l t,I !_-,·itr;-:1,ri' E:::ini111;:,11_i1 ,,,, •r, ·:)JJS-~rJ 118i1or,1,,;1r'o 1,1.lUU [lf]plic21lll$ 1ut '.O' :J Ji)!lilL;~Jlll ~I-I'', 1~1: 1~,un1·· :=:ente1 ,.,:pr.. -, 'l";l: f'l' :1111 t;-,j r(,~_,f)1-.1·1 i: r:'•'.l~i-r· t.l" - ) ,:;1-r11• 1:,,1q,·, iht• t:l<:_' ,:-:.' --------------~.. ''"_,_________________ -------· - - - - -
  • 41. " i I:"" f;pf~c1:::;! i":(nrnoi•c•, t··"'11:~-· 0rti,:e1' •r,•h'> ,,1 yi"·~rs 01 rnore bec:.JLic, nnpr-:~r ,n tl·1c. :1si pr• ·1.:,;1!1r~·:-f'; ''1"! :h..- ,o.. 'lf1,1nc-,11or1 c•~11:,'1c :=::.;:1i11rnat1ons shr:I! b:o- :iarn1n1:otRreci ONLY c, oi!i .-•r'cl1-..lal0.,, {or aan11on d.i;:> 10 n0n-1~1")rnof10.~ "")!" •i-:i; •)f lack of appropriate el1g1bi11ty and ¥1hose names ,,-:.~rl bv !!10 DPR!11. (:;i1np (;r8rne nu.?:-::or1 Crt;, ~11~0 11 1_''0't~lp.:· o~ ;•.0ir'f,::•1v:·o::- ~.-:-:,11 ih·-- •'',10..-.1 ~! :1f,ll•":1'~~:: Ir_, ii1:~ ')·1-· 1r,1 i·r·:i·r1011ont:I [ :c.-.;1n:--111G:1 ·~hu~,i(; :,•,f«.111 ·.c·~- 11- ~1111·i11( ,');••in·~ iCGJ~'lhf'1· 'I'•:' 11 ,; 1c·:: (.r:jlr>g ::i r:liplnr:10 .;.11•-' l"llt2, i<:''-'IJ')< ! i l'' f 1f.)'c>111 1 , io 11-1.-. C•?t1ler 0.1 l11:0-1r ch ..:r·-:, ,-,; pr?ference (' 1,, ~-;•c1111r1«-· ih<o, I'• 1 -:1r1: Pf 1:>ron1,J11or;3i 'f,1/l_f,·il,1 .~p1il1can,- t11;:- r-.'r:,_,:on2i ,-,,-fr,·:-·: c!,'' "i•1-r- Sn'111 r,CHJrd1n·-11r; 1.111f 'T1;.i1L'-"f"~ '•'f 1"0."- llJS1.:,1llat1UIJ of co1nput;-1- ·.i·:.-i•-tn 101 lhe said purf1c.-_;f_· ~: :--~11 •1q1;~-11:,1:::• )[•: EDLJf.l,f~[ir·i U. ES,1 -:tJ!;.',-JC Cnn 1r, 11 ':s1onr-, licP-C:t1R1rm"1n n1 td Ex:i::cul1vr:: Officer
  • 42. REVIEWER ON ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS Republic Act 8749 refers to the Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1999 ) RA 8749 refers to a Clean Water Act of 2004 b Ph1l1pp1ne Ecological Solid Waster Management Act ct. Clean Air Act of 1999 e Climate Change Act of 2009 2 ) RA 9275 refers to a Clean Water Act of 2004 c Ph1J1pp1ne Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Act ct. Clean Air Act of 1999 P l.lirn::itP r.h::innP Art nf ?noq- - - . - - - ._, - -- - - - - Ill Republic Act 9003 refers to the Philippine Ecological Solid Waste Management Act (PESWMA) of 2009 3 ) RA 9003 refers to a Clean Water Act of 2004 b. Philippine Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2009 c Ph11ipp1ne Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Act ct Clean Air Act of 1999 e Climate Change Act of 2009 I/ Rep11bl1c Act RQRq refer5 to the Philippine Tci~1r. S1_1b5ff!n('P'3 ;::in(l H878rdo1_1s rinrl Nuclear Waste Act 4 ) RA 6969 refers to· a Clean Water Act of 2004 b Ph1l1ppine Ecological Solid Waste Management Act c. Philippine Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Act e Climate Change Act of 2009 Page 1 of3
  • 43. V Republic Act 9279 refers to the Climate Change Act of 2009 5 I RA 9279 refers to. ;:i Gle:?in fl.f.c:iter Act of 2004 b Ph1l1pp1ne Ecological Solid Waste Management Act c Ph11ipp1ne Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Act e. Climate Change Act of 2009 VL The Climate change comm1sslon 1s composed of the President as Chairperson and Three (3) Comm1ss1oners to be appointed by the President 6 ) Tl1e Climate Change Comm1ss1on 1s co1nposed of a The President as Chairperson and five (5) Comm1ss1oners b The President as Chalrperson and four (4) Comm1ss1oners c The President as Chairperson and three (3) Commrss1oners d The President as Chairperson and two (2) Comm1ss1oners e The President as Chairperson and the DENR Secretary VII Under the Ph1l1ppine Clean Water Act of 2004, Owners or operators of facilities that discharge wastewater are required to get a permit to discharge from the EMS or the Laguna Lake Deveiopment Aurhority 7 ) The Climate Change Comm1ss1on 1s composed of a LGU b DOH c DTI d. EMB or the Laguna Lake Development Authority e Regular Courts VIII. Under Section 10, RA 9003, the LGUs shall be pnmanly responsible for the imolementat1on and enforcement of the orov1s1on of this Act w1th1n their respective JUnsd1ctrons 8.) The Agency prlmanly responsible for t!1e implementation and enforcement of the provisions of RA 9003 is the e nFNR b Laguna Lake Development Authority c. LGUs d DEPED e DOH IX Among the key features of the Solid Waste Management Act 1s the Creation of the National Solid Waste Management Comm1ss1on (NSWMC), the National Ecology Center (NEC), and the Solid Waste Management Board (NSWMB) 1n every Province, Crty and Mun1c1pal1ty rn the Country. 9.) Among the key features of the Solid Waste Management Act 1s the creation of Page 2 of 3
  • 44. a NSWMC b NEC c NSWMB d a and b only e. a, b, and c X Under Section 4, Rule 2 of the Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases, any party 1n interest, 1nclud1ng the government and Juridical ent1t1es authorized by law, may file a c1v1I action 1nvolv1nq the enforcement or v1olat1on of anv environmental law 10 ) Who may file a c1v1I action involving the enforce1nent or v1olat1on of environmental laws? a Natural persons only b Jurld1cal ent1t1es only c LGUs only d. Any party in interest including the government and juridical entities authorized by law e Only the Government XII Under Section 8, Rule 2 of the Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases, 1f it appears from the verified complalnant that the 111atter 1s of extreme urgency and the applicant will suffer grave and irreparable 1n1ury, the executive judge of the mult1ple-sala court before raffle, or the pres1d1ng judge of a s1ngle-sala court as the case may be. n1ay l!::i::.ue ex parie a Ter11µ01ary Env11or1111erncii P1oieci1un Oilier (TEPO) effeci1ve fur only seventy-two (72) hours from the date of receipt of the TEPO by the party or person enjoined 11 ) The executive judge of the mult1ple-sala court before raffle, or the pres1d1ng juage of a s1ngie-sa1a courr as the case may oe, may issue ex pane a Ternporary Environmental Protection Order (TEPO) effective for only seventy-two (72) hours from the date of receipt of the TEPO by the party or person enJ01ned a 24 hours b 36hours c 48 hours d. 72 hours e 3 days Xiii Under Section i 0, Ruie 2 or tne KUies or t-'rocedure for Env1ronmentai Cases, except the Supreme Court, no court can issue a TRO or writ of preliminary 1n1unct1on against lawful actions of government agencies that enforce environmental laws or prevent violations thereof 12 ) iio court can issue a TRO or wrn of prei1m1nary 1nJuncHon against iawfui actions of government agencies that enforce environmental laws or prevent v1olat1ons thereof, except· a. MTG b RTC c Court of Appeals d. Supreme Court e Environment Management Bureau Page 3 of 3
  • 45. '----- PGS BASIC REVIEWER 1. Aside from the PNP, the following the five (5) other National Government Agencies (that belong to "MCC 6") required to undergo thG Performance Governance System? a ) Department of Budget and Management (DBM), Department of Public Works and Highways (DPWH), Department of Education ((DepEd), Department of Transportation and Commun1cat1ons {DOTC}, Bureau of Internal Revenue {BIR) b.) Oepartn1ent of Health (DOH), Department of Public Works c.:nd Highways {DPWH), Department of Education (DepEd), Department of Transportation and Communications (DOTC), and Bureau of Internal Revenue (BIR); c.) Department of Health (DOH), Department of Public Works and Highways (DPWH), Department of Education (DepEd), Department of Finance (DOF), and Bureau of Internal Revenue (BIR); d.) Department of Foreign Affairs (DFA), Department of Public Works and Highways (DPWH) Department of Education (DepEd), Department of Transportation and Communications (DOTC), ), and Bureau of Internal Revenue (BIR}. 2. What the PNP Units/Offices that need to undergo Operational Review of Dashboards to be undertaken at least every month? a.) PROs, PPOs, CPOs, CPS, MPS, Police Stations, Individuals b.) PPOs, CPOs, CPS, MPS, Police Stations, Individuals c.} PROs, NSUs, CPOs, CPS, MPS, Police Stations, Individuals d.) 0-Staff, PROs, PPOs, CPOs, CPS, MPS 3 Env1s1oned in the PNP Road Mrir is a PNP that 1s· a.) All of the choices b.) Police Service by 2030 c.) l-l1gh!y cupuble d ) Effective and Credible 4. In order to properly execute the PNP P.A.1- R O.l Plan 2030, th(' P~JP must ensure to address the following: a.) Resource Barrier (failure to link budget with strategy} b.) /II of the choices c.) Vision barrier (limited understanding of the strategy among the personnel) d.) People [3;:irrier (limited tied 111 the strategy)
  • 46. -, In the PNP vison, v,1 hat the t1meline when the PNP vvill become a highly capable, effective, and co1npetent police service? o I 2020 b.) 2025 c.) 2015 d.) 2030 G. What are the four strategic objectives of the PNP P 1':.. T.R.O.l. P!an 2030 (1n order set in the StrJtegy Map)? a.) Talent, l<nowledge, skills, perforn1ance b.) Resource Management, Learning and Growth, Process l?xcellence, Community c.) Resource GenPrallon, Learning and Growth, Process Excellence, Commu111Ly d.) Resource Managemcnl, Learning, Process Managerr1ent, Community 7. The following are the two main tasks or responsibilities of the PNP? a.) Intelligence and Crime Solution b.) Operations and Investigation c.) Crime Prevention and Police Community Re!alions d.) Crime Prevention and Crime Solution 8 Whut is/are the recisons 11vhy the PfJP Vas chosen co "lns(itutional1zed" the PGS? a.) The PNP has the regular contact with the people h.) All of the choices c.) It was already pursuing its own transformation prog1am d ) It was deemed re;:idy to participate in good governance program 9 ·rhe "PATHCJL" 111 rhc ,CJNP P.A.T.R.O.L Plan 2030 1s an acronym wh1cfl stands for: a ) Peace and Order Action Plan for Transfor m;ition and Upholding of the Ru!e-Of-l.<ivJ b.) Police Action Ap,~nda for Tran•,formatlon and lJpholcling of thr~ Ruic-Of Lc11N c.) Police and Co1nmunily 1-genda for fransfor n1d1 ion anJ lJphold1ne of the Hule-0 f-La1.iv d.) Pe<>ce ;1nci Order 1-'genda for i"ra11sf0rn1a·doi1 C11td Upho:ding of i.hE' Ru!e~Of-Lav.1 10 Pnn1· to its inJt1at1on to the PGS, vvh.1t progra1n does the PNP is in1plemenlin2 ;i<; its tr·nn:.fo1ma11on Strategy? a.] Pulis sci 13aranr_;ay P1ogra1n b.) Police Integrated Patrol Systen1 (PIPS) c.) lt1tegrated transfortnc:ition Prograr.1 d.) Ten (10) Point Agendo
  • 47. 11. What are the four (4) distinct but inter-related and sequential stages of the Performance Governance Systern (PGS) that the PNP needs to satisfy? a.) Initiation, Prof1c1ency, Compliance, lnstitutional1zat1on Ll.} Initiation, Compliance, Proficiency, institutionalization c.) ln1t1at1on, Learning and Growth, Process Excellence, lnst1tut1onalizat1on d.) lnit1at1on, Resource Management, Learning and Grovvth, Community 12. Th~· Performance Governance System or PGS is a globally recognized system and adopted by the PNf) to raise the standard of governance utilizing what management and measuring tools? a ) Gap Analysis b.) Problem Tree i'nalys1s c.) Case Study d.) Balance Scoreca1d 13. To ensure that the PfJP vision 111111 attained, 1t is necessary that the strategy should be rntegrated into the following key management process: a.) Performance Appraisal b.) Budgeting and Planning c.J All of the choices d ) Rewards and Punishment 14. The ITP-PGs a1n1~ to address the foflovv1ng except il.) Organ1zat1onal Dysfunction b.) Strengthen La'vv Enforcement Capabilities c.) l1nprove the quality of the Police Service d.) File an appropriate complaint before the Ombudsmnn 15. Thi•; entails the ne.=:d to c~stab/1<;h an organ1zallonal set-up that hos the most efficient m;:inugemenL te~n1 cind Staff to supporl its p1ogr~111 thrusts to further enhanced the PNP's capability to solve' cr 1n1e.:. a.J Organization;:il De•1e!opn1C'nc b.) Compelenc1; c.) E':celicnce d.) Profcss1onziJ1sm 16. Ou1· 11eoplr; and cornrnunitics shcill experience '1 nevv breed of polic1:; l1er0Ps who trod th~, "Tu!111rl na Daan" rind delivering the rNP's; "Scrb1syong a ) May P<:lgkukusa b.) Tapat c.) Totoo d.) Makatotohanan "
  • 48. 17, Wh2t does "E" stvnds for CODE-P? a.) Excellence b) Effectiveness c.) Efficiency d ) Enforcement 18, Unrler Strategic Focus l: Competence, the following objectives shall be observed except: a ) Review and Pursue Legislative Agenda b.) ~treamline the Organization c.) Enhance operational procedures and practices d ) lnrensify Policy Reform 19. It is the upgrading and enhancing all the knowledge, skills, and attitude of the police from the basic to mandatory and specialized courses which shall be continuous process before they pursue their own field of expertise a.) Excellence b.) Competence c.) Professionalism d.) Organ1zat1on 20. The ''CODE-P: 2013 and Beyond" serves as the PNP's 1owards the realization of the PNP PATROL Plan 2030 1n order to effectively meet the meet its goals better serving and protecting the public a.) Plan b) Guide c.) Blueprint d.) Roadmap
  • 49. PROTOCOL AND SOCIAL USAGE Multiple Choices: Choose the best answer from the given facts. 1. A foreign ambassador 1s addressed··_------- a Your Royal Highness b Mr./Ms. Ambassador d Sir/Madame 2 The following are rules to follow 1n conversation, except, b. A Police Officer should think before starting to speak c. A glib talker can be as boring as a man of silence d. A Police Officer should be calm. 3 The younger person is always introduced to the older A Police Officer is always introduced to a lady regardless of his rank a Only 151 statement 1s correct b On!y 2nd statement 1s correct. 'o,-~-·- .·~rr.· d. Botll staten1ents are not correct PNP ETHICAL DOCTRINE 1. " PNP members shall provide services to everyone without discrim·1nat1on regardless of party affiliation 1n accordance with existing laws and regulations. a Political Patronage b. Police Lifestyle d. Social Decorum 2. The following are the customs on courtesy calls, except for, a Courtesy Call of Newly Assigned/ Appointed Member b. Christmas Call c. New Year's Call 3. Which is not a part of the Police Officer's Pledge? a. I will love and serve God, my country and people c. I will uphold the Constitution and obey legal orders of the duly constituted authorities d. I will oblige myself to maintain a high standard of morality and professionalism
  • 50. QUALITY SERVICE LANE Which is not a component of the Quality Service Lane Project? a. Improvement of fac1l1t1es and equipment b Human Resource Development c. Improvement of Systems and Procedures r_: i·,-11~cs:t,c11 :··~~ 0 ·-.:'.1--s 2. Local Government and Community Mob1l1zat1on for a Quality Workplace b Quality People d Quality Procedure CITIZENS CHARTER 1. The Civil Service Commission has the power to· *Administer and enforce constitutional and statutory provisions on the merit system for all levels and ranks in the Civil Service. *Administer the retirement program for government officials and employees, and accredit government services and evaluate qual1ficat1ons for retirement. a. Only 151 power is true b. Only 2nd is true d. Both are false 2. Who appoints the Chairperson and two Commissioners of the Civil Service Commission? L-. The Presir::Jent b. The Chief Justice c. The Commission on Appointments d. The Speaker of the House of Representatives
  • 51. Protocol and Social Usage Test Questions 1. It is primarily a guide of accepted rules governing the conduct of government officials, police officers, military officers, and even diplomats. Generally it refers to the good breeding of an individual or even a nation, the rules includes courtesies, niceties, attendance in different functions, even to the rules of behavior of an ordinary people. a Treaty d. Police Operational Procedures b. Customs and Traditions ~ Protocol c. Memorandum of Agreement f. Rules of Engagement 2. Considered to be a firmly established and generally accepted practice or procedure which personnel must put into practice on how to conduct themselves properly in dealing with people during occasions or affairs. a. Social Graces d Protocol and Standards b. Beliefs and Culture e. band d c. Social Usage f. a and c 3. Cocktails is are tendered to introduce a Military Officer or Police Attache, retiring or passing officials, Sometimes held for a get- together, fellowship, or reciprocation of previous cocktail invitation; cocktails are normally given on what particular time of the day: a. 7:00am to 9:00am c. 1:OOpm to 3:00pm b. 6:00pm to 8:00pm d. 9:00am to 11 :OOam 4 Being the host you must always know and remember the general rule in giving respect and courtesy to your guest, be it in a practice of Customs of the Service and giving due value to the privileges of an officer. As a rule of thumb where you will position yourself being the host. a. 6 inches to the rear of the guest c. on the right of the guest
  • 52. b. at the back of the guest d. always on the left of the guest 5. The general rule of giving respect and honor to the guest is knowing what you call as "the place of honor", as a rule of thumb regardless of where the guest is facing, regardless of the location of the audience what you should bear in mind is: a. the reference point is always the forehead Q,. point of reference is your right hand, because right side is always the place of honor c. point of reference left hand this is where the guest should be d. must be at the rear to protect your guests 6 The police honors and gun salutes maybe rendered to the following except: a. Star Rank Police Officers b. Any members of the House of Representatives I Congressmen and Congresswomen c. Cabinet members d. NAPOLCOM Chairman e. Senate President 7 In paying homage and deportment to the National Flag and during Singing of the National Anthem indoors or 1n a covered area. a PNP uniformed personnel must render military police salute provided in their regulations. Must answer TRUE or FALSE. a. The statement is true should salute at all times everywhere, anywhere, upon seeing the Philippine Flag. b. The statement is false PNP uniformed personnel must place their right hand over their left breast pocket. c. The statement is true PNP uniformed personnel in prescribed uniforms must salute. d. The statement is correct PNP uniformed personnel in prescribed uniforms must salute.
  • 53. . . 8. What should precede Invocation or National Anthem? Select the correct and best statement from the choices below. 1) Invocation because as what the Panunumpa sa Watawat states f1rst is "Makadiyos, Makakalisan, Makatao, at Makabansa"; 2) The singing of the Philippine National Anthem (Lupang Hinirang) during civilian functions should come before the invocation during programs. 3) The Philippine National Anthem should come before the invocation because it is the state who gives the people the right and freedom to choose his religion; 4) As the premise "God above country" it should be invocation first before National Anthem; 5) It 1s already resolve by National Historical Commission of the Philippines (NHCP), Philippine National Anthem first followed by the invocation during civilian functions and programs. However, during religious activities, the invocation may come first, but preferably anthem before invocation because it is the State that guarantees the free practice of any religion. Choices: a. 1, 5, and 4 b. 1, 2, and 4 c. 5, 4, and 2 d. 2, 3, and 5 9. A Police Officer shows breeding, and therefore considered a gentleman and officer by his conduct in all his dealings. He knows what 1s appropriate, select the best answer: Choices: 1. Introduce a guest who just arrive to a person who is about to leave, it is important you will be running out of time; 2. Police Officer is expected to behave and conduct himself with dignity and restraint. Smoking is a form of discourtesy. 3. Older person is always introduced to a younger person. 4. A police Officer stands when introduced to a woman, a clergyman, and official or an old man; 5. Lady is always introduced first to a man. a. 2 and 4 c. 5 and 3 b. 1, and 3 d. 1 and 5
  • 54. . . 10. During an official or social functions and gatherings there is a four letter abbreviations written in a invitation, the abbreviated words were written as R.S.'.P. what these letters stands for? a. respond sure and very promptly b retired and senior volunteer program c. repondez, s'il vous plait d. respondes silverio vout plaze e. Resource Server Verification Protocol Prepared by: PSUPT BYRON T. TABERNILLA
  • 55. ' ' Disciplinary Mechanism Dropping From the Rolls (DFR) (NMC Nos 95-017 and 2010-001) • A mode of separation from the service which is non~disciplinary in character and does not result in the forfeiture of any benefits on the part of the officer or employee nor 1n disqualifying him from reemployment 1n the government • It does not require the stringent observance of due process Absence Without Official Leave (AWOL) - refers to the status of any official on employee vvho absents himself from work without approved leave of absence • After five calendar days or more but not to exceed thirty (30) calendar days a PNP uniformed personnel shall be dropped from the rolls, after due notice. • An officer or employee who has been continuously absent without approved leav0 for th1rly (30) calendar days or more, he shall be dropped fro1n the rolls Vtthout prior notice However he shall be 1nforrned of his separation from the service not later than (5) days from its effect1v1ty, which shall be sent to the address appearing on his latest 201 files or hls present place of work or assignment o Motion for Reconsideration (MR) shall be filed w1th1n 15 days upon receipt of the DFR Order 4l Only one (1) Motion for Reconsideration shall be allowed. • Denied MR 1s appealable to the Chief, PNP, w1th1n 15 days upon receipt of the Order of Denial "' DFR Order shall be served either by personal delivery or registered mail at his address appearing on his latest 201 files or his present place of work or assignment • The Order of DFR issued by the CPNP or his Dec1s1ons denying the appeal shall be appealable to the SILG 1n his capacity as Chairman, NAPOLCOM w1th1n 15 days upon receipt of the order of the CPNP The Dec1s1on of the SILG shall be final.
  • 56. • In case the Motion for Reconsideration 1s meritorious, 1e. hosp1tal1zed, he shall be restored to his former position, the absences will be charged to hrs leave credits PNP Officers authorized to issue DFR Order a The Chief, PNP, b PNP Regional Directors; c Directors of the National Support Units; d Directors, National Capital Regional District Directors: e Prov1nc1al Directors; f Group Directors, Regional Mobile Groups; g Group Directors, Provincial Mobile Groups, h City Chiefs of Police. (NOTE: DFR Orders issued by the D. NSUs are sub1ect to conf1rmat1on by the C PNP and DFR Orders issued by the PD, PPOs, GD. RMG, GD. PMG and City Chiefs of Police are subject to confirmation by the RD, PRO (PNP Circular No. 2008-009 dated August 4. 2008). (NOTE: PNP Circular 2008-005 did not amend or repeal PNP Memorandum (Lacson Memo) dated September 22, 2000. In fact. correct1011 for tl1e 1nc/us1on of the memo ,,vh1ch 111as approved by the C. PNP on August 4. 2008) - ------ -- - - - --- - - - - ' What are the difference between Dropped from the Rolls and Administrative Case? - - - - - - DROPPED FROM ROLLS a. fJon-d1sc1pllnary ! a Disciplinary - - - -- b. The term 1s Separation : b The term 1s D1s1nissal I I.. --- ---- - ------- _J_.__ .. ___ - - ----- ..--- 1c No strict observance of due process ! c Strict observance of due process {Notice only) · {Notice and Hearing) 1 d) Appeal - to the-c-.-PriP 1(MR · 1s denied ,-c---APP-eal tOthe -R-AB then-tO the SILG [ bytheOff1cerw~o1ss~:_dtl1:_~F~~rder ___ 1--· ____ ___ __ __ . . e) Cannot go together with the adm1n case I e) If chosen, no more DFR ' : f) If DFR 1s nullified, conduct PCE. as a matter of procedure i .--·- -- . -------,
  • 57. QUESTIONS: 1 A mode of separation from the ser,;1ce v1h1ch 1s non-d;scipl1nary in character and does not require the stringent observance of due process. A. DFR B D1sm1ssal C Suspension D DFR and Dismissal E All of the above 2 Jt refers to the status of any official or employee vvho absents himself from work vi11thout approved leave of absence A AWOL B DFR c Drsmlssar D Suspension E All of the above 3 The requirements for due process 111 adm1n1strat1ve cases require strict observance of A Due notice B Return to Work Order C. Notice and Hearing D Chance to submit Answer E None of the above 4 The current PNP Memorandum Circular on D1sc1plinary Mechanism IS A LOI PAGBABAGO B DR System C Tamang Bih1s D. LOI PATNUBAY Ill 5. A Motion for Recons1derat1on (MR) shall be filed before the Non- disciplinary Authority vv1thin _______ upon receipt of the DFR Order. A 5 weeks B 15 days C 1 month D. 15 months E None of the above
  • 58. 6 ______ Motion for Recons1derat1on shall be allowed A B c D. E Three fl.~ot1on for Recons1derat1on 1s allowed Two f1.~ot1on for Recons1oerat1on 1s allovved fV1ot1on for Recons1derat1on 1s not allowed 1n DFR Only one Motion for Reconsideration is allowed You can file as many as you want I Upon receipt of the Order of denial of the Regional Director (RD). within 15 days the DFR personnel may file an Appeal with the----·--- A Mayor B Provincial Director C. CPNP D Chief of Police E None of the above 8 Upon receipt of the Order of OFR issued by the CPNP or his Dec1s1ons denying the appeal, w1th1n 15 days, the DFR personnel may file an Appeal with the A SILG in his capacity as Chairman, NAPOLCOM B C1v1I Service Commission C Vice-Chairman NAPOLCOM D ~~one ol the above E All of the above 9 fv1ot1on for Recons1derat1on of a DFR personnel maybG given due course 1f A He went abroad during his absence B He had a family problem C. Hospitalized and have notified his immediate superior officer o He 1s the son of a pol1t1c1an E None of the above 10 PNP Officers authorized to tssue DFR rncludes the following except,_______ a. The Chief, PNP b PNP Regional Directors c Directors of the National Support Units d Chief of the Directorial Staff e Prov1nc1al Directors
  • 59. c:1<2pter I' 136. The involvement of PNP personnel during strikes, lockouts and labor disputes in general shall be limited to _____ a. maintenance of peace and order b. enforcement of laws c. implementation of legal orders of the duly constituted authorities d. All of the above e. None of the above 137. The PNP shall only render assistance to labor disputes upon written request addressed to__~~- a. the Regional Director/District Director concerned b. the Chief of Police c. the Chief, PNP d. All of the above e. None of the above 138. In case of actual violence during labor disputes, the police can respond a. without the written request b. upon written request c. with or without the written request d. All of the above e. None of the above 139. In so far as practicable, PNP personnel shall be allowed to render police. assistance in connection with a strike or lockout if~~~-.,-, a. there is question or complaint as regards his relationship by affinity or consanguinity to any official/leader of the parties in the controversy b. if he has financial or pecuniary interest therein c. there is no question or complaint as regards his relationship by affinity or consanguinity to any official/leader of the parties in the controversy or if he has no financial or pecuniary interest therein d. All of the above e. None of the above 140. PNP personnel detailed as peace-keeping force in strike or lockout areas shall be in -~~-.,,-- a. patrol uniform at all times b. GOA "A" at all times c. prescribed uniform at all times d. All of the above e. None of the above 141. PNP personnel shall exercise maximum tolerance and when called for by the situation or when all other peaceful and non-violent means have been exhausted, police officers may employ such means ______
  • 60. b. False 156. It shall be imperative for all the COM contingent to perform their duties while observing the rights of demonstrators a. True b. False 157 To keep the situation under control, police officers assigned to monitor public rallies and demonstrations are allowed to bring firearms a. True b. False 158. In cases when violence erupts, police officers are allowed to hit the violators head, shoulder blades and knees. a. True b False 159 If you are in the front line during a demolition, then a higher ranking officer commanded you to take part in the physical dismantling of the houses. Will you follow his command? a Yes, because I must follow orders from higher ranking officers at all times b. No, because it 1s stated under the rule that the PNP personnel shall not participate 1n the physical dismantling of any structure -subject of demolition. 160. To make the demolition situation easier, use of tear gas, water cannons and reasonable force even before the demolition begins is appropriate to push the opponents back a. True b False c. Maybe d Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 161 . Police officers do not need to wear prescribed uniform during demolitions for them to be able to move easily. a True b False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 162 Police assistance in the enforcement or implementation of a demolition or eJectment order shall be granted only upon a written request of the Sheriff or equivalent officer in quasi-judicial and administrative bodies accompanied by a valid order issued by a competent court. a True b False c. Maybe, ··--
  • 61. d. Upon approval e On a case to case basis 163. In case the final decision or order to be implemented is rendered by the Supreme Court, where should the request for police assistance be submitted? a. Office of the Ombudsman b Office of the President c Office of Chief PNP d. None of the Above 164 Police assistance shall be rendered within ____ working days from the receipt of the directive from the C, PNP. a 3 b 5 c 7 d 10 165 If you are the Chief of Police and you received a request for police assistance from the Sheriff of the Municipal Trial Court who issued an order in a c1v1I case, what would you do? a. Accept 1t, and provide necessary police assistance. b. Reiect it or send it back to the court of origin. c Refer it to the OCPNP d Refer it to the RD, PRO and wait for the directive to provide police assistance e. None of the Above 166 The request for police assistance can only be granted upon the written request of either of these two agencies. a. LGU b DILG c. COMELEC d A and B e Band C 167 The copy of the final decision or order or resolution to be implemented should be __~_ a. original or authenticated b. photocopied c with dry seal d All of the above e. None of the above 168 The approving authority on request for police assistance from the DILG or COMELEC is the ____ a. SILG b COMELEC Chairman c. Chief, PNP
  • 62. d. All of the above e None of the above 169. The police assistance shall be rendered within_____ from receipt of the directive from the C, PNP. a. five (5) working days b. two (2) days c. three (3) working days d. All of the above e None of the above 170. Police assistance can also be rendered for a longer period when required by circumstances. a. True b False c Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 171. This official is tasked to render police assistance and shall have the discretion to employ sufficient number of PNP personnel. a Director Operations b. Regional Director c. Special Task Group Commander d. All of the above e. None of the above 172. The police team that will render police assistance should be led by a a. Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) with the rank of Police Superintendent b Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) with the rank of Police Senior Inspector c. Police Commissioned Officer (PCO ) with the rank of Police Chief Inspector d. All of the above e. None of the above 173. All members of the Special Task Group shall be in prescribed uniform when rendering police assistance. a. True b. False c. Maybe d Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 174. The role of the PNP when rendenng police assistance shall be Hm1ted to a. maintenance of peace and order b crowd control
  • 63. c. security of the duly authorized officer of the COMELEC, DILG or LGU implementing the decision/order/resolution d. All of the above e. None of the above 175. In performing their role. the PNP personnel shall at all times observe a maximum tolerance b. respect for human rights c. utmost impartiality and neutrality d All of the above e. None of the above 176. The request for police assistance can only be granted upon the written request submitted by~---- a any authorized officer of DAR b Agrarian Reform Officer c LGU d. A and B e. Band C 177. Which of the following are examples of preliminary agrarian act1v1ties? a Land survey b Post lnstallat1on c Ocular Inspection d. All of the above e None of the above 178. Police assistance 1n the implementation of CARP can be provided even without the request of DAR a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 179. Police assistance in the implementation of CARP shall be provided only as requested by DAR a True b False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 180. The scope of the resistance to be encountered and the general peace and order condition in the area are the things to be considered by the head of office or unit tasked to render police assistance in employing sufficient number of PNP personnel. a True b. False
  • 64. c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 181. There are cases when a higher ranking Officer 1s necessary to lead the police team rendering assistance. a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 182 The police team that will render police assistance should be led by a a. Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) with the rank of Police Superintendent b. Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) with the rank of Police Senior Inspector c Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) with the rank of Police Chief Inspector d. All of the above e. None of the above 183 The use of reasonable force shall only be resorted to for self-defense and defense of strangers a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 184. PNP personnel can lead the conduct of the preliminary agrarian activity and shall have the final disposition whether to proceed or not with the implementation of the decision or the conduct of the activity. a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 185. When the DAR personnel are refused admittance into the property, the PNP personnel _____ a. Can encroach on the property b Need to get a permit or warrant to enter the property c. Cannot encroach on the property without an order from DAR spec1fical!y for the purpose d All of the above e. None of the above
  • 65. -- 186. Which of the following are examples of decisions/orders of the court, quasi- judicial or administrative bodies that are immediately executory? a. Temporary Restraining Order b. Replev1n c. Protection Order under the Anti-Child Pornography Act d All of the above e. None of the above 187. Provisional remedies under the Human Security Act 1s not immediately executory. a True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e On a case to case basis 188. Oec1sions/orders issued by the court, quasi-judicial or administrative bodies that are immediately executory shall be submitted to the ____ a. OCPNP b. RD, PRO having jurisdiction of the place where the decision/order shall be implemented c. Chief of Police who will be implementing the decision/order 189. Decisions/Orders issued by the court, quasi-judicial or administrative bodies that are immediately executory shall be submitted to the Chief, PNP. a True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e On a case to case basis 190 The RD, PRO shall be the approving authority in rendering police assistance in the implementation of decisions/orders of the court, quasi-judicial or administrative bodies that are immediately executory. a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 191. The written request of the Sheriff or equivalent officer 1n quasi- JUd1c1al or administrative bodies is not needed in the request for police assistance. a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 192. The original or duly authenticated copy of the decision/order/resolution sought to be implemented is also required in the request for police assistance. a. True
  • 66. .1 b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a-case to case basis 193. The use of reasonable force shall only be resorted to for self- defense and defense of strangers. a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 194. Dialogue with those who may be affected by the implementation of the decision/order/resolution is encouraged to prevent violence, and the assistance of local public officials, when warranted, should be requested. a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 195. The Sheriff or the equivalent officer of quasi-judicial or administrative bodies does not have the final disposition whether-to proceed with the implementation- of the decision/order/resolution or not. a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 196. The is the main person in-charge during hostage/crisis operation. a. Ground Commander b. Negotiator c. Sniper d. None of the above 197. The shall always be paramount during a hostage situation. a. arrest of the Hostage-Taker b. safety of the hostage c. assassination of the Hostage-Taker d. All of the above e. None of the above 198. The will act as the referee between the negotiator and the hostage-taker. a. Mediator
  • 67. .~:·· ... / i' . b. Ground Commander c. Assault Team d. All of the above e: None of the above 199. depends on the threat posed by the hostage-takers and need of the Negotiation Team and On-Scene Commander. a. Breakout Plan b. Delivery Plan c. Emergency Response Plan d. Surrender Plan e. None of the above 200. Which PNP unit is in-charge of the investigation of complaints and reports involving all forms of violence against women and their children? a. AKG b. PCRG c. WCPD d. All of the above e. None of the above 201. Under the Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006, a child aged __ and below shall be exempt from criminal liabilities. a. 10 b. 13 c. 15 d. 17 e. None of the above 202. Under RA 7610, "children" refers to those below __ years of age or older but are incapable of taking care of themselves. a. 10 b. 13 c. 15 d. 18 e. None of the above 203. The child-victim shall be handled preferably by a police officer of the gender as the victim. ---- a. Same b. Opposite c. Any d. All of the above e. None of the above Ruis 3~· 204. It is a container filled with explosive, incendiary material, smoke, gas, or other destructive substance, designed to explode. a. IED
  • 68. b. Grenade c Bomb d. All of the above e. None of the above 205. A bomb may also be referred to as ______ a Ordnance b. !ED c. Improvised Explosive Device d. All of the above e. None of the above 206. 1s either a written or verbal threat communicated through electronic, oral or other means that threatens to place or use an lED at a certain time, date or place against any specific person or place. a. Bomb Scare b. Bomb Threat c. Bomb Explosion d. All of the above e None of the above 207. Determined bombers do not frequently give warnings of possible explosion/incendiary attack a True b. False c Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 208. The consequences of conviction for "threatening" are as serious as those that could result from actual placement/initiation of a bomb. a. True b. False c Maybe d Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 209. A bomb threat 1s considered only a threat until something visible is found. a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 210. What is the number of options in considering evacuation? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
  • 69. e 7 211. Unless a bomb 1s found. personnel may not order an evacuation of the affected area, but may inform the person in-charge of the property of the need to evacuate. a True b False c Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 212. What is the minimum distance for evacuation 1f a suspected device is discovered? a. 200 meters away b. 250 meters away c. 300 meters away d. 350 meters away e. 400 meters away 213 Which of the following information should be determined by the first responder 1f the investigators have not yet arrived? a Time of detonation/explosion b. Time when the call for bomb threat was received c. Type of device d. All of the above e. None of the above ' 214. Which government agency was mandated by law to assume the responsibility for the proper and effective implementation of the anti- terrorism policy of the country? a. Armed Forces of the Philippines b. Anti-Terrorism Council c. Philippine National Police d All of the above e. None of the above 215 Who is the Chairman of the Anti-Terrorism Council? a DILG Secretary b. Executive Secretary c Secretary of National Defense d. All of the above e. None of the above 216 Who 1s in-charge of initially determ1n1ng if there 1s a high degree of probability that the incident is a terrorist attack? a. Task Force Commander b. Regional Director c. On-Scene Commander
  • 70. d AlI of the above e None of the above 217 What is the meaning of CIMTG? a Critical Incident Management Task Group b. Common Incident Management Technical Group c Critical Incident Maneuver Task Group d. All of the above e. None of the above 218. What is the meaning of CIMC? a. Critical Incident Manager Circle b. Critical Incident Management Committee c Crisis Incident Management Committee d All of the above e. None of the above 219. Which PNP unit ensures the management and containment of the incident and coordinates with the TF Commander during the development of the case? a. Municipal Police Station b. National Headquarters c Police Regional Office d All of the above e None of the above 220. This 1s being followed when investigating bombing attacks and explosions perpetrated by the terrorists. a. Inter-Agency Agreement on Investigation of Bombing Incidents b. Inter-Agency Protocol on Explosion and Bombing Incidents c. Inter-Agency Protocol on Explosives and Related Incidents d. All of the above e. None of the above 221. What agency is involved in investigating bombing attacks and explosions perpetrated by terrorists? a. PNP b AFP c PCG d. All of the above e. None of the above 222 What is the meaning of PBDC? a. Ph1l1ppine Bomb Data Center b Philippine Bomb Detail Collection c. Philippine Bomb Data Committee d All of the above e None of the above 223. The fusion center for the reporting of ERls. a. PNP b PBDC c. PCG d. All of the above
  • 71. e. None of the above 224 It 1s the actual police intervention in a cybercrime incident. a. Logging in the Police Blotter b Cybercrime Investigation c. Cybercrime Response d. All of the above e None of the above 225 The acquisition of evidentiary value is traceable within the computer's a. Hardware b Software c Network d. All of the above e. None of the above 226. It is imperative for the First Responder (FR) to be able to the computers to be able to recognize potential evidence. a Protect b. Seize c. Search d. All of the above e None of the above 227 A warrant is not required to seize data from the electronic device, digital media and other similar devices. a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e On a case to case basis 228 The evidence seized shall be subjected to forensic examination by trained personnel a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e On a case to case basis 229. The result of the forensic examination, as well as the testimony of the forensic expert, shall be made available during the trial. a True b. False c Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 230 In securing the computer as evidence, the FR should _____
  • 72. a Turn the computer "ON" if it 1s "OFF" b Turn the computer "OFF" if 1t is "ON" c. Touch the mouse or keyboard d All of the above e. None of the above 231 Consult a computer specialist for assistance in the conduct of search and seizure of networked computers. a. True b. False c. Maybe d Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 232 Only a computer forensic expert can search for any evidence contained in the computer hardware a. True b. False c. Maybe d Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 233 It 1s not necessary to note all the actions associated with the manipulation of the e!ectron1c device. a True b False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 234 The PNP has authority to conduct anti-illegal drug operations. But PDEA deputation is absolutely necessary or required for PNP personnel assigned with anti-drug units a. True b. False c Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 235 PNP units, prior to any anti-drug operations shall, as far as practicable, coordinate with the PDEA. a. True b. False c Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 236. "The following are instances a PNP Unit can validly dispensed prior coordination with PDEA, except _______ a. in remote places where coordination 1s not possible b. when the PNP personnel police is suspicious of the PDEA operatives
  • 73. c. when coordination will compromise the lives of police operatives, informant and witnesses, involved 1n anti-drug operation d. when coordination will pre1udice the apprehension of drug suspects and confiscation of dangerous drugs and CPECS e. when prior coordination will compromise the entire police operation 237 The PNP anti-drug units shall inform the PDEA of the anti-drug operation within 48-hours from the actual custody of the suspects or seizure of drugs and substance as well as paraphernalia and transport equipment used in illegal activities 1nvolvfng such drugs and/or substances and shall regularly update the PDEA on the status of the cases involving the said anti-drug operation. a. True b. False c. Maybe d Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 238. The physical inventory and photograph of the confiscated evidence shall be conducted at ----~ a. the place where the search warrant is served b. or at the nearest police station or at the nearest office of the apprehending officer/team c. whichever is practicable, in case of warrantless seizures d. All of the above e None of the above 239 The types of kidnappings are~~~-- a. Kidnapping by Organized Crime Group/Group/Criminal Group (with ransom) b. Kidnapping by Threat Gro.ups/Terrorists c Kidnapping by Other Individuals d All of the above e None of the above 240. Upon receipt of kidnapping incident report, the police officer shall a. Make an incident recording b. Deploy first responders c. Alert all concerned authorities/ tasked groups d All of the above e. None of the above 241. Upon initial assessment of the type of kidnapping, and upon confirmation that the kidnapping 1s true, ____ a. the case shall be referred to the AKG, other territorial units or to higher authority b. the police officer shall deploy first responders c. shall confirm the authenticity and the case shall be referred to the CJOG, other territorial units or to higher authority d. All of the above
  • 74. e. None of the above 242 If the k1dnapp1ng was perpetrated by Organized Cnme Group/Criminal Group and .Yith ransom demand, 1t shall be referred to the for their initial action/operational response a PACER b. AKG c other territorial units or to higher authority d. AlI of the above e. None of the above 243. If the k1dnapp1ng was perpetrated by Threat Groups/Terrorists, it shall be referred to the higher authorities for the activation of ______ a. AFP-PNP Joint Task Force b. Critical Incident Management Committee (CIMC) c. or Critical Incident Management Task Group (CIMTG) d. All of the above e None of the above 244. If kidnapping was perpetrated by other individuals, it shall be referred to the a. Concerned PNP territorial units for appropriate operational response. b AKG for appropriate operational response. c CIOG for appropriate operational response d. All of the above e None of the above 245 If the incident 1s of grave national importance with implications to national security including those with serious diplomatic, political and peace and order ramifications it shall be referred to _____ a. CIMC b. CMC c CIMTG d. All of the above e. None of the above 246. If the incident needs referral to higher authorities, who/what among the authorities must be informed? a. PNP Higher Authority, JTF and LCE and other concerned agencies. b. PNP Higher Authority and other concerned agencies. c CMC, CIMC and other concerned agencies d. All of the above e None of the above 247 What 1s the meaning of NDRRMC? a. National Defense and Risk Reduction Management Council b. National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council c. National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Committee d. Nationwide Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Committee e. National Defense and Risk Reduction Management Committee
  • 75. 248. Man-made critical incidents are the responsibilities of the National and Local Peace and Order Council (NPOC). a. True b False c Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 249 The PNP, being at the forefront of crisis situations, must play an active role by organizing its own Incident Management Committee (IMC). a. True b False c Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 250 The PNP CIMC acts independently and not in support to the NORRMC and NPOC. a. True b. False c Maybe d. Upon approval e On a case to case basis 251 Who 1s the Chairman of the PNP Cnt1cal Incident Management Committee (PNP CIMC)? a CPNP b. TOCA c. TOCO d All of the above e None of the Above 252. The Peace and Order Council Chair is the Chairman of the Critical Incident Management Committee. a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e On a case to case basis 253 What is the alert level when a man-made Critical Incident has just occurred or has Just been pre-empted; or incidents are expected? a Level 1 (Low) · b. Level 2 (Moderate) c Level 3 (High) d. Level 4 (Extreme) e. None of the Above 254 There are three stages in Disaster Management.
  • 76. a True b False c. Maybe d Upon approval e On a case to case basis 255. Support and recovery efforts are at the Pro-Active Assessment Level. a. True b. False c Maybe d Upon approval e On a case to case basis 256. In the conduct of man-made critical incident and disaster relief operations, security and safety of personnel must always be considered. a. True b. False c Maybe d Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 257. The responsib1J1ty of addressing crisis can be during an 1nc1dent 1f it grows beyond the capab1l1ty of the established CIMTG in handling the growing needs of the 1nc1dent or 1f there is JUnsdictional change. when the 1nc1dent moves location or area of responsibility. a. Relocated b. Transferred c. Shifted d. All of the above e None of the above 258 The respons1b11ity of addressing crisis can be transferred during an incident 1f a. It grows beyond the capability of the established CIMC 1n handling the growing needs of the incident b There is no jurisdictional change, when the incident moves location c. It grows beyond the capability of the established CIMTG 1n handling the growing needs of the 1nc1dent d. All of the above e None of the above 259. The transfer of responsibility during crisis must always include _____ a. Transfer of command briefing which may be oral, written or a combination of both that could be attended by the key members of the CIMC/CIMTG. b. Transfer of command briefing which may be oral, written or a combination of both that should be attended by all members of the ClMC/ClMTG.
  • 77. c Transfer of command briefing which may be oral, written or a combination of both that should be attended by the key members of the CIMC/CIMTG d. Alloftheabove e. None of the above 260 To attain a smooth transition of command responsibility, the Regional CMC takes over when the ~~~~~~' a Local PNP at the Municipal/City level are unable to resolve the crisis within their capab1!1ties b Municipal/City CMC recommends elevation of the crisis !eve! c. Highest terrorist threat level involving mass casualty attacks d. All of the above e. None of the above 261. The National CMC takes over when the ------ a situation requires employment of security forces and utilization of resources of the Regional level organizations and beyond b upon the recommendation of the Provincial CMC c. incident involves foreign nationals, either perpetrators or victims d All of the above e None of the above 262 Whose responsibility is it to respond to queries raised by the media during crisis? a. Police officer on duty b. Local government head c Unit Head/Chief or Ground Commander d All of the above e None of the above 263 Where should the Ground Commander designate/establish a media area for pooled coverage and ensure safety of all media personnel covering the incident? a. Designated area that is close to the firing line b Designated area away from the incident to avoid airing live coverage of unfolding event. c. Designated area accessible for airing live coverage of the event as 1t unfolds. d. All of the above e None of the above 264 In cases of inter-agency operations, who will determine the dissemination of appropriate media lines? a. Ranking officer present at the crime or incident area. b. Officer-on-duty. c. The department/agency with primary jurisdiction.
  • 78. • d. All of the above e. None of the above 265. What could happen-~the media coverage goes out of control during acrisis situation? a. Media could interfere negatively in the actual police operations. b. Ground Commander's attention will be divided. c. Police operating on the ground will become media conscious. d. All of the above e None of the above
  • 79. .' Chapter 1 Rule 1-3 POP Reviewer 1 -2 Rule 1.1 To serve and Protect The respons1b1!1ty of 9'1ery police officer 1s to serve the pub!!c and protect Irle and property No police operation shall be conducted rn order to serve and protect the illegal activity of a particular person, group or cnm1nal syndicate. 3. Rule 1 2 Observe Human Rights and Dignity of Person All PNP personnel shall respect the human rights and dignity of the suspect/s during police operations 4 Rule 2.1 Agency Prescribed Uniform A police officer shall always wear the agency prescribed uniform which 1s appropriate for the kind of police operation to be undertaken 5 Rule 2.2 When wearing the police uniform, a police officer shall, at all times, appear presentable, smart and well groomed. While on actual patrol duties, he shall refrain from eating along the sidewalks, smoking and reading newspapers. 6 Rule 2 3 Every police officer on patrol, whether on board a vehicle or on foot patrol, must always carry with him a police notebook, a pen and Miranda Warning Card The notebook, which 1s approx1mate!y pocket srzed, will be used to 1nscr1bed 1111µ01la11l events i!iCJi l1CJn~µ11e Jurlny l11::. lou1 of July 7 Public Safety Operation - includes Search, Rescue and Retrieval Operations, Fire Drills. Earthquake Drills and s1m1lar operations that promote public safety 8 Law Enforcement Operation - includes Service of Warrant of Arrest, !tnp!ementat!on of Search A/arrant, Enforcement of l!s!toria! P01.'1ers of the Ch!ef. Ph11Ipp1ne National Police and Unit Commanders, Anti-Illegal Drugs Operation, Anti-Illegal Gambling Operations. Anti-Illegal Logging Operations, Anti- Illegal Fishing Operations, Ant1-Carnapp1ng Operations, Ant1-K1dnapp1ng Operations, Ant1-Cyber Crime Operations and s1m1lar operations that are conducted to enforce laws statutes executive orders and ordinances 9 Intelligence Operation - includes Surveillance Operation, Counter-lntell1gence, lntel!1gence Research, !ntell1gence Assessment and similar police intelllgence operation conducted to gather 1nformat1on related to security, public safety and order. 1O Internal Security Operation - includes Counter-Insurgency Operations, Counter Terrorist Operations and s1m1lar operations conducted to ensure internal security 11 Special Police Operation - includes Checkpoint Operation, Roadblock Operation, C1v1! Disturbance ~!!anagernent Operation, Police ,<'ssistance ln the Enforcement of Demo!1t1on Eviction lnJunct1on and Similar Orders, Police Assistance 1n the Implementation of Final Court Order and Order from Quasi-Judicial Bodies, Hostage S1tuat1on, V1s1t Board Search and Seizure Onboard Marine Vessels and Similar Police operations that are conducted by police units with specialized tr;:11n1ng on the pecul111rlty of the mission or purpose --------
  • 80. Chapter 2 Ru!e "1-8 12-15 Rule 4 Pre-Operational Clearance No police operation shall be conducted without the approval of the Chief/Commander/Head of the concerned Pohce Un1t/Off1ce A pre-operational clearnnce shall be filed by thE=> -ream Leader of the operating team/s prior to the conduct of the operation and shall be approved by the concerned Police Unit Commander_ This clearance shall be submitted to the operations section/d1v1s1on of the concerned unit for record purposes Rule 5. Inter-Unit Coord1nat1on 16 Persona! Coord1nat1on or by Off1c1al Representative Team Leader/s (TL of local police units operating outside their territorial Junsd1ct1on and National Support Units (NSUs) shall coordinate, personally or through an off1c1al representative, with the Police Regional, Provincial or City Police Office w1th1n wl1ose JUrisd1ct1on the operation 1s to be conducted 17 Coord1nat1on by Pract1cal/Ava1lable Means of Commun1cat1on ln cases where formal inter-unit coord1nat1on 1s not feasible, the Police Unit concerned shall endeavor to notify the territorial police office through any pract1cal/ava1lable means of commun1cat1on at anytime during the operation and, 1f not possible, shall accomplisl1 and furnish the terntonal Police Office a written 1nc1dent report 1mmed1ately after the termination of the operation 18 lnter-Un1t Coord1nat1on can be accomplished through 1 Personal Coord1nat1on or by Off1c1al Representative, 2 Coord1nat1on by t-il1ng Coord1nat1on rorm, and 3. Coord!nat1on by Pract1cal/Ava1lable Means of Communication 19 Checkpoint Operation PNP personnel manning the checkpoint must have a presentable oµµedro11ce, weo1u1g U1e µ1e::;cr1iJeU Pi~P u111lo1rn L1kewi::;e, U1e c1viiia11 rr1e111Uer::; must also be in their organization's uniform with their names conspicuously displayed for ident1f1cat1on In no case shall a c1v1lian components be allowed to bear firearms dunng the checkpoint 20 Rule 6.1 Basic Requirements of Police Operation demoht1on and c1v1I disturbance management shall be conducted as follows a With marked police vehicle. b Led by a Police Comm1ss1oned Officer (PCO), and r. With fJE=>rsonnAI 1n rrP.sr.nhP.rl rolir.A 11n1form or AttirP. 21 Rule 6.3 Warning Shots Prohibited The police shall not use warning shots during police 1ntervent1on operations 22 Rule 6 2. Use of Megaphones and Similar Instruments During actual police 1ntervent1on operations, the Team Leader shall use peaceful means 1nclud1ng the use of megaphones or any other s1m1lar instruments to warn or influence the offender/s or suspect/s to stop and/or peacefully give up
  • 81. Rule 7 Use of Force during Police Operation 23-24 Rule 7 2 Issuance of Verbal Warning The police officer must first issue a verbal warning before he could use force against an offender As far as practicable, the verbal warning shall be 1n the dialect that is known to the offender or 1n the national language Basically the VP.fhMI WArn1ng ShFJll r.on:o;ist of OllP. of thA following· the f)Olir.P. offir:er 1dent1fy1ng h1n1self, his 1ntent1on and what he wants the offender to do If the offender 1s a foreigner, the verbal warning shall be done 111 the English language followed by a demonstrative act of the police officer's intent. The verbal warning shall be done in a loud and clear manner 25 Rule 7 4 Use of Non-Lethal Weapon When the suspect 1s violent or threatening, and that less physical measures have been tried and deemed 1nappropnate, a more extreme, but non- deadly measure can be used such as baton/truncheon, pepper spray, stun gun and other non-lethal weapon to bring the suspect under control, or effect an arrest 26-28 Rule 7 6 Factors to Consider 1n the Reasonableness of the Force Employed A police officer, however 1s not required to afford offender/s attacking him the opportunity for a fair or equal struggle The reasonableness of the force t:::111µiuyi:::U w1ii Ut:::µt:::r1U uµur1 li1t::: 11ur11Ut:::r ul dyy1t::::::.:::.ur:::., r1dlu1t::: c111U cirdlCJCi.t:::t1:::.l1c:::. of the weapon used, physical cond1t1on, size and other circumstances to include the place and occasion of the assault. The police officer 1s given the sound d1scret1on to consider these factors 1n employing reasonable force Rule 8 Use of firearm during police operations 29 Rule 8 5 Procedures After an Armed Confrontation Immediately after an armed confrontation, the officer who 1s 1n charge of the operation shall a Secure the site of confrontation, b TakP. photographs c Check whether the s1tuat1on still possess 1mm1nent danger, d Evacuate the wounded to the nearest hospital, e Ensure that all persons who died on the spot are not moved from the original pos1t1on, f. Arrested suspects should be kept 1n isolation, g Conduct debriefing on all involved PNP operatives, h Submit After-Operations Report, and Ensure psychological stress counseling for all involved PNP operatives 30 Rule 8 4 Filing of an Incident Report After the Use of Firearm fJ. ,...,..,i;,...c ,-,ff1t""'or ,.,h,-, fir,:,e> hi'°' C'Orflt""'C> firo'°'rm ,-,r "'"''°'""n rl1 or•nn 0 .. r---..-- -·· --· ····- .·-- ···- --· ··-- ···----···· -· ··--r---·· --·····:::;) - confrontation with an offender or offenders must submit an incident report outlining the circumstances necessitating the use of his firearm 31 Rule 8.1 Use of Firearm When Justified The u..:;e of f1re;:irm 1.c; _111st1f1erl 1f the offender .ooses immine-nt d8nger of causing death or 1n1ury to the police officer or other persons The use of firearm 1s also 1ust1f1ed under the doctrines of self-defense, defense of a relative, and defense of a stranger However, one who resorts to self-defense must face a real threat on his life, and the peril sought to be avoided must be actual, 1mm1nent and real Unlawful aggression should be present for self-defense to be considered as a 1ustify1ng circumstance - --- -- - - - - - - -
  • 82. Rule 9 Patrol Procedures 32-36 Rule 9.1 Patrol Guidelines 9 1b Observe defensive driving and follow traffic rules and regulations; 9 1n Develop contacts by getting to know as many people as possible who can ""'o f..,,....t, ,..,1 •nfr.rm~hf'>n ,,.h,..,, 1+ f'r•mo f'f'>nrlitif'>n<:: f'ln tho n,,.frf'>I ho,,.+· "" -- ·--·-- '. -····-·-· ----· - ···- --··-···-··- -·· ···- ~--·~· ---·· 9 1p When requiring 1dent1f1cat1on from a suspicious person or any individual. avoid taking the wallet or bag 1n which the cards/documents are placed Let the 1nd1vidual remove and hand thern to you; 9 1q. When checking susp1c1ous persons, places, bu1ld1ngs/establ1shments and vehicles especially during n1ghtt1me, be prepared to use your service firearm Flashlight should be held tightly away from the body to avrnd making you a possible target, 9 11. Observe the practice of "shaking doors" of unguarded business establishments during night patrol Check for signs of 1ntrus1on 37-42. Rule 9 2 Duties of Patrol Supervisors a In any operation, careful planning 1s a must 1n order to avoid waste at time, effort and resources, (1) Area Coverage safe haven, ambush areas and crime-prone areas, (2) Organizational Detail of Personnel, (3) Duration, (4) Sid11U-Uy fJu111l::., dr1U (5) Route Plan. d Inspect the members of the patrol for completeness of uniforms, operational readiness and all government-issued equipment (firearms, mobile car, radio, 0 +,.... +,-,, <:>nc-11ro +hot tho<:>o '>ro _,,,,.11_m-:::11n+o1norl o::>nrl nrnnorh1 '1c.-orl h" <> P-:>trnl-·-I·--•·--·- .. ,_,_.,___ - - ··-·· ,,,_,,,._,,,__ -··- l"'-1"-''J - - - - -J - • _ _._, Officer, e Conduct briefing prior to dispatch by d1ssemlnat1ng any orders. directives or instructions from the Chtef of Po!lce or higher authont1es and new policy or gtJ1del1nes being 1mnlemenh~rl by the PNP Organ1zat1on g Render hourly rep[ort of location and s1tuat1on through radio/telephone/cellphone to Police Community Precinct (PCP)/Stat1on Headquarters Tactical Operation Center (TOC); Conduct debriefing after the patrol to assess its conduct and make necessary corrective measures on defects noted 43-47 Rule 9 3 Duties of Patrol Officer b Observe and monitor public gatherings, prevent disorders and disperse unlawtul assemblies, e Check suspicious vehicles (private, public, or commerc1al/del1very vehicles) along main roads/highways in the course of their patrol: y Preve11l t..11rr1e~ ar1U dflt::::.i :s1yi1it::U idW v1uiolu1::., d~~u1111y U1e fJuUltt.. il1di fJt:Ji:it..t: is preserved.
  • 83. h Conduct regular v1s1tat1ons, d1a!ogues/consultat!ons with the residents and ,.,,+hnr c-+..,,i.-oh,.../rlnrc- '-'" '"'' .....~., ...........~ ........., 1 Assist personnel of responsible agenc1es/un1t 1n fac1l1tat1ng the flow of traffic at busy intersections/roads w1th1n his Area of Responslb1l1ty (AOR), assist and provide pedestrian Information such as directions and street !ocatlons 48-56 Rule 9 4 Gwdel1nes and Procedures when Responding to Calls for Police Assistance 9 4a Gather and note down 1n the patrol officer's logbook all available data as to the nature of the calls, date, time and name of the caller. It may be regular, urgent or emergency 1n nature 9 4b The manner of approach will be dependent on the nature of the call. either with haste/secrecy or vv1th/vv1thout flashing lights and sirens, 9 4d Stop the patrol car some distance from the scene, 9.4e Approach the scene on foot in complete silence and exercising extreme caution; 9 41 lrrirrrer..iidieiy alierrU iu lire: 11rJureU, urrie:::.:::. Ure uiirl::'.!r rrrerrrUe1:::. ul ii re µairui are 1n immediate danger, 9 4g Focus all efforts to arrest criminals, however, pnonty shall be given to aiding the injured, 9_4J When responding to street fights/brawls, the patrol member should call for back-up before 1nterven1ng If there are no 1n1unes and insufficient corroborative statements obtained to 1dent1fy who started the fight, disperse the crowd and make complete notes, 9 41 When responding to calls for police assistance due to planted or found explosives, never attempt to handle, move or lift the object. Instead contact Operations Center and request for Explosive Ordnance Disposal Tearn (EODT) On-lookers must be promptly led to safe distance away from Hie scene. 9.4m When responding to calls from owners of beerhouses, bars and inns or any other s1m1lar establishments dunng night time, request the owner to put the lights on first before entering the establishments, !::! 4n uo not attempt to arbitrate and resolve cont1rcts/d1tterences between neighbors, landlords/tenants. husband and wife, Rule 1O Spot Cl1ecks/Accost1ng and Pat-Down Searches 'Jt Rui~ iG 2 Sµui. Cir~c..,K/AL;i..;u:::.iu1~ a(3) Before approaching more than one '1nd1vidual, police officers should determine whether the circumstances warrant a request for back-up and whether spot check/accosting can and should be delayed until such back-up arnves 58. Rule 1O 2 Spot Check/Accosting b Body Frisk/Pat-Down Search - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
  • 84. a. as may be necessary to prevent any violence. b as may be reasonable to prevent or repel an aggression c as may be necessary and reasonable to prevent or repel an aggression d All of the above e. None of the above 142. The matter of determining whether a strike, picket or lockout 1s legal or not should be left to the ~~--~~ a. Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE) and its appropriate agencies b. Philippine Overseas Employment Agency (POEA) c. National Labor Relations Commission (NLRC) d. All of the above e. None of the above 143. Whenever escorts are to be provided, all escorts shall ______ a. be provided to any of the parties to the controversy even without written request from DOLE. b. not inform the other party accordingly. c. be in prescribed uniform at al! times. d. All of the above e. None of the above 144. The pertinent prov1s1ons of the Public Assembly Act of 1985 (Batas Pambansa Bilang 880), the Labor Code of the Philippines, as amended and other applicable laws, shall be observed during rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other public assemblies Law enforcement agents shall, at all times a. exercise minimum tolerance b. in case of unlawful aggression, force is employed to prevent or repel it c the employment of tear gas and water cannons shall be made even without the control and superv1s1on of the Ground Commander d. All of the above e. None of the above 145. The peace-keeping detail shall not be stationed ______ a. In the picket line b. In such manner that their presence may deter the commission of criminal acts or any untoward incident from either side c. within 50-meter radius from the picket line d All of the above e. None of the above 146. PCINSP PALABAN is the Ground Commander, when he saw that the rallyists are pushing through the barricade of the COM Contingent, he asked the leader of the rallying group to prevent any disturbance or violence. The rally1sts did not listen to the warning and still tried to push their way through As a solution, PCINSP PALABAN immediately ordered the dispersal. Did the Ground Commander made the right decision? a. Yes, because 1t will prevent the situation to escalate into violence
  • 85. b No, because no actual violence occurred to disperse the rallyist. 147. Police contingent monitoring a public assembly may be detailed and stationed at least from the area of activity. a. fifty (50) but not more than one hundred (100) meters away b. one fifty (150) meters away c. one hundred (100) meters away d. fifty (50) meters away 148. An application for permit for a public assembly should be filed at least_ days at the Office of the Mayor before the activity. a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10 149. A public assembly 1n a _____ must have permit from the_____ of the city or municipality. a. public place; governor b. private property; mayor c. public place; mayor d. private property; governor 150 Police officers are allowedio drink alcoholic beverages during peaceful assemblies. a. True b. False 151. It 1s okay to gamble during a peaceful assembly while monitoring the situation. a. True b. False 152. The PNP shall respect and protect human dignity, maintain and uphold the human rights of all persons. a. True b. False 153. Ground Commanders are not responsible in determining whether there is a permit for the holding of the public assembly. a. True b. False 154. Tear gas, smoke grenades, water cannons, or any similar anti-riot device shall be used not only when the public assembly is attended by actual violence. a. True b. False 155. Even when the rallyists and demonstrators become violent and deliberately destruct properties, the use of tear gas, water cannons and other anti-riot devices are still not allowed. a True
  • 86. (8) The individual flees at the sight of a police officer 64 Rule 10 2 Procedures and Gu1del1nes b(4) If the suspect 1s carrying an object such as a handbag, suitcase, briefcase, sack, or other s1m1lar items that may conceal a weapon, the police officer should not open the item but instead put it 1n a place out of the suspect's reach Rule11-12 65-66 Rule 11 Checkprnnts Rule 11 6 General Procedure to be Followed When Checkpoints are Ignored a In the event that checkpoints/roadblocks are ignored and the motorrsts/suspects bumped the roadblock 1n an attempt to elude arrest or avoid inspection, the TL shall immediately contact adjacent units can conduct dragnet operation or police defensive roadblock, while the members of the blocking/pursuing team shall block or pursue the errant fleeing motorist. c In the event that the occupants of the vehicle open fire on the personnel manning the checkpoint, reasonable force to overcome the suspects· aggression may be employed Procedure 1n the conduct of Regular Police Checkpoint h. In the event that the checkpoint 1s ignored, and the occupants of the vehicle open fire on the personnel manning the checkpoint, reasonable force to uver L.Ufl 1e ii 1e ::.u::,µe1...l::i' i:l!:J!:JI e::,::,1ur 1111ay Ue er11µiuyeJ, 67-68 Rule 10 11 Police defensive Roadblock b(2)(g) Police car lights must be turned on at all times during operation, b(2)(1) If the vehicle's windows are heavily tinted and the occupants cannot be coon 1nctr11f't tho rlriHor tr. r.non -::ii! •A11nr/r.,A1c tn h-::n10 -:. f'lo-::ir ,,;<:>At r.f tho___.., ..._,____ ···- -.. ·-· -- -,...- . -·· ·····--··- ·- ,,_._ - -·--· ··-·· -· ..._ 1ntenor vehicle, 69-71 Rule 12. Internal Security Operations Rule 12 1 General Mandate The PNP ls m<=indated to provide active support to the Armed Forces of the Phil1pp1nes (AFP) in Internal Security Operations (ISO) for the suppression of the Communist Terrorist Movement (CTM) and other serious threats to national security (Executive Order No. 546 series of 2006 "Directing the Ph1lipp1nes 1n Internal Security Operations for the Suppression of lnsurgerrcy and Other Serious Threats to National Security, Amending Certain Prov1s1ons of Executive Order No 110 series of 1999 and for Other Purposes") 72-74 Rule 12 2 The PNP in an Active Support Role The PNP shall perform the following b In urban areas, the PNP may assume the lead role 1n ISO against the CTM, other threat groups and organized cnme groups engaged 1n armed offensiveness; c The PNP units may either operate as a single force or as part of Joint PNP- AFP combat operations In both cases, lateral coordination 1s a must; e Spec1frc areas where armed confrontations such as encounter, ambush, raid, l1t..1u1Jctlrur1 <:t11U uil1er ::.11111iar <:tl1uc1iie:,; u(;cu1 Ueiweer1 yuve1r1111~11i fur~e::, (Fi"P ur AFP) and the Communist Terrorists (CTs) shall be treated as a crime scene. The police unit that has jurisdiction over the areas shall conduct the Cnme Scene Investigation (CSI) 75-76. Rule 12.3 Defensive Position P0!~-:::e St~t~0~~. e~pec~2 1 1~, +hr.co !ccated targets of attacks ;n f<:>r_fli 1nrt nr•nrrt1' ·-· ·-··::) ,.... ·~·"J
  • 87. Rule 12 3 (b) Duty station guards shall memorize, internalize and put into nr-::il"tll"O tho 11 ti.onor-:::il nrrlorc.- r.f (J nr 1h1 r.::1 !".lrrl I iL-c.1A1lc.-o tho11 c-h!:>ll ,;;ohM<=iHC" f">;>rrH!"'"'_" __ ,,,_ '. :':'-"-'"'' ~ ..... _._ -· .... ~ ....., ~-- ...... _ .. ,_ ... __ , ... -J _,,...,., ........... J- __ .,, their issued long firearms and ammunition ng/bandol1ers with basic load. 77 ASCP - Advance Security Control Points 78 Rule 12 3 (g) One of the strategies and tactics employed by CTM and other thr.ci.,,+c- nrn11nc< +n "'"'""' .,,,...,...O<'C' +n nAliro. c-t<e>+,,...nc_. i.::- h" "'"'":>r1nn nf DfIDfl'iJ:"D.... ,,......_ :::i·--1"''-' ·- I:'"'"' ...,_...,___ -- r--- ......- ..................., ·- "'} ··-"''"'::;l -· ' ... ,, ,. ' uniforms and that of the other LEAs, hence, personnel assigned 1n the advance security control points shall not allow entry of uniformed groups or any 1ndiv1duals without prior coord1nat1on (1) Exercise sustained vigilance and maintenance of law, order and public safety in ri=:sper:tivP. AOR thro11gh the 1ntens1fiP.rl r,onduc:t of polir.P. v1s1bility p;:itrofs Rule 13-14 79 Rule 13 Arrest Rule 13.1 General Guidelines Rule 13.1 (f) The following are immune from arrest (1) A Senator or Member of the House of Representatives while Congress is in session for an offense punishable by not more than six years of imprisonment, 80. Kute 13 3 Arrest Without Warrant A peace officer or a private person may, without a warrant, arrest a person· Rule 13.3c When a person to be arrested 1s a prisoner who has escaped from a penal establishment or place where he 1s serving final Judgment or temporarily cunfir 1eU wl uie iii~ L«::1::ie 1~ µe11Jir 1y, ur I1a:s e:sc...aµeU while Ueruy ir dll~ler reU Ir urn one confinement are to another, 81. Rule 13.4 Authority of the Arresting Officer when Making an Arrest Rule 13 4a Police officer may summon assistance - A police officer making a 1..,.,Alf• 11 'O>rract m-:iv "arh".>ll" "'' rmmr.n "''°' m>:>n" nar<:>An<:> <:><:> ha rlaomc. no,...o<:>e><:>r/ tr. ,_,,,_, -··--· '''""} ·-·--"J -~ ......_.. -- ···-··1 r---·--··- -- ··- ..,--···- ··------·J ·- assist him 1n affecting arrest 82 Rule 13 5 Procedures Rule 13 5a(5) The police officer need not have a copy of the warrant in his possession ;::it t11e time of the ;:irrest Jf the person to be arrested so req111res the rvarrant shall be shown to the arrested person himself; 83 Rule 13.4 Authority of the Arresting Officer when Making an Arrest Rule 13 4b Right of a police officer to break into building or enclosure - A poltce officer in order to make an arrest with or without warrant, may break into a building or enclosure where the person to be arrested is or 1s reasonably believed to be, 1f he 1s refused admittance thereto after announcing hrs authority and purpose 84 Rule 13 6 Duties of Arresting Officer R~!o ~3 6c Afh8!: '!!C!"r.~r! er ch!!~r!:!n 8~e 8mcng the :;.r~ested eL!epect!e, the arresting officer shall task the Women's and Children's Protection Desk (WCPD) officer or a policewoman who 1s farn11iar with women and children protection desk duties to conduct the pat-down search; 85 Rule 13.7 Physical Examination of Arrested Person/Suspect Rof,..,,ro ,,-,forrnrr-:>f1nn +hr.. norc-nri 'Olrro<:>forl <'.'h".>!I h.,,,110 +ho rif'lht tr. ho ~-·-...·- ................,,,_.,_··· ..._ ,......... _._,.. -...........,......... -··~ .. ··~·- ..._ ··::::i··· -- .......... informed of his nght to demand physical examination by an independent and
  • 88. competent doctor of hts own choice If he cannot afford the services of a doctor r.f hie r.1A1n f'hr.iro ho c:'h".:>11 ho nrr.111rlorl h" tho ~t".:lto >Mith o::i l'Arnnotont ".:lnrl-· ............... _,,_.__, ,,_ -..-.. -- r-·-··--- ..,J ... _ ~--·- ...... - --···r----· .. _,,_ independent doctor to conduct physical exam1nat1on. If the person arrested 1s female, she shall be attended to preferably by a female doctor 86. Rule 14 Search and Seizure Rule 14 1 RBqtJ1sites for the issul'lnce of Search Warrant A search warrant shall be issued only upon probable cause in connection with one spec1f1c offense to be determined personally by the JUdge after the examination under oath or affirmation of the complainant and the witness presented. The search warrant shall particularly describe the place to be searched and the things to be seized which may be anywhere in the Philippines 87-89 Rule 14 2 validity of Search Warrant Rule 14 2a The warrant shall be valid for ten (10) days from date of issuance rnay be served and any day within the said period_ Thereafter, 1t shall be void Kule 14 Lb 1t, 1n tl1e implementation at the search warrant, its object or purpose cannot be accomplished 1n one day, the search can be continued the following day, or days, until completed, provided it is still w1th1n the ten (10)-day validity period of search warrant Ruie 14.2L lf Uu:1 uUj1::1cl uf U1e ~ed1c/1 w<::1rcdrtl cct111iut U1::1 dLL.ur11µii:::.f1t:U w1Urir1 U11::1 ten (10)-day validity period. the responsible police officer conducting the search must file, before the issuing court, an application for the extension of the validity period of said search warrant 90 Rule 14 Search and Seizure P1 do 1 A 1 P<:>n111C'1tot:- fnr +hn l<'C'l l<:>nr.ei r.f ~o,-,rrh 11/':)rr.,,n+ ',_,._. ' ... '"'1-·~·-~~ ·-· ... ~ .....~~~··~~ -· --~-·-·· ........ ~··· Rule 14 1a. The following properties may be the objects of a search warrant: (1) Properties which are the subject of the offense; (2) Stolen, embezzled proceeds, or fruits of the offense, and (3) Objects 1nclud1ng weapons, equipment, and other items used or intP.ndP.rl to hP. used AS th~ meF1ns of committing <'ln offPnSA 91 Rule 14 3 Time of Search The warrant should be served dunng daytime, unless there 1s a provision in the warrant allowing service at any time of the day or night 92 Rule 14 5 Authority of Police Officers when conducting Search In the conduct of search, if after giving notice of his purpose and authority, the police officer 1s refused admittance to the place of search, he may break open any outer or inner door or window or any part of a house or anything therein to implement the warrant or liberate himself or any person lawfully aiding him when unlawfully detained therein 93 Rule 14 6 Proh1b1ted Acts in the Conduct of Search by Virtue of a Search Warrant Rule 14.Ga. Houses, rooms, or other premises shall not be searched except 1n the presence of the lawful occupant thereof or any member of his family or, in the dl.J~er ice ul lf 1e iC1't'te1, 111 'ti 11::1 µre~er !Le ul lwu (L) w'u 1e:::ist:~ ul sull1c1er 1't <:l}:Je <::1r 1U discretion residing in the same locality Rule14.6b Lawful personal properties, papers, and other valuables not specifically 1nd1cated or particular!y described 1n the search warrant shall not be t8!-'..9~ 94 Rule 14 7 Inventory and Delivery of Property Seized
  • 89. 94 Rule 14.7 Inventory and Delivery of Property Seized :J. The po!1ce cff!cer '.'.'ho cor.f!sc2tes propert~' under the '.~!2rrsr.t sha!! lssue 3 detailed receipt of property seized to the lawful occupant of the premises, or in the presence of at least two (2) witnesses of sufficient age and discretion res1d1ng 1n the same locality; c The receipt shall likewise include items seized under the Plain View Doctrine; rl The policP- officRr must then le.Ave Fl receipt 1n the placP 1n which he found the seized property and a duplicate copy thereof with any barangay off1c1al having jurisdiction over the place searched, and e The police officer must forthwith deliver the property seized to the Judge who issued the warrant, together with an inventory thereof, duly verified under oath Rule 15-16 95-99 Rule 15. Jnvest1gatlon by the Territorial Police Unit After an Armed Confrontation 15.1 Responsibility of the Territorial Police Unit The Police Unit that has territorial 1urisd1ction over the area where the armed confrontation occurred shall secure the scene and 1mmed1ately undertake the necessary investigation. !5 3<:1 Aii lut:t:Hlf!!:>, i:.:<::1ri1iUye~ c:111U ::.iuy:::. ~eiLeU, i:.:<::1µlu1c:U u1 rei:.:uve1eU Uurutg checkpoints or pursuit operations or in any other police operations or 1n any other police operations including those seized during the service of warrants and, more importantly, those recovered from the crime scene shall immediately be submitted to the local Crime Laboratory (CLO) which shall in turn process it for capturing and r-rnc-c-_rn_,,t,...hinn thrn11nh tho J.,h::•nr-:>tor-1 Rcil11c-tif"'C' lrlont1fif"'"3tinn Qlc-torn /IRfQ -...·-~- ···-·-·····:::> ...._....,,,.. .,,_ ····-:::>·-·-.... __............,.... ·~-... .._...__,,...,,, _.J._.,....... ,.~ ..... , 100 Rule 16 Jud1c1al Affidavit Rule This rule shall apply to all actions, proceedings, and incident requiring the reception of evidence before the court in place of the direct test!mon1es of witnAssP.s in order to rP.rlt1c:e thP. time neP.ded for completing their tP.stimon1es 101 Rule 16 1 Application of Rule to Criminal Actions This rule sha!I apply to all cnm1na! actions where the maximum imposable penalty does not exceed six years 102. Rule 16 2 Contents of jud1c1al Affidavit a The name age, residence or business address, and occupation of the witness, , b The name and address of the lawyer who conducts or supervises the exam1nat1on of the witness and the place where the examination is being held, c. A statement that the witness 1s answering the questions asked of him fully conscious that he does so under oath, and that he may face cnm1na! liability for false testimony or perjury, e The signature of the witness over his printed name, Ruit:! i 7-20 103-104 Rule 17. Maintenance of Pohce Blotter 17.1 Police Blotter Each PNP operating unit shall ma1nta1n an official police blotter where all types cf cper2t1on2! 2rd urdercover d!sp:::!tcf"!es sha!l be recorded cont2!ntng the five "Ws" (who, what, when, where and why) and one "H" (how) of an information -----·-------
  • 90. 105. Rule 17.4 Blotter Procedure Before entry !nto the b!otter book, the Duty Officer (DO) should first evaluate 1f the report 1s a crime incident, arrest or event activity, which 1s for records purposes only If the report 1s a crime incident, the DO shall first accomplish the Incident Record Form (IRF) from which the entry 1n the blotter book and IRS shall be extracted All other reports shall be recorded directly to the blotter book (PNP SOP No 2012-001 "Incident Recording System") 106 Rule 17 2 Police Blotter for Cases 1nvolv1ng Women and Children A separate Police Blotter, however, shall be maintained for a crime incident reports 1nvolv1ng violence against women and children and those cases 1nvolv1ng a child 1n conflict with the law to protect their privacy pursuant to Republic Act (RA) 9262 (Ant1-V1olence Against Women and Children Act of 2004) and RA 9344 (Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006), respectively 107 Rule 17 3 Crime Incident Reporting System (CIRS) Each PNP operating unit shall also maintain and utilize the PNP Crime Incident Keport1ng System (Cll-<S), an electronic reporting system that tac1r1tates crime documentation, modernizes data storage and provides quick and re!1ab!e transm1ss1on of cnme 1nformat1on from lower units and NOSUs of the PNP to the National Headquarters at Camp Crame, Quezon City. I 08 Rule 18 3 R(:jt:.ur ding a Incident Reports All crime 1nc1dents whether reported by the victims, witnesses or third parties must be recorded 1n the police blotter, even under the following circumstances (1} A/hen the offender 1s !!! and !S un!!ke!y to recover or !S too sen!le or too mentally disturbed for proceedings to take place, (2) When the complainant or an essential witness 1s dead and the proceedings cannot pursued, (3) When the v1ct1m or an essential witness refuses, or is permanently unable to stand as a witness. and (4) The victim or complainant or witness 1s a minor 109 Rule 19 Booking of Arrested Suspects Rule 19.1 a. General Policy After arrest, a suspect 1s taken into police custody and "booked"· or "processed." Dunng booking, the following procedures shall be periormed by designated police officers (1) Record the arrest made in the Police Blotter, (2) Conduct pat down or strip search of the suspect, (3) Submit the suspect for medical examination; (4) Take the criminal suspect's personal information (i e name, date of birth, physical characteristics, etc) (5) Record information about the suspect's alleged cnme, (6) Periorm a record search of the suspects cnm1nal background, (7) Fingerprint and photograph the suspect, (8) Take custody of any personal property carried by the suspect (1.e. keys, µu1:::o(:j), iu Ue 1eiur11eU uµon U1e .susµee;t's rtd8<:1.S8, dr1J (9) Place the suspect in a police station lock-up/holding cell or local Jail 110 Rule 19 2c The Desk Officer shall U1en prepare of accomplish PNP Booking Form (PfJPBF}-1 "Request for ~.qed!ca! Examination of the .A.rrested Suspect" The Desk Officer shall l1ave the police station Officer on Duty (OD) to sign the request form himself
  • 91. 111 Rule 19.2~ Tr.e 0~~; ~'"''.'8S!~;;3tar sh2!! prep2re 2 Tur~-0'.'8r Receipt Farm lnvest1aato1 to tre Jai:er) known as PNP Booking Form-3 (fr.m 1·~· .. T-ie 01 shall also be responsib!e for ensuring that the suspects' •119eror1nts or tenonnts are taken by the Fingerprint Technician using both the :enpnnt card and the PNPBF-2 113 Rule 19 2J The Investigator shall be responsible for preparing for preparing the necessary documents such as. Aff1davit-complaint, Affidavit of witness, booking and arrest report: photo copy of recovered evidence 1f any, and a letter of case referral to the Prosecutor's Office that should be signed by the Station Commander or police station Officer on Duty with the farmer's unavailability 114 Rule 20 Custodial Investigation (Answer. d. all of the above) 115 Rule 20 1e(3) Failure of the arresting officer, or the 1nvest1gator, to observe the rror:P.dtJrP.s 1n tF1k1ng P.xtrF1jurl1r:ir=il confession sh;=ill renrler the r:onfpsslon 1nadm1ss1ble as evidence in any proceeding 116 Rule 20 1g After interrogation, the person under custodial 1nvest1gat1on shall have the right to be informed of his right to demand physical examination by an independent and competent doctor of his own choice If he cannot afford the services of a doctor of his own choice, he shall be provided by the State with a competent and independent doctor to conduct physical examination. lf the person arrested 1s female, she shall be extended to preferably by a female doctor. 117 Rule 20.3a If transported by a patrol 1eep, the subject must be seated on the right rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject Hands of the subject should be secured by handcuffs under his knees Rule 2G.3c. ln no case shall a Detention Prisoner be transported using public ut1l1ty land vehicles that are not exclusively utilized for the purpose. 118 Rule 20.2d (":i. lieitf're '"o-:>rinn tho f'Alf'r r1f tho rlot.,,in.c::::.o'e 11niff'rm e>h-:>11 ho .,,,..i,,;,,,<::i,..r tf' 1-1 ··-··-·- ··--""::) --·- --·-· -· ···- --·-···-- - ~· .. ·-···· - .. - •• - - - - · · - - - ·- wear other colors, (4) The custodial center, an informal and temporary penal facility for arrested suspects, shall not al!ow conjugal v1s1ts for detention prisoners; (7) All visitors shall be frisked for deadly weapons, firearms and other rrohihitP.d IfP.mS 119 Rule 21 Inquest Procedures Rule 21.1 Commencement of Inquest a. Affidavit of Arrest, b. Statement(s) of the complainant(s), c. Alf1dav1t(s) of the witness(es) if any; and
  • 92. - O!PEr supporting evidence gathered by law enforcement authorities in ~ho ,...,...,, ,,.,,,.o nf +hotr 1nuoC"tin.,,,tinn ,.-.,f +ho f"r1rnin""I 1nf"1rlo.-.t 1n, 1,.-.,1.,inn +ho •''"" "'"'"''"'"' "'' ••• ...,.. "'""'"'"'::l......,..,•. ...,, ••• ..., ...,,,,, .......... "'"''"'"''•• .,, • ...,.....~ ... ~ arrested person '2G Art 125 of RPG Delay 1n the delivery of detained persons to the proper Judicial authorities.- The penalties provided 1n the next preceding article shall be imposed llpon thP. r11b!1r. offir.P.r or P.mr!oyP.P. who ShMll dP.t8in Finy !'P.rson for some leg<'ll ground and shall fail to deliver such person to the proper ;ud1c1al authorities w1th1n the period of; twelve (12) hours, for crimes or offenses punishable by light penalties, or their equivalent: eighteen (18) hours, for crimes or offenses punishable by correctional penalties or their equivalent and thirty-six (36) hours, for crimes, or offenses punishable by affl1ct1ve or capita! penalties, or therr equivalent. 121 Rule 22 1a The first police officers to arrive at the crime scene are the First Responders who were dispatched by the local police station/unit concerned after receipt of 1nc1denUflash alarm report 122 Rule 22.6 Polley Gu1del1nes on Processing of Persons Present at the Crime Scene These policy guidelines prescribe the operational procedures in processing and handling persons present at the crime scene; be they the su::,pe<.;ll::>, v1Liirr1::, u1 w1ine::,l::>e::::.. Tiie dirn i::, iu cieariy Uefine puiice cuurl::>e::::. uf actions 1n dealing with persons who, for any reason and personal circumstance, are at the crime scene during the conduct of police operation 123 Rule 22.6b Hostage Negot1at1on Tho fr.U,.-.,,.1inn nrr.f"orl11ro o;-h.,,,11 ho fr.llr.1Mor1rl11rin,-, <:> Wnot"""°' C::it11<:>tinn·. ··- ,..., .. - ..... :;, !"''"" ____ ,..., ..,,,_,, ~- ,..,,,...,., __ --'"'::l ~ ''""'·-::i- .....,. __ .,...,, •. (1) Cns1s management Task Group shall be activated immediately; (2) Incident scene shall be secured and isolated; (3) Unauthorized persons shall not be allowed entry and exit to the incident SCAnA' and (4) Witnesses' names, addresses, and other information shall be recorded Witnesses shall be directed to a safe location 124 Rule 22.5 Duties of Territorial Police Unit a. Provide assistance in the evacuation of the 1niured persons to the nearest hospital; b Provide area security, c. Control the crowd at the crime scene, d Direct the f!ow of traffic away from the crime scene so as not to destroy and contaminate vital evidence, and e. Provide security back-up to the socu. 125 In crisis management, as soon as the perpetrators surrendered, or when they are captured neutralized, the On-Scene Commander shall ensure the accomplishment development of talking points for briefing of the media. 126 Rule 23 Procedures in the Investigation of Heinous and Sensational Crimes The SITGs (Special Investigation Task Group) shall spearhead and coordinate the 1nvest1gative and prosecutonal efforts of the PNP to fac1l1tate the speedy resolution and successful prosecution of heinous/sensational cases to •nf"l11rlo tho ,...,...,nJlf"t1rin ,.,f tho .-.r.:..-hcotr""tr.ro,,,..,, ___ •"- __ ,,,,..,_,_,, -· •"- r-'"''r'"""~·-•V•
  • 93. 127. Rule 23.2a /Jhenev9r e ser!ous cr~!T?e !s committed, the concerned Ch!ef -:of Po!!ce (COP) or Station Command~r shall immediately assess the situation and communicate to the DD/PD/CD the attendant circumstances and its updates which will be the basis of the D)/PD/CD for recommending to the RD whether or not there ts a need to activate the SJTG. 128. Rule 23.2g Every SITG shall have six months to resolve a case from the time 1t takes cognizance of the said case. 129. Rule 23 2b Ccnce!"ned COP or Station (>::)mmender sh2!! bese h~s!her assessment and recommendation on the report of the first responders and his assigned Investigator-on-case The creation of SITG is not necessary for crimes that can be resolved at the said level Otherwise, a District. PPO/CPO level of a SITG shall be organized that will take cognizance of the investigation of heinous and sensational cases in1t1;:illy investigated by the C1ty/MunicipaJ/District Police Stations. 130 Rule 23 1(1) Regional Level (To investigate killings and violence committed against Senators, Congressmen, Govetnors, cabinet Secretaries, Undersecretarres and SC and CA Justices) ' 131 Rule 23.2c( 1) The SITG shall be composed of Investigation Team, Case Record Team, Technical/Legal Support Team, Admin/Log1stics Teams and Evidence Team. 132-133 Rule 23 3g(2) The CIPLAN must be prepared and shall be in the following format (Six Point Plan), Situation. Mission, Execution, Contingency, Adm1n1stration and Logistics, Command, and Communication (SMECAC) 134 Rule 23 31 If the SITG fails to resolve the case within six months or after the extension, the case will be considered a "cold case." 135 Rule 23 m. .ll.!! reccrd£ evidence gathered shall be deactivated under obligation to ensure that all documents, pieces of evidence and any other related materials are accounted and secured
  • 94. November 21, 2014 ',__ ,. Direction: Choose the best answer from the choices given after each question. Rui·.o ·1~3 1. Under Rule 1.1 of the POP, the function of a police officer is ----a. To Serve and Perform b. To Investigate Crimes and Arrest Criminals c. To Serve and Protect d. All of the above e None of the above 2. No police operation shall be conducted in order to ____ a. serve or protect the illegal activity of a particular person b. serve or protect a group or criminal syndicate c defend the personal interests of the powerful d A and B e. None of the above 3. According to Rule 1.2, "All PNP personnel shall respect the human rights and dignity of the suspect/s during--~=-· a. police community relations activities b. police investigation c. police operations d. All of the above e. None of the above 4 Rule 2.1 prescribes that "A police officer shall always wear the agency prescribed uniform which is appropriate for _____ a his rank b for the police station c. the kind of police operation to be undertaken d. All of the above e. None of the above 5. According to Rule 2 2, "When wearing the police uniform, a police officer shall, at all times, appear " a professional, smart and prepared b. presentable, smart and well-groomed c. prepared, smart and accessible d. presentable, skillful and approachable e. None of the above
  • 95. 6 Rule 2.3 states that, "Every police officer on patrol, whether on board a vehicle or on foot patrol, must always carry with him '' a. his badge, firearm and Miranda Warning Card b. a police notebook, a pen and the Miranda Warning Card. c. his whistle, badge and ammunition d. All of the above e. None of the above 7 Which of the following is a public safety operation? a. Counter-Insurgency Operations b. Search, Rescue and Retrieval Operations c. Service of Warrant of Arrest d. None of the above e All of the above 8. Which of the following is a law enforcement operation? a. Implementation of Search Warrant b. Anti-Illegal Drugs Operation c Anti-Carnapping Operations d. None of the above e. All of the above 9. What are included in Intelligence Operation? a. Counter lnte!l1gence Operation b. Surveillance Operation c. Intelligence Research d. All of the above e. None of the above 1O Internal Security Operation includes ______ a Counter-Insurgency Operations b. Counter Terrorist Operations c. Anti-Crime Operation d. AandB e. All of the above 11.Which of the following is a Special Police Operation? a. Anti-Illegal Fishing Operation b. Anti-Illegal Gambling Operation c. Hostage Situation Operation d. None of the above e. All of the above -- -- -- - ...-,.,.....,.._·---
  • 96. 12.Who shall file a pre-operational clearance prior to the conduct of the operation? a. Police on duty b. Section Chief of the Police Unit c. Unit Chief or Ground Commander d. Team Leader of the operating team e. None of the above 13.The pre-operational clearance shall be submitted to~----­ a the head of the local government unit for funding purposes b. the Chief of Police for approval c. the operations section/division of the concerned police unit for record purposes d. All of the above e None of the above 14.A pre-operational clearance shall be filed by the Team Leader of the operating team/s prior to the conduct of the operation and shall be approved by a the operations section/division of the concerned police unit b the concerned Police Unit Commander c. the head of the local government unit concerned d. All of the above e. None of the above 15.The pre-operational clearance shall be submitted to the operations section/division of the concerned police unit for _____ a. appropriate action b. approval c record purposes d. All of the above e. None of the above 16. For the purpose of inter-unit coordination, the Team Leaderls (TL) of local police units operating outside their territorial jurisdiction and National Support Units (NSUs) shall coordinate, personally or _____ a. through the Office of the LGU Head (Governor or Mayor) b. through an official representative, with the Police Regional, Provincial or City Police Office within whose jurisdiction the operation is to be conducted c. through the Office of the DSWD d. All of the above e None of the above
  • 97. 17. How should the team leaders communicate in cases where formal inter-unit coordination is not feasible? a. The Police Unit concerned shall endeavor to notify the territorial police -office through any practical/available means of cOmmunication at anytime during the operation. b. The Police Unit shall accomplish and furnish the territorial police office a written incident report immediately after the termination of the operation. c. All of the above d. None of the above 18. Inter-unit coordrnation can be accomplished through _____ a. personal or through an official representative b. filing of Coordination Form c any practical/available means of communication d. written incident report immediately after the termination of the operation e. All of the above 19.A police officer can participate in a Checkpoint Operation even if not in prescribed attire, provided that he is carrying his badge and identification card. a. True b. False c Maybe d. Case to case basis 20. Which of the following are not included in the basic requirements of police operation under Rule 6.1? a. Marked Police Vehrcle b. PNP Personnel in prescribed police uniform or attire c. Led by a Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) d. Ball pen and notebook e. None of the above 21. Choose the correct statement a. A Police Officer should avoid firing warning shots as much as possible, but can do so dependrng on the situation. b. Police Officers are allowed to fire warning shots in order to avoid further violence. c. A Police Officer shall not use warning shots during police intervention operations. d. All of the above e. None of the above 22. Which of the followrng maybe use to warn or rnfluence offenders to stop or peacefully give up during actual police intervention? a. flash light b. warning shot c police baton d. megaphone e. All of the above •
  • 98. -- 23 Before a police officer can use force against an offender, he/she shou!d first a. show his/her weapons in order to discourage violence b. fire warning shot to intimidate the offender c issue a verbal warning in a loud and clear manner d. All of the above e None of the above 24. Which of the following statements is not part of a verbal warning? a. The police officer's intention and what he wants the offender to do. b. Physical threats to the offender. c. The Police Officer identifying himself. d. All of the above e. None of the above 25 Which of the following non-lethal weapons is not allowed to be used to bring a violent suspect under control, or effect an arrest? a. Baton b. Truncheon c pepper spray d. stun gun e. None of the above 26 Where does-reasonableness- of the force employed depends on? a. Number of aggressors b. Nature and characteristics of the weapon used c. Physical condition of the aggressors d. Place and occasion of the assault e. All of the above 27 Which of the following situations warrant the use of reasonable force? a. The offender is cooperative and surrenders peacefully. b. The offender is unarmed, but is verbally insulting the police officer. c The offender has a pistol and is running away from the police officer: d. The offender is armed with an ice pick and is running towards the police officer. e. All of the above 28. Which of the following scenarios is not justifiable on the use of firearms? a. Unruly group of persons destroying properties and threatens passersby. b. A man holding a knife threatens to kill anyone who will approach him. c. Armed robbers fleeing the scene of the crime 1n a vehicle carrying millions of cash. d. An armed suspect onboard a vehicle ignored a checkpoint and run over the barricade. e. All of the above
  • 99. 29 Which of the following is not part of the procedures after an armed confrontation? a. Secure the site of confrontation; b. Evacuate the wounded to the nearest hospital; c Submit After-Operations Report; d. Media briefing; e. Take photographs; 30.A police officer who fires his service firearm or weapon during a confrontation with an offender or offenders must submit _____ a. himself to a ballistics test b. an incident report outlining the circumstances necessitating the use of his firearm c. an incident report justifying his action d. A and B only e. All of the above 31. The police officer's use of firearm is justified in the following conditions, except one which is - - - - a. if the offender poses imminent danger of causing death or injury to the police officer or other persons b. self defense c defense of a relative d defense of a stranger e. None of the above 32. You are tailing a suspicious vehicle and have come across an intersection on red light. The suspicious vehicle ignores the red light What would you do? a. Ignore the red light and pursue the vehicle. b. Stop on the red light, taking note of the suspect vehicle's direction of. travel and plate number. c. Cancel the pursuit and resume patrol d Report the vehicle make, model, color and plate number to HQ 33. Which of the following individuals can serve as a good source of information on a patrol? a. Frequent loiters (Tambays) b. Stay-in employees of local establishments c. Random by standers d. All of the above e. None of the above 34 You stopped a suspicious individual on the street and you are asking for his identification. What would you do next? a. Secure the individual using handcuffs while you search his/her belongings for contraband. b. Shout at the individual to hand over identification quickly.
  • 100. c. Wait patiently for the individual to present proper identification. d. Ask bystanders for the individual's name. 35. While checking suspicious places especially during nighttime, a police officer should be prepared to use his service firearm. a. True b. False 36. When patrolling at night, patrol officers should not observe the shaking of doors of unguarded establishments at night to check for intrusions. a. True b False 37. Before starting a patrol, the patrol supervisor makes a patrol plan. a. True b. False 38 Patrol teams should be briefed before dispatch. a. True b. False 39. Checking of uniforms and equipment checks are the responsibility of patrol team buddies. a. True b. False 40. Hourly reports are not necessary when a patrol team does not encounter anything s1gn1f1cant in their patrol. a. True b. False 41. Debriefings are conducted after the patrol to assess its conduct and make necessary corrective measures on defects noted. a. True b. False 42. Which of the following does NOT belong in a patrol plan? a. Route p!an b. Stand-by points c. Area coverage d. Detail of Personnel e. None of the above 43. The patrol officer has the authority to disperse unlawful assemblies a True b. False 44. Suspicious vehicles parked along main roads should not be checked for possible explosives or other dangers. a. True b. False
  • 101. 45 Patrol officers should arrest law violators on sight upon the commission of the crime. a True b. False 46.A patrol officer assists personnel of responsible agencies/unit in facilitating the flow of traffic at busy intersections/roads within his AOR. a True b. False 47. During patrol, an officer should not re-visit locations that have already been patrolled. a. True b. False 48. When responding to a lifewthreatening emergency call, an officer should arrive at the scene-~~-- a. driving with haste using sirens and flashing lights b driving cautiously without sirens and flashing lights c. driving an unmarked vehicle d driving as fast as possible e. All of the above 49 Upon arrival at the scene, a police officer should prioritize ____ a arresting the criminals b. aiding the injured c. gathering evidences d. All of the above e None of the above 50 When the situation calls for a discreet approach, the officer should a. stop the patrol car some distance from the scene and approach the scene on foot, in complete silence and exercising extreme caution b. park the patrol car directly in front of the scene c avoid using a patrol car to gain the element of surprise d. call for a SWAT Team 51 Upon arrival at the scene with no wounded person involved, an officer should always focus on arresting the criminals a. True b. False 52. When responding to street fights, a patrol officer should immediately intervene to break up the fight. a. True b. False
  • 102. ';, 53. When responding to calls for police assistance, a police officer should always a. gather and note down in the patrol officer's logbook all available data as to the nature of the calls, date,time and name of the caller b. determine the crime committed c. identify and question briefly the victim/complainant and possible witnesses d. All of the above e. None of the above 54. When responding to calls due to found explosives in the area, the police officer should never attempt to handle, move or lift the object. Instead contact Operations Center and request for EODT. a True b. False 55 When responding to domestic conflicts between neighbors, a police officer should immediately try to resolve the conflict to avoid further tension a. True b. False 56 When responding to calls from owners of beerhouses bars or inns or any other similar establishments during night time, police officers should ask the owner of the establishment to turn on the lights before entering the establishment a True b. False 57.A police officer can perform a spot check on individuals without determining whether the circumstances warrant a request for backup. a. True b. False 58.A police officer can perform a pat-down search without due caution, restraint, and sensitivity in a crowded area. · a. True b False 59 Visual indicators that a suspect is carrying a firearm is reason enough for a pat-down search. a. True b. False 60. Before performing a spot check, a police officer should read out the person's rights under the Miranda Doctrine. a. True b. False 61. Whenever possible, pat-down searches should be conducted by at least two (2) police officers, one to perform the search while the other provides protective cover. a. True b. False
  • 103. 62. Which of the following are not what a police officer should do when performing a spot check? a. Wait for back-up when dealing with potentially dangerous circumstances. b. Remain vigilant for suspicious movements like attempting to retrieve weapon. c. Shall be courteous at all times but maintain caution. d. Inquire about the person's identity. e. None of the above 63 Which of the following 1s not a suspicious behaviour that can be a ground for a spot check? a. The individual flees at the sight of a Police Officer. b. The individual 1s wearing a jacket and dark shades. c The individual is in the vicinity of a recent crime. d. Questionable presence of the individual in the area. e. None of the above 64. If a suspect is carrying a backpack, the officer should first check the contents of the bag for weapons or contraband. a. True b. False 65. In the event that a checkpoint is ignored and the motorist bumped the roadblock in an attempt to elude arrest or avoid inspection, PNP personnel are allowed to give warning shots. a. True b. False c Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 66. In the event that the occupants of the vehicle open fire/engage the troops manning the roadblock, use only necessary force to neutralize the suspects. a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 67 Police car lights must be turned on at all times during a roadblock operation. a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis
  • 104. •.. 68. If the vehicle's windows are heavily tinted and the occupants cannot be seen, shoot the windows of the car. a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e On a case to case basis 69 What agency is mandated to provide active support to the AFP in ISO? a. Department of the Interior and Local Government b. Philippine National Police c. National Bureau of Investigation d. All of the above e. None of the above 70. What Executive Order directs a specific agency to undertake active support to the AFP in ISO for the suppression of insurgency? a. Executive Order No. 423 b. Executive Order No. 546 c. Executive Order No. 653 d. All of the above e. None of the above 71 What is the meaning of CTM? a. Communist Terrorist Maneuver b. Communist Terror Management c Communist Terrorist Movement d. All of the above e. None of the above 72 The PNP may assume the lead role in ISO against the CTM, other threat groups and organized crime groups engaged in armed offensives in urban areas. a. True b. False c Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 73 PNP units can operate as a single force and lateral coordination with the AFP 1s not a must. a. True b False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis
  • 105. / ' / ' 74.Specific areas where armed confrontations occurred between government forces and Commun1st Terrorist such as encounter, ambush, raid, liquidation and other similar atrocities shall be treated as a crime scene. a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 75 What are considered as priority targets of attacks by CTs? a. Mobile Units b. Police Stations c. Headquarters Office d All of the above e None of the above 76. Duty station guards shall memorize and put into practice the __ General Orders of a Duty Guard. a 10 b 11 c 12 d. 13 e 14 77. What is the meaning of ASCPs? a. Advanced Security Control Points b. Advanced Security Control Perimeter c. Advanced Security Control Panel d. All of the above e. None of the above 78. CTM members can be easily identified by PNP/AFP Forces as well as other . LEAs; thus, coordination and conduct of police visibility patrols can be done in a random manner. a True b False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 79.A police officer cannot arrest a member of the Senate in their home while the Congress 1s 1n session with an offence punishable by more than six years imprisonment. a. True b. False
  • 106. 80.Any person can perform a warrantless arrest on an individual who has escaped from prison. a. True b. False 81 Bystanders can be summoned for assistance by a police officer making a lawful arrest. a. True b False 82 A copy of the warrant of arrest for an individual should always be present when executing an arrest a True b. False 83. When a police officer is denied entry to a building when serving a warrant of arrest, he does not have the right to forcefully enter and should instead wait for backup a. True b False 84 When arresting women or children, the arresting officer should call for a WCPD officer or a policewoman to effect an arrest. a True b. False 85. Before interrogation, the person arrested shall have the right to be informed of his right to demand physical examination by an independent and competent doctor of his own choice a. True b False 86.A search warrant shall be issued only upon probable cause in connection with ______ to be determined personally by the judge after examination · under oath or affirmation of the complainant and the witnesses presented a one specific offense b. two offenses c multiple offenses d. All of the above e None of the above 87. What is the validity period of a search warrant from the date of issuance? a Seven (7) days b. Ten (10) days c. One (1) Month d All of the above e. None of the above 88. If the object or purpose of the search warrant cannot be accomplished within the ten (10)-day validity period, the responsible police officer conducting the search must ____
  • 107. / .,,.,,,,,.~ ..--.__ ""-·· .__ ·- a continue even beyond the validity period of the search warrant b. file before the issuing court another search warrant of the same object or purpose c file before the issuing court an application for the extension of the validity period of said search warrant d. All of the above e. None of the above 89 Jf. in the implementation of the search warrant, its object or purpose cannot be accomplished in one day, the search can be continued provided 1t is still within the ten (10) validity period of the search warrant. a. the following day, or days, b. until completed, c. upon approval of the COP d A and B only e. None of the above 90 What are the properties that may be the objects of a search warrant? a Properties which are the subject of the offence. b Ob1ects that are illegal per se, even 1f not particularly described in the search warrant, may be seized under the plain view doctrine c. Objects 1nclud1ng weapons, equipment, and other items used as means of comm1tt1ng an offense. d. All of the above e. None of the above 91 When can a Police Officer serve a search warrant 1n normal circumstances? a. Anytime b. Daytime c. Nighttime d All of the above e. None of the above 92. In the conduct of search, 1f after giving notice of his purpose and authority, the police officer 1s refused admittance to the place of search, which of the following may be done by the implementing police officer? a. He may break open any outer or inner door or window therein to implement the warrant. b. He may break open any part of a house or anything therein to implement the warrant. c. Liberate himself or any person lawfully aiding him when unlawfully detained therein. d. All of the above e. None of the above 93. Which of the following are prohibited acts in the conduct of search by virtue of a Search Warrant? a Houses, rooms, or other premises shall be searched in the presence of the lawful occupant thereof or any member of his family.
  • 108. .. / b. Houses, rooms, or other premises shall be searched tn the presence of two (2) witnesses of sufficient age and discretion residing in the same locality. c Lawful personal properties. papers, and other valuables not specifically indicated or particularly described in the search warrant shall not be taken. d. All of the above e. None of the above 94 Which of the following 1s a lawful act of a police officer who confiscates properties with a valid search warrant? a Bundle of cash hidden in a closed cabinet near the table where the object of the warrant was recovered. b. Confiscation of lawful personal properties, papers and valuables not indicated in the warrant. c The police officer delivers the property seized to the chief of office who requested for the issuance of the search warrant, together with an inventory thereof, duly verified under oath d. The police officer issues a detailed receipt of property seized to the /awful occupant of the premises e All of the above 95 Which of the following is responsible for investigating armed confrontation? a. The police officers that are involved in the confrontation b. The Special Weapons and Tactics Team. c. The Territorial Police Unit. d. All of the above e. None of the above 96. When strictly observing the the chain of custody, as much as practicable the investigator-on-case (IOC) shall personally submit the recovered firearms/shells/slugs to the ____ a. Chief of Police b Prosecutor's Office c local Crime Laboratory d. None of the above e. All of the above 97. Why are bullet cartridges and slugs recovered from the scene of the armed confrontation be immediately submitted to the Crime Laboratory? a. The bullets need to be cleaned and reloaded for re-use b. For capturing and cross matching through IBIS. c. Slugs and cartridges might be picked-up by civilians in the area d. None of the above e. All of the above
  • 109. / I 98. IBIS is used for capturing and cross-matching firearms and slugs What does IBIS mean? a. Internal Budget Inspection Section b. Integrated Bal and Inspection System c. International Ballistics Information System d. Integrated Ballistics Identification System e. None of the above 99.According to Rule 15.1, "The Police Unit that has territorial jurisdiction over the area where the armed confrontation occurred shall " a call the Scene of the Cnme Operation (SOCO) Team immediately b. immediately undertake investigation and secure evidence. c. secure the scene and immediately undertake the necessary investigation d. report the crime and call for back-up e. All of the above 100 The Judicial Affidavit Rule applies to--,---~- a all cnmrnal actions where the maximum imposable penalty does not exceed six years b all criminal actions where the imposable penalty exceeds six years c all criminal actions where the minimum imposable penalty 1s six years d. All of the above e None of the above 101 A Judicial Affidavit contains all of the following except, a the name, age, residence or business address, and occupation of the witness b. the name and address of the lawyer who conducts or supervises the examination of the witness and the place where the examination is being held c. a statement that the witness is answering the questions asked of him, fully conscious that he does so under oath, and that he may face criminal liability for false testimony or perjury d. the signature of a judge e. None of the above 102 The Jud1c1al Affidavit Rule shall apply to all criminal actions where the maximum impossible penalty does not exceed six years. a True b False : .'r_r:, 1 , _ 103 What 1s a Police Blotter? a A Police Blotter is where all types of operational and undercover dispatches shall be recorded containing the five "Ws" (who, what, where, when and why) and one "H" (how) of an information
  • 110. 104. b A Police Blotter is a logbook that contains the daily registry of all crime c d. a. b c d e. incident reports, official summaries of arrest, and other significant events reported in a police station. All ofthe above None of the above How many Police Blotter are being maintained by the Police Stations? One Two Three All of the above None of the above 105. The PNP e-Blotter is fully discussed in the -~-~~ a. PNP SOP Nr 2012-001 ("Crime Incident Reporting System") b PNP SOP Nr 2012-001 ("Incident Recording System") c. PNP SOP Nr 2002-001 ("Incident Reporting System") d. All of the above e None of the above 106. A separate police blotter shall be maintained for crime incident reports involving violence against women and children and those cases involving child in conflict with law to protect their privacy, pursuant to what particular RA? a RA 6292 and RA 9334 b RA 9262 and RA 9344 c. RA 9344 and RA 9226 d. All of the above e. None of the above 107 Each PNP operating unit shall also maintain and utilize the PNP Crime Incident Reporting System (CIRS), generically dubbed as e-Blotter, an electronic reporting system that _____ a. facilitates crime documentation b modernizes data storage c. provides quick and reliable transmission of crime information from lower units and NOSUs of the PNP to the National Headquarters at Camp Crame, Quezon City d All of the above e. None of the above 108 All crime incidents whether reported by the victims, witnesses or third parties must be recorded in the police blotter, even under the following circumstances: ______ a. When the offender is ill and is unlikely to recover or 1s too senile or too mentally disturbed for proceedings to take place; b. When the complainant or an essential witness is dead and the proceedings cannot be pursued; c. The victim or complainant or witness is a minor;
  • 111. ,.. d. All of the above e None of the above 109. After an arrest, a suspect is taken into police custody and "booked" or "processed". During booking, which of the following is not a procedure to be performed by the designated police officers? a. Record information about the suspect's alleged crime: b. Perform a record search of the suspect's criminal background; c. Take custody of any personal property carried by the suspect (i.e keys, purse) and turn it over the operation section; d. All of the above e. None of the above 11 O Who should prepare or accomplish PNP Booking Form- 1 "Medical Examination of Arrested Suspects Request Form"? a Desk officer b Duty investigator c Duty officer d All of the above e. None of the above 111 Who should prepare a Turn-over Receipt Form (from Investigator to the Jailer) known as PNP Booking Form-3 "Turn Over of Arrested Suspect/s Form and "Jailer's Receipt of Suspects" form? a Desk officer b Duty investigator c. Duty officer d. All of the above e. None of the above 112. Who is responsible for ensuring that the suspects' fingerprints or tenprints are taken by the Fingerprint Technician using the PNPBF-2C "Tenpnnt Card"? a. Desk officer b. Duty investigator c Duty officer d. All of the above e None of the above 113. The Investigator shall be responsible for preparing the necessary documents except for----~ a affidavit-complaint b affidavit of witness c. Request for Medical Examination of the Arrested Suspect d. booking and arrest report e All of the above 114. What are the duties of the police during custodial investigation? a The arresting officer, or the investigator as the case may be, shall ensure that a person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation shal!, at all times, be assisted by counsel, preferably of his own choice.
  • 112. b The arresting officer, or the investigator as the case may be, must inform the person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation of his rights under the Miranda Doctrine in a language or dialect known to and understood by him. c. lf the person arrested, detained, or under custodial investrgation has opted to give a sworn statement, the arresting officer, or the investigator, as the case may be, must reduce it 1n writing d All of the above e. None of the above 115 Failure of the arresting offrcer, or the investigator, to observe the procedures in taking extrajudicial confession shall render the confession as evidence in any proceeding. a Admissible b Valid c. Inadmissible d. None of the above 116 Which of the following statements 1s not true about the rights of a person under custodial investigation? a After interrogation, the person under custodial investigation shall have the right to be informed of his right to demand physical examination by an independent and competent doctor of his own choice. b Jf he cannot afford the services of a doctor of his own choice, he shall be provided by the State with a competent and independent doctor to conduct physical examination. c. The physical examination of the person under custodial investigation shall be contained in a medical report, which shall be attached to the custodial investigation report. d. All of the above e. None of the above 117 Which of the following statements is true about transporting a detained prisoner? a If transported by a patrol ieep, subject must be seated on the right rear seat and the PNP escort personnel shall sit on the right rear seat beside the subject b. Hands of the subject should be secured by handcuffs under his seat. c. Detention Prisoner can be transported using public utility land vehicles. d. All of the above e. None of the above 118. Which of the following statements is true about visitation of prisoners? a. The Custodial Center, an informal and temporary penal facility for arrested suspects, shall not allow conjugal visits for detention prisoners b Visitors wearing the color of the detainee's uniform shall be advised to wear other colors. c All visitors shall be frisked for deadly weapons, firearms and other prohibited items.
  • 113. ....,, ' d. All of the above e None of the above 119 The following documents shall be submitted by concerned police officer during inquest proceedings, except-~~-- a. affidaviVs of the witness/es if any b. statement/s of the complainant/s c. affidavit of arrest d All of the above e. None of the above 120 Within what time should arrested murder suspects be delivered to the proper Judicial authorities? a. 15 hrs b. 12 hrs c. 36 hrs d 18 hrs 121. The first police officers to arrive at the crime scene are the who were dispatched by the local police station/unit concerned after receipt of 1ncident!flash/alarm report. a. SOCO b. Duty Investigator c. First Responders d. Investigator-On-Case (IOC) e. None of the above 122. The Policy Guidelines on processing of persons present at the cnme scene apply to all, except for the _____ a. Suspects b. victims c. witnesses d All of the above e. None of the above 123. According to Rule 32, the following procedures shall be followed during a hostage situation, except for one which is _____ a. a Critical Incident Management Committee shall be activated immediately b. the Local Chief Executive shall take the lead c. incident scene shall be secured and isolated d. unauthorized persons shall not be allowed entry and exit to the incident scene e None of the above 124. Which of the following 1s not included in the duties of the territorial police units specified under rule 22.5?
  • 114. a. Provide assistance 1n the evacuation of the injured persons to the nearest hospital; b Provide area security, c Provide security back-up to the SOCO d Control of the crowd at the crime scene; e None of the above 125. In crisis management as soon as the perpetrators surrendered, or when they are captured neutralized. the On-Scene Commander shal! ensure the accomplishment of the following except _____ a processing and debriefing of hostages/victims, perpetrators, witnesses; and key participants in the incident b. documentation of the sworn statement of the hostages, victims, perpetrators, witnesses and key participants 1n the incident c. development of talking points for the briefing of the media. d. the venue of the processing, debriefing and investigation shall be at a neutral and secured place e. None of the above 126 The SITGs (Special Investigation Task Group) shall spearhead and coordinate the lnvest1gat1ve and prosecutorial efforts of the PNP to facilitate the speedy resolution and successful prosecution of heinous/sensational cases. a True b False c. Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 127. Before activating an SITG, the case must first undergo assessment by the Chief of Police. a. True b. False c Maybe d. Upon approval e On a case to case basis 128 Every SITG shall have five (5) months to resolve a case from the time it takes cognizance of the said case a. True b. False c Maybe d. Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 129 The creation of a SITG 1s not necessary for crimes that can be resolved in the Police Station level. a. True b False c. Maybe d. Upon approval
  • 115. e. On a case to case basis 130 Which of the following cases is not included for investigation in the Regional Level SITG? a. Killing of a CA Justice b. Violence committed against an Undersecretary c. Abduction of a Journalist d. Assassination of a Congressman e. Violence committed against a Governor 131 What are the teams composing the SITG? a. Investigation Team b. Evidence Team c. Technical/Legal Support Team d. All of the above e. None of the above 132. There are only three point plan 1n the CIPLAN. a. True b. False c. Maybe d Upon approval e. On a case to case basis 133. Which of the following is not part of the CIPLAN? a. Contingency b. Execution c Communication d All of the above e. None of the above 134. A case is considered as "cold case" if the SITG fails to resolve it w1th1n a. one (1) month b. two (2) months c three (3) months d. six (6) months e one (1) year 135 The CIDG shall assume the responsibility of pursuing the investigation if the case is not solved by the SITG which has been classified as cold case. a True b. False c Maybe d. Upon Approval e. On a Case to Case Basis